As Passed by the Senate

129th General Assembly
Regular Session
2011-2012
Am. Sub. H. B. No. 487


Representative Amstutz (By Request) 

Cosponsors: Representatives Beck, Blair, Buchy, Combs, McClain, Sears, Sprague, Stebelton, Terhar, Wachtmann 

Senators Bacon, Coley, Eklund, Jones, Lehner, Niehaus 



A BILL
To amend sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.34, 102.02, 103.05, 1
105.41, 107.54, 109.33, 109.57, 109.572, 109.801, 2
119.032, 121.04, 121.08, 121.083, 121.084, 123.01, 3
123.011, 123.07, 123.09, 123.10, 123.101, 123.13, 4
123.14, 123.15, 123.152, 123.17, 123.21, 123.48, 5
123.77, 124.04, 124.06, 124.11, 124.12, 124.14, 6
124.231, 124.241, 124.25, 124.26, 124.27, 124.30, 7
124.31, 125.082, 125.14, 126.14, 135.35, 140.01, 8
140.03, 140.05, 140.08, 145.01, 145.012, 149.43, 9
151.01, 152.18, 152.24, 153.01, 153.011, 153.013, 10
153.02, 153.04, 153.06, 153.07, 153.08, 153.09, 11
153.11, 153.12, 153.14, 153.16, 153.17, 153.502, 12
153.503, 153.53, 154.01, 167.04, 173.14, 173.21, 13
173.23, 173.26, 173.27, 173.391, 173.394, 173.40, 14
173.42, 173.45, 173.46, 185.01, 185.02, 185.03, 15
185.05, 185.06, 185.07, 185.09, 185.12, 189.04, 16
189.05, 189.06, 189.08, 306.04, 306.36, 306.55, 17
307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 313.121, 313.122, 18
313.16, 329.01, 329.40, 329.41, 329.42, 329.43, 19
329.44, 329.45, 329.46, 330.04, 339.091, 340.03, 20
340.05, 340.091, 505.37, 505.375, 505.44, 505.72, 21
705.18, 749.04, 749.05, 749.18, 901.54, 924.51, 22
955.16, 955.26, 991.02, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 23
1315.141, 1317.05, 1321.37, 1321.52, 1321.53, 24
1321.531, 1322.02, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1345.05, 25
1501.04, 1502.01, 1502.02, 1502.03, 1502.04, 26
1502.05, 1502.06, 1502.12, 1502.99, 1503.012, 27
1503.43, 1506.42, 1509.071, 1533.10, 1541.26, 28
1551.33, 1555.02, 1555.03, 1555.04, 1555.05, 29
1555.06, 1707.08, 1707.391, 1724.03, 1733.47, 30
1751.01, 1751.02, 1751.13, 1761.26, 1901.06, 31
1901.18, 1907.13, 1909.11, 1923.01, 1923.02, 32
1923.061, 1923.15, 2151.33, 2151.412, 2151.86, 33
2152.121, 2152.22, 2301.01, 2301.27, 2301.271, 34
2301.571, 2305.01, 2307.89, 2317.02, 2317.422, 35
2317.56, 2501.02, 2503.01, 2743.02, 2743.10, 36
2746.01, 2901.01, 2903.33, 2907.29, 2909.21, 37
2909.28, 2927.023, 2929.01, 2929.19, 2935.01, 38
2935.03, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 39
2945.401, 2961.22, 2967.03, 2967.05, 2967.14, 40
2967.19, 2967.191, 2967.26, 2967.28, 2981.11, 41
2981.14, 3109.14, 3125.41, 3301.55, 3304.16, 42
3304.181, 3304.182, 3305.01, 3305.02, 3305.03, 43
3305.04, 3305.05, 3305.053, 3305.06, 3313.65, 44
3313.71, 3313.976, 3313.978, 3313.979, 3318.034, 45
3318.08, 3318.10, 3318.30, 3318.31, 3318.37, 46
3333.04, 3333.041, 3333.123, 3333.21, 3333.60, 47
3333.61, 3333.71, 3333.72 3334.08, 3345.16, 48
3345.28, 3345.50, 3345.51, 3345.54, 3345.69, 49
3345.692, 3347.03, 3383.02, 3383.07, 3517.20, 50
3701.021, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.025, 3701.03, 51
3701.05, 3701.07, 3701.072, 3701.11, 3701.132, 52
3701.146, 3701.161, 3701.20, 3701.201, 3701.21, 53
3701.221, 3701.23, 3701.232, 3701.24, 3701.241, 54
3701.242, 3701.248, 3701.341, 3701.342, 3701.343, 55
3701.344, 3701.345, 3701.347, 3701.352, 3701.40, 56
3701.503, 3701.507, 3701.508, 3701.509, 3701.57, 57
3701.63, 3701.74, 3701.87, 3701.881, 3702.141, 58
3702.31, 3702.51, 3702.52, 3702.522, 3702.523, 59
3702.524, 3702.525, 3702.526, 3702.53, 3702.531, 60
3702.54, 3702.55, 3702.56, 3702.57, 3702.59, 61
3702.592, 3702.593, 3702.594, 3702.60, 3702.62, 62
3703.01, 3703.03, 3703.04, 3703.05, 3703.06, 63
3703.07, 3703.08, 3703.10, 3703.21, 3703.99, 64
3704.035, 3705.24, 3705.242, 3705.30, 3706.19, 65
3709.03, 3709.04, 3709.06, 3709.085, 3709.09, 66
3709.092, 3709.32, 3709.35, 3710.01, 3710.02, 67
3710.04, 3710.05, 3710.051, 3710.06, 3710.07, 68
3710.08, 3710.09, 3710.10, 3710.12, 3710.13, 69
3710.17, 3711.04, 3711.06, 3711.08, 3711.12, 70
3711.21, 3712.03, 3712.04, 3712.09, 3713.01, 71
3713.02, 3713.03, 3713.04, 3713.05, 3713.06, 72
3713.07, 3713.08, 3713.09, 3713.10, 3714.073, 73
3715.01, 3715.025, 3715.60, 3715.61, 3715.62, 74
3715.68, 3715.87, 3716.01, 3716.03, 3717.01, 75
3717.04, 3717.05, 3717.07, 3717.45, 3717.51, 76
3718.02, 3718.021, 3718.022, 3718.05, 3718.06, 77
3718.07, 3718.09, 3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 78
3721.03, 3721.032, 3721.04, 3721.07, 3721.071, 79
3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.21, 3721.28, 3721.29, 80
3721.50, 3721.51, 3723.06, 3723.07, 3723.09, 81
3725.02, 3727.01, 3727.42, 3729.01, 3729.02, 82
3729.03, 3729.04, 3729.07, 3729.08, 3730.10, 83
3733.02, 3733.021, 3733.022, 3733.024, 3733.025, 84
3733.03, 3733.04, 3733.05, 3733.06, 3733.07, 85
3733.08, 3733.09, 3733.091, 3733.10, 3733.101, 86
3733.11, 3733.12, 3733.121, 3733.122, 3733.123, 87
3733.13, 3733.14, 3733.15, 3733.17, 3733.18, 88
3733.19, 3733.20, 3733.41, 3733.42, 3734.01, 89
3734.131, 3734.15, 3734.51, 3734.55, 3734.79, 90
3734.82, 3735.37, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3742.01, 91
3742.02, 3742.03, 3742.04, 3742.05, 3742.30, 92
3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.47, 3742.50, 3743.04, 93
3743.06, 3743.19, 3743.25, 3745.01, 3745.11, 94
3745.112, 3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.10, 95
3748.12, 3748.13, 3748.15, 3748.20, 3749.02, 96
3749.03, 3749.04, 3752.06, 3770.06, 3781.03, 97
3781.06, 3781.102, 3781.11, 3781.112, 3783.05, 98
3791.02, 3791.04, 3791.05, 3791.07, 3791.11, 99
3791.12, 3793.04, 3793.09, 3905.36, 4104.01, 100
4104.02, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 4104.09, 101
4104.10, 4104.101, 4104.12, 4104.15, 4104.16, 102
4104.17, 4104.18, 4104.19, 4104.21, 4104.33, 103
4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.44, 4104.48, 4105.01, 104
4105.02, 4105.03, 4105.04, 4105.05, 4105.06, 105
4105.09, 4105.11, 4105.12, 4105.13, 4105.15, 106
4105.16, 4105.17, 4105.191, 4105.20, 4105.21, 107
4115.10, 4115.101, 4121.04, 4121.123, 4121.30, 108
4123.20, 4123.35, 4123.54, 4123.57, 4141.35, 109
4163.07, 4169.02, 4169.03, 4169.04, 4171.04, 110
4301.30, 4303.181, 4303.22, 4313.02, 4501.01, 111
4501.06, 4501.271, 4503.031, 4503.061, 4503.062, 112
4503.49, 4503.81, 4506.01, 4506.03, 4506.22, 113
4506.25, 4507.01, 4507.011, 4507.12, 4507.51, 114
4508.02, 4510.037, 4510.038, 4511.191, 4511.78, 115
4511.98, 4513.18, 4513.263, 4513.50, 4712.01, 116
4723.481, 4730.42, 4731.052, 4731.22, 4735.01, 117
4735.02, 4735.052, 4735.10, 4735.13, 4735.14, 118
4735.141, 4735.142, 4735.74, 4736.01, 4740.03, 119
4740.11, 4740.14, 4743.05, 4763.05, 4765.02, 120
4765.03, 4765.04, 4765.05, 4765.06, 4765.07, 121
4765.08, 4765.09, 4765.10, 4765.101, 4765.102, 122
4765.11, 4765.111, 4765.112, 4765.113, 4765.114, 123
4765.115, 4765.116, 4765.12, 4765.15, 4765.16, 124
4765.17, 4765.18, 4765.22, 4765.23, 4765.28, 125
4765.29, 4765.30, 4765.31, 4765.32, 4765.33, 126
4765.37, 4765.38, 4765.39, 4765.40, 4765.42, 127
4765.48, 4765.49, 4765.55, 4765.56, 4766.01, 128
4766.03, 4766.04, 4766.05, 4766.07, 4766.08, 129
4766.09, 4766.10, 4766.11, 4766.12, 4766.13, 130
4766.15, 4766.22, 4773.08, 4781.01, 4781.02, 131
4781.04, 4781.07, 4781.09, 4781.14, 4781.15, 132
4781.16, 4781.99, 4905.01, 4905.02, 4905.03, 133
4905.05, 4905.06, 4905.402, 4905.54, 4905.57, 134
4905.58, 4905.84, 4905.90, 4907.01, 4907.02, 135
4907.04, 4907.08, 4907.19, 4907.28, 4907.35, 136
4907.37, 4907.43, 4907.49, 4907.57, 4907.59, 137
4907.60, 4907.61, 4907.62, 4909.01, 4909.02, 138
4909.03, 4909.17, 4909.22, 4909.24, 4909.28, 139
4911.01, 4927.01, 4929.01, 4929.02, 4929.041, 140
4933.18, 4933.19, 4939.01, 4953.04, 4961.03, 141
4965.54, 5101.01, 5101.46, 5101.60, 5101.61, 142
5101.97, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.051, 5104.09, 143
5104.37, 5107.05, 5107.16, 5107.17, 5111.01, 144
5111.013, 5111.014, 5111.0115, 5111.0120, 145
5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.06, 146
5111.091, 5111.113, 5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.171, 147
5111.20, 5111.222, 5111.23, 5111.242, 5111.254, 148
5111.862, 5111.874, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.89, 149
5111.894, 5111.941, 5111.97, 5112.31, 5112.33, 150
5112.341, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.39, 5119.22, 151
5119.61, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 5120.036, 152
5120.105, 5120.132, 5120.66, 5122.31, 5123.01, 153
5123.033, 5123.042, 5123.044, 5123.0412, 154
5123.0414, 5123.0415, 5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.161, 155
5123.162, 5123.163, 5123.164, 5123.166, 5123.169, 156
5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.31, 5123.38, 5123.41, 157
5123.50, 5123.51, 5123.542, 5123.61, 5123.89, 158
5126.023, 5126.0220, 5126.0221, 5126.043, 159
5126.046, 5126.055, 5126.13, 5126.15, 5126.20, 160
5126.21, 5126.22, 5126.25, 5126.251, 5126.51, 161
5139.41, 5139.43, 5149.311, 5155.14, 5501.04, 162
5501.07, 5502.01, 5502.011, 5503.02, 5503.04, 163
5503.21, 5503.22, 5503.23, 5503.34, 5516.02, 164
5516.06, 5701.13, 5703.05, 5705.08, 5705.19, 165
5705.25, 5705.28, 5705.30, 5705.34, 5705.35, 166
5705.38, 5709.084, 5709.12, 5709.121, 5709.212, 167
5709.43, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 168
5709.75, 5709.80, 5713.03, 5719.13, 5725.14, 169
5725.15, 5725.16, 5725.17, 5725.22, 5725.221, 170
5731.39, 5733.064, 5739.01, 5739.02, 5743.03, 171
5743.031, 5751.033, 5751.12, 6109.21, 6111.46, 172
6117.39, and 6119.11; to amend, for the purpose of 173
adopting new section numbers as indicated in 174
parentheses, sections 123.011 (123.22), 123.024 175
(123.06), 123.04 (123.02), 123.07 (123.03), 123.08 176
(123.18), 123.09 (123.04), 123.10 (123.05), 177
123.101 (123.27), 123.11 (123.07), 123.13 178
(123.08), 123.14 (123.09), 123.15 (123.10), 123.17 179
(123.24), 123.21 (123.11), 123.46 (123.12), 123.47 180
(123.13), 123.48 (123.14), 123.49 (123.15), 123.77 181
(123.17), 185.01 (3701.92), 185.02 (3701.923), 182
185.03 (3701.924), 185.05 (3701.925), 185.06 183
(3701.926), 185.07 (3701.927), 185.09 (3701.928), 184
185.12 (3701.929), 1502.01 (3736.01), 1502.02 185
(3736.03), 1502.03 (3736.02), 1502.04 (3736.04), 186
1502.05 (3736.05), 1502.06 (3736.06), 1502.07 187
(3736.07), 1502.12 (3734.822), 1502.99 (3736.99), 188
3702.522 (3702.521), 3702.523 (3702.522), 3702.524 189
(3702.523), 3702.525 (3702.524), 3702.526 190
(3702.525), 3733.02 (4781.26), 3733.021 (4781.31), 191
3733.022 (4781.32), 3733.024 (4781.33), 3733.025 192
(4781.34), 3733.03 (4781.27), 3733.04 (4781.28), 193
3733.05 (4781.29), 3733.06 (4781.30), 3733.07 194
(4781.301), 3733.08 (4781.35), 3733.09 (4781.36), 195
3733.091 (4781.37), 3733.10 (4781.38), 3733.101 196
(4781.39), 3733.11 (4781.40), 3733.12 (4781.41), 197
3733.121 (4781.42), 3733.122 (4781.43), 3733.123 198
(4781.44), 3733.13 (4781.45), 3733.14 (4781.46), 199
3733.15 (4781.47), 3733.16 (4781.48), 3733.17 200
(4781.49), 3733.18 (4781.50), 3733.19 (4781.51), 201
3733.20 (4781.52), 5123.169 (5123.1610), 5503.21 202
(5502.05), 5503.22 (5502.06), and 5503.23 203
(5502.07); to enact new sections 123.21, 3701.33, 204
3701.34, 3702.526, 4905.80, 4905.81, 4921.01, 205
4921.03, 4921.05, 4921.07, 4921.09, 4921.11, 206
4921.13, 4921.15, 4921.16, 4921.19, 4921.25, 207
4921.30, 4921.32, 4921.36, 4921.38, 4923.01, 208
4923.02, 4923.04, 4923.06, 4923.07, 4923.09, 209
4923.11, 4923.99, 5123.169, and 5123.192 and 210
sections 101.312, 119.033, 121.35, 123.20, 211
123.201, 123.23, 123.26, 127.163, 127.164, 212
171.021, 189.041, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 213
505.59, 901.53, 1321.537, 1321.538, 1322.042, 214
1322.043, 1533.081, 2329.192, 3305.031, 3305.032, 215
3356.10, 3366.05, 3375.405, 3701.77, 3701.771, 216
3701.772, 3701.773, 3701.774, 3701.775, 3701.921, 217
3701.922, 3701.93, 3701.931, 3701.932, 3701.933, 218
3701.934, 3701.935, 3701.936, 3701.937, 3701.938, 219
3701.9310, 3701.9311, 3701.9312, 3701.9314, 220
3702.511, 3702.527, 3793.041, 3798.01, 3798.02, 221
3798.03, 3798.04, 3798.06, 3798.07, 3798.08, 222
3798.10, 3798.12, 3798.13, 3798.14, 3798.15, 223
3798.16, 4731.297, 4781.121, 4781.54, 4921.21, 224
4921.34, 4923.15, 5111.246, 5111.946, 5111.96, 225
5112.331, 5139.511, 5705.252, 5705.72, and 226
5713.012; and to repeal sections 185.04, 185.08, 227
185.10, 185.11, 2909.32, 2909.33, 2909.34, 228
3301.68, 3333.049, 3333.0411, 3333.33, 3333.70, 229
3333.80, 3334.111, 3354.23, 3701.02, 3701.032, 230
3701.12, 3701.33, 3701.34, 3701.35, 3702.521, 231
3702.5210, 3702.5211, 3702.5212, 3702.5213, 232
3702.58, 3702.591, 3733.01, 3733.031, 3745.111, 233
3781.183, 3791.043, 4113.11, 4121.18, 4766.02, 234
4766.20, 4905.80, 4905.801, 4905.81, 4905.82, 235
4905.83, 4919.75, 4919.76, 4919.77, 4919.78, 236
4919.79, 4919.99, 4921.01, 4921.02, 4921.03, 237
4921.04, 4921.05, 4921.06, 4921.07, 4921.08, 238
4921.09, 4921.10, 4921.101, 4921.11, 4921.12, 239
4921.13, 4921.14, 4921.15, 4921.16, 4921.17, 240
4921.18, 4921.19, 4921.20, 4921.23, 4921.24, 241
4921.25, 4921.26, 4921.27, 4921.28, 4921.30, 242
4921.31, 4921.32, 4921.35, 4921.36, 4921.37, 243
4921.38, 4921.39, 4921.40, 4921.99, 4923.01, 244
4923.02, 4923.03, 4923.04, 4923.05, 4923.06, 245
4923.07, 4923.08, 4923.09, 4923.10, 4923.11, 246
4923.12, 4923.13, 4923.14, 4923.17, 4923.20, 247
4923.26, 4923.99, 5111.651, 5119.614, 5119.692, 248
5119.693, 5119.70, 5119.701, 5119.71, 5119.711, 249
5119.712, 5119.72, 5119.73, 5119.731, 5119.74, 250
5119.75, 5119.76, 5119.77, 5119.78, 5119.79, 251
5119.80, 5119.81, 5119.82, 5119.83, 5119.84, 252
5119.85, 5119.86, 5119.87, 5119.88, 5123.082, 253
5123.083, 5123.192, 5126.0222, 5126.252, 5126.26, 254
5126.27, 5126.28, 5126.281, 5126.29, and 5501.09 255
of the Revised Code; to repeal section 3356.10 of 256
the Revised Code five years after the effective 257
date of that section; to amend Section 753.20 of 258
Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of the 129th General Assembly, 259
Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of the 129th 260
General Assembly, as subsequently amended, Section 261
201 of Sub. H.B. 123 of the 129th General 262
Assembly, Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 129th 263
General Assembly, Sections 205.10, 207.10, 264
207.10.80, 207.20.10, 207.20.30, 207.20.90, 265
209.10, 209.20, 209.30, 211.10, 215.10, 215.20, 266
223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 261.10.40, 261.10.70, 267
261.20.40, 261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.80, 268
261.20.90, 261.30.10, 261.30.20, 261.30.30, 269
261.30.40, 261.30.60, 261.30.70, 261.30.80, 270
261.30.90, 261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 271
263.10.90, 263.20.40, 263.20.70, 267.10, 272
267.10.10, 267.10.20, 267.10.40, 267.30.20, 273
267.30.40, 279.10, 283.10, 287.10, 291.10, 307.10, 274
309.10, 309.30.10, 309.30.30, 309.30.33, 275
309.30.53, 309.30.73, 309.35.73, 313.10, 315.10, 276
323.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 277
365.10, 367.10, 369.10, 371.10, 371.30.30, 278
371.50.61, 371.50.65, 371.60.80, 373.10, 375.10, 279
379.10, 387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 503.50, 280
and 521.70 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 281
General Assembly, Sections 247.10, 261.10, and 282
261.20.93 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 283
General Assembly, as subsequently amended, Section 284
8 of Sub. H.B. 369 of the 129th General Assembly, 285
Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General 286
Assembly, Section 701.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 287
129th General Assembly, Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 288
160 of the 121st General Assembly, and Section 3 289
of Am. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 120th General Assembly; 290
to repeal Sections 261.10.10, 261.10.20, 291
261.10.30, 261.10.50, 261.10.60, 261.10.80, 292
261.10.90, 261.20.10, 261.20.20, 261.20.70, 293
261.30.50, and 263.10.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 294
the 129th General Assembly; and Section 2 of Am. 295
Sub. S.B. 63 of the 121st General Assembly and to 296
amend the versions of sections 5122.31, 5123.19, 297
and 5123.61 of the Revised Code that are scheduled 298
to take effect October 1, 2012, to continue the 299
provisions of this act on and after that effective 300
date; to make operating and other appropriations 301
and to provide authorization and conditions for 302
the operation of state programs.303


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 101.01. That sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.34, 102.02, 304
103.05, 105.41, 107.54, 109.33, 109.57, 109.572, 109.801, 119.032, 305
121.04, 121.08, 121.083, 121.084, 123.01, 123.011, 123.07, 123.09, 306
123.10, 123.101, 123.13, 123.14, 123.15, 123.152, 123.17, 123.21, 307
123.48, 123.77, 124.04, 124.06, 124.11, 124.12, 124.14, 124.231, 308
124.241, 124.25, 124.26, 124.27, 124.30, 124.31, 125.082, 125.14, 309
126.14, 135.35, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 140.08, 145.01, 145.012, 310
149.43, 151.01, 152.18, 152.24, 153.01, 153.011, 153.013, 153.02, 311
153.04, 153.06, 153.07, 153.08, 153.09, 153.11, 153.12, 153.14, 312
153.16, 153.17, 153.502, 153.503, 153.53, 154.01, 167.04, 173.14, 313
173.21, 173.23, 173.26, 173.27, 173.391, 173.394, 173.40, 173.42, 314
173.45, 173.46, 185.01, 185.02, 185.03, 185.05, 185.06, 185.07, 315
185.09, 185.12, 189.04, 189.05, 189.06, 189.08, 306.04, 306.36, 316
306.55, 307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 313.121, 313.122, 313.16, 317
329.01, 329.40, 329.41, 329.42, 329.43, 329.44, 329.45, 329.46, 318
330.04, 339.091, 340.03, 340.05, 340.091, 505.37, 505.375, 505.44, 319
505.72, 705.18, 749.04, 749.05, 749.18, 901.54, 924.51, 955.16, 320
955.26, 991.02, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1317.05, 321
1321.37, 1321.52, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.02, 1322.03, 1322.031, 322
1345.05, 1501.04, 1502.01, 1502.02, 1502.03, 1502.04, 1502.05, 323
1502.06, 1502.12, 1502.99, 1503.012, 1503.43, 1506.42, 1509.071, 324
1533.10, 1541.26, 1551.33, 1555.02, 1555.03, 1555.04, 1555.05, 325
1555.06, 1707.08, 1707.391, 1724.03, 1733.47, 1751.01, 1751.02, 326
1751.13, 1761.26, 1901.06, 1901.18, 1907.13, 1909.11, 1923.01, 327
1923.02, 1923.061, 1923.15, 2151.33, 2151.412, 2151.86, 2152.121, 328
2152.22, 2301.01, 2301.27, 2301.271, 2301.571, 2305.01, 2307.89, 329
2317.02, 2317.422, 2317.56, 2501.02, 2503.01, 2743.02, 2743.10, 330
2746.01, 2901.01, 2903.33, 2907.29, 2909.21, 2909.28, 2927.023, 331
2929.01, 2929.19, 2935.01, 2935.03, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 332
2945.40, 2945.401, 2961.22, 2967.03, 2967.05, 2967.14, 2967.19, 333
2967.191, 2967.26, 2967.28, 2981.11, 2981.14, 3109.14, 3125.41, 334
3301.55, 3304.16, 3304.181, 3304.182, 3305.01, 3305.02, 3305.03, 335
3305.04, 3305.05, 3305.053, 3305.06, 3313.65, 3313.71, 3313.976, 336
3313.978, 3313.979, 3318.034, 3318.08, 3318.10, 3318.30, 3318.31, 337
3318.37, 3333.04, 3333.041, 3333.123, 3333.21, 3333.60, 3333.61, 338
3333.71, 3333.72, 3334.08, 3345.16, 3345.28, 3345.50, 3345.51, 339
3345.54, 3345.69, 3345.692, 3347.03, 3383.02, 3383.07, 3517.20, 340
3701.021, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.025, 3701.03, 3701.05, 3701.07, 341
3701.072, 3701.11, 3701.132, 3701.146, 3701.161, 3701.20, 342
3701.201, 3701.21, 3701.221, 3701.23, 3701.232, 3701.24, 3701.241, 343
3701.242, 3701.248, 3701.341, 3701.342, 3701.343, 3701.344, 344
3701.345, 3701.347, 3701.352, 3701.40, 3701.503, 3701.507, 345
3701.508, 3701.509, 3701.57, 3701.63, 3701.74, 3701.87, 3701.881, 346
3702.141, 3702.31, 3702.51, 3702.52, 3702.522, 3702.523, 3702.524, 347
3702.525, 3702.526, 3702.53, 3702.531, 3702.54, 3702.55, 3702.56, 348
3702.57, 3702.59, 3702.592, 3702.593, 3702.594, 3702.60, 3702.62, 349
3703.01, 3703.03, 3703.04, 3703.05, 3703.06, 3703.07, 3703.08, 350
3703.10, 3703.21, 3703.99, 3704.035, 3705.24, 3705.242, 3705.30, 351
3706.19, 3709.03, 3709.04, 3709.06, 3709.085, 3709.09, 3709.092, 352
3709.32, 3709.35, 3710.01, 3710.02, 3710.04, 3710.05, 3710.051, 353
3710.06, 3710.07, 3710.08, 3710.09, 3710.10, 3710.12, 3710.13, 354
3710.17, 3711.04, 3711.06, 3711.08, 3711.12, 3711.21, 3712.03, 355
3712.04, 3712.09, 3713.01, 3713.02, 3713.03, 3713.04, 3713.05, 356
3713.06, 3713.07, 3713.08, 3713.09, 3713.10, 3714.073, 3715.01, 357
3715.025, 3715.60, 3715.61, 3715.62, 3715.68, 3715.87, 3716.01, 358
3716.03, 3717.01, 3717.04, 3717.05, 3717.07, 3717.45, 3717.51, 359
3718.02, 3718.021, 3718.022, 3718.05, 3718.06, 3718.07, 3718.09, 360
3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.03, 3721.032, 3721.04, 3721.07, 361
3721.071, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.21, 3721.28, 3721.29, 3721.50, 362
3721.51, 3723.06, 3723.07, 3723.09, 3725.02, 3727.01, 3727.42, 363
3729.01, 3729.02, 3729.03, 3729.04, 3729.07, 3729.08, 3730.10, 364
3733.02, 3733.021, 3733.022, 3733.024, 3733.025, 3733.03, 3733.04, 365
3733.05, 3733.06, 3733.07, 3733.08, 3733.09, 3733.091, 3733.10, 366
3733.101, 3733.11, 3733.12, 3733.121, 3733.122, 3733.123, 3733.13, 367
3733.14, 3733.15, 3733.17, 3733.18, 3733.19, 3733.20, 3733.41, 368
3733.42, 3734.01, 3734.131, 3734.15, 3734.51, 3734.55, 3734.79, 369
3734.82, 3735.37, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3742.01, 3742.02, 3742.03, 370
3742.04, 3742.05, 3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.47, 3742.50, 371
3743.04, 3743.06, 3743.19, 3743.25, 3745.01, 3745.11, 3745.112, 372
3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.10, 3748.12, 3748.13, 3748.15, 373
3748.20, 3749.02, 3749.03, 3749.04, 3752.06, 3770.06, 3781.03, 374
3781.06, 3781.102, 3781.11, 3781.112, 3783.05, 3791.02, 3791.04, 375
3791.05, 3791.07, 3791.11, 3791.12, 3793.04, 3793.09, 3905.36, 376
4104.01, 4104.02, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 4104.09, 4104.10, 377
4104.101, 4104.12, 4104.15, 4104.16, 4104.17, 4104.18, 4104.19, 378
4104.21, 4104.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.44, 4104.48, 4105.01, 379
4105.02, 4105.03, 4105.04, 4105.05, 4105.06, 4105.09, 4105.11, 380
4105.12, 4105.13, 4105.15, 4105.16, 4105.17, 4105.191, 4105.20, 381
4105.21, 4115.10, 4115.101, 4121.04, 4121.123, 4121.30, 4123.20, 382
4123.35, 4123.54, 4123.57, 4141.35, 4163.07, 4169.02, 4169.03, 383
4169.04, 4171.04, 4301.30, 4303.181, 4303.22, 4313.02, 4501.01, 384
4501.06, 4501.271, 4503.031, 4503.061, 4503.062, 4503.49, 4503.81, 385
4506.01, 4506.03, 4506.22, 4506.25, 4507.01, 4507.011, 4507.12, 386
4507.51, 4508.02, 4510.037, 4510.038, 4511.191, 4511.78, 4511.98, 387
4513.18, 4513.263, 4513.50, 4712.01, 4723.481, 4730.42, 4731.052, 388
4731.22, 4735.01, 4735.02, 4735.052, 4735.10, 4735.13, 4735.14, 389
4735.141, 4735.142, 4735.74, 4736.01, 4740.03, 4740.11, 4740.14, 390
4743.05, 4763.05, 4765.02, 4765.03, 4765.04, 4765.05, 4765.06, 391
4765.07, 4765.08, 4765.09, 4765.10, 4765.101, 4765.102, 4765.11, 392
4765.111, 4765.112, 4765.113, 4765.114, 4765.115, 4765.116, 393
4765.12, 4765.15, 4765.16, 4765.17, 4765.18, 4765.22, 4765.23, 394
4765.28, 4765.29, 4765.30, 4765.31, 4765.32, 4765.33, 4765.37, 395
4765.38, 4765.39, 4765.40, 4765.42, 4765.48, 4765.49, 4765.55, 396
4765.56, 4766.01, 4766.03, 4766.04, 4766.05, 4766.07, 4766.08, 397
4766.09, 4766.10, 4766.11, 4766.12, 4766.13, 4766.15, 4766.22, 398
4773.08, 4781.01, 4781.02, 4781.04, 4781.07, 4781.09, 4781.14, 399
4781.15, 4781.16, 4781.99, 4905.01, 4905.02, 4905.03, 4905.05, 400
4905.06, 4905.402, 4905.54, 4905.57, 4905.58, 4905.84, 4905.90, 401
4907.01, 4907.02, 4907.04, 4907.08, 4907.19, 4907.28, 4907.35, 402
4907.37, 4907.43, 4907.49, 4907.57, 4907.59, 4907.60, 4907.61, 403
4907.62, 4909.01, 4909.02, 4909.03, 4909.17, 4909.22, 4909.24, 404
4909.28, 4911.01, 4927.01, 4929.01, 4929.02, 4929.041, 4933.18, 405
4933.19, 4939.01, 4953.04, 4961.03, 4965.54, 5101.01, 5101.46, 406
5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.97, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.051, 5104.09, 407
5104.37, 5107.05, 5107.16, 5107.17, 5111.01, 5111.013, 5111.014, 408
5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 409
5111.06, 5111.091, 5111.113, 5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.171, 5111.20, 410
5111.222, 5111.23, 5111.242, 5111.254, 5111.862, 5111.874, 411
5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.89, 5111.894, 5111.941, 5111.97, 5112.31, 412
5112.33, 5112.341, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.39, 5119.22, 5119.61, 413
5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 5120.036, 5120.105, 5120.132, 5120.66, 414
5122.31, 5123.01, 5123.033, 5123.042, 5123.044, 5123.0412, 415
5123.0414, 5123.0415, 5123.081, 5123.16, 5123.161, 5123.162, 416
5123.163, 5123.164, 5123.166, 5123.169, 5123.171, 5123.19, 417
5123.31, 5123.38, 5123.41, 5123.50, 5123.51, 5123.542, 5123.61, 418
5123.89, 5126.023, 5126.0220, 5126.0221, 5126.043, 5126.046, 419
5126.055, 5126.13, 5126.15, 5126.20, 5126.21, 5126.22, 5126.25, 420
5126.251, 5126.51, 5139.41, 5139.43, 5149.311, 5155.14, 5501.04, 421
5501.07, 5502.01, 5502.011, 5503.02, 5503.04, 5503.21, 5503.22, 422
5503.23, 5503.34, 5516.02, 5516.06, 5701.13, 5703.05, 5705.08, 423
5705.19, 5705.25, 5705.28, 5705.30, 5705.34, 5705.35, 5705.38, 424
5709.084, 5709.12, 5709.121, 5709.212, 5709.43, 5709.62, 5709.63, 425
5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.75, 5709.80, 5713.03, 5719.13, 5725.14, 426
5725.15, 5725.16, 5725.17, 5725.22, 5725.221, 5731.39, 5733.064, 427
5739.01, 5739.02, 5743.03, 5743.031, 5751.033, 5751.12, 6109.21, 428
6111.46, 6117.39, and 6119.11 be amended; sections 123.011 429
(123.22), 123.024 (123.06), 123.04 (123.02), 123.07 (123.03), 430
123.08 (123.18), 123.09 (123.04), 123.10 (123.05), 123.101 431
(123.27), 123.11 (123.07), 123.13 (123.08), 123.14 (123.09), 432
123.15 (123.10), 123.17 (123.24), 123.21 (123.11), 123.46 433
(123.12), 123.47 (123.13), 123.48 (123.14), 123.49 (123.15), 434
123.77 (123.17), 185.01 (3701.92), 185.02 (3701.923), 185.03 435
(3701.924), 185.05 (3701.925), 185.06 (3701.926), 185.07 436
(3701.927), 185.09 (3701.928), 185.12 (3701.929), 1502.01 437
(3736.01), 1502.02 (3736.03), 1502.03 (3736.02), 1502.04 438
(3736.04), 1502.05 (3736.05), 1502.06 (3736.06), 1502.07 439
(3736.07), 1502.12 (3734.822), 1502.99 (3736.99), 3702.522 440
(3702.521), 3702.523 (3702.522), 3702.524 (3702.523), 3702.525 441
(3702.524), 3702.526 (3702.525), 3733.02 (4781.26), 3733.021 442
(4781.31), 3733.022 (4781.32), 3733.024 (4781.33), 3733.025 443
(4781.34), 3733.03 (4781.27), 3733.04 (4781.28), 3733.05 444
(4781.29), 3733.06 (4781.30), 3733.07 (4781.301), 3733.08 445
(4781.35), 3733.09 (4781.36), 3733.091 (4781.37), 3733.10 446
(4781.38), 3733.101 (4781.39), 3733.11 (4781.40), 3733.12 447
(4781.41), 3733.121 (4781.42), 3733.122 (4781.43), 3733.123 448
(4781.44), 3733.13 (4781.45), 3733.14 (4781.46), 3733.15 449
(4781.47), 3733.16 (4781.48), 3733.17 (4781.49), 3733.18 450
(4781.50), 3733.19 (4781.51), 3733.20 (4781.52), 5123.169 451
(5123.1610), 5503.21 (5502.05), 5503.22 (5502.06), and 5503.23 452
(5502.07) be amended for the purpose of adopting new section 453
numbers as indicated in parentheses; and new sections 123.21, 454
3701.33, 3701.34, 3702.526, 4905.80, 4905.81, 4921.01, 4921.03, 455
4921.05, 4921.07, 4921.09, 4921.11, 4921.13, 4921.15, 4921.16, 456
4921.19, 4921.25, 4921.30, 4921.32, 4921.36, 4921.38, 4923.01, 457
4923.02, 4923.04, 4923.06, 4923.07, 4923.09, 4923.11, 4923.99, 458
5123.169, and 5123.192 and sections 101.312, 119.033, 121.35, 459
123.20, 123.201, 123.23, 123.26, 127.163, 127.164, 171.021, 460
189.041, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 505.59, 901.53, 1321.537, 461
1321.538, 1322.042, 1322.043, 1533.081, 2329.192, 3305.031, 462
3305.032, 3356.10, 3366.05, 3375.405, 3701.77, 3701.771, 3701.772, 463
3701.773, 3701.774, 3701.775, 3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.93, 464
3701.931, 3701.932, 3701.933, 3701.934, 3701.935, 3701.936, 465
3701.937, 3701.938, 3701.9310, 3701.9311, 3701.9312, 3701.9314, 466
3702.511, 3702.527, 3793.041, 3798.01, 3798.02, 3798.03, 3798.04, 467
3798.06, 3798.07, 3798.08, 3798.10, 3798.12, 3798.13, 3798.14, 468
3798.15, 3798.16, 4731.297, 4781.121, 4781.54, 4921.21, 4921.34, 469
4923.15, 5111.246, 5111.946, 5111.96, 5112.331, 5139.511, 470
5705.252, 5705.72, and 5713.012 of the Revised Code be enacted to 471
read as follows:472

       Sec. 7.10.  For the publication of advertisements, notices, 473
and proclamations, except those relating to proposed amendments to 474
the Ohio Constitution, required to be published by a public 475
officer of the state,, a benevolent or other public institution, a 476
trustee, assignee, executor, or administrator, or by or in any 477
court of record, except when the rate is otherwise fixed by law, 478
publishers of newspapers may charge and receive for such 479
advertisements, notices, and proclamations rates charged on annual 480
contracts by them for a like amount of space to other advertisers 481
who advertise in its general display advertising columns. 482

       For the publication of advertisements, notices, or 483
proclamations required to be published by a public officer of a 484
county, municipal corporation, township, school, or other 485
political subdivision, publishers of newspapers shall establish a 486
government rate, which shall include free publication of 487
advertisements, notices, or proclamations on the newspaper's 488
internet web site, if the newspaper has one. The government rate 489
shall not exceed the lowest classified advertising rate and lowest 490
insert rate paid by other advertisers.491

        Legal advertising, except that relating to proposed 492
amendments to the Ohio Constitution, shall be set up in a compact 493
form, without unnecessary spaces, blanks, or headlines, and 494
printed in not smaller than six-point type. The type used must be 495
of such proportions that the body of the capital letter M is no 496
wider than it is high and all other letters and characters are in 497
proportion.498

       Except as provided in section 2701.09 of the Revised Code, 499
all legal advertisements or notices shall be printed in newspapers500
a newspaper of general circulation and also shall be posted on the 501
state public notice web site created under section 125.182 of the 502
Revised Code, and on athe newspaper's internet web site, if the 503
newspaper has one.504

       Sec. 7.16. (A) As used in this section:505

       (1) "State agency" means any organized body, office, agency, 506
institution, or other entity established by the laws of the state 507
for the exercise of any function of state government, including 508
state institutions of higher education, as defined in section 509
3345.011 of the Revised Code.510

       (2) "Political subdivision" has the meaning defined in 511
section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.512

       (B) If a section of the Revised Code or an administrative 513
rule requires a state agency or a political subdivision of the 514
state to publish a notice or advertisement two or more times in a 515
newspaper of general circulation and the section or administrative 516
rule refers to this section, the first publication of the notice 517
or advertisement shall be made in its entirety in a newspaper of 518
general circulation and may be made in a preprinted insert in the 519
newspaper, but the second publication otherwise required by that 520
section or administrative rule may be made in abbreviated form in 521
a newspaper of general circulation in the state or in the 522
political subdivision, as designated in that section or 523
administrative rule, and on the newspaper's internet web site, if 524
the newspaper has one. The state agency or political subdivision 525
may eliminate any further newspaper publications required by that 526
section or administrative rule, provided that the second, 527
abbreviated notice or advertisement meets all of the following 528
requirements:529

       (1) It is published in the newspaper of general circulation 530
in which the first publication of the notice or advertisement was 531
made and is published on that newspaper's internet web site, if 532
the newspaper has one.533

       (2) It is published on the state public notice web site 534
established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code.535

       (3) It includes a title, followed by a summary paragraph or 536
statement that clearly describes the specific purpose of the 537
notice or advertisement, and includes a statement that the notice 538
or advertisement is posted in its entirety on the state public 539
notice web site established under section 125.182 of the Revised 540
Code. The notice or advertisement also may be posted on the state 541
agency's or political subdivision's internet web site.542

       (3)(4) It includes the internet addresses of the state public 543
notice web site, and of the newspaper's and state agency's or 544
political subdivision's internet web site if the notice or 545
advertisement is posted on those web sites, and the name, address, 546
telephone number, and electronic mail address of the state agency, 547
political subdivision, or other party responsible for publication 548
of the notice or advertisement.549

       (B)(C) A notice or advertisement published under this section 550
on an internet web site shall be published in its entirety in 551
accordance with the section of the Revised Code or the 552
administrative rule that requires the publication.553

       (C)(D) If a state agency or political subdivision does not 554
operate and maintain, or ceases to operate and maintain, an 555
internet web site, and if the state public notice web site 556
established under section 125.182 of the Revised Code is not 557
operational, the state agency or political subdivision shall not 558
publish a notice or advertisement under this section, but instead 559
shall comply with the publication requirements of the section of 560
the Revised Code or the administrative rule that refers to this 561
section.562

       Sec. 9.34.  (A) The fiscal year of the state and of, every 563
school district, and, beginning July 1, 2013, the city of 564
Cincinnati, shall begin on the first day of July of each calendar 565
year and end at the close of the thirtieth day of June of the 566
succeeding calendar year. The fiscal year of every school library 567
district, and all political subdivisions or taxing districtsunits568
except school districts and the city of Cincinnati, and of every 569
officer, department, commission, board, or institution thereof, 570
shall begin at the opening of the first day of January of each 571
calendar year and end at the close of the succeeding thirty-first 572
day of December. Except as otherwise provided for school districts 573
and as otherwise provided in division (B) of this section, all 574
laws relating to the levying of taxes, the collection, 575
appropriation, or expenditure of revenues, or the making of 576
financial reports or statements for a fiscal year or other year 577
refer and apply to the fiscal year as defined in this division. 578
Reports required by sections 3319.32 to 3319.37 of the Revised 579
Code shall be for the school year as defined in section 3313.62 of 580
the Revised Code.581

       (B) Nothing in this section prohibits a subdivision, other 582
than a school district or county school financing district, from 583
using a different fiscal year or other fiscal period for one or 584
more of its funds, including when that fiscal year or period is 585
the same as the fiscal year of an entity providing money for the 586
fund or the fiscal period of a capital project. Use of a different 587
fiscal year or period shall be consistent with generally accepted 588
accounting principles, and shall be approved by the fiscal officer 589
of the subdivision and by the auditor of state. If a subdivision 590
uses a different fiscal year or period under this section, the 591
auditor of state may require the subdivision to continue to 592
maintain financial reports or statements on the basis of the 593
fiscal year prescribed by division (A) of this section.594

       (C) Taxes or other revenues collected in or on hand in any 595
fiscal year for the purposes of the next or any subsequent fiscal 596
year shall not be appropriated or expended prior to such next or 597
subsequent year. School district property taxes shall be subject 598
to appropriation as provided in division (B) of section 5705.35 of 599
the Revised Code. Budgets shall be designated and known by the 600
fiscal year for the purposes for which they are made.601

       (D) As used in this section, "fiscal officer," "school 602
library district," "subdivision," and "taxing districtunit" have 603
the same meanings as in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code.604

       Sec. 101.312.  (A) The person serving as the senate sergeant 605
at arms or employed as an assistant senate sergeant at arms has 606
all of the authority of a peace officer as specified in division 607
(B) of this section, and one of the following shall apply to that 608
person:609

       (1) The person is serving as the senate sergeant at arms or 610
is employed as an assistant senate sergeant at arms on the 611
effective date of this section and previously had been awarded a 612
certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 613
training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 614
completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department 615
of natural resources peace officer basic training program.616

       (2) The person previously has been awarded a certificate by 617
the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 618
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 619
approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 620
resources peace officer basic training program, the person 621
previously has been employed as a peace officer, the prior 622
employment of the person as a peace officer contains no breaks in 623
service that would require the person to receive updated training 624
by the Ohio peace officer training academy, and the person has 625
successfully completed a firearms requalification program under 626
section 109.801 of the Revised Code.627

       (3) The person previously has been awarded a certificate by 628
the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 629
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 630
approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 631
resources peace officer basic training program, the person 632
previously has been employed as a peace officer, the prior 633
employment of the person as a peace officer contains a break in 634
service of one year or more but not more than four years that 635
would require the person to receive updated training under state 636
law, the person has received all updated training required by law, 637
and the person has successfully completed a firearms 638
requalification program under section 109.801 of the Revised Code.639

       (4) The person previously has been employed as a trooper of 640
the state highway patrol, within one year prior to employment as 641
the senate sergeant at arms the person had arrest authority as a 642
trooper of the state highway patrol, and the person has 643
successfully completed a firearms requalification program under 644
section 109.801 of the Revised Code.645

       (5) The person previously has been employed as a trooper of 646
the state highway patrol, the prior employment as a trooper of the 647
state highway patrol contains a break in service of one year or 648
more but not more than four years that would require the person to 649
receive updated training under state law, the person has received 650
all updated training required by law, and the person has 651
successfully completed a firearms requalification program under 652
section 109.801 of the Revised Code.653

       (B) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate 654
sergeant at arms have the authority specified under section 655
2935.03 of the Revised Code for peace officers to enforce all 656
state laws, municipal ordinances, and township resolutions and to 657
make arrests for any violation of those laws, ordinances, and 658
resolutions in the statehouse or anywhere in the state where the 659
senate sergeant at arms or the assistant sergeant at arms is 660
engaged in the performance of the senate sergeant at arms's or 661
assistant sergeant at arms's official duties. The jurisdiction of 662
the senate sergeant at arms and of an assistant senate sergeant at 663
arms is concurrent with that of peace officers of the county, 664
township, or municipal corporation in which the violation occurs 665
and with the state highway patrol.666

       (C) Upon receiving a written recommendation from the clerk of 667
the senate, the president of the senate may issue to the senate 668
sergeant at arms a commission indicating the sergeant at arms's 669
authority to make arrests as provided in this section. The 670
president of the senate, upon the recommendation of the senate 671
sergeant at arms, may issue to each assistant senate sergeant at 672
arms a commission indicating the assistant sergeant at arms's 673
authority to make arrests as provided in this section. The 674
president of the senate shall furnish a suitable badge to the 675
senate sergeant at arms and to each commissioned assistant senate 676
sergeant at arms as evidence of the senate sergeant at arms's or 677
assistant senate sergeant at arms's authority.678

       (D) In order to maintain employment as the senate sergeant at 679
arms or to be an assistant sergeant at arms with all of the 680
authority of a peace officer, the sergeant at arms or assistant 681
shall comply with all continuing professional training 682
requirements for peace officers established in rules that the 683
attorney general adopts under section 109.74 of the Revised Code 684
and shall comply with firearms requalification requirements 685
established under section 109.801 of the Revised Code. The senate 686
sergeant at arms or assistant sergeant at arms shall provide 687
appropriate proof of the sergeant at arms's or assistant's 688
compliance with the continuing professional training requirements 689
and firearms requalification requirements to the clerk of the 690
senate. The Ohio peace officer training academy, a state, county, 691
municipal, or department of natural resources training program, or 692
any other program offering continuing training of that nature 693
shall admit the senate sergeant at arms or an assistant senate 694
sergeant at arms to all necessary continuing training programs.695

       (E) This section does not affect or abridge the authority or 696
responsibility of the state highway patrol.697

       Sec. 102.02.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division 698
(H) of this section, all of the following shall file with the 699
appropriate ethics commission the disclosure statement described 700
in this division on a form prescribed by the appropriate 701
commission: every person who is elected to or is a candidate for a 702
state, county, or city office or an office of a township with a 703
population of five thousand or more, as determined by the most 704
recent federal decennial census, and every person who is appointed 705
to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in such an elective 706
office; all members of the state board of education; the director, 707
assistant directors, deputy directors, division chiefs, or persons 708
of equivalent rank of any administrative department of the state; 709
the president or other chief administrative officer of every state 710
institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of 711
the Revised Code; the executive director and the members of the 712
capitol square review and advisory board appointed or employed 713
pursuant to section 105.41 of the Revised Code; all members of the 714
Ohio casino control commission, the executive director of the 715
commission, all professional employees of the commission, and all 716
technical employees of the commission who perform an internal 717
audit function; the individuals set forth in division (B)(2) of 718
section 187.03 of the Revised Code; the chief executive officer 719
and the members of the board of each state retirement system; each 720
employee of a state retirement board who is a state retirement 721
system investment officer licensed pursuant to section 1707.163 of 722
the Revised Code; the members of the Ohio retirement study council 723
appointed pursuant to division (C) of section 171.01 of the 724
Revised Code; employees of the Ohio retirement study council, 725
other than employees who perform purely administrative or clerical 726
functions; the administrator of workers' compensation and each 727
member of the bureau of workers' compensation board of directors; 728
the bureau of workers' compensation director of investments; the 729
chief investment officer of the bureau of workers' compensation; 730
all members of the board of commissioners on grievances and 731
discipline of the supreme court and the ethics commission created 732
under section 102.05 of the Revised Code; every business manager, 733
treasurer, or superintendent of a city, local, exempted village, 734
joint vocational, or cooperative education school district or an 735
educational service center; every person who is elected to or is a 736
candidate for the office of member of a board of education of a 737
city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative 738
education school district or of a governing board of an 739
educational service center that has a total student count of 740
twelve thousand or more as most recently determined by the 741
department of education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised 742
Code; every person who is appointed to the board of education of a 743
municipal school district pursuant to division (B) or (F) of 744
section 3311.71 of the Revised Code; all members of the board of 745
directors of a sanitary district that is established under Chapter 746
6115. of the Revised Code and organized wholly for the purpose of 747
providing a water supply for domestic, municipal, and public use, 748
and that includes two municipal corporations in two counties; 749
every public official or employee who is paid a salary or wage in 750
accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of 751
section 124.152 of the Revised Code; members of the board of 752
trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio 753
agricultural and community development foundation; all members 754
appointed to the Ohio livestock care standards board under section 755
904.02 of the Revised Code; and every other public official or 756
employee who is designated by the appropriate ethics commission 757
pursuant to division (B) of this section.758

       The disclosure statement shall include all of the following:759

       (1) The name of the person filing the statement and each 760
member of the person's immediate family and all names under which 761
the person or members of the person's immediate family do 762
business;763

       (2)(a) Subject to divisions (A)(2)(b) and (c) of this section 764
and except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised 765
Code, identification of every source of income, other than income 766
from a legislative agent identified in division (A)(2)(b) of this 767
section, received during the preceding calendar year, in the 768
person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or 769
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief 770
description of the nature of the services for which the income was 771
received. If the person filing the statement is a member of the 772
general assembly, the statement shall identify the amount of every 773
source of income received in accordance with the following ranges 774
of amounts: zero or more, but less than one thousand dollars; one 775
thousand dollars or more, but less than ten thousand dollars; ten 776
thousand dollars or more, but less than twenty-five thousand 777
dollars; twenty-five thousand dollars or more, but less than fifty 778
thousand dollars; fifty thousand dollars or more, but less than 779
one hundred thousand dollars; and one hundred thousand dollars or 780
more. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall not be construed to 781
require a person filing the statement who derives income from a 782
business or profession to disclose the individual items of income 783
that constitute the gross income of that business or profession, 784
except for those individual items of income that are attributable 785
to the person's or, if the income is shared with the person, the 786
partner's, solicitation of services or goods or performance, 787
arrangement, or facilitation of services or provision of goods on 788
behalf of the business or profession of clients, including 789
corporate clients, who are legislative agents. A person who files 790
the statement under this section shall disclose the identity of 791
and the amount of income received from a person who the public 792
official or employee knows or has reason to know is doing or 793
seeking to do business of any kind with the public official's or 794
employee's agency.795

       (b) If the person filing the statement is a member of the 796
general assembly, the statement shall identify every source of 797
income and the amount of that income that was received from a 798
legislative agent during the preceding calendar year, in the 799
person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or 800
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief 801
description of the nature of the services for which the income was 802
received. Division (A)(2)(b) of this section requires the 803
disclosure of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under 804
section 4732.12 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons 805
certified under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, if those 806
clients or patients are legislative agents. Division (A)(2)(b) of 807
this section requires a person filing the statement who derives 808
income from a business or profession to disclose those individual 809
items of income that constitute the gross income of that business 810
or profession that are received from legislative agents.811

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2)(c) of 812
this section, division (A)(2)(a) of this section applies to 813
attorneys, physicians, and other persons who engage in the 814
practice of a profession and who, pursuant to a section of the 815
Revised Code, the common law of this state, a code of ethics 816
applicable to the profession, or otherwise, generally are required 817
not to reveal, disclose, or use confidences of clients, patients, 818
or other recipients of professional services except under 819
specified circumstances or generally are required to maintain 820
those types of confidences as privileged communications except 821
under specified circumstances. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section 822
does not require an attorney, physician, or other professional 823
subject to a confidentiality requirement as described in division 824
(A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose the name, other identity, or 825
address of a client, patient, or other recipient of professional 826
services if the disclosure would threaten the client, patient, or 827
other recipient of professional services, would reveal details of 828
the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional 829
advice or other services were sought, or would reveal an otherwise 830
privileged communication involving the client, patient, or other 831
recipient of professional services. Division (A)(2)(a) of this 832
section does not require an attorney, physician, or other 833
professional subject to a confidentiality requirement as described 834
in division (A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose in the brief 835
description of the nature of services required by division 836
(A)(2)(a) of this section any information pertaining to specific 837
professional services rendered for a client, patient, or other 838
recipient of professional services that would reveal details of 839
the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional 840
advice was sought or would reveal an otherwise privileged 841
communication involving the client, patient, or other recipient of 842
professional services.843

       (3) The name of every corporation on file with the secretary 844
of state that is incorporated in this state or holds a certificate 845
of compliance authorizing it to do business in this state, trust, 846
business trust, partnership, or association that transacts 847
business in this state in which the person filing the statement or 848
any other person for the person's use and benefit had during the 849
preceding calendar year an investment of over one thousand dollars 850
at fair market value as of the thirty-first day of December of the 851
preceding calendar year, or the date of disposition, whichever is 852
earlier, or in which the person holds any office or has a 853
fiduciary relationship, and a description of the nature of the 854
investment, office, or relationship. Division (A)(3) of this 855
section does not require disclosure of the name of any bank, 856
savings and loan association, credit union, or building and loan 857
association with which the person filing the statement has a 858
deposit or a withdrawable share account.859

       (4) All fee simple and leasehold interests to which the 860
person filing the statement holds legal title to or a beneficial 861
interest in real property located within the state, excluding the 862
person's residence and property used primarily for personal 863
recreation;864

       (5) The names of all persons residing or transacting business 865
in the state to whom the person filing the statement owes, in the 866
person's own name or in the name of any other person, more than 867
one thousand dollars. Division (A)(5) of this section shall not be 868
construed to require the disclosure of debts owed by the person 869
resulting from the ordinary conduct of a business or profession or 870
debts on the person's residence or real property used primarily 871
for personal recreation, except that the superintendent of 872
financial institutions shall disclose the names of all 873
state-chartered savings and loan associations and of all service 874
corporations subject to regulation under division (E)(2) of 875
section 1151.34 of the Revised Code to whom the superintendent in 876
the superintendent's own name or in the name of any other person 877
owes any money, and that the superintendent and any deputy 878
superintendent of banks shall disclose the names of all 879
state-chartered banks and all bank subsidiary corporations subject 880
to regulation under section 1109.44 of the Revised Code to whom 881
the superintendent or deputy superintendent owes any money.882

       (6) The names of all persons residing or transacting business 883
in the state, other than a depository excluded under division 884
(A)(3) of this section, who owe more than one thousand dollars to 885
the person filing the statement, either in the person's own name 886
or to any person for the person's use or benefit. Division (A)(6) 887
of this section shall not be construed to require the disclosure 888
of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under section 4732.12 889
or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons certified 890
under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, nor the disclosure of 891
debts owed to the person resulting from the ordinary conduct of a 892
business or profession.893

       (7) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 894
Revised Code, the source of each gift of over seventy-five 895
dollars, or of each gift of over twenty-five dollars received by a 896
member of the general assembly from a legislative agent, received 897
by the person in the person's own name or by any other person for 898
the person's use or benefit during the preceding calendar year, 899
except gifts received by will or by virtue of section 2105.06 of 900
the Revised Code, or received from spouses, parents, grandparents, 901
children, grandchildren, siblings, nephews, nieces, uncles, aunts, 902
brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, daughters-in-law, 903
fathers-in-law, mothers-in-law, or any person to whom the person 904
filing the statement stands in loco parentis, or received by way 905
of distribution from any inter vivos or testamentary trust 906
established by a spouse or by an ancestor;907

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 908
Revised Code, identification of the source and amount of every 909
payment of expenses incurred for travel to destinations inside or 910
outside this state that is received by the person in the person's 911
own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit 912
and that is incurred in connection with the person's official 913
duties, except for expenses for travel to meetings or conventions 914
of a national or state organization to which any state agency, 915
including, but not limited to, any legislative agency or state 916
institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of 917
the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any political 918
subdivision or any office or agency of a political subdivision 919
pays membership dues;920

       (9) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 921
Revised Code, identification of the source of payment of expenses 922
for meals and other food and beverages, other than for meals and 923
other food and beverages provided at a meeting at which the person 924
participated in a panel, seminar, or speaking engagement or at a 925
meeting or convention of a national or state organization to which 926
any state agency, including, but not limited to, any legislative 927
agency or state institution of higher education as defined in 928
section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any 929
political subdivision or any office or agency of a political 930
subdivision pays membership dues, that are incurred in connection 931
with the person's official duties and that exceed one hundred 932
dollars aggregated per calendar year;933

       (10) If the disclosure statement is filed by a public 934
official or employee described in division (B)(2) of section 935
101.73 of the Revised Code or division (B)(2) of section 121.63 of 936
the Revised Code who receives a statement from a legislative 937
agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer that contains the 938
information described in division (F)(2) of section 101.73 of the 939
Revised Code or division (G)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised 940
Code, all of the nondisputed information contained in the 941
statement delivered to that public official or employee by the 942
legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer under 943
division (F)(2) of section 101.73 or (G)(2) of section 121.63 of 944
the Revised Code.945

       A person may file a statement required by this section in 946
person or by mail. A person who is a candidate for elective office 947
shall file the statement no later than the thirtieth day before 948
the primary, special, or general election at which the candidacy 949
is to be voted on, whichever election occurs soonest, except that 950
a person who is a write-in candidate shall file the statement no 951
later than the twentieth day before the earliest election at which 952
the person's candidacy is to be voted on. A person who holds 953
elective office shall file the statement on or before the 954
fifteenth day of April of each year unless the person is a 955
candidate for office. A person who is appointed to fill a vacancy 956
for an unexpired term in an elective office shall file the 957
statement within fifteen days after the person qualifies for 958
office. Other persons shall file an annual statement on or before 959
the fifteenth day of April or, if appointed or employed after that 960
date, within ninety days after appointment or employment. No 961
person shall be required to file with the appropriate ethics 962
commission more than one statement or pay more than one filing fee 963
for any one calendar year.964

       The appropriate ethics commission, for good cause, may extend 965
for a reasonable time the deadline for filing a statement under 966
this section.967

       A statement filed under this section is subject to public 968
inspection at locations designated by the appropriate ethics 969
commission except as otherwise provided in this section.970

       (B) The Ohio ethics commission, the joint legislative ethics 971
committee, and the board of commissioners on grievances and 972
discipline of the supreme court, using the rule-making procedures 973
of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may require any class of 974
public officials or employees under its jurisdiction and not 975
specifically excluded by this section whose positions involve a 976
substantial and material exercise of administrative discretion in 977
the formulation of public policy, expenditure of public funds, 978
enforcement of laws and rules of the state or a county or city, or 979
the execution of other public trusts, to file an annual statement 980
on or before the fifteenth day of April under division (A) of this 981
section. The appropriate ethics commission shall send the public 982
officials or employees written notice of the requirement by the 983
fifteenth day of February of each year the filing is required 984
unless the public official or employee is appointed after that 985
date, in which case the notice shall be sent within thirty days 986
after appointment, and the filing shall be made not later than 987
ninety days after appointment.988

       Except for disclosure statements filed by members of the 989
board of trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio 990
agricultural and community development foundation, disclosure 991
statements filed under this division with the Ohio ethics 992
commission by members of boards, commissions, or bureaus of the 993
state for which no compensation is received other than reasonable 994
and necessary expenses shall be kept confidential. Disclosure 995
statements filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division 996
(A) of this section by business managers, treasurers, and 997
superintendents of city, local, exempted village, joint 998
vocational, or cooperative education school districts or 999
educational service centers shall be kept confidential, except 1000
that any person conducting an audit of any such school district or 1001
educational service center pursuant to section 115.56 or Chapter 1002
117. of the Revised Code may examine the disclosure statement of 1003
any business manager, treasurer, or superintendent of that school 1004
district or educational service center. Disclosure statements 1005
filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division (A) of this 1006
section by the individuals set forth in division (B)(2) of section 1007
187.03 of the Revised Code shall be kept confidential. The Ohio 1008
ethics commission shall examine each disclosure statement required 1009
to be kept confidential to determine whether a potential conflict 1010
of interest exists for the person who filed the disclosure 1011
statement. A potential conflict of interest exists if the private 1012
interests of the person, as indicated by the person's disclosure 1013
statement, might interfere with the public interests the person is 1014
required to serve in the exercise of the person's authority and 1015
duties in the person's office or position of employment. If the 1016
commission determines that a potential conflict of interest 1017
exists, it shall notify the person who filed the disclosure 1018
statement and shall make the portions of the disclosure statement 1019
that indicate a potential conflict of interest subject to public 1020
inspection in the same manner as is provided for other disclosure 1021
statements. Any portion of the disclosure statement that the 1022
commission determines does not indicate a potential conflict of 1023
interest shall be kept confidential by the commission and shall 1024
not be made subject to public inspection, except as is necessary 1025
for the enforcement of Chapters 102. and 2921. of the Revised Code 1026
and except as otherwise provided in this division.1027

       (C) No person shall knowingly fail to file, on or before the 1028
applicable filing deadline established under this section, a 1029
statement that is required by this section.1030

       (D) No person shall knowingly file a false statement that is 1031
required to be filed under this section.1032

       (E)(1) Except as provided in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this 1033
section, the statement required by division (A) or (B) of this 1034
section shall be accompanied by a filing fee of fortysixty1035
dollars.1036

       (2) The statement required by division (A) of this section 1037
shall be accompanied by the following filing fee to be paid by the 1038
person who is elected or appointed to, or is a candidate for, any 1039
of the following offices:1040

For state office, except member of the 1041
state board of education $95 1042
For office of member of general assembly $40 1043
For county office $60 1044
For city office $35 1045
For township office $35 1046
For office of member of the state board 1047
of education $25 $35 1048
For office of member of the Ohio 1049
livestock care standards board $..... 1050
For office of member of a city, local, 1051
exempted village, or cooperative 1052
education board of 1053
education or educational service 1054
center governing board $30 1055
For position of business manager, 1056
treasurer, or superintendent of a 1057
city, local, exempted village, joint 1058
vocational, or cooperative education 1059
school district or 1060
educational service center $30 1061

       (3) No judge of a court of record or candidate for judge of a 1062
court of record, and no referee or magistrate serving a court of 1063
record, shall be required to pay the fee required under division 1064
(E)(1) or (2) or (F) of this section.1065

       (4) For any public official who is appointed to a nonelective 1066
office of the state and for any employee who holds a nonelective 1067
position in a public agency of the state, the state agency that is 1068
the primary employer of the state official or employee shall pay 1069
the fee required under division (E)(1) or (F) of this section.1070

       (F) If a statement required to be filed under this section is 1071
not filed by the date on which it is required to be filed, the 1072
appropriate ethics commission shall assess the person required to 1073
file the statement a late filing fee of ten dollars for each day 1074
the statement is not filed, except that the total amount of the 1075
late filing fee shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars.1076

       (G)(1) The appropriate ethics commission other than the Ohio 1077
ethics commission and the joint legislative ethics committee shall 1078
deposit all fees it receives under divisions (E) and (F) of this 1079
section into the general revenue fund of the state.1080

       (2) The Ohio ethics commission shall deposit all receipts, 1081
including, but not limited to, fees it receives under divisions 1082
(E) and (F) of this section, investigative or other fees, costs, 1083
or other funds it receives as a result of court orders, and all 1084
moneys it receives from settlements under division (G) of section 1085
102.06 of the Revised Code, into the Ohio ethics commission fund, 1086
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All moneys credited 1087
to the fund shall be used solely for expenses related to the 1088
operation and statutory functions of the commission.1089

       (3) The joint legislative ethics committee shall deposit all 1090
receipts it receives from the payment of financial disclosure 1091
statement filing fees under divisions (E) and (F) of this section 1092
into the joint legislative ethics committee investigative fund.1093

       (H) Division (A) of this section does not apply to a person 1094
elected or appointed to the office of precinct, ward, or district 1095
committee member under Chapter 3517. of the Revised Code; a 1096
presidential elector; a delegate to a national convention; village 1097
or township officials and employees; township officials of a 1098
township with a population of less than five thousand, as 1099
determined by the most recent decennial census; all township 1100
employees; any physician or psychiatrist who is paid a salary or 1101
wage in accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule 1102
E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code and whose primary 1103
duties do not require the exercise of administrative discretion; 1104
or any member of a board, commission, or bureau of any county or 1105
city who receives less than one thousand dollars per year for 1106
serving in that position.1107

       Sec. 103.05.  (A) The director of the legislative service 1108
commission shall be the codifier of the rules of the 1109
administrative agencies of the state. When a rule is filed under 1110
section 111.15, 119.04, 4141.14, or 5703.14 of the Revised Code, 1111
the director or the director's designee shall examine the rule. If 1112
the rule is not numbered or if the numbering of the rule is not in 1113
conformity with the system established by the director, the 1114
director shall give the rule its proper number by designating the 1115
proper number on the left hand margin of the rule. The number 1116
shall be the official administrative code number of the rule. Any 1117
number so assigned shall be published in any publication of the 1118
administrative code. Rules of the administrative code shall be 1119
cited and referred to by such official numbers.1120

       The legislative service commission shall, pursuant to section 1121
111.15 of the Revised Code, adopt, amend, and rescind any rules 1122
that are necessary to provide a uniform administrative code; to 1123
provide standards for use by the director in determining whether 1124
to include in the administrative code the full text of, or a 1125
reference to, any rule filed with the commission; to permit the 1126
director to discharge the director's duties and exercise the 1127
director's powers as described in this section; and to permit the 1128
director to discharge the director's duties and exercise the 1129
director's powers with respect to establishing and maintaining, 1130
and enhancing and improving, the electronic rule-filing system 1131
under section 103.0511 of the Revised Code.1132

       When the commission adopts rules to provide standards for use 1133
by the director in determining whether to include the full text 1134
of, or a reference to, a rule in the administrative code, it shall 1135
consider all of the following:1136

       (1) Whether the rule applies uniformly to all citizens of the 1137
state;1138

       (2) Whether the rule applies uniformly to all political 1139
subdivisions of the state;1140

       (3) Whether the rule affects the health, welfare, and safety 1141
of the citizens of the state;1142

       (4) Whether the rule applies only to the internal affairs of 1143
the agency adopting the rule;1144

       (5) The number of persons affected by the rule;1145

       (6) Whether the rule affects the statutory or constitutional 1146
rights of any person.1147

       The director or the director's designee shall accept any rule 1148
that is filed under section 111.15, 119.04, 4141.14, or 5703.14 of 1149
the Revised Code. If the director or the director's designee 1150
accepts a rule that is not in compliance with the rules of the 1151
commission, the director shall give notice of the noncompliance in 1152
electronic form to the agency that filed the rule within thirty 1153
days after the date on which the rule is filed. The notice shall 1154
indicate why the rule does not comply with the rules of the 1155
commission and how the rule can be brought into compliance. The 1156
failure of the director to give an agency notice within the 1157
thirty-day period shall presumptively establish that the rule 1158
complies with the rules of the commission.1159

       (B) Any person may publish an acceptable code. The director 1160
shall approve as acceptable any person's publication of the code 1161
conforming to the requirements of this division.1162

       An Ohio administrative code approved as acceptable by the 1163
director shall:1164

       (1) Contain a compilation of the full text of, or a reference 1165
to, each rule filed under sections 111.15, 119.04, 4141.14, and 1166
5703.14 of the Revised Code;1167

       (2) Presumptively establish the rules of all agencies 1168
adopting rules under section 111.15, 4141.14, 5703.14, or Chapter 1169
119. of the Revised Code that are in effect on the day of its 1170
initial publication;1171

       (3) Contain the full text of, or a reference to, each rule 1172
adopted after its initial publication and be updated at least 1173
quarterly;1174

       (4) Contain an index of the rules and references to rules 1175
that are included in the code and each supplement using terms 1176
easily understood by the general public;1177

       (5) Be published in electronic or print format following, to 1178
the extent possible, the subject matter arrangement of the Revised 1179
Code;1180

       (6) Be numbered according to the numbering system devised by 1181
the director.1182

       (C) If the director does not approve as acceptable any 1183
publication of the administrative code, theThe director, subject 1184
to division (D) of this section, may prepare and publish the code, 1185
or contract with any person under this division to prepare and 1186
publish the code. Any code published under this division shall 1187
include all of the requirements of division (B) of this section. 1188
In addition, the director shall furnish any code or supplement 1189
published under this division to any person who requests the code 1190
or supplement upon payment of a charge established by the 1191
director, not to exceed the cost of preparation and publication.1192

       Upon the request of the director of the legislative service 1193
commission under this division, the director of administrative 1194
services, in accordance with the competitive selection procedure 1195
of Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, shall let a contract for the 1196
compilation, preparation, and printing or publication of the 1197
administrative code and supplements.1198

       (D) The director shall not prepare and publish the 1199
administrative code in a print mode or any other mode under 1200
division (B) or (C) of this section unless no other person is 1201
willing and qualified to publish a version of the code in that 1202
mode that the director has approved as acceptable.1203

       Sec. 105.41.  (A) There is hereby created in the legislative 1204
branch of government the capitol square review and advisory board, 1205
consisting of thirteentwelve members as follows:1206

       (1) Two members of the senate, appointed by the president of 1207
the senate, both of whom shall not be members of the same 1208
political party;1209

       (2) Two members of the house of representatives, appointed by 1210
the speaker of the house of representatives, both of whom shall 1211
not be members of the same political party;1212

       (3) FiveFour members appointed by the governor, with the 1213
advice and consent of the senate, not more than three of whom 1214
shall be members of the same political party, one of whom shall be 1215
the chief of staff of the governor's office, one of whom shall 1216
represent the Ohio arts council, one of whom shall represent the 1217
Ohio historical society, one of whom shall represent the Ohio 1218
building authority, and one of whom shall represent the public at 1219
large;1220

       (4) One member, who shall be a former president of the 1221
senate, appointed by the current president of the senate. If the 1222
current president of the senate, in the current president's 1223
discretion, decides for any reason not to make the appointment or 1224
if no person is eligible or available to serve, the seat shall 1225
remain vacant.1226

       (5) One member, who shall be a former speaker of the house of 1227
representatives, appointed by the current speaker of the house of 1228
representatives. If the current speaker of the house of 1229
representatives, in the current speaker's discretion, decides for 1230
any reason not to make the appointment or if no person is eligible 1231
or available to serve, the seat shall remain vacant.1232

       (6) The clerk of the senate and the clerk of the house of 1233
representatives.1234

       (B) Terms of office of each appointed member of the board 1235
shall be for three years, except that members of the general 1236
assembly appointed to the board shall be members of the board only 1237
so long as they are members of the general assembly and the chief 1238
of staff of the governor's office shall be a member of the board 1239
only so long as the appointing governor remains in office. Each 1240
member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment 1241
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. In 1242
case of a vacancy occurring on the board, the president of the 1243
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, or the 1244
governor, as the case may be, shall in the same manner prescribed 1245
for the regular appointment to the commission, fill the vacancy by 1246
appointing a member. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy 1247
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 1248
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 1249
remainder of the term. Any appointed member shall continue in 1250
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 1251
until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of 1252
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.1253

       (C) The board shall hold meetings in a manner and at times 1254
prescribed by the rules adopted by the board. A majority of the 1255
board constitutes a quorum, and no action shall be taken by the 1256
board unless approved by at least six members or by at least seven 1257
members if a person is appointed under division (A)(4) or (5) of 1258
this section. At its first meeting, the board shall adopt rules 1259
for the conduct of its business and the election of its officers, 1260
and shall organize by selecting a chairperson and other officers 1261
as it considers necessary. Board members shall serve without 1262
compensation but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary 1263
expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.1264

       (D) The board may do any of the following:1265

       (1) Employ or hire on a consulting basis professional, 1266
technical, and clerical employees as are necessary for the 1267
performance of its duties. All employees of the board are in the 1268
unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the board. For 1269
purposes of section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, employees of the 1270
board shall be considered employees of the general assembly, 1271
except that employees who are covered by a collective bargaining 1272
agreement on the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 1273
2011, shall remain subject to the agreement until the agreement 1274
expires on its terms, and the agreement shall not be extended or 1275
renewed. Upon expiration of the agreement, the employees are 1276
considered employees of the general assembly for purposes of 1277
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code and are in the unclassified 1278
service and serve at the pleasure of the board.1279

       (2) Hold public hearings at times and places as determined by 1280
the board;1281

       (3) Adopt, amend, or rescind rules necessary to accomplish 1282
the duties of the board as set forth in this section;1283

       (4) Sponsor, conduct, and support such social events as the 1284
board may authorize and consider appropriate for the employees of 1285
the board, employees and members of the general assembly, 1286
employees of persons under contract with the board or otherwise 1287
engaged to perform services on the premises of capitol square, or 1288
other persons as the board may consider appropriate. Subject to 1289
the requirements of Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, the board 1290
may provide beer, wine, and intoxicating liquor, with or without 1291
charge, for those events and may use funds only from the sale of 1292
goods and services fund to purchase the beer, wine, and 1293
intoxicating liquor the board provides;1294

       (5) Purchase a warehouse in which to store items of the 1295
capitol collection trust and, whenever necessary, equipment or 1296
other property of the board.1297

       (E) The board shall do all of the following:1298

       (1) Have sole authority to coordinate and approve any 1299
improvements, additions, and renovations that are made to the 1300
capitol square. The improvements shall include, but not be limited 1301
to, the placement of monuments and sculpture on the capitol 1302
grounds.1303

       (2) Subject to section 3353.07 of the Revised Code, operate 1304
the capitol square, and have sole authority to regulate all uses 1305
of the capitol square. The uses shall include, but not be limited 1306
to, the casual and recreational use of the capitol square.1307

       (3) Employ, fix the compensation of, and prescribe the duties 1308
of the executive director of the board and other employees the 1309
board considers necessary for the performance of its powers and 1310
duties;1311

       (4) Establish and maintain the capitol collection trust. The 1312
capitol collection trust shall consist of furniture, antiques, and 1313
other items of personal property that the board shall store in 1314
suitable facilities until they are ready to be displayed in the 1315
capitol square.1316

       (5) Perform repair, construction, contracting, purchasing, 1317
maintenance, supervisory, and operating activities the board 1318
determines are necessary for the operation and maintenance of the 1319
capitol square;1320

       (6) Maintain and preserve the capitol square, in accordance 1321
with guidelines issued by the United States secretary of the 1322
interior for application of the secretary's standards for 1323
rehabilitation adopted in 36 C.F.R. part 67;1324

       (7) Plan and develop a center at the capitol building for the 1325
purpose of educating visitors about the history of Ohio, including 1326
its political, economic, and social development and the design and 1327
erection of the capitol building and its grounds.1328

       (F)(1) The board shall lease capital facilities improved or 1329
financed by the Ohio building authority pursuant to Chapter 152. 1330
of the Revised Code for the use of the board, and may enter into 1331
any other agreements with the authority ancillary to improvement, 1332
financing, or leasing of those capital facilities, including, but 1333
not limited to, any agreement required by the applicable bond 1334
proceedings authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. Any 1335
lease of capital facilities authorized by this section shall be 1336
governed by division (D) of section 152.24 of the Revised Code.1337

       (2) Fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board from 1338
the state underground parking garage constitute available receipts 1339
as defined in section 152.09 of the Revised Code, and may be 1340
pledged to the payment of bond service charges on obligations 1341
issued by the Ohio building authority pursuant to Chapter 152. of 1342
the Revised Code to improve, finance, or purchase capital 1343
facilities useful to the board. The authority may, with the 1344
consent of the board, provide in the bond proceedings for a pledge 1345
of all or a portion of those fees, receipts, and revenues as the 1346
authority determines. The authority may provide in the bond 1347
proceedings or by separate agreement with the board for the 1348
transfer of those fees, receipts, and revenues to the appropriate 1349
bond service fund or bond service reserve fund as required to pay 1350
the bond service charges when due, and any such provision for the 1351
transfer of those fees, receipts, and revenues shall be 1352
controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law pertaining 1353
to those fees, receipts, and revenues.1354

       (3) All moneys received by the treasurer of state on account 1355
of the board and required by the applicable bond proceedings or by 1356
separate agreement with the board to be deposited, transferred, or 1357
credited to the bond service fund or bond service reserve fund 1358
established by the bond proceedings shall be transferred by the 1359
treasurer of state to such fund, whether or not it is in the 1360
custody of the treasurer of state, without necessity for further 1361
appropriation, upon receipt of notice from the Ohio building 1362
authority as prescribed in the bond proceedings.1363

       (G) All(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(2) 1364
of this section, all fees, receipts, and revenues received by the 1365
board from the state underground parking garage shall be deposited 1366
into the state treasury to the credit of the underground parking 1367
garage operating fund, which is hereby created, to be used for the 1368
purposes specified in division (F) of this section and for the 1369
operation and maintenance of the garage. All investment earnings 1370
of the fund shall be credited to the fund.1371

       (2) There is hereby created the parking garage automated 1372
equipment fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 1373
state but shall not be part of the state treasury. Money in the 1374
fund shall be used to purchase the automated teller machine 1375
quality dollar bills needed for operation of the parking garage 1376
automated equipment. The fund shall consist of fees, receipts, or 1377
revenues received by the board from the state underground parking 1378
garage; provided, however, that the total amount deposited into 1379
the fund at any one time shall not exceed ten thousand dollars. 1380
All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.1381

       (H) All donations received by the board shall be deposited 1382
into the state treasury to the credit of the capitol square 1383
renovation gift fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be 1384
used by the board as follows:1385

       (1) To provide part or all of the funding related to 1386
construction, goods, or services for the renovation of the capitol 1387
square;1388

       (2) To purchase art, antiques, and artifacts for display at 1389
the capitol square;1390

       (3) To award contracts or make grants to organizations for 1391
educating the public regarding the historical background and 1392
governmental functions of the capitol square. Chapters 125., 127., 1393
and 153. and section 3517.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to 1394
purchases made exclusively from the fund, notwithstanding anything 1395
to the contrary in those chapters or that section. All investment 1396
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.1397

       (I) Except as provided in divisions (G), (H), and (J) of this 1398
section, all fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board 1399
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 1400
sale of goods and services fund, which is hereby created. Money 1401
credited to the fund shall be used solely to pay costs of the 1402
board other than those specified in divisions (F) and (G) of this 1403
section. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to 1404
the fund.1405

       (J) There is hereby created in the state treasury the capitol 1406
square improvement fund, to be used by the board to pay 1407
construction, renovation, and other costs related to the capitol 1408
square for which money is not otherwise available to the board. 1409
Whenever the board determines that there is a need to incur those 1410
costs and that the unencumbered, unobligated balance to the credit 1411
of the underground parking garage operating fund exceeds the 1412
amount needed for the purposes specified in division (F) of this 1413
section and for the operation and maintenance of the garage, the 1414
board may request the director of budget and management to 1415
transfer from the underground parking garage operating fund to the 1416
capitol square improvement fund the amount needed to pay such 1417
construction, renovation, or other costs. The director then shall 1418
transfer the amount needed from the excess balance of the 1419
underground parking garage operating fund.1420

       (K) As the operation and maintenance of the capitol square 1421
constitute essential government functions of a public purpose, the 1422
board shall not be required to pay taxes or assessments upon the 1423
square, upon any property acquired or used by the board under this 1424
section, or upon any income generated by the operation of the 1425
square.1426

       (L) As used in this section, "capitol square" means the 1427
capitol building, senate building, capitol atrium, capitol 1428
grounds, the state underground parking garage, and the warehouse 1429
owned by the board.1430

       (M) The capitol annex shall be known as the senate building.1431

       Sec. 107.54. (A)(1) When the common sense initiative office 1432
receives a draft rule and business impact analysis from an agency, 1433
the office shall evaluate the draft rule and analysis against the 1434
business impact analysis instrument and any other relevant 1435
criteria, and may prepare and transmit recommendations to the 1436
agency on how the draft rule might be revised to eliminate or 1437
reduce any adverse impact the draft rule might have on businesses.1438

       (2) When the office receives a rule and business impact 1439
analysis from an agency under division (A)(2) of section 119.033 1440
of the Revised Code, the office shall evaluate the rule and 1441
analysis against the business impact analysis instrument and any 1442
other relevant criteria, and may prepare and transmit 1443
recommendations to the agency on how the rule might be amended or 1444
rescinded to eliminate or reduce any adverse impact the rule has 1445
on businesses.1446

       (B) The office shall transmit any such recommendations 1447
electronically to the agency. If the office fails to make such a 1448
transmission after receiving the draft rule and business impact 1449
analysis, it is as if the office had elected not to make any 1450
recommendations.1451

       Sec. 109.33.  The attorney general may appoint, with salaries 1452
fixed pursuant to section 124.15 or 124.152 of the Revised Code, 1453
such assistants and may employ such stenographers and clerks as 1454
may be necessary to carry out sections 109.23 to 109.33 of the 1455
Revised Code. The attorney general may also employ or contract1456
experts for assistance in any specific matter at a reasonable rate 1457
of compensation.1458

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 1459
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 1460
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 1461
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 1462
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 1463
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 1464
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 1465
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 1466
(A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised 1467
Code, of all children under eighteen years of age who have been 1468
adjudicated delinquent children for committing within this state 1469
an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if 1470
committed by an adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded 1471
guilty to committing within this state a felony or an offense of 1472
violence, and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person 1473
in charge of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, 1474
or multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 1475
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 1476
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 1477
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 1478
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 1479
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 1480
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 1481
(A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised 1482
Code or having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with 1483
respect to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child 1484
may have committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of 1485
violence if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to 1486
the superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or 1487
other descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen 1488
years of age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into 1489
custody for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense 1490
of violence who is not in any other category of child specified in 1491
this division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated 1492
a delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 1493
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 1494
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 1495
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 1496
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 1497
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 1498
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 1499
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 1500
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 1501
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 1502
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 1503
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 1504
Revised Code. 1505

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 1506
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 1507
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 1508
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 1509
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 1510
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 1511
(A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised 1512
Code, or involving an adjudication in a case in which a child 1513
under eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child 1514
for committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of 1515
violence if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of 1516
common pleas shall include in the report and summary the clerk 1517
sends under this division all information described in divisions 1518
(A)(2)(a) to (f) of this section regarding a case before the court 1519
of appeals that is served by that clerk. The summary shall be 1520
written on the standard forms furnished by the superintendent 1521
pursuant to division (B) of this section and shall include the 1522
following information: 1523

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 1524
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 1525
this section; 1526

       (b) The style and number of the case; 1527

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 1528

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 1529
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 1530
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 1531
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 1532
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 1533
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 1534
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 1535
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 1536
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 1537
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 1538
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 1539
of the case; 1540

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 1541
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 1542

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 1543
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 1544
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 1545
delinquent child. 1546

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 1547
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 1548
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 1549
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 1550
placed in the bureau's records. 1551

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 1552
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 1553
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 1554
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 1555
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 1556
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 1557
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 1558
(A)(1)(a), (A)(8)(5)(a), or (A)(10)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of 1559
the Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 1560
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 1561
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 1562
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 1563
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 1564
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 1565
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 1566
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 1567
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 1568
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 1569
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 1570
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 1571
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 1572
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 1573
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 1574
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 1575
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 1576
state and its political subdivisions. 1577

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 1578
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 1579
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 1580
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 1581
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 1582

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 1583
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 1584
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 1585
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 1586
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 1587
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 1588
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 1589
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 1590
compact officer specified in that compact. 1591

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 1592
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 1593
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 1594
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 1595
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 1596
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 1597
standard forms for reporting the information required under 1598
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 1599
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 1600
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 1601
formats and electronic formats. 1602

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 1603
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 1604
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 1605
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 1606
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 1607
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 1608
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 1609
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 1610
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 1611
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 1612
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 1613
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 1614
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 1615
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 1616
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 1617
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 1618
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 1619

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 1620
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 1621
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 1622
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 1623
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 1624
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 1625
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 1626
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 1627
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 1628
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 1629
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 1630
section. 1631

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 1632
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 1633
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 1634
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 1635
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 1636
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 1637

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 1638
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 1639
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 1640
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 1641
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 1642
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 1643
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 1644
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 1645
enforcement gateway.1646

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 1647
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 1648
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 1649
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 1650
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 1651
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.1652

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 1653
149.43 of the Revised Code:1654

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 1655
pursuant to division (A) of this section;1656

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 1657
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 1658
division (C)(1) of this section;1659

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 1660
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.1661

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 1662
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 1663
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 1664
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 1665
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 1666
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 1667
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 1668

       (E) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 1669
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, setting forth the procedure 1670
by which a person may receive or release information gathered by 1671
the superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 1672
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 1673
employment service submits a request for a determination of 1674
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 1675
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 1676
listed in division (A)(1), (3), (4), (5), or (6)(2) of section 1677
109.572 of the Revised Code or has been convicted of, pleaded 1678
guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 1679
conviction for a disqualifying offense as defined in section 1680
173.394, 3701.881, or 5111.032 of the Revised Code, the request 1681
shall be treated as a single request and only one fee shall be 1682
charged. 1683

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 1684
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 1685
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 1686
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 1687
as amended. 1688

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 1689
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 1690
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 1691
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, 1692
5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made 1693
under section 3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the 1694
Revised Code, the board of education of any school district; the 1695
director of developmental disabilities; any county board of 1696
developmental disabilities; any entity under contract with a 1697
county board of developmental disabilitiesprovider or 1698
subcontractor as defined in section 5123.081 of the Revised Code; 1699
the chief administrator of any chartered nonpublic school; the 1700
chief administrator of a registered private provider that is not 1701
also a chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of any 1702
home health agency; the chief administrator of or person operating 1703
any child day-care center, type A family day-care home, or type B 1704
family day-care home licensed or certified under Chapter 5104. of 1705
the Revised Code; the administrator of any type C family day-care 1706
home certified pursuant to Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st 1707
general assembly or Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st 1708
general assembly; the chief administrator of any head start 1709
agency; the executive director of a public children services 1710
agency; a private company described in section 3314.41, 3319.392, 1711
3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code; or an employer described 1712
in division (J)(2) of section 3327.10 of the Revised Code may 1713
request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and 1714
determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 1715
employment in any position after October 2, 1989, or any 1716
individual wishing to apply for employment with a board of 1717
education may request, with regard to the individual, whether the 1718
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 1719
section that pertains to that individual. On receipt of the 1720
request, the superintendent shall determine whether that 1721
information exists and, upon request of the person, board, or 1722
entity requesting information, also shall request from the federal 1723
bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to 1724
that individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's 1725
designee also may request criminal history records from other 1726
states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime 1727
prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the 1728
Revised Code. Within thirty days of the date that the 1729
superintendent receives a request, the superintendent shall send 1730
to the board, entity, or person a report of any information that 1731
the superintendent determines exists, including information 1732
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 1733
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 1734
send the board, entity, or person a report of any information 1735
received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than 1736
information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal 1737
law. 1738

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 1739
provider is required to receive information under this section as 1740
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 1741
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 1742
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 1743
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 1744
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 1745
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 1746
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 1747
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 1748
employment application documents and shall return the certified 1749
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 1750
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 1751
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 1752
bureau. 1753

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 1754
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 1755
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 1756
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 1757
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 1758
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.1759

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 1760
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 1761
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 1762
education, any information that a school district board of 1763
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 1764
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 1765
the request has been received from a school district board of 1766
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 1767

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 1768
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 1769
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 1770
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 1771
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 1772

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 1773
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 1774
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 1775
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 1776
the information that a school district board of education is 1777
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 1778
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 1779
has been received from a school district board of education under 1780
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 1781

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 1782
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, or 3721.121, 1783
5119.693, or 5119.85 of the Revised Code with respect to an 1784
individual who has applied for employment in a position that 1785
involves providing direct care to an older adult or adult 1786
resident, the chief administrator of a home health agency, hospice 1787
care program, home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 1788
Code, or adult day-care program operated pursuant to rules adopted 1789
under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, adult foster home, or 1790
adult care facility may request that the superintendent of the 1791
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 1792
who has applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a 1793
position that does not involve providing direct care to an older 1794
adult or adult resident, whether the bureau has any information 1795
gathered under division (A) of this section that pertains to that 1796
individual. 1797

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 1798
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 1799
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 1800
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 1801
residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 1802
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 1803
ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, or director of health may 1804
request that the superintendent investigate and determine, with 1805
respect to any individual who has applied for employment in a 1806
position that does not involve providing such ombudsperson 1807
services, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 1808
division (A) of this section that pertains to that applicant. 1809

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 1810
required to be made under section 173.394 of the Revised Code with 1811
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 1812
position that involves providing direct care to an individual, the 1813
chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency may 1814
request that the superintendent investigate and determine, with 1815
respect to any individual who has applied for employment in a 1816
position that does not involve providing direct care, whether the 1817
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 1818
section that pertains to that applicant. 1819

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 1820
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 1821
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 1822
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 1823
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 1824
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 1825
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 1826
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 1827
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 1828
date a request is received, the superintendent shall send to the 1829
requester a report of any information determined to exist, 1830
including information contained in records that have been sealed 1831
under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days 1832
of its receipt, shall send the requester a report of any 1833
information received from the federal bureau of investigation, 1834
other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 1835
federal law. 1836

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 1837
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 1838
disseminated. 1839

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 1840
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 1841
(G) of this section. 1842

       (J) As used in this section:1843

       (1) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 1844
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 1845
Revised Code.1846

       (2) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 1847
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 1848
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 1849
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 1850
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 1851
program.1852

       Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to 1853
section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, 1854
a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 1855
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 1856
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 1857
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 1858
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 1859
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 1860
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 1861
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 1862
guilty to any of the following:1863

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1864
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1865
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 1866
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 1867
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 1868
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 1869
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 1870
2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 1871
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 1872
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 1873
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 1874
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 1875
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 1876
had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a 1877
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 1878
minor drug possession offense;1879

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 1880
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 1881
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of 1882
this section.1883

       (2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 5123.081 of 1884
the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in 1885
any position with the department of developmental disabilities, 1886
pursuant to section 5126.28 of the Revised Code with respect to an 1887
applicant for employment in any position with a county board of 1888
developmental disabilities, or pursuant to section 5126.281 of the 1889
Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment in a 1890
direct services position with an entity contracting with a county 1891
board for employment, a completed form prescribed pursuant to 1892
division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 1893
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 1894
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 1895
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 1896
check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check 1897
in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 1898
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 1899
person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or 1900
pleaded guilty to any of the following:1901

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1902
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1903
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 1904
2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 1905
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 1906
2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 1907
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 1908
2925.03, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;1909

       (b) An existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this 1910
state, any other state, or the United States that is substantially 1911
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of 1912
this section.1913

       (3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 1914
173.394, 3712.09, or 3721.121, 5119.693, or 5119.85 of the Revised 1915
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 1916
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 1917
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 1918
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 1919
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect 1920
to any person who has applied for employment in a position for 1921
which a criminal records check is required by those sections. The 1922
superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the 1923
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine 1924
whether any information exists that indicates that the person who 1925
is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or 1926
pleaded guilty to any of the following:1927

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1928
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1929
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 1930
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 1931
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 1932
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 1933
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 1934
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 1935
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;1936

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 1937
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 1938
the offenses listed in division (A)(3)(2)(a) of this section.1939

       (4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of 1940
the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with 1941
a home health agency as a person responsible for the care, 1942
custody, or control of a child, a completed form prescribed 1943
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of 1944
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in 1945
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau 1946
of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a 1947
criminal records check. The superintendent shall conduct the 1948
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 1949
this section to determine whether any information exists that 1950
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 1951
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 1952
following:1953

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1954
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 1955
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.04, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 1956
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.21, 1957
2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 1958
2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 1959
2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 1960
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code or a 1961
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 1962
minor drug possession offense;1963

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 1964
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 1965
the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of this section.1966

       (5)(3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 1967
173.394, 3701.881, 5111.032, 5111.033, or 5111.034, 5123.081, or 1968
5123.169 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 1969
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 1970
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 1971
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 1972
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 1973
check of the person for whom the request is made. The 1974
superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the 1975
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine 1976
whether any information exists that indicates that the person who 1977
is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of, 1978
has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention 1979
in lieu of conviction for any of the following, regardless of the 1980
date of the conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or 1981
the date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 1982
conviction:1983

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 1984
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 1985
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 1986
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 1987
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 1988
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 1989
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 1990
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 1991
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 1992
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 1993
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 1994
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 1995
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 1996
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 1997
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 1998
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 1999
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 2000
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 2001
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 2002
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2003
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 2004
had the violation been committed prior to that date;2005

       (b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 2006
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 2007
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 2008
division (A)(5)(a) of this sectiona disqualifying offense as 2009
defined in the section of the Revised Code under which the request 2010
is made.2011

       (6) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3701.881 of 2012
the Revised Code with respect to an applicant for employment with 2013
a home health agency in a position that involves providing direct 2014
care to an older adult, a completed form prescribed pursuant to 2015
division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 2016
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 2017
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2018
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2019
check. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check 2020
in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2021
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2022
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2023
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2024

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2025
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2026
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2027
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2028
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2029
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2030
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2031
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2032
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;2033

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 2034
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 2035
the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of this section.2036

       (7)(4) When conducting a criminal records check upon a 2037
request pursuant to section 3319.39 of the Revised Code for an 2038
applicant who is a teacher, in addition to the determination made 2039
under division (A)(1) of this section, the superintendent shall 2040
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2041
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2042
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense specified in section 2043
3319.31 of the Revised Code.2044

       (8)(5) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of 2045
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 2046
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 2047
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 2048
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2049
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2050
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2051
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2052
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2053
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2054

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2055
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2056
2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2057
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2058
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2059
2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2060
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2061
2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2062
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 2063
of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised 2064
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2065
2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of 2066
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 2067
1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a 2068
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 2069
minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations 2070
committed within the three years immediately preceding the 2071
submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the 2072
request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 2073
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;2074

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 2075
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 2076
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(8)(5)(a) 2077
of this section.2078

       (9)(6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 2079
or 5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed 2080
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of 2081
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in 2082
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau 2083
of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a 2084
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 2085
this section to determine whether any information exists that 2086
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request has 2087
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2088

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2089
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 2090
2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2091
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2092
2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2093
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2094
2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2095
2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2096
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 2097
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 2098
2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 2099
3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in 2100
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a 2101
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 2102
prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the 2103
Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 2104
of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 2105
violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of 2106
section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug 2107
possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of 2108
the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this 2109
division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 2110
Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or 2111
certification.2112

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 2113
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 2114
equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in 2115
division (A)(9)(6)(a) of this section.2116

       (10)(7) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 2117
5153.111 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 2118
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 2119
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 2120
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2121
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2122
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2123
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2124
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2125
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:2126

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2127
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2128
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2129
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2130
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2131
2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2132
2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2133
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, 2134
felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 2135
2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the 2136
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of 2137
section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a 2138
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 2139
prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to 2140
that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 2141
that is not a minor drug possession offense;2142

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 2143
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 2144
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(10)(7)(a) 2145
of this section.2146

       (11)(8) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 2147
from an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the 2148
Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form 2149
prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of 2150
fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division 2151
(C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of 2152
criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal 2153
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this 2154
section to determine whether any information exists indicating 2155
that the person who is the subject of the request has been 2156
convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any 2157
other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be 2158
carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall 2159
require information from the federal bureau of investigation as 2160
described in division (B)(2) of this section. The superintendent 2161
shall report the findings of the criminal records check and any 2162
information the federal bureau of investigation provides to the 2163
director of public safety.2164

       (12)(9) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 2165
1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised 2166
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 2167
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 2168
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 2169
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 2170
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect 2171
to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or 2172
certification from the department of commerce or a division in the 2173
department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 2174
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2175
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2176
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2177
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a 2178
violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 2179
2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving 2180
theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, 2181
passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any 2182
criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in 2183
Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of 2184
the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any 2185
other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent 2186
to those offenses.2187

       (13)(10) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 2188
from the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised 2189
Code or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 2190
4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 2191
4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 2192
4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 2193
4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 2194
4762.031, 4762.06, or 4779.091 of the Revised Code, accompanied by 2195
a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section 2196
and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner 2197
described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent 2198
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall 2199
conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in 2200
division (B) of this section to determine whether any information 2201
exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the 2202
request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal 2203
offense in this state or any other state. The superintendent shall 2204
send the results of a check requested under section 113.041 of the 2205
Revised Code to the treasurer of state and shall send the results 2206
of a check requested under any of the other listed sections to the 2207
licensing board specified by the individual in the request.2208

       (14)(11) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 2209
1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised 2210
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 2211
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 2212
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 2213
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 2214
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 2215
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 2216
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 2217
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 2218
guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of 2219
this state, any other state, or the United States.2220

       (15)(12) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 2221
from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of 2222
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division 2223
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 2224
obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this 2225
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2226
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 2227
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 2228
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 2229
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 2230
convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under 2231
any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the 2232
United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in 2233
section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to 2234
such an offense.2235

       (16)(13) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.33 2236
or 2151.412 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed 2237
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of 2238
fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner described in 2239
division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau 2240
of criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a 2241
criminal records check with respect to any person for whom a 2242
criminal records check is required by that section. The 2243
superintendent shall conduct the criminal records check in the 2244
manner described in division (B) of this section to determine 2245
whether any information exists that indicates that the person who 2246
is the subject of the request previously has been convicted of or 2247
pleaded guilty to any of the following:2248

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2249
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 2250
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 2251
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2252
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2253
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2254
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 2255
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2256
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;2257

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 2258
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 2259
the offenses listed in division (A)(13)(a) of this section.2260

       (14) Not later than thirty days after the date the 2261
superintendent receives a request of a type described in division 2262
(A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), 2263
(14), or (15)(13) of this section, the completed form, and the 2264
fingerprint impressions, the superintendent shall send the results 2265
of the criminal records check to the person, board, or entity that 2266
made the request any information, other than. The superintendent 2267
shall exclude from the results any information the dissemination 2268
of which is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent 2269
determines exists with respect to the person who is the subject of 2270
the request that indicates that the person previously has been 2271
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 2272
in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), 2273
(11), (12), (14), or (15) of this section, as appropriate. The 2274
superintendent shall send the person, board, or entity that made 2275
the request a copy of the list of offenses specified in division 2276
(A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), (12), 2277
(14), or (15) of this section, as appropriatefor which the 2278
criminal records check was conducted. If the request was made 2279
under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code with regard to an 2280
applicant who may be both responsible for the care, custody, or 2281
control of a child and involved in providing direct care to an 2282
older adult, the superintendent shall provide a list of the 2283
offenses specified in divisions (A)(4) and (6) of this section.2284

       Not later than thirty days after the superintendent receives 2285
a request for a criminal records check pursuant to section 113.041 2286
of the Revised Code, the completed form, and the fingerprint 2287
impressions, the superintendent shall send the treasurer of state 2288
any information, other than information the dissemination of which 2289
is prohibited by federal law, the superintendent determines exist 2290
with respect to the person who is the subject of the request that 2291
indicates that the person previously has been convicted of or 2292
pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in this state or any other 2293
state.2294

       (B) The superintendent shall conduct any criminal records 2295
check requested under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 2296
1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 2297
1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 2298
3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 2299
4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 2300
4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 2301
4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4749.03, 4749.06, 2302
4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 2303
4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 5104.013, 2304
5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85, 5123.081, 2305
5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Codeto be conducted 2306
under this section as follows:2307

       (1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed 2308
any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under 2309
division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to 2310
the person who is the subject of the requestcriminal records 2311
check, including, if the criminal records check was requested 2312
under section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 2313
1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 2314
1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 2315
3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 2316
5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85,2317
5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281,5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised 2318
Code, any relevant information contained in records that have been 2319
sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;2320

       (2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for 2321
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 2322
superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of 2323
investigation any information it has with respect to the person 2324
who is the subject of the requestcriminal records check, 2325
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 2326
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made 2327
pursuant to section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised 2328
Code or if any other Revised Code section requires 2329
fingerprint-based checks of that nature, and shall review or cause 2330
to be reviewed any information the superintendent receives from 2331
that bureau. If a request under section 3319.39 of the Revised 2332
Code asks only for information from the federal bureau of 2333
investigation, the superintendent shall not conduct the review 2334
prescribed by division (B)(1) of this section.2335

        (3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may 2336
request criminal history records from other states or the federal 2337
government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy 2338
compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.2339

       (C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain 2340
the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from 2341
any person for whom a criminal records check is requested under 2342
section 113.041 of the Revised Code or required by section 121.08, 2343
173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 2344
1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 2345
3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4701.08, 2346
4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 2347
4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 2348
4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 2349
4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 2350
4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 2351
5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85, 2352
5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Codeto be 2353
conducted under this section. The form that the superintendent 2354
prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, 2355
in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic 2356
formats.2357

       (2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression 2358
sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for 2359
whom a criminal records check is requested under section 113.041 2360
of the Revised Code or required by section 121.08, 173.27, 2361
173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 2362
1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 2363
3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 2364
4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 2365
4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 2366
4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 2367
4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 2368
4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 5104.012, 2369
5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 5119.85, 2370
5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised Codeto be 2371
conducted under this section. Any person for whom a records check 2372
is requested under or required by any of those sectionsto be 2373
conducted under this section shall obtain the fingerprint 2374
impressions at a county sheriff's office, municipal police 2375
department, or any other entity with the ability to make 2376
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheets 2377
prescribed by the superintendent. The office, department, or 2378
entity may charge the person a reasonable fee for making the 2379
impressions. The standard impression sheets the superintendent 2380
prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, 2381
in an electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic 2382
formats.2383

       (3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the 2384
superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for 2385
providing a criminal records check requested under section 2386
113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 2387
1315.141, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2388
2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3712.09, 3721.121, 2389
3772.07, 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 4725.121, 4725.501, 2390
4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 2391
4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 2392
4740.061, 4741.10, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4755.70, 4757.101, 4759.061, 2393
4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 4762.06, 4763.05, 4779.091, 2394
5104.012, 5104.013, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5119.693, 2395
5119.85, 5123.081, 5126.28, 5126.281, or 5153.111 of the Revised 2396
Codeunder this section. The person making arequesting the2397
criminal records request under any of those sectionscheck shall 2398
pay the fee prescribed pursuant to this division. A person making 2399
a request under section 3701.881 of the Revised Code for a 2400
criminal records check for an applicant who may be both 2401
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child and 2402
involved in providing direct care to an older adult shall pay one 2403
fee for the request. In the case of a request under section 2404
1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.33, 2405
2151.412, or 5111.032 of the Revised Code, the fee shall be paid 2406
in the manner specified in that section.2407

       (4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2408
identification and investigation may prescribe methods of 2409
forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to 2410
conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but 2411
not be limited to, an electronic method.2412

       (D) A determination whether any information exists that 2413
indicates that a person previously has been convicted of or 2414
pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described in division 2415
(A)(1)(a) or (b), (A)(2)(a) or (b), (A)(3)(a) or (b), (A)(4)(a) or 2416
(b), (A)(5)(a) or (b), (A)(6)(a) or (b), (A)(7), (A)(8)(a) or (b), 2417
(A)(9)(a) or (b), (A)(10)(a) or (b), (A)(12), (A)(14), or (A)(15) 2418
of this section, or that indicates that a person previously has 2419
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense in 2420
this state or any other state regarding a criminal records check 2421
of a type described in division (A)(13) of this section, and that 2422
is made by the superintendent with respect to information 2423
considered inThe results of a criminal records check in 2424
accordance withconducted under this section is, other than a 2425
criminal records check specified in division (A)(8) of this 2426
section, are valid for the person who is the subject of the 2427
criminal records check for a period of one year from the date upon 2428
which the superintendent makes the determinationcompletes the 2429
criminal records check. During theIf during that period in which 2430
the determination in regard to a person is valid, ifthe 2431
superintendent receives another request under this section is made2432
for a criminal records check to be conducted under this section2433
for that person, the superintendent shall provide the information 2434
that is the basis for the superintendent's initial determination2435
results from the previous criminal records check of the person at 2436
a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal 2437
records check.2438

       (E) When the superintendent receives a request for 2439
information from a registered private provider, the superintendent 2440
shall proceed as if the request was received from a school 2441
district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised 2442
Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(7)(4) of this 2443
section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.2444

       (F) As used in this section:2445

       (1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check 2446
conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 2447
identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) 2448
of this section.2449

       (2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as 2450
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.2451

       (3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.2452

       (4) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 2453
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or 2454
former law of this state, any other state, or the United States 2455
that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised 2456
Code.2457

       (5)(4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school 2458
or entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 2459
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 2460
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 2461
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 2462
program.2463

       Sec. 109.801.  (A)(1) Each year, any of the following persons 2464
who are authorized to carry firearms in the course of their 2465
official duties shall complete successfully a firearms 2466
requalification program approved by the executive director of the 2467
Ohio peace officer training commission in accordance with rules 2468
adopted by the attorney general pursuant to section 109.743 of the 2469
Revised Code: any peace officer, sheriff, chief of police of an 2470
organized police department of a municipal corporation or 2471
township, chief of police of a township police district or joint 2472
police district police force, superintendent of the state highway 2473
patrol, state highway patrol trooper, or chief of police of a 2474
university or college police department; any parole or probation 2475
officer who carries a firearm in the course of official duties; 2476
the house of representatives sergeant at arms if the house of 2477
representatives sergeant at arms has arrest authority pursuant to 2478
division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code; any 2479
assistant house of representatives sergeant at arms; the senate 2480
sergeant at arms; any assistant senate sergeant at arms; or any 2481
employee of the department of youth services who is designated 2482
pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 5139.53 of the Revised Code 2483
as being authorized to carry a firearm while on duty as described 2484
in that division.2485

       (2) No person listed in division (A)(1) of this section shall 2486
carry a firearm during the course of official duties if the person 2487
does not comply with division (A)(1) of this section.2488

       (B) The hours that a sheriff spends attending a firearms 2489
requalification program required by division (A) of this section 2490
are in addition to the sixteen hours of continuing education that 2491
are required by division (E) of section 311.01 of the Revised 2492
Code.2493

       (C) As used in this section, "firearm" has the same meaning 2494
as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.2495

       Sec. 119.032.  (A) As used in this section and in section 2496
119.033 of the Revised Code:2497

       (1) "Agency" includes both an agency as defined in division 2498
(A)(2) of section 111.15 and an agency as defined in division (A) 2499
of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.2500

       (2) "Review date" means the review date assigned to a rule by 2501
an agency under division (B) or (E)(2) of this section or under 2502
section 111.15, 119.04, or 4141.14 of the Revised Code or a review 2503
dateor an extended review date assigned to a rule by the joint 2504
committee on agency rule review under division (B) of this 2505
section.2506

       (3)(a) "Rule" means only a rule whose adoption, amendment, or 2507
rescission is subject to review under division (D) of section 2508
111.15 or division (H) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code.2509

       (b) "Rule" does not include a rule adopted, amended, or 2510
rescinded by the department of taxation under section 5703.14 of 2511
the Revised Code, a rule of a state college or university, 2512
community college district, technical college district, or state 2513
community college, or a rule that is consistent with and 2514
equivalent to the form required by a federal law and that does not 2515
exceed the minimum scope and intent of that federal law.2516

       (B) Not later than March 25, 1997, each agency shall assign a 2517
review date to each of its rules that is currently in effect and 2518
shall notify the joint committee on agency rule review of the 2519
review date for each such rule. The agency shall assign review 2520
dates to its rules so that approximately one-fifth of the rules 2521
are scheduled for review during each calendar year of the 2522
five-year period that begins March 25, 1997, except that an 2523
agency, with the joint committee's approval, may set a review 2524
schedule for the agency's rules in which there is no requirement 2525
that approximately one-fifth of the agency's rules be assigned a 2526
review date during each calendar year of the five-year period but 2527
in which all of the agency's rules are assigned a review date 2528
during that five-year period. An agency may change the review 2529
dates it has assigned to specific rules so long as the agency 2530
complies with the five-year time deadline specified in this 2531
division.2532

       Upon the request of the agency that adopted the rule, the 2533
joint committee on agency rule review may extend a review date of 2534
a rule to a date that is not later than one hundred eighty days 2535
after the original review date assigned to the rule by the agency 2536
under this division, division (E)(2) of this section, or section 2537
111.15, 119.04, or 4141.14 of the Revised Code. The joint 2538
committee may further extend a review date that has been extended 2539
under this paragraph if appropriate under the circumstances.2540

       (C) Prior to the review date of a rule, the agency that 2541
adopted the rule shall review the rule to determine all of the 2542
following:2543

       (1) Whether the rule should be continued without amendment, 2544
be amended, or be rescinded, taking into consideration the 2545
purpose, scope, and intent of the statute under which the rule was 2546
adopted;2547

       (2) Whether the rule needs amendment or rescission to give 2548
more flexibility at the local level;2549

       (3) Whether the rule needs amendment or rescission to 2550
eliminate unnecessary paperwork, or whether the rule incorporates 2551
a text or other material by reference and, if so, whether the text 2552
or other material incorporated by reference is deposited or 2553
displayed as required by section 121.74 of the Revised Code and 2554
whether the incorporation by reference meets the standards stated 2555
in sections 121.72, 121.75, and 121.76 of the Revised Code;2556

       (4) Whether the rule duplicates, overlaps with, or conflicts 2557
with other rules;2558

       (5) Whether the rule has an adverse impact on businesses, 2559
reviewing the rule as if it were a draft rule being reviewed under 2560
sections 107.52 and 107.53 of the Revised Code, and whether any 2561
such adverse impact has been eliminated or reduced.2562

       (D) In making theits review required under division (C) of 2563
this section, the agency shall consider the continued need for the 2564
rule, the nature of any complaints or comments received concerning 2565
the rule, and any relevant factors that have changed in the 2566
subject matter area affected by the rule.2567

       (E)(1) On or before the designated review date of a rule, the 2568
agency that adopted the rule shall proceed under division (E)(2) 2569
or (5) of this section to indicate that the agency has reviewed 2570
the rule.2571

       (2) If the agency has determined that the rule does not need 2572
to be amended or rescinded, the agency shall file all the 2573
following, in electronic form, with the joint committee on agency 2574
rule review, the secretary of state, and the director of the 2575
legislative service commission: a copy of the rule, a statement of 2576
the agency's determination, and an accurate rule summary and 2577
fiscal analysis for the rule as described in section 127.18 of the 2578
Revised Code. The agency shall assign a new review date to the 2579
rule, which shall not be later than five years after the rule's 2580
immediately preceding review date. After the joint committee has 2581
reviewed such a rule for the first time, including any rule that 2582
was in effect on September 26, 1996, the agency in its subsequent 2583
reviews of the rule may provide the same fiscal analysis it 2584
provided to the joint committee during its immediately preceding 2585
review of the rule unless any of the conditions described in 2586
division (B)(4), (5), (6), (8), (9), or (10) of section 127.18 of 2587
the Revised Code, as they relate to the rule, have appreciably 2588
changed since the joint committee's immediately preceding review 2589
of the rule. If any of these conditions, as they relate to the 2590
rule, have appreciably changed, the agency shall provide the joint 2591
committee with an updated fiscal analysis for the rule. If no 2592
review date is assigned to a rule, or if a review date assigned to 2593
a rule exceeds the five-year maximum, the review date for the rule 2594
is five years after its immediately preceding review date. The 2595
joint committee shall give public notice in the register of Ohio 2596
of the agency's determination after receiving a notice from the 2597
agency under division (E)(2) of this section. The joint committee 2598
shall transmit a copy of the notice in electronic form to the 2599
director of the legislative service commission. The director shall 2600
publish the notice in the register of Ohio for four consecutive 2601
weeks after its receipt.2602

       (3) During the ninety-day period following the date the joint 2603
committee receives a notice under division (E)(2) of this section 2604
but after the four-week period described in division (E)(2) of 2605
this section has ended, the joint committee, by a two-thirds vote 2606
of the members present, may recommend the adoption of a concurrent 2607
resolution invalidating the rule if the joint committee determines 2608
that any of the following apply:2609

       (a) The agency improperly applied the criteria described in 2610
divisions (C) and (D) of this section in reviewing the rule and in 2611
recommending its continuance without amendment or rescission.2612

       (b) The agency failed to file proper notice with the joint 2613
committee regarding the rule, or if the rule incorporates a text 2614
or other material by reference, the agency failed to file, or to 2615
deposit or display, the text or other material incorporated by 2616
reference as required by section 121.73 or 121.74 of the Revised 2617
Code or the incorporation by reference fails to meet the standards 2618
stated in section 121.72, 121.75, or 121.76 of the Revised Code.2619

       (c) The rule has an adverse impact on businesses, as 2620
determined under section 107.52 of the Revised Code, and the 2621
agency has not eliminated or reduced that impact as required under 2622
section 121.82 of the Revised Code.2623

       (4) If the joint committee does not take the action described 2624
in division (E)(3) of this section regarding a rule during the 2625
ninety-day period after the date the joint committee receives a 2626
notice under division (E)(2) of this section regarding that rule, 2627
the rule shall continue in effect without amendment and shall be 2628
next reviewed by the joint committee by the date designated by the 2629
agency in the notice provided to the joint committee under 2630
division (E)(2) of this section.2631

       (5) If the agency has determined that a rule reviewed under 2632
division (C) of this section needs to be amended or rescinded, the 2633
agency, on or before the rule's review date, shall file the rule 2634
as amended or rescinded in accordance with section 111.15, 119.03, 2635
or 4141.14 of the Revised Code, as applicable.2636

       (6)(D) Prior to the review date of a rule, the agency that 2637
adopted the rule shall determine, on the basis of its review of 2638
the rule, whether the rule needs to be amended or rescinded.2639

       (1) If the rule needs to be amended or rescinded, the agency, 2640
on or before the review date of the rule, shall commence the 2641
process of amending or rescinding the rule in accordance with its 2642
review of the rule.2643

       (2) If the rule does not need to be amended or rescinded, 2644
proceedings shall be had under section 119.033 of the Revised 2645
Code.2646

       (E) Each agency shall provide the joint committee with a copy 2647
of the rules that it has determined are rules described in 2648
division (A)(3)(b) of this section. At a time the joint committee 2649
designates, each agency shall appear before the joint committee 2650
and explain why it has determined that such rules are rules 2651
described in division (A)(3)(b) of this section. The joint 2652
committee, by a two-thirds vote of the members present, may 2653
determine that any of such rules are rules described in division 2654
(A)(3)(a) of this section. After the joint committee has made such 2655
a determination relating to a rule, the agency shall thereafter 2656
treat the rule as a rule described in division (A)(3)(a) of this 2657
section.2658

       (F) If an agency fails to provide the notice to the joint 2659
committee required under division (E)(2) of this section regarding 2660
a rule or otherwise fails by the rule's review date to take any 2661
action regarding the rule required bycomply with this section or 2662
section 119.033 of the Revised Code, the joint committee, by a 2663
majority vote of the members present, may recommend the adoption 2664
of a concurrent resolution invalidating the rule. The joint 2665
committee shall not recommend the adoption of such a resolution 2666
until it has afforded the agency the opportunity to appear before 2667
the joint committee to show cause why the joint committee should 2668
not recommend the adoption of such a resolution regarding that 2669
rule.2670

       (G) If the joint committee recommends adoption of a 2671
concurrent resolution invalidating a rule under division (E)(3) or 2672
(F) of this section or section 119.033 of the Revised Code, the 2673
adoption of the concurrent resolution shall be in the manner 2674
described in division (I) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code.2675

       Sec. 119.033. If an agency, on the basis of its review of a 2676
rule under section 119.032 of the Revised Code, determines that 2677
the rule does not need to be amended or rescinded, proceedings 2678
shall be had as follows:2679

       (A)(1) If, considering only the standard of review specified 2680
in division (C)(5) of section 119.032 of the Revised Code, the 2681
rule has an adverse impact on businesses that has not been 2682
eliminated or reduced, the agency shall prepare a business impact 2683
analysis that describes its review of the rule under that division 2684
and that explains why the rule is not being amended or rescinded 2685
to reduce or eliminate its adverse impact on businesses. If the 2686
rule does not have an adverse impact on businesses, the agency may 2687
proceed under division (B) of this section.2688

       (2) The agency shall transmit a copy of the full text of the 2689
rule and the business impact analysis electronically to the common 2690
sense initiative office. The office shall make the rule and 2691
analysis available to the public on its web site under section 2692
107.62 of the Revised Code.2693

       (3) The agency shall consider any recommendations made by the 2694
office.2695

       (4) Not earlier than the sixteenth business day after 2696
transmitting the rule and analysis to the office, the agency shall 2697
either (a) proceed under division (B) of this section or (b) 2698
commence, under division (D)(1) of section 119.032 of the Revised 2699
Code, the process of rescinding the rule or of amending the rule 2700
to incorporate into the rule features the recommendations suggest 2701
will eliminate or reduce the adverse impact the rule has on 2702
businesses. If the agency determines to amend or rescind the rule, 2703
the agency is not subject to the time limit specified in division 2704
(D)(1) of section 119.032 of the Revised Code.2705

       (5) If the agency receives recommendations from the office, 2706
and determines not to amend or rescind the rule, the agency shall 2707
prepare a memorandum of response that explains why the rule is not 2708
being rescinded or why the recommendations are not being 2709
incorporated into the rule. 2710

       (B) The agency shall assign a new review date to the rule. 2711
The review date assigned shall be not later than five years after 2712
the immediately preceding review date pertaining to the rule. If 2713
the agency assigns a review date that exceeds the five-year 2714
maximum, the review date is five years after the immediately 2715
preceding review date.2716

       (C)(1) The agency shall file all the following, in electronic 2717
form, with the joint committee on agency rule review, the 2718
secretary of state, and the director of the legislative service 2719
commission: a copy of the rule specifying its new review date, a 2720
complete and accurate rule summary and fiscal analysis, and, if 2721
relevant, a business impact analysis of the rule, any comments 2722
received from the common sense initiative office, and any 2723
memorandum of response. An agency may comply with the requirement 2724
to file a complete and accurate rule summary and fiscal analysis 2725
by filing a previously prepared rule summary and fiscal analysis, 2726
so long as the previous rule summary and fiscal analysis was 2727
complete and accurate at the time it was prepared, continues to be 2728
such a complete and accurate explanation of the rule, and the 2729
conditions described in division (B)(4), (5), (6), (8), (9), or 2730
(10) of section 127.18 of the Revised Code, as they relate to the 2731
rule, have not appreciably changed since the previous rule summary 2732
and fiscal analysis was prepared.2733

       (2) The joint committee does not have jurisdiction to review, 2734
and shall reject, the filing of a rule under division (C)(1) of 2735
this section if, at any time while the rule is in its possession, 2736
it discovers that the rule has an adverse impact on businesses and 2737
the agency has not complied with division (A) of this section. The 2738
joint committee shall electronically return a rule that is 2739
rejected to the agency, together with any documents that were part 2740
of the filing. Such a rejection does not preclude the agency from 2741
refiling the rule under division (C)(1) of this section after 2742
complying with division (A) of this section. When the filing of a 2743
rule is rejected under this division, it is as if the filing had 2744
not been made.2745

       (D) The joint committee shall publish notice of the agency's 2746
determination not to amend or rescind the rule in the register of 2747
Ohio for four consecutive weeks after the rule is filed under 2748
division (C)(1) of this section.2749

       (E) During the ninety-day period after a rule is filed under 2750
division (C)(1) of this section, but after the four-week notice 2751
period required by division (D) of this section has ended, the 2752
joint committee, by a two-thirds vote of members present, may 2753
recommend adoption of a concurrent resolution invalidating the 2754
rule if the joint committee finds any of the following:2755

       (1) The agency improperly applied the standards in division 2756
(C) of section 119.032 of the Revised Code in reviewing the rule 2757
and in determining that the rule did not need amendment or 2758
rescission.2759

       (2) The rule has an adverse impact on businesses, and the 2760
agency has failed to demonstrate through a business impact 2761
analysis, recommendations from the common sense initiative office, 2762
and a memorandum of response that the regulatory intent of the 2763
rule justifies its adverse impact on businesses.2764

       (3) If the rule incorporates a text or other material by 2765
reference, the agency failed to file, or to deposit or display, 2766
the text or other material incorporated by reference as required 2767
by section 121.73 or 121.74 of the Revised Code or the 2768
incorporation by reference fails to meet the standards stated in 2769
section 121.72, 121.75, or 121.76 of the Revised Code.2770

       (4) The agency failed to make a proper filing under division 2771
(C)(1) of this section.2772

       If the joint committee does not take any of these actions 2773
during the prescribed time, the rule continues in effect without 2774
amendment and shall be next reviewed by the joint committee with 2775
reference to the new review date assigned by the agency.2776

       Sec. 121.04.  Offices are created within the several 2777
departments as follows:2778

       In the department of commerce:2779

Commissioner of securities; 2780
Superintendent of real estate and professional licensing; 2781
Superintendent of financial institutions; 2782
State fire marshal; 2783
Superintendent of labor industrial compliance; 2784
Superintendent of liquor control; 2785
Superintendent of unclaimed funds. 2786

       In the department of administrative services:2787

State architect and engineer; 2788
Equal employment opportunity coordinator. 2789

       In the department of agriculture:2790

       Chiefs of divisions as follows:2791

Administration; 2792
Animal health; 2793
Livestock environmental permitting; 2794
Dairy; 2795
Food safety; 2796
Plant health; 2797
Markets; 2798
Meat inspection; 2799
Consumer protection laboratory; 2800
Amusement ride safety; 2801
Enforcement; 2802
Weights and measures. 2803

       In the department of natural resources:2804

       Chiefs of divisions as follows:2805

Mineral resources management; 2806
Oil and gas resources management; 2807
Forestry; 2808
Natural areas and preserves; 2809
Wildlife; 2810
Geological survey; 2811
Parks and recreation; 2812
Watercraft; 2813
Recycling and litter prevention; 2814
Soil and water resources; 2815
Engineering. 2816

       In the department of insurance:2817

Deputy superintendent of insurance; 2818
Assistant superintendent of insurance, technical; 2819
Assistant superintendent of insurance, administrative; 2820
Assistant superintendent of insurance, research. 2821

       Sec. 121.08.  (A) There is hereby created in the department 2822
of commerce the position of deputy director of administration. 2823
This officer shall be appointed by the director of commerce, serve 2824
under the director's direction, supervision, and control, perform 2825
the duties the director prescribes, and hold office during the 2826
director's pleasure. The director of commerce may designate an 2827
assistant director of commerce to serve as the deputy director of 2828
administration. The deputy director of administration shall 2829
perform the duties prescribed by the director of commerce in 2830
supervising the activities of the division of administration of 2831
the department of commerce.2832

       (B) Except as provided in section 121.07 of the Revised Code, 2833
the department of commerce shall have all powers and perform all 2834
duties vested in the deputy director of administration, the state 2835
fire marshal, the superintendent of financial institutions, the 2836
superintendent of real estate and professional licensing, the 2837
superintendent of liquor control, the superintendent of labor2838
industrial compliance, the superintendent of unclaimed funds, and 2839
the commissioner of securities, and shall have all powers and 2840
perform all duties vested by law in all officers, deputies, and 2841
employees of those offices. Except as provided in section 121.07 2842
of the Revised Code, wherever powers are conferred or duties 2843
imposed upon any of those officers, the powers and duties shall be 2844
construed as vested in the department of commerce.2845

       (C)(1) There is hereby created in the department of commerce 2846
a division of financial institutions, which shall have all powers 2847
and perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent of 2848
financial institutions. Wherever powers are conferred or duties 2849
imposed upon the superintendent of financial institutions, those 2850
powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the division of 2851
financial institutions. The division of financial institutions 2852
shall be administered by the superintendent of financial 2853
institutions.2854

       (2) All provisions of law governing the superintendent of 2855
financial institutions shall apply to and govern the 2856
superintendent of financial institutions provided for in this 2857
section; all authority vested by law in the superintendent of 2858
financial institutions with respect to the management of the 2859
division of financial institutions shall be construed as vested in 2860
the superintendent of financial institutions created by this 2861
section with respect to the division of financial institutions 2862
provided for in this section; and all rights, privileges, and 2863
emoluments conferred by law upon the superintendent of financial 2864
institutions shall be construed as conferred upon the 2865
superintendent of financial institutions as head of the division 2866
of financial institutions. The director of commerce shall not 2867
transfer from the division of financial institutions any of the 2868
functions specified in division (C)(2) of this section.2869

       (D) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2870
division of liquor control, which shall have all powers and 2871
perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent of liquor 2872
control. Wherever powers are conferred or duties are imposed upon 2873
the superintendent of liquor control, those powers and duties 2874
shall be construed as vested in the division of liquor control. 2875
The division of liquor control shall be administered by the 2876
superintendent of liquor control.2877

       (E) The director of commerce shall not be interested, 2878
directly or indirectly, in any firm or corporation which is a 2879
dealer in securities as defined in sections 1707.01 and 1707.14 of 2880
the Revised Code, or in any firm or corporation licensed under 2881
sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code.2882

       (F) The director of commerce shall not have any official 2883
connection with a savings and loan association, a savings bank, a 2884
bank, a bank holding company, a savings and loan association 2885
holding company, a consumer finance company, or a credit union 2886
that is under the supervision of the division of financial 2887
institutions, or a subsidiary of any of the preceding entities, or 2888
be interested in the business thereof.2889

       (G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 2890
division of administration fund. The fund shall receive 2891
assessments on the operating funds of the department of commerce 2892
in accordance with procedures prescribed by the director of 2893
commerce and approved by the director of budget and management. 2894
All operating expenses of the division of administration shall be 2895
paid from the division of administration fund.2896

       (H) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2897
division of real estate and professional licensing, which shall be 2898
under the control and supervision of the director of commerce. The 2899
division of real estate and professional licensing shall be 2900
administered by the superintendent of real estate and professional 2901
licensing. The superintendent of real estate and professional 2902
licensing shall exercise the powers and perform the functions and 2903
duties delegated to the superintendent under Chapters 4735., 2904
4763., and 4767. of the Revised Code.2905

       (I) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2906
division of laborindustrial compliance, which shall have all 2907
powers and perform all duties vested by law in the superintendent 2908
of laborindustrial compliance. Wherever powers are conferred or 2909
duties imposed upon the superintendent of laborindustrial 2910
compliance, those powers and duties shall be construed as vested 2911
in the division of laborindustrial compliance. The division of 2912
laborindustrial compliance shall be under the control and 2913
supervision of the director of commerce and be administered by the 2914
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance.2915

       (J) There is hereby created in the department of commerce a 2916
division of unclaimed funds, which shall have all powers and 2917
perform all duties delegated to or vested by law in the 2918
superintendent of unclaimed funds. Wherever powers are conferred 2919
or duties imposed upon the superintendent of unclaimed funds, 2920
those powers and duties shall be construed as vested in the 2921
division of unclaimed funds. The division of unclaimed funds shall 2922
be under the control and supervision of the director of commerce 2923
and shall be administered by the superintendent of unclaimed 2924
funds. The superintendent of unclaimed funds shall exercise the 2925
powers and perform the functions and duties delegated to the 2926
superintendent by the director of commerce under section 121.07 2927
and Chapter 169. of the Revised Code, and as may otherwise be 2928
provided by law.2929

       (K) The department of commerce or a division of the 2930
department created by the Revised Code that is acting with 2931
authorization on the department's behalf may request from the 2932
bureau of criminal identification and investigation pursuant to 2933
section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or coordinate with 2934
appropriate federal, state, and local government agencies to 2935
accomplish, criminal records checks for the persons whose 2936
identities are required to be disclosed by an applicant for the 2937
issuance or transfer of a permit, license, certificate of 2938
registration, or certification issued or transferred by the 2939
department or division. At or before the time of making a request 2940
for a criminal records check, the department or division may 2941
require any person whose identity is required to be disclosed by 2942
an applicant for the issuance or transfer of such a license, 2943
permit, certificate of registration, or certification to submit to 2944
the department or division valid fingerprint impressions in a 2945
format and by any media or means acceptable to the bureau of 2946
criminal identification and investigation and, when applicable, 2947
the federal bureau of investigation. The department or division 2948
may cause the bureau of criminal identification and investigation 2949
to conduct a criminal records check through the federal bureau of 2950
investigation only if the person for whom the criminal records 2951
check would be conducted resides or works outside of this state or 2952
has resided or worked outside of this state during the preceding 2953
five years, or if a criminal records check conducted by the bureau 2954
of criminal identification and investigation within this state 2955
indicates that the person may have a criminal record outside of 2956
this state.2957

        In the case of a criminal records check under section 109.572 2958
of the Revised Code, the department or division shall forward to 2959
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the 2960
requisite form, fingerprint impressions, and fee described in 2961
division (C) of that section. When requested by the department or 2962
division in accordance with this section, the bureau of criminal 2963
identification and investigation shall request from the federal 2964
bureau of investigation any information it has with respect to the 2965
person who is the subject of the requested criminal records check 2966
and shall forward the requisite fingerprint impressions and 2967
information to the federal bureau of investigation for that 2968
criminal records check. After conducting a criminal records check 2969
or receiving the results of a criminal records check from the 2970
federal bureau of investigation, the bureau of criminal 2971
identification and investigation shall provide the results to the 2972
department or division.2973

        The department or division may require any person about whom 2974
a criminal records check is requested to pay to the department or 2975
division the amount necessary to cover the fee charged to the 2976
department or division by the bureau of criminal identification 2977
and investigation under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 2978
Revised Code, including, when applicable, any fee for a criminal 2979
records check conducted by the federal bureau of investigation.2980

       Sec. 121.083.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 2981
compliance in the department of commerce shall do all of the 2982
following:2983

       (A) Administer and enforce the general laws of this state 2984
pertaining to buildings, pressure piping, boilers, bedding, 2985
upholstered furniture, and stuffed toys, steam engineering, 2986
elevators, plumbing, licensed occupations regulated by the 2987
department, and travel agents, as they apply to plans review, 2988
inspection, code enforcement, testing, licensing, registration, 2989
and certification.2990

       (B) Exercise the powers and perform the duties delegated to 2991
the superintendent by the director of commerce under Chapters 2992
4109., 4111., and 4115. of the Revised Code.2993

       (C) Collect and collate statistics as are necessary.2994

       (D) Examine and license persons who desire to act as steam 2995
engineers, to operate steam boilers, and to act as inspectors of 2996
steam boilers, provide for the scope, conduct, and time of such 2997
examinations, provide for, regulate, and enforce the renewal and 2998
revocation of such licenses, inspect and examine steam boilers and 2999
make, publish, and enforce rules and orders for the construction, 3000
installation, inspection, and operation of steam boilers, and do, 3001
require, and enforce all things necessary to make such 3002
examination, inspection, and requirement efficient.3003

       (E) Rent and furnish offices as needed in cities in this 3004
state for the conduct of its affairs.3005

       (F) Oversee a chief of construction and compliance, a chief 3006
of operations and maintenance, a chief of licensing and 3007
certification, a chief of worker protection, and other designees 3008
appointed by the director to perform the duties described in this 3009
section.3010

       (G) Enforce the rules the board of building standards adopts 3011
pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 4104.43 of the Revised Code 3012
under the circumstances described in division (D) of that section.3013

       (H) Accept submissions, establish a fee for submissions, and 3014
review submissions of certified welding and brazing procedure 3015
specifications, procedure qualification records, and performance 3016
qualification records for building services piping as required by 3017
section 4104.44 of the Revised Code.3018

       Sec. 121.084.  (A) All moneys collected under sections 3019
3783.05, 3791.07, 4104.07, 4104.18, 4104.44, 4105.17, 4105.20, 3020
4169.03, 4171.04, and 5104.051 of the Revised Code, and any other 3021
moneys collected by the division of laborindustrial compliance3022
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the labor3023
industrial compliance operating fund, which is hereby created. The 3024
department of commerce shall use the moneys in the fund for paying 3025
the operating expenses of the division and the administrative 3026
assessment described in division (B) of this section.3027

       (B) The director of commerce, with the approval of the 3028
director of budget and management, shall prescribe procedures for 3029
assessing the laborindustrial compliance operating fund a 3030
proportionate share of the administrative costs of the department 3031
of commerce. The assessment shall be made in accordance with those 3032
procedures and be paid from the laborindustrial compliance3033
operating fund to the division of administration fund created in 3034
section 121.08 of the Revised Code.3035

       Sec. 121.35.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 3036
the following state agencies shall collaborate to revise and make 3037
more uniform the eligibility standards and eligibility 3038
determination procedures of programs the state agencies 3039
administer:3040

       (1) The department of aging; 3041

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;3042

       (3) The department of development;3043

       (4) The department of developmental disabilities;3044

       (5) The department of education;3045

       (6) The department of health;3046

       (7) The department of job and family services;3047

       (8) The department of mental health;3048

       (9) The rehabilitation services commission.3049

       (B) In revising eligibility standards and eligibility 3050
determination procedures, a state agency shall not make any 3051
program's eligibility standards or eligibility determination 3052
procedures inconsistent with state or federal law. To the extent 3053
authorized by state and federal law, the revisions may provide for 3054
the state agencies to share administrative operations.3055

       Sec. 123.01.  (A) The department of administrative services, 3056
in addition to those powers enumerated in Chapters 124. and 125. 3057
of the Revised Code and provided elsewhere by law, shall exercise 3058
the following powers:3059

       (1) To prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed 3060
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, 3061
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any 3062
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by 3063
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative 3064
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, 3065
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or 3066
public buildings is a statutory duty of the department. This 3067
section does not require the independent employment of an 3068
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised 3069
Code in the cases to which that section applies nor affect or 3070
alter the existing powers of the director of transportation.3071

       (2) To have general supervision over the construction of any 3072
projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a 3073
state agency and over the inspection of materials previous to 3074
their incorporation into those projects, improvements, or 3075
buildings;3076

       (3) To make contracts for and supervise the construction of 3077
any projects and improvements or the construction and repair of 3078
buildings under the control of a state agency, except contracts 3079
for the repair of buildings under the management and control of 3080
the departments of public safety, job and family services, mental 3081
health, developmental disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, 3082
and youth services, the bureau of workers' compensation, the 3083
rehabilitation services commission, and boards of trustees of 3084
educational and benevolent institutions and except contracts for 3085
the construction of projects that do not require the issuance of a 3086
building permit or the issuance of a certificate of occupancy and 3087
that are necessary to remediate conditions at a hazardous waste 3088
facility, solid waste facility, or other location at which the 3089
director of environmental protection has reason to believe there 3090
is a substantial threat to public health or safety or the 3091
environment. These contracts shall be made and entered into by the 3092
directors of public safety, job and family services, mental 3093
health, developmental disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, 3094
and youth services, the administrator of workers' compensation, 3095
the rehabilitation services commission, the boards of trustees of 3096
such institutions, and the director of environmental protection, 3097
respectively. All such contracts may be in whole or in part on 3098
unit price basis of maximum estimated cost, with payment computed 3099
and made upon actual quantities or units.3100

       (4) To prepare and suggest comprehensive plans for the 3101
development of grounds and buildings under the control of a state 3102
agency;3103

       (5)(2) To acquire, by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or 3104
grant, all real estate required by a state agency, in the exercise 3105
of which power the department may exercise the power of eminent 3106
domain, in the manner provided by sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the 3107
Revised Code;3108

       (6) To make and provide all plans, specifications, and models 3109
for the construction and perfection of all systems of sewerage, 3110
drainage, and plumbing for the state in connection with buildings 3111
and grounds under the control of a state agency;3112

       (7)(3) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments 3113
and memorials erected by the state, except where the supervision 3114
and maintenance is otherwise provided by law;3115

       (8)(4) To procure, by lease, storage accommodations for a 3116
state agency;3117

       (9)(5) To lease or grant easements or licenses for 3118
unproductive and unused lands or other property under the control 3119
of a state agency. Such leases, easements, or licenses shallmay3120
be granted to any person or entity, shall be for a period not to 3121
exceed fifteen years, and shall be executed for the state by the 3122
director of administrative services and the governor and shall be 3123
approved as to form by the attorney general, provided that leases, 3124
easements, or licenses may be granted to any county, township, 3125
municipal corporation, port authority, water or sewer district, 3126
school district, library district, health district, park district, 3127
soil and water conservation district, conservancy district, or 3128
other political subdivision or taxing district, or any agency of 3129
the United States government, for the exclusive use of that 3130
agency, political subdivision, or taxing district, without any 3131
right of sublease or assignment, for a period not to exceed 3132
fifteen years, and, provided that the director shall grant leases, 3133
easements, or licenses of university land for periods not to 3134
exceed twenty-five years for purposes approved by the respective 3135
university's board of trustees wherein the uses are compatible 3136
with the uses and needs of the university and may grant leases of 3137
university land for periods not to exceed forty years for purposes 3138
approved by the respective university's board of trustees pursuant 3139
to section 123.77123.17 of the Revised Code.3140

       (10)(6) To lease space for the use of a state agency;3141

       (11)(7) To have general supervision and care of the 3142
storerooms, offices, and buildings leased for the use of a state 3143
agency;3144

       (12)(8) To exercise general custodial care of all real 3145
property of the state;3146

       (13)(9) To assign and group together state offices in any 3147
city in the state and to establish, in cooperation with the state 3148
agencies involved, rules governing space requirements for office 3149
or storage use;3150

       (14)(10) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 3151
pursuant to a contract providing for the construction thereof 3152
under a lease-purchase plan, buildings, structures, and other 3153
improvements for any public purpose, and, in conjunction 3154
therewith, to grant leases, easements, or licenses for lands under 3155
the control of a state agency for a period not to exceed forty 3156
years. The lease-purchase plan shall provide that at the end of 3157
the lease period, the buildings, structures, and related 3158
improvements, together with the land on which they are situated, 3159
shall become the property of the state without cost.3160

       (a) Whenever any building, structure, or other improvement is 3161
to be so leased by a state agency, the department shall retain 3162
either basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and 3163
estimates of cost with sufficient detail to afford bidders all 3164
needed information or, alternatively, all of the following plans, 3165
details, bills of materials, and specifications:3166

       (i) Full and accurate plans suitable for the use of mechanics 3167
and other builders in the improvement;3168

       (ii) Details to scale and full sized, so drawn and 3169
represented as to be easily understood;3170

       (iii) Accurate bills showing the exact quantity of different 3171
kinds of material necessary to the construction;3172

       (iv) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be 3173
performed, together with such directions as will enable a 3174
competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford 3175
bidders all needed information;3176

       (v) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and 3177
of the aggregate cost thereof.3178

       (b) The department shall give public notice, in such 3179
newspaper, in such form, and with such phraseology as the director 3180
of administrative services prescribes, published once each week 3181
for four consecutive weeks, of the time when and place where bids 3182
will be received for entering into an agreement to lease to a 3183
state agency a building, structure, or other improvement. The last 3184
publication shall be at least eight days preceding the day for 3185
opening the bids. The bids shall contain the terms upon which the 3186
builder would propose to lease the building, structure, or other 3187
improvement to the state agency. The form of the bid approved by 3188
the department shall be used, and a bid is invalid and shall not 3189
be considered unless that form is used without change, alteration, 3190
or addition. Before submitting bids pursuant to this section, any 3191
builder shall comply with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.3192

       (c) On the day and at the place named for receiving bids for 3193
entering into lease agreements with a state agency, the director 3194
of administrative services shall open the bids and shall publicly 3195
proceed immediately to tabulate the bids upon duplicate sheets. No 3196
lease agreement shall be entered into until the bureau of workers' 3197
compensation has certified that the person to be awarded the lease 3198
agreement has complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, 3199
until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a 3200
foreign corporation, the secretary of state has certified that the 3201
corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if 3202
the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a person 3203
nonresident of this state, the person has filed with the secretary 3204
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 3205
its agent for the purpose of accepting service of summons in any 3206
action brought under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, and until 3207
the agreement is submitted to the attorney general and the 3208
attorney general's approval is certified thereon. Within thirty 3209
days after the day on which the bids are received, the department 3210
shall investigate the bids received and shall determine that the 3211
bureau and the secretary of state have made the certifications 3212
required by this section of the builder who has submitted the 3213
lowest and best bid. Within ten days of the completion of the 3214
investigation of the bids, the department shall award the lease 3215
agreement to the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid 3216
and who has been certified by the bureau and secretary of state as 3217
required by this section. If bidding for the lease agreement has 3218
been conducted upon the basis of basic plans, specifications, 3219
bills of materials, and estimates of costs, upon the award to the 3220
builder the department, or the builder with the approval of the 3221
department, shall appoint an architect or engineer licensed in 3222
this state to prepare such further detailed plans, specifications, 3223
and bills of materials as are required to construct the building, 3224
structure, or improvement. The department shall adopt such rules 3225
as are necessary to give effect to this section. The department 3226
may reject any bid. Where there is reason to believe there is 3227
collusion or combination among bidders, the bids of those 3228
concerned therein shall be rejected.3229

       (15)(11) To acquire by purchase, gift, devise, or grant and 3230
to transfer, lease, or otherwise dispose of all real property 3231
required to assist in the development of a conversion facility as 3232
defined in section 5709.30 of the Revised Code as that section 3233
existed before its repeal by Amended Substitute House Bill 95 of 3234
the 125th general assembly;3235

       (16)(12) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 3236
notwithstanding any other division of this section, the 3237
state-owned property located at 408-450 East Town Street, 3238
Columbus, Ohio, formerly the state school for the deaf, to a 3239
developer in accordance with this section. "Developer," as used in 3240
this section, has the same meaning as in section 123.77 of the 3241
Revised Code.3242

       Such a lease shall be for the purpose of development of the 3243
land for use by senior citizens by constructing, altering, 3244
renovating, repairing, expanding, and improving the site as it 3245
existed on June 25, 1982. A developer desiring to lease the land 3246
shall prepare for submission to the department a plan for 3247
development. Plans shall include provisions for roads, sewers, 3248
water lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to 3249
meet the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall 3250
also include provision for protection of the property by insurance 3251
or otherwise, and plans for financing the development, and shall 3252
set forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.3253

       The department may employ, as employees or consultants, 3254
persons needed to assist in reviewing the development plans. Those 3255
persons may include attorneys, financial experts, engineers, and 3256
other necessary experts. The department shall review the 3257
development plans and may enter into a lease if it finds all of 3258
the following:3259

       (a) The best interests of the state will be promoted by 3260
entering into a lease with the developer;3261

       (b) The development plans are satisfactory;3262

       (c) The developer has established the developer's financial 3263
responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the 3264
development.3265

       The lease shall contain a provision that construction or 3266
renovation of the buildings, roads, structures, and other 3267
necessary facilities shall begin within one year after the date of 3268
the lease and shall proceed according to a schedule agreed to 3269
between the department and the developer or the lease will be 3270
terminated. The lease shall contain such conditions and 3271
stipulations as the director considers necessary to preserve the 3272
best interest of the state. Moneys received by the state pursuant 3273
to this lease shall be paid into the general revenue fund. The 3274
lease shall provide that at the end of the lease period the 3275
buildings, structures, and related improvements shall become the 3276
property of the state without cost.3277

       (17)(13) To manage the use of space owned and controlled by 3278
the department, including space in property under the jurisdiction 3279
of the Ohio building authority, by doing all of the following:3280

       (a) Biennially implementing, by state agency location, a 3281
census of agency employees assigned space;3282

        (b) Periodically in the discretion of the director of 3283
administrative services:3284

       (i) Requiring each state agency to categorize the use of 3285
space allotted to the agency between office space, common areas, 3286
storage space, and other uses, and to report its findings to the 3287
department;3288

        (ii) Creating and updating a master space utilization plan 3289
for all space allotted to state agencies. The plan shall 3290
incorporate space utilization metrics.3291

        (iii) Conducting a cost-benefit analysis to determine the 3292
effectiveness of state-owned buildings;3293

        (iv) Assessing the alternatives associated with consolidating 3294
the commercial leases for buildings located in Columbus.3295

        (c) Commissioning a comprehensive space utilization and 3296
capacity study in order to determine the feasibility of 3297
consolidating existing commercially leased space used by state 3298
agencies into a new state-owned facility.3299

       (14) To adopt rules to ensure that energy efficiency and 3300
conservation is considered in the purchase of products and 3301
equipment, except motor vehicles, by any state agency, department, 3302
division, bureau, office, unit, board, commission, authority, 3303
quasi-governmental entity, or institution. The department may 3304
require minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased products 3305
and equipment based on federal testing and labeling if available 3306
or on standards developed by the department. When possible, the 3307
rules shall apply to the competitive selection of energy consuming 3308
systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 125. of the 3309
Revised Code.3310

       (15) To ensure energy efficient and energy conserving 3311
purchasing practices by doing all of the following:3312

       (a) Identifying available energy efficiency and conservation 3313
opportunities;3314

       (b) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing 3315
agencies;3316

       (c) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that 3317
should be modified;3318

       (d) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of 3319
this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major 3320
energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products 3321
having a significant impact on energy consumption by the 3322
government;3323

       (e) Providing technical assistance and training to state 3324
employees involved in the purchasing process;3325

       (f) Working with the department of development to make 3326
recommendations regarding planning and implementation of 3327
purchasing policies and procedures that are supportive of energy 3328
efficiency and conservation.3329

       (16) To require all state agencies, departments, divisions, 3330
bureaus, offices, units, commissions, boards, authorities, 3331
quasi-governmental entities, institutions, and state institutions 3332
of higher education to implement procedures to ensure that all of 3333
the passenger automobiles they acquire in each fiscal year, except 3334
for those passenger automobiles acquired for use in law 3335
enforcement or emergency rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel 3336
economy of not less than the fleet average fuel economy for that 3337
fiscal year as the department shall prescribe by rule. The 3338
department shall adopt the rule prior to the beginning of the 3339
fiscal year, in accordance with the average fuel economy standards 3340
established by federal law for passenger automobiles manufactured 3341
during the model year that begins during the fiscal year.3342

       Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 3343
unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, 3344
institution, and state institution of higher education shall 3345
determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing the total 3346
number of passenger vehicles acquired during the fiscal year, 3347
except for those passenger vehicles acquired for use in law 3348
enforcement or emergency rescue work, by a sum of terms, each of 3349
which is a fraction created by dividing the number of passenger 3350
vehicles of a given make, model, and year, except for passenger 3351
vehicles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency rescue 3352
work, acquired during the fiscal year by the fuel economy measured 3353
by the administrator of the United States environmental protection 3354
agency, for the given make, model, and year of vehicle, that 3355
constitutes an average fuel economy for combined city and highway 3356
driving.3357

       As used in division (A)(16) of this section, "acquired" means 3358
leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or 3359
purchased.3360

       (B) This section and section 125.02 of the Revised Code shall 3361
not interfere with any of the following:3362

       (1) The power of the adjutant general to purchase military 3363
supplies, or with the custody of the adjutant general of property 3364
leased, purchased, or constructed by the state and used for 3365
military purposes, or with the functions of the adjutant general 3366
as director of state armories;3367

       (2) The power of the director of transportation in acquiring 3368
rights-of-way for the state highway system, or the leasing of 3369
lands for division or resident district offices, or the leasing of 3370
lands or buildings required in the maintenance operations of the 3371
department of transportation, or the purchase of real property for 3372
garage sites or division or resident district offices, or in 3373
preparing plans and specifications for and constructing such 3374
buildings as the director may require in the administration of the 3375
department;3376

       (3) The power of the director of public safety and the 3377
registrar of motor vehicles to purchase or lease real property and 3378
buildings to be used solely as locations to which a deputy 3379
registrar is assigned pursuant to division (B) of section 4507.011 3380
of the Revised Code and from which the deputy registrar is to 3381
conduct the deputy registrar's business, the power of the director 3382
of public safety to purchase or lease real property and buildings 3383
to be used as locations for division or district offices as 3384
required in the maintenance of operations of the department of 3385
public safety, and the power of the superintendent of the state 3386
highway patrol in the purchase or leasing of real property and 3387
buildings needed by the patrol, to negotiate the sale of real 3388
property owned by the patrol, to rent or lease real property owned 3389
or leased by the patrol, and to make or cause to be made repairs 3390
to all property owned or under the control of the patrol;3391

       (4) The power of the division of liquor control in the 3392
leasing or purchasing of retail outlets and warehouse facilities 3393
for the use of the division;3394

       (5) The power of the director of development to enter into 3395
leases of real property, buildings, and office space to be used 3396
solely as locations for the state's foreign offices to carry out 3397
the purposes of section 122.05 of the Revised Code;3398

       (6) The power of the director of environmental protection to 3399
enter into environmental covenants, to grant and accept easements, 3400
or to sell property pursuant to division (G) of section 3745.01 of 3401
the Revised Code.3402

       (C) Purchases for, and the custody and repair of, buildings 3403
under the management and control of the capitol square review and 3404
advisory board, the rehabilitation services commission, the bureau 3405
of workers' compensation, or the departments of public safety, job 3406
and family services, mental health, developmental disabilities, 3407
and rehabilitation and correction; buildings of educational and 3408
benevolent institutions under the management and control of boards 3409
of trustees; and purchases or leases for, and the custody and 3410
repair of, office space used for the purposes of the joint 3411
legislative ethics committee are not subject to the control and 3412
jurisdiction of the department of administrative services.3413

       If the joint legislative ethics committee so requests, the 3414
committee and the director of administrative services may enter 3415
into a contract under which the department of administrative 3416
services agrees to perform any services requested by the committee 3417
that the department is authorized under this section to perform.3418

       (D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 3419
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 3420
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 3421
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.3422

       Sec. 123.04.        Sec. 123.02.  The director of administrative services 3423
shall be appointed superintendent of public works and shall have 3424
the care and control of the public works of the state and shall 3425
protect, maintain, and keep them in repair.3426

       Subject to the approval of the governor, the director may 3427
purchase on behalf of the state such real or personal property, 3428
rights, or privileges as are necessary, in the director's 3429
judgment, to acquire in the maintenance of the public works or 3430
their improvement.3431

       Any instrument by which the state or an agency of the state 3432
acquires real property pursuant to this section shall identify the 3433
agency of the state that has the use and benefit of the real 3434
property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.3435

       Sec. 123.07.        Sec. 123.03.  The director of administrative services 3436
may maintain an action in the name of the state for violations of 3437
any law relating to the public works for an injury to property 3438
pertaining to the public works, or for any other cause which is 3439
necessary in the performance of histhe director's duties.3440

       Sec. 123.09.        Sec. 123.04.  The director of administrative services 3441
shall have supervision of the public works of the state and shall 3442
make such rules and regulations for the improvement, maintenance,3443
and operation of the public works as are necessary.3444

       Sec. 123.10.        Sec. 123.05. (A) The director of administrative 3445
services shall regulate the rate of tolls to be collected on the 3446
public works of the state, and shall fix all rentals and collect 3447
all tolls, rents, fines, commissions, fees, and other revenues 3448
arising from any source in the public works, including the sale,3449
construction, purchase, or rental of property, except that the 3450
director shall not collect a commission or fee from a real estate 3451
broker or the private owner when real property is leased or rented 3452
to the state.3453

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the state 3454
architect's fund which shall consist of money received by the 3455
department of administrative services under division (A) of this 3456
section, fees paid under section 123.17 of the Revised Code, 3457
transfers of money to the fund authorized by the general assembly, 3458
and such amount of the investment earnings of the administrative 3459
building fund created in division (F) of section 154.24 of the 3460
Revised Code as the director of budget and management determines 3461
to be appropriate and in excess of the amounts required to meet 3462
estimated federal arbitrage rebate requirements. Money in the fund 3463
shall be used by the department of administrative services for the 3464
following purposes:3465

       (1) To pay personnel and other administrative expenses of the 3466
department;3467

       (2) To pay the cost of conducting evaluations of public 3468
works;3469

       (3) To pay the cost of building design specifications;3470

       (4) To pay the cost of providing project management services;3471

       (5) To pay the cost of operating the local administration 3472
competency certification program prescribed by section 123.17 of 3473
the Revised Code;3474

       (6) Any other purposes that the director of administrative 3475
services determines to be necessary for the department to execute 3476
its duties under this chapter.3477

       Sec. 123.024.        Sec. 123.06.  (A) The department of administrative 3478
services shall assign and make available, at state expense, 3479
suitable office space in state-owned facilities to accommodate the 3480
office operations of the state headquarters of both of the 3481
following:3482

       (1) All veterans organizations in this state that either are 3483
incorporated and issued a charter by the congress of the United 3484
States or are recognized by the United States department of 3485
veterans affairs;3486

       (2) The auxiliary organizations of veterans organizations 3487
described in division (A)(1) of this section.3488

       (B) The department may situate office space for each 3489
auxiliary organization of a veterans organization with or near the 3490
office space of that veterans organization.3491

       Sec. 123.11.        Sec. 123.07.  Each state agency and any county, 3492
township, or municipal corporation owning, leasing, or controlling 3493
the operation of parking spaces for use by its employees may 3494
provide preferential parking for those vehicles used in carpools, 3495
vanpools, and buspools. The department of administrative services 3496
shall coordinate the efforts of the state agencies in providing 3497
preferential parking for such vehicles.3498

       Sec. 123.13.        Sec. 123.08.  The director of administrative services 3499
shall appoint such foremanforepersons, patrolmenpatrol officers, 3500
lock tenders, inspectors, engineers, and all other employees as 3501
are necessary for the improvement, maintenance, and operation of 3502
the public works. They shall be assigned to duty under the 3503
supervision of the director, under rules and regulations 3504
prescribed by himthe director. Any such employee, when deemed 3505
necessary by the director, shall give proper bond to the state, 3506
conditioned for the faithful performance of histhe employee's3507
duties. Such bonds may, in the discretion of the director, be 3508
individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.3509

       Sec. 123.14.        Sec. 123.09.  All claims against the state for the 3510
improvement, repair, maintenance, and operation of the public 3511
works of Ohio, including salary and expenses of all employees 3512
engaged in such work, shall be paid upon the order of the director 3513
of administrative services.3514

       Sec. 123.15.        Sec. 123.10.  (A) As used in this section and section 3515
123.21123.11 of the Revised Code, "public exigency" means an 3516
injury or obstruction that occurs in any public works of the state 3517
maintained by the director of administrative services and that 3518
materially impairs its immediate use or places in jeopardy 3519
property adjacent to it; an immediate danger of such an injury or 3520
obstruction; or an injury or obstruction, or an immediate danger 3521
of an injury or obstruction, that occurs during the process of 3522
construction ofin any public works of the state maintained by the 3523
director of administrative services and that materially impairs 3524
its immediate use or places in jeopardy property adjacent to it.3525

       (B) TheWhen a declaration of public exigency is issued 3526
pursuant to division (C) of this section, the director of 3527
administrative services may request the Ohio facilities 3528
construction commission to enter into contracts with proper 3529
persons for the performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, 3530
or the construction of any structures and buildings necessary to 3531
the maintenance, control, and management of the public works of 3532
the state or any part of those public works. Except as provided 3533
in division (C) of this section for public exigencies, the 3534
director shall advertise, award, and administer thoseAny3535
contracts in accordance with the requirementsawarded for the work 3536
performed pursuant to the declaration of a public exigency may be 3537
awarded without competitive bidding or selection as set forth in 3538
Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.3539

       (C) The director of administrative services may issue a 3540
declaration of a public exigency on the director's own initiative 3541
or upon the request of the director of any state agency. The 3542
director's declaration shall identify the specific injury, 3543
obstruction, or danger that is the subject of the declaration and 3544
shall set forth a dollar limitation for the repair, removal, or 3545
prevention of that exigency under the declaration.3546

       Before any project to repair, remove, or prevent a public 3547
exigency under the director's declaration may begin, the director 3548
shall send notice of the project, in writing, to the director of 3549
budget and management and to the members of the controlling board. 3550
That notice shall detail the project to be undertaken to address 3551
the public exigency and shall include a copy of the director's 3552
declaration that establishes the monetary limitations on that 3553
project.3554

       Sec. 123.21.        Sec. 123.11.  When a public exigency, as defined in 3555
division (A) of section 123.15123.10 of the Revised Code, exists, 3556
the director of administrative services may take possession of 3557
lands and use them, or materials and other property necessary for 3558
the maintenance, protection, or repair of the public works, in 3559
accordance with sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code.3560

       Sec. 123.46.        Sec. 123.12.  No land lease or sale of state lands 3561
shall be made by the director of administrative services except 3562
upon the written approval of the governor and the attorney 3563
general.3564

       Sec. 123.47.        Sec. 123.13.  Except as otherwise provided by law, the 3565
director of administrative services shall have the custody and 3566
control of the books, records, papers, surveys, maps, plats, and 3567
documents that pertain to any of the public works of this state.3568

       Sec. 123.48.        Sec. 123.14.  The director of administrative services 3569
shall make an annual report to the governor containing a statement 3570
of the expenses of the public works under histhe director's3571
supervision during the preceding year, setting forth an account of 3572
moneys expended on each of the public works during the year, and 3573
such other information and records as hethe director deems 3574
proper. Such report shall contain a statement of the moneys 3575
received from all sources and an estimate of the appropriations 3576
necessary to maintain the public works and keep them in repair. 3577
The report shall also contain a list of all persons regularly 3578
employed, together with the salary, compensation, or allowance 3579
paid each.3580

       HeThe director shall further from time to time when hethe 3581
director deems it necessary, or when called upon by the governor, 3582
to do so, make such other reports as are proper, touching on the 3583
general condition and welfare of the public works and the 3584
drainage, leaseholds, and water powers incident thereto.3585

       Sec. 123.49.        Sec. 123.15.  The department of administrative 3586
services may adopt, amend, and rescind rules pertaining to lands 3587
under the supervision of the department in accordance with Chapter 3588
119. of the Revised Code.3589

       Sec. 123.152. (A) As used in this section, "EDGE business 3590
enterprise" means a sole proprietorship, association, partnership, 3591
corporation, limited liability corporation, or joint venture 3592
certified as a participant in the encouraging diversity, growth, 3593
and equity program by the director of administrative services 3594
under this section of the Revised Code.3595

       (B) The director of administrative services shall establish a 3596
business assistance program known as the encouraging diversity, 3597
growth, and equity program and shall adopt rules in accordance 3598
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to administer the program 3599
that do all of the following:3600

       (1) Establish procedures by which a sole proprietorship, 3601
association, partnership, corporation, limited liability 3602
corporation, or joint venture may apply for certification as an 3603
EDGE business enterprise;3604

       (2) Except as provided in division (B)(14) of this section, 3605
establish agency procurement goals for contracting with EDGE 3606
business enterprises in the award of contracts under Chapters 3607
123., 125., and 153. of the Revised Code based on the availability 3608
of eligible program participants by region or geographic area, as 3609
determined by the director, and by standard industrial code or 3610
equivalent code classification. 3611

       (a) Goals established under division (B)(2) of this section 3612
shall be based on a percentage level of participation and a 3613
percentage of contractor availability. 3614

       (b) Goals established under division (B)(2) of this section 3615
shall be applied at the contract level, relative to an overall 3616
dollar goal for each state agency, in accordance with the 3617
following certification categories: construction, architecture, 3618
and engineering; professional services; goods and services; and 3619
information technology services.3620

       (3) Establish a system of certifying EDGE business 3621
enterprises based on a requirement that the business owner or 3622
owners show both social and economic disadvantage based on the 3623
following, as determined to be sufficient by the director:3624

       (a) Relative wealth of the business seeking certification as 3625
well as the personal wealth of the owner or owners of the 3626
business;3627

       (b) Social disadvantage based on any of the following:3628

       (i) A rebuttable presumption when the business owner or 3629
owners demonstrate membership in a racial minority group or show 3630
personal disadvantage due to color, ethnic origin, gender, 3631
physical disability, long-term residence in an environment 3632
isolated from the mainstream of American society, location in an 3633
area of high unemployment;3634

       (ii) Some other demonstration of personal disadvantage not 3635
common to other small businesses;3636

       (iii) By business location in a qualified census tract.3637

       (c) Economic disadvantage based on economic and business size 3638
thresholds and eligibility criteria designed to stimulate economic 3639
development through contract awards to businesses located in 3640
qualified census tracts.3641

       (4) Establish standards to determine when an EDGE business 3642
enterprise no longer qualifies for EDGE business enterprise 3643
certification;3644

       (5) Develop a process for evaluating and adjusting goals 3645
established by this section to determine what adjustments are 3646
necessary to achieve participation goals established by the 3647
director;3648

       (6) Establish a point system or comparable system to evaluate 3649
bid proposals to encourage EDGE business enterprises to 3650
participate in the procurement of professional design and 3651
information technology services;3652

       (7) Establish a system to track data and analyze each 3653
certification category established under division (B)(2)(b) of 3654
this section;3655

       (8) Establish a process to mediate complaints and to review 3656
EDGE business enterprise certification appeals;3657

       (9) Implement an outreach program to educate potential 3658
participants about the encouraging diversity, growth, and equity 3659
program;3660

       (10) Establish a system to assist state agencies in 3661
identifying and utilizing EDGE business enterprises in their 3662
contracting processes;3663

       (11) Implement a system of self-reporting by EDGE business 3664
enterprises as well as an on-site inspection process to validate 3665
the qualifications of an EDGE business enterprise;3666

       (12) Establish a waiver mechanism to waive program goals or 3667
participation requirements for those companies that, despite their 3668
best-documented efforts, are unable to contract with certified 3669
EDGE business enterprises;3670

       (13) Establish a process for monitoring overall program 3671
compliance in which equal employment opportunity officers 3672
primarily are responsible for monitoring their respective 3673
agencies;3674

       (14) Establish guidelines for state universities as defined 3675
in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code and the Ohio school3676
facilities construction commission created in section 3318.303677
123.20 of the Revised Code for awarding contracts pursuant to 3678
Chapters 153., 3318., and 3345. of the Revised Code to allow the 3679
universities and commission to establish agency procurement goals 3680
for contracting with EDGE business enterprises.3681

       (C) Business and personal financial information and trade 3682
secrets submitted by encouraging diversity, growth, and equity 3683
program applicants to the director pursuant to this section are 3684
not public records for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised 3685
Code, unless the director presents the financial information or 3686
trade secrets at a public hearing or public proceeding regarding 3687
the applicant's eligibility to participate in the program.3688

       Sec. 123.77.        Sec. 123.17.  The department of administrative 3689
services may lease land belonging to or under the control or 3690
jurisdiction of a state university, not required nor to be 3691
required for use of the university, to a developer in accordance 3692
with this section. "Developer," as used in this section, means a 3693
person, partnership, association, corporation, or community 3694
improvement corporation established pursuant to Chapter 1724. of 3695
the Revised Code who or which submits a development plan to the 3696
department as provided in this section and requests the department 3697
to enter into a lease.3698

       Such a lease of university land shall be for the purpose of 3699
development of the land by establishing, constructing, altering, 3700
repairing, expanding, and improving industrial, distribution, 3701
commercial, or research facilities. A developer desiring to lease 3702
land of the university for such development shall prepare and 3703
submit to the department of administrative services and to the 3704
board of trustees of the university a plan for such development. 3705
Plans shall include provisions for roads, streets, sewers, water 3706
lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to meet 3707
the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall also 3708
include provision for protection of the property by insurance or 3709
otherwise and plans for financing the development, and shall set 3710
forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.3711

       The department of administrative services may employ as 3712
employees or consultants, persons needed to assist it in reviewing 3713
the development plans. Such persons may include attorneys, 3714
financial experts, engineers, and other necessary experts. The 3715
department of administrative services shall review the development 3716
plans and may enter into a lease if it finds that:3717

       (A) The best interests of the university will be promoted by 3718
entering into a lease with the developer.3719

       (B) The development plans are satisfactory.3720

       (C) The developer has established histhe developer's3721
financial responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the 3722
development.3723

       (D) The university board of trustees approves the lease.3724

       A lease may be entered into pursuant to this section for an 3725
annual rent agreed to between the department and the developer for 3726
a maximum term of forty years and may be renewed for a like or 3727
lesser term. The lease shall contain a provision that construction 3728
of buildings, structures, roads, and other necessary facilities 3729
shall begin within one year after the date of the lease and shall 3730
proceed according to a schedule agreed to between the department 3731
and the developer or the lease will be terminated. Moneys received 3732
by the state pursuant to such leases shall be paid into the state 3733
treasury as an addition to the appropriation made to the 3734
university which has control or jurisdiction of the land or to 3735
which the land belongs.3736

       Sec. 123.08.        Sec. 123.18.  The director of administrative services 3737
may administer oaths to persons required by law to file affidavits 3738
or statements in the department of administrative services and to 3739
witnesses who are examined in matters pertaining to the 3740
administration of the public works.3741

       Sec. 123.20.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio facilities 3742
construction commission. The commission shall administer the 3743
design and construction of improvements to public facilities of 3744
the state in accordance with this chapter and other provisions of 3745
the Revised Code.3746

       The commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of 3747
state government and an instrumentality of the state, performing 3748
essential governmental functions of this state. The carrying out 3749
of the purposes and the exercise by the commission of its powers 3750
are essential public functions and public purposes of the state. 3751
The commission may, in its own name, sue and be sued, enter into 3752
contracts, and perform all the powers and duties given to it by 3753
the Revised Code, but it does not have and shall not exercise the 3754
power of eminent domain. In its discretion and as it determines 3755
appropriate, the commission may delegate to any of its members, 3756
executive director, or other employees any of the commission's 3757
powers and duties to carry out its functions.3758

       (B) The commission shall consist of three members: the 3759
director of the office of budget and management and the director 3760
of administrative services, or their designees, and a member whom 3761
the governor shall appoint.3762

       Members of the commission shall serve without compensation.3763

       Within sixty days after the effective date of this section, 3764
the commission shall meet and organize by electing voting members 3765
as the chairperson and vice-chairperson of the commission, who 3766
shall hold their offices until the next organizational meeting of 3767
the commission. Organizational meetings of the commission shall be 3768
held at the first meeting of each calendar year. At each 3769
organizational meeting, the commission shall elect from among its 3770
voting members a chairperson and vice-chairperson, who shall serve 3771
until the next annual organizational meeting. The commission shall 3772
adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 3773
conduct of its internal business and shall keep a journal of its 3774
proceedings. Including the organizational meeting, the commission 3775
shall meet at least once each calendar year.3776

       Two members of the commission constitute a quorum, and the 3777
affirmative vote of two members is necessary for approval of any 3778
action taken by the commission. A vacancy in the membership of the 3779
commission does not impair a quorum from exercising all the rights 3780
and performing all the duties of the commission. Meetings of the 3781
commission may be held anywhere in the state and shall be held in 3782
compliance with section 121.22 of the Revised Code.3783

       (C) Within sixty days after the effective date of this 3784
section, the governor shall appoint a member to the commission. 3785
The initial appointment shall be for a term ending three years 3786
after the effective date of this section, with subsequent terms 3787
ending three years after they begin, on the same day of the same 3788
month as the initial term. 3789

       A vacancy for the member appointed by the governor shall be 3790
filled in the same manner as provided for the original 3791
appointment. The appointed member shall hold office for the 3792
remainder of the term for which the vacancy existed. After the 3793
expiration of the term, the appointed member shall continue in 3794
office for a period of sixty days or until the appointed member's 3795
successor takes office, whichever period is shorter.3796

       (D) The commission shall file an annual report of its 3797
activities and finances with the governor, speaker of the house of 3798
representatives, president of the senate, and chairpersons of the 3799
house and senate finance committees.3800

       (E) The commission shall be exempt from the requirements of 3801
sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code.3802

       Sec. 123.201.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 3803
the Ohio facilities construction commission fund, consisting of 3804
transfers of moneys authorized by the general assembly and 3805
revenues received by the Ohio facilities construction commission 3806
under section 123.21 of the Revised Code. Investment earnings on 3807
moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. Moneys in the 3808
fund may be used by the commission, in performing its duties under 3809
this chapter, to pay personnel and other administrative expenses, 3810
to pay the cost of preparing building design specifications, to 3811
pay the cost of providing project management services, and for 3812
other purposes determined by the commission to be necessary to 3813
fulfill its duties under this chapter.3814

       Sec. 123.21.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction commission 3815
may perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 3816
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 3817
exercise the powers granted under this chapter or any other 3818
provision of the Revised Code, including any of the following:3819

       (1) Prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed 3820
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, 3821
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any 3822
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by 3823
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative 3824
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, 3825
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or 3826
public buildings is a statutory duty of the commission. This 3827
section does not require the independent employment of an 3828
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised 3829
Code in the cases to which section 153.01 of the Revised Code 3830
applies. This section does not affect or alter the existing powers 3831
of the director of transportation, the director of public safety, 3832
or the superintendent of the state highway patrol.3833

       (2) Have general supervision over the construction of any 3834
projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a 3835
state agency and over the inspection of materials prior to their 3836
incorporation into those projects, improvements, or buildings.3837

       (3) Make contracts for and supervise the design and 3838
construction of any projects and improvements or the construction 3839
and repair of buildings under the control of a state agency. All 3840
such contracts may be based in whole or in part on the unit price 3841
or maximum estimated cost, with payment computed and made upon 3842
actual quantities or units.3843

       (4) Adopt, amend, and rescind rules pertaining to the 3844
administration of the construction of the public works of the 3845
state as required by law, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 3846
Revised Code.3847

       (5) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 3848
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 3849
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 3850
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under this chapter, 3851
or authorize the executive director to perform such powers and 3852
duties.3853

       (6) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 3854
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 3855
authorized under this chapter.3856

       (7) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 3857
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 3858
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 3859
and powers under this chapter, or authorize the executive director 3860
to perform such powers and duties.3861

       (8) Debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the 3862
Revised Code.3863

       (B) The commission shall appoint and fix the compensation of 3864
an executive director who shall serve at the pleasure of the 3865
commission. The executive director shall exercise all powers that 3866
the commission possesses, supervise the operations of the 3867
commission, and perform such other duties as delegated by the 3868
commission. The executive director also shall employ and fix the 3869
compensation of such employees as will facilitate the activities 3870
and purposes of the commission, who shall serve at the pleasure of 3871
the executive director. The employees of the commission are exempt 3872
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and are not considered 3873
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised 3874
Code. Any agreement entered into prior to July 1, 2012, between 3875
the office of collective bargaining and the exclusive 3876
representative for employees of the commission is binding and 3877
shall continue to have effect.3878

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 3879
representative for the commission and may appoint other counsel as 3880
necessary for that purpose in accordance with section 109.07 of 3881
the Revised Code.3882

       Sec. 123.011.        Sec. 123.22.  (A) As used in this section:3883

       (1) "Construct" includes reconstruct, improve, renovate, 3884
enlarge, or otherwise alter.3885

        (2) "Energy consumption analysis" means the evaluation of all 3886
energy consuming systems, components, and equipment by demand and 3887
type of energy, including the internal energy load imposed on a 3888
facility by its occupants and the external energy load imposed by 3889
climatic conditions.3890

       (3) "Energy performance index" means a number describing the 3891
energy requirements of a facility per square foot of floor space 3892
or per cubic foot of occupied volume as appropriate under defined 3893
internal and external ambient conditions over an entire seasonal 3894
cycle.3895

       (4) "Facility" means a building or other structure, or part 3896
of a building or other structure, that includes provision for a 3897
heating, refrigeration, ventilation, cooling, lighting, hot water, 3898
or other major energy consuming system, component, or equipment.3899

       (5) "Life-cycle cost analysis" means a general approach to 3900
economic evaluation that takes into account all dollar costs 3901
related to owning, operating, maintaining, and ultimately 3902
disposing of a project over the appropriate study period.3903

       (6) "Political subdivision" means a county, township, 3904
municipal corporation, board of education of any school district, 3905
or any other body corporate and politic that is responsible for 3906
government activities in a geographic area smaller than that of 3907
the state.3908

       (7) "State funded" means funded in whole or in part through 3909
appropriation by the general assembly or through the use of any 3910
guarantee provided by this state.3911

       (8) "State institution of higher education" has the same 3912
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.3913

        (B) There is hereby created within the department of 3914
administrative services the office of energy services. The office 3915
shall be under the supervision of a manager, who shall be 3916
appointed by the director of administrative services. The director 3917
shall assign to the office such number of employees and furnish 3918
such equipment and supplies as are necessary for the performance 3919
of the office's duties.3920

       The officeOhio facilities construction commission shall 3921
develop energy efficiency and conservation programs in each of the 3922
following areas:3923

       (1) Newfor new construction design and review;3924

       (2) Existingand for existing building audit and retrofit;3925

       (3) Energy efficient procurement;3926

       (4) Alternative fuel vehicles.3927

       The officecommission may accept and administer grants from 3928
public and private sources for carrying out any of its duties 3929
under this section.3930

       (C) No state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 3931
unit, board, commission, authority, quasi-governmental entity, or 3932
institution, including those agencies otherwise excluded from the 3933
jurisdiction of the department under division (A)(3) of section 3934
123.01 of the Revised Code, shall lease, construct, or cause to be 3935
leased or constructed, within the limits prescribed in this 3936
section, a state-funded facility, without a proper life-cycle cost 3937
analysis or, in the case of a lease, an energy consumption 3938
analysis, as computed or prepared by a qualified architect or 3939
engineer in accordance with the rules required by division (D) of 3940
this section.3941

       Construction shall proceed only upon the disclosure to the 3942
office, for the facility chosen, of the life-cycle costs as 3943
determined in this section and the capitalization of the initial 3944
construction costs of the building. The results of life-cycle cost 3945
analysis shall be a primary consideration in the selection of a 3946
building design. That analysis shall be required only for 3947
construction of buildings with an area of five thousand square 3948
feet or greater. An energy consumption analysis for the term of a 3949
proposed lease shall be required only for the leasing of an area 3950
of twenty thousand square feet or greater within a given building 3951
boundary. That analysis shall be a primary consideration in the 3952
selection of a facility to be leased.3953

       Nothing in this section shall deprive or limit any state 3954
agency that has review authority over design, construction, or 3955
leasing plans from requiring a life-cycle cost analysis or energy 3956
consumption analysis.3957

       (D) For the purposes of assisting the departmentcommission3958
in its responsibility for state-funded facilities pursuant to 3959
section 123.01123.21 of the Revised Code and of cost-effectively 3960
reducing the energy consumption of those and any other 3961
state-funded facilities, thereby promoting fiscal, economic, and 3962
environmental benefits to this state, the officecommission shall 3963
promulgate rules specifying cost-effective, energy efficiency and 3964
conservation standards that may govern the lease, design, 3965
construction, operation, and maintenance of all state-funded 3966
facilities, except facilities of state institutions of higher 3967
education or facilities operated by a political subdivision. The 3968
office of energy efficiency in the department of development shall 3969
cooperate in providing information and technical expertise to the 3970
office of energy services to ensure promulgation of rules of 3971
maximum effectiveness. The standards prescribed by rules 3972
promulgated under this division may draw from or incorporate, by 3973
reference or otherwise and in whole or in part, standards already 3974
developed or implemented by any competent, public or private 3975
standards organization or program. The rules also may include any 3976
of the following:3977

        (1) Specifications for a life-cycle cost analysis that shall 3978
determine, for the economic life of such state-funded facility, 3979
the reasonably expected costs of facility ownership, operation, 3980
and maintenance including labor and materials. Life-cycle cost may 3981
be expressed as an annual cost for each year of the facility's 3982
use. 3983

        A life-cycle cost analysis additionally may include an energy 3984
consumption analysis that conforms to division (D)(2) of this 3985
section.3986

        (2) Specifications for an energy consumption analysis of the 3987
facility's heating, refrigeration, ventilation, cooling, lighting, 3988
hot water, and other major energy consuming systems, components, 3989
and equipment. 3990

        A life-cycle cost analysis and energy consumption analysis 3991
shall be based on the best currently available methods of 3992
analysis, such as those of the national institute of standards and 3993
technology, the United States department of energy or other 3994
federal agencies, professional societies, and directions developed 3995
by the department.3996

        (3) Specifications for energy performance indices, to be used 3997
to audit and evaluate competing design proposals submitted to the 3998
state.3999

        (4) A requirement that, not later than two years after April 4000
6, 2007, each state-funded facility, except a facility of a state 4001
institution of higher education or a facility operated by a 4002
political subdivision, is managed by at least one building 4003
operator certified under the building operator certification 4004
program or any equivalent program or standards as shall be 4005
prescribed in the rules and considered reasonably equivalent.4006

       (5) An application process by which a manager of a specified 4007
state-funded facility, except a facility of a state institution of 4008
higher education or a facility operated by a political 4009
subdivision, may apply for a waiver of compliance with any 4010
provision of the rules required by divisions (D)(1) to (4) of this 4011
section.4012

       (E) The office of energy services shall promulgate rules to 4013
ensure that energy efficiency and conservation will be considered 4014
in the purchase of products and equipment, except motor vehicles, 4015
by any state agency, department, division, bureau, office, unit, 4016
board, commission, authority, quasi-governmental entity, or 4017
institution. Minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased 4018
products and equipment may be required, based on federal testing 4019
and labeling where available or on standards developed by the 4020
office. The rules shall apply to the competitive selection of 4021
energy consuming systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 4022
125. of the Revised Code where possible.4023

        The office also shall ensure energy efficient and energy 4024
conserving purchasing practices by doing all of the following:4025

       (1) Cooperatively with the office of energy efficiency, 4026
identifying available energy efficiency and conservation 4027
opportunities;4028

       (2) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing 4029
agencies;4030

       (3) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that 4031
need modification;4032

       (4) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of 4033
this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major 4034
energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products 4035
having a significant impact on energy consumption by government;4036

       (5) Cooperatively with the office of energy efficiency, 4037
providing technical assistance and training to state employees 4038
involved in the purchasing process.4039

       The department of development shall make recommendations to 4040
the office regarding planning and implementation of purchasing 4041
policies and procedures supportive of energy efficiency and 4042
conservation.4043

       (F)(1) The office of energy services shall require all state 4044
agencies, departments, divisions, bureaus, offices, units, 4045
commissions, boards, authorities, quasi-governmental entities, 4046
institutions, and state institutions of higher education to 4047
implement procedures ensuring that all their passenger automobiles 4048
acquired in each fiscal year, except for those passenger 4049
automobiles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency 4050
rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel economy of not less than 4051
the fleet average fuel economy for that fiscal year as shall be 4052
prescribed by the office by rule. The office shall promulgate the 4053
rule prior to the beginning of the fiscal year in accordance with 4054
the average fuel economy standards established pursuant to federal 4055
law for passenger automobiles manufactured during the model year 4056
that begins during the fiscal year.4057

       (2) Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 4058
unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, 4059
institution, and state institution of higher education shall 4060
determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing:4061

       (a) The total number of passenger vehicles acquired during 4062
the fiscal year, except for those passenger vehicles acquired for 4063
use in law enforcement or emergency rescue work, by4064

       (b) A sum of terms, each of which is a fraction created by 4065
dividing:4066

       (i) The number of passenger vehicles of a given make, model, 4067
and year, except for passenger vehicles acquired for use in law 4068
enforcement or emergency rescue work, acquired during the fiscal 4069
year, by4070

       (ii) The fuel economy measured by the administrator of the 4071
United States environmental protection agency, for the given make, 4072
model, and year of vehicle, that constitutes an average fuel 4073
economy for combined city and highway driving.4074

        As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "acquired" means 4075
leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or 4076
purchased.4077

       (G)(E) Each state agency, department, division, bureau, 4078
office, unit, board, commission, authority, quasi-governmental 4079
entity, institution, and state institution of higher education 4080
shall comply with any applicable provision of this section or of a 4081
rule promulgated pursuant to division (D) or (F) of this section.4082

       Sec. 123.23.  (A) As used in this section, "public exigency" 4083
means an injury or obstruction that occurs in any public works of 4084
the state that materially impairs its immediate use or places in 4085
jeopardy property adjacent to it; an immediate danger of such an 4086
injury or obstruction; or an injury or obstruction, or an 4087
immediate danger of an injury or obstruction, that occurs during 4088
the process of construction of any public works and that 4089
materially impairs its immediate use or places in jeopardy 4090
property adjacent to it. 4091

       (B) When a declaration of a public exigency is issued 4092
pursuant to division (C) of this section, the executive director 4093
of the Ohio facilities construction commission may enter into 4094
contracts with proper persons for the performance of labor, the 4095
furnishing of materials, or the construction of any structures and 4096
buildings necessary to the maintenance, control, and management of 4097
the public works of the state or any part of those public works. 4098
Any contracts awarded for the work performed pursuant to the 4099
declaration of a public exigency may be awarded without 4100
competitive bidding or selection as otherwise required by Chapter 4101
153. of the Revised Code.4102

       (C) The executive director of the commission may issue a 4103
declaration of a public exigency on the executive director's own 4104
initiative, or upon the request of the director of any state 4105
agency, university, or instrumentality. The executive director's 4106
declaration shall identify the specific injury, obstruction, or 4107
danger that is the subject of the declaration and shall set forth 4108
a dollar limitation for the repair, removal, or prevention of that 4109
exigency under the declaration.4110

       Before any project to repair, remove, or prevent a public 4111
exigency under the executive director's declaration may begin, the 4112
executive director shall send notice of the project, in writing, 4113
to the director of budget and management and to the members of the 4114
controlling board. The notice shall detail the project to be 4115
undertaken to address the public exigency and shall include a copy 4116
of the director's declaration that establishes the monetary 4117
limitations on that project. 4118

       Sec. 123.17.        Sec. 123.24. (A) As used in this section, "institution 4119
of higher education" means a state university or college, as 4120
defined in section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or a state 4121
community college.4122

       (B) Not later than December 30, 2005, the state architectThe 4123
Ohio facilities construction commission shall establish a local 4124
administration competency certification program to certify 4125
institutions of higher education to administer capital facilities 4126
projects pursuant to section 3345.51 of the Revised Code without 4127
the supervision, control, or approval of the department of 4128
administrative servicescommission. The program shall offer 4129
instruction in the administration of capital facilities projects 4130
for employees of institutions of higher education who are 4131
responsible for such administration and who are selected by their 4132
employing institutions to participate in the program.4133

       (C) The program shall provide instruction about the 4134
provisions of Chapters 9., 123., and 153. of the Revised Code and 4135
any rules or policies adopted by the departmentcommission4136
regarding the planning, design, and construction of capital 4137
facilities, including all of the following:4138

       (1) The planning, design, and construction process;4139

       (2) Contract requirements;4140

       (3) Construction management;4141

       (4) Project management.4142

       (D) The state architectcommission shall award local 4143
administration competency certification to any institution of 4144
higher education if all of the following apply:4145

       (1) The institution applied for certification on a form and 4146
in a manner prescribed by the state architectcommission.4147

       (2) The state architectcommission determines that a 4148
sufficient number of the institution's employees, representing a 4149
sufficient number of employee classifications, responsible for the 4150
administration of capital facilities projects have successfully 4151
completed the certification program to ensure that any capital 4152
facilities project undertaken by the institution will be 4153
administered successfully and in accordance with all provisions of 4154
the Revised Code, and the board of trustees of the institution 4155
provides written assurance to the state architectcommission that 4156
the institution will select new employees to participate in the 4157
certification program as necessary to compensate for employee 4158
turnover.4159

       (3) The state architectcommission determines that the 4160
employees of the institution enrolled in the program demonstrate 4161
successful completion of the competency certification training and 4162
a satisfactory level of knowledge of and competency in the 4163
requirements for administering capital facilities projects.4164

       (4) The institution pays the fee prescribed by division (F) 4165
of this section.4166

       (5) The board of trustees of the institution provides written 4167
assurance to the state architectcommission that the institution 4168
will conduct biennial audits of the institution's administration 4169
of capital facilities projects in accordance with division (C) of 4170
section 3345.51 of the Revised Code.4171

       (6) The board of trustees of the institution agrees in 4172
writing to indemnify and hold harmless the state and the 4173
departmentcommission for any claim of injury, loss, or damage 4174
that results from the institution's administration of a capital 4175
facilities project.4176

       (E) Local administration competency certification granted 4177
under this section shall remain in effect for as long as the state 4178
architectcommission determines that both of the following apply:4179

        (1) The institution of higher education maintains a 4180
sufficient number of employees responsible for the administration 4181
of capital facilities projects who have successfully completed the 4182
certification program and have demonstrated a satisfactory level 4183
of knowledge of and competency in the requirements for 4184
administering capital facilities projects;4185

        (2) The institution is performing the biennial audits 4186
prescribed in division (C) of section 3345.51 of the Revised Code.4187

       If the state architectcommission determines that an 4188
institution of higher education has failed to comply with the 4189
conditions of division (E)(1) or (2) of this section, the state 4190
architectcommission shall revoke the institution's certification 4191
and shall notify the board of trustees of the institution in 4192
writing of the revocation.4193

        (F) The state architectcommission shall establish, subject 4194
to the approval of the director of budget and management, the 4195
amount of the fee required to be paid by any institution of higher 4196
education that seeks certification under this section. The amount 4197
of the fees shall be set to cover the costs to implement this 4198
section, including the costs for materials and the competency 4199
certification training sessions. Any fees received under this 4200
section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 4201
state architect'scommission's fund established under section 4202
123.10123.201 of the Revised Code.4203

       (G) Nothing in this section shall prohibit an institution 4204
that administers a capital facilities project under section 4205
3345.51 of the Revised Code from requesting guidance or other 4206
services from the department of administrative services4207
commission.4208

       Sec. 123.26.  (A) The executive director of the Ohio 4209
facilities construction commission shall regulate the rate of 4210
tolls to be collected on the construction or improvement of the 4211
public works of the state, and shall fix all rentals and collect 4212
all tolls, rents, fines, commissions, fees, and other revenues 4213
arising from any source in the construction or improvement of the 4214
public works of the state.4215

       (B) Deposits made to the commission's fund in the state 4216
treasury under section 123.201 of the Revised Code shall consist 4217
of money received by the commission under division (A) of this 4218
section, fees paid under section 123.24 of the Revised Code, 4219
transfers of money to the fund authorized by the general assembly, 4220
and such amount of the investment earnings of the administrative 4221
building fund created in division (F) of section 154.24 of the 4222
Revised Code as the director of budget and management determines 4223
to be appropriate and in excess of the amounts required to meet 4224
estimated federal arbitrage rebate requirements. Money in the fund 4225
shall be used by the commission for the following purposes:4226

       (1) To pay personnel and other administrative expenses of the 4227
commission;4228

       (2) To pay the cost of conducting evaluations of public 4229
works;4230

       (3) To pay the cost of building design specifications;4231

       (4) To pay the cost of providing project management services;4232

       (5) To pay the cost of operating the local administration 4233
competency certification program prescribed by section 123.24 of 4234
the Revised Code; and4235

       (6) Any other purposes that the executive director of the 4236
commission determines to be necessary for the commission to 4237
execute its duties under this chapter.4238

       Sec. 123.101.        Sec. 123.27.  (A) As used in this section:4239

       "Capital facilities project" means the construction, 4240
reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, alteration, or repair of 4241
a building by a public entity.4242

       "Public entity" includes a state agency and a state 4243
institution of higher education. 4244

       "State institution of higher education" has the same meaning 4245
as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.4246

       (B) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and upon 4247
completion of a capital facilities project that is funded wholly 4248
or in part using state funds, each public entity shall submit a 4249
report about the project to the executive director of 4250
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 4251
commission. The report shall be submitted in Ohio administrative 4252
knowledge system capital improvement format or in a manner 4253
determined by the executive director and not later than thirty 4254
days after the project is complete. The report shall provide the 4255
total original contract bid, total cost of change orders, total 4256
actual cost of the project, total costs incurred for mediation and 4257
litigation services, and any other data requested by the executive4258
director. The first report submitted pursuant to this division 4259
shall include information about any capital facilities project 4260
completed on or after July 1, 2011. Any capital facilities project 4261
that is funded wholly or in part through appropriations made to 4262
the Ohio school facilities commission, the Ohio public works 4263
commission, or the Ohio cultural facilities commission, or for 4264
which a joint use agreement has been entered into with any public 4265
entity, is exempt from the reporting requirement prescribed under 4266
this division.4267

       (C) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and annually 4268
thereafter, the attorney general shall report to the executive4269
director of the Ohio facilities construction commission on any 4270
mediation and litigation costs associated with capital facilities 4271
projects for which a judgment has been rendered. The report shall 4272
be submitted in a manner prescribed by the executive director and 4273
shall contain any information requested by the executive director 4274
related to capital facilities project mediation and litigation 4275
costs.4276

       (D) As soon as practicable after such information is made 4277
available, the executive director of administrative servicesthe 4278
Ohio facilities construction commission shall incorporate the 4279
information reported pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of this 4280
section into the Ohio administrative knowledge system.4281

       Sec. 124.04.  In addition to those powers enumerated in 4282
Chapters 123. and 125. of the Revised Code and as provided 4283
elsewhere by law, the powers, duties, and functions of the 4284
department of administrative services not specifically vested in 4285
and assigned to, or to be performed by, the state personnel board 4286
of review are hereby vested in and assigned to, and shall be 4287
performed by, the director of administrative services. These 4288
powers, duties, and functions shall include, but shall not be 4289
limited to, the following powers, duties, and functions:4290

       (A) To prepare, conduct, and grade all competitive 4291
examinations for positions in the classified state service of the 4292
state;4293

       (B) To prepare, conduct, and grade all noncompetitive 4294
examinations for positions in the classified state service of the 4295
state;4296

       (C) To prepare eligible lists containing the names of persons 4297
qualified for appointment to positions in the classified state4298
service of the state;4299

       (D) To prepare or amend, in accordance with section 124.14 of 4300
the Revised Code, specifications descriptive of duties, 4301
responsibilities, requirements, and desirable qualifications of 4302
the various classifications of positions in the state service of 4303
the state;4304

       (E) To allocate and reallocate, upon the motion of the 4305
director or upon request of an appointing authority and in 4306
accordance with section 124.14 of the Revised Code, any position, 4307
office, or employment in the state service of the state to the 4308
appropriate classification on the basis of the duties, 4309
responsibilities, requirements, and qualifications of that 4310
position, office, or employment;4311

       (F) To develop and conduct personnel recruitment services and 4312
assist appointing authorities in recruiting qualified applicants4313
for positions in the state service of the state;4314

       (G) To conduct research on specifications, classifications, 4315
and salaries of positions in the state service of the state;4316

       (H) To develop and conduct personnel training programs, 4317
including supervisory training programs and best practices plans, 4318
and to develop merit hiring processes, in cooperation with 4319
appointing authorities for positions in the service of the state;4320

       (I) To include periodically in communications sent to state 4321
employees both of the following:4322

       (1) Information developed under section 2108.34 of the 4323
Revised Code promoting the donation of anatomical gifts under 4324
Chapter 2108. of the Revised Code;4325

       (2) Information about the liver or kidney donor and bone 4326
marrow donor leave granted under section 124.139 of the Revised 4327
Code.4328

       (J) To enter into agreements with universities and colleges 4329
for in-service training of officers and employees in the civil 4330
service and to assist appointing authorities in recruiting 4331
qualified applicants;4332

       (K) To appoint examiners, inspectors, clerks, and other 4333
assistants necessary in the exercise of the powers and performance 4334
of the duties and functions which the director is by law 4335
authorized and required to exercise and perform, and to prescribe 4336
the duties of all of those employees;4337

       (L) To maintain a journal, which shall be open to public 4338
inspection, in which the director shall keep a record of the 4339
director's final decision pertaining to the classification or 4340
reclassification of positions in the classified civil service of 4341
the state and assignment or reassignment of employees in the 4342
classified civil service of the state to specific position 4343
classifications;4344

       (M) To delegate any of the powers, functions, or duties 4345
granted or assigned to the director under this chapter to any 4346
other state agency of this state as the director considers 4347
necessary;4348

       (N) To delegate any of the powers, functions, or duties 4349
granted or assigned to the director under this chapter to any 4350
political subdivision with the concurrence of the legislative 4351
authority of the political subdivision.4352

       (O) To administer a state equal employment opportunity 4353
program.4354

       Sec. 124.06.  No person shall be appointed, removed, 4355
transferred, laid off, suspended, reinstated, promoted, or reduced 4356
as an officer or employee in the civil service, in any manner or 4357
by any means other than those prescribed in this chapter, and the 4358
rules of the director of administrative services for positions in 4359
the service of the state or the municipal or civil service 4360
township civil service commission within their respective 4361
jurisdictions.4362

       Sec. 124.11.  The civil service of the state and the several 4363
counties, cities, civil service townships, city health districts, 4364
general health districts, and city school districts of the state 4365
shall be divided into the unclassified service and the classified 4366
service.4367

       (A) The unclassified service shall comprise the following 4368
positions, which shall not be included in the classified service, 4369
and which shall be exempt from all examinations required by this 4370
chapter:4371

       (1) All officers elected by popular vote or persons appointed 4372
to fill vacancies in those offices;4373

       (2) All election officers as defined in section 3501.01 of 4374
the Revised Code;4375

       (3)(a) The members of all boards and commissions, and heads 4376
of principal departments, boards, and commissions appointed by the 4377
governor or by and with the governor's consent; 4378

       (b) The heads of all departments appointed by a board of 4379
county commissioners;4380

       (c) The members of all boards and commissions and all heads 4381
of departments appointed by the mayor, or, if there is no mayor, 4382
such other similar chief appointing authority of any city or city 4383
school district;4384

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or (C) of 4385
this section, this chapter does not exempt the chiefs of police 4386
departments and chiefs of fire departments of cities or civil 4387
service townships from the competitive classified service.4388

       (4) The members of county or district licensing boards or 4389
commissions and boards of revision, and not more than five deputy 4390
county auditors;4391

       (5) All officers and employees elected or appointed by either 4392
or both branches of the general assembly, and employees of the 4393
city legislative authority engaged in legislative duties;4394

       (6) All commissioned, warrant, and noncommissioned officers 4395
and enlisted persons in the Ohio organized militia, including 4396
military appointees in the adjutant general's department;4397

       (7)(a) All presidents, business managers, administrative 4398
officers, superintendents, assistant superintendents, principals, 4399
deans, assistant deans, instructors, teachers, and such employees 4400
as are engaged in educational or research duties connected with 4401
the public school system, colleges, and universities, as 4402
determined by the governing body of the public school system, 4403
colleges, and universities;4404

       (b) The library staff of any library in the state supported 4405
wholly or in part at public expense.4406

       (8) Four clerical and administrative support employees for 4407
each of the elective state officers, four clerical and 4408
administrative support employees for each board of county 4409
commissioners and one such employee for each county commissioner, 4410
and four clerical and administrative support employees for other 4411
elective officers and each of the principal appointive executive 4412
officers, boards, or commissions, except for civil service 4413
commissions, that are authorized to appoint such clerical and 4414
administrative support employees;4415

       (9) The deputies and assistants of state agencies authorized 4416
to act for and on behalf of the agency, or holding a fiduciary or 4417
administrative relation to that agency and those persons employed 4418
by and directly responsible to elected county officials or a 4419
county administrator and holding a fiduciary or administrative 4420
relationship to such elected county officials or county 4421
administrator, and the employees of such county officials whose 4422
fitness would be impracticable to determine by competitive 4423
examination, provided that division (A)(9) of this section shall 4424
not affect those persons in county employment in the classified 4425
service as of September 19, 1961. Nothing in division (A)(9) of 4426
this section applies to any position in a county department of job 4427
and family services created pursuant to Chapter 329. of the 4428
Revised Code.4429

       (10) Bailiffs, constables, official stenographers, and 4430
commissioners of courts of record, deputies of clerks of the 4431
courts of common pleas who supervise or who handle public moneys 4432
or secured documents, and such officers and employees of courts of 4433
record and such deputies of clerks of the courts of common pleas 4434
as the director of administrative servicesappointing authority4435
finds it impracticable to determine their fitness by competitive 4436
examination;4437

       (11) Assistants to the attorney general, special counsel 4438
appointed or employed by the attorney general, assistants to 4439
county prosecuting attorneys, and assistants to city directors of 4440
law;4441

       (12) Such teachers and employees in the agricultural 4442
experiment stations; such students in normal schools, colleges, 4443
and universities of the state who are employed by the state or a 4444
political subdivision of the state in student or intern 4445
classifications; and such unskilled labor positions as the 4446
director of administrative services, with respect to positions in 4447
the service of the state, or any municipal civil service 4448
commission may find it impracticable to include in the competitive 4449
classified service; provided such exemptions shall be by order of 4450
the commission or the director, duly entered on the record of the 4451
commission or the director with the reasons for each such 4452
exemption;4453

       (13) Any physician or dentist who is a full-time employee of 4454
the department of mental health, the department of developmental 4455
disabilities, or an institution under the jurisdiction of either 4456
department; and physicians who are in residency programs at the 4457
institutions;4458

       (14) Up to twenty positions at each institution under the 4459
jurisdiction of the department of mental health or the department 4460
of developmental disabilities that the department director 4461
determines to be primarily administrative or managerial; and up to 4462
fifteen positions in any division of either department, excluding 4463
administrative assistants to the director and division chiefs, 4464
which are within the immediate staff of a division chief and which 4465
the director determines to be primarily and distinctively 4466
administrative and managerial;4467

       (15) Noncitizens of the United States employed by the state, 4468
or its counties or cities, as physicians or nurses who are duly 4469
licensed to practice their respective professions under the laws 4470
of this state, or medical assistants, in mental or chronic disease 4471
hospitals, or institutions;4472

       (16) Employees of the governor's office;4473

       (17) Fire chiefs and chiefs of police in civil service 4474
townships appointed by boards of township trustees under section 4475
505.38 or 505.49 of the Revised Code;4476

       (18) Executive directors, deputy directors, and program 4477
directors employed by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 4478
mental health services under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code, and 4479
secretaries of the executive directors, deputy directors, and 4480
program directors;4481

       (19) Superintendents, and management employees as defined in 4482
section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, of county boards of 4483
developmental disabilities;4484

       (20) Physicians, nurses, and other employees of a county 4485
hospital who are appointed pursuant to sections 339.03 and 339.06 4486
of the Revised Code;4487

       (21) The executive director of the state medical board, who 4488
is appointed pursuant to division (B) of section 4731.05 of the 4489
Revised Code;4490

       (22) County directors of job and family services as provided 4491
in section 329.02 of the Revised Code and administrators appointed 4492
under section 329.021 of the Revised Code;4493

       (23) A director of economic development who is hired pursuant 4494
to division (A) of section 307.07 of the Revised Code;4495

       (24) Chiefs of construction and compliance, of operations and 4496
maintenance, of worker protection, and of licensing and 4497
certification in the division of laborindustrial compliance in 4498
the department of commerce;4499

       (25) The executive director of a county transit system 4500
appointed under division (A) of section 306.04 of the Revised 4501
Code;4502

       (26) Up to five positions at each of the administrative 4503
departments listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code and at 4504
the department of taxation, department of the adjutant general, 4505
department of education, Ohio board of regents, bureau of workers' 4506
compensation, industrial commission, state lottery commission, and 4507
public utilities commission of Ohio that the head of that 4508
administrative department or of that other state agency determines 4509
to be involved in policy development and implementation. The head 4510
of the administrative department or other state agency shall set 4511
the compensation for employees in these positions at a rate that 4512
is not less than the minimum compensation specified in pay range 4513
41 but not more than the maximum compensation specified in pay 4514
range 44 of salary schedule E-2 in section 124.152 of the Revised 4515
Code. The authority to establish positions in the unclassified 4516
service under division (A)(26) of this section is in addition to 4517
and does not limit any other authority that an administrative 4518
department or state agency has under the Revised Code to establish 4519
positions, appoint employees, or set compensation.4520

       (27) Employees of the department of agriculture employed 4521
under section 901.09 of the Revised Code;4522

       (28) For cities, counties, civil service townships, city 4523
health districts, general health districts, and city school 4524
districts, the deputies and assistants of elective or principal 4525
executive officers authorized to act for and in the place of their 4526
principals or holding a fiduciary relation to their principals;4527

       (29) Employees who receive intermittent or temporary 4528
appointments under division (B) of section 124.30 of the Revised 4529
Code;4530

       (30) Employees appointed to administrative staff positions 4531
for which an appointing authority is given specific statutory 4532
authority to set compensation;4533

       (31) Employees appointed to highway patrol cadet or highway 4534
patrol cadet candidate classifications;4535

       (32) Employees placed in the unclassified service by another 4536
section of the Revised Code.4537

       (B) The classified service shall comprise all persons in the 4538
employ of the state and the several counties, cities, city health 4539
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 4540
the state, not specifically included in the unclassified service. 4541
Upon the creation by the board of trustees of a civil service 4542
township civil service commission, the classified service shall 4543
also comprise, except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or 4544
(C) of this section, all persons in the employ of a civil service 4545
township police or fire department having ten or more full-time 4546
paid employees. The classified service consists of two classes, 4547
which shall be designated as the competitive class and the 4548
unskilled labor class.4549

       (1) The competitive class shall include all positions and 4550
employments in the state and the counties, cities, city health 4551
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 4552
the state, and, upon the creation by the board of trustees of a 4553
civil service township of a township civil service commission, all 4554
positions in a civil service township police or fire department 4555
having ten or more full-time paid employees, for which it is 4556
practicable to determine the merit and fitness of applicants by 4557
competitive examinations. Appointments shall be made to, or 4558
employment shall be given in, all positions in the competitive 4559
class that are not filled by promotion, reinstatement, transfer, 4560
or reduction, as provided in this chapter, and the rules of the 4561
director of administrative services, by appointment from those 4562
certified to the appointing officer in accordance with this 4563
chapter.4564

       (2) The unskilled labor class shall include ordinary 4565
unskilled laborers. Vacancies in the labor class for positions in 4566
service of the state shall be filled by appointment from lists of 4567
applicants registered by the director or the director's designee. 4568
Vacancies in the labor class for all other positions shall be 4569
filled by appointment from lists of applicants registered by a 4570
commission. The director or the commission, as applicable, by 4571
rule, shall require an applicant for registration in the labor 4572
class to furnish evidence or take tests as the director or 4573
commission considers proper with respect to age, residence, 4574
physical condition, ability to labor, honesty, sobriety, industry, 4575
capacity, and experience in the work or employment for which 4576
application is made. Laborers who fulfill the requirements shall 4577
be placed on the eligible list for the kind of labor or employment 4578
sought, and preference shall be given in employment in accordance 4579
with the rating received from that evidence or in those tests. 4580
Upon the request of an appointing officer, stating the kind of 4581
labor needed, the pay and probable length of employment, and the 4582
number to be employed, the director or commission, as applicable, 4583
shall certify from the highest on the list double the number to be 4584
employed; from this number, the appointing officer shall appoint 4585
the number actually needed for the particular work. If more than 4586
one applicant receives the same rating, priority in time of 4587
application shall determine the order in which their names shall 4588
be certified for appointment.4589

       (C) A municipal or civil service township civil service 4590
commission may place volunteer firefighters who are paid on a 4591
fee-for-service basis in either the classified or the unclassified 4592
civil service.4593

       (D)(1) This division does not apply to persons in the 4594
unclassified service who have the right to resume positions in the 4595
classified service under sections 4121.121, 5119.071, 5120.38, 4596
5120.381, 5120.382, 5123.08, 5139.02, and 5501.19 of the Revised 4597
Code or to cities, counties, or political subdivisions of the 4598
state.4599

       An appointing authority whose employees are paid directly by 4600
warrant of the director of budget and management may appoint a 4601
person who holds a certified position in the classified service 4602
within the appointing authority's agency to a position in the 4603
unclassified service within that agency.(2) A person appointed 4604
pursuant to this divisionwho holds a position in the classified 4605
service of the safe and who is appointed to a position in the 4606
unclassified service shall retain the right to resume the position 4607
and status held by the person in the classified service 4608
immediately prior to the person's appointment to the position in 4609
the unclassified service, regardless of the number of positions 4610
the person held in the unclassified service. An employee's right 4611
to resume a position in the classified service may only be 4612
exercised when an appointing authority demotes the employee to a 4613
pay range lower than the employee's current pay range or revokes 4614
the employee's appointment to the unclassified service.and:4615

        (a) That person held a certified position prior to July 1, 4616
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 4617
agency; or4618

        (b) That person held a permanent position on or after July 1, 4619
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 4620
agency.4621

        (3) An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 4622
the classified service when the:4623

       (a) The employee is removed from the position in the 4624
unclassified service due to incompetence, inefficiency, 4625
dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, insubordination, 4626
discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of duty, violation 4627
of this chapter or the rules of the director of administrative 4628
services, any other failure of good behavior, any other acts of 4629
misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance in office, or conviction 4630
of a felony. An employee also forfeits the right to resume a 4631
position in the classified service upon; or4632

       (b) Upon transfer to a different agency.4633

       (4) Reinstatement to a position in the classified service 4634
shall be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 4635
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 4636
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 4637
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 4638
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 4639
to a position in the classified service within the appointing 4640
authority's agency that the director of administrative services 4641
certifies is comparable in compensation to the position the person 4642
previously held in the classified service. Service in the position 4643
in the unclassified service shall be counted as service in the 4644
position in the classified service held by the person immediately 4645
prior to the person's appointment to the position in the 4646
unclassified service. When a person is reinstated to a position in 4647
the classified service as provided in this division, the person is 4648
entitled to all rights, status, and benefits accruing to the 4649
position in the classified service during the person's time of 4650
service in the position in the unclassified service.4651

       Sec. 124.12. (A) Within ninety days after an appointing 4652
authority appoints an employee to an unclassified position in the 4653
service of the state, the appointing authority shall notify the 4654
department of administrative services of that appointment.4655

       (B) On the date an appointing authority appoints an employee 4656
to an unclassified position in the state service, the appointing 4657
authority shall provide the employee with written information 4658
describing the nature of employment in the unclassified civil 4659
service. Within thirty days after the date an appointing authority 4660
appoints an employee to an unclassified position in the state 4661
service, the appointing authority shall provide the employee with 4662
written information describing the duties of that position. 4663
Failure of the appointing authority to provide the written 4664
information described in this division to the employee does not 4665
confer any additional rights upon the employee in any appellate 4666
body with jurisdiction over an appeal of the employee.4667

       (C) The department shall develop and provide each appointing 4668
authority in the state service of the state with a general written 4669
description of the nature of employment in the unclassified civil 4670
service that shall be provided to employees under division (B) of 4671
this section.4672

       Sec. 124.14.  (A)(1) The director of administrative services 4673
shall establish, and may modify or rescind, by rule, a job 4674
classification plan for all positions, offices, and employments 4675
the salaries of which are paid in whole or in part by the state. 4676
The director shall group jobs within a classification so that the 4677
positions are similar enough in duties and responsibilities to be 4678
described by the same title, to have the same pay assigned with 4679
equity, and to have the same qualifications for selection applied. 4680
The director shall, by rule, assign a classification title to each 4681
classification within the classification plan. However, the 4682
director shall consider in establishing classifications, including 4683
classifications with parenthetical titles, and assigning pay 4684
ranges such factors as duties performed only on one shift, special 4685
skills in short supply in the labor market, recruitment problems, 4686
separation rates, comparative salary rates, the amount of training 4687
required, and other conditions affecting employment. The director 4688
shall describe the duties and responsibilities of the class, 4689
establish the qualifications for being employed in each position 4690
in the class, and file with the secretary of state a copy of 4691
specifications for all of the classifications. The director shall 4692
file new, additional, or revised specifications with the secretary 4693
of state before they are used. 4694

       The director shall, by rule, assign each classification, 4695
either on a statewide basis or in particular counties or state 4696
institutions, to a pay range established under section 124.15 or 4697
section 124.152 of the Revised Code. The director may assign a 4698
classification to a pay range on a temporary basis for a period of 4699
six months. The director may establish, by rule adopted under 4700
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, experimental classification 4701
plans for some or all employees paid directly by warrant of the 4702
director of budget and management. The rule shall include 4703
specifications for each classification within the plan and shall 4704
specifically address compensation ranges, and methods for 4705
advancing within the ranges, for the classifications, which may be 4706
assigned to pay ranges other than the pay ranges established under 4707
section 124.15 or 124.152 of the Revised Code.4708

       (2) The director of administrative services may reassign to a 4709
proper classification those positions that have been assigned to 4710
an improper classification. If the compensation of an employee in 4711
such a reassigned position exceeds the maximum rate of pay for the 4712
employee's new classification, the employee shall be placed in pay 4713
step X and shall not receive an increase in compensation until the 4714
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 4715
compensation.4716

       (3) The director may reassign an exempt employee, as defined 4717
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 4718
classification if the director determines that the bargaining unit 4719
classification is the proper classification for that employee. 4720
Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or instruments 4721
and contracts negotiated under it, these placements are at the 4722
director's discretion.4723

       (4) The director shall, by rule, assign related 4724
classifications, which form a career progression, to a 4725
classification series. The director shall, by rule, assign each 4726
classification in the classification plan a five-digit number, the 4727
first four digits of which shall denote the classification series 4728
to which the classification is assigned. When a career progression 4729
encompasses more than ten classifications, the director shall, by 4730
rule, identify the additional classifications belonging to a 4731
classification series. The additional classifications shall be 4732
part of the classification series, notwithstanding the fact that 4733
the first four digits of the number assigned to the additional 4734
classifications do not correspond to the first four digits of the 4735
numbers assigned to other classifications in the classification 4736
series.4737

       (5) The director may establish, modify, or rescind a 4738
classification plan for county agencies that elect not to use the 4739
services and facilities of a county personnel department. The 4740
director shall establish any such classification plan by means of 4741
rules adopted under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The rules 4742
shall include a methodology for the establishment of titles unique 4743
to county agencies, the use of state classification titles and 4744
classification specifications for common positions, the criteria 4745
for a county to meet in establishing its own classification plan, 4746
and the establishment of what constitutes a classification series 4747
for county agencies. The director may assess a county agency that 4748
chooses to use the classification plan a usage fee the director 4749
determines. All usage fees the department of administrative 4750
services receives shall be paid into the state treasury to the 4751
credit of the human resources fund created in section 124.07 of 4752
the Revised Code.4753

       (B) Division (A) of this section and sections 124.15 and 4754
124.152 of the Revised Code do not apply to the following persons, 4755
positions, offices, and employments:4756

       (1) Elected officials;4757

       (2) Legislative employees, employees of the legislative 4758
service commission, employees in the office of the governor, 4759
employees who are in the unclassified civil service and exempt 4760
from collective bargaining coverage in the office of the secretary 4761
of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and attorney 4762
general, and employees of the supreme court;4763

       (3) Employees of a county children services board that 4764
establishes compensation rates under section 5153.12 of the 4765
Revised Code;4766

       (4) Any position for which the authority to determine 4767
compensation is given by law to another individual or entity;4768

       (5)(4) Employees of the bureau of workers' compensation whose 4769
compensation the administrator of workers' compensation 4770
establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised 4771
Code.4772

       (C) The director may employ a consulting agency to aid and 4773
assist the director in carrying out this section.4774

       (D)(1) When the director proposes to modify a classification 4775
or the assignment of classes to appropriate pay ranges, the 4776
director shall send written notice of the proposed rule to the 4777
appointing authorities of the affected employees thirty days 4778
before a hearing on the proposed rule. The appointing authorities 4779
shall notify the affected employees regarding the proposed rule. 4780
The director also shall send those appointing authorities notice 4781
of any final rule that is adopted within ten days after adoption.4782

       (2) When the director proposes to reclassify any employee in 4783
the service of the state so that the employee is adversely 4784
affected, the director shall give to the employee affected and to 4785
the employee's appointing authority a written notice setting forth 4786
the proposed new classification, pay range, and salary. Upon the 4787
request of any classified employee in the service of the state who 4788
is not serving in a probationary period, the director shall 4789
perform a job audit to review the classification of the employee's 4790
position to determine whether the position is properly classified. 4791
The director shall give to the employee affected and to the 4792
employee's appointing authority a written notice of the director's 4793
determination whether or not to reclassify the position or to 4794
reassign the employee to another classification. An employee or 4795
appointing authority desiring a hearing shall file a written 4796
request for the hearing with the state personnel board of review 4797
within thirty days after receiving the notice. The board shall set 4798
the matter for a hearing and notify the employee and appointing 4799
authority of the time and place of the hearing. The employee, the 4800
appointing authority, or any authorized representative of the 4801
employee who wishes to submit facts for the consideration of the 4802
board shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to do so. After the 4803
hearing, the board shall consider anew the reclassification and 4804
may order the reclassification of the employee and require the 4805
director to assign the employee to such appropriate classification 4806
as the facts and evidence warrant. As provided in division (A)(1) 4807
of section 124.03 of the Revised Code, the board may determine the 4808
most appropriate classification for the position of any employee 4809
coming before the board, with or without a job audit. The board 4810
shall disallow any reclassification or reassignment classification 4811
of any employee when it finds that changes have been made in the 4812
duties and responsibilities of any particular employee for 4813
political, religious, or other unjust reasons.4814

       (E)(1) Employees of each county department of job and family 4815
services shall be paid a salary or wage established by the board 4816
of county commissioners. The provisions of section 124.18 of the 4817
Revised Code concerning the standard work week apply to employees 4818
of county departments of job and family services. A board of 4819
county commissioners may do either of the following:4820

       (a) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 4821
supplement the sick leave, vacation leave, personal leave, and 4822
other benefits of any employee of the county department of job and 4823
family services of that county, if the employee is eligible for 4824
the supplement under a written policy providing for the 4825
supplement;4826

       (b) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 4827
establish alternative schedules of sick leave, vacation leave, 4828
personal leave, or other benefits for employees not inconsistent 4829
with the provisions of a collective bargaining agreement covering 4830
the affected employees.4831

       (2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to 4832
employees for whom the state employment relations board 4833
establishes appropriate bargaining units pursuant to section 4834
4117.06 of the Revised Code, except in either of the following 4835
situations:4836

       (a) The employees for whom the state employment relations 4837
board establishes appropriate bargaining units elect no 4838
representative in a board-conducted representation election.4839

       (b) After the state employment relations board establishes 4840
appropriate bargaining units for such employees, all employee 4841
organizations withdraw from a representation election.4842

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 4843
124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code, the board of trustees of 4844
each state university or college, as defined in section 3345.12 of 4845
the Revised Code, shall carry out all matters of governance 4846
involving the officers and employees of the university or college, 4847
including, but not limited to, the powers, duties, and functions 4848
of the department of administrative services and the director of 4849
administrative services specified in this chapter. Officers and 4850
employees of a state university or college shall have the right of 4851
appeal to the state personnel board of review as provided in this 4852
chapter.4853

       (2) Each board of trustees shall adopt rules under section 4854
111.15 of the Revised Code to carry out the matters of governance 4855
described in division (F)(1) of this section. Until the board of 4856
trustees adopts those rules, a state university or college shall 4857
continue to operate pursuant to the applicable rules adopted by 4858
the director of administrative services under this chapter.4859

       (G)(1) Each board of county commissioners may, by a 4860
resolution adopted by a majority of its members, establish a 4861
county personnel department to exercise the powers, duties, and 4862
functions specified in division (G) of this section. As used in 4863
division (G) of this section, "county personnel department" means 4864
a county personnel department established by a board of county 4865
commissioners under division (G)(1) of this section.4866

       (2)(a) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 4867
adopted by a majority of its members, may designate the county 4868
personnel department of the county to exercise the powers, duties, 4869
and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 4870
325. of the Revised Code with regard to employees in the service 4871
of the county, except for the powers and duties of the state 4872
personnel board of review, which powers and duties shall not be 4873
construed as having been modified or diminished in any manner by 4874
division (G)(2) of this section, with respect to the employees for 4875
whom the board of county commissioners is the appointing authority 4876
or co-appointing authority. 4877

       (b) Nothing in division (G)(2) of this section shall be 4878
construed to limit the right of any employee who possesses the 4879
right of appeal to the state personnel board of review to continue 4880
to possess that right of appeal.4881

       (c) Any board of county commissioners that has established a 4882
county personnel department may contract with the department of 4883
administrative services, in accordance with division (H) of this 4884
section, another political subdivision, or an appropriate public 4885
or private entity to provide competitive testing services or other 4886
appropriate services.4887

       (3) After the county personnel department of a county has 4888
been established as described in division (G)(2) of this section, 4889
any elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority 4890
of that county, upon written notification to the county personnel 4891
department, may elect to use the services and facilities of the 4892
county personnel department. Upon receipt of the notification by 4893
the county personnel department, the county personnel department 4894
shall exercise the powers, duties, and functions as described in 4895
division (G)(2) of this section with respect to the employees of 4896
that elected official, board, agency, or other appointing 4897
authority. 4898

       (4) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 4899
adopted by a majority of its members, may disband the county 4900
personnel department. 4901

       (5) Any elected official, board, agency, or appointing 4902
authority of a county may end its involvement with a county 4903
personnel department upon actual receipt by the department of a 4904
certified copy of the notification that contains the decision to 4905
no longer participate.4906

       (6) The director of administrative services may, by rule 4907
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 4908
prescribe criteria and procedures for the following:4909

       (a) A requirement that each county personnel department, in 4910
carrying out its duties, shall adhere to merit system principles 4911
with regard to employees of county departments of job and family 4912
services, child support enforcement agencies, and public child 4913
welfare agencies so that there is no threatened loss of federal 4914
funding for these agencies, and a requirement that the county be4915
is financially liable to the state for any loss of federal funds 4916
due to the action or inaction of the county personnel department. 4917
The costs associated with audits conducted to monitor compliance 4918
with division (G)(6)(a) of this section shall be reimbursed to the 4919
department of administrative services as determined by the 4920
director. All money the department receives for these audits shall 4921
be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the human 4922
resources fund created in section 124.07 of the Revised Code.4923

       (b) Authorization for the director of administrative services 4924
to conduct periodic audits and reviews of county personnel 4925
departments to guarantee the uniform application of the powers, 4926
duties, and functions exercised pursuant to division (G)(2)(a) of 4927
this section. The costs of the audits and reviews shall be 4928
reimbursed to the department of administrative services as 4929
determined by the director by the county for which the services 4930
are performed. All money the department receives shall be paid 4931
into the state treasury to the credit of the human resources fund 4932
created in section 124.07 of the Revised Code.4933

       (H) County agencies may contract with the department of 4934
administrative services for any human resources services, 4935
including, but not limited to, establishment and modification of 4936
job classification plans, competitive testing services, and 4937
periodic audits and reviews of the county's uniform application of 4938
the powers, duties, and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 4939
124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code with regard to 4940
employees in the service of the county. Nothing in this division 4941
modifies the powers and duties of the state personnel board of 4942
review with respect to employees in the service of the county. 4943
Nothing in this division limits the right of any employee who 4944
possesses the right of appeal to the state personnel board of 4945
review to continue to possess that right of appeal.4946

       (I) The director of administrative services shall establish 4947
the rate and method of compensation for all employees who are paid 4948
directly by warrant of the director of budget and management and 4949
who are serving in positions that the director of administrative 4950
services has determined impracticable to include in the state job 4951
classification plan. This division does not apply to elected 4952
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 4953
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 4954
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 4955
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 4956
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 4957
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 4958
administrator of workers' compensation establishes under division 4959
(B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code, or employees of an 4960
appointing authority authorized by law to fix the compensation of 4961
those employees.4962

       (I)(J) The director of administrative services shall set the 4963
rate of compensation for all intermittent, seasonal, temporary, 4964
emergency, and casual employees in the service of the state who 4965
are not considered public employees under section 4117.01 of the 4966
Revised Code. Those employees are not entitled to receive employee 4967
benefits. This rate of compensation shall be equitable in terms of 4968
the rate of employees serving in the same or similar 4969
classifications. This division does not apply to elected 4970
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 4971
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 4972
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 4973
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 4974
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 4975
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 4976
administrator establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 4977
of the Revised Code, or employees of an appointing authority 4978
authorized by law to fix the compensation of those employees.4979

       Sec. 124.231.  (A) As used in this section, "legally blind 4980
person" means any person who qualifies as being blind under any 4981
Ohio or federal statute, or any rule adopted thereunder. As used 4982
in this section, "legally deaf person" means any person who 4983
qualifies as being deaf under any Ohio or federal statute, or any 4984
rule adopted thereunder.4985

       (B) When an examination is to be administered under sections 4986
124.01 to 124.64124.31 of the Revised Code, the director of 4987
administrative services or the director's designee shall whenever 4988
practicable arrange for special examinations to be administered to 4989
legally blind or legally deaf persons applying for positions in 4990
the classified service of the state to ensure that the abilities 4991
of such applicants are properly assessed and that such applicants 4992
are not subject to discrimination because they are legally blind 4993
or legally deaf persons.4994

       Sec. 124.241.  As used in this section, "professional 4995
employee" has the same meaning as in section 5126.20 of the 4996
Revised Code and "registered service employee" means a service 4997
employee, as defined in section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, who 4998
is registered under section 5126.25 of the Revised Code.4999

       County boards of developmental disabilities may hire 5000
professional employees and registered service employees in the 5001
classified service on the basis of the candidates' qualifications 5002
rather than on the basis of the results of ana civil service5003
examination administered by the director of administrative 5004
services pursuant to, as described in division (D) of section 5005
124.23 of the Revised Code.5006

       Sec. 124.25.  The director of administrative services shall 5007
require persons applying for an examination for original 5008
appointment in the service of the state to file with the director 5009
or the director's designee, within reasonable time prior to the 5010
examination, a formal application, in which the applicant shall 5011
state the applicant's name, address, and such other information as 5012
may reasonably be required concerning the applicant's education 5013
and experience. No inquiry shall be made as to religious or 5014
political affiliations or as to racial or ethnic origin of the 5015
applicant, except as necessary to gather equal employment 5016
opportunity or other statistics that, when compiled, will not 5017
identify any specific individual.5018

       Blank forms for applications shall be furnished by the 5019
director or the director's designee without charge to any person 5020
requesting the same. The director or the director's designee may 5021
require in connection with such application such certificate of 5022
persons having knowledge of the applicant as the good of the 5023
service demands. The director or the director's designee may 5024
refuse to appoint or examine an applicant, or, after an 5025
examination, refuse to certify the applicant as eligible, who is 5026
found to lack any of the established preliminary requirements for 5027
the examination, who is addicted to the habitual use of 5028
intoxicating liquors or drugs to excess, who has a pattern of poor 5029
work habits and performance with previous employers, who has been 5030
convicted of a felony, who has been guilty of infamous or 5031
notoriously disgraceful conduct, who has been dismissed from 5032
either branch of the civil service for delinquency or misconduct, 5033
or who has made false statements of any material fact, or 5034
practiced, or attempted to practice, any deception or fraud in the 5035
application or examination, in establishing eligibility, or 5036
securing an appointment.5037

       Sec. 124.26.  From the returns of the examinations for 5038
positions in the service of the state, the director of 5039
administrative services or the director's designee shall prepare 5040
an eligible list of the persons whose general average standing 5041
upon examinations for the class or position is not less than the 5042
minimum fixed by the rules of the director, and who are otherwise 5043
eligible. Those persons shall take rank upon the eligible list as 5044
candidates in the order of their relative excellence as determined 5045
by the examination without reference to priority of the time of 5046
examination. If two or more applicants receive the same mark in an 5047
open competitive examination, priority in the time of filing the 5048
application with the director or the director's designee shall 5049
determine the order in which their names shall be placed on the 5050
eligible list, except that applicants eligible for veteran's 5051
preference under section 124.23 of the Revised Code shall receive 5052
priority in rank on the eligible list over nonveterans on the list 5053
with a rating equal to that of the veteran. Ties among veterans 5054
shall be decided by priority of filing the application. 5055

       . An eligible list expires upon the filling or closing of the 5056
position. An expired eligible list may be used to fill a position 5057
of the same classification within the same appointing authority 5058
for which the list was created. But, in no event shall an expired 5059
list be used more than one year past its expiration date.5060

       Sec. 124.27.  (A) Appointments to all positions in the 5061
classified civil service, that are not filled by promotion, 5062
transfer, or reduction, as provided in sections 124.01 to 124.64 5063
of the Revised Code and the rules of the director prescribed under 5064
those sections, shall be made only from those persons whose names 5065
take rank order on an eligible list, and no employment, except as 5066
provided in those sections, shall be otherwise given in the 5067
classified civil service of this state or any political 5068
subdivision of the state. The appointing authority shall appoint 5069
in the following manner: each time a selection is made, it shall 5070
be from one of the names that ranks in the top ten names on the 5071
eligible list or the top twenty-five per cent of the eligible 5072
list, whichever is greater. But, inIn the event that ten or fewer 5073
names are on the eligible list, the appointing authority may 5074
select any of the listed candidates. Each person who qualifies for 5075
the veteran's preference under section 124.23 of the Revised Code, 5076
who is a resident of this state, and whose name is on the eligible 5077
list for a position is entitled to preference in original 5078
appointment to any such competitive position in the classified5079
civil service of the state and its civil divisions over all other 5080
persons who are eligible for those appointments and who are 5081
standing on the relevant eligible list with a rating equal to that 5082
of the person qualifying for the veteran's preference.5083

       (B) All original and promotional appointments in the 5084
classified civil service, including appointments made pursuant to 5085
section 124.30 of the Revised Code, but not intermittent 5086
appointments, shall be for a probationary period, not less than 5087
sixty days nor more than one year, to be fixed by the rules of the 5088
director for appointments in the civil service of the state, 5089
except as provided in section 124.231 of the Revised Code, and 5090
except for original appointments to a police department as a 5091
police officer or to a fire department as a firefighter which 5092
shall be for a probationary period of one year. No appointment or 5093
promotion is final until the appointee has satisfactorily served 5094
the probationary period. If the service of the probationary 5095
employee is unsatisfactory, the employee may be removed or reduced 5096
at any time during the probationary period. If the appointing 5097
authority decides to remove a probationary employee in the service 5098
of the state, the appointing authority shall communicate the 5099
removal to the director. A probationary employee duly removed or 5100
reduced in position for unsatisfactory service does not have the 5101
right to appeal the removal or reduction under section 124.34 of 5102
the Revised Code.5103

       Sec. 124.30.  (A) PositionsClassified positions in the 5104
classifiedcivil service may be filled without competition as 5105
follows:5106

       (1) Whenever there are urgent reasons for filling a vacancy 5107
in any position in the classified civil service and the director 5108
of administrative services is unable to certify to the appointing 5109
authority, upon its request, a list of persons eligible for 5110
appointment to the position after a competitive examination, the 5111
appointing authority may fill the position by noncompetitive 5112
examination.5113

        A temporary appointment may be made without regard to the 5114
rules of sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code. Except as 5115
otherwise provided in this division, the temporary appointment may 5116
not continue longer than one hundred twenty days, and in no case 5117
shall successive temporary appointments be made. A temporary 5118
appointment longer than one hundred twenty days may be made if 5119
necessary by reason of sickness, disability, or other approved 5120
leave of absence of regular officers or employees, in which case 5121
it may continue during the period of sickness, disability, or 5122
other approved leave of absence, subject to the rules of the 5123
director.5124

       (2) In case of a vacancy in a position in the classified 5125
civil service where peculiar and exceptional qualifications of a 5126
scientific, managerial, professional, or educational character are 5127
required, and upon satisfactory evidence that for specified 5128
reasons competition in this special case is impracticable and that 5129
the position can best be filled by a selection of some designated 5130
person of high and recognized attainments in those qualities, the 5131
director may suspend the provisions of sections 124.01 to 124.64 5132
of the Revised Code that require competition in this special case, 5133
but no suspension shall be general in its application. All such 5134
cases of suspension shall be reported in the annual report of the 5135
director with the reasons for each suspension. The director shall 5136
suspend the provisions when the director of job and family 5137
services provides the certification under section 5101.051 of the 5138
Revised Code that a position with the department of job and family 5139
services can best be filled if the provisions are suspended.5140

       (3) The acceptance or refusal by an eligible person of a 5141
temporary appointment shall not affect the person's standing on 5142
the eligible list for permanent appointment, nor shall the period 5143
of temporary service be counted as a part of the probationary 5144
service in case of subsequent appointment to a permanent position.5145

       (B) Persons who receive temporary or intermittent 5146
appointments are in the unclassified civil service and serve at 5147
the pleasure of their appointing authority.5148

       Sec. 124.31.  Vacancies in positions in the classified civil5149
service of the state shall be filled insofar as practicable by 5150
promotions. The director of administrative services shall provide 5151
in the director's rules for keeping a record of efficiency for 5152
each employee in the classified civil service of the state, and 5153
for making promotions in the classified civil service of the state 5154
on the basis of merit and by conduct and capacity in office.5155

       Sec. 125.082.  (A) When purchasing equipment, materials, or 5156
supplies, the general assembly; the offices of all elected state 5157
officers; all departments, boards, offices, commissions, agencies, 5158
institutions, including, without limitation, state-supported 5159
institutions of higher education, and other instrumentalities of 5160
this state; the supreme court; all courts of appeals; and all 5161
courts of common pleas, may purchase recycled products in 5162
accordance with the guidelines adopted under division (B) of this 5163
section if the products are available and meet the performance 5164
specifications of the procuring entities. Purchases of recycled 5165
products shall comply with any rules adopted under division (C) of 5166
this section.5167

       (B) The director of administrative services shall adopt rules 5168
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 5169
guidelines for the procurement of recycled products pursuant to 5170
division (A) of this section. To the extent practicable, the 5171
guidelines shall do all of the following:5172

       (1) Be consistent with and substantially equivalent to any 5173
relevant regulations adopted by the administrator of the United 5174
States environmental protection agency pursuant to the "Resource 5175
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 5176
6921, as amended;5177

       (2) Establish the minimum percentage of recycled materials 5178
the various products shall contain in order to be considered 5179
"recycled" for the purposes of division (A) of this section;5180

       (3) So far as practicable and economically feasible, 5181
incorporate specifications for recycled-content materials to 5182
promote the use and purchase of recycled products by state 5183
agencies.5184

       (C) The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 5185
119. of the Revised Code establishing a maximum percentage by 5186
which the cost of recycled products purchased under division (A) 5187
of this section may exceed the cost of comparable products made of 5188
virgin materials.5189

       (D) The department of administrative services and the5190
department of natural resourcesenvironmental protection agency5191
annually shall prepare and submit to the governor, president of 5192
the senate, and speaker of the house of representatives a report 5193
that describes, so far as practicable, the value and types of 5194
recycled products that are purchased with moneys disbursed from 5195
the state treasury by the general assembly; the offices of all 5196
elected state officers; and all departments, boards, offices, 5197
commissions, agencies, and institutions of this state.5198

       Sec. 125.14.  (A) The director of administrative services 5199
shall allocate any proceeds from the transfer, sale, or lease of 5200
excess and surplus supplies in the following manner:5201

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this 5202
section, the proceeds of such a transfer, sale, or lease shall be 5203
paid into the state treasury to the credit of the investment 5204
recovery fund, which is hereby created.5205

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this 5206
section, when supplies originally were purchased with funds from 5207
nongeneral revenue fund sources, the director shall determine what 5208
fund or account originally was used to purchase the supplies, and 5209
the credit for the proceeds from any transfer, sale, or lease of 5210
those supplies shall be transferred to that fund or account. If 5211
the director cannot determine which fund or account originally was 5212
used to purchase the supplies, if the fund or account is no longer 5213
active, or if the proceeds from the transfer, sale, or lease of a 5214
unit of supplies are less than one hundred dollars or any larger 5215
amount the director may establish with the approval of the 5216
director of budget and management, then the proceeds from the 5217
transfer, sale, or lease of such supplies shall be paid into the 5218
state treasury to the credit of the investment recovery fund.5219

       (B) The investment recovery fund shall be used to pay for the 5220
operating expenses of the state surplus property program. Any 5221
amounts in excess of these operating expenses shall periodically 5222
be transferred to the general revenue fund of the state. If 5223
proceeds paid into the investment recovery fund are insufficient 5224
to pay for the program's operating expenses, a service fee may be 5225
charged to state agencies to eliminate the deficit.5226

       (C) Proceeds from the sale of recyclable goods and materials 5227
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 5228
recycled materials fund, which is hereby created, except that the 5229
director of natural resourcesenvironmental protection, upon 5230
request, may grant an exemption from this requirement. The chief 5231
of the division of recycling and litter prevention in the 5232
department of natural resourcesdirector shall administer the fund 5233
for the benefit of recycling programs in state agencies.5234

       Sec. 126.14.  The release of any money appropriated for the 5235
purchase of real estate shall be approved by the controlling 5236
board. The release of money appropriated for all other capital 5237
projects is also subject to the approval of the controlling board, 5238
except that the director of budget and management may approve the 5239
release of money appropriated for specific projects in accordance 5240
with the requirements of this section and except that the director 5241
of budget and management may approve the release of unencumbered 5242
capital balances, for a project to repair, remove, or prevent a 5243
public exigency declared to exist by the director of 5244
administrative services under section 123.15123.10 of the Revised 5245
Code, or by the executive director of the Ohio facilities 5246
construction commission under section 123.23 of the Revised Code,5247
in the amount designated in that declaration.5248

       Within sixty days after the effective date of any act 5249
appropriating money for capital projects, the director shall 5250
determine which appropriations are for general projects and which 5251
are for specific projects. Specific projects may include specific 5252
higher education projects that are to be funded from general 5253
purpose appropriations from the higher education improvement fund 5254
or the higher education improvement taxable fund created in 5255
section 154.21 of the Revised Code. Upon determining which 5256
projects are general and which are specific, the director shall 5257
submit to the controlling board a list that includes a brief 5258
description of and the estimated expenditures for each specific 5259
project. The release of money for any specific higher education 5260
projects that are to be funded from general purpose appropriations 5261
from the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 5262
improvement taxable fund but that are not included on the list, 5263
and the release of money for any specific higher education 5264
projects included on the list that will exceed the estimated 5265
expenditures by more than ten per cent, are subject to the 5266
approval of the controlling board. 5267

       The director may create new appropriation items and make 5268
transfers of appropriations to them for specific higher education 5269
projects included on the list that are to be funded from general 5270
purpose appropriations for basic renovations that are made from 5271
the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 5272
improvement taxable fund.5273

       Sec. 127.163. At the time an agency submits a request to the 5274
controlling board to approve the making of a purchase, if the 5275
requested purchase is to be made from a supplier who is not 5276
headquartered in this state but has a presence in this state, the 5277
agency shall include in the request the following information:5278

        (A) The address or addresses of the supplier's places of 5279
business in this state;5280

        (B) The total number of employees the supplier employs in 5281
each of its places of business in this state;5282

        (C) The percentage of the requested purchase to be completed 5283
by employees of the supplier located in this state;5284

        (D) A list of any suppliers, subcontractors, or other 5285
entities the supplier intends to use to fulfill the requested 5286
purchase that includes all of the following:5287

        (1) The address or addresses of the places of business in 5288
this state of each potential supplier, subcontractor, or entity;5289

        (2) The number of employees that each potential supplier, 5290
subcontractor, or entity employs in each of its places of business 5291
in this state;5292

        (3) The percentage of the requested purchase to be completed 5293
by employees of the potential supplier, subcontractor, or entity 5294
located in this state.5295

       Sec. 127.164. (A) Prior to submitting a request to approve 5296
the making of a purchase to the controlling board, an agency shall 5297
contact any entity headquartered in this state that the agency 5298
approached related to the proposed purchase or to whom the agency 5299
sent a request for proposals but who did not respond to the 5300
request for proposals and ascertain why the entity did not 5301
respond.5302

        (B) At the time an agency submits a request to the 5303
controlling board to approve the making of a purchase, the agency 5304
shall submit to the board, as part of the request, the information 5305
that the agency collected under division (A) of this section.5306

       Sec. 135.35.  (A) The investing authority shall deposit or 5307
invest any part or all of the county's inactive moneys and shall 5308
invest all of the money in the county public library fund when 5309
required by section 135.352 of the Revised Code. The following 5310
classifications of securities and obligations are eligible for 5311
such deposit or investment:5312

       (1) United States treasury bills, notes, bonds, or any other 5313
obligation or security issued by the United States treasury, any 5314
other obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by the 5315
United States, or any book entry, zero-coupon United States 5316
treasury security that is a direct obligation of the United 5317
States.5318

       Nothing in the classification of eligible securities and 5319
obligations set forth in divisions (A)(2) to (11) or (A)(13) of 5320
this section shall be construed to authorize any investment in 5321
stripped principal or interest obligations of such eligible 5322
securities and obligations.5323

       (2) Bonds, notes, debentures, or any other obligations or 5324
securities issued by any federal government agency or 5325
instrumentality, including, but not limited to, the federal 5326
national mortgage association, federal home loan bank, federal 5327
farm credit bank, federal home loan mortgage corporation, 5328
government national mortgage association, and student loan 5329
marketing association. All federal agency securities shall be 5330
direct issuances of federal government agencies or 5331
instrumentalities.5332

       (3) Time certificates of deposit or savings or deposit 5333
accounts, including, but not limited to, passbook accounts, in any 5334
eligible institution mentioned in section 135.32 of the Revised 5335
Code;5336

       (4) Bonds and other obligations of this state or the 5337
political subdivisions of this state;5338

       (5) No-load money market mutual funds consisting exclusively 5339
of obligations described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 5340
and repurchase agreements secured by such obligations, provided 5341
that investments in securities described in this division are made 5342
only through eligible institutions mentioned in section 135.32 of 5343
the Revised Code;5344

       (6) The Ohio subdivision's fund as provided in section 135.45 5345
of the Revised Code;5346

       (7) Securities lending agreements with any eligible 5347
institution mentioned in section 135.32 of the Revised Code that 5348
is a member of the federal reserve system or federal home loan 5349
bank or with any recognized United States government securities 5350
dealer meeting the description in division (J)(1) of this section, 5351
under the terms of which agreements the investing authority lends 5352
securities and the eligible institution or dealer agrees to 5353
simultaneously exchange similar securities or cash, equal value 5354
for equal value.5355

       Securities and cash received as collateral for a securities 5356
lending agreement are not inactive moneys of the county or moneys 5357
of a county public library fund. The investment of cash collateral 5358
received pursuant to a securities lending agreement may be 5359
invested only in instruments specified by the investing authority 5360
in the written investment policy described in division (K) of this 5361
section. 5362

       (8) Up to twenty-five per cent of the county's total average 5363
portfolio in either of the following investments:5364

       (a) Commercial paper notes issued by an entity that is 5365
defined in division (D) of section 1705.01 of the Revised Code and 5366
that has assets exceeding five hundred million dollars, to which 5367
notes all of the following apply:5368

       (i) The notes are rated at the time of purchase in the 5369
highest classification established by at least two nationally 5370
recognized standard rating services.5371

       (ii) The aggregate value of the notes does not exceed ten per 5372
cent of the aggregate value of the outstanding commercial paper of 5373
the issuing corporation.5374

       (iii) The notes mature not later than two hundred seventy 5375
days after purchase.5376

       (b) Bankers acceptances of banks that are insured by the 5377
federal deposit insurance corporation and to which both of the 5378
following apply:5379

       (i) The obligations are eligible for purchase by the federal 5380
reserve system.5381

       (ii) The obligations mature not later than one hundred eighty 5382
days after purchase.5383

       No investment shall be made pursuant to division (A)(8) of 5384
this section unless the investing authority has completed 5385
additional training for making the investments authorized by 5386
division (A)(8) of this section. The type and amount of additional 5387
training shall be approved by the auditor of state and may be 5388
conducted by or provided under the supervision of the auditor of 5389
state.5390

       (9) Up to fifteen per cent of the county's total average 5391
portfolio in notes issued by corporations that are incorporated 5392
under the laws of the United States and that are operating within 5393
the United States, or by depository institutions that are doing 5394
business under authority granted by the United States or any state 5395
and that are operating within the United States, provided both of 5396
the following apply:5397

        (a) The notes are rated in the second highest or higher 5398
category by at least two nationally recognized standard rating 5399
services at the time of purchase.5400

        (b) The notes mature not later than two years after purchase.5401

        (10) No-load money market mutual funds rated in the highest 5402
category at the time of purchase by at least one nationally 5403
recognized standard rating service and consisting exclusively of 5404
obligations described in division (A)(1), (2), or (6) of section 5405
135.143 of the Revised Code;5406

        (11) Debt interests rated at the time of purchase in the 5407
three highest categories by two nationally recognized standard 5408
rating services and issued by foreign nations diplomatically 5409
recognized by the United States government. All interest and 5410
principal shall be denominated and payable in United States funds. 5411
The investments made under division (A)(11) of this section shall 5412
not exceed in the aggregate one per cent of a county's total 5413
average portfolio.5414

       The investing authority shall invest under division (A)(11) 5415
of this section in a debt interest issued by a foreign nation only 5416
if the debt interest is backed by the full faith and credit of 5417
that foreign nation, there is no prior history of default, and the 5418
debt interest matures not later than five years after purchase. 5419
For purposes of division (A)(11) of this section, a debt interest 5420
is rated in the three highest categories by two nationally 5421
recognized standard rating services if either the debt interest 5422
itself or the issuer of the debt interest is rated, or is 5423
implicitly rated, at the time of purchase in the three highest 5424
categories by two nationally recognized standard rating services.5425

       (12) A current unpaid or delinquent tax line of credit 5426
authorized under division (G) of section 135.341 of the Revised 5427
Code, provided that all of the conditions for entering into such a 5428
line of credit under that division are satisfied, or bonds and 5429
other obligations of a county land reutilization corporation 5430
organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code, if the county 5431
land reutilization corporation is located wholly or partly within 5432
the same county as the investing authority;5433

       (13) Either or both of the following, provided the 5434
investments are specifically approved by the investment advisory 5435
committee and the aggregate amount invested pursuant to division 5436
(A)(13) of this section does not exceed fifteen per cent of the 5437
county's total average portfolio:5438

       (a) Bonds or other obligations of the political subdivisions 5439
of this state, regardless of their date of maturity;5440

       (b) Securities or obligations otherwise eligible for 5441
investment under this section that mature on a date that is more 5442
than five years but not more than ten years from the date of 5443
settlement.5444

       (B) Nothing in the classifications of eligible obligations 5445
and securities set forth in divisions (A)(1) to (11) or (A)(13) of 5446
this section shall be construed to authorize investment in a 5447
derivative, and no investing authority shall invest any county 5448
inactive moneys or any moneys in a county public library fund in a 5449
derivative. For purposes of this division, "derivative" means a 5450
financial instrument or contract or obligation whose value or 5451
return is based upon or linked to another asset or index, or both, 5452
separate from the financial instrument, contract, or obligation 5453
itself. Any security, obligation, trust account, or other 5454
instrument that is created from an issue of the United States 5455
treasury or is created from an obligation of a federal agency or 5456
instrumentality or is created from both is considered a derivative 5457
instrument. An eligible investment described in this section with 5458
a variable interest rate payment, based upon a single interest 5459
payment or single index comprised of other eligible investments 5460
provided for in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, is not a 5461
derivative, provided that such variable rate investment has a 5462
maximum maturity of two years. A treasury inflation-protected 5463
security shall not be considered a derivative, provided the 5464
security matures not later than five years after purchase.5465

       (C) Except for the investments described in division (A)(13) 5466
of this section or as provided in divisionsdivision (D) and (O)5467
of this section, any investment made pursuant to this section must 5468
mature within tenfive years from the date of settlement, unless 5469
the investment is matched to a specific obligation or debt of the 5470
county or to a specific obligation or debt of a political 5471
subdivision of this state, and the investment is specifically 5472
approved by the investment advisory committee.5473

       (D) The investing authority may also enter into a written 5474
repurchase agreement with any eligible institution mentioned in 5475
section 135.32 of the Revised Code or any eligible securities 5476
dealer pursuant to division (J) of this section, under the terms 5477
of which agreement the investing authority purchases and the 5478
eligible institution or dealer agrees unconditionally to 5479
repurchase any of the securities listed in divisions (B)(1) to 5480
(5), except letters of credit described in division (B)(2), of 5481
section 135.18 of the Revised Code. The market value of securities 5482
subject to an overnight written repurchase agreement must exceed 5483
the principal value of the overnight written repurchase agreement 5484
by at least two per cent. A written repurchase agreement must 5485
exceed the principal value of the overnight written repurchase 5486
agreement, by at least two per cent. A written repurchase 5487
agreement shall not exceed thirty days, and the market value of 5488
securities subject to a written repurchase agreement must exceed 5489
the principal value of the written repurchase agreement by at 5490
least two per cent and be marked to market daily. All securities 5491
purchased pursuant to this division shall be delivered into the 5492
custody of the investing authority or the qualified custodian of 5493
the investing authority or an agent designated by the investing 5494
authority. A written repurchase agreement with an eligible 5495
securities dealer shall be transacted on a delivery versus payment 5496
basis. The agreement shall contain the requirement that for each 5497
transaction pursuant to the agreement the participating 5498
institution shall provide all of the following information:5499

       (1) The par value of the securities;5500

       (2) The type, rate, and maturity date of the securities;5501

       (3) A numerical identifier generally accepted in the 5502
securities industry that designates the securities.5503

       No investing authority shall enter into a written repurchase 5504
agreement under the terms of which the investing authority agrees 5505
to sell securities owned by the county to a purchaser and agrees 5506
with that purchaser to unconditionally repurchase those 5507
securities.5508

       (E) No investing authority shall make an investment under 5509
this section, unless the investing authority, at the time of 5510
making the investment, reasonably expects that the investment can 5511
be held until its maturity. The investing authority's written 5512
investment policy shall specify the conditions under which an 5513
investment may be redeemed or sold prior to maturity.5514

       (F) No investing authority shall pay a county's inactive 5515
moneys or moneys of a county public library fund into a fund 5516
established by another subdivision, treasurer, governing board, or 5517
investing authority, if that fund was established by the 5518
subdivision, treasurer, governing board, or investing authority 5519
for the purpose of investing or depositing the public moneys of 5520
other subdivisions. This division does not apply to the payment of 5521
public moneys into either of the following:5522

       (1) The Ohio subdivision's fund pursuant to division (A)(6) 5523
of this section;5524

       (2) A fund created solely for the purpose of acquiring, 5525
constructing, owning, leasing, or operating municipal utilities 5526
pursuant to the authority provided under section 715.02 of the 5527
Revised Code or Section 4 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution.5528

       For purposes of division (F) of this section, "subdivision" 5529
includes a county.5530

       (G) The use of leverage, in which the county uses its current 5531
investment assets as collateral for the purpose of purchasing 5532
other assets, is prohibited. The issuance of taxable notes for the 5533
purpose of arbitrage is prohibited. Contracting to sell securities 5534
not owned by the county, for the purpose of purchasing such 5535
securities on the speculation that bond prices will decline, is 5536
prohibited.5537

       (H) Any securities, certificates of deposit, deposit 5538
accounts, or any other documents evidencing deposits or 5539
investments made under authority of this section shall be issued 5540
in the name of the county with the county treasurer or investing 5541
authority as the designated payee. If any such deposits or 5542
investments are registrable either as to principal or interest, or 5543
both, they shall be registered in the name of the treasurer.5544

       (I) The investing authority shall be responsible for the 5545
safekeeping of all documents evidencing a deposit or investment 5546
acquired under this section, including, but not limited to, 5547
safekeeping receipts evidencing securities deposited with a 5548
qualified trustee, as provided in section 135.37 of the Revised 5549
Code, and documents confirming the purchase of securities under 5550
any repurchase agreement under this section shall be deposited 5551
with a qualified trustee, provided, however, that the qualified 5552
trustee shall be required to report to the investing authority, 5553
auditor of state, or an authorized outside auditor at any time 5554
upon request as to the identity, market value, and location of the 5555
document evidencing each security, and that if the participating 5556
institution is a designated depository of the county for the 5557
current period of designation, the securities that are the subject 5558
of the repurchase agreement may be delivered to the treasurer or 5559
held in trust by the participating institution on behalf of the 5560
investing authority.5561

       Upon the expiration of the term of office of an investing 5562
authority or in the event of a vacancy in the office for any 5563
reason, the officer or the officer's legal representative shall 5564
transfer and deliver to the officer's successor all documents 5565
mentioned in this division for which the officer has been 5566
responsible for safekeeping. For all such documents transferred 5567
and delivered, the officer shall be credited with, and the 5568
officer's successor shall be charged with, the amount of moneys 5569
evidenced by such documents.5570

       (J)(1) All investments, except for investments in securities 5571
described in divisions (A)(5), (6), and (12), and (13) of this 5572
section, shall be made only through a member of the national 5573
association of securities dealers, through a bank, savings bank, 5574
or savings and loan association regulated by the superintendent of 5575
financial institutions, or through an institution regulated by the 5576
comptroller of the currency, federal deposit insurance 5577
corporation, or board of governors of the federal reserve system. 5578

       (2) Payment for investments shall be made only upon the 5579
delivery of securities representing such investments to the 5580
treasurer, investing authority, or qualified trustee. If the 5581
securities transferred are not represented by a certificate, 5582
payment shall be made only upon receipt of confirmation of 5583
transfer from the custodian by the treasurer, governing board, or 5584
qualified trustee.5585

       (K)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (K)(2) of 5586
this section, no investing authority shall make an investment or 5587
deposit under this section, unless there is on file with the 5588
auditor of state a written investment policy approved by the 5589
investing authority. The policy shall require that all entities 5590
conducting investment business with the investing authority shall 5591
sign the investment policy of that investing authority. All 5592
brokers, dealers, and financial institutions, described in 5593
division (J)(1) of this section, initiating transactions with the 5594
investing authority by giving advice or making investment 5595
recommendations shall sign the investing authority's investment 5596
policy thereby acknowledging their agreement to abide by the 5597
policy's contents. All brokers, dealers, and financial 5598
institutions, described in division (J)(1) of this section, 5599
executing transactions initiated by the investing authority, 5600
having read the policy's contents, shall sign the investment 5601
policy thereby acknowledging their comprehension and receipt.5602

       (2) If a written investment policy described in division 5603
(K)(1) of this section is not filed on behalf of the county with 5604
the auditor of state, the investing authority of that county shall 5605
invest the county's inactive moneys and moneys of the county 5606
public library fund only in time certificates of deposits or 5607
savings or deposit accounts pursuant to division (A)(3) of this 5608
section, no-load money market mutual funds pursuant to division 5609
(A)(5) of this section, or the Ohio subdivision's fund pursuant to 5610
division (A)(6) of this section.5611

       (L)(1) The investing authority shall establish and maintain 5612
an inventory of all obligations and securities acquired by the 5613
investing authority pursuant to this section. The inventory shall 5614
include a description of each obligation or security, including 5615
type, cost, par value, maturity date, settlement date, and any 5616
coupon rate.5617

       (2) The investing authority shall also keep a complete record 5618
of all purchases and sales of the obligations and securities made 5619
pursuant to this section.5620

       (3) The investing authority shall maintain a monthly 5621
portfolio report and issue a copy of the monthly portfolio report 5622
describing such investments to the county investment advisory 5623
committee, detailing the current inventory of all obligations and 5624
securities, all transactions during the month that affected the 5625
inventory, any income received from the obligations and 5626
securities, and any investment expenses paid, and stating the 5627
names of any persons effecting transactions on behalf of the 5628
investing authority.5629

       (4) The monthly portfolio report shall be a public record and 5630
available for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.5631

       (5) The inventory and the monthly portfolio report shall be 5632
filed with the board of county commissioners. The monthly 5633
portfolio report also shall be filed with the treasurer of state.5634

       (M) An investing authority may enter into a written 5635
investment or deposit agreement that includes a provision under 5636
which the parties agree to submit to nonbinding arbitration to 5637
settle any controversy that may arise out of the agreement, 5638
including any controversy pertaining to losses of public moneys 5639
resulting from investment or deposit. The arbitration provision 5640
shall be set forth entirely in the agreement, and the agreement 5641
shall include a conspicuous notice to the parties that any party 5642
to the arbitration may apply to the court of common pleas of the 5643
county in which the arbitration was held for an order to vacate, 5644
modify, or correct the award. Any such party may also apply to the 5645
court for an order to change venue to a court of common pleas 5646
located more than one hundred miles from the county in which the 5647
investing authority is located.5648

       For purposes of this division, "investment or deposit 5649
agreement" means any agreement between an investing authority and 5650
a person, under which agreement the person agrees to invest, 5651
deposit, or otherwise manage, on behalf of the investing 5652
authority, a county's inactive moneys or moneys in a county public 5653
library fund, or agrees to provide investment advice to the 5654
investing authority.5655

       (N) An investment held in the county portfolio on September 5656
27, 1996, that was a legal investment under the law as it existed 5657
before September 27, 1996, may be held until maturity, or if the 5658
investment does not have a maturity date the investment may be 5659
held until five years from September 27, 1996, regardless of 5660
whether the investment would qualify as a legal investment under 5661
the terms of this section as amended.5662

       (O) Upon a majority affirmative vote of the county investment 5663
advisory committee in support of such action, an investment 5664
authority may invest up to twenty-five per cent of the county's 5665
total average portfolio of investments made under this section in 5666
securities and obligations that mature on a date that is more than 5667
ten years from the date of settlement.5668

       Sec. 140.01.  As used in this chapter:5669

       (A) "Hospital agency" means any public hospital agency or any 5670
nonprofit hospital agency.5671

       (B) "Public hospital agency" means any county, board of 5672
county hospital trustees established pursuant to section 339.02 of 5673
the Revised Code, county hospital commission established pursuant 5674
to section 339.14 of the Revised Code, municipal corporation, new 5675
community authority organized under Chapter 349. of the Revised 5676
Code, joint township hospital district, state or municipal 5677
university or college operating or authorized to operate a 5678
hospital facility, or the state.5679

       (C) "Nonprofit hospital agency" means a corporation or 5680
association not for profit, no part of the net earnings of which 5681
inures or may lawfully inure to the benefit of any private 5682
shareholder or individual, that has authority to own or operate a 5683
hospital facility or provides or is to provide services to one or 5684
more other hospital agencies.5685

       (D) "Governing body" means, in the case of a county, the 5686
board of county commissioners or other legislative body; in the 5687
case of a board of county hospital trustees, the board; in the 5688
case of a county hospital commission, the commission; in the case 5689
of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 5690
authority; in the case of a new community authority, its board of 5691
trustees; in the case of a joint township hospital district, the 5692
joint township district hospital board; in the case of a state or 5693
municipal university or college, its board of trustees or board of 5694
directors; in the case of a nonprofit hospital agency, the board 5695
of trustees or other body having general management of the agency; 5696
and, in the case of the state, the director of development or the 5697
Ohio higher educational facility commission.5698

       (E) "Hospital facilities" means buildings, structures and 5699
other improvements, additions thereto and extensions thereof, 5700
furnishings, equipment, and real estate and interests in real 5701
estate, used or to be used for or in connection with one or more 5702
hospitals, emergency, intensive, intermediate, extended, 5703
long-term, or self-care facilities, diagnostic and treatment and 5704
out-patient facilities, facilities related to programs for home 5705
health services, clinics, laboratories, public health centers, 5706
research facilities, and rehabilitation facilities, for or 5707
pertaining to diagnosis, treatment, care, or rehabilitation of 5708
sick, ill, injured, infirm, impaired, disabled, or handicapped 5709
persons, or the prevention, detection, and control of disease, and 5710
also includes education, training, and food service facilities for 5711
health professions personnel, housing facilities for such 5712
personnel and their families, and parking and service facilities 5713
in connection with any of the foregoing; and includes any one, 5714
part of, or any combination of the foregoing; and further includes 5715
site improvements, utilities, machinery, facilities, furnishings, 5716
and any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 5717
sites, utilities, facilities, or equipment to be used in, or in 5718
connection with the operation or maintenance of, or supplementing 5719
or otherwise related to the services or facilities to be provided 5720
by, any one or more of such hospital facilities.5721

       (F) "Costs of hospital facilities" means the costs of 5722
acquiring hospital facilities or interests in hospital facilities, 5723
including membership interests in nonprofit hospital agencies, 5724
costs of constructing hospital facilities, costs of improving one 5725
or more hospital facilities, including reconstructing, 5726
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, and enlarging, costs of 5727
equipping and furnishing such facilities, and all financing costs 5728
pertaining thereto, including, without limitation thereto, costs 5729
of engineering, architectural, and other professional services, 5730
designs, plans, specifications and surveys, and estimates of cost, 5731
costs of tests and inspections, the costs of any indemnity or 5732
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct or 5733
allocable administrative expenses pertaining thereto, fees and 5734
expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 5735
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 5736
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisors, attorneys, 5737
accountants, consultants and rating services in connection 5738
therewith, capitalized interest on the obligations, amounts 5739
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 5740
proceedings, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied 5741
by the hospital agency or others or borrowed from others for the 5742
payment of any item or items of costs of such facilities, and all 5743
other expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 5744
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 5745
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 5746
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 5747
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 5748
furnishing of such facilities, the financing thereof, and the 5749
placing of the same in use and operation, including any one, part 5750
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses, and 5751
means the costs of refinancing obligations issued by, or 5752
reimbursement of money advanced by, nonprofit hospital agencies or 5753
others the proceeds of which were used for the payment of costs of 5754
hospital facilities, if the governing body of the public hospital 5755
agency determines that the refinancing or reimbursement advances 5756
the purposes of this chapter, whether or not the refinancing or 5757
reimbursement is in conjunction with the acquisition or 5758
construction of additional hospital facilities.5759

       (G) "Hospital receipts" means all moneys received by or on 5760
behalf of a hospital agency from or in connection with the 5761
ownership, operation, acquisition, construction, improvement, 5762
equipping, or financing of any hospital facilities, including, 5763
without limitation thereto, any rentals and other moneys received 5764
from the lease, sale, or other disposition of hospital facilities, 5765
and any gifts, grants, interest subsidies, or other moneys 5766
received under any federal program for assistance in financing the 5767
costs of hospital facilities, and any other gifts, grants, and 5768
donations, and receipts therefrom, available for financing the 5769
costs of hospital facilities.5770

       (H) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 5771
indebtedness or obligation, including interest coupons pertaining 5772
thereto, issued or issuable by a public hospital agency to pay 5773
costs of hospital facilities.5774

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, interest, and 5775
call premium, if any, required to be paid on obligations.5776

       (J) "Bond proceedings" means one or more ordinances, 5777
resolutions, trust agreements, indentures, and other agreements or 5778
documents, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 5779
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms, 5780
including any variable interest rates, and conditions applicable 5781
to, or providing for the security of, obligations and the 5782
provisions contained in such obligations.5783

       (K) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in division (A)(1) 5784
of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.5785

       (L) "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 5786
division (A)(2) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.5787

       (M) "Adult care facility" has the same meaning as in division 5788
(A)(3) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.5789

       (N) "Independent living facility" means any self-care 5790
facility or other housing facility designed or used as a residence 5791
for elderly persons. An "independent living facility" does not 5792
include a residential facility, or that part of a residential 5793
facility, that is any of the following:5794

       (1) A hospital required to be certified by section 3727.02 of 5795
the Revised Code;5796

       (2) A nursing home or residential care facility;5797

       (3) An adult care facility;5798

       (4) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 5799
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code and used for the 5800
program's hospice patients;5801

        (4) A residential facility licensed by the department of 5802
mental health under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that 5803
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 5804
for three to sixteen unrelated adults;5805

       (5) A residential facility for the mentally ill licensed by 5806
the department of mental health under section 5119.22 of the 5807
Revised Code that is not a residential facility described in 5808
division (M)(4) of this section;5809

       (6) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 5810
section 3793.11 of the Revised Code;5811

       (7) A facility certified as an alcohol and drug addiction 5812
program under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code;5813

       (8) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 5814
the Revised Code or a facility providing services under a contract 5815
with the department of developmental disabilities under section 5816
5123.18 of the Revised Code;5817

       (9) A residential facility used as part of a hospital to 5818
provide housing for staff of the hospital or students pursuing a 5819
course of study at the hospital.5820

       Sec. 140.03.  (A) Two or more hospital agencies may enter 5821
into agreements for the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 5822
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, equipping, and 5823
furnishing of hospital facilities, or the management, operation, 5824
occupancy, use, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, or 5825
for participation in programs, projects, activities, and services 5826
useful to, connected with, supplementing, or otherwise related to 5827
the services provided by, or the operation of, hospital facilities 5828
operated by one or more participating hospital agencies, including 5829
any combination of such purposes, all in such manner as to promote 5830
the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised Code. A 5831
city health district; general health district; board of alcohol, 5832
drug addiction, and mental health services; county board of 5833
developmental disabilities; the department of mental health; the 5834
department of developmental disabilities; or any public body 5835
engaged in the education or training of health professions 5836
personnel may join in any such agreement for purposes related to 5837
its authority under laws applicable to it, and as such a 5838
participant shall be considered a public hospital agency or 5839
hospital agency for the purposes of this section.5840

       (B) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 5841
shall, where appropriate, provide for:5842

       (1) The manner in which the title to the hospital facilities, 5843
including the sites and interest in real estate pertaining 5844
thereto, is to be held, transferred, or disposed of;5845

       (2) Unless provided for by lease pursuant to section 140.05 5846
of the Revised Code, the method by which such hospital facilities 5847
are to be acquired, constructed, or otherwise improved and by 5848
which they shall be managed, occupied, maintained, and repaired, 5849
including the designation of one of the hospital agencies to have 5850
charge of the details of acquisition, construction, or improvement 5851
pursuant to the contracting procedures prescribed under the law 5852
applicable to one of the participating public hospital agencies;5853

       (3) The management or administration of any such programs, 5854
projects, activities, or services, which may include management or 5855
administration by one of said hospital agencies or a board or 5856
agency thereof;5857

       (4) Annual, or more frequent, reports to the participating 5858
hospital agencies as to the revenues and receipts pertaining to 5859
the subject of the agreement, the expenditures thereof, the status 5860
and application of other funds contributed under such agreement, 5861
and such other matters as may be specified by or pursuant to such 5862
agreement;5863

       (5) The manner of apportionment or sharing of costs of 5864
hospital facilities, any other applicable costs of management, 5865
operation, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, and 5866
costs for the programs, projects, activities, and services forming 5867
the subject of the agreement, which apportionment or sharing may 5868
be prescribed in fixed amounts, or determined by ratios, formulas, 5869
or otherwise, and paid as service charges, rentals, or in such 5870
other manner as provided in the agreement, and may include amounts 5871
sufficient to meet the bond service charges and other payments and 5872
deposits required under the bond proceedings for obligations 5873
issued to pay costs of hospital facilities. A hospital agency may 5874
commit itself to make such payments at least for so long as any 5875
such obligations are outstanding. In the apportionment, different 5876
classes of costs or expenses may be apportioned to one or more, 5877
all or less than all, of the participating hospital agencies as 5878
determined under such agreement.5879

       (C) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 5880
may provide for:5881

       (1) An orderly process for making determinations or advising 5882
as to planning, execution, implementation, and operation, which 5883
may include designating one of the hospital agencies, or a board 5884
thereof, for any of such purposes, provisions for a committee, 5885
board, or commission, and for representation thereon, or as may 5886
otherwise be provided;5887

       (2) Securing necessary personnel, including participation of 5888
personnel from the respective hospital agencies;5889

       (3) Standards or conditions for the admission or 5890
participation of patients and physicians;5891

       (4) Conditions for admittance of other hospital agencies to 5892
participation under the agreement;5893

       (5) Fixing or establishing the method of determining charges 5894
to be made for particular services;5895

       (6) The manner of amending, supplementing, terminating, or 5896
withdrawal or removal of any party from, the agreement, and the 5897
term of the agreement, or an indefinite term;5898

       (7) Designation of the applicants for or recipients of any 5899
federal, state, or other aid, assistance, or loans available by 5900
reason of any activities conducted under the agreement;5901

       (8) Designation of one or more of the participating hospital 5902
agencies to maintain, prepare, and submit, on behalf of all 5903
parties to the agreement, any or all records and reports with 5904
regard to the activities conducted under the agreement;5905

       (9) Any incidental use of the hospital facilities, or 5906
services thereof, by participating public hospital agencies for 5907
any of their lawful purposes, which incidental use does not impair 5908
the character of the facilities as hospital facilities for any 5909
purpose of this chapter;5910

       (10) Such other matters as the parties thereto may agree upon 5911
for the purposes of division (A) of this section.5912

       (D) For the purpose of paying or contributing its share under 5913
an agreement made under this section, a public hospital agency 5914
may:5915

       (1) Expend any moneys from its general fund, and from any 5916
other funds not otherwise restricted by law, but including funds 5917
for permanent improvements of hospital facilities of such public 5918
hospital agency where the contribution is to be made toward the 5919
costs of hospital facilities under the agreement, and including 5920
funds derived from levies for, or receipts available for, 5921
operating expenses of hospital facilities or services of such 5922
public hospital agency where the contribution or payment is to be 5923
made toward operating expenses of the hospital facilities or 5924
services under the agreement or for the services provided thereby;5925

       (2) Issue obligations under Chapter 133. or section 140.06, 5926
339.14, 339.15, 513.12, or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or Section 5927
3 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, if applicable to such 5928
public hospital agency, to pay costs of hospital facilities, or 5929
issue obligations under any other provision of law authorizing 5930
such public hospital agency to issue obligations for any costs of 5931
hospital facilities;5932

       (3) Levy taxes under Chapter 5705. or section 513.13 or 5933
3709.29 of the Revised Code, if applicable to such public hospital 5934
agency, provided that the purpose of such levy may include the 5935
provision of funds for either or both permanent improvements and 5936
current expenses if required for the contribution or payment of 5937
such hospital agency under such agreement, and each such public 5938
hospital agency may issue notes in anticipation of any such levy, 5939
pursuant to the procedures provided in section 5705.191 of the 5940
Revised Code if the levy is solely for current expenses, and in 5941
section 5705.193 of the Revised Code if the levy is all or in part 5942
for permanent improvements;5943

       (4) Contribute real and personal property or interest therein 5944
without necessity for competitive bidding or public auction on 5945
disposition of such property.5946

       (E) Any funds provided by public hospital agencies that are 5947
parties to an agreement entered into under this section shall be 5948
transferred to and placed in a separate fund or funds of such 5949
participating public hospital agency as is designated under the 5950
agreement. The funds shall be applied for the purposes provided in 5951
such agreement and are subject to audit. Pursuant to any 5952
determinations to be made under such agreement, the funds shall be 5953
deposited, invested, and disbursed under the provisions of law 5954
applicable to the public hospital agency in whose custody the 5955
funds are held. This division is subject to the provisions of any 5956
applicable bond proceedings under section 133.08, 140.06, 339.15, 5957
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code or Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio 5958
Constitution. The records and reports of such public hospital 5959
agency under Chapter 117. of the Revised Code and sections 3702.51 5960
to 3702.62 of the Revised Code, with respect to the funds shall be 5961
sufficient without necessity for reports thereon by the other 5962
public hospital agencies participating under such agreement.5963

       (F)(1) Prior to its entry into any such agreement, the public 5964
hospital agency must determine, and set forth in a resolution or 5965
ordinance, that the contribution to be made by it under such 5966
agreement will be fair consideration for value and benefit to be 5967
derived by it under such agreement and that the agreement will 5968
promote the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised 5969
Code.5970

       (2) If the agreement is with a board of county commissioners, 5971
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 5972
and is an initial agreement for the acquisition or operation of a 5973
county hospital operated by a board of county hospital trustees 5974
under section 339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of 5975
the public hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied 5976
by the resolution or ordinance, to the board of county 5977
commissioners for review pursuant to section 339.091 of the 5978
Revised Code. The agreement may be entered into only if the board 5979
of county commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. 5980
The requirements of division (F)(2) of this section do not apply 5981
to the agreement if one or more hospitals classified as general 5982
hospitals by the publicdirector of health council under section 5983
3701.07 of the Revised Code are operating in the same county as 5984
the county hospital.5985

       Sec. 140.05.  (A)(1) A public hospital agency may lease any 5986
hospital facility to one or more hospital agencies for use as a 5987
hospital facility, or to one or more city or general health 5988
districts; boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 5989
services; county boards of developmental disabilities; the 5990
department of mental health; or the department of developmental 5991
disabilities, for uses which they are authorized to make thereof 5992
under the laws applicable to them, or any combination of them, and 5993
they may lease such facilities to or from a hospital agency for 5994
such uses, upon such terms and conditions as are agreed upon by 5995
the parties. Such lease may be for a term of fifty years or less 5996
and may provide for an option of the lessee to renew for a term of 5997
fifty years or less, as therein set forth. Prior to entering into 5998
such lease, the governing body of any public hospital agency 5999
granting such lease must determine, and set forth in a resolution 6000
or ordinance, that such lease will promote the public purpose 6001
stated in section 140.02 of the Revised Code and that the lessor 6002
public hospital agency will be duly benefited thereby.6003

       (2) If the lease is with a board of county commissioners, 6004
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 6005
and is an agreement for the initial lease of a county hospital 6006
operated by a board of county hospital trustees under section 6007
339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of the public 6008
hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied by the 6009
resolution or ordinance, to the board of county commissioners for 6010
review pursuant to section 339.091 of the Revised Code. The 6011
agreement may be entered into only if the board of county 6012
commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. The 6013
requirements of division (A)(2) of this section do not apply to 6014
the lease if one or more hospitals classified as general hospitals 6015
by the publicdirector of health council under section 3701.07 of 6016
the Revised Code are operating in the same county as the county 6017
hospital.6018

       (B) Any lease entered into pursuant to this section shall 6019
provide that in the event that the lessee fails faithfully and 6020
efficiently to administer, maintain, and operate such leased 6021
facilities as hospital facilities, or fails to provide the 6022
services thereof without regard to race, creed, color, or national 6023
origin, or fails to require that any hospital agency using such 6024
facilities or the services thereof shall not discriminate by 6025
reason of race, creed, color, or national origin, after an 6026
opportunity to be heard upon written charges, said lease may be 6027
terminated at the time, in the manner and with consequences 6028
therein provided. If any such lease does not contain terms to the 6029
effect provided in this division, it shall nevertheless be deemed 6030
to contain such terms which shall be implemented as determined by 6031
the governing body of the lessor.6032

       (C) Such lease may provide for rentals commencing at any time 6033
agreed upon, or advance rental, and continuing for such period 6034
therein provided, notwithstanding and without diminution, rebate, 6035
or setoff by reason of time of availability of the hospital 6036
facility for use, delays in construction, failure of completion, 6037
damage or destruction of the hospital facilities, or for any other 6038
reason.6039

       (D) Such lease may provide for the sale or transfer of title 6040
of the leased facilities pursuant to an option to purchase, 6041
lease-purchase, or installment purchase upon terms therein 6042
provided or to be determined as therein provided, which may 6043
include provision for the continued use thereof as a hospital 6044
facility for some reasonable period, taking into account efficient 6045
useful life and other factors, as is provided therein.6046

       (E) Such lease may be entered as part of or in connection 6047
with an agreement pursuant to section 140.03 of the Revised Code. 6048
Any hospital facilities which are the subject of an agreement 6049
entered into under section 140.03 of the Revised Code may be 6050
leased pursuant to this section.6051

       (F) If land acquired by a public hospital agency for a 6052
hospital facility is adjacent to an existing hospital facility 6053
owned by another hospital agency, the public hospital agency may, 6054
in connection with such acquisition or the leasing of such land 6055
and hospital facilities thereon to one or more hospital agencies, 6056
enter into an agreement with the hospital agency which owns such 6057
adjacent hospital facility for the use of common walls in the 6058
construction, operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities of 6059
the public hospital agency. For the purpose of construction, 6060
operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities, a public 6061
hospital agency may acquire by purchase, gift, lease, lease with 6062
option to purchase, lease-purchase, or installment purchase, 6063
easement deed, or other agreement, real estate and interests in 6064
real estate, including rights to use space over, under or upon 6065
real property owned by others, and support, access, common wall, 6066
and other rights in connection therewith. Any public hospital 6067
agency or other political subdivision or any public agency, board, 6068
commission, institution, body, or instrumentality may grant such 6069
real estate, interests, or rights to any hospital agency upon such 6070
terms as are agreed upon without necessity for competitive bidding 6071
or public auction.6072

       Sec. 140.08.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in divisions 6073
(B)(1) and (2) of this section, all hospital facilities purchased, 6074
acquired, constructed, or owned by a public hospital agency, or 6075
financed in whole or in part by obligations issued by a public 6076
hospital agency, and used, or to be used when completed, as 6077
hospital facilities, and the income therefrom, are exempt from all 6078
taxation within this state, including ad valorem and excise taxes, 6079
notwithstanding any other provisions of law, and hospital agencies 6080
are exempt from taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the 6081
Revised Code. The obligations issued hereafter under section 6082
133.08, 140.06, or 339.15 of the Revised Code or Section 3 of 6083
Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, to pay costs of hospital 6084
facilities or to refund such obligations, and the transfer 6085
thereof, and the interest and other income from such obligations, 6086
including any profit made on the sale thereof, is free from 6087
taxation within the state.6088

       (B)(1) Division (A) of this section does not exempt 6089
independent living facilities from taxes levied on property or 6090
taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code. 6091
If an independent living facility or part of such facility becomes 6092
an adult care facility, nursing home, or residential care facility6093
on or after January 10, 1991, a nursing home, residential care 6094
facility, or residential facility described in division (M)(4) of 6095
section 140.01 of the Revised Code, that part of the independent 6096
living facility that is an adult care facility,a nursing home, or6097
residential care facility, or residential facility described in 6098
division (M)(4) of section 140.01 of the Revised Code is exempt 6099
from taxation subject to division (B)(2) of this section on and 6100
after the date it becomes an adult care facility,a nursing home, 6101
or residential care facility, or residential facility described in 6102
division (M)(4) of section 140.01 of the Revised Code.6103

       (2) Division (A) of this section exempts nursing homes, 6104
residential care facilities, and adult careresidential facilities 6105
described in division (M)(4) of section 140.01 of the Revised Code6106
from taxes levied on property and taxes levied under Chapters 6107
5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code only until all obligations 6108
issued to finance such homes or facilities, or all refunding or 6109
series of refundings of those obligations, are redeemed or 6110
otherwise retired.6111

       Sec. 145.01.  As used in this chapter:6112

       (A) "Public employee" means:6113

       (1) Any person holding an office, not elective, under the 6114
state or any county, township, municipal corporation, park 6115
district, conservancy district, sanitary district, health 6116
district, metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, 6117
Ohio historical society, public library, county law library, union 6118
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state 6119
university, or board, bureau, commission, council, committee, 6120
authority, or administrative body as the same are, or have been, 6121
created by action of the general assembly or by the legislative 6122
authority of any of the units of local government named in 6123
division (A)(1) of this section, or employed and paid in whole or 6124
in part by the state or any of the authorities named in division 6125
(A)(1) of this section in any capacity not covered by section 6126
742.01, 3307.01, 3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code.6127

       (2) A person who is a member of the public employees 6128
retirement system and who continues to perform the same or similar 6129
duties under the direction of a contractor who has contracted to 6130
take over what before the date of the contract was a publicly 6131
operated function. The governmental unit with which the contract 6132
has been made shall be deemed the employer for the purposes of 6133
administering this chapter.6134

       (3) Any person who is an employee of a public employer, 6135
notwithstanding that the person's compensation for that employment 6136
is derived from funds of a person or entity other than the 6137
employer. Credit for such service shall be included as total 6138
service credit, provided that the employee makes the payments 6139
required by this chapter, and the employer makes the payments 6140
required by sections 145.48 and 145.51 of the Revised Code.6141

       (4) A person who elects in accordance with section 145.015 of 6142
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 6143
employees retirement system.6144

       (5) A person who is an employee of the legal rights service 6145
on September 30, 2012, and continues to be employed by the 6146
nonprofit entity established under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 6147
153 of the 129th general assembly. The nonprofit entity is the 6148
employer for the purpose of this chapter.6149

       In all cases of doubt, the public employees retirement board 6150
shall determine whether any person is a public employee, and its 6151
decision is final.6152

       (B) "Member" means any public employee, other than a public 6153
employee excluded or exempted from membership in the retirement 6154
system by section 145.03, 145.031, 145.032, 145.033, 145.034, 6155
145.035, or 145.38 of the Revised Code. "Member" includes a PERS 6156
retirant who becomes a member under division (C) of section 145.38 6157
of the Revised Code. "Member" also includes a disability benefit 6158
recipient.6159

       (C) "Head of the department" means the elective or appointive 6160
head of the several executive, judicial, and administrative 6161
departments, institutions, boards, and commissions of the state 6162
and local government as the same are created and defined by the 6163
laws of this state or, in case of a charter government, by that 6164
charter.6165

       (D) "Employer" or "public employer" means the state or any 6166
county, township, municipal corporation, park district, 6167
conservancy district, sanitary district, health district, 6168
metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, Ohio 6169
historical society, public library, county law library, union 6170
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state medical 6171
university, state university, or board, bureau, commission, 6172
council, committee, authority, or administrative body as the same 6173
are, or have been, created by action of the general assembly or by 6174
the legislative authority of any of the units of local government 6175
named in this division not covered by section 742.01, 3307.01, 6176
3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code. In addition, "employer" 6177
means the employer of any public employee.6178

       (E) "Prior service" means all service as a public employee 6179
rendered before January 1, 1935, and all service as an employee of 6180
any employer who comes within the state teachers retirement system 6181
or of the school employees retirement system or of any other 6182
retirement system established under the laws of this state 6183
rendered prior to January 1, 1935, provided that if the employee 6184
claiming the service was employed in any capacity covered by that 6185
other system after that other system was established, credit for 6186
the service may be allowed by the public employees retirement 6187
system only when the employee has made payment, to be computed on 6188
the salary earned from the date of appointment to the date 6189
membership was established in the public employees retirement 6190
system, at the rate in effect at the time of payment, and the 6191
employer has made payment of the corresponding full liability as 6192
provided by section 145.44 of the Revised Code. "Prior service" 6193
also means all service credited for active duty with the armed 6194
forces of the United States as provided in section 145.30 of the 6195
Revised Code.6196

       If an employee who has been granted prior service credit by 6197
the public employees retirement system for service rendered prior 6198
to January 1, 1935, as an employee of a board of education 6199
establishes, before retirement, one year or more of contributing 6200
service in the state teachers retirement system or school 6201
employees retirement system, then the prior service ceases to be 6202
the liability of this system.6203

       If the board determines that a position of any member in any 6204
calendar year prior to January 1, 1935, was a part-time position, 6205
the board shall determine what fractional part of a year's credit 6206
shall be allowed by the following formula:6207

       (1) When the member has been either elected or appointed to 6208
an office the term of which was two or more years and for which an 6209
annual salary is established, the fractional part of the year's 6210
credit shall be computed as follows:6211

       First, when the member's annual salary is one thousand 6212
dollars or less, the service credit for each such calendar year 6213
shall be forty per cent of a year.6214

       Second, for each full one hundred dollars of annual salary 6215
above one thousand dollars, the member's service credit for each 6216
such calendar year shall be increased by two and one-half per 6217
cent.6218

       (2) When the member is paid on a per diem basis, the service 6219
credit for any single year of the service shall be determined by 6220
using the number of days of service for which the compensation was 6221
received in any such year as a numerator and using two hundred 6222
fifty days as a denominator.6223

       (3) When the member is paid on an hourly basis, the service 6224
credit for any single year of the service shall be determined by 6225
using the number of hours of service for which the compensation 6226
was received in any such year as a numerator and using two 6227
thousand hours as a denominator.6228

       (F) "Contributor" means any person who has an account in the 6229
employees' savings fund created by section 145.23 of the Revised 6230
Code. When used in the sections listed in division (B) of section 6231
145.82 of the Revised Code, "contributor" includes any person 6232
participating in a PERS defined contribution plan.6233

       (G) "Beneficiary" or "beneficiaries" means the estate or a 6234
person or persons who, as the result of the death of a member, 6235
contributor, or retirant, qualify for or are receiving some right 6236
or benefit under this chapter.6237

       (H)(1) "Total service credit," except as provided in section 6238
145.37 of the Revised Code, means all service credited to a member 6239
of the retirement system since last becoming a member, including 6240
restored service credit as provided by section 145.31 of the 6241
Revised Code; credit purchased under sections 145.293 and 145.299 6242
of the Revised Code; all the member's prior service credit; all 6243
the member's military service credit computed as provided in this 6244
chapter; all service credit established pursuant to section 6245
145.297 of the Revised Code; and any other service credited under 6246
this chapter. In addition, "total service credit" includes any 6247
period, not in excess of three years, during which a member was 6248
out of service and receiving benefits under Chapters 4121. and 6249
4123. of the Revised Code. For the exclusive purpose of satisfying 6250
the service credit requirement and of determining eligibility for 6251
benefits under sections 145.32, 145.33, 145.331, 145.35, 145.36, 6252
and 145.361 of the Revised Code, "five or more years of total 6253
service credit" means sixty or more calendar months of 6254
contributing service in this system.6255

       (2) "One and one-half years of contributing service credit," 6256
as used in division (B) of section 145.45 of the Revised Code, 6257
also means eighteen or more calendar months of employment by a 6258
municipal corporation that formerly operated its own retirement 6259
plan for its employees or a part of its employees, provided that 6260
all employees of that municipal retirement plan who have eighteen 6261
or more months of such employment, upon establishing membership in 6262
the public employees retirement system, shall make a payment of 6263
the contributions they would have paid had they been members of 6264
this system for the eighteen months of employment preceding the 6265
date membership was established. When that payment has been made 6266
by all such employee members, a corresponding payment shall be 6267
paid into the employers' accumulation fund by that municipal 6268
corporation as the employer of the employees.6269

       (3) Where a member also is a member of the state teachers 6270
retirement system or the school employees retirement system, or 6271
both, except in cases of retirement on a combined basis pursuant 6272
to section 145.37 of the Revised Code or as provided in section 6273
145.383 of the Revised Code, service credit for any period shall 6274
be credited on the basis of the ratio that contributions to the 6275
public employees retirement system bear to total contributions in 6276
all state retirement systems.6277

       (4) Not more than one year of credit may be given for any 6278
period of twelve months.6279

       (5) "Ohio service credit" means credit for service that was 6280
rendered to the state or any of its political subdivisions or any 6281
employer.6282

       (I) "Regular interest" means interest at any rates for the 6283
respective funds and accounts as the public employees retirement 6284
board may determine from time to time.6285

       (J) "Accumulated contributions" means the sum of all amounts 6286
credited to a contributor's individual account in the employees' 6287
savings fund together with any interest credited to the 6288
contributor's account under section 145.471 or 145.472 of the 6289
Revised Code.6290

       (K)(1) "Final average salary" means the quotient obtained by 6291
dividing by three the sum of the three full calendar years of 6292
contributing service in which the member's earnable salary was 6293
highest, except that if the member has a partial year of 6294
contributing service in the year the member's employment 6295
terminates and the member's earnable salary for the partial year 6296
is higher than for any comparable period in the three years, the 6297
member's earnable salary for the partial year shall be substituted 6298
for the member's earnable salary for the comparable period during 6299
the three years in which the member's earnable salary was lowest.6300

       (2) If a member has less than three years of contributing 6301
service, the member's final average salary shall be the member's 6302
total earnable salary divided by the total number of years, 6303
including any fraction of a year, of the member's contributing 6304
service.6305

       (3) For the purpose of calculating benefits payable to a 6306
member qualifying for service credit under division (Z) of this 6307
section, "final average salary" means the total earnable salary on 6308
which contributions were made divided by the total number of years 6309
during which contributions were made, including any fraction of a 6310
year. If contributions were made for less than twelve months, 6311
"final average salary" means the member's total earnable salary.6312

       (L) "Annuity" means payments for life derived from 6313
contributions made by a contributor and paid from the annuity and 6314
pension reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All annuities 6315
shall be paid in twelve equal monthly installments.6316

       (M) "Annuity reserve" means the present value, computed upon 6317
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 6318
of all payments to be made on account of any annuity, or benefit 6319
in lieu of any annuity, granted to a retirant as provided in this 6320
chapter.6321

       (N)(1) "Disability retirement" means retirement as provided 6322
in section 145.36 of the Revised Code.6323

       (2) "Disability allowance" means an allowance paid on account 6324
of disability under section 145.361 of the Revised Code.6325

       (3) "Disability benefit" means a benefit paid as disability 6326
retirement under section 145.36 of the Revised Code, as a 6327
disability allowance under section 145.361 of the Revised Code, or 6328
as a disability benefit under section 145.37 of the Revised Code.6329

       (4) "Disability benefit recipient" means a member who is 6330
receiving a disability benefit.6331

       (O) "Age and service retirement" means retirement as provided 6332
in sections 145.32, 145.33, 145.331, 145.34, 145.37, and 145.46 of 6333
the Revised Code.6334

       (P) "Pensions" means annual payments for life derived from 6335
contributions made by the employer that at the time of retirement 6336
are credited into the annuity and pension reserve fund from the 6337
employers' accumulation fund and paid from the annuity and pension 6338
reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All pensions shall be 6339
paid in twelve equal monthly installments.6340

       (Q) "Retirement allowance" means the pension plus that 6341
portion of the benefit derived from contributions made by the 6342
member.6343

       (R)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 6344
section, "earnable salary" means all salary, wages, and other 6345
earnings paid to a contributor by reason of employment in a 6346
position covered by the retirement system. The salary, wages, and 6347
other earnings shall be determined prior to determination of the 6348
amount required to be contributed to the employees' savings fund 6349
under section 145.47 of the Revised Code and without regard to 6350
whether any of the salary, wages, or other earnings are treated as 6351
deferred income for federal income tax purposes. "Earnable salary" 6352
includes the following:6353

       (a) Payments made by the employer in lieu of salary, wages, 6354
or other earnings for sick leave, personal leave, or vacation used 6355
by the contributor;6356

       (b) Payments made by the employer for the conversion of sick 6357
leave, personal leave, and vacation leave accrued, but not used if 6358
the payment is made during the year in which the leave is accrued, 6359
except that payments made pursuant to section 124.383 or 124.386 6360
of the Revised Code are not earnable salary;6361

       (c) Allowances paid by the employer for full maintenance, 6362
consisting of housing, laundry, and meals, as certified to the 6363
retirement board by the employer or the head of the department 6364
that employs the contributor;6365

       (d) Fees and commissions paid under section 507.09 of the 6366
Revised Code;6367

       (e) Payments that are made under a disability leave program 6368
sponsored by the employer and for which the employer is required 6369
by section 145.296 of the Revised Code to make periodic employer 6370
and employee contributions;6371

       (f) Amounts included pursuant to divisions (K)(3) and (Y) of 6372
this section.6373

       (2) "Earnable salary" does not include any of the following:6374

       (a) Fees and commissions, other than those paid under section 6375
507.09 of the Revised Code, paid as sole compensation for personal 6376
services and fees and commissions for special services over and 6377
above services for which the contributor receives a salary;6378

       (b) Amounts paid by the employer to provide life insurance, 6379
sickness, accident, endowment, health, medical, hospital, dental, 6380
or surgical coverage, or other insurance for the contributor or 6381
the contributor's family, or amounts paid by the employer to the 6382
contributor in lieu of providing the insurance;6383

       (c) Incidental benefits, including lodging, food, laundry, 6384
parking, or services furnished by the employer, or use of the 6385
employer's property or equipment, or amounts paid by the employer 6386
to the contributor in lieu of providing the incidental benefits;6387

       (d) Reimbursement for job-related expenses authorized by the 6388
employer, including moving and travel expenses and expenses 6389
related to professional development;6390

       (e) Payments for accrued but unused sick leave, personal 6391
leave, or vacation that are made at any time other than in the 6392
year in which the sick leave, personal leave, or vacation was 6393
accrued;6394

       (f) Payments made to or on behalf of a contributor that are 6395
in excess of the annual compensation that may be taken into 6396
account by the retirement system under division (a)(17) of section 6397
401 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 6398
U.S.C.A. 401(a)(17), as amended;6399

       (g) Payments made under division (B), (C), or (E) of section 6400
5923.05 of the Revised Code, Section 4 of Substitute Senate Bill 6401
No. 3 of the 119th general assembly, Section 3 of Amended 6402
Substitute Senate Bill No. 164 of the 124th general assembly, or 6403
Amended Substitute House Bill No. 405 of the 124th general 6404
assembly;6405

       (h) Anything of value received by the contributor that is 6406
based on or attributable to retirement or an agreement to retire, 6407
except that payments made on or before January 1, 1989, that are 6408
based on or attributable to an agreement to retire shall be 6409
included in earnable salary if both of the following apply:6410

       (i) The payments are made in accordance with contract 6411
provisions that were in effect prior to January 1, 1986;6412

       (ii) The employer pays the retirement system an amount 6413
specified by the retirement board equal to the additional 6414
liability resulting from the payments.6415

       (3) The retirement board shall determine by rule whether any 6416
compensation not enumerated in division (R) of this section is 6417
earnable salary, and its decision shall be final.6418

       (S) "Pension reserve" means the present value, computed upon 6419
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 6420
of all payments to be made on account of any retirement allowance 6421
or benefit in lieu of any retirement allowance, granted to a 6422
member or beneficiary under this chapter.6423

       (T)(1) "Contributing service" means all service credited to a 6424
member of the system since January 1, 1935, for which 6425
contributions are made as required by sections 145.47, 145.48, and 6426
145.483 of the Revised Code. In any year subsequent to 1934, 6427
credit for any service shall be allowed by the following formula:6428

       (a) For each month for which the member's earnable salary is 6429
two hundred fifty dollars or more, allow one month's credit.6430

       (b) For each month for which the member's earnable salary is 6431
less than two hundred fifty dollars, allow a fraction of a month's 6432
credit. The numerator of this fraction shall be the earnable 6433
salary during the month, and the denominator shall be two hundred 6434
fifty dollars, except that if the member's annual earnable salary 6435
is less than six hundred dollars, the member's credit shall not be 6436
reduced below twenty per cent of a year for a calendar year of 6437
employment during which the member worked each month. Division 6438
(T)(1)(b) of this section shall not reduce any credit earned 6439
before January 1, 1985.6440

       (2) Notwithstanding division (T)(1) of this section, an 6441
elected official who prior to January 1, 1980, was granted a full 6442
year of credit for each year of service as an elected official 6443
shall be considered to have earned a full year of credit for each 6444
year of service regardless of whether the service was full-time or 6445
part-time. The public employees retirement board has no authority 6446
to reduce the credit.6447

       (U) "State retirement board" means the public employees 6448
retirement board, the school employees retirement board, or the 6449
state teachers retirement board.6450

       (V) "Retirant" means any former member who retires and is 6451
receiving a monthly allowance as provided in sections 145.32, 6452
145.33, 145.331, 145.34, and 145.46 of the Revised Code.6453

       (W) "Employer contribution" means the amount paid by an 6454
employer as determined under section 145.48 of the Revised Code.6455

       (X) "Public service terminates" means the last day for which 6456
a public employee is compensated for services performed for an 6457
employer or the date of the employee's death, whichever occurs 6458
first.6459

       (Y) When a member has been elected or appointed to an office, 6460
the term of which is two or more years, for which an annual salary 6461
is established, and in the event that the salary of the office is 6462
increased and the member is denied the additional salary by reason 6463
of any constitutional provision prohibiting an increase in salary 6464
during a term of office, the member may elect to have the amount 6465
of the member's contributions calculated upon the basis of the 6466
increased salary for the office. At the member's request, the 6467
board shall compute the total additional amount the member would 6468
have contributed, or the amount by which each of the member's 6469
contributions would have increased, had the member received the 6470
increased salary for the office the member holds. If the member 6471
elects to have the amount by which the member's contribution would 6472
have increased withheld from the member's salary, the member shall 6473
notify the employer, and the employer shall make the withholding 6474
and transmit it to the retirement system. A member who has not 6475
elected to have that amount withheld may elect at any time to make 6476
a payment to the retirement system equal to the additional amount 6477
the member's contribution would have increased, plus interest on 6478
that contribution, compounded annually at a rate established by 6479
the board and computed from the date on which the last 6480
contribution would have been withheld from the member's salary to 6481
the date of payment. A member may make a payment for part of the 6482
period for which the increased contribution was not withheld, in 6483
which case the interest shall be computed from the date the last 6484
contribution would have been withheld for the period for which the 6485
payment is made. Upon the payment of the increased contributions 6486
as provided in this division, the increased annual salary as 6487
provided by law for the office for the period for which the member 6488
paid increased contributions thereon shall be used in determining 6489
the member's earnable salary for the purpose of computing the 6490
member's final average salary.6491

       (Z) "Five years of service credit," for the exclusive purpose 6492
of satisfying the service credit requirements and of determining 6493
eligibility for benefits under section 145.33 of the Revised Code, 6494
means employment covered under this chapter or under a former 6495
retirement plan operated, recognized, or endorsed by the employer 6496
prior to coverage under this chapter or under a combination of the 6497
coverage.6498

       (AA) "Deputy sheriff" means any person who is commissioned 6499
and employed as a full-time peace officer by the sheriff of any 6500
county, and has been so employed since on or before December 31, 6501
1965; any person who is or has been commissioned and employed as a 6502
peace officer by the sheriff of any county since January 1, 1966, 6503
and who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 6504
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 6505
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code; or any person 6506
deputized by the sheriff of any county and employed pursuant to 6507
section 2301.12 of the Revised Code as a criminal bailiff or court 6508
constable who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 6509
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 6510
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6511

       (BB) "Township constable or police officer in a township 6512
police department or district" means any person who is 6513
commissioned and employed as a full-time peace officer pursuant to 6514
Chapter 505. or 509. of the Revised Code, who has received a 6515
certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of 6516
the peace officer training school as required by section 109.77 of 6517
the Revised Code.6518

       (CC) "Drug agent" means any person who is either of the 6519
following:6520

       (1) Employed full time as a narcotics agent by a county 6521
narcotics agency created pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 6522
Code and has received a certificate attesting to the satisfactory 6523
completion of the peace officer training school as required by 6524
section 109.77 of the Revised Code;6525

       (2) Employed full time as an undercover drug agent as defined 6526
in section 109.79 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 6527
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6528

       (DD) "Department of public safety enforcement agent" means a 6529
full-time employee of the department of public safety who is 6530
designated under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code as an 6531
enforcement agent and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of 6532
the Revised Code.6533

       (EE) "Natural resources law enforcement staff officer" means 6534
a full-time employee of the department of natural resources who is 6535
designated a natural resources law enforcement staff officer under 6536
section 1501.013 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 6537
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6538

       (FF) "Park officer" means a full-time employee of the 6539
department of natural resources who is designated a park officer 6540
under section 1541.10 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 6541
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6542

       (GG) "Forest officer" means a full-time employee of the 6543
department of natural resources who is designated a forest officer 6544
under section 1503.29 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 6545
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6546

       (HH) "Preserve officer" means a full-time employee of the 6547
department of natural resources who is designated a preserve 6548
officer under section 1517.10 of the Revised Code and is in 6549
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6550

       (II) "Wildlife officer" means a full-time employee of the 6551
department of natural resources who is designated a wildlife 6552
officer under section 1531.13 of the Revised Code and is in 6553
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6554

       (JJ) "State watercraft officer" means a full-time employee of 6555
the department of natural resources who is designated a state 6556
watercraft officer under section 1547.521 of the Revised Code and 6557
is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6558

       (KK) "Park district police officer" means a full-time 6559
employee of a park district who is designated pursuant to section 6560
511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 6561
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6562

       (LL) "Conservancy district officer" means a full-time 6563
employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to 6564
section 6101.75 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 6565
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6566

       (MM) "Municipal police officer" means a member of the 6567
organized police department of a municipal corporation who is 6568
employed full time, is in compliance with section 109.77 of the 6569
Revised Code, and is not a member of the Ohio police and fire 6570
pension fund.6571

       (NN) "Veterans' home police officer" means any person who is 6572
employed at a veterans' home as a police officer pursuant to 6573
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 6574
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6575

       (OO) "Special police officer for a mental health institution" 6576
means any person who is designated as such pursuant to section 6577
5119.14 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with section 6578
109.77 of the Revised Code.6579

       (PP) "Special police officer for an institution for the 6580
mentally retarded and developmentally disabled" means any person 6581
who is designated as such pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 6582
Revised Code and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the 6583
Revised Code.6584

       (QQ) "State university law enforcement officer" means any 6585
person who is employed full time as a state university law 6586
enforcement officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised 6587
Code and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised 6588
Code.6589

       (RR) "House sergeant at arms" means any person appointed by 6590
the speaker of the house of representatives under division (B)(1) 6591
of section 101.311 of the Revised Code who has arrest authority 6592
under division (E)(1) of that section.6593

       (SS) "Assistant house sergeant at arms" means any person 6594
appointed by the house sergeant at arms under division (C)(1) of 6595
section 101.311 of the Revised Code.6596

       (TT) "Regional transit authority police officer" means a 6597
person who is employed full time as a regional transit authority 6598
police officer under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised 6599
Code and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6600

       (UU) "State highway patrol police officer" means a special 6601
police officer employed full time and designated by the 6602
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 6603
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person serving full time as a 6604
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 6605
basis on October 21, 1997, who is in compliance with section 6606
109.77 of the Revised Code.6607

       (VV) "Municipal public safety director" means a person who 6608
serves full time as the public safety director of a municipal 6609
corporation with the duty of directing the activities of the 6610
municipal corporation's police department and fire department.6611

        (WW) Notwithstanding section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, 6612
"PERS law enforcement officer" means a sheriff or any of the 6613
following whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, protect 6614
life and property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy 6615
sheriff, township constable or police officer in a township police 6616
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 6617
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 6618
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 6619
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 6620
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 6621
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 6622
police officer for an institution for the mentally retarded and 6623
developmentally disabled, state university law enforcement 6624
officer, municipal police officer, house sergeant at arms, 6625
assistant house sergeant at arms, regional transit authority 6626
police officer, or state highway patrol police officer. PERS law 6627
enforcement officer also includes a person serving as a municipal 6628
public safety director at any time during the period from 6629
September 29, 2005, to March 24, 2009, if the duties of that 6630
service were to preserve the peace, protect life and property, and 6631
enforce the laws of this state.6632

       (XX) "Hamilton county municipal court bailiff" means a person 6633
appointed by the clerk of courts of the Hamilton county municipal 6634
court under division (A)(3) of section 1901.32 of the Revised Code 6635
who is employed full time as a bailiff or deputy bailiff, who has 6636
received a certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory 6637
completion of the peace officer basic training described in 6638
division (D)(1) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code.6639

       (YY) "PERS public safety officer" means a Hamilton county 6640
municipal court bailiff, or any of the following whose primary 6641
duties are other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 6642
property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy sheriff, 6643
township constable or police officer in a township police 6644
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 6645
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 6646
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 6647
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 6648
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 6649
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 6650
police officer for an institution for the mentally retarded and 6651
developmentally disabled, state university law enforcement 6652
officer, municipal police officer, house sergeant at arms, 6653
assistant house sergeant at arms, regional transit authority 6654
police officer, or state highway patrol police officer. "PERS 6655
public safety officer" also includes a person serving as a 6656
municipal public safety director at any time during the period 6657
from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 2009, if the duties of that 6658
service were other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 6659
property, and enforce the laws of this state.6660

       (ZZ) "Fiduciary" means a person who does any of the 6661
following:6662

       (1) Exercises any discretionary authority or control with 6663
respect to the management of the system or with respect to the 6664
management or disposition of its assets;6665

       (2) Renders investment advice for a fee, direct or indirect, 6666
with respect to money or property of the system;6667

       (3) Has any discretionary authority or responsibility in the 6668
administration of the system.6669

       (AAA) "Actuary" means an individual who satisfies all of the 6670
following requirements:6671

       (1) Is a member of the American academy of actuaries;6672

       (2) Is an associate or fellow of the society of actuaries;6673

       (3) Has a minimum of five years' experience in providing 6674
actuarial services to public retirement plans.6675

       (BBB) "PERS defined benefit plan" means the plan described in 6676
sections 145.201 to 145.79 of the Revised Code.6677

       (CCC) "PERS defined contribution plans" means the plan or 6678
plans established under section 145.81 of the Revised Code.6679

       Sec. 145.012.  (A) "Public employee," as defined in division 6680
(A) of section 145.01 of the Revised Code, does not include any 6681
person:6682

       (1) Who is employed by a private, temporary-help service and 6683
performs services under the direction of a public employer or is 6684
employed on a contractual basis as an independent contractor under 6685
a personal service contract with a public employer;6686

       (2) Who is an emergency employee serving on a temporary basis 6687
in case of fire, snow, earthquake, flood, or other similar 6688
emergency;6689

       (3) Who is employed in a program established pursuant to the 6690
"Job Training Partnership Act," 96 Stat. 1322 (1982), 29 U.S.C.A. 6691
1501;6692

       (4) Who is an appointed member of either the motor vehicle 6693
salvage dealers board or the motor vehicle dealer's board whose 6694
rate and method of payment are determined pursuant to division (J) 6695
of section 124.15 of the Revised Code;6696

       (5) Who is employed as an election worker and paid less than 6697
five hundred dollars per calendar year for that service;6698

       (6) Who is employed as a firefighter in a position requiring 6699
satisfactory completion of a firefighter training course approved 6700
under former section 3303.07 or section 4765.55 of the Revised 6701
Code or conducted under section 3737.33 of the Revised Code except 6702
for the following:6703

       (a) Any firefighter who has elected under section 145.013 of 6704
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 6705
employees retirement system;6706

       (b) Any firefighter who was eligible to transfer from the 6707
public employees retirement system to the Ohio police and fire 6708
pension fund under section 742.51 or 742.515 of the Revised Code 6709
and did not elect to transfer;6710

       (c) Any firefighter who has elected under section 742.516 of 6711
the Revised Code to transfer from the Ohio police and fire pension 6712
fund to the public employees retirement system.6713

       (7) Who is a member of the board of health of a city or 6714
general health district, which pursuant to sections 3709.051 and 6715
3709.07 of the Revised Code includes a combined health district, 6716
and whose compensation for attendance at meetings of the board is 6717
set forth in division (B) of section 3709.02 or division (B) of 6718
section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;6719

       (8) Who participates in an alternative retirement plan 6720
established under Chapter 3305. of the Revised Code;6721

       (9) Who is a member of the board of directors of a sanitary 6722
district established under Chapter 6115. of the Revised Code;6723

       (10) Who is a member of the unemployment compensation 6724
advisory council;6725

       (11) Who is an employee, officer, or governor-appointed 6726
member of the board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 6727
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code;6728

       (12) Who is employed by the nonprofit entity established to 6729
provide advocacy services and a client assistance program for 6730
people with disabilities under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 6731
of the 129th general assembly and whose employment begins on or 6732
after October 1, 2012.6733

       (B) No inmate of a correctional institution operated by the 6734
department of rehabilitation and correction, no patient in a 6735
hospital for the mentally ill or criminally insane operated by the 6736
department of mental health, no resident in an institution for the 6737
mentally retarded operated by the department of developmental 6738
disabilities, no resident admitted as a patient of a veterans' 6739
home operated under Chapter 5907. of the Revised Code, and no 6740
resident of a county home shall be considered as a public employee 6741
for the purpose of establishing membership or calculating service 6742
credit or benefits under this chapter. Nothing in this division 6743
shall be construed to affect any service credit attained by any 6744
person who was a public employee before becoming an inmate, 6745
patient, or resident at any institution listed in this division, 6746
or the payment of any benefit for which such a person or such a 6747
person's beneficiaries otherwise would be eligible.6748

       Sec. 149.43.  (A) As used in this section:6749

       (1) "Public record" means records kept by any public office, 6750
including, but not limited to, state, county, city, village, 6751
township, and school district units, and records pertaining to the 6752
delivery of educational services by an alternative school in this 6753
state kept by the nonprofit or for-profit entity operating the 6754
alternative school pursuant to section 3313.533 of the Revised 6755
Code. "Public record" does not mean any of the following:6756

       (a) Medical records;6757

       (b) Records pertaining to probation and parole proceedings or 6758
to proceedings related to the imposition of community control 6759
sanctions and post-release control sanctions;6760

       (c) Records pertaining to actions under section 2151.85 and 6761
division (C) of section 2919.121 of the Revised Code and to 6762
appeals of actions arising under those sections;6763

       (d) Records pertaining to adoption proceedings, including the 6764
contents of an adoption file maintained by the department of 6765
health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;6766

       (e) Information in a record contained in the putative father 6767
registry established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, 6768
regardless of whether the information is held by the department of 6769
job and family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the 6770
Revised Code, the office of child support in the department or a 6771
child support enforcement agency;6772

       (f) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 6773
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 6774
the Revised Code;6775

       (g) Trial preparation records;6776

       (h) Confidential law enforcement investigatory records;6777

       (i) Records containing information that is confidential under 6778
section 2710.03 or 4112.05 of the Revised Code;6779

       (j) DNA records stored in the DNA database pursuant to 6780
section 109.573 of the Revised Code;6781

       (k) Inmate records released by the department of 6782
rehabilitation and correction to the department of youth services 6783
or a court of record pursuant to division (E) of section 5120.21 6784
of the Revised Code;6785

       (l) Records maintained by the department of youth services 6786
pertaining to children in its custody released by the department 6787
of youth services to the department of rehabilitation and 6788
correction pursuant to section 5139.05 of the Revised Code;6789

       (m) Intellectual property records;6790

       (n) Donor profile records;6791

       (o) Records maintained by the department of job and family 6792
services pursuant to section 3121.894 of the Revised Code;6793

       (p) Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 6794
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 6795
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 6796
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 6797
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6798
investigation residential and familial information;6799

       (q) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 6800
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code or a municipal hospital operated 6801
pursuant to Chapter 749. of the Revised Code, information that 6802
constitutes a trade secret, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 6803
Revised Code;6804

       (r) Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 6805
a person under the age of eighteen;6806

       (s) Records provided to, statements made by review board 6807
members during meetings of, and all work products of a child 6808
fatality review board acting under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of 6809
the Revised Code, and child fatality review data submitted by the 6810
child fatality review board to the department of health or a 6811
national child death review database, other than the report 6812
prepared pursuant to division (A) of section 307.626 of the 6813
Revised Code;6814

       (t) Records provided to and statements made by the executive 6815
director of a public children services agency or a prosecuting 6816
attorney acting pursuant to section 5153.171 of the Revised Code 6817
other than the information released under that section;6818

       (u) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 6819
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 6820
the board of examiners of nursing home administrators administers 6821
under section 4751.04 of the Revised Code or contracts under that 6822
section with a private or government entity to administer;6823

       (v) Records the release of which is prohibited by state or 6824
federal law;6825

       (w) Proprietary information of or relating to any person that 6826
is submitted to or compiled by the Ohio venture capital authority 6827
created under section 150.01 of the Revised Code;6828

       (x) Information reported and evaluations conducted pursuant 6829
to section 3701.072 of the Revised Code;6830

       (y) Financial statements and data any person submits for any 6831
purpose to the Ohio housing finance agency or the controlling 6832
board in connection with applying for, receiving, or accounting 6833
for financial assistance from the agency, and information that 6834
identifies any individual who benefits directly or indirectly from 6835
financial assistance from the agency;6836

       (z) Records listed in section 5101.29 of the Revised Code;6837

       (aa) Discharges recorded with a county recorder under section 6838
317.24 of the Revised Code, as specified in division (B)(2) of 6839
that section;6840

       (bb) Usage information including names and addresses of 6841
specific residential and commercial customers of a municipally 6842
owned or operated public utility.6843

       (2) "Confidential law enforcement investigatory record" means 6844
any record that pertains to a law enforcement matter of a 6845
criminal, quasi-criminal, civil, or administrative nature, but 6846
only to the extent that the release of the record would create a 6847
high probability of disclosure of any of the following:6848

       (a) The identity of a suspect who has not been charged with 6849
the offense to which the record pertains, or of an information 6850
source or witness to whom confidentiality has been reasonably 6851
promised;6852

       (b) Information provided by an information source or witness 6853
to whom confidentiality has been reasonably promised, which 6854
information would reasonably tend to disclose the source's or 6855
witness's identity;6856

       (c) Specific confidential investigatory techniques or 6857
procedures or specific investigatory work product;6858

       (d) Information that would endanger the life or physical 6859
safety of law enforcement personnel, a crime victim, a witness, or 6860
a confidential information source.6861

       (3) "Medical record" means any document or combination of 6862
documents, except births, deaths, and the fact of admission to or 6863
discharge from a hospital, that pertains to the medical history, 6864
diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition of a patient and that 6865
is generated and maintained in the process of medical treatment.6866

       (4) "Trial preparation record" means any record that contains 6867
information that is specifically compiled in reasonable 6868
anticipation of, or in defense of, a civil or criminal action or 6869
proceeding, including the independent thought processes and 6870
personal trial preparation of an attorney.6871

       (5) "Intellectual property record" means a record, other than 6872
a financial or administrative record, that is produced or 6873
collected by or for faculty or staff of a state institution of 6874
higher learning in the conduct of or as a result of study or 6875
research on an educational, commercial, scientific, artistic, 6876
technical, or scholarly issue, regardless of whether the study or 6877
research was sponsored by the institution alone or in conjunction 6878
with a governmental body or private concern, and that has not been 6879
publicly released, published, or patented.6880

       (6) "Donor profile record" means all records about donors or 6881
potential donors to a public institution of higher education 6882
except the names and reported addresses of the actual donors and 6883
the date, amount, and conditions of the actual donation.6884

       (7) "Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 6885
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 6886
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 6887
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 6888
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6889
investigation residential and familial information" means any 6890
information that discloses any of the following about a peace 6891
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 6892
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 6893
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 6894
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 6895
criminal identification and investigation:6896

       (a) The address of the actual personal residence of a peace 6897
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, assistant 6898
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 6899
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 6900
firefighter, EMT, or an investigator of the bureau of criminal 6901
identification and investigation, except for the state or 6902
political subdivision in which the peace officer, parole officer, 6903
probation officer, bailiff, assistant prosecuting attorney, 6904
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 6905
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 6906
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6907
investigation resides;6908

       (b) Information compiled from referral to or participation in 6909
an employee assistance program;6910

       (c) The social security number, the residential telephone 6911
number, any bank account, debit card, charge card, or credit card 6912
number, or the emergency telephone number of, or any medical 6913
information pertaining to, a peace officer, parole officer, 6914
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 6915
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 6916
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 6917
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 6918
identification and investigation;6919

       (d) The name of any beneficiary of employment benefits, 6920
including, but not limited to, life insurance benefits, provided 6921
to a peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, 6922
prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional 6923
employee, community-based correctional facility employee, youth 6924
services employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau 6925
of criminal identification and investigation by the peace 6926
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 6927
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 6928
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 6929
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 6930
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6931
investigation's employer;6932

       (e) The identity and amount of any charitable or employment 6933
benefit deduction made by the peace officer's, parole officer's, 6934
probation officer's, bailiff's, prosecuting attorney's, assistant 6935
prosecuting attorney's, correctional employee's, community-based 6936
correctional facility employee's, youth services employee's, 6937
firefighter's, EMT's, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 6938
identification and investigation's employer from the peace 6939
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 6940
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 6941
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 6942
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 6943
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6944
investigation's compensation unless the amount of the deduction is 6945
required by state or federal law;6946

       (f) The name, the residential address, the name of the 6947
employer, the address of the employer, the social security number, 6948
the residential telephone number, any bank account, debit card, 6949
charge card, or credit card number, or the emergency telephone 6950
number of the spouse, a former spouse, or any child of a peace 6951
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 6952
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 6953
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 6954
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 6955
criminal identification and investigation;6956

       (g) A photograph of a peace officer who holds a position or 6957
has an assignment that may include undercover or plain clothes 6958
positions or assignments as determined by the peace officer's 6959
appointing authority.6960

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 6961
"peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 109.71 of the 6962
Revised Code and also includes the superintendent and troopers of 6963
the state highway patrol; it does not include the sheriff of a 6964
county or a supervisory employee who, in the absence of the 6965
sheriff, is authorized to stand in for, exercise the authority of, 6966
and perform the duties of the sheriff.6967

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 6968
"correctional employee" means any employee of the department of 6969
rehabilitation and correction who in the course of performing the 6970
employee's job duties has or has had contact with inmates and 6971
persons under supervision.6972

        As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 6973
"youth services employee" means any employee of the department of 6974
youth services who in the course of performing the employee's job 6975
duties has or has had contact with children committed to the 6976
custody of the department of youth services.6977

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 6978
"firefighter" means any regular, paid or volunteer, member of a 6979
lawfully constituted fire department of a municipal corporation, 6980
township, fire district, or village.6981

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, "EMT" 6982
means EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics that provide emergency 6983
medical services for a public emergency medical service 6984
organization. "Emergency medical service organization," 6985
"EMT-basic," "EMT-I," and "paramedic" have the same meanings as in 6986
section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.6987

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 6988
"investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 6989
investigation" has the meaning defined in section 2903.11 of the 6990
Revised Code.6991

       (8) "Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 6992
a person under the age of eighteen" means information that is kept 6993
in the ordinary course of business by a public office, that 6994
pertains to the recreational activities of a person under the age 6995
of eighteen years, and that discloses any of the following:6996

       (a) The address or telephone number of a person under the age 6997
of eighteen or the address or telephone number of that person's 6998
parent, guardian, custodian, or emergency contact person;6999

       (b) The social security number, birth date, or photographic 7000
image of a person under the age of eighteen;7001

       (c) Any medical record, history, or information pertaining to 7002
a person under the age of eighteen;7003

       (d) Any additional information sought or required about a 7004
person under the age of eighteen for the purpose of allowing that 7005
person to participate in any recreational activity conducted or 7006
sponsored by a public office or to use or obtain admission 7007
privileges to any recreational facility owned or operated by a 7008
public office.7009

       (9) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 7010
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.7011

       (10) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 7012
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.7013

        (11) "Redaction" means obscuring or deleting any information 7014
that is exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or 7015
copying from an item that otherwise meets the definition of a 7016
"record" in section 149.011 of the Revised Code.7017

       (12) "Designee" and "elected official" have the same meanings 7018
as in section 109.43 of the Revised Code.7019

       (B)(1) Upon request and subject to division (B)(8) of this 7020
section, all public records responsive to the request shall be 7021
promptly prepared and made available for inspection to any person 7022
at all reasonable times during regular business hours. Subject to 7023
division (B)(8) of this section, upon request, a public office or 7024
person responsible for public records shall make copies of the 7025
requested public record available at cost and within a reasonable 7026
period of time. If a public record contains information that is 7027
exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or to copy the 7028
public record, the public office or the person responsible for the 7029
public record shall make available all of the information within 7030
the public record that is not exempt. When making that public 7031
record available for public inspection or copying that public 7032
record, the public office or the person responsible for the public 7033
record shall notify the requester of any redaction or make the 7034
redaction plainly visible. A redaction shall be deemed a denial of 7035
a request to inspect or copy the redacted information, except if 7036
federal or state law authorizes or requires a public office to 7037
make the redaction.7038

       (2) To facilitate broader access to public records, a public 7039
office or the person responsible for public records shall organize 7040
and maintain public records in a manner that they can be made 7041
available for inspection or copying in accordance with division 7042
(B) of this section. A public office also shall have available a 7043
copy of its current records retention schedule at a location 7044
readily available to the public. If a requester makes an ambiguous 7045
or overly broad request or has difficulty in making a request for 7046
copies or inspection of public records under this section such 7047
that the public office or the person responsible for the requested 7048
public record cannot reasonably identify what public records are 7049
being requested, the public office or the person responsible for 7050
the requested public record may deny the request but shall provide 7051
the requester with an opportunity to revise the request by 7052
informing the requester of the manner in which records are 7053
maintained by the public office and accessed in the ordinary 7054
course of the public office's or person's duties.7055

       (3) If a request is ultimately denied, in part or in whole, 7056
the public office or the person responsible for the requested 7057
public record shall provide the requester with an explanation, 7058
including legal authority, setting forth why the request was 7059
denied. If the initial request was provided in writing, the 7060
explanation also shall be provided to the requester in writing. 7061
The explanation shall not preclude the public office or the person 7062
responsible for the requested public record from relying upon 7063
additional reasons or legal authority in defending an action 7064
commenced under division (C) of this section.7065

       (4) Unless specifically required or authorized by state or 7066
federal law or in accordance with division (B) of this section, no 7067
public office or person responsible for public records may limit 7068
or condition the availability of public records by requiring 7069
disclosure of the requester's identity or the intended use of the 7070
requested public record. Any requirement that the requester 7071
disclose the requestor's identity or the intended use of the 7072
requested public record constitutes a denial of the request.7073

       (5) A public office or person responsible for public records 7074
may ask a requester to make the request in writing, may ask for 7075
the requester's identity, and may inquire about the intended use 7076
of the information requested, but may do so only after disclosing 7077
to the requester that a written request is not mandatory and that 7078
the requester may decline to reveal the requester's identity or 7079
the intended use and when a written request or disclosure of the 7080
identity or intended use would benefit the requester by enhancing 7081
the ability of the public office or person responsible for public 7082
records to identify, locate, or deliver the public records sought 7083
by the requester.7084

       (6) If any person chooses to obtain a copy of a public record 7085
in accordance with division (B) of this section, the public office 7086
or person responsible for the public record may require that 7087
person to pay in advance the cost involved in providing the copy 7088
of the public record in accordance with the choice made by the 7089
person seeking the copy under this division. The public office or 7090
the person responsible for the public record shall permit that 7091
person to choose to have the public record duplicated upon paper, 7092
upon the same medium upon which the public office or person 7093
responsible for the public record keeps it, or upon any other 7094
medium upon which the public office or person responsible for the 7095
public record determines that it reasonably can be duplicated as 7096
an integral part of the normal operations of the public office or 7097
person responsible for the public record. When the person seeking 7098
the copy makes a choice under this division, the public office or 7099
person responsible for the public record shall provide a copy of 7100
it in accordance with the choice made by the person seeking the 7101
copy. Nothing in this section requires a public office or person 7102
responsible for the public record to allow the person seeking a 7103
copy of the public record to make the copies of the public record.7104

       (7) Upon a request made in accordance with division (B) of 7105
this section and subject to division (B)(6) of this section, a 7106
public office or person responsible for public records shall 7107
transmit a copy of a public record to any person by United States 7108
mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission within a 7109
reasonable period of time after receiving the request for the 7110
copy. The public office or person responsible for the public 7111
record may require the person making the request to pay in advance 7112
the cost of postage if the copy is transmitted by United States 7113
mail or the cost of delivery if the copy is transmitted other than 7114
by United States mail, and to pay in advance the costs incurred 7115
for other supplies used in the mailing, delivery, or transmission.7116

       Any public office may adopt a policy and procedures that it 7117
will follow in transmitting, within a reasonable period of time 7118
after receiving a request, copies of public records by United 7119
States mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission 7120
pursuant to this division. A public office that adopts a policy 7121
and procedures under this division shall comply with them in 7122
performing its duties under this division.7123

       In any policy and procedures adopted under this division, a 7124
public office may limit the number of records requested by a 7125
person that the office will transmit by United States mail to ten 7126
per month, unless the person certifies to the office in writing 7127
that the person does not intend to use or forward the requested 7128
records, or the information contained in them, for commercial 7129
purposes. For purposes of this division, "commercial" shall be 7130
narrowly construed and does not include reporting or gathering 7131
news, reporting or gathering information to assist citizen 7132
oversight or understanding of the operation or activities of 7133
government, or nonprofit educational research.7134

       (8) A public office or person responsible for public records 7135
is not required to permit a person who is incarcerated pursuant to 7136
a criminal conviction or a juvenile adjudication to inspect or to 7137
obtain a copy of any public record concerning a criminal 7138
investigation or prosecution or concerning what would be a 7139
criminal investigation or prosecution if the subject of the 7140
investigation or prosecution were an adult, unless the request to 7141
inspect or to obtain a copy of the record is for the purpose of 7142
acquiring information that is subject to release as a public 7143
record under this section and the judge who imposed the sentence 7144
or made the adjudication with respect to the person, or the 7145
judge's successor in office, finds that the information sought in 7146
the public record is necessary to support what appears to be a 7147
justiciable claim of the person.7148

       (9)(a) Upon written request made and signed by a journalist 7149
on or after December 16, 1999, a public office, or person 7150
responsible for public records, having custody of the records of 7151
the agency employing a specified peace officer, parole officer, 7152
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 7153
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 7154
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 7155
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 7156
identification and investigation shall disclose to the journalist 7157
the address of the actual personal residence of the peace officer, 7158
parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, 7159
assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 7160
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 7161
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 7162
criminal identification and investigation and, if the peace 7163
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 7164
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 7165
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 7166
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 7167
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 7168
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child is employed by a 7169
public office, the name and address of the employer of the peace 7170
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 7171
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 7172
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 7173
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 7174
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 7175
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child. The request shall 7176
include the journalist's name and title and the name and address 7177
of the journalist's employer and shall state that disclosure of 7178
the information sought would be in the public interest.7179

       (b) Division (B)(9)(a) of this section also applies to 7180
journalist requests for customer information maintained by a 7181
municipally owned or operated public utility, other than social 7182
security numbers and any private financial information such as 7183
credit reports, payment methods, credit card numbers, and bank 7184
account information.7185

       (c) As used in division (B)(9) of this section, "journalist" 7186
means a person engaged in, connected with, or employed by any news 7187
medium, including a newspaper, magazine, press association, news 7188
agency, or wire service, a radio or television station, or a 7189
similar medium, for the purpose of gathering, processing, 7190
transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating information for 7191
the general public.7192

       (C)(1) If a person allegedly is aggrieved by the failure of a 7193
public office or the person responsible for public records to 7194
promptly prepare a public record and to make it available to the 7195
person for inspection in accordance with division (B) of this 7196
section or by any other failure of a public office or the person 7197
responsible for public records to comply with an obligation in 7198
accordance with division (B) of this section, the person allegedly 7199
aggrieved may commence a mandamus action to obtain a judgment that 7200
orders the public office or the person responsible for the public 7201
record to comply with division (B) of this section, that awards 7202
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees to the person that 7203
instituted the mandamus action, and, if applicable, that includes 7204
an order fixing statutory damages under division (C)(1) of this 7205
section. The mandamus action may be commenced in the court of 7206
common pleas of the county in which division (B) of this section 7207
allegedly was not complied with, in the supreme court pursuant to 7208
its original jurisdiction under Section 2 of Article IV, Ohio 7209
Constitution, or in the court of appeals for the appellate 7210
district in which division (B) of this section allegedly was not 7211
complied with pursuant to its original jurisdiction under Section 7212
3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution.7213

       If a requestor transmits a written request by hand delivery 7214
or certified mail to inspect or receive copies of any public 7215
record in a manner that fairly describes the public record or 7216
class of public records to the public office or person responsible 7217
for the requested public records, except as otherwise provided in 7218
this section, the requestor shall be entitled to recover the 7219
amount of statutory damages set forth in this division if a court 7220
determines that the public office or the person responsible for 7221
public records failed to comply with an obligation in accordance 7222
with division (B) of this section.7223

       The amount of statutory damages shall be fixed at one hundred 7224
dollars for each business day during which the public office or 7225
person responsible for the requested public records failed to 7226
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 7227
section, beginning with the day on which the requester files a 7228
mandamus action to recover statutory damages, up to a maximum of 7229
one thousand dollars. The award of statutory damages shall not be 7230
construed as a penalty, but as compensation for injury arising 7231
from lost use of the requested information. The existence of this 7232
injury shall be conclusively presumed. The award of statutory 7233
damages shall be in addition to all other remedies authorized by 7234
this section.7235

       The court may reduce an award of statutory damages or not 7236
award statutory damages if the court determines both of the 7237
following:7238

       (a) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 7239
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 7240
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 7241
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 7242
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 7243
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 7244
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 7245
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 7246
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 7247
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 7248
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 7249
section;7250

       (b) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 7251
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 7252
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 7253
responsible for the requested public records would serve the 7254
public policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as 7255
permitting that conduct or threatened conduct.7256

       (2)(a) If the court issues a writ of mandamus that orders the 7257
public office or the person responsible for the public record to 7258
comply with division (B) of this section and determines that the 7259
circumstances described in division (C)(1) of this section exist, 7260
the court shall determine and award to the relator all court 7261
costs.7262

       (b) If the court renders a judgment that orders the public 7263
office or the person responsible for the public record to comply 7264
with division (B) of this section, the court may award reasonable 7265
attorney's fees subject to reduction as described in division 7266
(C)(2)(c) of this section. The court shall award reasonable 7267
attorney's fees, subject to reduction as described in division 7268
(C)(2)(c) of this section when either of the following applies:7269

        (i) The public office or the person responsible for the 7270
public records failed to respond affirmatively or negatively to 7271
the public records request in accordance with the time allowed 7272
under division (B) of this section.7273

        (ii) The public office or the person responsible for the 7274
public records promised to permit the relator to inspect or 7275
receive copies of the public records requested within a specified 7276
period of time but failed to fulfill that promise within that 7277
specified period of time.7278

       (c) Court costs and reasonable attorney's fees awarded under 7279
this section shall be construed as remedial and not punitive. 7280
Reasonable attorney's fees shall include reasonable fees incurred 7281
to produce proof of the reasonableness and amount of the fees and 7282
to otherwise litigate entitlement to the fees. The court may 7283
reduce an award of attorney's fees to the relator or not award 7284
attorney's fees to the relator if the court determines both of the 7285
following:7286

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 7287
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 7288
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 7289
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 7290
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 7291
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 7292
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 7293
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 7294
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 7295
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 7296
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 7297
section;7298

       (ii) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 7299
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 7300
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 7301
responsible for the requested public records as described in 7302
division (C)(2)(c)(i) of this section would serve the public 7303
policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as permitting 7304
that conduct or threatened conduct.7305

       (D) Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not limit the 7306
provisions of this section.7307

       (E)(1) To ensure that all employees of public offices are 7308
appropriately educated about a public office's obligations under 7309
division (B) of this section, all elected officials or their 7310
appropriate designees shall attend training approved by the 7311
attorney general as provided in section 109.43 of the Revised 7312
Code. In addition, all public offices shall adopt a public records 7313
policy in compliance with this section for responding to public 7314
records requests. In adopting a public records policy under this 7315
division, a public office may obtain guidance from the model 7316
public records policy developed and provided to the public office 7317
by the attorney general under section 109.43 of the Revised Code. 7318
Except as otherwise provided in this section, the policy may not 7319
limit the number of public records that the public office will 7320
make available to a single person, may not limit the number of 7321
public records that it will make available during a fixed period 7322
of time, and may not establish a fixed period of time before it 7323
will respond to a request for inspection or copying of public 7324
records, unless that period is less than eight hours.7325

       (2) The public office shall distribute the public records 7326
policy adopted by the public office under division (E)(1) of this 7327
section to the employee of the public office who is the records 7328
custodian or records manager or otherwise has custody of the 7329
records of that office. The public office shall require that 7330
employee to acknowledge receipt of the copy of the public records 7331
policy. The public office shall create a poster that describes its 7332
public records policy and shall post the poster in a conspicuous 7333
place in the public office and in all locations where the public 7334
office has branch offices. The public office may post its public 7335
records policy on the internet web site of the public office if 7336
the public office maintains an internet web site. A public office 7337
that has established a manual or handbook of its general policies 7338
and procedures for all employees of the public office shall 7339
include the public records policy of the public office in the 7340
manual or handbook.7341

       (F)(1) The bureau of motor vehicles may adopt rules pursuant 7342
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to reasonably limit the number 7343
of bulk commercial special extraction requests made by a person 7344
for the same records or for updated records during a calendar 7345
year. The rules may include provisions for charges to be made for 7346
bulk commercial special extraction requests for the actual cost of 7347
the bureau, plus special extraction costs, plus ten per cent. The 7348
bureau may charge for expenses for redacting information, the 7349
release of which is prohibited by law.7350

       (2) As used in division (F)(1) of this section:7351

       (a) "Actual cost" means the cost of depleted supplies, 7352
records storage media costs, actual mailing and alternative 7353
delivery costs, or other transmitting costs, and any direct 7354
equipment operating and maintenance costs, including actual costs 7355
paid to private contractors for copying services.7356

       (b) "Bulk commercial special extraction request" means a 7357
request for copies of a record for information in a format other 7358
than the format already available, or information that cannot be 7359
extracted without examination of all items in a records series, 7360
class of records, or data base by a person who intends to use or 7361
forward the copies for surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale 7362
for commercial purposes. "Bulk commercial special extraction 7363
request" does not include a request by a person who gives 7364
assurance to the bureau that the person making the request does 7365
not intend to use or forward the requested copies for surveys, 7366
marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial purposes.7367

       (c) "Commercial" means profit-seeking production, buying, or 7368
selling of any good, service, or other product.7369

       (d) "Special extraction costs" means the cost of the time 7370
spent by the lowest paid employee competent to perform the task, 7371
the actual amount paid to outside private contractors employed by 7372
the bureau, or the actual cost incurred to create computer 7373
programs to make the special extraction. "Special extraction 7374
costs" include any charges paid to a public agency for computer or 7375
records services.7376

       (3) For purposes of divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, 7377
"surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 7378
purposes" shall be narrowly construed and does not include 7379
reporting or gathering news, reporting or gathering information to 7380
assist citizen oversight or understanding of the operation or 7381
activities of government, or nonprofit educational research.7382

       Sec. 151.01.  (A) As used in sections 151.01 to 151.11 and 7383
151.40 of the Revised Code and in the applicable bond proceedings 7384
unless otherwise provided:7385

       (1) "Bond proceedings" means the resolutions, orders, 7386
agreements, and credit enhancement facilities, and amendments and 7387
supplements to them, or any one or more or combination of them, 7388
authorizing, awarding, or providing for the terms and conditions 7389
applicable to or providing for the security or liquidity of, the 7390
particular obligations, and the provisions contained in those 7391
obligations.7392

       (2) "Bond service fund" means the respective bond service 7393
fund created by section 151.03, 151.04, 151.05, 151.06, 151.07, 7394
151.08, 151.09, 151.10, 151.11, or 151.40 of the Revised Code, and 7395
any accounts in that fund, including all moneys and investments, 7396
and earnings from investments, credited and to be credited to that 7397
fund and accounts as and to the extent provided in the applicable 7398
bond proceedings.7399

       (3) "Capital facilities" means capital facilities or projects 7400
as referred to in section 151.03, 151.04, 151.05, 151.06, 151.07, 7401
151.08, 151.09, 151.10, 151.11, or 151.40 of the Revised Code.7402

       (4) "Costs of capital facilities" means the costs of 7403
acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, 7404
remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or 7405
furnishing capital facilities, and of the financing of those 7406
costs. "Costs of capital facilities" includes, without limitation, 7407
and in addition to costs referred to in section 151.03, 151.04, 7408
151.05, 151.06, 151.07, 151.08, 151.09, 151.10, 151.11, or 151.40 7409
of the Revised Code, the cost of clearance and preparation of the 7410
site and of any land to be used in connection with capital 7411
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 7412
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 7413
and allocable portions of direct costs of the issuing authority, 7414
costs of engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 7415
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, financing costs, 7416
interest on obligations, including but not limited to, interest7417
from theirthe date of their issuance to the time when interest is 7418
to be paid from sources other than proceeds of obligations, 7419
amounts necessary to establish any reserves as required by the 7420
bond proceedings, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or 7421
applied by or borrowed from any person or governmental agency or 7422
entity for the payment of any item of costs of capital facilities, 7423
and all other expenses necessary or incident to planning or 7424
determining feasibility or practicability with respect to capital 7425
facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary or 7426
incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 7427
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 7428
equipment, and furnishing of capital facilities, the financing of 7429
those costs, and the placing of the capital facilities in use and 7430
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of those 7431
classes of costs and expenses. For purposes of sections 122.085 to 7432
122.0820 of the Revised Code, "costs of capital facilities" 7433
includes "allowable costs" as defined in section 122.085 of the 7434
Revised Code.7435

       (5) "Credit enhancement facilities," "financing costs," and 7436
"interest" or "interest equivalent" have the same meanings as in 7437
section 133.01 of the Revised Code.7438

       (6) "Debt service" means principal, including any mandatory 7439
sinking fund or redemption requirements for retirement of 7440
obligations, interest and other accreted amounts, interest 7441
equivalent, and any redemption premium, payable on obligations. If 7442
not prohibited by the applicable bond proceedings, debt service 7443
may include costs relating to credit enhancement facilities that 7444
are related to and represent, or are intended to provide a source 7445
of payment of or limitation on, other debt service.7446

       (7) "Issuing authority" means the Ohio public facilities 7447
commission created in section 151.02 of the Revised Code for 7448
obligations issued under section 151.03, 151.04, 151.05, 151.07, 7449
151.08, 151.09, 151.10, or 151.11 of the Revised Code, or the 7450
treasurer of state, or the officer who by law performs the 7451
functions of that office, for obligations issued under section 7452
151.06 or 151.40 of the Revised Code.7453

       (8) "Net proceeds" means amounts received from the sale of 7454
obligations, excluding amounts used to refund or retire 7455
outstanding obligations, amounts required to be deposited into 7456
special funds pursuant to the applicable bond proceedings, and 7457
amounts to be used to pay financing costs.7458

       (9) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 7459
obligation of the state, including any appertaining interest 7460
coupons, issued under Section 2k, 2l, 2m, 2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, or 15 of 7461
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to sections 151.01 7462
to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised Code or other general assembly 7463
authorization.7464

       (10) "Principal amount" means the aggregate of the amount as 7465
stated or provided for in the applicable bond proceedings as the 7466
amount on which interest or interest equivalent on particular 7467
obligations is initially calculated. Principal amount does not 7468
include any premium paid to the state by the initial purchaser of 7469
the obligations. "Principal amount" of a capital appreciation 7470
bond, as defined in division (C) of section 3334.01 of the Revised 7471
Code, means its face amount, and "principal amount" of a zero 7472
coupon bond, as defined in division (J) of section 3334.01 of the 7473
Revised Code, means the discounted offering price at which the 7474
bond is initially sold to the public, disregarding any purchase 7475
price discount to the original purchaser, if provided for pursuant 7476
to the bond proceedings.7477

       (11) "Special funds" or "funds," unless the context indicates 7478
otherwise, means the bond service fund, and any other funds, 7479
including any reserve funds, created under the bond proceedings 7480
and stated to be special funds in those proceedings, including 7481
moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, credited 7482
and to be credited to the particular fund. Special funds do not 7483
include the school building program assistance fund created by 7484
section 3318.25 of the Revised Code, the higher education 7485
improvement fund created by division (F) of section 154.21 of the 7486
Revised Code, the higher education improvement taxable fund 7487
created by division (G) of section 154.21 of the Revised Code, the 7488
highway capital improvement bond fund created by section 5528.53 7489
of the Revised Code, the state parks and natural resources fund 7490
created by section 1557.02 of the Revised Code, the coal research 7491
and development fund created by section 1555.15 of the Revised 7492
Code, the clean Ohio conservation fund created by section 164.27 7493
of the Revised Code, the clean Ohio revitalization fund created by 7494
section 122.658 of the Revised Code, the job ready site 7495
development fund created by section 122.0820 of the Revised Code, 7496
the third frontier research and development fund created by 7497
section 184.19 of the Revised Code, the third frontier research 7498
and development taxable bond fund created by section 184.191 of 7499
the Revised Code, or other funds created by the bond proceedings 7500
that are not stated by those proceedings to be special funds.7501

       (B) Subject to Section 2l, 2m, 2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, or 15, and 7502
Section 17, of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, the state, by the 7503
issuing authority, is authorized to issue and sell, as provided in 7504
sections 151.03 to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised Code, and in 7505
respective aggregate principal amounts as from time to time 7506
provided or authorized by the general assembly, general 7507
obligations of this state for the purpose of paying costs of 7508
capital facilities or projects identified by or pursuant to 7509
general assembly action.7510

       (C) Each issue of obligations shall be authorized by 7511
resolution or order of the issuing authority. The bond proceedings 7512
shall provide for or authorize the manner for determining the 7513
principal amount or maximum principal amount of obligations of an 7514
issue, the principal maturity or maturities, the interest rate or 7515
rates, the date of and the dates of payment of interest on the 7516
obligations, their denominations, and the place or places of 7517
payment of debt service which may be within or outside the state. 7518
Unless otherwise provided by law, the latest principal maturity 7519
may not be later than the earlier of the thirty-first day of 7520
December of the twenty-fifth calendar year after the year of 7521
issuance of the particular obligations or of the twenty-fifth 7522
calendar year after the year in which the original obligation to 7523
pay was issued or entered into. Sections 9.96, 9.98, 9.981, 9.982, 7524
and 9.983 of the Revised Code apply to obligations. The purpose of 7525
the obligations may be stated in the bond proceedings in general 7526
terms, such as, as applicable, "financing or assisting in the 7527
financing of projects as provided in Section 2l of Article VIII, 7528
Ohio Constitution," "financing or assisting in the financing of 7529
highway capital improvement projects as provided in Section 2m of 7530
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," "paying costs of capital 7531
facilities for a system of common schools throughout the state as 7532
authorized by Section 2n of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," 7533
"paying costs of capital facilities for state-supported and 7534
state-assisted institutions of higher education as authorized by 7535
Section 2n of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," "paying costs of 7536
coal research and development as authorized by Section 15 of 7537
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," "financing or assisting in the 7538
financing of local subdivision capital improvement projects as 7539
authorized by Section 2m of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," 7540
"paying costs of conservation projects as authorized by Sections 7541
2o and 2q of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," "paying costs of 7542
revitalization projects as authorized by Sections 2o and 2q of 7543
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," "paying costs of preparing sites 7544
for industry, commerce, distribution, or research and development 7545
as authorized by Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution," 7546
or "paying costs of research and development as authorized by 7547
Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution."7548

       (D) The issuing authority may appoint or provide for the 7549
appointment of paying agents, bond registrars, securities 7550
depositories, clearing corporations, and transfer agents, and may 7551
without need for any other approval retain or contract for the 7552
services of underwriters, investment bankers, financial advisers, 7553
accounting experts, marketing, remarketing, indexing, and 7554
administrative agents, other consultants, and independent 7555
contractors, including printing services, as are necessary in the 7556
judgment of the issuing authority to carry out the issuing 7557
authority's functions under this chapter. When the issuing 7558
authority is the Ohio public facilities commission, the issuing 7559
authority also may without need for any other approval retain or 7560
contract for the services of attorneys and other professionals for 7561
that purpose. Financing costs are payable, as may be provided in 7562
the bond proceedings, from the proceeds of the obligations, from 7563
special funds, or from other moneys available for the purpose.7564

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions 7565
customary or appropriate to the financing or to the obligations or 7566
to particular obligations including, but not limited to, 7567
provisions for:7568

       (1) The redemption of obligations prior to maturity at the 7569
option of the state or of the holder or upon the occurrence of 7570
certain conditions, and at particular price or prices and under 7571
particular terms and conditions;7572

       (2) The form of and other terms of the obligations;7573

       (3) The establishment, deposit, investment, and application 7574
of special funds, and the safeguarding of moneys on hand or on 7575
deposit, in lieu of the applicability of provisions of Chapter 7576
131. or 135. of the Revised Code, but subject to any special 7577
provisions of sections 151.01 to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised 7578
Code with respect to the application of particular funds or 7579
moneys. Any financial institution that acts as a depository of any 7580
moneys in special funds or other funds under the bond proceedings 7581
may furnish indemnifying bonds or pledge securities as required by 7582
the issuing authority.7583

       (4) Any or every provision of the bond proceedings being 7584
binding upon the issuing authority and upon such governmental 7585
agency or entity, officer, board, commission, authority, agency, 7586
department, institution, district, or other person or body as may 7587
from time to time be authorized to take actions as may be 7588
necessary to perform all or any part of the duty required by the 7589
provision;7590

       (5) The maintenance of each pledge or instrument comprising 7591
part of the bond proceedings until the state has fully paid or 7592
provided for the payment of the debt service on the obligations or 7593
met other stated conditions;7594

       (6) In the event of default in any payments required to be 7595
made by the bond proceedings, or by any other agreement of the 7596
issuing authority made as part of a contract under which the 7597
obligations were issued or secured, including a credit enhancement 7598
facility, the enforcement of those payments by mandamus, a suit in 7599
equity, an action at law, or any combination of those remedial 7600
actions;7601

       (7) The rights and remedies of the holders or owners of 7602
obligations or of book-entry interests in them, and of third 7603
parties under any credit enhancement facility, and provisions for 7604
protecting and enforcing those rights and remedies, including 7605
limitations on rights of individual holders or owners;7606

       (8) The replacement of mutilated, destroyed, lost, or stolen 7607
obligations;7608

       (9) The funding, refunding, or advance refunding, or other 7609
provision for payment, of obligations that will then no longer be 7610
outstanding for purposes of this section or of the applicable bond 7611
proceedings;7612

       (10) Amendment of the bond proceedings;7613

       (11) Any other or additional agreements with the owners of 7614
obligations, and such other provisions as the issuing authority 7615
determines, including limitations, conditions, or qualifications, 7616
relating to any of the foregoing.7617

       (F) The great seal of the state or a facsimile of it may be 7618
affixed to or printed on the obligations. The obligations 7619
requiring execution by or for the issuing authority shall be 7620
signed as provided in the bond proceedings. Any obligations may be 7621
signed by the individual who on the date of execution is the 7622
authorized signer although on the date of these obligations that 7623
individual is not an authorized signer. In case the individual 7624
whose signature or facsimile signature appears on any obligation 7625
ceases to be an authorized signer before delivery of the 7626
obligation, that signature or facsimile is nevertheless valid and 7627
sufficient for all purposes as if that individual had remained the 7628
authorized signer until delivery.7629

       (G) Obligations are investment securities under Chapter 1308. 7630
of the Revised Code. Obligations may be issued in bearer or in 7631
registered form, registrable as to principal alone or as to both 7632
principal and interest, or both, or in certificated or 7633
uncertificated form, as the issuing authority determines. 7634
Provision may be made for the exchange, conversion, or transfer of 7635
obligations and for reasonable charges for registration, exchange, 7636
conversion, and transfer. Pending preparation of final 7637
obligations, the issuing authority may provide for the issuance of 7638
interim instruments to be exchanged for the final obligations.7639

       (H) Obligations may be sold at public sale or at private 7640
sale, in such manner, and at such price at, above or below par, 7641
all as determined by and provided by the issuing authority in the 7642
bond proceedings.7643

       (I) Except to the extent that rights are restricted by the 7644
bond proceedings, any owner of obligations or provider of a credit 7645
enhancement facility may by any suitable form of legal proceedings 7646
protect and enforce any rights relating to obligations or that 7647
facility under the laws of this state or granted by the bond 7648
proceedings. Those rights include the right to compel the 7649
performance of all applicable duties of the issuing authority and 7650
the state. Each duty of the issuing authority and that authority's 7651
officers, staff, and employees, and of each state entity or 7652
agency, or using district or using institution, and its officers, 7653
members, staff, or employees, undertaken pursuant to the bond 7654
proceedings, is hereby established as a duty of the entity or 7655
individual having authority to perform that duty, specifically 7656
enjoined by law and resulting from an office, trust, or station 7657
within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the Revised Code. The 7658
individuals who are from time to time the issuing authority, 7659
members or officers of the issuing authority, or those members' 7660
designees acting pursuant to section 151.02 of the Revised Code, 7661
or the issuing authority's officers, staff, or employees, are not 7662
liable in their personal capacities on any obligations or 7663
otherwise under the bond proceedings.7664

       (J)(1) Subject to Section 2k, 2l, 2m, 2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, or 15, 7665
and Section 17, of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution and sections 7666
151.01 to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised Code, the issuing 7667
authority may, in addition to the authority referred to in 7668
division (B) of this section, authorize and provide for the 7669
issuance of:7670

       (a) Obligations in the form of bond anticipation notes, and 7671
may provide for the renewal of those notes from time to time by 7672
the issuance of new notes. The holders of notes or appertaining 7673
interest coupons have the right to have debt service on those 7674
notes paid solely from the moneys and special funds that are or 7675
may be pledged to that payment, including the proceeds of bonds or 7676
renewal notes or both, as the issuing authority provides in the 7677
bond proceedings authorizing the notes. Notes may be additionally 7678
secured by covenants of the issuing authority to the effect that 7679
the issuing authority and the state will do all things necessary 7680
for the issuance of bonds or renewal notes in such principal 7681
amount and upon such terms as may be necessary to provide moneys 7682
to pay when due the debt service on the notes, and apply their 7683
proceeds to the extent necessary, to make full and timely payment 7684
of debt service on the notes as provided in the applicable bond 7685
proceedings. In the bond proceedings authorizing the issuance of 7686
bond anticipation notes the issuing authority shall set forth for 7687
the bonds anticipated an estimated schedule of annual principal 7688
payments the latest of which shall be no later than provided in 7689
division (C) of this section. While the notes are outstanding 7690
there shall be deposited, as shall be provided in the bond 7691
proceedings for those notes, from the sources authorized for 7692
payment of debt service on the bonds, amounts sufficient to pay 7693
the principal of the bonds anticipated as set forth in that 7694
estimated schedule during the time the notes are outstanding, 7695
which amounts shall be used solely to pay the principal of those 7696
notes or of the bonds anticipated.7697

       (b) Obligations for the refunding, including funding and 7698
retirement, and advance refunding with or without payment or 7699
redemption prior to maturity, of any obligations previously 7700
issued. Refunding obligations may be issued in amounts sufficient 7701
to pay or to provide for repayment of the principal amount, 7702
including principal amounts maturing prior to the redemption of 7703
the remaining prior obligations, any redemption premium, and 7704
interest accrued or to accrue to the maturity or redemption date 7705
or dates, payable on the prior obligations, and related financing 7706
costs and any expenses incurred or to be incurred in connection 7707
with that issuance and refunding. Subject to the applicable bond 7708
proceedings, the portion of the proceeds of the sale of refunding 7709
obligations issued under division (J)(1)(b) of this section to be 7710
applied to debt service on the prior obligations shall be credited 7711
to an appropriate separate account in the bond service fund and 7712
held in trust for the purpose by the issuing authority or by a 7713
corporate trustee. Obligations authorized under this division 7714
shall be considered to be issued for those purposes for which the 7715
prior obligations were issued.7716

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in sections 151.01 to 151.11 7717
or 151.40 of the Revised Code, bonds or notes authorized pursuant 7718
to division (J) of this section are subject to the provisions of 7719
those sections pertaining to obligations generally.7720

       (3) The principal amount of refunding or renewal obligations 7721
issued pursuant to division (J) of this section shall be in 7722
addition to the amount authorized by the general assembly as 7723
referred to in division (B) of the following sections: section 7724
151.03, 151.04, 151.05, 151.06, 151.07, 151.08, 151.09, 151.10, 7725
151.11, or 151.40 of the Revised Code.7726

       (K) Obligations are lawful investments for banks, savings and 7727
loan associations, credit union share guaranty corporations, trust 7728
companies, trustees, fiduciaries, insurance companies, including 7729
domestic for life and domestic not for life, trustees or other 7730
officers having charge of sinking and bond retirement or other 7731
special funds of the state and political subdivisions and taxing 7732
districts of this state, the sinking fund, the administrator of 7733
workers' compensation subject to the approval of the workers' 7734
compensation board, the state teachers retirement system, the 7735
public employees retirement system, the school employees 7736
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 7737
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 7738
adopted pursuant to those provisions by any state agency with 7739
respect to investments by them, and are also acceptable as 7740
security for the repayment of the deposit of public moneys. The 7741
exemptions from taxation in Ohio as provided for in particular 7742
sections of the Ohio Constitution and section 5709.76 of the 7743
Revised Code apply to the obligations.7744

       (L)(1) Unless otherwise provided or provided for in any 7745
applicable bond proceedings, moneys to the credit of or in a 7746
special fund shall be disbursed on the order of the issuing 7747
authority. No such order is required for the payment, from the 7748
bond service fund or other special fund, when due of debt service 7749
or required payments under credit enhancement facilities.7750

       (2) Payments received by the state under interest rate hedges 7751
entered into as credit enhancement facilities under this chapter 7752
shall be deposited to the credit of the bond service fund for the 7753
obligations to which those credit enhancement facilities relate.7754

       (M) The full faith and credit, revenue, and taxing power of 7755
the state are and shall be pledged to the timely payment of debt 7756
service on outstanding obligations as it comes due, all in 7757
accordance with Section 2k, 2l, 2m, 2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, or 15 of 7758
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and section 151.03, 151.04, 7759
151.05, 151.06, 151.07, 151.08, 151.09, 151.10, or 151.11 of the 7760
Revised Code. Moneys referred to in Section 5a of Article XII, 7761
Ohio Constitution, may not be pledged or used for the payment of 7762
debt service except on obligations referred to in section 151.06 7763
of the Revised Code. Net state lottery proceeds, as provided for 7764
and referred to in section 3770.06 of the Revised Code, may not be 7765
pledged or used for the payment of debt service except on 7766
obligations referred to in section 151.03 of the Revised Code. The 7767
state covenants, and that covenant shall be controlling 7768
notwithstanding any other provision of law, that the state and the 7769
applicable officers and agencies of the state, including the 7770
general assembly, shall, so long as any obligations are 7771
outstanding in accordance with their terms, maintain statutory 7772
authority for and cause to be levied, collected and applied 7773
sufficient pledged excises, taxes, and revenues of the state so 7774
that the revenues shall be sufficient in amounts to pay debt 7775
service when due, to establish and maintain any reserves and other 7776
requirements, and to pay financing costs, including costs of or 7777
relating to credit enhancement facilities, all as provided for in 7778
the bond proceedings. Those excises, taxes, and revenues are and 7779
shall be deemed to be levied and collected, in addition to the 7780
purposes otherwise provided for by law, to provide for the payment 7781
of debt service and financing costs in accordance with sections 7782
151.01 to 151.11 of the Revised Code and the bond proceedings.7783

       (N) The general assembly may from time to time repeal or 7784
reduce any excise, tax, or other source of revenue pledged to the 7785
payment of the debt service pursuant to Section 2k, 2l, 2m, 2n, 7786
2o, 2p, 2q, or 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and sections 7787
151.01 to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised Code, and may levy, 7788
collect and apply any new or increased excise, tax, or revenue to 7789
meet the pledge, to the payment of debt service on outstanding 7790
obligations, of the state's full faith and credit, revenue and 7791
taxing power, or of designated revenues and receipts, except fees, 7792
excises or taxes referred to in Section 5a of Article XII, Ohio 7793
Constitution, for other than obligations referred to in section 7794
151.06 of the Revised Code and except net state lottery proceeds 7795
for other than obligations referred to in section 151.03 of the 7796
Revised Code. Nothing in division (N) of this section authorizes 7797
any impairment of the obligation of this state to levy and collect 7798
sufficient excises, taxes, and revenues to pay debt service on 7799
obligations outstanding in accordance with their terms.7800

       (O) Each bond service fund is a trust fund and is hereby 7801
pledged to the payment of debt service on the applicable 7802
obligations. Payment of that debt service shall be made or 7803
provided for by the issuing authority in accordance with the bond 7804
proceedings without necessity for any act of appropriation. The 7805
bond proceedings may provide for the establishment of separate 7806
accounts in the bond service fund and for the application of those 7807
accounts only to debt service on specific obligations, and for 7808
other accounts in the bond service fund within the general 7809
purposes of that fund.7810

       (P) Subject to the bond proceedings pertaining to any 7811
obligations then outstanding in accordance with their terms, the 7812
issuing authority may in the bond proceedings pledge all, or such 7813
portion as the issuing authority determines, of the moneys in the 7814
bond service fund to the payment of debt service on particular 7815
obligations, and for the establishment and maintenance of any 7816
reserves for payment of particular debt service.7817

       (Q) The issuing authority shall by the fifteenth day of July 7818
of each fiscal year, certify or cause to be certified to the 7819
office of budget and management the total amount of moneys 7820
required during the current fiscal year to meet in full all debt 7821
service on the respective obligations and any related financing 7822
costs payable from the applicable bond service fund and not from 7823
the proceeds of refunding or renewal obligations. The issuing 7824
authority shall make or cause to be made supplemental 7825
certifications to the office of budget and management for each 7826
debt service payment date and at such other times during each 7827
fiscal year as may be provided in the bond proceedings or 7828
requested by that office. Debt service, costs of credit 7829
enhancement facilities, and other financing costs shall be set 7830
forth separately in each certification. If and so long as the 7831
moneys to the credit of the bond service fund, together with any 7832
other moneys available for the purpose, are insufficient to meet 7833
in full all payments when due of the amount required as stated in 7834
the certificate or otherwise, the office of budget and management 7835
shall at the times as provided in the bond proceedings, and 7836
consistent with any particular provisions in sections 151.03 to 7837
151.11 and 151.40 of the Revised Code, transfer a sufficient 7838
amount to the bond service fund from the pledged revenues in the 7839
case of obligations issued pursuant to section 151.40 of the 7840
Revised Code, and in the case of other obligations from the 7841
revenues derived from excises, taxes, and other revenues, 7842
including net state lottery proceeds in the case of obligations 7843
referred to in section 151.03 of the Revised Code.7844

       (R) Unless otherwise provided in any applicable bond 7845
proceedings, moneys to the credit of special funds may be invested 7846
by or on behalf of the state only in one or more of the following:7847

       (1) Notes, bonds, or other direct obligations of the United 7848
States or of any agency or instrumentality of the United States, 7849
or in no-front-end-load money market mutual funds consisting 7850
exclusively of those obligations, or in repurchase agreements, 7851
including those issued by any fiduciary, secured by those 7852
obligations, or in collective investment funds consisting 7853
exclusively of those obligations;7854

       (2) Obligations of this state or any political subdivision of 7855
this state;7856

       (3) Certificates of deposit of any national bank located in 7857
this state and any bank, as defined in section 1101.01 of the 7858
Revised Code, subject to inspection by the superintendent of 7859
financial institutions;7860

       (4) The treasurer of state's pooled investment program under 7861
section 135.45 of the Revised Code.7862

       The income from investments referred to in division (R) of 7863
this section shall, unless otherwise provided in sections 151.01 7864
to 151.11 or 151.40 of the Revised Code, be credited to special 7865
funds or otherwise as the issuing authority determines in the bond 7866
proceedings. Those investments may be sold or exchanged at times 7867
as the issuing authority determines, provides for, or authorizes.7868

       (S) The treasurer of state shall have responsibility for 7869
keeping records, making reports, and making payments, relating to 7870
any arbitrage rebate requirements under the applicable bond 7871
proceedings.7872

       Sec. 152.18.  Whenever the Ohio building authority 7873
constructs, reconstructs, rehabilitates, remodels, renovates, 7874
enlarges, improves, alters, maintains, equips, furnishes, repairs, 7875
paints, or decorates capital facilities pursuant to section 7876
152.19, 152.21, or 152.31 of the Revised Code or buildings, 7877
facilities, and other properties for use and occupancy of persons 7878
pursuant to section 152.04 of the Revised Code, the authority 7879
shall make the necessary plans and specifications, and shall 7880
advertise for bids for all work to be placed under contract once a 7881
week for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general 7882
circulation in the county within which the work is to be done, and 7883
shall award the contract to the lowest responsive and responsible 7884
bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised Code. When 7885
the authority determines, subject to approval by the controlling 7886
board, that a real and present emergency exists or if the cost of 7887
such a contract does not exceed fifty thousand dollars, such a 7888
contract may be awarded without advertising and receipt of bids. A 7889
bid guaranty pursuant to sections 153.54 to 153.571 of the Revised 7890
Code shall be required for any contract under this section.7891

       In all other cases of capital facilities financed by the 7892
authority, the construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 7893
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, alteration, 7894
maintenance, equipping, furnishing, repair, painting, or 7895
decoration of capital facilities by or for the state or any 7896
governmental entity shall be the responsibility of the department 7897
of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission7898
or, with the consent of the department of administrative services7899
Ohio facilities construction commission, shall be the 7900
responsibility of the state agency using the capital facility, or 7901
the governmental entity with which a state agency is participating 7902
pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, and shall be 7903
undertaken by the departmentcommission in compliance with Chapter 7904
153. of the Revised Code, or by such state agency or governmental 7905
entity in accordance with otherwise applicable law. The 7906
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, maintenance, equipping, or 7907
furnishing of capital facilities by or for the state or any 7908
governmental entity shall be the responsibility of the department 7909
of administrative services or, with the consent of the department, 7910
the state agency or other governmental entity that is using the 7911
capital facility.7912

       Sec. 152.24.  (A) Except as otherwise provided with respect 7913
to leasing of capital facilities in sections 152.241, 152.242, 7914
152.31, and 152.33 of the Revised Code, the department of 7915
administrative services or, with the consent of the department of 7916
administrative services, the state agency using an office facility 7917
and related storage and parking facilities, or participating in 7918
such facilities pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, 7919
shall lease any office facility and related storage and parking 7920
facility acquired, purchased, constructed, reconstructed, 7921
rehabilitated, remodeled, renovated, enlarged, improved, altered, 7922
operated, maintained, equipped, furnished, repaired, painted, 7923
decorated, or financed by the Ohio building authority for housing 7924
any state agencies. An agreement between the authority and the 7925
department of administrative services or such using or 7926
participating agency may provide for the transfer of the property 7927
to the state after bonds and notes issued by the authority for the 7928
purpose of the acquisition, purchase, construction, 7929
reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, 7930
enlargement, improvement, alteration, equipping, furnishing, 7931
repair, painting, decorating, or financing of such building or 7932
facility have been repaid. A lease between the authority and the 7933
department of administrative services or a using or participating 7934
agency shall be for a period not exceeding the then current 7935
two-year period for which appropriations have been made by the 7936
general assembly to the department of administrative services and 7937
the state agencies which will occupy or participate in the office 7938
facility and related storage and parking facility being leased, 7939
and such lease may contain such other terms as the department of 7940
administrative services, or a using or participating agency, and 7941
the authority agree notwithstanding any other provision of law, 7942
including provision that rental payments in amounts at least 7943
sufficient to pay bond service charges payable during the current 7944
two-year lease term shall be an absolute and unconditional 7945
obligation of the department of administrative services, or the 7946
using or participating agency, independent of all other duties 7947
under the lease without setoff or deduction or any other similar 7948
rights or defenses. Such an agreement may provide for renewal of a 7949
lease at the end of each term for another term, not exceeding two 7950
years, provided that no renewal shall be effective until the 7951
effective date of an appropriation enacted by the general assembly 7952
from which the department of administrative services, or the using 7953
or participating agency, may lawfully pay rentals under such 7954
lease. For purposes of this section, the term "lease" may include, 7955
without limitation, any agreement between the department of 7956
administrative services, or the using or participating agency, and 7957
the authority with respect to any costs of capital facilities to 7958
be incurred prior to land acquisition.7959

       (B) If the director of administrative services or the 7960
director of a state agency using or participating in an office 7961
facility and related storage and parking facility certifies that 7962
space in such facility acquired, purchased, constructed, 7963
reconstructed, rehabilitated, remodeled, renovated, enlarged, 7964
improved, altered, operated, maintained, equipped, furnished, 7965
repaired, painted, decorated, or financed by the authority has 7966
become unnecessary for state use, the authority may lease any 7967
excess space in such facility and related storage and parking 7968
facility to any governmental entity.7969

       (C) If space in any office facility leased by the authority 7970
to the department of administrative services is not immediately 7971
necessary for state use, the department of administrative services 7972
may exercise its authority under division (A)(9)(5) of section 7973
123.01 of the Revised Code with respect to such space.7974

       (D) Capital facilities acquired, purchased, constructed, 7975
reconstructed, rehabilitated, remodeled, renovated, enlarged, 7976
improved, altered, operated, maintained, equipped, furnished, 7977
repaired, painted, decorated, or financed by the Ohio building 7978
authority, other than any office facility and related storage and 7979
parking facility required to be leased pursuant to division (A) of 7980
this section, shall be leased to the department of administrative 7981
services, the state agency using the capital facilities, or the 7982
state agency participating in the capital facilities pursuant to 7983
section 152.33 of the Revised Code. The department of 7984
administrative services or the using or participating state agency 7985
may sublease such capital facilities to other state agencies or 7986
other governmental entities. Such parties, including other state 7987
agencies or state-supported or state-assisted institutions of 7988
higher education, may make other agreements for the use, 7989
construction, or operation of such capital facilities in any 7990
manner permitted by the lease or agreement with the authority and 7991
for the charging, collection, and deposit of such revenues and 7992
receipts of the using or participating state agency constituting 7993
available receipts, all upon such terms and conditions as the 7994
parties may agree upon and pursuant to this chapter 7995
notwithstanding other provisions of law affecting the leasing, 7996
acquisition, operation, or disposition of capital facilities by 7997
such parties. Any such lease between the authority and the 7998
department of administrative services or a using or participating 7999
state agency shall be for a period not to exceed the then current 8000
two-year period for which appropriations have been made by the 8001
general assembly to the department of administrative services or 8002
such using or participating state agency. The lease between the 8003
authority and the department of administrative services or the 8004
using or participating state agency may provide for renewal of the 8005
lease at the end of each term for another term, not exceeding two 8006
years, but no renewal shall be effective until the effective date 8007
of an appropriation enacted by the general assembly from which the 8008
department of administrative services or the using or 8009
participating state agency may lawfully pay rentals under such 8010
lease. Any such leases, subleases, or agreements may set forth the 8011
responsibilities of the authority, state agencies, 8012
state-supported, or state-assisted institutions of higher 8013
education, or other governmental entities as to the financing, 8014
assessment, planning, acquisition, purchase, construction, 8015
reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, 8016
enlargement, improvement, alteration, subleasing, management, 8017
operation, maintenance, equipping, furnishing, repair, painting, 8018
decorating, and insuring of such capital facilities and other 8019
terms and conditions applicable thereto, and any other provisions 8020
mutually agreed upon for the purposes of this chapter. Promptly 8021
upon execution thereof, a signed or conformed copy of each such 8022
lease or sublease or agreement, and any supplement thereto, 8023
between the authority and a governmental entity shall be filed by 8024
the authority with the department of administrative services and 8025
the director of budget and management, and, promptly upon 8026
execution thereof, a signed or conformed copy of each such 8027
sublease or agreement between two governmental entities, not 8028
including the authority, shall be filed with the authority and the 8029
director of budget and management. For purposes of this section, 8030
the term "lease" may include, without limitation, any agreement 8031
between the department of administrative services or the state 8032
agency using or participating in such capital facilities and the 8033
authority with respect to any costs of capital facilities to be 8034
incurred prior to land acquisition.8035

       (E) The transfer of tangible personal property by lease under 8036
authority of this chapter is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. 8037
of the Revised Code. Any agreement of a governmental entity to 8038
make rental, use, or other payments or payment of purchase price, 8039
in installments or otherwise, or repayments to or on account of 8040
the authority and the obligations issued by the authority, shall 8041
not be deemed to constitute indebtedness, bonded or otherwise, or 8042
bonds, notes, or other evidence of indebtedness of such 8043
governmental entity for the purpose of Chapter 133. of the Revised 8044
Code or any other purpose; such leases and agreements requiring 8045
payments beyond the current fiscal year are continuing contracts 8046
for the purposes of sections 5705.41 and 5705.44 of the Revised 8047
Code.8048

       (F) Any agreement between the department of administrative 8049
services or the state agency using or participating in such 8050
capital facilities and the authority that includes provision for 8051
the use of space by such using or participating state agency or 8052
the department of administrative services, even if executed prior 8053
to land acquisition or completion of construction, improvements, 8054
or financing, shall be a lease for purposes of this chapter and 8055
for all other purposes. No such lease need be recorded or 8056
recordable for purposes of determining its validity or legal 8057
sufficiency.8058

       Sec. 153.01. (A) Whenever any building or structure for the 8059
use of the state or any institution supported in whole or in part 8060
by the state or in or upon the public works of the state that is 8061
administered by the director of administrative servicesOhio 8062
facilities construction commission or by any other state officer 8063
or state agency authorized by law to administer a project, 8064
including an educational institution listed in section 3345.50 of 8065
the Revised Code, is to be erected or constructed, whenever 8066
additions, alterations, or structural or other improvements are to 8067
be made, or whenever heating, cooling, or ventilating plants or 8068
other equipment is to be installed or material supplied therefor, 8069
the estimated cost of which amounts to two hundred thousand 8070
dollars or more, or the amount determined pursuant to section 8071
153.53 of the Revised Code or more, each officer, board, or other 8072
authority upon which devolves the duty of constructing, erecting, 8073
altering, or installing the same, referred to in sections 153.01 8074
to 153.60 of the Revised Code as the public authority, shall cause 8075
to be made, by an architect or engineer whose contract of 8076
employment shall be prepared and approved by the attorney general, 8077
the following:8078

       (1) Full and accurate plans, suitable for the use of 8079
mechanics and other builders in the construction, improvement, 8080
addition, alteration, or installation;8081

       (2) Details to scale and full-sized, so drawn and represented 8082
as to be easily understood;8083

       (3) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be 8084
performed, together with directions that will enable a competent 8085
mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford bidders all 8086
needful information;8087

       (4) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and 8088
the aggregate cost of those items of expense;8089

       (5) A life-cycle cost analysis;8090

       (6) Further data as may be required by the department of 8091
administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission.8092

       (B) Division (A) of this section shall not be required with 8093
respect to a construction management contract entered into with a 8094
construction manager at risk as described in section 9.334 of the 8095
Revised Code or a design-build contract entered into with a 8096
design-build firm as described in section 153.693 of the Revised 8097
Code. No such construction management contract or design-build 8098
contract shall be entered into until the contract and bond, if 8099
any, are submitted to the attorney general and the attorney 8100
general's approval certified thereon.8101

       Sec. 153.011.  (A) Except as provided in division (D) of this 8102
section, whenever any building or structure, including highway 8103
improvements, in whole or in part supported by state capital 8104
funds, including moneys from the education facilities trust fund, 8105
is to be erected or constructed, or whenever additions, 8106
alterations, or structural or other improvements are to be made, 8107
if any steel products are to be purchased for or provided in the 8108
construction, repair, or improvement project, only steel products 8109
as defined in division (F) of this section shall be purchased for 8110
or provided in the project.8111

       (B)(1) No person shall purchase or provide steel products in 8112
violation of division (A) of this section.8113

       (2) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 153.99 of the 8114
Revised Code, no person who purchases steel products in violation 8115
of division (A) of this section shall be held liable in a civil 8116
action commenced under division (C) of this section, or pay a 8117
civil penalty under division (B) of section 153.99 of the Revised 8118
Code, if that person can demonstrate the person's compliance with 8119
division (E) of this section.8120

       (C) Whenever the executive director of administrative 8121
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission has 8122
reasonable cause to believe that any person has purchased or 8123
provided steel products in violation of division (A) of this 8124
section, the executive director shall conduct an investigation to 8125
determine whether the person has purchased or provided or is 8126
purchasing or providing steel products in violation of division 8127
(A) of this section. Upon conducting the investigation, if the 8128
executive director finds that the person has purchased or provided 8129
or is purchasing or providing steel products in violation of 8130
division (A) of this section, the executive director shall request 8131
the attorney general to commence a civil action under this section 8132
against the person for violating division (A) of this section. The 8133
remedy provided in this section is concurrent with any other 8134
remedy provided in this chapter, and the existence or exercise of 8135
one remedy does not prevent the exercise of any other. Upon 8136
collection of the civil penalty under division (B) of section 8137
153.99 of the Revised Code, pursuant to an action authorized under 8138
this section, the attorney general shall pay the money collected 8139
to the treasurer of the board of education of the city, local, or 8140
exempted village school district and joint vocational school 8141
district, if one exists, in which the construction, repair, or 8142
improvement project for which the steel products used in violation 8143
of division (A) of this section is located. The treasurer shall 8144
deposit the civil penalty in equal amounts into the school 8145
district's general fund and the joint vocational school district's 8146
general fund. If a joint vocational school district does not exist 8147
where the violation occurred, then the entire sum of the civil 8148
penalty shall be deposited into the school district's general 8149
fund.8150

       (D) Pursuant to section 5525.21 of the Revised Code, the 8151
director of transportation may authorize the purchase or provision 8152
or both of a minimal amount of foreign steel products for use in 8153
contracts for public bridge projects.8154

       The executive director of administrative servicesthe Ohio 8155
facilities construction commission may waive the requirements of 8156
division (A) of this section if the executive director determines 8157
that either division (A) or (B) of section 5525.21 of the Revised 8158
Code is true in connection with a public bridge project. The 8159
executive director shall issue this determination in writing.8160

       (E) The following notice shall be included in boldface type 8161
and capital letters in all bid notifications and specifications 8162
between all parties to any contract authorized under Chapter 153. 8163
of the Revised Code or subject to this section and section 153.99 8164
of the Revised Code: "Domestic steel use requirements as specified 8165
in section 153.011 of the Revised Code apply to this project. 8166
Copies of section 153.011 of the Revised Code can be obtained from8167
any of the officesoffice of the department of administrative 8168
servicesOhio facilities construction commission."8169

       (F) As used in this section:8170

       (1) "Steel products" means products rolled, formed, shaped, 8171
drawn, extruded, forged, cast, fabricated or otherwise similarly 8172
processed, or processed by a combination of two or more of such 8173
operations, and used for load-bearing structural purposes, from 8174
steel made in the United States by the open hearth, basic oxygen, 8175
electric furnace, bessemer or other steel making process.8176

       (2) "United States" means the United States of America and 8177
includes all territory, continental or insular, subject to the 8178
jurisdiction of the United States.8179

       Sec. 153.013.  If a project for the construction, alteration, 8180
or other improvement of a building or structure is administered by 8181
the executive director of administrative servicesthe Ohio 8182
facilities construction commission or by another state agency 8183
authorized to administer a project under this chapter, if the 8184
project is located in a municipal corporation with a population of 8185
at least four hundred thousand that is in a county with a 8186
population of at least one million two hundred thousand, and if a 8187
political subdivision contributes at least one hundred thousand 8188
dollars to the project, then a contractor for the project shall 8189
comply with regulations or ordinances of the political subdivision 8190
that are in effect before July 1, 2009, and that specifically 8191
relate to the employment of residents and local businesses of the 8192
political subdivision in the performance of the work of the 8193
project, and such ordinances or regulations shall be included by 8194
reference unambiguously in the contract between the administering 8195
state agency and the contractor for the project.8196

       Sec. 153.02.  (A) The executive director of administrative 8197
services, on the director's own initiative or upon request of the 8198
Ohio school facilities construction commission, may debar a 8199
contractor from contract awards for public improvements as 8200
referred to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code or for projects 8201
as defined in section 3318.01 of the Revised Code, upon proof that 8202
the contractor has done any of the following:8203

        (1) Defaulted on a contract requiring the execution of a 8204
takeover agreement as set forth in division (B) of section 153.17 8205
of the Revised Code;8206

        (2) Knowingly failed during the course of a contract to 8207
maintain the coverage required by the bureau of workers' 8208
compensation;8209

        (3) Knowingly failed during the course of a contract to 8210
maintain the contractor's drug-free workplace program as required 8211
by the contract;8212

        (4) Knowingly failed during the course of a contract to 8213
maintain insurance required by the contract or otherwise by law, 8214
resulting in a substantial loss to the owner, as owner is referred 8215
to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code, or to the commission and 8216
school district board, as provided in division (F) of section 8217
3318.08 of the Revised Code;8218

        (5) Misrepresented the firm's qualifications in the selection 8219
process set forth in sections 153.65 to 153.71 or section 3318.10 8220
of the Revised Code;8221

        (6) Been convicted of a criminal offense related to the 8222
application for or performance of any public or private contract, 8223
including, but not limited to, embezzlement, theft, forgery, 8224
bribery, falsification or destruction of records, receiving stolen 8225
property, and any other offense that directly reflects on the 8226
contractor's business integrity;8227

        (7) Been convicted of a criminal offense under state or 8228
federal antitrust laws;8229

        (8) Deliberately or willfully submitted false or misleading 8230
information in connection with the application for or performance 8231
of a public contract;8232

        (9) Been debarred from bidding on or participating in a 8233
contract with any state or federal agency.8234

        (B) When the executive director reasonably believes that 8235
grounds for debarment exist, the executive director shall send the 8236
contractor a notice of proposed debarment indicating the grounds 8237
for the proposed debarment and the procedure for requesting a 8238
hearing on the proposed debarment. The hearing shall be conducted 8239
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the 8240
contractor does not respond with a request for a hearing in the 8241
manner specified in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 8242
executive director shall issue the debarment decision without a 8243
hearing and shall notify the contractor of the decision by 8244
certified mail, return receipt requested.8245

        (C) The executive director shall determine the length of the 8246
debarment period and may rescind the debarment at any time upon 8247
notification to the contractor. During the period of debarment, 8248
the contractor is not eligible to bid for or participate in any 8249
contract for a public improvement as referred to in section 153.01 8250
of the Revised Code or for a project as defined in section 3318.01 8251
of the Revised Code. After the debarment period expires, the 8252
contractor shall be eligible to bid for and participate in such 8253
contracts.8254

        (D) The executive director, through the office of the state 8255
architect, shall maintain a list of all contractors currently 8256
debarred under this section. Any governmental entity awarding a 8257
contract for construction of a public improvement or project may 8258
use a contractor's presence on the debarment list to determine 8259
whether a contractor is responsible or best under section 9.312 or 8260
any other section of the Revised Code in the award of a contract.8261

       Sec. 153.04.  The plans, details, bills of material, 8262
specifications of work, estimates of cost in detail and in the 8263
aggregate, life-cycle cost analysis, form of bid, bid guaranty, 8264
and other data that may be required shall be prepared on such 8265
material and in such manner and form as are prescribed by the 8266
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 8267
commission. The life-cycle costs shall be a primary consideration 8268
in the selection of a design. The same shall be deposited and 8269
safely kept in the office of the owner as defined in section 8270
153.01 of the Revised Code as the property of the state.8271

       Sec. 153.06.  After the proceedings required by sections 8272
153.01 and 153.04 of the Revised Code have been complied with, the 8273
owner referred to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code shall give 8274
public notice of the time and place when and where bids will be 8275
received for performing the labor and furnishing the materials of 8276
such construction, improvement, alteration, addition, or 8277
installation, and a contract awarded, except for materials 8278
manufactured by the state or labor supplied by a county department 8279
of job and family services that may enter into the same. The form 8280
of bid approved by the department of administrative servicesOhio 8281
facilities construction commission shall be used, and a bid shall 8282
be invalid and not considered unless such form is used without 8283
change, alteration, or addition. Bidders may be permitted to bid 8284
upon all the branches of work and materials to be furnished and 8285
supplied, or upon any thereof, or alternately upon all or any 8286
thereof.8287

       Sec. 153.07.  The notice provided for in section 153.06 of 8288
the Revised Code shall be published once each week for three 8289
consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation, or as 8290
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, in the county where 8291
the activity for which bids are submitted is to occur and in such 8292
other newspapers as ordered by the department of administrative 8293
servicesOhio facilities construction commission, the last 8294
publication to be at least eight days preceding the day for 8295
opening the bids, and in such form and with such phraseology as 8296
the departmentcommission orders. Copies of the plans, details, 8297
estimates of cost, and specifications shall be open to public 8298
inspection at all business hours between the day of the first 8299
publication and the day for opening the bids, at the office of the 8300
departmentcommission where the bids are received, and such other 8301
place as may be designated in such notice.8302

       Sec. 153.08.  On the day and at the place named in the notice 8303
provided for in section 153.06 of the Revised Code, the owner 8304
referred to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code shall open the 8305
bids and shall publicly, with the assistance of the architect or 8306
engineer, immediately proceed to tabulate the bids upon duplicate 8307
sheets. The public bid opening may be broadcast by electronic 8308
means pursuant to rules established by the director of 8309
administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission. A 8310
bid shall be invalid and not considered unless a bid guaranty 8311
meeting the requirements of section 153.54 of the Revised Code and 8312
in the form approved by the department of administrative services8313
commission is filed with such bid. For a bid that is not filed 8314
electronically, the bid and bid guaranty shall be filed in one 8315
sealed envelope. If the bid and bid guaranty are filed 8316
electronically, they must be received electronically before the 8317
deadline published pursuant to section 153.06 of the Revised Code. 8318
For all bids filed electronically, the original, unaltered bid 8319
guaranty shall be made available to the public authority after the 8320
public bid opening. After investigation, which shall be completed 8321
within thirty days, the contract shall be awarded by such owner to 8322
the lowest responsive and responsible bidder in accordance with 8323
section 9.312 of the Revised Code. 8324

       No contract shall be entered into until the industrial 8325
commission has certified that the person so awarded the contract 8326
has complied with sections 4123.01 to 4123.94 of the Revised Code, 8327
until, if the bidder so awarded the contract is a foreign 8328
corporation, the secretary of state has certified that such 8329
corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if 8330
the bidder so awarded the contract is a person nonresident of this 8331
state, such person has filed with the secretary of state a power 8332
of attorney designating the secretary of state as its agent for 8333
the purpose of accepting service of summons in any action brought 8334
under section 153.05 of the Revised Code or under sections 4123.01 8335
to 4123.94 of the Revised Code, and until the contract and bond, 8336
if any, are submitted to the attorney general and the attorney 8337
general's approval certified thereon.8338

       No contract shall be entered into unless the bidder possesses 8339
a valid certificate of compliance with affirmative action programs 8340
issued pursuant to section 9.47 of the Revised Code and dated no 8341
earlier than one hundred eighty days prior to the date fixed for 8342
the opening of bids for a particular project.8343

       Sec. 153.09.  If in the opinion of the owner referred to in 8344
section 153.01 of the Revised Code, the award of a contract to the 8345
lowest responsive and responsible bidder is not in the best 8346
interests of the state, the owner may accept another bid so opened 8347
or reject all bids, and advertise for other bids. Such 8348
advertisement shall be for such time, in such form, and in such 8349
newspaper as the departmentOhio facilities construction 8350
commission directs. All contracts shall provide that such owner 8351
may make any change in work or materials on the conditions and in 8352
the manner provided in sections 153.10 and 153.11 of the Revised 8353
Code.8354

       Sec. 153.11.  Whenever the change referred to in section 8355
153.10 of the Revised Code is approved by the owner as defined in 8356
section 153.01 of the Revised Code, accepted in writing by the 8357
contractor, and filed, the same shall be considered as being a 8358
part of the original contract, and the bond theretofore executed 8359
shall be heldincreased or decreased accordingly to include and 8360
cover the samechange in the contract.8361

       Sec. 153.12.  (A) With respect to award of any contract for 8362
the construction, reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, 8363
alteration, repair, painting, or decoration of a public 8364
improvement made by the state, or any county, township, municipal 8365
corporation, school district, or other political subdivision, or 8366
any public board, commission, authority, instrumentality, or 8367
special purpose district of or in the state or a political 8368
subdivision or that is authorized by state law, the award, and 8369
execution of the contract, shall be made within sixty days after 8370
the date on which the bids are opened. The failure to award and 8371
execute the contract within sixty days invalidates the entire bid 8372
proceedings and all bids submitted, unless the time for awarding 8373
and executing the contract is extended by mutual consent of the 8374
owner or its representatives and the bidder whose bid the owner 8375
accepts and with respect to whom the owner subsequently awards and 8376
executes a contract. The public owners referred to in this section 8377
shall include, in the plans and specifications for the project for 8378
which bids are solicited, the estimate of cost. The bid for which 8379
the award is to be made shall be opened at the time and place 8380
named in the advertisement for bids, unless extended by the owner 8381
or its representative or unless, within seventy-two hours prior to 8382
the published time for the opening of bids, excluding Saturdays, 8383
Sundays, and legal holidays, any modification of the plans or 8384
specifications and estimates of cost for the project for which 8385
bids are solicited is issued and mailed or otherwise furnished to 8386
persons who have obtained plans or specifications for the project, 8387
for which the time for opening of bids shall be extended one week, 8388
with no further advertising of bids required. The contractor, upon 8389
request, is entitled to a notice to proceed with the work by the 8390
owner or its representative upon execution of the contract. No 8391
contract to which this section applies shall be entered into if 8392
the price of the contract, or, if the project involves multiple 8393
contracts where the total price of all contracts for the project, 8394
is in excess of ten per cent above the entire estimate thereof, 8395
nor shall the entire cost of the construction, reconstruction, 8396
repair, painting, decorating, improvement, alteration, addition, 8397
or installation, including changes and estimates of expenses for 8398
architects or engineers, exceed in the aggregate the amount 8399
authorized by law.8400

       The unit or lump sum price stated in the contract shall be 8401
used in determining the amount to be paid and shall constitute 8402
full and final compensation for all the work.8403

       Partial payment to the contractor for work performed under 8404
the lump sum price shall be based on a schedule prepared by the 8405
contractor and approved by the architect or engineer who shall 8406
apportion the lump sum price to the major components entering into 8407
or forming a part of the work under the lump sum price.8408

       Partial payments to the contractor for labor performed under 8409
either a unit or lump sum price contract shall be made at the rate 8410
of ninety-two per cent of the estimates prepared by the contractor 8411
and approved by the architect or engineer. All labor performed 8412
after the job is fifty per cent completed shall be paid for at the 8413
rate of one hundred per cent of the estimates submitted by the 8414
contractor and approved by the architect or engineer.8415

       The amounts and time of payments of any public improvements 8416
contract made by the state or any county, township, municipal 8417
corporation, school district, or other political subdivision, or 8418
any public board, commission, authority, instrumentality, or 8419
special purpose district of or in the state or a political 8420
subdivision or that is authorized by state law, except as provided 8421
in section 5525.19 of the Revised Code, shall be governed by this 8422
section and sections 153.13 and 153.14 of the Revised Code. If the 8423
time for awarding the contract is extended by mutual consent, or 8424
if the owner or its representative fails to issue a timely notice 8425
to proceed as required by this section, the owner or its 8426
representative shall issue a change order authorizing delay costs 8427
to the contractor, which does not invalidate the contract. The 8428
amount of such a change order to the owner shall be determined in 8429
accordance with the provisions of the contract for change orders 8430
or force accounts or, if no such provision is set forth in the 8431
contract, the cost to the owner shall be the contractor's actual 8432
costs including wages, labor costs other than wages, wage taxes, 8433
materials, equipment costs and rentals, insurance, and 8434
subcontracts attributable to the delay, plus a reasonable sum for 8435
overhead. In the event of a dispute between the owner and the 8436
contractor concerning such change order, procedures shall be 8437
commenced under the applicable terms of the contract, or, if the 8438
contract contains no provision for resolving the dispute, it shall 8439
be resolved pursuant to the procedures for arbitration in Chapter 8440
2711. of the Revised Code, except as provided in division (B) of 8441
this section. Nothing in this division shall be construed as a 8442
limitation upon the authority of the director of transportation 8443
granted in Chapter 5525. of the Revised Code.8444

       (B) If a dispute arises between the state and a contractor 8445
concerning the terms of a public improvement contract let by the 8446
state or concerning a breach of the contract, and after 8447
administrative remedies provided for in such contract and any 8448
alternative dispute resolution procedures provided in accordance 8449
with guidelines established by the executive director of 8450
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 8451
commission are exhausted, the contractor may bring an action to 8452
the court of claims in accordance with Chapter 2743. of the 8453
Revised Code. The state or the contractor may request the chief 8454
justice of the supreme court to appoint a referee or panel of 8455
referees in accordance with division (C)(3) of section 2743.03 of 8456
the Revised Code. As used in this division, "dispute" means a 8457
disagreement between the state and the contractor concerning a 8458
public improvement contract let by the state.8459

       Sec. 153.14.  For the construction of those projects, 8460
improvements, and public buildings over which the director of 8461
administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission8462
has general supervision pursuant to section 123.01123.21 of the 8463
Revised Code, the estimates referred to in section 153.13 of the 8464
Revised Code shall be filed with the executive director by the 8465
owner referred to in section 153.01 or 153.12 of the Revised Code. 8466
Upon completion of a project referred to in section 153.13 of the 8467
Revised Code or any divisible part thereof, the maintenance and 8468
repair of such project or divisible part shall be assumed by the 8469
owner referred to in section 153.01 or 153.12 of the Revised Code.8470

       In addition to all other payments on account of work 8471
performed, there shall be allowed by the owner referred to in 8472
section 153.01 or 153.12 of the Revised Code and paid to the 8473
contractor a sum at the rate of ninety-two per cent of the invoice 8474
costs, not to exceed the bid price in a unit price contract, of 8475
material delivered on the site of the work, or a railroad station, 8476
siding, or other point in the vicinity of the work, or other 8477
approved storage site, provided such materials have been inspected 8478
and found to meet the specifications. The balance of such invoiced 8479
value shall be paid when such material is incorporated into and 8480
becomes a part of such building, construction, addition, 8481
improvement, alteration, or installation. When an estimate is 8482
allowed on account of material delivered on the site of the work 8483
or in the vicinity thereof or under the possession and control of 8484
the contractor but not yet incorporated therein, such material 8485
shall become the property of the owner under the contract, but if 8486
such material is stolen, destroyed, or damaged by casualty before 8487
being used, the contractor shall be required to replace it at his8488
the contractor's own expense.8489

       When the rate of work and amounts involved are so large that 8490
it is considered advisable by the owner or contractor, estimates 8491
and payments shall be made twice each month.8492

       Payment on approved estimates filed with the owner or its 8493
representative shall be made within thirty days. Upon the failure 8494
of the owner or its representative to make such payments within 8495
thirty days, or upon an unauthorized withholding of retainage, 8496
there shall be allowed to the contractor, in addition to any other 8497
remedies allowed by law, interest on such moneys not paid within 8498
thirty days. Interest on the unauthorized withholding of retainage 8499
shall be in addition to any interest earned in the escrow account 8500
set forth in section 153.13 of the Revised Code. The rate of such 8501
interest shall be the average of the prime rate established at the 8502
commercial banks in the city of over one hundred thousand 8503
population that is nearest the construction project. Nothing in 8504
this section shall be construed as a limitation upon the authority 8505
of the director of transportation granted in Chapter 5525. of the 8506
Revised Code.8507

       Sec. 153.16.  (A) The executive director of administrative 8508
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission shall 8509
establish policy and procedure guidelines for contract documents 8510
in conjunction with the administration of public works contracts 8511
that the state or any institution supported in whole or in part by 8512
the state enters into for any project subject to sections 153.01 8513
to 153.11 of the Revised Code.8514

       (B) Notwithstanding any contract provision to the contrary, 8515
any claim submitted under a public works contract that the state 8516
or any institution supported in whole or in part by the state 8517
enters into for any project subject to sections 153.01 to 153.11 8518
of the Revised Code shall be resolved within one hundred twenty 8519
days. After the end of this one hundred twenty-day period, the 8520
contractor shall be deemed to have exhausted all administrative 8521
remedies for purposes of division (B) of section 153.12 of the 8522
Revised Code.8523

       Sec. 153.17.  (A) When in the opinion of the owner referred 8524
to in section 153.01 of the Revised Code, the work under any 8525
contract made under any law of the state is neglected by the 8526
contractor or such work is not prosecuted with the diligence and 8527
force specified or intended in the contract, such owner may make 8528
requisition upon the contractor for such additional specific force 8529
or materials to be brought into the work under such contract or to 8530
remove improper materials from the grounds as in their judgment 8531
the contract and its faithful fulfillment requires.8532

       Not less than five days' notice in writing of such action 8533
shall be served upon the contractor or the contractor's agent in 8534
charge of the work. If the contractor fails to comply with such 8535
requisition within fifteen days, such owner with the written 8536
consent of the department of administrative servicesOhio 8537
facilities construction commission, may employ upon the work the 8538
additional force, or supply the special materials or such part of 8539
either as is considered proper, and may remove improper materials 8540
from the grounds.8541

       (B) When the original contractor has defaulted on a contract 8542
and the surety has declined to take over the project, the owner 8543
may contract with one or more takeover contractors to complete 8544
work that was not finished because of the default of the original 8545
contractor. The owner may enter into a contract with a takeover 8546
contractor without competitive bidding or controlling board 8547
approval. Upon execution of a takeover contract, the owner shall 8548
notify the director of budget and management.8549

       When the owner has taken over a project after a default has 8550
occurred, any moneys that the owner receives from the surety as a 8551
settlement for completion of the project shall be deposited in the 8552
original fund from which the capital appropriation for the project 8553
was made. The executive director, without controlling board 8554
approval, may authorize specified additional uses for the moneys 8555
related to completion of the project and may increase the 8556
appropriation authority in the appropriation line item used to 8557
fund the project by an amount equal to the moneys received from 8558
the surety.8559

       Sec. 153.502. (A) Each construction manager at risk and 8560
design-build firm shall establish criteria by which it will 8561
prequalify prospective bidders on subcontracts awarded for work to 8562
be performed under the construction management or design-build 8563
contract. The criteria established by a construction manager at 8564
risk or design-build firm shall be subject to the approval of the 8565
public authority involved in the project and shall be consistent 8566
with the rules adopted by the department of administrative 8567
servicesOhio facilities construction commission pursuant to 8568
section 153.503 of the Revised Code. 8569

       (B) For each subcontract to be awarded, the construction 8570
manager at risk or design-build firm shall identify at least three 8571
prospective bidders that are prequalified to bid on that 8572
subcontract, except that the construction manager at risk or 8573
design-build firm shall identify fewer than three if the 8574
construction manager at risk or design-build firm establishes to 8575
the satisfaction of the public authority that fewer than three 8576
prequalified bidders are available. The public authority shall 8577
verify that each prospective bidder meets the prequalification 8578
criteria and may eliminate any bidder it determines is not 8579
qualified. 8580

       (C) Once the prospective bidders are prequalified and found 8581
acceptable by the public authority, the construction manager at 8582
risk or design-build firm shall solicit proposals from each of 8583
those bidders. The solicitation and selection of a subcontractor 8584
shall be conducted under an open book pricing method. As used in 8585
this division, "open book pricing method" has the same meaning as 8586
in section 9.33 of the Revised Code, in the case of a construction 8587
manager at risk, and the same meaning as in section 153.65 of the 8588
Revised Code, in the case of a design-build firm.8589

       (D) A construction manager at risk or design-build firm shall 8590
not be required to award a subcontract to a low bidder.8591

       Sec. 153.503. The department of administrative servicesOhio 8592
facilities construction commission, pursuant to Chapter 119. of 8593
the Revised Code and not later than June 30, 2012, shall adopt 8594
rules to do all of the following:8595

       (A) Prescribe the procedures and criteria for determining the 8596
best value selection of a construction manager at risk or 8597
design-build firm;8598

       (B) In consultation with the state architect's office, set8599
Set forth standards to be followed by construction managers at 8600
risk and design-build firms when establishing prequalification 8601
criteria pursuant to section 153.502 of the Revised Code;8602

       (C) Prescribe the form for the contract documents to be used 8603
by a construction manager at risk, design-build firm, or general 8604
contractor when entering into a subcontract;8605

       (D) Prescribe the form for the contract documents to be used 8606
by a public authority when entering into a contract with a 8607
construction manager at risk or design-build firm. 8608

       Sec. 153.53.  (A) As used in this section, "rate of 8609
inflation" has the same meaning as in section 107.032 of the 8610
Revised Code.8611

       (B) Five years after the effective date of this section8612
September 29, 2011, and every five years thereafter, the executive8613
director of administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities 8614
construction commission shall evaluate the monetary threshold 8615
specified in section 153.01 of the Revised Code and adopt rules 8616
adjusting that amount based on the average rate of inflation 8617
during each of the previous five years immediately preceding such 8618
adjustment.8619

       Sec. 154.01.  As used in this chapter:8620

       (A) "Commission" means the Ohio public facilities commission 8621
created in section 151.02 of the Revised Code.8622

       (B) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 8623
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 8624
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.8625

       (C) "Bond proceedings" means the order or orders, resolution 8626
or resolutions, trust agreement, indenture, lease, and other 8627
agreements, amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 8628
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms and 8629
conditions applicable to, or providing for the security of, 8630
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 8631
and the provisions contained in such obligations.8632

       (D) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and officers, 8633
boards, commissions, departments, divisions, or other units or 8634
agencies of the state.8635

       (E) "Governmental agency" means state agencies, state 8636
supported and assisted institutions of higher education, municipal 8637
corporations, counties, townships, school districts, and any other 8638
political subdivision or special district in this state 8639
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 8640
indicated, also means the United States or any department, 8641
division, or agency thereof, and any agency, commission, or 8642
authority established pursuant to an interstate compact or 8643
agreement.8644

       (F) "Institutions of higher education" and "state supported 8645
or state assisted institutions of higher education" means the 8646
state universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised 8647
Code, the northeast Ohio medical university, state universities or 8648
colleges at any time created, community college districts, 8649
university branch districts, and technical college districts at 8650
any time established or operating under Chapter 3354., 3355., or 8651
3357. of the Revised Code, and other institutions for education, 8652
including technical education, beyond the high school, receiving 8653
state support or assistance for their expenses of operation.8654

       (G) "Governing body" means:8655

       (1) In the case of institutions of higher education, the 8656
board of trustees, board of directors, commission, or other body 8657
vested by law with the general management, conduct, and control of 8658
one or more institutions of higher education;8659

       (2) In the case of a county, the board of county 8660
commissioners or other legislative body; in the case of a 8661
municipal corporation, the council or other legislative body; in 8662
the case of a township, the board of township trustees; in the 8663
case of a school district, the board of education;8664

       (3) In the case of any other governmental agency, the 8665
officer, board, commission, authority or other body having the 8666
general management thereof or having jurisdiction or authority in 8667
the particular circumstances.8668

       (H) "Person" means any person, firm, partnership, 8669
association, or corporation.8670

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 8671
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 8672
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 8673
by the state on obligations. If not prohibited by the applicable 8674
bond proceedings, bond service charges may include costs relating 8675
to credit enhancement facilities that are related to and 8676
represent, or are intended to provide a source of payment of or 8677
limitation on, other bond service charges.8678

       (J) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 8679
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 8680
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 8681
combination of the foregoing, to serve the general purposes for 8682
which the issuing authority is authorized to issue obligations 8683
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, including, but not 8684
limited to, drives, roadways, parking facilities, walks, lighting, 8685
machinery, furnishings, utilities, landscaping, wharves, docks, 8686
piers, reservoirs, dams, tunnels, bridges, retaining walls, 8687
riprap, culverts, ditches, channels, watercourses, retention 8688
basins, standpipes and water storage facilities, waste treatment 8689
and disposal facilities, heating, air conditioning and 8690
communications facilities, inns, lodges, cabins, camping sites, 8691
golf courses, boat and bathing facilities, athletic and 8692
recreational facilities, and site improvements.8693

       (K) "Costs of capital facilities" means the costs of 8694
acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, 8695
remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or 8696
furnishing capital facilities, and the financing thereof, 8697
including the cost of clearance and preparation of the site and of 8698
any land to be used in connection with capital facilities, the 8699
cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, 8700
all related direct administrative expenses and allocable portions 8701
of direct costs of the commission or issuing authority and 8702
department of administrative services, or other designees of the 8703
commission under section 154.17 of the Revised Code, cost of 8704
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 8705
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 8706
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 8707
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 8708
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 8709
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations, 8710
including but not limited to, interest from the date thereofof 8711
their issuance to the time when interest is to be covered from 8712
sources other than proceeds of obligations, amounts necessary to 8713
establish reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of 8714
audits, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied by or 8715
borrowed from any governmental agency, whether to or by the 8716
commission or others, from whatever source provided, for the 8717
payment of any item or items of cost of the capital facilities, 8718
any share of the cost undertaken by the commission pursuant to 8719
arrangements made with governmental agencies under division (H) of 8720
section 154.06 of the Revised Code, and all other expenses 8721
necessary or incident to planning or determining feasibility or 8722
practicability with respect to capital facilities, and such other 8723
expenses as may be necessary or incident to the acquisition, 8724
construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, 8725
renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and furnishing of 8726
capital facilities, the financing thereof and the placing of the 8727
same in use and operation, including any one, part of, or 8728
combination of such classes of costs and expenses.8729

       (L) "Public service facilities" means inns, lodges, hotels, 8730
cabins, camping sites, scenic trails, picnic sites, restaurants, 8731
commissaries, golf courses, boating and bathing facilities and 8732
other similar facilities in state parks.8733

       (M) "State parks" means:8734

       (1) State reservoirs described and identified in section 8735
1541.06 of the Revised Code;8736

       (2) All lands or interests therein of the state identified as 8737
administered by the division of parks and recreation in the 8738
"inventory of state owned lands administered by the department of 8739
natural resources as of June 1, 1963," as recorded in the journal 8740
of the director, which inventory was prepared by the real estate 8741
section of the department and is supported by maps now on file in 8742
said real estate section;8743

       (3) All lands or interests in lands of the state designated 8744
after June 1, 1963, as state parks in the journal of the director 8745
with the approval of the recreation and resources council.8746

       State parks do not include any lands or interest in lands of 8747
the state administered jointly by two or more divisions of the 8748
department of natural resources. The designation of lands as state 8749
parks under divisions (M)(1) to (3) of this section is conclusive 8750
and such lands shall be under the control of and administered by 8751
the division of parks and recreation. No order or proceeding 8752
designating lands as state parks or park purchase areas is subject 8753
to any appeal or review by any officer, board, commission, or 8754
court.8755

       (N) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund created for 8756
and pledged to the payment of bond service charges under section 8757
154.20, 154.21, 154.22, or 154.23 of the Revised Code, including 8758
all moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, 8759
credited and to be credited thereto.8760

       (O) "Improvement fund" means the applicable fund created for 8761
the payment of costs of capital facilities under section 154.20, 8762
154.21, 154.22, or 3383.09 of the Revised Code, including all 8763
moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, credited 8764
and to be credited thereto.8765

       (P) "Special funds" or "funds" means, except where the 8766
context does not permit, the bond service funds, the improvements 8767
funds, and any other funds for similar or different purposes 8768
created under bond proceedings, including all moneys and 8769
investments, and earnings from investments, credited and to be 8770
credited thereto.8771

       (Q) "Year" unless the context indicates a different meaning 8772
or intent, means a calendar year beginning on the first day of 8773
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December.8774

       (R) "Fiscal year" means the period of twelve months beginning 8775
on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.8776

       (S) "Issuing authority" means the treasurer of state or the 8777
officer or employee who by law performs the functions of that 8778
office.8779

       (T) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 8780
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.8781

       (U) "Ohio cultural facility" and "Ohio sports facility" have 8782
the same meanings as in section 3383.01 of the Revised Code.8783

       Sec. 167.04.  (A) The regional council of governments shall 8784
adopt by-laws, by a majority vote of its members, designating the 8785
officers of the council and the method of their selection, 8786
creating a governing board that may act for the council as 8787
provided in the by-laws, and providing for the conduct of its 8788
business.8789

       (B) The by-laws of the regional council of governments shall 8790
provide for the appointment of a fiscal officer, who may hold any 8791
other office or employment with the council, and who shall 8792
receive, deposit, invest, and disburse the funds of the council in 8793
the manner authorized by the by-laws or action by the council.8794

       (C) The by-laws of a regional council of governments the 8795
members of which include, under sections 167.01 and 167.02 of the 8796
Revised Code, at least eight counties may include a provision 8797
authorizing member attendance and voting at council meetings 8798
either in person or by proxy.8799

       (D)(1) Within ten business days after forming a regional 8800
council of governments, the officers of the council shall notify 8801
the auditor of state of the regional council's formation and shall 8802
provide on a form prescribed by the auditor of state the 8803
information regarding the regional council that the auditor of 8804
state considers necessary.8805

       (2) As used in this division, "business day" means a day of 8806
the week, excluding Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday as 8807
defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.8808

       Sec. 171.021. Notwithstanding division (C) of section 121.22 8809
of the Revised Code, rules adopted by the Ohio retirement study 8810
council regarding meetings of the council shall prohibit a member 8811
from voting on a matter before the council except while sitting in 8812
a meeting of the council, unless the member shall have first been 8813
present and recorded as such during that meeting before the vote 8814
is taken, and by motion the roll call is continued for a vote by 8815
any member who is temporarily absent from the meeting until the 8816
adjournment thereof, which shall be not later than twelve noon one 8817
day following the meeting.8818

       Sec. 173.14.  As used in sections 173.14 to 173.27 of the 8819
Revised Code:8820

       (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of 8821
this section, "long-term care facility" includes any residential 8822
facility that provides personal care services for more than 8823
twenty-four hours for twoone or more unrelated adults, including 8824
all of the following:8825

       (a) A "nursing home," "residential care facility," or "home 8826
for the aging" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;8827

       (b) A facility authorized to provide extended care services 8828
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 8829
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 8830
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 8831
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 8832
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 8833
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 8834
C.F.R. 412.23(e);8835

       (c) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 8836
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;8837

       (d) An "adult careA residential facility" as defined in8838
licensed under section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that 8839
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 8840
for three to sixteen unrelated adults or accommodations and 8841
personal care services for only one or two adults who are 8842
recipients under the residential state supplement program;8843

       (e) A facility approved by the veterans administration under 8844
section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 8845
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 8846
the placement and care of veterans;8847

       (f) An adult foster home certified under section 5119.692 of 8848
the Revised Code.8849

       (2) "Long-term care facility" does not include a "residential 8850
facility" as defined in section 5119.22 of the Revised Code or a 8851
"residential facility" as defined inlicensed under section 8852
5123.19 of the Revised Code.8853

       (B) "Resident" means a resident of a long-term care facility 8854
and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or 8855
deceased resident of a long-term care facility.8856

       (C) "Community-based long-term care services" means health 8857
and social services provided to persons in their own homes or in 8858
community care settings, and includes any of the following:8859

       (1) Case management;8860

       (2) Home health care;8861

       (3) Homemaker services;8862

       (4) Chore services;8863

       (5) Respite care;8864

       (6) Adult day care;8865

       (7) Home-delivered meals;8866

       (8) Personal care;8867

       (9) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy;8868

       (10) Transportation;8869

       (11) Any other health and social services provided to persons 8870
that allow them to retain their independence in their own homes or 8871
in community care settings.8872

       (D) "Recipient" means a recipient of community-based 8873
long-term care services and, where appropriate, includes a 8874
prospective, previous, or deceased recipient of community-based 8875
long-term care services.8876

       (E) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 8877
who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of a 8878
resident or a recipient.8879

       (F) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in 8880
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.8881

       (G) "Regional long-term care ombudsperson program" means an 8882
entity, either public or private and nonprofit, designated as a 8883
regional long-term care ombudsperson program by the state 8884
long-term care ombudsperson.8885

       (H) "Representative of the office of the state long-term care 8886
ombudsperson program" means the state long-term care ombudsperson 8887
or a member of the ombudsperson's staff, or a person certified as 8888
a representative of the office under section 173.21 of the Revised 8889
Code.8890

       (I) "Area agency on aging" means an area agency on aging 8891
established under the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 8892
42 U.S.C.A. 3001, as amended.8893

       Sec. 173.21.  (A) The office of the state long-term care 8894
ombudsperson program, through the state long-term care 8895
ombudsperson and the regional long-term care ombudsperson 8896
programs, shall require each representative of the office to 8897
complete a training and certification program in accordance with 8898
this section and to meet the continuing education requirements 8899
established under this section.8900

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules under Chapter 8901
119. of the Revised Code specifying the content of training 8902
programs for representatives of the office of the state long-term 8903
care ombudsperson program. Training for representatives other than 8904
those who are volunteers providing services through regional 8905
long-term care ombudsperson programs shall include instruction 8906
regarding federal, state, and local laws, rules, and policies on 8907
long-term care facilities and community-based long-term care 8908
services; investigative techniques; and other topics considered 8909
relevant by the department and shall consist of the following:8910

       (1) A minimum of forty clock hours of basic instruction, 8911
which shall be completed before the trainee is permitted to handle 8912
complaints without the supervision of a representative of the 8913
office certified under this section;8914

       (2) An additional sixty clock hours of instruction, which 8915
shall be completed within the first fifteen months of employment;8916

       (3) An internship of twenty clock hours, which shall be 8917
completed within the first twenty-four months of employment, 8918
including instruction in, and observation of, basic nursing care 8919
and long-term care provider operations and procedures. The 8920
internship shall be performed at a site that has been approved as 8921
an internship site by the state long-term care ombudsperson.8922

       (4) One of the following, which shall be completed within the 8923
first twenty-four months of employment:8924

       (a) Observation of a survey conducted by the director of 8925
health to certify a facility to receive funds under sections 8926
5111.20 to 5111.32 of the Revised Code;8927

       (b) Observation of an inspection conducted by the director of 8928
mental health to license an adult carea residential facility 8929
under section 5119.735119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 8930
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 8931
to sixteen unrelated adults.8932

       (5) Any other training considered appropriate by the 8933
department.8934

       (C) Persons who for a period of at least six months prior to 8935
June 11, 1990, served as ombudsmen through the long-term care 8936
ombudsperson program established by the department of aging under 8937
division (M) of section 173.01 of the Revised Code shall not be 8938
required to complete a training program. These persons and persons 8939
who complete a training program shall take an examination 8940
administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a 8941
passing score, the person shall be certified by the department as 8942
a representative of the office. The department shall issue the 8943
person an identification card, which the representative shall show 8944
at the request of any person with whom the representative deals 8945
while performing the representative's duties and which shall be 8946
surrendered at the time the representative separates from the 8947
office.8948

       (D) The state ombudsperson and each regional program shall 8949
conduct training programs for volunteers on their respective 8950
staffs in accordance with the rules of the department of aging 8951
adopted under division (B) of this section. Training programs may 8952
be conducted that train volunteers to complete some, but not all, 8953
of the duties of a representative of the office. Each regional 8954
office shall bear the cost of training its representatives who are 8955
volunteers. On completion of a training program, the 8956
representative shall take an examination administered by the 8957
department of aging. On attainment of a passing score, a volunteer 8958
shall be certified by the department as a representative 8959
authorized to perform services specified in the certification. The 8960
department shall issue an identification card, which the 8961
representative shall show at the request of any person with whom 8962
the representative deals while performing the representative's 8963
duties and which shall be surrendered at the time the 8964
representative separates from the office. Except as a supervised 8965
part of a training program, no volunteer shall perform any duty 8966
unless he is certified as a representative having received 8967
appropriate training for that duty.8968

       (E) The state ombudsperson shall provide technical assistance 8969
to regional programs conducting training programs for volunteers 8970
and shall monitor the training programs.8971

       (F) Prior to scheduling an observation of a certification 8972
survey or licensing inspection for purposes of division (B)(4) of 8973
this section, the state ombudsperson shall obtain permission to 8974
have the survey or inspection observed from both the director of 8975
health and the long-term care facility at which the survey or 8976
inspection is to take place.8977

       (G) The department of aging shall establish continuing 8978
education requirements for representatives of the office.8979

       Sec. 173.23.  (A) Representatives of the office of the state 8980
long-term care ombudsperson program are immune from civil or 8981
criminal liability for any action taken in the good faith 8982
performance of their official duties under sections 173.14 to 8983
173.26 of the Revised Code. The department of aging shall ensure 8984
that adequate legal counsel is available to the office of the 8985
state long-term care ombudsperson program for advice and 8986
consultation and that legal representation is provided to any 8987
representative of the office against whom any legal action is 8988
brought in connection with the representative's official duties 8989
under sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code.8990

       (B) A person acting in good faith is immune from civil or 8991
criminal liability incident to any of the following: providing 8992
information to the office, participating in registration of a 8993
complaint with the office, participating in investigation of a 8994
complaint by the office, or participating in an administrative or 8995
judicial proceeding resulting from a complaint.8996

       (C) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint with 8997
the office, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 8998
complaint previously registered, when the statement is made with 8999
purpose to incriminate another.9000

       (D) The attorney general shall provide legal counsel to the 9001
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program and to the 9002
regional long-term care ombudsperson programs. The attorney 9003
general shall represent any representative of the office and any 9004
representative of a regional program against whom any legal action 9005
is brought in connection with the representative's official duties 9006
under sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code.9007

       Sec. 173.26.  (A) Each of the following facilities shall 9008
annually pay to the department of aging six dollars for each bed 9009
maintained by the facility for use by a resident during any part 9010
of the previous year:9011

       (1) Nursing homes, residential care facilities, and homes for 9012
the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;9013

       (2) Facilities authorized to provide extended care services 9014
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 9015
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 9016
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 9017
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 9018
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 9019
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 9020
C.F.R. 412.23(e);9021

       (3) County homes and district homes operated pursuant to 9022
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;9023

       (4) Adult careResidential facilities as defined inlicensed 9024
under section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provide 9025
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 9026
to sixteen unrelated adults;9027

       (5) Facilities approved by the Veterans Administration under 9028
Section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 9029
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 9030
the placement and care of veterans.9031

       The department shall, by rule adopted in accordance with 9032
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish deadlines for payments 9033
required by this section. A facility that fails, within ninety 9034
days after the established deadline, to pay a payment required by 9035
this section shall be assessed at two times the original invoiced 9036
payment.9037

       (B) All money collected under this section shall be deposited 9038
in the state treasury to the credit of the office of the state 9039
long-term care ombudsperson program fund, which is hereby created. 9040
Money credited to the fund shall be used solely to pay the costs 9041
of operating the regional long-term care ombudsperson programs.9042

       (C) The state long-term care ombudsperson and the regional 9043
programs may solicit and receive contributions to support the 9044
operation of the office or a regional program, except that no 9045
contribution shall be solicited or accepted that would interfere 9046
with the independence or objectivity of the office or program.9047

       Sec. 173.27.  (A) As used in this section:9048

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 9049
consideration for employment with the office of the state 9050
long-term care ombudsperson program in a full-time, part-time, or 9051
temporary position that involves providing ombudsperson services 9052
to residents and recipients. "Applicant" includes, but is not 9053
limited to, a person who is under final consideration for 9054
employment as the state long-term care ombudsperson or the head of 9055
a regional long-term care ombudsperson program. "Applicant" does 9056
not include a person who providesseeking to provide ombudsperson 9057
services to residents and recipients as a volunteer without 9058
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 9059
than reimbursement for actual expenses.9060

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 9061
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.9062

       (3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:9063

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 9064
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 9065
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 9066
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 9067
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 9068
2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 9069
2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 9070
2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 9071
2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 9072
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 9073
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 9074
2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 9075
2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 9076
2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 9077
2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 9078
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 9079
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 9080
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;9081

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 9082
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;9083

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 9084
existed prior to July 1, 1996;9085

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 9086
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 9087
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 9088
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;9089

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 9090
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 9091
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 9092
divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.9093

       (4) "Employee" means a person employed by the office of the 9094
state long-term care ombudsperson program in a full-time, 9095
part-time, or temporary position that involves providing 9096
ombudsperson services to residents and recipients. "Employee" 9097
includes the person employed as the state long-term care 9098
ombudsperson and a person employed as the head of a regional 9099
long-term care ombudsperson program. "Employee" does not include a 9100
person who provides ombudsperson services to residents and 9101
recipients as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to 9102
receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for 9103
actual expenses.9104

       (5) "Responsible entity" means the following:9105

       (a) In the case of an applicant who is under final 9106
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 9107
ombudsperson or the person employed as the state long-term care 9108
ombudsperson, the director of aging;9109

       (b) In the case of any other applicant or employee, the state 9110
long-term care ombudsperson or the ombudsperson's designee.9111

       (B) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9112
program may not employ an applicant or continue to employ an 9113
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsperson 9114
services to residents and recipients if any of the following 9115
apply:9116

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 9117
section reveals any of the following:9118

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 9119
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 9120
section;9121

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 9122
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 9123
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 9124
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 9125
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 9126
such a resident;9127

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 9128
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 9129
section and the rules prohibit the office from employing an 9130
applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a 9131
database in a position that involves providing ombudsperson 9132
services to residents and recipients.9133

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 9134
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 9135
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 9136
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 9137
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 9138
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 9139
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.9140

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 9141
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 9142
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 9143
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 9144
for a disqualifying offense.9145

       (C) The responsible entity shall inform each applicant of 9146
both of the following at the time of the applicant's initial 9147
application for employment in a position that involves providing 9148
ombudsperson services to residents and recipients:9149

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 9150
this section will be conducted to determine whether the office of 9151
the state long-term care ombudsperson program is prohibited by 9152
division (B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in 9153
the position;9154

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 9155
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 9156
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 9157
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 9158
impressions as part of the criminal records check.9159

       (D) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by the 9160
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program in a 9161
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 9162
residents and recipients, the responsible entity shall conduct a 9163
database review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted 9164
under this section. If rules adopted under this section so 9165
require, the responsible entity shall conduct a database review of 9166
an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of the 9167
office's continuing to employ the employee in a position that 9168
involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and 9169
recipients. A database review shall determine whether the 9170
applicant or employee is included in any of the following:9171

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 9172
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 9173
the federal acquisition regulation;9174

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 9175
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 9176
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 9177
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 9178
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 9179
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;9180

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 9181
5123.52 of the Revised Code;9182

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 9183
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 9184
the Revised Code;9185

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 9186
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;9187

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 9188
3721.32 of the Revised Code;9189

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 9190
under this section.9191

       (E)(1) The state long-term care ombudsperson or the 9192
ombudsperson's designeeAs a condition of any applicant's being 9193
employed by the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9194
program in a position that involves providing ombudsperson 9195
services to residents and recipients, the responsible entity shall 9196
request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 9197
identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check 9198
with respect to eachof the applicant. If rules adopted under this 9199
section so require, the responsible entity shall request that the 9200
superintendent conduct a criminal records check of an employee at 9201
times specified in the rules as a condition of the office's 9202
continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 9203
providing ombudsperson services to residents and recipients.9204
However, if the applicant is under final consideration for 9205
employment as the state long-term care ombudsperson, the director 9206
of aging shall request that the superintendent conduct the 9207
criminal records checkthe responsible entity is not required to 9208
request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if 9209
the office is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from 9210
employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a 9211
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 9212
residents and recipients. If an applicant or employee for whom a 9213
criminal records check request is required underby this division9214
section does not present proof of having been a resident of this 9215
state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date the 9216
criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 9217
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 9218
information about the applicant or employee from the federal 9219
bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the 9220
ombudsperson, designee, or directorresponsible entity shall 9221
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 9222
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 9223
check of the applicant. Even if an applicant or employee for whom 9224
a criminal records check request is required underby this 9225
divisionsection presents proof of having been a resident of this 9226
state for the five-year period, the ombudsperson, designee, or 9227
directorresponsible entity may request that the superintendent 9228
include information from the federal bureau of investigation in 9229
the criminal records check.9230

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 9231
request a criminal records checkThe responsible entity shall do 9232
bothall of the following:9233

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 9234
criminal records check request is required under that divisionby 9235
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 9236
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 9237
fingerprint impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 9238
(C)(2) of that section, and obtain;9239

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 9240
from the applicant or employee;9241

       (b)(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression 9242
sheet to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 9243
identification and investigation.9244

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 9245
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 9246
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 9247
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 9248
required by this section.9249

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 9250
aging in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 9251
to division (C)(2) of this section, the office of the state 9252
long-term care ombudsperson may not employ a person in a position 9253
that involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and 9254
recipients if the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 9255
to any of the following:9256

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 9257
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 9258
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 9259
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 9260
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 9261
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 9262
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 9263
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 9264
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.9265

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 9266
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 9267
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 9268
this section.9269

       (2)(a)The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9270
program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 9271
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 9272
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 9273
check the responsible entity requests under this section. The 9274
office may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the 9275
office pays to the bureau under this section if the responsible 9276
entity notifies the applicant at the time of initial application 9277
for employment of the amount of the fee.9278

       (F)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9279
program may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 9280
records check request is required under division (B) ofby this 9281
section prior to obtaining the results of athe criminal records 9282
check regarding the individual, provided that the state long-term 9283
care ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, or director of aging 9284
shall request aif the office is not prohibited by division (B)(1) 9285
of this section from employing the applicant in a position that 9286
involves providing ombudsperson services to residents and 9287
recipients and the responsible entity requests the criminal 9288
records check regarding the individual in accordance with division 9289
(B)(1)(E) of this section not later than five business days after 9290
the individualapplicant begins conditional employment.9291

       (b)(2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9292
program shall terminate the employment of an individualapplicant9293
employed conditionally under division (C)(2)(a)(F)(1) of this 9294
section if the results of the criminal records check request under 9295
division (B) of this section, other than the results of any 9296
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 9297
are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the 9298
date the request for the criminal records check is made. 9299
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 9300
obtained, if the results indicate that the individualapplicant9301
has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to any of the offenses 9302
listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or been 9303
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 9304
disqualifying offense, the office shall terminate the individual's9305
applicant's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 9306
adopted under this section that permit the office to employ the 9307
applicant exist and the office chooses to employ the individual 9308
pursuant to division (F) of this sectionapplicant. Termination 9309
of employment under this division shall be considered just cause 9310
for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 9311
of the Revised Code if the individualapplicant makes any attempt 9312
to deceive the office about the individual'sapplicant's criminal 9313
record.9314

       (D)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9315
program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 9316
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 9317
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 9318
check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of 9319
this section.9320

       (2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9321
program may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the 9322
office pays under division (D)(1) of this section. The office may 9323
collect a fee only if the office notifies the applicant at the 9324
time of initial application for employment of the amount of the 9325
fee.9326

       (E)(G) The report of any criminal records check conducted 9327
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 9328
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 9329
shall not be made available to any person other than the 9330
following:9331

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 9332
of the criminal records check or the individual'sapplicant's or 9333
employee's representative;9334

       (2) The state long-term care ombudsperson, ombudsperson's 9335
designee, director of aging,responsible entity or the 9336
ombudsperson, designee, or director'sresponsible entity's9337
representative;9338

       (3) If the state long-term care ombudsperson designates the 9339
head or other employee of a regional long-term care ombudsperson 9340
program to request a criminal records check under this section, a 9341
representative of the office of the state long-term care 9342
ombudsperson program who is responsible for monitoring the 9343
regional program's compliance with this section;9344

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 9345
involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:9346

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 9347
employmentemployee;9348

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 9349
employee;9350

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 9351
or a program the department of aging administers.9352

       (F) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9353
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 9354
The rules shall specify circumstances under which the office of 9355
the state long-term care ombudsperson program may employ a person 9356
who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed 9357
or described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal 9358
character standards set by the director.9359

       (G) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 9360
program shall inform each person, at the time of initial 9361
application for a position that involves providing ombudsperson 9362
services to residents and recipients, that the person is required 9363
to provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 9364
records check is required to be conducted if the person comes 9365
under final consideration for employment.9366

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 9367
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 9368
property caused by an individualapplicant or employee who the 9369
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program employs in 9370
a position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 9371
residents and recipients, all of the following shall apply:9372

       (1) If the office employed the individualapplicant or 9373
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 9374
criminal records check requested under this section, the office 9375
shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the 9376
report, even if the information in the report is determined later 9377
to have been incomplete or inaccurate.9378

       (2) If the office employed the individualapplicant in good 9379
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2)(F) of 9380
this section, the office shall not be found negligent solely 9381
because it employed the individualapplicant prior to receiving 9382
the report of a criminal records check requested under this 9383
section.9384

       (3) If the office in good faith employed the individual9385
applicant or employee according to the personal character 9386
standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this 9387
section, the office shall not be found negligent solely because 9388
the individual prior to being employed hadapplicant or employee 9389
has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 9390
described in division (C)(1) of this section, or been found 9391
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 9392
disqualifying offense.9393

       (I) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9394
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 9395

       (1) The rules may do the following:9396

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 9397
criminal records checks under this section;9398

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 9399
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 9400
or more classes of employees from the requirements;9401

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 9402
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 9403
database review conducted under this section.9404

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:9405

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 9406
section;9407

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 9408
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 9409
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 9410
be conducted;9411

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 9412
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which the 9413
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson program is 9414
prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 9415
employee who is found by a database review to be included in one 9416
or more of those databases;9417

       (d) Circumstances under which the office of the state 9418
long-term care ombudsperson program may employ an applicant or 9419
employee who is found by a criminal records check required by this 9420
section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 9421
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 9422
disqualifying offense but meets personal character standards.9423

       Sec. 173.391. (A) The department of aging or its designee 9424
shall do all of the following in accordance with Chapter 119. of 9425
the Revised Code:9426

        (1) Certify a person or government entity to provide 9427
community-based long-term care services under a program the 9428
department administers if the person or government entity 9429
satisfies the requirements for certification established by rules 9430
adopted under division (B) of this section and pays the fee, if 9431
any, established by rules adopted under division (G) of this 9432
section;9433

        (2) When required to do so by rules adopted under division 9434
(B) of this section, take one or more of the following 9435
disciplinary actions against a person or government entity 9436
certified under division (A)(1) of this section:9437

        (a) Issue a written warning;9438

        (b) Require the submission of a plan of correction or 9439
evidence of compliance with requirements identified by the 9440
department;9441

        (c) Suspend referrals;9442

        (d) Remove clients;9443

        (e) Impose a fiscal sanction such as a civil monetary penalty 9444
or an order that unearned funds be repaid;9445

        (f) Suspend the certification;9446

       (g) Revoke the certification;9447

        (h) Impose another sanction.9448

        (3) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, hold 9449
hearings when there is a dispute between the department or its 9450
designee and a person or government entity concerning actions the 9451
department or its designee takes regarding a decision not to 9452
certify the person or government entity under division (A)(1) of 9453
this section or a disciplinary action under divisiondivisions9454
(A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section.9455

        (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9456
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing certification 9457
requirements and standards for determining which type of 9458
disciplinary action to take under division (A)(2) of this section 9459
in individual situations. The rules shall establish procedures for 9460
all of the following:9461

        (1) Ensuring that community-based long-term care agencies 9462
comply with section 173.394 of the Revised Code;9463

        (2) Evaluating the services provided by the agencies to 9464
ensure that the services are provided in a quality manner 9465
advantageous to the individual receiving the services;9466

        (3) Determining when to take disciplinary action under 9467
division (A)(2) of this section and which disciplinary action to 9468
take;9469

       (4) Determining what constitutes another sanction for 9470
purposes of division (A)(2)(h) of this section.9471

        (C) The procedures established in rules adopted under 9472
division (B)(2) of this section shall require that all of the 9473
following be considered as part of an evaluation described in 9474
division (B)(2) of this section:9475

        (1) The community-based long-term care agency's experience 9476
and financial responsibility;9477

        (2) The agency's ability to comply with standards for the 9478
community-based long-term care services that the agency provides 9479
under a program the department administers;9480

        (3) The agency's ability to meet the needs of the individuals 9481
served;9482

        (4) Any other factor the director considers relevant.9483

        (D) The rules adopted under division (B)(3) of this section 9484
shall specify that the reasons disciplinary action may be taken 9485
under division (A)(2) of this section include good cause, 9486
including misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, confirmed abuse 9487
or neglect, financial irresponsibility, or other conduct the 9488
director determines is injurious, or poses a threat, to the health 9489
or safety of individuals being served.9490

       (E) Subject to division (F) of this section, the department 9491
is not required to hold hearings under division (A)(3) of this 9492
section if any of the following conditions apply:9493

       (1) Rules adopted by the director of aging pursuant to this 9494
chapter require the community-based long-term care agency to be a 9495
party to a provider agreement; hold a license, certificate, or 9496
permit; or maintain a certification, any of which is required or 9497
issued by a state or federal government entity other than the 9498
department of aging, and either of the following is the case:9499

       (a) The provider agreement has not been entered into or the 9500
license, certificate, permit, or certification has not been 9501
obtained or maintained.9502

       (b) The provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 9503
certification has been denied, revoked, not renewed, or suspended 9504
or has been otherwise restricted.9505

        (2) The agency's certification under this section has been 9506
denied, suspended, or revoked for any of the following reasons:9507

       (a) A government entity of this state, other than the 9508
department of aging, has terminated or refused to renew any of the 9509
following held by, or has denied any of the following sought by, a 9510
community-based long-term care agency: a provider agreement, 9511
license, certificate, permit, or certification. Division (E)(2)(a) 9512
of this section applies regardless of whether the agency has 9513
entered into a provider agreement in, or holds a license, 9514
certificate, permit, or certification issued by, another state.9515

       (b) The agency or a principal owner or manager of the agency 9516
who provides direct care has entered a guilty plea for, or has 9517
been convicted of, an offense materially related to the medicaid 9518
program.9519

        (c) The agency or a principal owner or manager of the agency 9520
who provides direct care has entered a guilty plea for, or been 9521
convicted of, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 9522
conviction for an offense listed in division (C)(1)(a)divisions 9523
(A)(3)(a) to (d) of section 173.394 of the Revised Code, but only 9524
if none of the personal character standards established by the 9525
departmentdirector in rules adopted under division (F) ofthat9526
section 173.394 of the Revised Code apply.9527

       (d) The United States department of health and human services 9528
has taken adverse action against the agency and that action 9529
impacts the agency's participation in the medicaid program.9530

        (e) The agency has failed to enter into or renew a provider 9531
agreement with the PASSPORT administrative agency, as that term is 9532
defined in section 173.42 of the Revised Code, that administers 9533
programs on behalf of the department of aging in the region of the 9534
state in which the agency is certified to provide services.9535

        (f) The agency has not billed or otherwise submitted a claim 9536
to the department for payment under the medicaid program in at 9537
least two years.9538

        (g) The agency denied or failed to provide the department or 9539
its designee access to the agency's facilities during the agency's 9540
normal business hours for purposes of conducting an audit or 9541
structural compliance review.9542

        (h) The agency has ceased doing business.9543

        (i) The agency has voluntarily relinquished its certification 9544
for any reason.9545

        (3) The agency's provider agreement with the department of 9546
job and family services has been suspended under division (C) of 9547
section 5111.031 of the Revised Code.9548

        (4) The agency's provider agreement with the department of 9549
job and family services is denied or revoked because the agency or 9550
its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or 9551
employee has been convicted of an offense that caused the provider 9552
agreement to be suspended under section 5111.031 of the Revised 9553
Code.9554

        (F) If the department does not hold hearings when any 9555
condition described in division (E) of this section applies, the 9556
department may send a notice to the agency describing a decision 9557
not to certify the agency under division (A)(1) of this section or 9558
the disciplinary action the department proposes to take under 9559
division (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section. The notice shall be 9560
sent to the agency's address that is on record with the department 9561
and may be sent by regular mail.9562

       (G) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with 9563
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a fee to be charged 9564
by the department of aging or its designee for certification 9565
issued under this section.9566

        All fees collected by the department or its designee under 9567
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 9568
credit of the provider certification fund, which is hereby 9569
created. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay for 9570
community-based long-term care services, administrative costs 9571
associated with community-based long-term care agency 9572
certification under this section, and administrative costs related 9573
to the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer guide.9574

       Sec. 173.394.  (A) As used in this section:9575

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 9576
consideration for employment with a community-based long-term care 9577
agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that 9578
involves providing direct care to an individual or is referred to 9579
a community-based long-term care agency by an employment service 9580
for such a position. "Applicant" does not include a person who 9581
provides direct care to an individual as a volunteer without 9582
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 9583
than reimbursement for actual expenses.9584

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 9585
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.9586

       (3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:9587

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 9588
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 9589
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 9590
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 9591
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 9592
2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 9593
2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 9594
2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 9595
2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 9596
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 9597
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 9598
2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 9599
2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 9600
2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 9601
2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 9602
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 9603
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 9604
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;9605

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 9606
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;9607

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 9608
existed prior to July 1, 1996;9609

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 9610
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 9611
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 9612
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;9613

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 9614
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 9615
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 9616
divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.9617

       (4) "Employee" means a person employed by a community-based 9618
long-term care agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 9619
position that involves providing direct care to an individual and 9620
a person who works in such a position due to being referred to a 9621
community-based long-term care agency by an employment service. 9622
"Employee" does not include a person who provides direct care to 9623
an individual as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to 9624
receive any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for 9625
actual expenses.9626

       (B) No community-based long-term care agency shall employ an 9627
applicant or continue to employ an employee in a position that 9628
involves providing direct care to an individual if any of the 9629
following apply:9630

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 9631
section reveals any of the following:9632

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 9633
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 9634
section;9635

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 9636
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 9637
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 9638
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 9639
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 9640
such a resident;9641

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 9642
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 9643
section and the rules prohibit the agency from employing an 9644
applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a 9645
database in a position that involves providing direct care to an 9646
individual.9647

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 9648
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 9649
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 9650
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 9651
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 9652
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 9653
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.9654

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 9655
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 9656
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 9657
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 9658
for a disqualifying offense.9659

       (C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the 9660
chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency 9661
shall inform each applicant of both of the following at the time 9662
of the applicant's initial application for employment or referral 9663
to the agency by an employment service for a position that 9664
involves providing direct care to an individual:9665

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 9666
this section will be conducted to determine whether the agency is 9667
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 9668
applicant in the position;9669

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 9670
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 9671
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 9672
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 9673
impressions as part of the criminal records check.9674

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 9675
that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief 9676
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency shall 9677
conduct a database review of the applicant in accordance with 9678
rules adopted under this section. If rules adopted under this 9679
section so require, the chief administrator of a community-based 9680
long-term care agency shall conduct a database review of an 9681
employee in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing 9682
to employ the employee in a position that involves providing 9683
direct care to an individual. However, a chief administrator is 9684
not required to conduct a database review of an applicant or 9685
employee if division (F) of this section applies. A database 9686
review shall determine whether the applicant or employee is 9687
included in any of the following:9688

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 9689
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 9690
the federal acquisition regulation;9691

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 9692
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 9693
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 9694
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 9695
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 9696
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;9697

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 9698
5123.52 of the Revised Code;9699

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 9700
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 9701
the Revised Code;9702

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 9703
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;9704

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 9705
3721.32 of the Revised Code;9706

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 9707
under this section.9708

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this sectionAs 9709
a condition of employing any applicant in a position that involves 9710
providing direct care to an individual, the chief administrator of 9711
a community-based long-term care agency shall request that the 9712
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 9713
investigation conduct a criminal records check with respect to 9714
eachof the applicant. If rules adopted under this section so 9715
require, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9716
care agency shall request that the superintendent conduct a 9717
criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the 9718
rules as a condition of continuing to employ the employee in a 9719
position that involves providing direct care to an individual. 9720
However, the chief administrator is not required to request the 9721
criminal records check of the applicant or employee if division 9722
(F) of this section applies or the agency is prohibited by 9723
division (B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant or 9724
continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 9725
providing direct care to an individual. If an applicant or 9726
employee for whom a criminal records check request is required 9727
underby this divisionsection does not present proof of having 9728
been a resident of this state for the five-year period immediately 9729
prior to the date the criminal records check is requested or 9730
provide evidence that within that five-year period the 9731
superintendent has requested information about the applicant or 9732
employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 9733
records check, the chief administrator shall request that the 9734
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 9735
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 9736
applicant. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 9737
records check request is required underby this divisionsection9738
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 9739
five-year period, the chief administrator may request that the 9740
superintendent include information from the federal bureau of 9741
investigation in the criminal records check.9742

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 9743
request a criminal records checkThe chief administrator shall do 9744
bothall of the following:9745

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 9746
criminal records check request is required under that divisionby 9747
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 9748
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 9749
fingerprint impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 9750
(C)(2) of that section, and obtain;9751

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 9752
from the applicant or employee;9753

       (b)(c) Forward the completed form and standard impression 9754
sheet to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 9755
identification and investigation.9756

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 9757
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 9758
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 9759
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 9760
required by this section.9761

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department 9762
of aging in accordance with division (F) of this section and 9763
subject to division (C)(2) of this section, no community-based 9764
long-term care agency shall employ a person in a position that 9765
involves providing direct care to an individual if the person has 9766
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:9767

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 9768
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 9769
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 9770
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 9771
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 9772
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 9773
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 9774
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 9775
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.9776

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 9777
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 9778
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 9779
this section.9780

       (2)(a)A community-based long-term care agency shall pay to 9781
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 9782
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 9783
Revised Code for each criminal records check the agency requests 9784
under this section. An agency may charge an applicant a fee not 9785
exceeding the amount the agency pays to the bureau under this 9786
section if both of the following apply:9787

       (a) The agency notifies the applicant at the time of initial 9788
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 9789
unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered for 9790
employment.9791

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 9792
the Revised Code does not reimburse the agency for the fee it pays 9793
to the bureau under this section.9794

       (F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with 9795
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 9796
referred to a community-based long-term agency by an employment 9797
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 9798
positions that involve providing direct care to an individual and 9799
both of the following apply:9800

       (1) The chief administrator of the agency receives from the 9801
employment service confirmation that a review of the databases 9802
listed in division (D) of this section was conducted of the 9803
applicant or employee.9804

       (2) The chief administrator of the agency receives from the 9805
employment service, applicant, or employee a report of the results 9806
of a criminal records check of the applicant or employee that has 9807
been conducted by the superintendent within the one-year period 9808
immediately preceding the following:9809

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 9810
referral by the employment service to the agency;9811

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the agency 9812
would otherwise have to request a criminal records check of the 9813
employee under division (E) of this section.9814

       (G)(1) A community-based long-term care agency may employ 9815
conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check 9816
request is required under division (B) ofby this section prior to 9817
obtaining the results of athe criminal records check regarding 9818
the individual, provided thatif the agency is not prohibited by 9819
division (B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in a 9820
position that involves providing direct care to an individual and 9821
either of the following applies:9822

       (a) The chief administrator of the agency shall request a9823
requests the criminal records check regarding the individual in 9824
accordance with division (B)(1)(E) of this section not later than 9825
five business days after the individualapplicant begins 9826
conditional employment.9827

       (b) The applicant is referred to the agency by an employment 9828
service, the employment service or the applicant provides the 9829
chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on the 9830
letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and 9831
signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the 9832
employment service, and the letter states all of the following:9833

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 9834
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 9835
applicant;9836

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 9837
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 9838
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 9839
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;9840

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 9841
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 9842
the letter;9843

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 9844
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 9845
administrator of the agency when the employment service receives 9846
the results. In the circumstances described in division (I)(2) of 9847
this section, a community-based long-term care agency may employ 9848
conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the agency by 9849
an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 9850
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of 9851
individuals and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal 9852
records check is not required under division (B) of this section.9853

       (b)(2) If a community-based long-term care agency employs an 9854
applicant conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this 9855
section, the employment service, on its receipt of the results of 9856
the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the 9857
results to the chief administrator of the agency.9858

       (3) A community-based long-term care agency that employs an9859
individualapplicant conditionally under authority ofpursuant to9860
division (C)(2)(a)(G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate 9861
the individual'sapplicant's employment if the results of the 9862
criminal records check request under division (B) of this section 9863
or described in division (I)(2) of this section, other than the 9864
results of any request for information from the federal bureau of 9865
investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty 9866
days after the date the request for the criminal records check is 9867
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 9868
are obtained, if the results indicate that the individual9869
applicant has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to any of the 9870
offenses listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, 9871
or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for 9872
a disqualifying offense, the agency shall terminate the 9873
individual'sapplicant's employment unless circumstances 9874
specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the 9875
agency to employ the applicant exist and the agency chooses to 9876
employ the individual pursuant to division (F) of this section9877
applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall be 9878
considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division 9879
(D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the individual9880
applicant makes any attempt to deceive the agency about the 9881
individual'sapplicant's criminal record.9882

       (D)(1) Each community-based long-term care agency shall pay 9883
to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 9884
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 9885
Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to 9886
a request made under division (B) of this section.9887

       (2) A community-based long-term care agency may charge an 9888
applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the agency pays under 9889
division (D)(1) of this section. An agency may collect a fee only 9890
if both of the following apply:9891

       (a) The agency notifies the person at the time of initial 9892
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 9893
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 9894
employment;9895

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 9896
the Revised Code does not reimburse the agency the fee it pays 9897
under division (D)(1) of this section.9898

       (E)(H) The report of any criminal records check conducted 9899
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 9900
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 9901
shall not be made available to any person other than the 9902
following:9903

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 9904
of the criminal records check or the individual'sapplicant's or 9905
employee's representative;9906

       (2) The chief administrator of the community-based long-term 9907
care agency requesting the criminal records check or the 9908
administrator's representative;9909

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 9910
program that provides direct care to individuals that is owned or 9911
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the 9912
community-based long-term care agency that requested the criminal 9913
records check;9914

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 9915
records check;9916

       (5) The director of aging or a person authorized by the 9917
director to monitor a community-based long-term care agency's 9918
compliance with this section;9919

       (5)(6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary 9920
individual involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:9921

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 9922
employmentemployee;9923

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 9924
employee;9925

       (6) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 9926
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section(c) 9927
A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program or a 9928
program the department of aging administers.9929

       (F) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 9930
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 9931
The rules shall specify circumstances under which a 9932
community-based long-term care agency may employ a person who has 9933
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 9934
described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal 9935
character standards set by the department.9936

       (G) The chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9937
care agency shall inform each person, at the time of initial 9938
application for a position that involves providing direct care to 9939
an individual, that the person is required to provide a set of 9940
fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 9941
required to be conducted if the person comes under final 9942
consideration for employment.9943

       (H)(I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 9944
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 9945
property caused by an individualapplicant or employee who a 9946
community-based long-term care agency employs in a position that 9947
involves providing direct care to individuals, all of the 9948
following shall apply:9949

       (1) If the agency employed the individualapplicant or 9950
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 9951
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency 9952
shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the 9953
report, even if the information in the report is determined later 9954
to have been incomplete or inaccurate;.9955

       (2) If the agency employed the individualapplicant in good 9956
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2)(G) of 9957
this section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely 9958
because it employed the individualapplicant prior to receiving 9959
the report of a criminal records check requested under this 9960
section;.9961

       (3) If the agency in good faith employed the individual9962
applicant or employee according to the personal character 9963
standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this 9964
section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because 9965
the individual prior to being employed hadapplicant or employee 9966
has been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 9967
described in division (C)(1) of this section, or been found 9968
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 9969
disqualifying offense.9970

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9971
care agency is not required to request that the superintendent of 9972
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 9973
criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been 9974
referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies 9975
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 9976
the direct care of individuals and both of the following apply:9977

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 9978
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 9979
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 9980
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 9981
preceding the applicant's referral;9982

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 9983
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 9984
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 9985
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 9986
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the 9987
community-based long-term care agency chooses to employ the 9988
individual pursuant to division (F) of this section.9989

       (2) The chief administrator of a community-based long-term 9990
care agency is not required to request that the superintendent of 9991
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 9992
criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the 9993
applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the 9994
applicant has been referred to the agency by an employment service 9995
that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 9996
positions involving the direct care of individuals and if the 9997
chief administrator receives from the employment service or the 9998
applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the 9999
letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a 10000
supervisor or another designated official of the employment 10001
service and that states that the employment service has requested 10002
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 10003
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 10004
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 10005
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 10006
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 10007
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 10008
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 10009
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 10010
promptly will send a copy of the results to the community-based 10011
long-term care agency. If a community-based long-term care agency 10012
employs an applicant conditionally in accordance with this 10013
division, the employment service, upon its receipt of the results 10014
of the criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the 10015
results to the community-based long-term care agency, and division 10016
(C)(2)(b) of this section applies regarding the conditional 10017
employment.10018

       (J) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 10019
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.10020

       (1) The rules may do the following:10021

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 10022
criminal records checks under this section;10023

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 10024
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 10025
or more classes of employees from the requirements;10026

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 10027
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 10028
database review conducted under this section.10029

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:10030

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 10031
section;10032

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 10033
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 10034
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 10035
be conducted;10036

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 10037
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a 10038
community-based long-term care agency is prohibited from employing 10039
an applicant or continuing to employ an employee who is found by a 10040
database review to be included in one or more of those databases;10041

       (d) Circumstances under which a community-based long-term 10042
care agency may employ an applicant or employee who is found by a 10043
criminal records check required by this section to have been 10044
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 10045
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense but 10046
meets personal character standards.10047

       Sec. 173.40.  (A) As used in sections 173.40 to 173.402 of 10048
the Revised Code:10049

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 10050
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.10051

       "PASSPORT program" means the program created under this 10052
section.10053

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 10054
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 10055
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.10056

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 10057
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 10058
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.10059

       (B) There is hereby created the preadmission screening system 10060
providing options and resources today program, or PASSPORT. The 10061
PASSPORT program shall provide home and community-based services 10062
as an alternative to nursing facility placement for individuals 10063
who are aged and disabled and meet the program's applicable 10064
eligibility requirements. Subject to division (C) of this section, 10065
the program shall have a medicaid-funded component and a 10066
state-funded component.10067

       (C)(1) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT 10068
program is terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, all 10069
of the following apply:10070

       (a) The department of aging shall administer the 10071
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 10072
department of job and family services under section 5111.91 of the 10073
Revised Code.10074

       (b) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 10075
separate medicaid waiver component. 10076

       (c) For an individual to be eligible for the medicaid-funded 10077
component, the individual must be a medicaid recipient and meet 10078
the additional eligibility requirements applicable to the 10079
individual established in rules adopted under division (C)(1)(d) 10080
of this section.10081

       (d) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 10082
under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code and the director of 10083
aging shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 10084
Revised Code to implement the medicaid-funded component.10085

       (2) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 10086
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 10087
family services shall work together to determine whether the 10088
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program should continue 10089
to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 10090
terminated. If the departments determine that the medicaid-funded 10091
component of the PASSPORT program should be terminated, the 10092
medicaid-funded component shall cease to exist on a date the 10093
departments shall specify.10094

       (D)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 10095
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The state-funded 10096
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 10097
program.10098

       (2) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 10099
component, the individual must meet one of the following 10100
requirements and meet the additional eligibility requirements 10101
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 10102
division (D)(4) of this section:10103

       (a) The individual must have been enrolled in the 10104
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 10105
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 10106
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 10107
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 10108
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 10109
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) denied.10110

       (b) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 10111
in the medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded 10112
component is terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the 10113
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) 10114
terminated and the individual must still need the home and 10115
community-based services provided under the PASSPORT program to 10116
protect the individual's health and safety.10117

       (c) The individual must have an application for the 10118
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 10119
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 10120
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 10121
and the department or the department's designee must have 10122
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 10123
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 10124
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 10125
this section, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 10126
waiver component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual 10127
meets the financial eligibility requirements of the 10128
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 10129
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 10130
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).10131

       (3) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 10132
component because the individual meets the requirement of division 10133
(D)(2)(c) of this section may participate in the component on that 10134
basis for not more than three monthsninety days.10135

       (4) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 10136
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 10137
state-funded component. The additional eligibility requirements 10138
established in the rules may vary for the different groups of 10139
individuals specified in divisions (D)(2)(a), (b), and (c) of this 10140
section.10141

       Sec. 173.42.  (A) As used in sections 173.42 to 173.434 of 10142
the Revised Code:10143

       (1) "Area agency on aging" means a public or private 10144
nonprofit entity designated under section 173.011 of the Revised 10145
Code to administer programs on behalf of the department of aging.10146

       (2) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 10147
component" means each of the following:10148

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 10149
created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code;10150

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403 of the 10151
Revised Code;10152

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 10153
program created under section 5111.89 of the Revised Code;10154

       (d) Any other medicaid waiver component, as defined in 10155
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code, that the department of aging 10156
administers pursuant to an interagency agreement with the 10157
department of job and family services under section 5111.91 of the 10158
Revised Code.10159

       (3) "Home and community-based services covered by medicaid 10160
components the department of aging administers" means all of the 10161
following:10162

       (a) Medicaid waiver services available to a participant in a 10163
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver component;10164

       (b) The following medicaid state plan services available to a 10165
participant in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 10166
component as specified in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of 10167
the Revised Code:10168

       (i) Home health services;10169

       (ii) Private duty nursing services;10170

       (iii) Durable medical equipment;10171

       (iv) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;10172

       (v) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.10173

       (c) Services available to a participant of the PACE program.10174

       (4) "Long-term care consultation" or "consultation" means the 10175
consultation service made available by the department of aging or 10176
a program administrator through the long-term care consultation 10177
program established pursuant to this section.10178

       (5) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 10179
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.10180

       (6) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 10181
5111.20 of the Revised Code.10182

       (7) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 10183
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 10184
173.50 of the Revised Code.10185

       (8) "PASSPORT administrative agency" means an entity under 10186
contract with the department of aging to provide administrative 10187
services regarding the PASSPORT program. 10188

       (9) "Program administrator" means an area agency on aging or 10189
other entity under contract with the department of aging to 10190
administer the long-term care consultation program in a geographic 10191
region specified in the contract.10192

       (10) "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of an 10193
individual specified in division (G) of this section. A 10194
representative may be a family member, attorney, hospital social 10195
worker, or any other person chosen to act on behalf of the 10196
individual.10197

       (B) The department of aging shall develop a long-term care 10198
consultation program whereby individuals or their representatives 10199
are provided with long-term care consultations and receive through 10200
these professional consultations information about options 10201
available to meet long-term care needs and information about 10202
factors to consider in making long-term care decisions. The 10203
long-term care consultations provided under the program may be 10204
provided at any appropriate time, as permitted or required under 10205
this section and the rules adopted under it, including either 10206
prior to or after the individual who is the subject of a 10207
consultation has been admitted to a nursing facility or granted 10208
assistance in receiving home and community-based services covered 10209
by medicaid components the department of aging administers.10210

        (C) The long-term care consultation program shall be 10211
administered by the department of aging, except that the 10212
department may have the program administered on a regional basis 10213
by one or more program administrators. The department and each 10214
program administrator shall administer the program in such a 10215
manner that all of the following are included:10216

       (1) Coordination and collaboration with respect to all 10217
available funding sources for long-term care services;10218

       (2) Assessments of individuals regarding their long-term care 10219
service needs;10220

       (3) Assessments of individuals regarding their on-going 10221
eligibility for long-term care services;10222

       (4) Procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining access 10223
to, and coordination of, health and supportive services, including 10224
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components;10225

       (5) Priorities for using available resources efficiently and 10226
effectively.10227

        (D) The program's long-term care consultations shall be 10228
provided by individuals certified by the department under section 10229
173.422 of the Revised Code.10230

        (E) The information provided through a long-term care 10231
consultation shall be appropriate to the individual's needs and 10232
situation and shall address all of the following:10233

       (1) The availability of any long-term care options open to 10234
the individual;10235

       (2) Sources and methods of both public and private payment 10236
for long-term care services;10237

       (3) Factors to consider when choosing among the available 10238
programs, services, and benefits;10239

       (4) Opportunities and methods for maximizing independence and 10240
self-reliance, including support services provided by the 10241
individual's family, friends, and community.10242

       (F) An individual's long-term care consultation may include 10243
an assessment of the individual's functional capabilities. The 10244
consultation may incorporate portions of the determinations 10245
required under sections 5111.202, 5119.061, and 5123.021 of the 10246
Revised Code and may be provided concurrently with the assessment 10247
required under section 5111.204 of the Revised Code.10248

       (G)(1) Unless an exemption specified in division (I) of this 10249
section is applicable, each of the following shall be provided 10250
with a long-term care consultation:10251

       (a) An individual who applies or indicates an intention to 10252
apply for admission to a nursing facility, regardless of the 10253
source of payment to be used for the individual's care in a 10254
nursing facility;10255

       (b) An individual who requests a long-term care consultation;10256

       (c) An individual identified by the department or a program 10257
administrator as being likely to benefit from a long-term care 10258
consultation.10259

       (2) In addition to the individuals specified in division 10260
(G)(1) of this section, a long-term care consultation may be 10261
provided to a nursing facility resident regardless of the source 10262
of payment being used for the resident's care in the nursing 10263
facility. 10264

       (H)(1) Except as provided in division (H)(2) or (3) of this 10265
section, a long-term care consultation provided pursuant to 10266
division (G) of this section shall be provided as follows:10267

       (a) If the individual for whom the consultation is being 10268
provided has applied for medicaid and the consultation is being 10269
provided concurrently with the assessment required under section 10270
5111.204 of the Revised Code, the consultation shall be completed 10271
in accordance with the applicable time frames specified in that 10272
section for providing a level of care determination based on the 10273
assessment.10274

       (b) In all other cases, the consultation shall be provided 10275
not later than five calendar days after the department or program 10276
administrator receives notice of the reason for which the 10277
consultation is to be provided pursuant to division (G) of this 10278
section.10279

       (2) An individual or the individual's representative may 10280
request that a long-term care consultation be provided on a date 10281
that is later than the date required under division (H)(1)(a) or 10282
(b) of this section.10283

       (3) If a long-term care consultation cannot be completed 10284
within the number of days required by division (H)(1) or (2) of 10285
this section, the department or program administrator may do any 10286
of the following:10287

       (a) In the case of an individual specified in division (G)(1) 10288
of this section, exempt the individual from the consultation 10289
pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division (L) of this 10290
section;10291

       (b) In the case of an applicant for admission to a nursing 10292
facility, provide the consultation after the individual is 10293
admitted to the nursing facility;10294

       (c) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, provide 10295
the consultation as soon as practicable.10296

       (I) An individual is not required to be provided a long-term 10297
care consultation under division (G)(1) of this section if any of 10298
the following apply:10299

       (1) The department or program administrator has attempted to 10300
provide the consultation, but the individual or the individual's 10301
representative refuses to cooperate;10302

       (2) The individual is to receive care in a nursing facility 10303
under a contract for continuing care as defined in section 173.13 10304
of the Revised Code;10305

       (3) The individual has a contractual right to admission to a 10306
nursing facility operated as part of a system of continuing care 10307
in conjunction with one or more facilities that provide a less 10308
intensive level of services, including a residential care facility 10309
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, an adult carea 10310
residential facility licensed under sections 5119.70 to 5119.8810311
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 10312
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 10313
unrelated adults, or an independent living arrangement;10314

       (4) The individual is to receive continual care in a home for 10315
the aged exempt from taxation under section 5701.13 of the Revised 10316
Code;10317

       (5) The individual is seeking admission to a facility that is 10318
not a nursing facility with a provider agreement under section 10319
5111.22, 5111.671, or 5111.672 of the Revised Code;10320

       (6) The individual is exempted from the long-term care 10321
consultation requirement by the department or the program 10322
administrator pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division 10323
(L) of this section.10324

        (J) As part of the long-term care consultation program, the 10325
department or program administrator shall assist an individual or 10326
individual's representative in accessing all sources of care and 10327
services that are appropriate for the individual and for which the 10328
individual is eligible, including all available home and 10329
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 10330
department of aging administers. The assistance shall include 10331
providing for the conduct of assessments or other evaluations and 10332
the development of individualized plans of care or services under 10333
section 173.424 of the Revised Code.10334

       (K) No nursing facility for which an operator has a provider 10335
agreement under section 5111.22, 5111.671, or 5111.672 of the 10336
Revised Code shall admit any individual as a resident, unless the 10337
nursing facility has received evidence that a long-term care 10338
consultation has been completed for the individual or division (I) 10339
of this section is applicable to the individual.10340

       (L) The director of aging may adopt any rules the director 10341
considers necessary for the implementation and administration of 10342
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 10343
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and may specify any or all of the 10344
following:10345

       (1) Procedures for providing long-term care consultations 10346
pursuant to this section;10347

       (2) Information to be provided through long-term care 10348
consultations regarding long-term care services that are 10349
available;10350

       (3) Criteria and procedures to be used to identify and 10351
recommend appropriate service options for an individual receiving 10352
a long-term care consultation;10353

       (4) Criteria for exempting individuals from the long-term 10354
care consultation requirement;10355

       (5) Circumstances under which it may be appropriate to 10356
provide an individual's long-term care consultation after the 10357
individual's admission to a nursing facility rather than before 10358
admission;10359

        (6) Criteria for identifying nursing facility residents who 10360
would benefit from the provision of a long-term care consultation;10361

       (7) A description of the types of information from a nursing 10362
facility that is needed under the long-term care consultation 10363
program to assist a resident with relocation from the facility;10364

       (8) Standards to prevent conflicts of interest relative to 10365
the referrals made by a person who performs a long-term care 10366
consultation, including standards that prohibit the person from 10367
being employed by a provider of long-term care services;10368

       (9) Procedures for providing notice and an opportunity for a 10369
hearing under division (N) of this section.10370

       (M) To assist the department and each program administrator 10371
with identifying individuals who are likely to benefit from a 10372
long-term care consultation, the department and program 10373
administrator may ask to be given access to nursing facility 10374
resident assessment data collected through the use of the resident 10375
assessment instrument specified in rules adopted under section 10376
5111.02 of the Revised Code for purposes of the medicaid program. 10377
Except when prohibited by state or federal law, the department of 10378
health, department of job and family services, or nursing facility 10379
holding the data shall grant access to the data on receipt of the 10380
request from the department of aging or program administrator.10381

       (N)(1) The director of aging, after providing notice and an 10382
opportunity for a hearing, may fine a nursing facility an amount 10383
determined by rules the director shall adopt in accordance with 10384
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:10385

       (a) The nursing facility admits an individual, without 10386
evidence that a long-term care consultation has been provided, as 10387
required by this section;10388

       (b) The nursing facility denies a person attempting to 10389
provide a long-term care consultation access to the facility or a 10390
resident of the facility;10391

       (c) The nursing facility denies the department of aging or 10392
program administrator access to the facility or a resident of the 10393
facility, as the department or administrator considers necessary 10394
to administer the program.10395

       (2) In accordance with section 5111.62 of the Revised Code, 10396
all fines collected under division (N)(1) of this section shall be 10397
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the residents 10398
protection fund.10399

       Sec. 173.45. As used in this section and in sections 173.46 10400
to 173.49 of the Revised Code:10401

        (A) "Adult careResidential facility" has the same meaning as 10402
inmeans a residential facility licensed under section 5119.7010403
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 10404
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 10405
unrelated adults.10406

       (B) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 10407
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.10408

       (C) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home or 10409
residential care facility.10410

        (D) "Nursing home" and "residential care facility" have the 10411
same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.10412

        (E) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 10413
5111.20 of the Revised Code.10414

       Sec. 173.46. (A) The department of aging shall develop and 10415
publish a guide to long-term care facilities for use by 10416
individuals considering long-term care facility admission and 10417
their families, friends, and advisors. The guide, which shall be 10418
titled the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, may be published in 10419
printed form or in electronic form for distribution over the 10420
internet. The guide may be developed as a continuation or 10421
modification of the guide published by the department prior to 10422
September 29, 2005, under rules adopted under section 173.02 of 10423
the Revised Code.10424

        (B) The Ohio long-term care consumer guide shall include 10425
information on each long-term care facility in this state. For 10426
each facility, the guide shall include the following information, 10427
as applicable to the facility:10428

        (1) Information regarding the facility's compliance with 10429
state statutes and rules and federal statutes and regulations;10430

        (2) Information generated by the centers for medicare and 10431
medicaid services of the United States department of health and 10432
human services from the quality measures developed as part of its 10433
nursing home quality initiative;10434

        (3) Results of the customer satisfaction surveys conducted 10435
under section 173.47 of the Revised Code;10436

        (4) Any other information the department specifies in rules 10437
adopted under section 173.49 of the Revised Code.10438

       (C) The Ohio long-term care consumer guide may include 10439
information on adult careresidential facilities and providers of 10440
community-based long-term care services. The department may adopt 10441
rules under section 173.49 of the Revised Code to specify the 10442
information to be included in the guide pursuant to this division.10443

       Sec. 189.04.  (A) The local government innovation council 10444
shall award loans to a qualified political subdivision or a 10445
qualified group of political subdivisions to be used for the 10446
purchase of equipment, facilities, or systems or for 10447
implementation costs.10448

       Loans made under division (A) of this section shall be repaid 10449
by recipients using savings achieved from the innovation project 10450
or surplus money in a fund described in section 5709.43, 5709.75, 10451
or 5709.80 of the Revised Code. 10452

       (B) Up to twenty per cent of the funds in the local 10453
government innovation fund, established in section 189.05 of the 10454
Revised Code, may be awarded by the council as grants to political 10455
subdivisions for use in process improvement or implementation of 10456
innovation project awards, except for local government performance 10457
measurement grants awarded under section 189.041 of the Revised 10458
Code. 10459

       (C) In every two fiscal years, the council may award one 10460
million dollars from the local government innovation fund, 10461
established in section 189.05 of the Revised Code, as local 10462
government performance measurement grants under section 189.041 of 10463
the Revised Code.10464

       (D) The council shall award not more than one hundred 10465
thousand dollars in total grants and not more than one hundred 10466
thousand dollars in total loans to an individual political 10467
subdivision per innovation project under this section, excluding 10468
local government performance measurement grants awarded under 10469
section 189.041 of the Revised Code. For an innovation project 10470
involving a qualified group of political subdivisions, the council 10471
shall award, in total grants and loans, not more than five hundred 10472
thousand dollars, and the average amount per political subdivision 10473
shall not exceed one hundred thousand dollars.10474

       Sec. 189.041. (A) The local government innovation council 10475
shall award local government performance measurement grants to 10476
political subdivisions to pay the necessary expenses of 10477
participation in the center for performance measurement program of 10478
the international city/county management association. A political 10479
subdivision may use moneys awarded under this section only for the 10480
following purposes:10481

        (1) To pay the fee to the international city/county 10482
management association to enroll the political subdivision in the 10483
program;10484

        (2) To pay employees of the political subdivision for the 10485
hours of work required to receive training to participate in the 10486
program and to gather and submit data to the center for 10487
performance measurement for the purpose of participation in the 10488
program;10489

        (3) To pay an independent contractor to receive training to 10490
participate in the program and to gather and submit data to the 10491
center for performance measurement for the purpose of 10492
participation in the program; and10493

        (4) To pay for necessary equipment, including computer 10494
equipment and software, for the political subdivision to receive 10495
training to participate in the program and to gather and submit 10496
data to the center for performance measurement for the purpose of 10497
participation in the program, if the political subdivision does 10498
not already possess such equipment.10499

        (B)(1) All political subdivisions of the state are eligible 10500
to apply for a grant under this section. A political subdivision 10501
shall submit an application for a local government performance 10502
measurement grant to the council on a form specified by the 10503
council. The form shall require the political subdivision to 10504
provide a detailed estimate of the necessary expenses for the 10505
political subdivision to participate in the program.10506

        (2) A political subdivision that is awarded funds under this 10507
section shall not be required to contribute matching funds toward 10508
the cost of participation in the program.10509

        (3) The council shall award grants under this section in the 10510
order in which the council receives each properly completed 10511
application form, and in the amount reasonably requested in the 10512
application.10513

        (C)(1) The council shall award not more than ten thousand 10514
dollars in every two fiscal years to a political subdivision under 10515
this section.10516

        (2) After the end of each fiscal year in which a political 10517
subdivision has been awarded a grant under this section, the 10518
political subdivision shall do both of the following:10519

        (a) Prepare and submit to the council, on a form prescribed 10520
by the council, an itemized statement of the grant moneys that 10521
were expended and the purposes for which those moneys were 10522
expended.10523

        (b) Submit to the council any grant moneys awarded under this 10524
section that remain unexpended. The council shall deposit all 10525
unexpended moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the local 10526
government innovation fund created in section 189.05 of the 10527
Revised Code.10528

       Sec. 189.05.  Funds for awards made by the local government 10529
innovation council shall be made from the local government 10530
innovation fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. 10531
The fund shall consist of moneys appropriated to it, repayments of 10532
principal and interest on loans made from the fund, unexpended 10533
grant moneys submitted to the council under division (C)(2)(a) of 10534
section 189.041 of the Revised Code, and any grants or donations 10535
received from nonpublic entities. Interest earned on the money in 10536
the fund shall be credited to the fund. 10537

       Sec. 189.06.  (A) All political subdivisions of the state are 10538
eligible to apply for awards under the local government innovation 10539
program. ApplicationsExcept for applications submitted for a 10540
local government performance measurement grant under section 10541
189.041 of the Revised Code, applications shall be submitted to 10542
the department of development on a form specified by the director 10543
of development. The department shall provide the application to 10544
the local government innovation council for evaluation and 10545
selection.10546

       TheExcept as provided in section 189.041 of the Revised 10547
Code, the local government innovation council shall award loans 10548
and grants under the program in accordance with a competitive 10549
process to be developed by the council. 10550

       (B) Not later than December 31, 2011, the council shall 10551
establish criteria for evaluating proposals and making awards to 10552
political subdivisions, other than awards made under section 10553
189.041 of the Revised Code. The criteria shall be developed in 10554
consultation with nonpublic entities involved in local government 10555
issues, state institutions of higher education, and the department 10556
of development, as determined by the council. The criteria shall 10557
include a requirement that at least one of the political 10558
subdivisions that is a party to the proposal provide matching 10559
funds. The matching funds may be provided by a nonpublic entity or 10560
may be paid using surplus money in a fund described in section 10561
5709.43, 5709.75, or 5709.80 of the Revised Code. The criteria for 10562
evaluating proposals may include the following provisions:10563

       (1) The expected return on investment, based on the ratio of 10564
expected savings;10565

       (2) The number of participating entities in the proposal;10566

       (3) The probability of the proposal's success;10567

       (4) The percentage of local matching funds available;10568

       (5) The ability to replicate the proposal in other political 10569
subdivisions;10570

       (6) Whether the proposal is part of a larger consolidation 10571
effort by the applicant or applicants;10572

       (7) Whether the proposal is to implement performance audit or 10573
other audit recommendations under Chapter 117. of the Revised 10574
Code;10575

       (8) Whether the applicant has successfully completed an 10576
innovation project in the past.10577

       Sec. 189.08.  (A) Starting not later than March 1, 2012, the 10578
local government innovation council shall begin evaluating 10579
applications and proposals received under section 189.041 of the 10580
Revised Code and from the department of development for awards to 10581
political subdivisions. Not later than July 1, 2012, the council 10582
shall make its first round of awards to the political 10583
subdivisions.10584

       (B) After making the first round of awards, the council shall 10585
evaluate proposals and make awards on a quarterly basis, or on 10586
another schedule determined by the council, with the council 10587
determining the funding levels for each round of awards. 10588

       (C) When making awards from the local government innovation 10589
fund created in section 189.05 of the Revised Code, except for 10590
grants awarded under section 189.041 of the Revised Code, the 10591
funds awarded across all rounds shall be allocated as follows:10592

       (1) At least thirty per cent to political subdivisions that 10593
are not counties and have a population of less than 20,000 10594
residents as determined in the decennial census conducted in 2010 10595
or counties with a population of less than 235,000 residents as 10596
determined in the decennial census conducted in 2010;10597

       (2) At least thirty per cent to political subdivisions that 10598
are not counties and have a population of 20,000 residents or more 10599
as determined in the decennial census conducted in 2010 or 10600
counties with a population of 235,000 residents or more as 10601
determined in the decennial census conducted in 2010.10602

       If a proposal includes participants from both divisions 10603
(C)(1) and (2) of this section, the award may be drawn from either 10604
or both tiers in the local government innovation fund.10605

       Sec. 191.01.  As used in this chapter:10606

       (A) "Administrative safeguards," "availability," 10607
"confidentiality," "integrity," "physical safeguards," and 10608
"technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 10609
164.304.10610

        (B) "Business associate," "covered entity," "health plan," 10611
"individually identifiable health information," and "protected 10612
health information" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 10613
160.103.10614

       (C) "Executive director of the office of health 10615
transformation" or "executive director" means the executive 10616
director of the office of health transformation or the chief 10617
administrative officer of a successor governmental entity 10618
responsible for health system oversight in this state.10619

       (D) "Government program providing public benefits" means any 10620
program administered by a state agency that has been identified, 10621
pursuant to section 191.02 of the Revised Code, by the executive 10622
director of the office of health transformation in consultation 10623
with the individuals specified in that section. 10624

       (E) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 10625
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K.10626

       (F) "Operating protocol" means a protocol adopted by the 10627
executive director of the office of health transformation or the 10628
executive director's designee under division (D) of section 191.06 10629
of the Revised Code.10630

       (G) "Participating agency" means a state agency that 10631
participates in a health transformation initiative as specified in 10632
the one or more operating protocols adopted for the initiative 10633
under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.10634

       (H) "Personally identifiable information" means information 10635
that meets both of the following criteria: 10636

       (1) It identifies an individual or there is a reasonable 10637
basis to believe that it may be used to identify an individual;10638

       (2) It relates to an individual's eligibility for, 10639
application for, or receipt of public benefits from a government 10640
program providing public benefits.10641

       (I) "State agency" means each of the following:10642

       (1) The department of aging;10643

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;10644

       (3) The department of development;10645

       (4) The department of developmental disabilities;10646

       (5) The department of education;10647

       (6) The department of health;10648

       (7) The department of insurance;10649

       (8) The department of job and family services;10650

       (9) The department of mental health;10651

       (10) The department of rehabilitation and correction;10652

       (11) The department of taxation;10653

       (12) The department of veterans services;10654

       (13) The department of youth services.10655

       (J) "Unsecured" has the same meaning as in 16 C.F.R. 318.2.10656

       Sec. 191.02.  The executive director of the office of health 10657
transformation, in consultation with all of the following 10658
individuals, shall identify each government program administered 10659
by a state agency that is to be considered a government program 10660
providing public benefits for purposes of section 191.04 of the 10661
Revised Code:10662

       (A) The director of aging;10663

       (B) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;10664

       (C) The director of development;10665

       (D) The director of developmental disabilities;10666

       (E) The director of health;10667

       (F) The director job and family services;10668

       (G) The director of mental health;10669

       (H) The director of rehabilitation and correction;10670

       (I) The director of veterans services;10671

       (J) The director of youth services;10672

       (K) The administrator of the rehabilitation services 10673
commission;10674

       (L) The administrator of workers' compensation;10675

       (M) The superintendent of insurance;10676

       (N) The superintendent of public instruction;10677

       (O) The tax commissioner.10678

       Sec. 191.04.  (A) In accordance with federal laws governing 10679
the confidentiality of individually identifiable health 10680
information, including the "Health Insurance Portability and 10681
Accountability Act of 1996," 104 Pub. L. No. 191, 110 Stat. 2021, 10682
42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended, and regulations promulgated 10683
by the United States department of health and human services to 10684
implement the act, a state agency may exchange protected health 10685
information with another state agency relating to eligibility for 10686
or enrollment in a health plan or relating to participation in a 10687
government program providing public benefits if the exchange of 10688
information is necessary for either or both of the following:10689

       (1) Operating a health plan;10690

       (2) Coordinating, or improving the administration or 10691
management of, the health care-related functions of at least one 10692
government program providing public benefits.10693

       (B) For fiscal year 2013 only, a state agency also may 10694
exchange personally identifiable information with another state 10695
agency for purposes related to and in support of a health 10696
transformation initiative identified by the executive director of 10697
the office of health transformation pursuant to division (C) of 10698
section 191.06 of the Revised Code. 10699

       (C) With respect to a state agency that uses or discloses 10700
personally identifiable information, all of the following 10701
conditions apply:10702

       (1) The state agency shall use or disclose the information 10703
only as permitted or required by state and federal law. In 10704
addition, if the information is obtained during fiscal year 2013 10705
from an exchange of personally identifiable information permitted 10706
under division (B) of this section, the agency shall also use or 10707
disclose the information in accordance with all operating 10708
protocols that apply to the use or disclosure. 10709

       (2) If the state agency is a state agency other than the 10710
department of job and family services and it uses or discloses 10711
protected health information that is related to a medicaid 10712
recipient and obtained from the department of job and family 10713
services or another agency operating a component of the medicaid 10714
program, the state agency shall comply with all state and federal 10715
laws that apply to the department of job and family services when 10716
that department, as the state's single state agency to supervise 10717
the medicaid program as specified in section 5111.01 of the 10718
Revised Code, uses or discloses protected health information. 10719

       (3) A state agency shall implement administrative, physical, 10720
and technical safeguards for the purpose of protecting the 10721
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personally 10722
identifiable information the creation, receipt, maintenance, or 10723
transmittal of which is affected or governed by this section. 10724

       (4) If a state agency discovers an unauthorized use or 10725
disclosure of unsecured protected health information or unsecured 10726
individually identifiable health information, the state agency 10727
shall, not later than seventy-two hours after the discovery, do 10728
all of the following:10729

       (a) Identify the individuals who are the subject of the 10730
protected health information or individually identifiable health 10731
information;10732

       (b) Report the discovery and the names of all individuals 10733
identified pursuant to division (C)(4)(a) of this section to all 10734
other state agencies and the executive director of the office of 10735
health transformation or the executive director's designee;10736

       (c) Mitigate, to the extent reasonably possible, any 10737
potential adverse effects of the unauthorized use or disclosure.10738

       (5) A state agency shall make available to the executive 10739
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 10740
director's designee, and to any other state or federal 10741
governmental entity required by law to have access on that 10742
entity's request, all internal practices, records, and 10743
documentation relating to personally identifiable information it 10744
receives, uses, or discloses that is affected or governed by this 10745
section.10746

       (6) On termination or expiration of an operating protocol and 10747
if feasible, a state agency shall return or destroy all personally 10748
identifiable information received directly from or received on 10749
behalf of another state agency. If the personally identifiable 10750
information is not returned or destroyed, the state agency 10751
maintaining the information shall extend the protections set forth 10752
in this section for as long as it is maintained.10753

       (7) If a state agency enters into a subcontract or, when 10754
required by 45 C.F.R. 164.502(e)(2), a business associate 10755
agreement, the subcontract or business associate agreement shall 10756
require the subcontractor or business associate to comply with the 10757
terms of this section as if the subcontractor or business 10758
associate were a state agency.10759

       Sec. 191.06.  (A) The provisions of this section shall apply 10760
only for fiscal year 2013.10761

       (B) The executive director of the office of health 10762
transformation or the executive director's designee may facilitate 10763
the coordination of operations and exchange of information between 10764
state agencies. The purpose of the executive director's authority 10765
under this section is to support agency collaboration for health 10766
transformation purposes, including modernization of the medicaid 10767
program, streamlining of health and human services programs in 10768
this state, and improving the quality, continuity, and efficiency 10769
of health care and health care support systems in this state.10770

       (C) In furtherance of the authority of the executive director 10771
of the office of health transformation under division (B) of this 10772
section, the executive director or the executive director's 10773
designee shall identify each health transformation initiative in 10774
this state that involves the participation of two or more state 10775
agencies and that permits or requires an interagency agreement to 10776
be entered into for purposes of specifying each participating 10777
agency's role in coordinating, operating, or funding the 10778
initiative, or facilitating the exchange of data or other 10779
information for the initiative. The executive director shall 10780
publish a list of the identified health transformation initiatives 10781
on the internet web site maintained by the office of health 10782
transformation.10783

       (D) For each health transformation initiative that is 10784
identified under division (C) of this section, the executive 10785
director or the executive director's designee shall, in 10786
consultation with each participating agency, adopt one or more 10787
operating protocols. Notwithstanding any law enacted by the 10788
general assembly or rule adopted by a state agency, the provisions 10789
in a protocol shall supersede any provisions in an interagency 10790
agreement, including an interagency agreement entered into under 10791
section 5101.10 or 5111.91 of the Revised Code, that differ from 10792
the provisions of the protocol.10793

       (E)(1) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of 10794
this section shall include both of the following:10795

       (a) All terms necessary to meet the requirements of "other 10796
arrangements" between a covered entity and a business associate 10797
that are referenced in 45 C.F.R. 164.314(a)(2)(ii);10798

       (b) If known, the date on which the protocol will terminate 10799
or expire.10800

       (2) In addition, a protocol may specify the extent to which 10801
each participating agency is responsible and accountable for 10802
completing the tasks necessary for successful completion of the 10803
initiative, including tasks relating to the following components 10804
of the initiative: 10805

       (a) Workflow;10806

       (b) Funding;10807

       (c) Exchange of data or other information that is 10808
confidential pursuant to state or federal law. 10809

       (F) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of this 10810
section shall have the same force and effect as an interagency 10811
agreement or data sharing agreement, and each participating agency 10812
shall comply with it.10813

       (G) The director of job and family services shall determine 10814
whether a waiver of federal medicaid requirements or a medicaid 10815
state plan amendment is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 10816
this section. If the director determines a waiver or medicaid 10817
state plan amendment is necessary, the director shall apply to the 10818
United States secretary of health and human services for the 10819
waiver or amendment.10820

       Sec. 306.04.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division 10821
(B) of this section, employees of a county transit board or a 10822
board of county commissioners operating a transit system are 10823
employees of the county. If the system is operated by the board of 10824
county commissioners, the board shall appoint an executive 10825
director, who shall be in the unclassified service.10826

       (B) Any county transit board that established its own civil 10827
service organization and procedure prior to the effective date of 10828
this amendmentOctober 25, 1995, shall continue to operate under 10829
that organization. Appointments and promotions in that system 10830
shall be made, as far as practicable, by competitive examination.10831

       A board that established its own civil service organization 10832
prior to the effective date of this amendmentOctober 25, 1995,10833
shall establish by rule the seniority provisions relating to 10834
street railway and motor bus employees in effect at the time of 10835
the acquisition of the transit system by the county. The vacation, 10836
holiday, and sick leave privileges shall not be regulated by other 10837
provisions of law relating to public employees of the state or 10838
county, except that the transit board, its officers and employees, 10839
shall be subject to the public employees retirement system of the 10840
state and the transit board shall assume any pension obligations 10841
which have been assumed by any publicly owned transit system which 10842
the county may acquire.10843

       (C) A county transit board or board of county commissioners 10844
operating a transit system may:10845

       (1) Acquire in its name by gift, grant, purchase, or 10846
condemnation and hold and operate real estate and interests 10847
therein and personal property suitable for its purposes;10848

       (2) In its name purchase, acquire, construct, enlarge, 10849
improve, equip, repair, maintain, sell, exchange, lease as lessee 10850
or lessor, receive a right of use of, and manage, control, and 10851
operate, in or out of the county, a county transit system 10852
consisting of all real estate and interests therein, personal 10853
property, and a combination thereof, for or related to the 10854
movement of persons including but not limited to street railway, 10855
tramline, subways, rapid transits, monorails, and passenger bus 10856
systems but excluding therefrom trucks, the movement of property 10857
by truck, and facilities designed for use in the movement of 10858
property by truck for hire;10859

       (3) Issue, with the approval of the county commissioners when 10860
the issuance is made by the transit board, revenue bonds of the 10861
county as provided in division (B) of section 306.09 of the 10862
Revised Code, to secure funds to accomplish its purposes. The 10863
principal of and interest on such bonds, together with all other 10864
payments required to be made by the trust agreement or indenture 10865
securing such bonds, shall be paid solely from revenues or other 10866
income accruing to the board from facilities of the county transit 10867
system designated in said agreement or indenture.10868

       (4) Enter into contracts in the exercise of the rights, 10869
powers, and duties conferred upon it, and execute all instruments 10870
necessary in the conduct of its business;10871

       (5) Fix, alter, and charge rates and other charges for the 10872
use of its real estate and interests therein, personal property, 10873
and combinations thereof;10874

       (6) Employ such financial consultants, accountants, 10875
appraisers, consulting engineers, architects, construction 10876
experts, attorneys-at-law, managers and other supervisory 10877
personnel, and other officers, employees, and agents as it 10878
determines necessary to conduct its business, and fix their 10879
compensation and duties;10880

       (7) Pledge, hypothecate, or otherwise encumber its revenues 10881
and other income as security for its obligations and enter into 10882
trust agreements or indentures for the benefit of revenue 10883
bondholders;10884

       (8) Borrow money or accept or contract to accept advances, 10885
loans, gifts, grants, devises, or bequests from and enter into 10886
contracts or agreements with any federal, state, or other 10887
governmental or private source and hold and apply advances, loans, 10888
gifts, grants, devises, or bequests according to the terms thereof 10889
including provisions which are required by such federal, state, or 10890
other governmental or private source to protect the interest of 10891
employees affected by such advances, loans, gifts, grants, 10892
devises, or bequests. Such advances, loans, gifts, grants, or 10893
devises may be subject to any reasonable reservation and any gift, 10894
grant, or devise or real estate may be in fee simple or any lesser 10895
estate. Any advances or loans received from any federal, state, or 10896
other governmental or private source may be repaid in accordance 10897
with the terms of such advance or loan.10898

       (9) Conduct investigations and surveys into the needs of the 10899
public within or without the county for transportation services to 10900
provide for the movement of persons within, into, or from the area 10901
serviced or to be serviced by the county transit system;10902

       (10) Enter into lawful arrangements with the appropriate 10903
federal or state department or agency, county, township, municipal 10904
corporation, or other political subdivision or public agency for 10905
the planning and installation of any public facilities which are 10906
determined necessary in the conduct of its business;10907

       (11) Purchase fire, extended coverage, and liability 10908
insurance for the real estate and interests therein, personal 10909
property and any combination thereof, used by or in connection 10910
with the county transit system and insurance covering the board 10911
and the county transit system and its officers and employees for 10912
liability for damage or injury to persons or property;10913

       (12) Procure and pay all or any part of the cost of group 10914
hospitalization, surgical, major medical, or sickness and accident 10915
insurance, or a combination thereof, for the officers and 10916
employees of the county transit system and their immediate 10917
dependents, issued by an insurance company, duly authorized to do 10918
business in this state;10919

       (13) Sell, lease, release, or otherwise dispose of real 10920
estate or interests therein or personal property owned by it and 10921
grant such easements across its real estate and interests therein 10922
as will not interfere with its use by the county transit system;10923

       (14) Establish rules for the use and operation of the county 10924
transit system including the real estate or interests therein, 10925
personal property or a combination of the foregoing used by or in 10926
connection with such system;10927

       (15) Exercise the power of eminent domain to appropriate any 10928
real estate or interests therein, personal property, franchises, 10929
or any combination thereof, within or without the county, 10930
necessary or proper in the exercise of its powers provided in 10931
sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, as provided in 10932
sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code, and subject to 10933
divisions (15)(a), (b), and (c) of this section, provided that a 10934
county transit board or a board of county commissioners operating 10935
a transit system shall not proceed to so appropriate real property 10936
outside its territorial boundaries, until it has served at the 10937
office of the county commissioners of the county in which it is 10938
proposed to appropriate real property, a notice describing the 10939
real property to be taken and the purpose for which it is proposed 10940
to be taken, and such county commissioners have entered on their 10941
journal within thirty days after such service a resolution 10942
approving such appropriation;10943

       (a) Nothing contained in this division authorizes a county 10944
transit board or a board of county commissioners to appropriate 10945
any land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, or easements 10946
belonging to the state or to a municipal corporation without the 10947
consent of the state or of the municipal corporation, and no 10948
county transit board or board of county commissioners shall 10949
exercise the right of eminent domain to acquire any certificate of 10950
public convenience and necessity, or any part thereof, issued to a 10951
for-hire motor transportation companycarrier by the public 10952
utilities commission of Ohio or by the interstate commerce 10953
commissionfederal motor carrier safety administration of the 10954
United States, or to take or disturb other real estate or 10955
interests therein, personal property, or any combination thereof 10956
belonging to any municipal corporation without the consent of the 10957
legislative authority of such municipal corporation, or take or 10958
disturb real estate or interests therein, personal property, or 10959
any combination thereof belonging to any other political 10960
subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common 10961
carrier, which is necessary and convenient in the operation of 10962
such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or 10963
common carrier unless provision is made for the restoration, 10964
relocation, or duplication of that taken or upon the election of 10965
such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or 10966
common carrier for the payment of compensation, if any, at the 10967
sole cost of the county transit system.10968

       (b) If any restoration or duplication proposed to be made 10969
under this division involves a relocation, the new location shall 10970
have at least comparable utilitarian value and effectiveness, and 10971
such relocation shall not impair the ability of the public utility 10972
or common carrier to compete in its original area of operation.10973

       (c) If such restoration or duplication proposed to be made 10974
under this division involves a relocation, the county transit 10975
board or board of county commissioners shall acquire no interest 10976
or right in or to the appropriated property or facility until the 10977
relocated property or facility is available for use and until 10978
marketable title thereto has been transferred to the political 10979
subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common 10980
carrier. Nothing in this division shall require any board of 10981
county commissioners or county transit board operating a county 10982
transit system to so restore, relocate, or duplicate, if all of 10983
the real estate and interests therein, personal property, and any 10984
combination of the foregoing which is owned by a public utility or 10985
common carrier and used by it or in connection with the movement 10986
of persons, is acquired by exercise of the power of eminent 10987
domain.10988

       (16) When real property is acquired that is located outside 10989
the county and is removed from the tax duplicate, the county 10990
transit board or board of county commissioners operating a transit 10991
system shall pay annually to the county treasurer of the county in 10992
which that property is located, commencing with the first tax year 10993
in which that property is removed from the tax duplicate, an 10994
amount of money in lieu of taxes equal to the smaller of the 10995
following:10996

       (a) The last annual installment of taxes due from the 10997
acquired property before removal from the tax duplicate;10998

       (b) An amount equal to the difference between the combined 10999
revenue from real estate taxes of all the taxing districts in 11000
which the property is located in the tax year immediately prior to 11001
the removal of the acquired property from the tax duplicate, and 11002
either:11003

       (i) The total revenue which would be produced by the tax rate 11004
of each such taxing district in the tax year immediately prior to 11005
the removal of the acquired property from the tax duplicate, 11006
applied to the real estate tax duplicate of each of such taxing 11007
districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of removal; or11008

       (ii) The combined revenue from real estate taxes of all such 11009
taxing districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of 11010
removal, whichever is the greater.11011

       The county transit board or board of county commissioners may 11012
be exempted from such payment by agreement of the affected taxing 11013
district or districts in the county in which the property is 11014
located.11015

       The county auditor of the county in which that property is 11016
located shall apportion each such annual payment to each taxing 11017
district as if the annual payment had been levied and collected as 11018
a tax.11019

       Those annual payments shall never again be made after they 11020
have ceased.11021

       (17) Sue or be sued, plead or be impleaded, and be held 11022
liable in any court of proper jurisdiction for damages received by 11023
reason of negligence, in the same manner and to the same extent as 11024
if the county transit system were privately operated, provided, 11025
that no funds of a county other than those of the county transit 11026
board or, if the transit system is operated by the board of county 11027
commissioners, other than those in the account for the county 11028
transit system created under division (C) of section 306.01 of the 11029
Revised Code, shall be available for the satisfaction of judgments 11030
rendered against that system;11031

       (18) Annually prepare and make available for public 11032
inspection a report in condensed form showing the financial 11033
results of the operation of the county transit system. For systems 11034
operated by a county transit board, copies of this report shall be 11035
furnished to the county commissioners as well as a monthly summary 11036
statement of revenues and expenses for the preceding month 11037
sufficient to show the exact financial condition of the county 11038
transit system as of the last day of the preceding month.11039

       (19) With the approval of the county commissioners when the 11040
action is taken by the transit board, and without competitive 11041
bidding, sell, lease, or grant the right of use of all or a 11042
portion of the county transit system to any other political 11043
subdivision, taxing district, or other public body or agency 11044
having the power to operate a transit system;11045

       (20) Enter into and supervise franchise agreements for the 11046
operation of a county transit system;11047

       (21) Accept the assignment of and then supervise an existing 11048
franchise agreement for the operation of a county transit system.11049

       Sec. 306.36.  (A) The board of trustees of a regional transit 11050
authority may exercise the power of eminent domain to appropriate 11051
any land, rights, rights-of-way, franchise, power lines, 11052
easements, or other property, within or without the territorial 11053
boundaries of the regional transit authority, necessary or proper 11054
for the construction or efficient operation of any transit 11055
facility or access thereto under its jurisdiction pursuant to the 11056
procedure provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22, inclusive, of the 11057
Revised Code, and subject to division (B) of this section, 11058
provided that a regional transit authority shall not proceed to so 11059
appropriate real property outside its territorial boundaries, 11060
until it has served at the office of the county commissioners of 11061
the county in which it is proposed to appropriate real property, a 11062
notice describing the real property to be taken and the purpose 11063
for which it is proposed to be taken, and such county 11064
commissioners have entered on their journal within thirty days 11065
after such service a resolution approving such appropriation.11066

       (B) Nothing contained in sections 306.30 to 306.53, 11067
inclusive, of the Revised Code authorizes a regional transit 11068
authority to appropriate any land, rights, rights-of-way, 11069
franchises, or easements belonging to the state or a municipal 11070
corporation without the consent of the state or municipal 11071
corporation, and no regional transit authority shall exercise the 11072
right of eminent domain to acquire any certificate of public 11073
convenience and necessity, or any part thereof, issued to a 11074
for-hire motor transportation companycarrier by the public 11075
utilities commission of Ohio or by the interstate commerce 11076
commission of the United Statesfederal motor carrier safety 11077
administration, or to take or disturb other property or facilities 11078
belonging to any political subdivision, public corporation, public 11079
utility, or common carrier, which property or facility is 11080
necessary and convenient in the operation of such political 11081
subdivision, public corporation, public utility, or common 11082
carrier, unless provision is made for the restoration, relocation, 11083
or duplication of such property or facility, or upon the election 11084
of such political subdivision, public corporation, public utility, 11085
or common carrier, for the payment of compensation, if any, at the 11086
sole cost of the regional transit authority, provided:11087

       (1) If any restoration or duplication of any property or 11088
facility proposed to be made under this division involves a 11089
relocation of such property or facility the new facility and 11090
location thereof shall be of at least comparable utilitarian value 11091
and effectiveness and such relocation shall not impair the ability 11092
of the public utility or common carrier to compete in its original 11093
area of operation.11094

       (2) If any restoration or duplication of any property or 11095
facility proposed to be made under this division involves a 11096
relocation of such property or facility, the regional transit 11097
authority shall acquire no interest or right in or to the 11098
appropriated property or facility until the relocated property or 11099
facility is available for use and until marketable title thereto 11100
has been transferred to the public utility or common carrier.11101

       (C) When real property is acquired which is located outside 11102
the territorial boundaries of the regional transit authority and 11103
which is removed from the tax duplicate, the regional transit 11104
authority shall pay annually to the county treasurer of the county 11105
in which such property is located, commencing with the first tax 11106
year in which such property is removed from the tax duplicate, an 11107
amount of money in lieu of taxes equal to the smaller of the 11108
following:11109

       (1) The last annual installment of taxes due from the 11110
acquired property before removal from the tax duplicate;11111

       (2) An amount equal to the difference between the combined 11112
revenue from real estate taxes of all the taxing districts in 11113
which such property is located in the tax year immediately prior 11114
to the removal of such acquired property from the tax duplicate, 11115
and either:11116

       (a) The total revenue which would be produced by the tax rate 11117
of each such taxing district in the tax year immediately prior to 11118
the removal of such acquired property from the tax duplicate, 11119
applied to the real estate tax duplicate of each of such taxing 11120
districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of removal; or11121

       (b) The combined revenue from real estate taxes of all such 11122
taxing districts in each tax year subsequent to the year of 11123
removal, whichever is the greater.11124

       The county auditor of each county in which such property is 11125
located shall apportion each such annual payment to each taxing 11126
district as if such annual payment has been levied and collected 11127
as a tax.11128

       Such annual payments shall never again be made after they 11129
have ceased.11130

       The regional transit authority may be exempted from such 11131
payment by agreement of the affected taxing district or districts 11132
in the county in which such property is located.11133

       Sec. 306.55. Beginning July 1, 2011 and until November 5, 11134
2013, the legislative authority of any municipal corporation or 11135
the board of township trustees of any township that has created or 11136
joined a regional transit authority that levies a property tax and 11137
that includes in its membership political subdivisions that are 11138
located in a county having a population of at least four hundred 11139
thousand according to the most recent federal census, may withdraw 11140
the municipal corporation or the unincorporated territory of the 11141
township from the regional transit authority in the manner 11142
provided in this section. The legislative authority of the 11143
municipal corporation or board of township trustees of the 11144
township proposing to withdraw shall adopt a resolution to submit 11145
the question of withdrawing from the regional transit authority to 11146
the electors of the territorymunicipal corporation or the 11147
unincorporated area of the township to be withdrawn and shall 11148
certify the proposal to the board of elections for the purpose of 11149
having the proposal placed on the ballot at the next general 11150
election or at a special election conducted on the day of the next 11151
primary election that occurs not less than ninety days after the 11152
resolution is certified to the board of elections.11153

        Upon certification of a proposal to the board of elections 11154
pursuant to this section, the board of elections shall make the 11155
necessary arrangements for the submission of the question to the 11156
electors of the territory to be withdrawn from the regional 11157
transit authority qualified to vote on the question, and the. For 11158
a municipal corporation, the election shall be held, canvassed, 11159
and certified in the same manner as regular elections for the 11160
election of officers of the subdivisionmunicipal corporation11161
proposing to withdraw from the regional transit authority, except 11162
that the question appearing on the ballot of a municipal 11163
corporation shall read:11164

        "Shall the territory within the ......................... 11165
(Namename of political subdivisionmunicipal corporation to be 11166
withdrawn) be withdrawn from ......................... ......... 11167
(Namename of) regional transit authority)?"11168

       For the unincorporated area of a township, the election shall 11169
be held, canvassed, and certified in the same manner as regular 11170
elections for the election of officers of the township, except 11171
that question shall only be presented to electors of the 11172
unincorporated area of the township and the question appearing on 11173
the ballot of the unincorporated area of the township shall read:11174

       "Shall the territory of the unincorporated area of ...... 11175
(name of township to be withdrawn) be withdrawn from ...... (name 11176
of regional transit authority)?"11177

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or board 11178
of trustees of a township, by vote of two-thirds of all members of 11179
the legislative authority or board, may adopt a resolution and 11180
certify that resolution to the board of elections for the combined 11181
purpose of withdrawing from a regional transit authority as 11182
provided in this section and levying a property tax pursuant to 11183
division (XX) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code for a 11184
municipal corporation and section 5705.72 of the Revised Code for 11185
a township. If the questions are combined, the question appearing 11186
on the ballot shall be as provided in section 5705.252 of the 11187
Revised Code.11188

        If the question is approved by at least a majority of the 11189
electors voting on the question, the withdrawal is effective six 11190
months from the date of the certification of its passage.11191

        The board of elections to which the resolution was certified 11192
shall certify the results of the election to the board or 11193
legislative authority of the subdivision that submitted the 11194
resolution to withdraw and to the board of trustees of the 11195
regional transit authority from which the subdivision proposed to 11196
withdraw. If the question is approved by at least a majority of 11197
the electors voting on the question, the municipal corporation's 11198
or unincorporated area of the township's membership in the 11199
regional transit authority terminates on the thirty-first day of 11200
December of the calendar year in which the election is held.11201

        If the question of withdrawing from the regional transit 11202
authority is approved, the power of the regional transit authority 11203
to levy a tax on taxable property in the affected area of the11204
withdrawing subdivision terminates beginning with the tax year in 11205
which the election is held, and no taxes from the levy may be 11206
charged for collection against such property for that tax year.11207

       Sec. 307.05.  As used in this section, "emergency medical 11208
service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 11209
of the Revised Code.11210

       A board of county commissioners may operate an ambulance 11211
service organization or emergency medical service organization, 11212
or, in counties with a population of forty thousand or less, may 11213
operate a nonemergency patient transport service organization, or 11214
may enter into a contract with one or more counties, townships, 11215
municipal corporations, nonprofit corporations, joint emergency 11216
medical services districts, fire and ambulance districts, or 11217
private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such counties, 11218
townships, municipal corporations, nonprofit corporations, joint 11219
emergency medical services districts, fire and ambulance 11220
districts, or private ambulance owners are located within or 11221
without the state, in order to furnish or obtain the services of 11222
ambulance service organizations, to furnish or obtain additional 11223
services from ambulance service organizations in times of 11224
emergency, to furnish or obtain the services of emergency medical 11225
service organizations, or, in counties with a population of forty 11226
thousand or less, to furnish or obtain services of nonemergency 11227
patient transport service organizations, or may enter into a 11228
contract with any such entity to furnish or obtain the interchange 11229
of services from ambulance or emergency medical service 11230
organizations, or, within counties with a population of forty 11231
thousand or less, to furnish or obtain the interchange of services 11232
from nonemergency patient transport service organizations, within 11233
the territories of the contracting subdivisions. Except in the 11234
case of a contract with a joint emergency medical services 11235
district to obtain the services of emergency medical service 11236
organizations, such contracts shall not be entered into with a 11237
public agency or nonprofit corporation that receives more than 11238
half of its operating funds from governmental entities with the 11239
intention of directly competing with the operation of other 11240
ambulance service organizations, nonemergency patient transport 11241
service organizations, or emergency medical service organizations 11242
in the county unless the public agency or nonprofit corporation is 11243
awarded the contract after submitting the lowest and best bid to 11244
the board of county commissioners. Any county wishing to commence 11245
operation of a nonemergency patient transport service organization 11246
or wishing to enter into a contract for the first time to furnish 11247
or obtain services from a nonemergency patient transport service 11248
organization on or after March 1, 1993, including a county in 11249
which a private provider has been providing the service, shall 11250
demonstrate the need for public funding for the service to, and 11251
obtain approval from, the state board of emergency medical, fire, 11252
and transportation services or its immediate successor board prior 11253
to operating or funding the organization.11254

       When such an organization is operated by the board, the 11255
organization may be administered by the board, by the county 11256
sheriff, or by another county officer or employee designated by 11257
the board. All rules, including the determining of reasonable 11258
rates, necessary for the establishment, operation, and maintenance 11259
of such an organization shall be adopted by the board.11260

       A contract for services of an ambulance service, nonemergency 11261
patient transport service, or emergency medical service 11262
organization shall include the terms, conditions, and stipulations 11263
as agreed to by the parties to the contract. It may provide for a 11264
fixed annual charge to be paid at the times agreed upon and 11265
stipulated in the contract, or for compensation based upon a 11266
stipulated price for each run, call, or emergency or the number of 11267
persons or pieces of apparatus employed, or the elapsed time of 11268
service required in such run, call, or emergency, or any 11269
combination thereof.11270

       Sec. 307.051.  As used in this section, "emergency medical 11271
service organization" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 11272
of the Revised Code.11273

       A board of county commissioners, by adoption of an 11274
appropriate resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of 11275
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license 11276
any emergency medical service organization it operates. If a board 11277
adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, 11278
except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 11279
applies to the county emergency medical service organization. All 11280
rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter also 11281
apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an appropriate 11282
resolution, may remove its emergency medical service organization 11283
from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board of emergency11284
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.11285

       Sec. 307.055.  (A) Subject to the terms and conditions of the 11286
joint resolution creating it, each joint emergency medical 11287
services district may furnish ambulance services and emergency 11288
medical services by one of the following methods:11289

       (1) By operating an emergency medical service organization 11290
as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;11291

       (2) By contracting for the operation of one or more 11292
facilities pursuant to division (C) or (D) of this section;11293

       (3) By providing necessary services and equipment to the 11294
district either directly or under a contract entered into pursuant 11295
to division (B) of this section;11296

       (4) By providing service through any combination of methods 11297
described in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of this section.11298

       (B) In order to obtain ambulance service, to obtain 11299
additional ambulance service in times of emergency, or to obtain 11300
emergency medical services, a joint emergency medical services 11301
district may enter into a contract, for a period not to exceed 11302
three years, with one or more counties, townships, municipal 11303
corporations, joint fire districts, other governmental units that 11304
provide ambulance service or emergency medical services, nonprofit 11305
corporations, or private ambulance owners, regardless of whether 11306
the entities contracted with are located within or outside this 11307
state, upon such terms as are agreed to, to furnish or receive 11308
ambulance services or the interchange of ambulance services or 11309
emergency medical services within the several territories of the 11310
contracting subdivisions, if the contract is first authorized by 11311
all boards of trustees and legislative authorities in the 11312
territories to be served.11313

       Such a contract may provide for a fixed annual charge to be 11314
paid at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract; or 11315
for compensation based on a stipulated price for each run, call, 11316
or emergency or based on the elapsed time of service required for 11317
each run, call, or emergency, or based on any combination of 11318
these.11319

       Expenditures of a district for ambulance service or emergency 11320
medical service, whether pursuant to contract or otherwise, are 11321
lawful expenditures, regardless of whether the district or the 11322
party with which it contracts charges an additional fee to users 11323
of the service.11324

       (C) The board of trustees may enter into a contract with any 11325
person, municipal corporation, township, or other political 11326
subdivision, and any political subdivision may contract with the 11327
board, for the operation and maintenance of emergency medical 11328
services facilities regardless of whether the facilities used are 11329
owned or leased by the district, by another political subdivision, 11330
or by the contractor.11331

       (D) The district may purchase, lease, and maintain all 11332
materials, buildings, land, and equipment, including vehicles, the 11333
board considers necessary for the district.11334

       When the board finds, by resolution, that the district has 11335
personal property that is not needed for public use, or is 11336
obsolete or unfit for the use for which it was acquired, the board 11337
may dispose of the property in the same manner as provided in 11338
section 307.12 of the Revised Code.11339

       (E) Except in the case of a contract with a board of county 11340
commissioners for the provision of services of an emergency 11341
medical service organization, any contract entered into by a joint 11342
emergency medical services district shall conform to the same 11343
bidding requirements that apply to county contracts under sections 11344
307.86 to 307.92 of the Revised Code.11345

       (F) A county participating in a joint district may contribute 11346
any of its rights or interests in real or personal property, 11347
including money, and may contribute services to the district. Any 11348
such contributions shall be made by a written agreement between 11349
the contributing county and the district, specifying the 11350
contribution as well as the rights of the participating counties 11351
in the contributed property. Written agreements shall also be 11352
prepared specifying the rights of participating counties in 11353
property acquired by the district other than by contribution of a 11354
participating county. Written agreements required by this division 11355
may be amended only by written agreement of all parties to the 11356
original agreement.11357

       (G) A district's board of trustees, by adoption of an 11358
appropriate resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of 11359
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license 11360
any emergency medical service organization the district operates. 11361
If a board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised 11362
Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 11363
applies to the district emergency medical service organization. 11364
All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter 11365
also apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an 11366
appropriate resolution, may remove the district emergency medical 11367
service organization from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board 11368
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.11369

       Sec. 313.121.  (A) As used in this section, "parent" means 11370
either parent, except that if one parent has been designated the 11371
residential parent and legal custodian of the child, "parent" 11372
means the designated residential parent and legal custodian, and 11373
if a person other than a parent is the child's legal guardian, 11374
"parent" means the legal guardian.11375

       (B) If a child under two years of age dies suddenly when in 11376
apparent good health, the death shall be reported immediately to 11377
the coroner of the county in which the death occurred, as required 11378
by section 313.12 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in 11379
division (C) of this section, the coroner or deputy coroner shall 11380
perform an autopsy on the child. The autopsy shall be performed in 11381
accordance with public health council rules adopted by the 11382
director of health under section 313.122 of the Revised Code. The 11383
coroner or deputy coroner may perform research procedures and 11384
tests when performing the autopsy.11385

       (C) A coroner or deputy coroner is not required to perform an 11386
autopsy if the coroner of the county in which the death occurred 11387
or a court with jurisdiction over the deceased body determines 11388
under section 313.131 of the Revised Code that an autopsy is 11389
contrary to the religious beliefs of the child. If the coroner or 11390
the court makes such a determination, the coroner shall notify the 11391
health district or department of health with jurisdiction in the 11392
area in which the child's parent resides. For purposes of this 11393
division, the religious beliefs of the parents of a child shall be 11394
considered to be the religious beliefs of the child.11395

       (D) If the child's parent makes a written or verbal request 11396
for the preliminary results of the autopsy after the results are 11397
available, the coroner, or a person designated by himthe coroner, 11398
shall give the parent an oral statement of the preliminary 11399
results.11400

       The coroner, within a reasonable time after the final results 11401
of the autopsy are reported, shall send written notice of the 11402
results to the state department of health, the health district or 11403
department with jurisdiction in the area in which the child's 11404
parent resides, and, upon the request of a parent of the child, to 11405
the child's attending physician. Upon the written request of a 11406
parent of the child and the payment of the transcript fee required 11407
by section 313.10 of the Revised Code, the coroner shall send 11408
written notice of the final results to that parent. The notice 11409
sent to the state department of health shall include all of the 11410
information specified by rule of the public health councilin 11411
rules adopted under section 313.122 of the Revised Code.11412

       (E) On the occurrence of any of the following, the health 11413
district or department with jurisdiction in the area in which the 11414
child's parent resides shall offer the parent any counseling or 11415
other supportive services it has available:11416

       (1) When it learns through any source that an autopsy is 11417
being performed on a child under two years of age who died 11418
suddenly when in apparent good health;11419

       (2) When it receives notice that the final result of an 11420
autopsy performed pursuant to this section concluded that the 11421
child died of sudden infant death syndrome;11422

       (3) When it is notified by the coroner that, pursuant to 11423
division (C) of this section, an autopsy was not performed.11424

       (F) When a health district or department receives notice that 11425
the final result of an autopsy performed pursuant to this section 11426
concluded that the child died of sudden infant death syndrome or 11427
that, pursuant to division (C) of this section, an autopsy was not 11428
performed but sudden infant death syndrome may have been the cause 11429
of death, it shall offer the child's parent information about 11430
sudden infant death syndrome. The state department of health shall 11431
ensure that current information on sudden infant death syndrome is 11432
available for distribution by health districts and departments.11433

       Sec. 313.122.  The publicdirector of health council, after 11434
reviewing and considering any recommendations made by the Ohio 11435
state coroners association, shall adopt rules in accordance with 11436
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a protocol governing 11437
the performance of autopsies under section 313.121 of the Revised 11438
Code. The rules shall specify the information derived from an 11439
autopsy that a coroner is required to report to the state 11440
department of health. The public health councildirector shall not 11441
amend the rules adopted under this section unless it notifies the 11442
Ohio state coroners association of the proposed changes and 11443
consults with the association.11444

       Sec. 313.16.  In counties where no coroner's laboratory has 11445
been established or where the coroner's laboratory does not have 11446
the equipment or personnel to follow the protocol established by 11447
rule ofin rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council 11448
adopted under section 313.122 of the Revised Code, the coroner may 11449
request a coroner of a county in which such a laboratory is 11450
established or that has a laboratory able to follow the public 11451
health council'sdirector's protocol to perform necessary 11452
laboratory examinations, the cost of which shall be no greater 11453
than the actual value of the services of technicians and the 11454
materials used in performing such examination. Money derived from 11455
the fees paid for these examinations shall be kept in a special 11456
fund, for the use of the coroner's laboratory, from which fund 11457
replacements can be made. Such funds shall be used to purchase 11458
necessary supplies and equipment for the laboratory and to pay any 11459
associated costs incurred in the administration of this section at 11460
the coroner's discretion.11461

       Sec. 329.01.  In each county, except as provided in section 11462
329.40 of the Revised Code, there shall be a county department of 11463
job and family services which, when so established, shall be 11464
governed by this chapter. The department shall consist of a county 11465
director of job and family services appointed by the board of 11466
county commissioners, and such assistants and other employees as 11467
are necessary for the efficient performance of the functions of 11468
the county department. Before entering upon the discharge of the 11469
director's official duties, the director shall give a bond, 11470
conditioned for the faithful performance of those official duties, 11471
in such sum as fixed by the board. The director may require any 11472
assistant or employee under the director's jurisdiction to give a 11473
bond in such sum as determined by the board. All bonds given under 11474
this section shall be with a surety or bonding company authorized 11475
to do business in this state, conditioned for the faithful 11476
performance of the duties of such director, assistant, or 11477
employee. The expense or premium for any bond required by this 11478
section shall be paid from the appropriation for administrative 11479
expenses of the department. Such bond shall be deposited with the 11480
county treasurer and kept in the treasurer's office.11481

       As used in the Revised Code:11482

       (A) "County department of job and family services" means the 11483
county department of job and family services established under 11484
this section, including an entity designated a county department 11485
of job and family services under section 307.981 of the Revised 11486
Code, or thea joint county department of job and family services 11487
established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.11488

       (B) "County director of job and family services" means the 11489
county director of job and family services appointed under this 11490
section or under section 329.41 of the Revised Code. 11491

       Sec. 329.40.  (A)(1) The boards of county commissioners of 11492
theany two or more counties of Hocking, Ross, and Vinton, by 11493
entering into a written agreement, may form a joint county 11494
department of job and family services to perform the duties, 11495
provide the services, and operate the programs required under this 11496
chapter. The formation of this joint county department of job and 11497
family services is a pilot project. The agreement shall be 11498
ratified by resolution of the board of county commissioners of 11499
each county that entered into the agreement. Each board of county 11500
commissioners that enters into thean agreement shall give notice 11501
of the agreement to the Ohio department of job and family services 11502
at least ninety days before the agreement's effective date. The 11503
agreement shall take effect not earlier than the first day of the 11504
calendar quarter following the ninety-day notice period. The 11505
director of job and family services shall adopt, as an internal 11506
management rule under section 111.15 of the Revised Code, the form 11507
in which the notice shall be given.11508

        (2) The boards of county commissioners of the counties 11509
forming thea joint county department shall constitute, 11510
collectively, the board of directors of the joint county 11511
department of job and family services. On the effective date of 11512
the agreement, the board of directors shall take control of and 11513
manage the joint county department subject to this chapter and all 11514
other sections of the Revised Code that govern the authority and 11515
responsibilities of a single board of county commissioners in the 11516
operation of a single county department of job and family 11517
services.11518

       (B)(1) TheAn agreement to establish thea joint county 11519
department shall specify all of the following:11520

       (a) The obligations of each board of county commissioners in 11521
operating the joint county department, including requiring each 11522
board to provide state, federal, and county funds to the operation 11523
of the joint county department and the schedule for provision of 11524
those funds;11525

       (b) How and which facilities, equipment, and personnel will 11526
be shared;11527

       (c) Procedures for the division of resources and obligations 11528
should a countyif one or more counties withdraw from the joint 11529
county department, or should the department ceaseceases to exist;11530

       (d) Any contributions of participating counties establishing 11531
the joint county department and the rights of those counties in 11532
lands or personal property, or rights or interests therein, 11533
contributed to or otherwise acquired by the joint county 11534
department.11535

       (2) TheAn agreement to establish thea joint county 11536
department may set forth any or all of the following:11537

       (a) Quality, timeliness, and other standards to be met by 11538
each county;11539

       (b) Which family service programs and functions are to be 11540
included in the joint county department;11541

       (c) Procedures for the operation of the board of directors, 11542
including procedures governing the frequency of meetings and the 11543
number of members of the board required to constitute a quorum to 11544
take action;11545

       (d) Any other procedures or standards necessary for the joint 11546
county department to perform its duties and operate efficiently.11547

       (C) TheAn agreement may be amended by a majority vote of the 11548
board of directors of the joint county department, but no 11549
amendment shall divest a participating county of any right or 11550
interest in lands or personal property without its consent.11551

       (D) Costs incurred in operating thea joint county department 11552
shall be paid from a joint general fund created by the board of 11553
directors, except as may be otherwise provided in the agreement.11554

       (E) A joint county department established under this section 11555
is a public office as defined in section 117.01 of the Revised 11556
Code.11557

       Sec. 329.41.  (A) The board of directors of thea joint 11558
county department of job and family services formed under section 11559
329.40 of the Revised Code shall appoint and fix the compensation 11560
of athe director of the department. The director shall serve at 11561
the pleasure of the board of directors. Under the direction and 11562
control of the board, the director shall have full charge of the 11563
department as set forth in section 329.02 of the Revised Code for 11564
the director of a single county department of job and family 11565
services.11566

       (B) The board of directors may appoint up to three 11567
administrators to oversee services provided by the joint county 11568
department. Administrators shall be in the unclassified service.11569

       (C) Employees of thea joint county department of job and 11570
family services shall be appointed by the director of the joint 11571
county department and, except as provided in this section, shall 11572
be in the classified service. The employees of thea joint county 11573
department shall be considered county employees for the purposes 11574
of Chapter 124. of the Revised Code and other provisions of state 11575
law applicable to county employees. Instead of or in addition to 11576
appointing these employees, thea board of directors may agree to 11577
use the employees of one or more of the counties that formed thea11578
joint county department in the service of the joint county 11579
department and to share in their compensation in any manner that 11580
may be agreed upon.11581

       (D) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, if 11582
an employee's separation from county service occurs in connection 11583
with a county joining or withdrawing from thea joint county 11584
department of job and family services, the board of county 11585
commissioners that initially appointed the employee shall have no 11586
obligation to pay any compensation with respect to unused vacation 11587
or sick leave accrued to the credit of the employee if the 11588
employee accepts employment with the joint county department or a 11589
withdrawing county. At the effective time of separation from 11590
county service, the joint county department or the withdrawing 11591
county, as the case may be, shall assume such unused vacation and 11592
sick leave accrued to the employee's credit.11593

       Sec. 329.42.  The county auditor of the county with the 11594
largest population that formed thea joint county department of 11595
job and family services under section 329.40 of the Revised Code 11596
shall serve as the fiscal officer of the joint county department, 11597
and the county treasurer of that county shall serve as the 11598
treasurer of the joint county department, unless the counties that 11599
formed the joint county department agree to appoint the county 11600
auditor and county treasurer of another county that formed the 11601
department. In either case, these county officers shall perform 11602
any applicable duties for the joint county department as each 11603
typically performs for the county of which the individual is an 11604
officer. The board of directors of the joint county department may 11605
pay to that county any amount agreed upon by the board of 11606
directors and the board of county commissioners of that county to 11607
reimburse the county for the costs that are properly allocable to 11608
the service of its officers as fiscal officer and treasurer of the 11609
joint county department.11610

       Sec. 329.43.  (A) The prosecuting attorney of the county with 11611
the largest population that formed thea joint county department 11612
of job and family services under section 329.40 of the Revised 11613
Code shall serve as the legal advisor of the board of directors of 11614
the joint county department, unless the counties that formed the 11615
joint county department agree to appoint the prosecuting attorney 11616
of another county that formed the joint county department as legal 11617
advisor of the board. The board of directors may pay to the county 11618
of the prosecuting attorney who is the legal advisor of the board 11619
any amount agreed upon by the board of directors and the board of 11620
county commissioners of that county to reimburse that county for 11621
the costs that are properly allocable to the service of its 11622
prosecuting attorney as the legal advisor of the board of 11623
directors.11624

       (B) The prosecuting attorney shall provide such services to 11625
the board of directors as are required or authorized to be 11626
provided to other county boards under Chapter 309. of the Revised 11627
Code.11628

       (C)(1) If the board of directors of thea joint county 11629
department wishes to employ other legal counsel on an annual basis 11630
to serve as the board's legal advisor in place of the prosecuting 11631
attorney, the board may do so with the agreement of the 11632
prosecuting attorney. If the prosecuting attorney does not agree, 11633
the board of directors may apply to the court of common pleas of 11634
the county with the largest population that formed the joint 11635
county department for authority to employ other legal counsel on 11636
an annual basis.11637

       (2) If the board of directors of thea joint county 11638
department wishes to employ other legal counsel to represent or 11639
advise the board on a particular matter in place of the 11640
prosecuting attorney, the board may do so with the agreement of 11641
the prosecuting attorney. If the prosecuting attorney does not 11642
agree, the board of directors may apply to the court of common 11643
pleas of the county with the largest population that formed the 11644
joint county department for authority to employ other legal 11645
counsel for that particular matter.11646

       (3) The prosecuting attorney who is the legal advisor of the 11647
board of directors shall be given notice of an application filed 11648
under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section and shall be afforded 11649
an opportunity to be heard. After the hearing, the court may 11650
authorize the board of directors to employ other legal counsel on 11651
an annual basis or for a particular matter only if it finds that 11652
the prosecuting attorney refuses or is unable to provide the legal 11653
services that the board requires. If the board of directors 11654
employs other legal counsel on an annual basis or for a particular 11655
matter, the board may not require the prosecuting attorney to 11656
provide legal advice, opinions, or other legal services during the 11657
period or to the extent that the board employs the other legal 11658
counsel.11659

       Sec. 329.44.  (A) AThe board of directors of thea joint 11660
county department of job and family services formed under section 11661
329.40 of the Revised Code may acquire, by purchase or lease, real 11662
property, equipment, and systems to improve, maintain, or operate 11663
family service programs within the territory served by the joint 11664
county department. A board of county commissioners may acquire, 11665
within its county, real property or any estate, interest, or right 11666
therein, by appropriation or any other method, for use by the 11667
joint county department in connection with its provision of 11668
services. Appropriation proceedings shall be conducted in 11669
accordance with Chapter 163. of the Revised Code.11670

       (B) A board of county commissioners that formed thea joint 11671
county department may contribute lands or rights or interests 11672
therein, money, other personal property or rights or interests 11673
therein, or services to the joint county department. The board of 11674
county commissioners may issue bonds or bond anticipation notes of 11675
the county to pay the cost of acquiring real property and of 11676
constructing, modifying, or upgrading a facility to house 11677
employees of the joint county department. The board of directors 11678
of thea joint county department may reimburse the county for the 11679
use of such a facility if it is required to do so under the 11680
agreement entered into under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.11681

       Sec. 329.45.  (A)(1) A board of county commissioners that has 11682
entered into an agreement under section 329.40 of the Revised Code 11683
establishing a joint county department of job and family services11684
may passadopt a resolution requesting to withdraw from the 11685
agreement establishing the joint county department of job and 11686
family services formed under section 329.40 of the Revised Code. 11687
Upon adopting such a resolution, the board of county commissioners 11688
shall deliver a copy of the resolution to the board of directors 11689
of the joint county department. Upon receiving the resolution, the 11690
board of directors shall deliver written notice of the requested 11691
withdrawal to the boards of county commissioners of the other 11692
county or counties that formed the joint county department. Within11693
Not later than thirty days after receiving the notice, each of 11694
those boards of county commissioners shall adopt a resolution 11695
either accepting the withdrawal or objecting to the withdrawal, 11696
and shall deliver a copy of the resolution to the board of 11697
directors.11698

       (2) If any of the boards of county commissioners that formed 11699
thea joint county department adopts a resolution objecting to the 11700
requested withdrawal, the board of directors shall deliver written 11701
notice of the objection to each other board of county 11702
commissioners of the counties that formed the joint county 11703
department, including the board of county commissioners of the 11704
county proposing withdrawal, and shall schedule. Not later than 11705
thirty days after sending the notice, the board of directors shall 11706
hold a meeting of the board of directors to be held within thirty 11707
days to discuss the objection. After the meeting, the board of 11708
directors shall determine whether the county requesting withdrawal 11709
desires to proceed with the withdrawal and, if the county does, 11710
the board of directors shall accept the withdrawal. Not later than 11711
thirty days after the determination was made, the board of 11712
directors shall deliver written notice of the withdrawal to the 11713
boards of county commissioners that formed the joint county 11714
department and to the board of county commissioners that requested 11715
withdrawal, and shall commence the withdrawal process under this 11716
section.11717

       (3) If all of the boards of county commissioners that formed 11718
thea joint county department, except for the board of county 11719
commissioners requesting the withdrawal, each adopt a resolution 11720
accepting the withdrawal, the board of directors shall declare the 11721
withdrawal to be accepted. Not later than thirty days after the 11722
declaration, the board of directors shall deliver written notice 11723
of the withdrawal to all of the boards of county commissioners 11724
that formed the joint county department, including the board of 11725
county commissioners of the county requesting withdrawal, and 11726
shall commence the withdrawal process under this section.11727

       (4) The board of directors shall give notice to the Ohio 11728
department of job and family services of the withdrawal of a 11729
county under this section at least ninety days before the 11730
withdrawal becomes final. The director of job and family services 11731
shall adopt, as an internal management rule under section 111.15 11732
of the Revised Code, the form in which the notice shall be given.11733

        (5) If a county requesting to withdraw decides to remain as a 11734
party to the agreement establishing thea joint county department, 11735
the board of county commissioners of that county shall rescind its 11736
original resolution requesting withdrawal and shall deliver a copy 11737
of the rescission to the board of directors of the joint county 11738
department withinnot later than thirty days after adopting the 11739
rescission.11740

       (B) If a county withdraws from thean agreement under this 11741
section, the board of directors shall ascertain, apportion, and 11742
order a division of the funds on hand, credits, and real and 11743
personal property of the joint county department, either in money 11744
or in kind, on an equitable basis between the joint county 11745
department and the withdrawing county according to the agreement 11746
entered into under section 329.40 of the Revised Code and 11747
consistent with any prior contributions of the withdrawing county 11748
to the joint county department. Any debt incurred individually 11749
shall remain the responsibility of that county, unless otherwise 11750
specified in the agreement establishing the joint county 11751
department.11752

       (C) A withdrawal becomes final not earlier than the first day 11753
of the calendar quarter following the ninety-day notice period 11754
required by division (A)(4) of this section. On and after that 11755
day, the withdrawing county ceases to be a part of the joint 11756
county department, and its members of the board of directors shall 11757
cease to be members of that board.11758

       (D) If the withdrawal of one or more counties would leave 11759
only one county participating in thea joint county department, 11760
the board of directors shall ascertain, apportion, and order a 11761
final division of the funds on hand, credits, and real and 11762
personal property of the joint county department. On and after the 11763
day on which the latest withdrawal of a county becomes final, the 11764
joint county department is dissolved. When thea joint county 11765
department is dissolved and any indebtedness remains unpaid, the 11766
boards of county commissioners that formed the joint county 11767
department shall pay the indebtedness of the joint county 11768
department in the amounts established by the agreement at the time 11769
the indebtedness was incurred.11770

       Sec. 329.46.  (A) A board of county commissioners that formed 11771
thea joint county department of job and family services under 11772
section 329.40 of the Revised Code, by adopting a resolution, may 11773
propose the removal of another county that formed the joint county 11774
department. The board of county commissioners shall send a copy of 11775
such a resolution to the board of directors of the joint county 11776
department. WithinNot later than ten days after receiving the 11777
copy of the resolution, the board of directors shall send a copy 11778
of the resolution to each board of county commissioners that 11779
formed the joint county department, except the board of county 11780
commissioners proposing removal. WithinNot later than thirty days 11781
after sending a copy of the resolution, the board of directors 11782
shall hold a hearing at which any county commissioner whose county 11783
formed the joint county department may present arguments for or 11784
against the removal. At the hearing, approval or disapproval of 11785
the removal shall be determined by a two-thirds vote of the county 11786
commissioners of the counties that formed the joint county 11787
department, with the exception of the county commissioners of the 11788
county proposed for removal.11789

       (B) The board of directors of thea joint county department 11790
of job and family services, by adopting a resolution by a majority 11791
vote of the members of the board, may propose removal of a county 11792
that formed the joint county department. WithinNot later than ten 11793
days after adopting such a resolution, the board of directors 11794
shall send a copy of the resolution to the board of county 11795
commissioners of each county that formed the joint county 11796
department, including the board of county commissioners of the 11797
county proposed for removal. WithinNot later than thirty days 11798
after sending the copy of the resolution, the board of directors 11799
shall hold a hearing at which any member of the board may present 11800
arguments for or against the removal. At this hearing, approval or 11801
disapproval of the resolution proposing removal shall be 11802
determined by a two-thirds vote of the members of the board of 11803
directors, with the exception of the board members who represent 11804
the county proposed for removal.11805

       (C) If removal of a county is approved under this section, 11806
the board of directors shall give written notice of the approval 11807
to the Ohio department of job and family services at least ninety 11808
days before the removal takes effect. The director of job and 11809
family services shall adopt, as an internal management rule under 11810
section 111.15 of the Revised Code, the form in which the notice 11811
shall be given.11812

        (D) Removal of a county under this section shall take effect 11813
not earlier than the first day of the calendar quarter following 11814
the ninety-day notice period required by division (C) of this 11815
section.11816

        (E) If, at any time, the county proposed for removal under 11817
division (A) or (B) of this section notifies the board of 11818
directors, by a majority vote of that county's board of county 11819
commissioners, that it chooses to withdraw from the joint county 11820
department, the withdrawal procedure established under section 11821
329.45 of the Revised Code shall be put immediately into motion.11822

       Sec. 330.04.  If, for the purpose of Chapter 6301. of the 11823
Revised Code, a county is the type of local area defined in 11824
division (A)(2) of section 6301.01 of the Revised Code, the board 11825
of county commissioners serving the county shall adopt a 11826
resolution establishing or designating a workforce development 11827
agency to provide workforce development activities for the county. 11828
The board shall adopt the resolution not later than July 1, 2000. 11829

       The board may establish or designate any of the following as 11830
the workforce development agency:11831

       (A) The county department of job and family services;11832

       (B) A separate agency under the direct control of the board 11833
and administered by an official appointed by the board;11834

       (C) An entity serving the county on the effective date of 11835
this sectionMarch 14, 2000, in a capacity similar to the capacity 11836
in which a workforce development agency is to serve the county on 11837
and after the effective date of this sectionMarch 14, 2000;11838

       (D) An entity located in or outside the county that provides 11839
workforce development activities in the county on the effective 11840
date of this sectionMarch 14, 2000;11841

       (E) Any private or government entity designated under section 11842
307.981 of the Revised Code;11843

       (F) TheA joint county department of job and family services 11844
established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.11845

       Sec. 339.091.  Before the board of county commissioners, 11846
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 11847
may enter into an initial agreement for the acquisition, 11848
operation, or lease under section 140.03, 140.05, 339.09, or 11849
339.14 of the Revised Code of a county hospital operated by a 11850
board of county hospital trustees under section 339.06 of the 11851
Revised Code, the board of county commissioners shall review the 11852
agreement. If it finds that the agreement will meet the needs of 11853
the residents of the county for hospital service, the board of 11854
county commissioners may adopt a resolution authorizing the board 11855
of county commissioners, board of county hospital trustees, or 11856
county hospital commission to enter into the agreement. On 11857
adoption of the resolution, the board of county commissioners, 11858
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 11859
may enter into the agreement.11860

       The requirements of this section do not apply to an agreement 11861
if one or more hospitals classified as general hospitals by the 11862
publicdirector of health council under section 3701.07 of the 11863
Revised Code are operating in the same county as the county 11864
hospital.11865

       Sec. 340.03.  (A) Subject to rules issued by the director of 11866
mental health after consultation with relevant constituencies as 11867
required by division (L) of section 5119.06 of the Revised Code, 11868
with regard to mental health services, the board of alcohol, drug 11869
addiction, and mental health services shall:11870

       (1) Serve as the community mental health planning agency for 11871
the county or counties under its jurisdiction, and in so doing it 11872
shall:11873

       (a) Evaluate the need for facilities and community mental 11874
health services;11875

       (b) In cooperation with other local and regional planning and 11876
funding bodies and with relevant ethnic organizations, assess the 11877
community mental health needs, set priorities, and develop plans 11878
for the operation of facilities and community mental health 11879
services;11880

       (c) In accordance with guidelines issued by the director of 11881
mental health after consultation with board representatives, 11882
annually develop and submit to the department of mental health a 11883
community mental health plan listing community mental health 11884
needs, including the needs of all residents of the district now 11885
residing in state mental institutions and severely mentally 11886
disabled adults, children, and adolescents; all children subject 11887
to a determination made pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised 11888
Code; and all the facilities and community mental health services 11889
that are or will be in operation or provided during the period for 11890
which the plan will be in operation in the service district to 11891
meet such needs.11892

       The plan shall include, but not be limited to, a statement of 11893
which of the services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code 11894
the board intends to make available. The board must include crisis 11895
intervention services for individuals in an emergency situation in 11896
the plan and explain how the board intends to make such services 11897
available. The plan must also include a statement of the inpatient 11898
and community-based services the board proposes that the 11899
department operate, an assessment of the number and types of 11900
residential facilities needed, such other information as the 11901
department requests, and a budget for moneys the board expects to 11902
receive. The department shall approve or disapprove the plan, in 11903
whole or in part, according to the criteria developed pursuant to 11904
section 5119.61 of the Revised Code. The department's statement of 11905
approval or disapproval shall specify the inpatient and the 11906
community-based services that the department will operate for the 11907
board. Eligibility for state and federal funding shall be 11908
contingent upon an approved plan or relevant part of a plan. 11909

       If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a plan or 11910
an allocation request that has been approved under division 11911
(A)(1)(c) of this section, the board shall submit a proposed 11912
amendment to the director. The director may approve or disapprove 11913
all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform the board 11914
of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of an amendment and 11915
of the criteria that must be met before the amendment may be 11916
approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to 11917
present its case on behalf of the amendment. The director shall 11918
give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, 11919
and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 11920
criteria.11921

       The board shall implement the plan approved by the 11922
department.11923

       (d) Promote, arrange, and implement working agreements with 11924
social agencies, both public and private, and with judicial 11925
agencies.11926

       (2) Investigate, or request another agency to investigate, 11927
any complaint alleging abuse or neglect of any person receiving 11928
services from a community mental health agency as defined in 11929
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, or fromalleging abuse or 11930
neglect of a person with mental illness or severe mental 11931
disability residing in a residential facility licensed under 11932
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code. If the investigation 11933
substantiates the charge of abuse or neglect, the board shall take 11934
whatever action it determines is necessary to correct the 11935
situation, including notification of the appropriate authorities. 11936
Upon request, the board shall provide information about such 11937
investigations to the department.11938

       (3) For the purpose of section 5119.611 of the Revised Code, 11939
cooperate with the director of mental health in visiting and 11940
evaluating whether the services of a community mental health 11941
agency satisfy the certification standards established by rules 11942
adopted under that section;11943

       (4) In accordance with criteria established under division 11944
(E) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code, review and evaluate 11945
the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided 11946
through its community mental health plan and submit its findings 11947
and recommendations to the department of mental health;11948

       (5) In accordance with section 5119.22 of the Revised Code, 11949
review applicationsan application for a residential facility 11950
licenseslicense and recommendprovide to the department of 11951
mental health approval or disapproval of applicationsany 11952
information about the applicant or facility that the board would 11953
like the department to consider in reviewing the application;11954

       (6) Audit, in accordance with rules adopted by the auditor of 11955
state pursuant to section 117.20 of the Revised Code, at least 11956
annually all programs and services provided under contract with 11957
the board. In so doing, the board may contract for or employ the 11958
services of private auditors. A copy of the fiscal audit report 11959
shall be provided to the director of mental health, the auditor of 11960
state, and the county auditor of each county in the board's 11961
district.11962

       (7) Recruit and promote local financial support for mental 11963
health programs from private and public sources;11964

       (8)(a) Enter into contracts with public and private 11965
facilities for the operation of facility services included in the 11966
board's community mental health plan and enter into contracts with 11967
public and private community mental health agencies for the 11968
provision of community mental health services that are listed in 11969
section 340.09 of the Revised Code and included in the board's 11970
community mental health plan. The board may not contract with a 11971
community mental health agency to provide community mental health 11972
services included in the board's community mental health plan 11973
unless the services are certified by the director of mental health 11974
under section 5119.611 of the Revised Code. Section 307.86 of the 11975
Revised Code does not apply to contracts entered into under this 11976
division. In contracting with a community mental health agency, a 11977
board shall consider the cost effectiveness of services provided 11978
by that agency and the quality and continuity of care, and may 11979
review cost elements, including salary costs, of the services to 11980
be provided. A utilization review process shall be established as 11981
part of the contract for services entered into between a board and 11982
a community mental health agency. The board may establish this 11983
process in a way that is most effective and efficient in meeting 11984
local needs. Until July 1, 2012, a contract with a community 11985
mental health agency or facility, as defined in section 5111.023 11986
of the Revised Code, to provide services listed in division (B) of 11987
that section shall provide for the agency or facility to be paid 11988
in accordance with the contract entered into between the 11989
departments of job and family services and mental health under 11990
section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and any rules adopted under 11991
division (A) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code.11992

       If either the board or a facility or community mental health 11993
agency with which the board contracts under division (A)(8)(a) of 11994
this section proposes not to renew the contract or proposes 11995
substantial changes in contract terms, the other party shall be 11996
given written notice at least one hundred twenty days before the 11997
expiration date of the contract. During the first sixty days of 11998
this one hundred twenty-day period, both parties shall attempt to 11999
resolve any dispute through good faith collaboration and 12000
negotiation in order to continue to provide services to persons in 12001
need. If the dispute has not been resolved sixty days before the 12002
expiration date of the contract, either party may request that12003
notify the department of mental health of the unresolved dispute. 12004
The director may require both parties to submit the dispute to a 12005
third party with the cost to be shared by the board and the 12006
facility or community mental health agency. The third party shall 12007
issue to the board and, the facility or agency, and the department12008
recommendations on how the dispute may be resolved twenty days 12009
prior to the expiration date of the contract, unless both parties 12010
agree to a time extension. The director shall adopt rules 12011
establishing the procedures of this dispute resolution process.12012

       (b) With the prior approval of the director of mental health, 12013
a board may operate a facility or provide a community mental 12014
health service as follows, if there is no other qualified private 12015
or public facility or community mental health agency that is 12016
immediately available and willing to operate such a facility or 12017
provide the service:12018

       (i) In an emergency situation, any board may operate a 12019
facility or provide a community mental health service in order to 12020
provide essential services for the duration of the emergency;12021

       (ii) In a service district with a population of at least one 12022
hundred thousand but less than five hundred thousand, a board may 12023
operate a facility or provide a community mental health service 12024
for no longer than one year;12025

       (iii) In a service district with a population of less than 12026
one hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a 12027
community mental health service for no longer than one year, 12028
except that such a board may operate a facility or provide a 12029
community mental health service for more than one year with the 12030
prior approval of the director and the prior approval of the board 12031
of county commissioners, or of a majority of the boards of county 12032
commissioners if the district is a joint-county district.12033

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 12034
facility or provide a community mental health service under 12035
division (A)(8)(b)(ii) or (iii) of this section unless the 12036
director determines that it is not feasible to have the department 12037
operate the facility or provide the service.12038

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 12039
facility or provide a community mental health service under 12040
division (A)(8)(b)(iii) of this section unless the director 12041
determines that the board will provide greater administrative 12042
efficiency and more or better services than would be available if 12043
the board contracted with a private or public facility or 12044
community mental health agency.12045

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 12046
facility previously operated by a person or other government 12047
entity unless the board has established to the director's 12048
satisfaction that the person or other government entity cannot 12049
effectively operate the facility or that the person or other 12050
government entity has requested the board to take over operation 12051
of the facility. The director shall not give a board approval to 12052
provide a community mental health service previously provided by a 12053
community mental health agency unless the board has established to 12054
the director's satisfaction that the agency cannot effectively 12055
provide the service or that the agency has requested the board 12056
take over providing the service.12057

       The director shall review and evaluate a board's operation of 12058
a facility and provision of community mental health service under 12059
division (A)(8)(b) of this section.12060

       Nothing in division (A)(8)(b) of this section authorizes a 12061
board to administer or direct the daily operation of any facility 12062
or community mental health agency, but a facility or agency may 12063
contract with a board to receive administrative services or staff 12064
direction from the board under the direction of the governing body 12065
of the facility or agency.12066

       (9) Approve fee schedules and related charges or adopt a unit 12067
cost schedule or other methods of payment for contract services 12068
provided by community mental health agencies in accordance with 12069
guidelines issued by the department as necessary to comply with 12070
state and federal laws pertaining to financial assistance;12071

       (10) Submit to the director and the county commissioners of 12072
the county or counties served by the board, and make available to 12073
the public, an annual report of the programs under the 12074
jurisdiction of the board, including a fiscal accounting;12075

       (11) Establish, to the extent resources are available, a 12076
community support system, which provides for treatment, support, 12077
and rehabilitation services and opportunities. The essential 12078
elements of the system include, but are not limited to, the 12079
following components in accordance with section 5119.06 of the 12080
Revised Code:12081

       (a) To locate persons in need of mental health services to 12082
inform them of available services and benefits mechanisms;12083

       (b) Assistance for clients to obtain services necessary to 12084
meet basic human needs for food, clothing, shelter, medical care, 12085
personal safety, and income;12086

       (c) Mental health care, including, but not limited to, 12087
outpatient, partial hospitalization, and, where appropriate, 12088
inpatient care;12089

       (d) Emergency services and crisis intervention;12090

       (e) Assistance for clients to obtain vocational services and 12091
opportunities for jobs;12092

       (f) The provision of services designed to develop social, 12093
community, and personal living skills;12094

       (g) Access to a wide range of housing and the provision of 12095
residential treatment and support;12096

       (h) Support, assistance, consultation, and education for 12097
families, friends, consumers of mental health services, and 12098
others;12099

       (i) Recognition and encouragement of families, friends, 12100
neighborhood networks, especially networks that include racial and 12101
ethnic minorities, churches, community organizations, and 12102
meaningful employment as natural supports for consumers of mental 12103
health services;12104

       (j) Grievance procedures and protection of the rights of 12105
consumers of mental health services;12106

       (k) Case management, which includes continual individualized 12107
assistance and advocacy to ensure that needed services are offered 12108
and procured.12109

       (12) Designate the treatment program, agency, or facility for 12110
each person involuntarily committed to the board pursuant to 12111
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code and authorize payment for such 12112
treatment. The board shall provide the least restrictive and most 12113
appropriate alternative that is available for any person 12114
involuntarily committed to it and shall assure that the services 12115
listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code are available to 12116
severely mentally disabled persons residing within its service 12117
district. The board shall establish the procedure for authorizing 12118
payment for services, which may include prior authorization in 12119
appropriate circumstances. The board may provide for services 12120
directly to a severely mentally disabled person when life or 12121
safety is endangered and when no community mental health agency is 12122
available to provide the service.12123

       (13) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 12124
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 12125
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 12126
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 12127
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 12128
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 12129
appropriate, if any;12130

       (14) Ensure that apartments or rooms built, subsidized, 12131
renovated, rented, owned, or leased by the board or a community 12132
mental health agency have been approved as meeting minimum fire 12133
safety standards and that persons residing in the rooms or 12134
apartments are receiving appropriate and necessary services, 12135
including culturally relevant services, from a community mental 12136
health agency. This division does not apply to residential 12137
facilities licensed pursuant to section 5119.22 of the Revised 12138
Code.12139

       (15) Establish a mechanism for involvement of consumer 12140
recommendation and advice on matters pertaining to mental health 12141
services in the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 12142
district;12143

       (16) Perform the duties under section 5119.88 of the Revised 12144
Code required by rules adopted under section 5119.61 of the 12145
Revised Code regarding referrals by the board or mental health 12146
agencies under contract with the board of individuals with mental 12147
illness or severe mental disability to adult careresidential12148
facilities as defined in division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of 12149
the Revised Code and effective arrangements for ongoing mental 12150
health services for the individuals. The board is accountable in 12151
the manner specified in the rules for ensuring that the ongoing 12152
mental health services are effectively arranged for the 12153
individuals.12154

       (B) The board shall establish such rules, operating 12155
procedures, standards, and bylaws, and perform such other duties 12156
as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this 12157
chapter.12158

       (C) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 12159
services may receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any 12160
moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the purposes for 12161
which the board is established, and may hold and apply it 12162
according to the terms of the gift, grant, or bequest. All money 12163
received, including accrued interest, by gift, grant, or bequest 12164
shall be deposited in the treasury of the county, the treasurer of 12165
which is custodian of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 12166
health services funds to the credit of the board and shall be 12167
available for use by the board for purposes stated by the donor or 12168
grantor.12169

       (D) No board member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 12170
addiction, and mental health services shall be liable for injury 12171
or damages caused by any action or inaction taken within the scope 12172
of the board member's official duties or the employee's 12173
employment, whether or not such action or inaction is expressly 12174
authorized by this section, section 340.033, or any other section 12175
of the Revised Code, unless such action or inaction constitutes 12176
willful or wanton misconduct. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 12177
applies to any action or inaction by a board member or employee of 12178
a board taken within the scope of the board member's official 12179
duties or employee's employment. For the purposes of this 12180
division, the conduct of a board member or employee shall not be 12181
considered willful or wanton misconduct if the board member or 12182
employee acted in good faith and in a manner that the board member 12183
or employee reasonably believed was in or was not opposed to the 12184
best interests of the board and, with respect to any criminal 12185
action or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the 12186
conduct was unlawful.12187

       (E) The meetings held by any committee established by a board 12188
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be 12189
considered to be meetings of a public body subject to section 12190
121.22 of the Revised Code.12191

       Sec. 340.05.  A community mental health agency that receives 12192
a complaint under section 5119.87 of the Revised Code alleging 12193
abuse or neglect of an individual with mental illness or severe 12194
mental disability who resides in an adult carea residential12195
facility as defined in division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of 12196
the Revised Code shall report the complaint to the board of 12197
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services serving the 12198
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district in 12199
which the adult careresidential facility is located. A board of 12200
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that receives 12201
such a complaint or a report from a community mental health agency 12202
of such a complaint shall report the complaint to the director of 12203
mental health for the purpose of the director conducting an 12204
investigation under section 5119.875119.22 of the Revised Code. 12205
The board may enter the adult care facility with or without the 12206
director and, if the health and safety of a resident is in 12207
immediate danger, take any necessary action to protect the 12208
resident. The board's action shall not violate any resident's 12209
rights under section 5119.81 of the Revised Code andspecified in12210
rules adopted by the department of mental health under sections 12211
5119.70 to 5119.88section 5119.22 of the Revised Code. The board 12212
shall immediately report to the director regarding the board's 12213
actions under this section.12214

       Sec. 340.091.  Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 12215
mental health services shall contract with a community mental 12216
health agency under division (A)(7)(a) of section 340.03 of the 12217
Revised Code for the agency to do all of the following in 12218
accordance with rules adopted under section 5119.61 of the Revised 12219
Code for an individual referred to the agency under division 12220
(C)(D)(2) of section 5119.69 of the Revised Code:12221

       (A) Assess the individual to determine whether to recommend 12222
that a residential state supplement administrative agency 12223
designated under section 5119.69 of the Revised Code determine12224
and, if the agency determines that the environment in which the 12225
individual will be living while receiving residential state 12226
supplement payments is appropriate for the individual's needs and, 12227
if it determines the environment is appropriate, issue thea12228
recommendation to the referring residential state supplement 12229
administrative agency that the referring agency should conclude 12230
that the living environment is appropriate when it makes its 12231
determination regarding the appropriateness of the environment;12232

       (B) Provide ongoing monitoring to ensure that services 12233
provided under section 340.09 of the Revised Code are available to 12234
the individual;12235

       (C) Provide discharge planning to ensure the individual's 12236
earliest possible transition to a less restrictive environment.12237

       Sec. 505.37.  (A) The board of township trustees may 12238
establish all necessary rules to guard against the occurrence of 12239
fires and to protect the property and lives of the citizens 12240
against damage and accidents, and may, with the approval of the 12241
specifications by the prosecuting attorney or, if the township has 12242
adopted limited home rule government under Chapter 504. of the 12243
Revised Code, with the approval of the specifications by the 12244
township's law director, purchase, lease, lease with an option to 12245
purchase, or otherwise provide any fire apparatus, mechanical 12246
resuscitators, or other equipment, appliances, materials, fire 12247
hydrants, and water supply for fire-fighting purposes that seems 12248
advisable to the board. The board shall provide for the care and 12249
maintenance of fire equipment, and, for these purposes, may 12250
purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, or construct 12251
and maintain necessary buildings, and it may establish and 12252
maintain lines of fire-alarm communications within the limits of 12253
the township. The board may employ one or more persons to maintain 12254
and operate fire-fighting equipment, or it may enter into an 12255
agreement with a volunteer fire company for the use and operation 12256
of fire-fighting equipment. The board may compensate the members 12257
of a volunteer fire company on any basis and in any amount that it 12258
considers equitable.12259

        When the estimated cost to purchase fire apparatus, 12260
mechanical resuscitators, other equipment, appliances, materials, 12261
fire hydrants, buildings, or fire-alarm communications equipment 12262
or services exceeds fifty thousand dollars, the contract shall be 12263
let by competitive bidding. When competitive bidding is required, 12264
the board shall advertise once a week for not less than two 12265
consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation within the 12266
township. The board may also cause notice to be inserted in trade 12267
papers or other publications designated by it or to be distributed 12268
by electronic means, including posting the notice on the board's 12269
internet web site. If the board posts the notice on its web site, 12270
it may eliminate the second notice otherwise required to be 12271
published in a newspaper of general circulation within the 12272
township, provided that the first notice published in such 12273
newspaper meets all of the following requirements: 12274

       (1) It is published at least two weeks before the opening of 12275
bids.12276

       (2) It includes a statement that the notice is posted on the 12277
board's internet web site.12278

       (3) It includes the internet address of the board's internet 12279
web site.12280

       (4) It includes instructions describing how the notice may be 12281
accessed on the board's internet web site.12282

       The advertisement shall include the time, date, and place 12283
where the clerk of the township, or the clerk's designee, will 12284
read bids publicly. The time, date, and place of bid openings may 12285
be extended to a later date by the board of township trustees, 12286
provided that written or oral notice of the change shall be given 12287
to all persons who have received or requested specifications not 12288
later than ninety-six hours prior to the original time and date 12289
fixed for the opening. The board may reject all the bids or accept 12290
the lowest and best bid, provided that the successful bidder meets 12291
the requirements of section 153.54 of the Revised Code when the 12292
contract is for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, 12293
or reconstruction of an improvement.12294

       (B) The boards of township trustees of any two or more 12295
townships, or the legislative authorities of any two or more 12296
political subdivisions, or any combination of these, may, through 12297
joint action, unite in the joint purchase, lease, lease with an 12298
option to purchase, maintenance, use, and operation of 12299
fire-fighting equipment, or for any other purpose designated in 12300
sections 505.37 to 505.42 of the Revised Code, and may prorate the 12301
expense of the joint action on any terms that are mutually agreed 12302
upon.12303

       (C) The board of township trustees of any township may, by 12304
resolution, whenever it is expedient and necessary to guard 12305
against the occurrence of fires or to protect the property and 12306
lives of the citizens against damages resulting from their 12307
occurrence, create a fire district of any portions of the township 12308
that it considers necessary. The board may purchase, lease, lease 12309
with an option to purchase, or otherwise provide any fire 12310
apparatus, appliances, materials, fire hydrants, and water supply 12311
for fire-fighting purposes, or may contract for the fire 12312
protection for the fire district as provided in section 9.60 of 12313
the Revised Code. The fire district so created shall be given a 12314
separate name by which it shall be known.12315

       Additional unincorporated territory of the township may be 12316
added to a fire district upon the board's adoption of a resolution 12317
authorizing the addition. A municipal corporation that is within 12318
or adjoining the township may be added to a fire district upon the 12319
board's adoption of a resolution authorizing the addition and the 12320
municipal legislative authority's adoption of a resolution or 12321
ordinance requesting the addition of the municipal corporation to 12322
the fire district.12323

       If the township fire district imposes a tax, additional 12324
unincorporated territory of the township or a municipal 12325
corporation that is within or adjoining the township shall become 12326
part of the fire district only after all of the following have 12327
occurred:12328

       (1) Adoption by the board of township trustees of a 12329
resolution approving the expansion of the territorial limits of 12330
the district and, if the resolution proposes to add a municipal 12331
corporation, adoption by the municipal legislative authority of a 12332
resolution or ordinance requesting the addition of the municipal 12333
corporation to the district;12334

       (2) Adoption by the board of township trustees of a 12335
resolution recommending the extension of the tax to the additional 12336
territory;12337

       (3) Approval of the tax by the electors of the territory 12338
proposed for addition to the district.12339

       Each resolution of the board adopted under division (C)(2) of 12340
this section shall state the name of the fire district, a 12341
description of the territory to be added, and the rate and 12342
termination date of the tax, which shall be the rate and 12343
termination date of the tax currently in effect in the fire 12344
district.12345

       The board of trustees shall certify each resolution adopted 12346
under division (C)(2) of this section to the board of elections in 12347
accordance with section 5705.19 of the Revised Code. The election 12348
required under division (C)(3) of this section shall be held, 12349
canvassed, and certified in the manner provided for the submission 12350
of tax levies under section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except 12351
that the question appearing on the ballot shall read:12352

       "Shall the territory within ........................ 12353
(description of the proposed territory to be added) be added to 12354
........................ (name) fire district, and a property tax 12355
at a rate of taxation not exceeding ...... (here insert tax rate) 12356
be in effect for .......... (here insert the number of years the 12357
tax is to be in effect or "a continuing period of time," as 12358
applicable)?"12359

       If the question is approved by at least a majority of the 12360
electors voting on it, the joinder shall be effective as of the 12361
first day of July of the year following approval, and on that 12362
date, the township fire district tax shall be extended to the 12363
taxable property within the territory that has been added. If the 12364
territory that has been added is a municipal corporation and if it 12365
had adopted a tax levy for fire purposes, the levy is terminated 12366
on the effective date of the joinder.12367

       Any municipal corporation may withdraw from a township fire 12368
district created under division (C) of this section by the 12369
adoption by the municipal legislative authority of a resolution or 12370
ordinance ordering withdrawal. On the first day of July of the 12371
year following the adoption of the resolution or ordinance of 12372
withdrawal, the municipal corporation withdrawing ceases to be a 12373
part of the district, and the power of the fire district to levy a 12374
tax upon taxable property in the withdrawing municipal corporation 12375
terminates, except that the fire district shall continue to levy 12376
and collect taxes for the payment of indebtedness within the 12377
territory of the fire district as it was composed at the time the 12378
indebtedness was incurred.12379

       Upon the withdrawal of any municipal corporation from a 12380
township fire district created under division (C) of this section, 12381
the county auditor shall ascertain, apportion, and order a 12382
division of the funds on hand, moneys and taxes in the process of 12383
collection except for taxes levied for the payment of 12384
indebtedness, credits, and real and personal property, either in 12385
money or in kind, on the basis of the valuation of the respective 12386
tax duplicates of the withdrawing municipal corporation and the 12387
remaining territory of the fire district.12388

       A board of township trustees may remove unincorporated 12389
territory of the township from the fire district upon the adoption 12390
of a resolution authorizing the removal. On the first day of July 12391
of the year following the adoption of the resolution, the 12392
unincorporated township territory described in the resolution 12393
ceases to be a part of the district, and the power of the fire 12394
district to levy a tax upon taxable property in that territory 12395
terminates, except that the fire district shall continue to levy 12396
and collect taxes for the payment of indebtedness within the 12397
territory of the fire district as it was composed at the time the 12398
indebtedness was incurred.12399

       (D) The board of township trustees of any township, the board 12400
of fire district trustees of a fire district created under section 12401
505.371 of the Revised Code, or the legislative authority of any 12402
municipal corporation may purchase, lease, or lease with an option 12403
to purchase the necessary fire-fighting equipment, buildings, and 12404
sites for the township, fire district, or municipal corporation 12405
and issue securities for that purpose with maximum maturities as 12406
provided in section 133.20 of the Revised Code. The board of 12407
township trustees, board of fire district trustees, or legislative 12408
authority may also construct any buildings necessary to house 12409
fire-fighting equipment and issue securities for that purpose with 12410
maximum maturities as provided in section 133.20 of the Revised 12411
Code.12412

        The board of township trustees, board of fire district 12413
trustees, or legislative authority may issue the securities of the 12414
township, fire district, or municipal corporation, signed by the 12415
board or designated officer of the municipal corporation and 12416
attested by the signature of the township fiscal officer, fire 12417
district clerk, or municipal clerk, covering any deferred payments 12418
and payable at the times provided, which securities shall bear 12419
interest not to exceed the rate determined as provided in section 12420
9.95 of the Revised Code, and shall not be subject to Chapter 133. 12421
of the Revised Code. The legislation authorizing the issuance of 12422
the securities shall provide for levying and collecting annually 12423
by taxation, amounts sufficient to pay the interest on and 12424
principal of the securities. The securities shall be offered for 12425
sale on the open market or given to the vendor or contractor if no 12426
sale is made.12427

       Section 505.40 of the Revised Code does not apply to any 12428
securities issued, or any lease with an option to purchase entered 12429
into, in accordance with this division.12430

       (E) A board of township trustees of any township or a board 12431
of fire district trustees of a fire district created under section 12432
505.371 of the Revised Code may purchase a policy or policies of 12433
liability insurance for the officers, employees, and appointees of 12434
the fire department, fire district, or joint fire district 12435
governed by the board that includes personal injury liability 12436
coverage as to the civil liability of those officers, employees, 12437
and appointees for false arrest, detention, or imprisonment, 12438
malicious prosecution, libel, slander, defamation or other 12439
violation of the right of privacy, wrongful entry or eviction, or 12440
other invasion of the right of private occupancy, arising out of 12441
the performance of their duties.12442

       When a board of township trustees cannot, by deed of gift or 12443
by purchase and upon terms it considers reasonable, procure land 12444
for a township fire station that is needed in order to respond in 12445
reasonable time to a fire or medical emergency, the board may 12446
appropriate land for that purpose under sections 163.01 to 163.22 12447
of the Revised Code. If it is necessary to acquire additional 12448
adjacent land for enlarging or improving the fire station, the 12449
board may purchase, appropriate, or accept a deed of gift for the 12450
land for these purposes.12451

       (F) As used in this division, "emergency medical service 12452
organization" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 of the 12453
Revised Code.12454

       A board of township trustees, by adoption of an appropriate 12455
resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of emergency12456
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license any 12457
emergency medical service organization it operates. If the board 12458
adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, 12459
except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 12460
applies to the organization. All rules adopted under the 12461
applicable sections of that chapter also apply to the 12462
organization. A board of township trustees, by adoption of an 12463
appropriate resolution, may remove its emergency medical service 12464
organization from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board of 12465
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.12466

       Sec. 505.375.  (A)(1)(a) The boards of township trustees of 12467
one or more townships and the legislative authorities of one or 12468
more municipal corporations, or the legislative authorities of two 12469
or more municipal corporations, or the boards of township trustees 12470
of two or more townships, may negotiate an agreement to form a 12471
fire and ambulance district for the delivery of both fire and 12472
ambulance services. The agreement shall be ratified by the 12473
adoption of a joint resolution by a majority of the members of 12474
each board of township trustees involved and a majority of the 12475
members of the legislative authority of each municipal corporation 12476
involved. The joint resolution shall specify a date on which the 12477
fire and ambulance district shall come into being.12478

       (b) If a joint fire district created under section 505.371 of 12479
the Revised Code or a joint ambulance district created under 12480
section 505.71 of the Revised Code is dissolved to facilitate the 12481
creation of a fire and ambulance district under division (A)(1)(a) 12482
of this section, the townships and municipal corporations forming 12483
the fire and ambulance district may transfer to the fire and 12484
ambulance district any of the funds on hand, moneys and taxes in 12485
the process of collection, credits, and real and personal property 12486
apportioned to them under division (D) of section 505.371 of the 12487
Revised Code or section 505.71 of the Revised Code, as applicable, 12488
for use by the fire and ambulance district in accordance with this 12489
section.12490

       (2)(a) The board of trustees of a joint ambulance district 12491
created under section 505.71 of the Revised Code and the board of 12492
fire district trustees of a joint fire district created under 12493
section 505.371 of the Revised Code may negotiate to combine their 12494
two joint districts into a single fire and ambulance district for 12495
the delivery of both fire and ambulance services, if the 12496
geographic area covered by the combining joint districts is 12497
exactly the same. Both boards shall adopt a joint resolution 12498
ratifying the agreement and setting a date on which the fire and 12499
ambulance district shall come into being.12500

       (b) On that date, the joint fire district and the joint 12501
ambulance district shall cease to exist, and the power of each to 12502
levy a tax upon taxable property shall terminate, except that any 12503
levy of a tax for the payment of indebtedness within the territory 12504
of the joint fire or joint ambulance district as it was composed 12505
at the time the indebtedness was incurred shall continue to be 12506
collected by the successor fire and ambulance district if the 12507
indebtedness remains unpaid. All funds and other property of the 12508
joint districts shall become the property of the fire and 12509
ambulance district, unless otherwise provided in the negotiated 12510
agreement. The agreement shall provide for the settlement of all 12511
debts and obligations of the joint districts.12512

       (B)(1) The governing body of a fire and ambulance district 12513
created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section shall be a 12514
board of trustees of at least three but no more than nine members, 12515
appointed as provided in the agreement creating the district. 12516
Members of the board may be compensated at a rate not to exceed 12517
thirty dollars per meeting for not more than fifteen meetings per 12518
year, and may be reimbursed for all necessary expenses incurred, 12519
as provided in the agreement creating the district.12520

       (2) The board shall employ a clerk and other employees as it 12521
considers best, including a fire chief or fire prevention 12522
officers, and shall fix their compensation. Neither this section 12523
nor any other section of the Revised Code requires, or shall be 12524
construed to require, that the fire chief of a fire and ambulance 12525
district be a resident of the district.12526

       Before entering upon the duties of office, the clerk shall 12527
execute a bond, in the amount and with surety to be approved by 12528
the board, payable to the state, conditioned for the faithful 12529
performance of all of the clerk's official duties. The clerk shall 12530
deposit the bond with the presiding officer of the board, who 12531
shall file a copy of it, certified by the presiding officer, with 12532
the county auditor of the county containing the most territory in 12533
the district.12534

       The board also shall provide for the appointment of a fiscal 12535
officer for the district and may enter into agreements with 12536
volunteer fire companies for the use and operation of 12537
fire-fighting equipment. Volunteer firefighters acting under such 12538
an agreement are subject to the requirements for volunteer 12539
firefighters set forth in division (A) of section 505.38 of the 12540
Revised Code.12541

       (3) Employees of the district shall not be removed from 12542
office except as provided by sections 733.35 to 733.39 of the 12543
Revised Code, except that, to initiate removal proceedings, the 12544
board shall designate a private citizen or, if the employee is 12545
employed as a firefighter, the board may designate the fire chief, 12546
to investigate, conduct the proceedings, and prepare the necessary 12547
charges in conformity with those sections, and except that the 12548
board shall perform the functions and duties specified for the 12549
municipal legislative authority under those sections. The board 12550
may pay reasonable compensation to any private citizen hired for 12551
services rendered in the matter.12552

       (4) No person shall be appointed as a permanent full-time 12553
paid member of the district whose duties include fire fighting, or 12554
be appointed as a volunteer firefighter, unless that person has 12555
received a certificate issued under former section 3303.07 or 12556
section 4765.55 of the Revised Code evidencing satisfactory 12557
completion of a firefighter training program. The board may send 12558
its officers and firefighters to schools of instruction designed 12559
to promote the efficiency of firefighters and, if authorized in 12560
advance, may pay their necessary expenses from the funds used for 12561
the maintenance and operation of the district.12562

       The board may choose, by adoption of an appropriate 12563
resolution, to have the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 12564
fire, and transportation boardservices license any emergency 12565
medical service organization it operates. If the board adopts such 12566
a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code, except for 12567
sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, applies to the 12568
organization. All rules adopted under the applicable sections of 12569
that chapter also apply to the organization. The board may remove, 12570
by resolution, its emergency medical service organization from the 12571
jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, 12572
and transportation boardservices.12573

       (C) The board of trustees of a fire and ambulance district 12574
created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section may exercise 12575
the following powers:12576

       (1) Purchase or otherwise provide any fire apparatus, 12577
mechanical resuscitators, or other fire or ambulance equipment, 12578
appliances, or materials; fire hydrants; and water supply for 12579
firefighting purposes that seems advisable to the board;12580

       (2) Provide for the care and maintenance of equipment and, 12581
for that purpose, purchase, lease, lease with an option to 12582
purchase, or construct and maintain necessary buildings;12583

       (3) Establish and maintain lines of fire-alarm communications 12584
within the limits of the district;12585

       (4) Appropriate land for a fire station or medical emergency 12586
unit needed in order to respond in reasonable time to a fire or 12587
medical emergency, in accordance with Chapter 163. of the Revised 12588
Code;12589

       (5) Purchase, appropriate, or accept a deed or gift of land 12590
to enlarge or improve a fire station or medical emergency unit;12591

       (6) Purchase, lease, lease with an option to purchase, 12592
maintain, and use all materials, equipment, vehicles, buildings, 12593
and land necessary to perform its duties;12594

       (7) Contract for a period not to exceed three years with one 12595
or more townships, municipal corporations, counties, joint fire 12596
districts, joint ambulance districts, governmental agencies, 12597
nonprofit corporations, or private ambulance owners located either 12598
within or outside the state, to furnish or receive ambulance 12599
services or emergency medical services within the several 12600
territories of the contracting parties, if the contract is first 12601
authorized by all boards of trustees and legislative authorities 12602
concerned;12603

       (8) Establish reasonable charges for the use of ambulance or 12604
emergency medical services under the same conditions under which a 12605
board of fire district trustees may establish those charges under 12606
section 505.371 of the Revised Code;12607

       (9) Establish all necessary rules to guard against the 12608
occurrence of fires and to protect property and lives against 12609
damage and accidents;12610

       (10) Adopt a standard code pertaining to fire, fire hazards, 12611
and fire prevention prepared and promulgated by the state or by a 12612
public or private organization that publishes a model or standard 12613
code;12614

       (11) Provide for charges for false alarms at commercial 12615
establishments in the same manner as joint fire districts are 12616
authorized to do under section 505.391 of the Revised Code;12617

       (12) Issue bonds and other evidences of indebtedness, subject 12618
to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, but only after approval by a 12619
vote of the electors of the district as provided by section 133.18 12620
of the Revised Code;12621

       (13) To provide the services and equipment it considers 12622
necessary, levy a sufficient tax, subject to Chapter 5705. of the 12623
Revised Code, on all the taxable property in the district.12624

       (D) Any municipal corporation or township may join an 12625
existing fire and ambulance district, whether created under 12626
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by its legislative 12627
authority's adoption of a resolution requesting the membership and 12628
upon approval of the board of trustees of the district. Any 12629
municipal corporation or township may withdraw from a district, 12630
whether created under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by 12631
its legislative authority's adoption of a resolution ordering 12632
withdrawal. Upon its withdrawal, the municipal corporation or 12633
township ceases to be a part of the district, and the district's 12634
power to levy a tax on taxable property in the withdrawing 12635
township or municipal corporation terminates, except that the 12636
district shall continue to levy and collect taxes for the payment 12637
of indebtedness within the territory of the district as it was 12638
composed at the time the indebtedness was incurred.12639

       Upon the withdrawal of any township or municipal corporation 12640
from a district, the county auditor of the county containing the 12641
most territory in the district shall ascertain, apportion, and 12642
order a division of the funds on hand, including funds in the 12643
ambulance and emergency medical services fund, moneys and taxes in 12644
the process of collection, except for taxes levied for the payment 12645
of indebtedness, credits, and real and personal property on the 12646
basis of the valuation of the respective tax duplicates of the 12647
withdrawing municipal corporation or township and the remaining 12648
territory of the district.12649

       (E) As used in this section:12650

       (1) "Governmental agency" includes all departments, boards, 12651
offices, commissions, agencies, colleges, universities, 12652
institutions, and other instrumentalities of this or another 12653
state.12654

       (2) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same 12655
meaning as in section 4766.01 of the Revised Code.12656

       Sec. 505.44.  As used in this section:12657

       (A) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same 12658
meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.12659

       (B) "State agency" means all departments, boards, offices, 12660
commissions, agencies, colleges, universities, institutions, and 12661
other instrumentalities of this or another state.12662

       In order to obtain the services of ambulance service 12663
organizations, to obtain additional services from ambulance 12664
service organizations in times of emergency, to obtain the 12665
services of emergency medical service organizations, or, if the 12666
township is located in a county with a population of forty 12667
thousand or less, to obtain the services of nonemergency patient 12668
transport service organizations, a township may enter into a 12669
contract with one or more state agencies, townships, municipal 12670
corporations, counties, nonprofit corporations, joint emergency 12671
medical services districts, fire and ambulance districts, or 12672
private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such state 12673
agencies, townships, municipal corporations, counties, nonprofit 12674
corporations, joint emergency medical services districts, fire and 12675
ambulance districts, or private ambulance owners are located 12676
within or outside the state, upon such terms as are agreed to by 12677
them, to furnish or receive services from ambulance or emergency 12678
medical service organizations or, if the township is located in a 12679
county with a population of forty thousand or less, to furnish or 12680
receive services from nonemergency patient transport service 12681
organizations, or may enter into a contract for the interchange of 12682
services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations 12683
or, if the township is located in a county with a population of 12684
forty thousand or less, the interchange of services from 12685
nonemergency patient transport service organizations, within the 12686
several territories of the contracting parties, if the contract is 12687
first authorized by the respective boards of township trustees, 12688
the other legislative bodies, or the officer or body authorized to 12689
contract on behalf of the state agency. Such contracts shall not 12690
be entered into with a state agency or nonprofit corporation that 12691
receives more than half of its operating funds from governmental 12692
entities with the intention of directly competing with the 12693
operation of other ambulance, emergency medical, or nonemergency 12694
patient transport service organizations in the township unless the 12695
state agency or nonprofit corporation is awarded the contract 12696
after submitting the lowest and best bid to the board of township 12697
trustees.12698

       The contract may provide for compensation upon such terms as 12699
the parties may agree.12700

       Any township wishing to commence providing or wishing to 12701
enter into a contract for the first time to furnish or obtain 12702
services from nonemergency patient transport service organizations 12703
on or after March 1, 1993, including a township in which a private 12704
provider has been providing the service, shall demonstrate the 12705
need for public funding for the service to, and obtain approval 12706
from, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 12707
transportation services or its immediate successor board prior to 12708
the establishment of a township-operated or township-funded 12709
service.12710

       Sec. 505.59.  The board of township trustees of a township 12711
that withdraws or proposes by resolution to withdraw the 12712
unincorporated territory of the township from a regional transit 12713
authority under section 306.55 of the Revised Code may levy a tax 12714
on taxable property in the unincorporated area of the township 12715
under section 5705.72 of the Revised Code to provide 12716
transportation services for the movement of persons within, from, 12717
or to the unincorporated area of the township.12718

       Sec. 505.72.  (A) The board of trustees of a joint ambulance 12719
district shall provide for the employment of such employees as it 12720
considers best, and shall fix their compensation. Such employees 12721
shall continue in office until removed as provided by sections 12722
733.35 to 733.39 of the Revised Code. To initiate removal 12723
proceedings, and for such purpose, the board shall designate a 12724
private citizen to investigate the conduct and prepare the 12725
necessary charges in conformity with sections 733.35 to 733.39 of 12726
the Revised Code. The board may pay reasonable compensation to 12727
such person for the person's services.12728

       In case of the removal of an employee of the district, an 12729
appeal may be had from the decision of the board to the court of 12730
common pleas of the county in which such district, or part of it, 12731
is situated, to determine the sufficiency of the cause of removal. 12732
Such appeal from the findings of the board shall be taken within 12733
ten days.12734

       (B) As used in this division, "emergency medical service 12735
organization" has the same meaning as in section 4765.01 of the 12736
Revised Code.12737

       (1) In order to obtain the services of ambulance service 12738
organizations, to obtain additional services from ambulance 12739
service organizations in times of emergency, or to obtain the 12740
services of emergency medical service organizations, a district 12741
may enter into a contract, for a period not to exceed three years, 12742
with one or more townships, municipal corporations, joint fire 12743
districts, nonprofit corporations, any other governmental unit 12744
that provides ambulance services or emergency medical services, or 12745
with private ambulance owners, regardless of whether such 12746
townships, municipal corporations, joint fire districts, nonprofit 12747
corporations, governmental unit, or private ambulance owners are 12748
located within or without this state, upon such terms as are 12749
agreed to, to furnish or receive services from ambulance or 12750
emergency medical service organizations or the interchange of 12751
services from ambulance or emergency medical service organizations 12752
within the several territories of the contracting subdivisions, if 12753
such contract is first authorized by all boards of trustees and 12754
legislative authorities concerned.12755

       The contract may provide for a fixed annual charge to be paid 12756
at the times agreed upon and stipulated in the contract, or for 12757
compensation based upon a stipulated price for each run, call, or 12758
emergency, or the elapsed time of service required in such run, 12759
call, or emergency, or any combination thereof.12760

       (2) Expenditures of a district for the services of ambulance 12761
service organizations or emergency medical service organizations, 12762
whether pursuant to contract or otherwise, are lawful 12763
expenditures, regardless of whether the district or the party with 12764
which it contracts charges additional fees to users of the 12765
services.12766

       (3) A district's board of trustees, by adoption of an 12767
appropriate resolution, may choose to have the Ohiostate board of 12768
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices license 12769
any emergency medical service organization the district operates. 12770
If a board adopts such a resolution, Chapter 4766. of the Revised 12771
Code, except for sections 4766.06 and 4766.99 of the Revised Code, 12772
applies to the district emergency medical service organization. 12773
All rules adopted under the applicable sections of that chapter 12774
also apply to the organization. A board, by adoption of an 12775
appropriate resolution, may remove the district emergency medical 12776
service organization from the jurisdiction of the Ohiostate board 12777
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.12778

       (C) Ambulance services or emergency medical services rendered 12779
for a joint ambulance district under this section and section 12780
505.71 of the Revised Code shall be deemed services of the 12781
district. These sections do not authorize suits against a district 12782
or any township or municipal corporation providing or receiving, 12783
or contracting to provide or receive, such services under these 12784
sections for damages for injury or loss to persons or property or 12785
for wrongful death caused by persons providing such services.12786

       Sec. 705.18.  An annual appropriation ordinance shall be 12787
prepared by the legislative authority of a municipal corporation 12788
from estimates submitted by the mayor, the chairmanchairperson of 12789
the commission, or the city manager, as the case may be, in the 12790
manner provided in section 705.17 of the Revised Code for the 12791
annual tax ordinance. The annual appropriation ordinance shall be 12792
submitted to the legislative authority at its first meeting in 12793
Januaryafter the beginning of the municipal corporation's fiscal 12794
year, and the total of any appropriation ordinance passed by such 12795
legislative authority shall not exceed the total balances carried 12796
over from the previous fiscal year plus the estimated revenue of 12797
the current fiscal year. Supplemental appropriations shall not be 12798
made during the current fiscal year except from an contingent fund 12799
regularly set aside by the legislative authority in the annual 12800
appropriation ordinance or unless by an ordinance passed as an 12801
emergency measure.12802

       Sec. 749.04.  When the legislative authority of a municipal 12803
corporation enters upon and takes possession of grounds purchased, 12804
appropriated, or otherwise obtained for hospital purposes, and, by 12805
resolution or ordinance, determines to erect thereon or rebuild a 12806
hospital, the erection and repair thereof or any addition thereto 12807
shall be vested in a board of five commissioners, called the board 12808
of hospital commissioners, as established under this section.12809

       Such board shall consist of the mayor, who, by virtue of his 12810
office, shall be its president, and fourat least three trustees,12811
to be appointed by the mayor with the consent of the legislative 12812
authority. The members of such board shall be resident freehold 12813
electors of the municipal corporation, and they shall receive no 12814
compensation for their services.12815

       Sec. 749.05.  The term of office of the appointed members of 12816
the board of hospital commissioners shall be four years, but the 12817
members first appointed shall hold their offices, respectively, as 12818
determined by lot at the first meeting of the board, for the 12819
periods of one, two, three, and four years, and thereafter one 12820
member shall be appointed each year for the full term of four 12821
years. AThe mayor with the consent of the legislative authority 12822
shall fill any vacancy on the board of hospital commissioners not 12823
later than sixty days after the vacancy occurs. If the vacancy 12824
remains unfilled on that date, the legislative authority shall 12825
have thirty additional days to fill the vacancy. If the vacancy 12826
remains unfilled for ninety days after the vacancy occurs, the 12827
remaining members of the board, by majority vote, shall appoint an 12828
individual to fill the vacancy. Any member appointed to fill a 12829
vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term for 12830
which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office as 12831
a member for the remainder of that term.12832

       A majority of the board shall constitute a quorum.12833

       Sec. 749.18.  If an agreement under section 749.16 of the 12834
Revised Code concerns or includes participation of a joint 12835
township hospital district, or of a county, in the maintenance and 12836
operation of a municipal hospital, the municipal corporation may 12837
establish a board of governors to exercise, subject to such 12838
further limitations as are imposed by the agreement, the powers 12839
vested in the board of hospital commissioners, provided that any 12840
such limitations shall not deny the board of governors the 12841
authority to retain counsel, to institute legal action in its own 12842
name, or to employ any other lawful means, for the collection of 12843
delinquent accounts. The board of governors may include in its 12844
membership representatives of a participating district who are 12845
electors of the district, or of a participating county who are 12846
electors of that county or an adjacent county, as are provided for 12847
in the agreement. 12848

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, the municipal 12849
members of the board of governors shall consist of the mayor, who 12850
by virtue of that office shall be its president, and fourat least 12851
three resident freeholders of the municipal corporation, at least 12852
one of whom shall be a doctor of medicine, to be appointed by the 12853
mayor with the consent of the legislative authority. However, if 12854
necessary to secure qualified individuals to serve on the board of 12855
governors, the municipal members of the board may be residents of 12856
the county in which the municipal corporation is located or of an 12857
adjacent county. The12858

       The term of office of those municipal members of the board of 12859
governors shall be as provided in section 749.05 of the Revised 12860
Code and vacancies on the board with respect to those members 12861
shall be filled as provided in that section. Unless otherwise 12862
provided in the agreement, any vacancy on the board with respect 12863
to a member appointed by a participating joint township hospital 12864
district or county shall be filled by the appointing body not 12865
later than ninety days after the vacancy occurs and if the vacancy 12866
remains unfilled on that date, the remaining members of the board, 12867
by majority vote, shall appoint an individual to fill the vacancy. 12868
Unless otherwise provided in the agreement, vacancies on the board 12869
with respect to any other members shall be filled by the remaining 12870
members of the board, by majority vote. Any member appointed to 12871
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term 12872
for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 12873
as a member for the remainder of that term. 12874

       The board of governors, subject to the terms of the 12875
agreement, shall establish regulations and elect officers, other 12876
than president, as its members determine. The members shall be 12877
entitled to the compensation for their services provided by the 12878
agreement.12879

       Sec. 901.53.  (A) As used in this section, "agricultural 12880
structure" means any building or structure that is used in 12881
production, growing, harvesting, or housing for the purposes of 12882
agriculture.12883

       (B) With regard to fire prevention and safety, agriculture 12884
and agricultural structures are subject only to the state fire 12885
code established in rules adopted under section 3737.82 of the 12886
Revised Code and not to any other requirements governing fire 12887
prevention and safety.12888

       Sec. 901.54. (A) There is hereby created the office of 12889
farmland preservation within the department of agriculture. The 12890
office shall do all of the following:12891

       (1)(A) Prepare guidelines and criteria for use in the 12892
development of comprehensive local land use plans that encourage 12893
the efficient use of public infrastructure and the preservation of 12894
farmland;12895

       (2)(B) Establish a farmland preservation program to 12896
coordinate and assist local farmland preservation initiatives;12897

       (3) Administer the pilot farmland preservation fund 12898
established in division (B) of this section;12899

       (4)(C) Educate existing agencies and organizations on the 12900
importance of farmland preservation and on the significance of 12901
agriculture and agribusiness to this state's economy;12902

       (5)(D) Serve as a liaison with other farmland preservation 12903
entities operating on a state, regional, or national level;12904

       (6)(E) Prepare an inventory of farmland within this state to 12905
monitor the development of lands within this state having prime 12906
soils or unique microclimates.12907

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the pilot 12908
farmland preservation fund consisting of moneys received by the 12909
office of farmland preservation for the purposes of the fund. The 12910
fund shall be administered by the office of farmland preservation. 12911
Moneys in the fund shall be used to leverage or match other 12912
farmland preservation funds provided from federal, local, or 12913
private sources.12914


       Sec. 924.51.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio grape 12916
industries committee consisting of nine members. The members shall 12917
be the director of agriculture or the director's designee, who 12918
shall chair the committee, the superintendent of liquor control or 12919
the superintendent's designee, the chief of the division of 12920
markets of the department of agriculture, the viticulture 12921
extension specialist of the Ohio agricultural research and 12922
development center, who shall be a nonvoting member, and five 12923
members who shall be residents of this state and appointed by the 12924
director of agriculture in accordance with division (B) of this 12925
section. At no time shall the director appoint more than five 12926
members to the committee.12927

       (B) Of the five members of the committee appointed by the 12928
director of agriculture, not less than two, but not more than 12929
three shall be persons who receive the major portion of their12930
income from the production of grapes or grape products. The term 12931
of one of these members shall begin January 1, 1982, and end 12932
December 31, 1982, and the second member's term shall begin 12933
January 1, 1982, and end December 31, 1983. TwoNot less than two, 12934
but not more than three members shall be persons who receive the 12935
major portion of their income from the production of wine from raw 12936
grape or fruit products in either raw fruit or fresh juice form. 12937
The term of one of these members shall begin January 1, 1982, and 12938
end December 31, 1982, and the second member's term shall begin 12939
January 1, 1982, and end December 31, 1983. One member shall be a 12940
person the major portion of whose income is from the production of 12941
grape products other than wine, such as juice, jams, or jellies; 12942
that member's term shall begin January 1, 1982, and end December 12943
31, 1984. Thereafter, the terms for each appointed member of the 12944
committee shall be for three years, commencing on the first day of 12945
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December. No 12946
appointed member shall serve more than two consecutive terms. The 12947
director may remove any appointed member for cause.12948

       (C) Members shall be appointed to fill vacancies caused by 12949
death, resignation, or removal in the same manner prescribed for 12950
regular appointment to the committee. Any member appointed to fill 12951
a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which 12952
the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 12953
remainder of the term. Any member shall continue in office 12954
subsequent to the expiration date of that member's term until that 12955
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixtyone 12956
hundred eighty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.12957

       (D) All members of the committee are entitled to their actual 12958
and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties 12959
as members, payable from moneys received from the Ohio grape 12960
industries fund created under section 924.54 of the Revised Code.12961

       (E) A majority of the committee constitutes a quorum.12962

       Sec. 955.16.  (A) Dogs that have been seized by the county 12963
dog warden and impounded shall be kept, housed, and fed for three 12964
days for the purpose of redemption, as provided by section 955.18 12965
of the Revised Code, unless any of the following applies:12966

       (1) Immediate humane destruction of the dog is necessary 12967
because of obvious disease or injury. If the diseased or injured 12968
dog is registered, as determined from the current year's 12969
registration list maintained by the warden and the county auditor 12970
of the county where the dog is registered, the necessity of 12971
destroying the dog shall be certified by a licensed veterinarian 12972
or a registered veterinary technician. If the dog is not 12973
registered, the decision to destroy it shall be made by the 12974
warden.12975

       (2) The dog is currently registered on the registration list 12976
maintained by the warden and the auditor of the county where the 12977
dog is registered and the attempts to notify the owner, keeper, or 12978
harborer under section 955.12 of the Revised Code have failed, in 12979
which case the dog shall be kept, housed, and fed for fourteen 12980
days for the purpose of redemption.12981

       (3) The warden has contacted the owner, keeper, or harborer 12982
under section 955.12 of the Revised Code, and the owner, keeper, 12983
or harborer has requested that the dog remain in the pound or 12984
animal shelter until the owner, harborer, or keeper redeems the 12985
dog. The time for such redemption shall be not more than 12986
forty-eight hours following the end of the appropriate redemption 12987
period.12988

       At any time after such periods of redemption, any dog not 12989
redeemed shall be donated to any nonprofit special agency that is 12990
engaged in the training of any type of assistance dogs and that 12991
requests that the dog be donated to it. Any dog not redeemed that 12992
is not requested by such an agency may be sold, except that no dog 12993
sold to a person other than a nonprofit teaching or research 12994
institution or organization of the type described in division (B) 12995
of this section shall be discharged from the pound or animal 12996
shelter until the animal has been registered and furnished with a 12997
valid registration tag.12998

       (B) Any dog that is not redeemed within the applicable period 12999
as specified in this section or section 955.12 of the Revised Code 13000
from the time notice is mailed to its owner, keeper, or harborer 13001
or is posted at the pound or animal shelter, as required by 13002
section 955.12 of the Revised Code, and that is not required to be 13003
donated to a nonprofit special agency engaged in the training of 13004
any type of assistance dogs may, upon payment to the dog warden or 13005
poundkeeper of the sum of three dollars, be sold to any nonprofit 13006
Ohio institution or organization that is certified by the Ohio 13007
publicdirector of health council as being engaged in teaching or 13008
research concerning the prevention and treatment of diseases of 13009
human beings or animals. Any dog that is donated to a nonprofit 13010
special agency engaged in the training of any type of assistance 13011
dogs in accordance with division (A) of this section and any dog 13012
that is sold to any nonprofit teaching or research institution or 13013
organization shall be discharged from the pound or animal shelter 13014
without registration and may be kept by the agency or by the 13015
institution or organization without registration so long as the 13016
dog is being trained, or is being used for teaching and research 13017
purposes.13018

       Any institution or organization certified by the Ohio public 13019
health councildirector that obtains dogs for teaching and 13020
research purposes pursuant to this section shall, at all 13021
reasonable times, make the dogs available for inspection by agents 13022
of the Ohio humane society, appointed pursuant to section 1717.04 13023
of the Revised Code, and agents of county humane societies, 13024
appointed pursuant to section 1717.06 of the Revised Code, in 13025
order that the agents may prevent the perpetration of any act of 13026
cruelty, as defined in section 1717.01 of the Revised Code, to the 13027
dogs.13028

       (C) Any dog that the dog warden or poundkeeper is unable to 13029
dispose of, in the manner provided by this section and section 13030
955.18 of the Revised Code, may be humanely destroyed, except that 13031
no dog shall be destroyed until twenty-four hours after it has 13032
been offered to a nonprofit teaching or research institution or 13033
organization, as provided in this section, that has made a request 13034
for dogs to the dog warden or poundkeeper.13035

       (D) An owner of a dog that is wearing a valid registration 13036
tag who presents the dog to the dog warden or poundkeeper may 13037
specify in writing that the dog shall not be offered to a 13038
nonprofit teaching or research institution or organization, as 13039
provided in this section.13040

       (E) A record of all dogs impounded, the disposition of the 13041
same, the owner's name and address, if known, and a statement of 13042
costs assessed against the dogs shall be kept by the poundkeeper, 13043
and the poundkeeper shall furnish a transcript thereof to the 13044
county treasurer quarterly.13045

       A record of all dogs received and the source that supplied 13046
them shall be kept, for a period of three years from the date of 13047
acquiring the dogs, by all institutions or organizations engaged 13048
in teaching or research concerning the prevention and treatment of 13049
diseases of human beings or animals.13050

       (F) No person shall destroy any dog by the use of a high 13051
altitude decompression chamber or by any method other than a 13052
method that immediately and painlessly renders the dog initially 13053
unconscious and subsequently dead.13054

       Sec. 955.26.  Whenever, in the judgment of the director of 13055
health, any city or general health district board of health, or 13056
persons performing the duties of a board of health, rabies is 13057
prevalent, the director of health, the board, or those persons 13058
shall declare a quarantine of all dogs in the health district or 13059
in a part of it. During the quarantine, the owner, keeper, or 13060
harborer of any dog shall keep it confined on the premises of the 13061
owner, keeper, or harborer, or in a suitable pound or kennel, at 13062
the expense of the owner, keeper, or harborer, except that a dog 13063
may be permitted to leave the premises of its owner, keeper, or 13064
harborer if it is under leash or under the control of a 13065
responsible person. The quarantine order shall be considered an 13066
emergency and need not be published.13067

       When the quarantine has been declared, the director of 13068
health, the board, or those persons may require vaccination for 13069
rabies of all dogs within the health district or part of it. Proof 13070
of rabies vaccination within a satisfactory period shall be 13071
demonstrated to the county auditor before any registration is 13072
issued under section 955.01 of the Revised Code for any dog that 13073
is required to be vaccinated.13074

       The public health councildirector shall determine 13075
appropriate methods of rabies vaccination and satisfactory periods 13076
for purposes of quarantines under this section.13077

       When a quarantine of dogs has been declared in any health 13078
district or part of a health district, the county dog warden and 13079
all other persons having the authority of police officers shall 13080
assist the health authorities in enforcing the quarantine order. 13081
When rabies vaccination has been declared compulsory in any health 13082
district or part of a health district, the dog warden shall assist 13083
the health authorities in enforcing the vaccination order.13084

       Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, a city or 13085
general health district board of health may make orders pursuant 13086
to sections 3709.20 and 3709.21 of the Revised Code requiring the 13087
vaccination of dogs.13088

       Sec. 991.02.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio 13089
expositions commission, which shall consist of the following13090
thirteenfourteen members: nine members appointed by the governor 13091
with the advice and consent of the senate; the director of 13092
development, the director of natural resources, and the director 13093
of agriculture, or their designated representatives, who shall be 13094
ex officio members with voting rights of suchthe commission; and 13095
the chairmanchairperson of the standing committee in the house of 13096
representatives to which matters dealing with agriculture are 13097
generally referred and the chairmanchairperson of the standing 13098
committee in the senate to which matters dealing with agriculture 13099
are generally referred, who shall be nonvoting members. If the 13100
senate is not in session, recess appointments shall be made by the 13101
governor.13102

       (B) Of the nine members of the commission appointed by the 13103
governor, not more than five shall be from one political party, at 13104
least three members shall receive the major portion of their 13105
income from farming, and at least one member shall, at the time of 13106
his appointment, be a member of the board of directors of an 13107
agricultural society whichthat was organized in compliance with 13108
section 1711.01 or 1711.02 of the Revised Code. Terms of office 13109
shall be for six years, commencing on the second day of December 13110
and ending on the first day of December. Each member shall hold 13111
office from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 13112
for which hethe member was appointed. Any member appointed to 13113
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for 13114
which histhe member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 13115
for the remainder of suchthat term. Any member shall continue in 13116
office subsequent to the expiration date of histhe member's term 13117
until histhe member's successor takes office, or until a period 13118
of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.13119

       The term of each nonvoting, legislative member of the 13120
commission shall be for two years or until the end of the member's 13121
legislative term, whichever occurs first.13122

       (C) The commission shall annually, during the month of 13123
December, select from among its members a chairmanchairperson, a 13124
vice-chairmanvice-chairperson, who in the absence of the chairman13125
chairperson shall carry out histhe chairperson's duties, and a 13126
secretary, who may be a member or employee of the commission, to 13127
record the minutes of its meetings and to carry out such other 13128
duties as may be assigned by the commission, its chairman13129
chairperson, or vice-chairmanits vice-chairperson.13130

       (D) The director of agriculture, the director of natural 13131
resources, and the director of development, or their designated 13132
representatives, and the two legislators appointed to the 13133
commission, as members of the commission shall serve without 13134
compensation.13135

       (E) Each of the members of the commission appointed by the 13136
governor shall be paid the rate established pursuant to division 13137
(J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code. All members of the 13138
commission are entitled to their actual and necessary expenses 13139
incurred in the performance of their duties as such members, 13140
payable from the appropriations for the commission.13141

       (F) The commission shall hold at least one regular meeting in 13142
each quarter of each calendar year, and shall keep a record of its 13143
proceedings, which shall be open to the public for inspection. 13144
Special meetings may be called by the chairmanchairperson and 13145
shall be called by himthe chairperson upon receipt of a written 13146
request therefor signed by two or more members of the commission. 13147
Written notice of the time and place of each meeting shall be sent 13148
to each member of the commission. Six of the voting members of the 13149
commission shall constitute a quorum.13150

       (G) The commission shall employ and prescribe the powers and 13151
duties of a general manager who shall serve in the unclassified 13152
civil service at a salary fixed pursuant to section 124.14 of the 13153
Revised Code. The general manager may employ such assistant 13154
managers as hethe general manager and the commission may approve. 13155
At no time shall such assistant managers exceed four in number, 13156
one of whom shall be appointed in the classified civil service. 13157
The general manager may, subject to the approval of the 13158
commission, employ a fiscal officer and such other officers, 13159
employees, and consultants with such powers and duties as are 13160
necessary to carry out sections 991.01 to 991.07 of the Revised 13161
Codethis chapter. With the approval of the commission and in 13162
order to implement this chapter, the general manager may employ 13163
and fix the compensation of seasonal employees; these employees 13164
shall be in the unclassified civil service, and the overtime pay 13165
requirements of section 124.18 of the Revised Code do not apply to 13166
them. The general manager shall be considered the appointing 13167
authority of the commission for purposes of Chapter 124. of the 13168
Revised Code.13169

       (H) The governor may remove any appointed voting member of 13170
the commission at any time for inefficiency, neglect of duty, or 13171
malfeasance in office.13172

       Sec. 1121.23. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 13173
financial institutions is required under Chapters 1101. to 1127. 13174
of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory action 13175
issued or taken under those chapters, for a person to serve as an 13176
organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 13177
controlling shareholder of a bank, or to otherwise have a 13178
substantial interest in or participate in the management of a 13179
bank, the superintendent shall request the superintendent of the 13180
bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor 13181
approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based 13182
on the person's fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) 13183
of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of 13184
financial institutions shall request that criminal record 13185
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 13186
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 13187
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 13188
paid by the person who is the subject of the request.13189

       Sec. 1155.03. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 13190
financial institutions is required under Chapters 1151. to 1157. 13191
of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory action 13192
issued or taken under those chapters, for a person to serve as an 13193
organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 13194
controlling person of a savings and loan association, or to 13195
otherwise have a substantial interest in or participate in the 13196
management of a savings and loan association, the superintendent 13197
shall request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 13198
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 13199
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the person's 13200
fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) of section 13201
109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of financial 13202
institutions shall request that criminal record information from 13203
the federal bureau of investigation be obtained as part of the 13204
criminal records check. Any fee required under division (C)(3) of 13205
section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be paid by the person 13206
who is the subject of the request.13207

       Sec. 1163.05. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 13208
financial institutions is required under Chapters 1161. to 1165. 13209
of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory action 13210
issued or taken under those chapters, for a person to serve as an 13211
organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 13212
controlling person of a savings bank, or to otherwise have a 13213
substantial interest in or participate in the management of a 13214
savings bank, the superintendent shall request the superintendent 13215
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a 13216
vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check 13217
based on the person's fingerprints in accordance with division 13218
(A)(14) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent 13219
of financial institutions shall request that criminal record 13220
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 13221
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 13222
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 13223
paid by the person who is the subject of the request.13224

       Sec. 1315.141. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 13225
financial institutions is required under sections 1315.01 to 13226
1315.18 of the Revised Code, or under an order or supervisory 13227
action issued or taken under those sections, for a person to serve 13228
as an organizer, incorporator, director, executive officer, or 13229
controlling person of a licensee, or to otherwise have a 13230
substantial interest in or participate in the management of a 13231
licensee, the superintendent shall request the superintendent of 13232
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a 13233
vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check 13234
based on the person's fingerprints in accordance with division 13235
(A)(14) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent 13236
of financial institutions shall request that criminal record 13237
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 13238
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 13239
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 13240
paid by the person who is the subject of the request.13241

       Sec. 1317.05. (A) Any retail seller who, in any retail 13242
installment contract, has agreed to purchase insurance for the 13243
retail buyer and to extend credit for the price thereof, shall, 13244
prior to the due date of the first installment of the retail 13245
installment contract, deliver to the retail buyer personally, or 13246
mail or cause to be mailed to himthe retail buyer at histhe 13247
retail buyer's address as shown on the retail installment 13248
contract, the policy of insurance, or in lieu thereof a 13249
certificate of insurance, or the retail buyer is not liable on his13250
the retail buyer's retail installment contract until the policy, 13251
or certificate of insurance, is received, or full refund is made 13252
of the insurance premium.13253

       If the premium for insurance of like kind and amount, as 13254
fixed in the published manual of a recognized standard rating 13255
bureau designated by the retail seller, is less than the amount 13256
charged the retail buyer as fixed in the written instrument in 13257
compliance with division (D) of section 1317.04 of the Revised 13258
Code, the retail buyer may deduct an amount equal to three times 13259
the difference from the amount owed the retail seller, or histhe 13260
retail seller's successor in interest. Sections 1317.01 to 13261
1317.11, inclusive, of the Revised Code do not impair the 13262
authority of the superintendent of insurance to grant, renew, or 13263
revoke licenses, nor do said sections authorize anyone other than 13264
a licensee of the division of insurance to directly or indirectly 13265
receive any part of the amount charged for insurance in connection 13266
with any retail installment sale.13267

       (B) As used in this division, "debt cancellation or debt 13268
suspension product" means a contractual agreement in which a 13269
retail seller, or its assignee, agrees for a separate charge to 13270
cancel or waive all or a part of amounts due on a retail buyer's 13271
retail installment contract in the event of a total physical 13272
damage loss or unrecovered theft of the motor vehicle that is the 13273
subject of the contract. "Debt cancellation or debt suspension 13274
product" includes a guaranteed asset protection waiver, guaranteed 13275
auto protection waiver, or other similarly named agreement.13276

        A debt cancellation or debt suspension product, and an 13277
addendum to a retail installment contract containing a debt 13278
cancellation or debt suspension product, shall be considered a 13279
part of the retail installment contract and shall remain a part of 13280
that contract upon the assignment, sale, or transfer of that 13281
contract. The charge for any debt cancellation or debt suspension 13282
product shall be listed as a specific good. The purchase price and 13283
the terms of the debt cancellation or debt suspension product 13284
shall be disclosed in writing to the buyer. The extension of 13285
credit, terms of the credit, or the terms of the related motor 13286
vehicle sale or lease shall not be conditioned on the purchase of 13287
the debt cancellation or debt suspension product. Notwithstanding 13288
any other provision of law, a debt cancellation or debt suspension 13289
product shall not be considered insurance.13290

       Sec. 1321.37.  (A) Application for an original or renewal 13291
license to make short-term loans shall be in writing, under oath, 13292
and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial 13293
institutions, and shall contain the name and address of the 13294
applicant, the location where the business of making loans is to 13295
be conducted, and any further information as the superintendent 13296
requires. At the time of making an application for an original 13297
license, the applicant shall pay to the superintendent a 13298
nonrefundable investigation fee of two hundred dollars. No 13299
investigation fee or any portion thereof shall be refunded after 13300
an original license has been issued. The application for an 13301
original or renewal license shall be accompanied by an original or 13302
renewal license fee, for each business location of one thousand 13303
dollars, except that applications for original licenses issued on 13304
or after the first day of July for any year shall be accompanied 13305
by an original license fee of five hundred dollars, and except 13306
that an application for an original or renewal license, for a 13307
nonprofit corporation that is incorporated under Chapter 1702. of 13308
the Revised Code, shall be accompanied by an original or renewal 13309
license fee, for each business location, that is one-half of the 13310
fee otherwise required. All fees paid to the superintendent 13311
pursuant to this division shall be deposited into the state 13312
treasury to the credit of the consumer finance fund.13313

       (B) Upon the filing of an application for an original license 13314
and, with respect to an application filed for a renewal license, 13315
on a schedule determined by the superintendent by rule adopted 13316
pursuant to section 1321.43 of the Revised Code, and the payment 13317
of fees in accordance with division (A) of this section, the 13318
superintendent shall investigate the facts concerning the 13319
applicant and the requirements provided by this division. The 13320
superintendent shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 13321
criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by 13322
the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 13323
applicant's fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(12) of13324
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding division (K) 13325
of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of 13326
financial institutions shall request that criminal record 13327
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 13328
as part of the criminal records check. The superintendent of 13329
financial institutions shall conduct a civil records check. The 13330
superintendent shall approve an application and issue an original 13331
or renewal license to the applicant if the superintendent finds 13332
all of the following:13333

       (1) The financial responsibility, experience, reputation, and 13334
general fitness of the applicant are such as to warrant the belief 13335
that the business of making loans will be operated lawfully, 13336
honestly, and fairly under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the 13337
Revised Code and within the purposes of those sections; that the 13338
applicant has fully complied with those sections and any rule or 13339
order adopted or issued pursuant to section 1321.43 of the Revised 13340
Code; and that the applicant is qualified to engage in the 13341
business of making loans under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the 13342
Revised Code.13343

       (2) The applicant is financially sound and has a net worth of 13344
not less than one hundred thousand dollars, or in the case of a 13345
nonprofit corporation that is incorporated under Chapter 1702. of 13346
the Revised Code, a net worth of not less than fifty thousand 13347
dollars. The applicant's net worth shall be computed according to 13348
generally accepted accounting principles.13349

       (3) The applicant has never had revoked a license to make 13350
loans under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the Revised Code, under 13351
former sections 1315.35 to 1315.44 of the Revised Code, or to do 13352
business under sections 1315.21 to 1315.30 of the Revised Code.13353

       (4) Neither the applicant nor any senior officer, or partner 13354
of the applicant, has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of any 13355
criminal offense involving theft, receiving stolen property, 13356
embezzlement, forgery, fraud, passing bad checks, money 13357
laundering, or drug trafficking, or any criminal offense involving 13358
money or securities or any violation of an existing or former law 13359
of this state, any other state, or the United States that 13360
substantially is equivalent to a criminal offense described in 13361
that division. However, if the applicant or any of those other 13362
persons has pleaded guilty to or been convicted of any such 13363
offense other than theft, the superintendent shall not consider 13364
the offense if the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by 13365
a preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant's or other 13366
person's activities and employment record since the conviction 13367
show that the applicant or other person is honest, truthful, and 13368
of good reputation, and there is no basis in fact for believing 13369
that the applicant or other person will commit such an offense 13370
again.13371

        (5) Neither the applicant nor any senior officer, or partner 13372
of the applicant, has been subject to any adverse judgment for 13373
conversion, embezzlement, misappropriation of funds, fraud, 13374
misfeasance or malfeasance, or breach of fiduciary duty, or if the 13375
applicant or any of those other persons has been subject to such a 13376
judgment, the applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a 13377
preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant's or other 13378
person's activities and employment record since the judgment show 13379
that the applicant or other person is honest, truthful, and of 13380
good reputation, and there is no basis in fact for believing that 13381
the applicant or other person will be subject to such a judgment 13382
again.13383

       (C) If the superintendent finds that the applicant does not 13384
meet the requirements of division (B) of this section, or the 13385
superintendent finds that the applicant knowingly or repeatedly 13386
contracts with or employs persons to directly engage in lending 13387
activities who have been convicted of a felony crime listed in 13388
division (B)(5) of this section, the superintendent shall issue an 13389
order denying the application for an original or renewal license 13390
and giving the applicant an opportunity for a hearing on the 13391
denial in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 13392
superintendent shall notify the applicant of the denial, the 13393
grounds for the denial, and the applicant's opportunity for a 13394
hearing. If the application is denied, the superintendent shall 13395
return the annual license fee but shall retain the investigation 13396
fee.13397

       (D) No person licensed under sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of 13398
the Revised Code shall conduct business in this state unless the 13399
licensee has obtained and maintains in effect at all times a 13400
corporate surety bond issued by a bonding company or insurance 13401
company authorized to do business in this state. The bond shall be 13402
in favor of the superintendent and in the penal sum of at least 13403
one hundred thousand dollars, or in the case of a nonprofit 13404
corporation that is incorporated under Chapter 1702. of the 13405
Revised Code, in the amount of fifty thousand dollars. The term of 13406
the bond shall coincide with the term of the license. The licensee 13407
shall file a copy of the bond with the superintendent. The bond 13408
shall be for the exclusive benefit of any borrower injured by a 13409
violation by a licensee or any employee of a licensee, of any 13410
provision of sections 1321.35 to 1321.48 of the Revised Code.13411

       Sec. 1321.52.  (A)(1) No person, on that person's own behalf 13412
or on behalf of any other person, shall do any of the following 13413
without having first obtained a certificate of registration from 13414
the division of financial institutions:13415

       (a) Advertise, solicit, or hold out that the person is 13416
engaged in the business of making residential mortgage loans 13417
secured by a mortgage on a borrower's real estate which is other 13418
than a first lien on the real estate;13419

       (b) Engage in the business of lending or collecting the 13420
person's own or another person's money, credit, or choses in 13421
action for non-first lien residential mortgage loans;13422

       (c) Employ or compensate mortgage loan originators licensed 13423
or who should be licensed under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 13424
Revised Code to conduct the business of making residential 13425
mortgage loans;13426

       (d) Make loans in this state of the type set forth in 13427
division (C) of this section that are unsecured or are secured by 13428
other than real property, which loans are for more than five 13429
thousand dollars at a rate of interest greater than permitted by 13430
section 1343.01 or other specific provisions of the Revised Code.13431

       (2) Each person issued a certificate of registration or 13432
license is subject to all the rules prescribed under sections 13433
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.13434

       (B)(1) All loans made to persons who at the time are 13435
residents of this state are considered as made within this state 13436
and subject to the laws of this state, regardless of any statement 13437
in the contract or note to the contrary, except as follows: 13438

       (a) If the loan is primarily secured by a lien on real 13439
property in another state and is arranged by a mortgage loan 13440
originator licensed by that state, the borrower may by choice of 13441
law designate that the transaction be governed by the law where 13442
the real property is located if the other state has consumer 13443
protection laws covering the borrower that are applicable to the 13444
transaction.13445

       (b) If the loan is for the purpose of purchasing goods 13446
acquired by the borrower when the borrower is outside of this 13447
state, the loan may be governed by the laws of the other state. 13448

       (2) Nothing in division (B)(1) of this section prevents a 13449
choice of law or requires registration or licensure of persons 13450
outside of this state in a transaction involving the solicitation 13451
of residents of this state to obtain non-real estate secured loans 13452
that require the borrowers to physically visit a lender's 13453
out-of-state office to apply for and obtain the disbursement of 13454
loan funds.13455

       (C) A registrant may make unsecured loans, loans secured by a 13456
mortgage on a borrower's real estate which is a first lien or 13457
other than a first lien on the real estate, loans secured by other 13458
than real estate, and loans secured by any combination of 13459
mortgages and security interests, on terms and conditions provided 13460
by sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.13461

       (D)(1) If a lender that is subject to sections 1321.51 to 13462
1321.60 of the Revised Code makes a loan in violation of division 13463
(A)(1) of this section, the lender has no right to collect, 13464
receive, or retain any interest or charges on that loan.13465

       (2) If a registrant applies to the division for a renewal of 13466
the registrant's certificate after the date required by division 13467
(A)(7) of section 1321.53 of the Revised Code, but prior to the 13468
first day of February of that year, and the division approves the 13469
application, division (D)(1) of this section does not apply with 13470
respect to any loan made by the registrant while the registrant's 13471
certificate was expired.13472

       (3) If a person's registration under sections 1321.51 to 13473
1321.60 of the Revised Code terminates due to nonrenewal or 13474
otherwise but the person continues to engage in the business of 13475
collecting or servicing non-first lien residential mortgage loans 13476
in violation of division (A)(1) of this section, the 13477
superintendent of financial institutions may take administrative 13478
action, including action on any subsequent application for a 13479
certificate of registration. In addition, no late fee, bad check 13480
charge except as incurred, charge related to default or cost to 13481
realize on its security interest, or prepayment penalty on 13482
non-first lien residential mortgage loans shall be collected or 13483
retained by a person who is in violation of division (A)(1)(b) of 13484
this section for the period of time in which the person was in 13485
violation. Nothing in division (D)(3) of this section prevents or 13486
otherwise precludes any other actions or penalties provided by law 13487
or modifies a defense of holder in due course that a subsequent 13488
purchaser servicing the residential mortgage loan may raise.13489

       (E)(1) No individual shall engage in the business of a 13490
mortgage loan originator without first obtaining and maintaining 13491
annually a license pursuant to section 1321.532 of the Revised 13492
Code from the division of financial institutions. A mortgage loan 13493
originator shall be employed or associated with a registrant or 13494
entity exempt from registration under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 13495
of the Revised Code, but shall not be employed by or associated 13496
with more than one registrant or exempt entity at any one time.13497

       (2) An individual acting under the individual's authority as 13498
a registered mortgage loan originator shall not be required to be 13499
licensed under division (E)(1) of this section.13500

       (3) An individual who holds a valid temporary mortgage loan 13501
originator license issued pursuant to section 1321.537 of the 13502
Revised Code may engage in the business of a mortgage loan 13503
originator in accordance with sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 13504
Revised Code during the term of the temporary license.13505

       (F)(1) Each licensee shall register with, and maintain a 13506
valid unique identifier issued by, the nationwide mortgage 13507
licensing system and registry.13508

       (2) No person shall use a licensee's unique identifier for 13509
any purpose other than as set forth in the "Secure and Fair 13510
Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 13511
12 U.S.C. 5101.13512

       (G)(1) If a person that is subject to sections 1321.51 to 13513
1321.60 of the Revised Code makes a loan in violation of division 13514
(A)(1)(d) of this section and subsequently sells or assigns that 13515
loan, the person is liable to the borrower for any interest paid 13516
on that loan to the holder or assignee in excess of the rate that 13517
would be applicable in the absence of sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 13518
of the Revised Code, in addition to any interest or charges paid 13519
on that loan to the unauthorized lender as provided by division 13520
(D)(1) of this section.13521

       (2) If a person that is subject to sections 1321.51 to 13522
1321.60 of the Revised Code makes a residential mortgage loan in 13523
violation of division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of this section and 13524
subsequently sells or assigns that loan, the lender is liable to 13525
the borrower for any interest paid on that loan to the holder or 13526
assignee in excess of the rate set forth in division (B)(4) of 13527
section 1343.01 of the Revised Code, in addition to any interest 13528
or charges paid on that loan to the unauthorized lender as 13529
provided by division (D)(1) of this section.13530

       Sec. 1321.53.  (A)(1) An application for a certificate of 13531
registration under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code 13532
shall contain an undertaking by the applicant to abide by those 13533
sections. The application shall be in writing, under oath, and in 13534
the form prescribed by the division of financial institutions, and 13535
shall contain any information that the division may require. 13536
Applicants that are foreign corporations shall obtain and maintain 13537
a license pursuant to Chapter 1703. of the Revised Code before a 13538
certificate is issued or renewed.13539

       (2) Upon the filing of the application and the payment by the 13540
applicant of a nonrefundable two-hundred-dollar investigation fee, 13541
a nonrefundable three-hundred-dollar annual registration fee, and 13542
any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing 13543
system and registry, the division shall investigate the relevant 13544
facts. If the application involves investigation outside this 13545
state, the applicant may be required by the division to advance 13546
sufficient funds to pay any of the actual expenses of such 13547
investigation, when it appears that these expenses will exceed two 13548
hundred dollars. An itemized statement of any of these expenses 13549
which the applicant is required to pay shall be furnished to the 13550
applicant by the division. No certificate shall be issued unless 13551
all the required fees have been submitted to the division.13552

       (3) All applicants making loans secured by an interest in 13553
real estate shall designate an employee or owner of the applicant 13554
as the applicant's primary point of contact. While acting as the 13555
primary point of contact, the employee or owner shall not be 13556
employed by any other registrant or mortgage broker.13557

       (4) The investigation undertaken upon application shall 13558
include both a civil and criminal records check of the applicant 13559
including any individual whose identity is required to be 13560
disclosed in the application. Where the applicant is a business 13561
entity the superintendent shall have the authority to require a 13562
civil and criminal background check of those persons that in the 13563
determination of the superintendent have the authority to direct 13564
and control the operations of the applicant. 13565

       (5)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 13566
Revised Code, the superintendent of financial institutions shall 13567
obtain a criminal history records check and, as part of that 13568
records check, request that criminal record information from the 13569
federal bureau of investigation be obtained. To fulfill this 13570
requirement, the superintendent shall do either of the following: 13571

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 13572
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 13573
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 13574
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 13575
based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance 13576
with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code; 13577

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13578
registry to request a criminal history background check as set 13579
forth in division (C) of section 1321.531 of the Revised Code.13580

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 13581
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 13582
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.13583

       (6) If an application for a certificate of registration does 13584
not contain all of the information required under division (A) of 13585
this section, and if such information is not submitted to the 13586
division or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13587
registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the 13588
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the 13589
information in writing, including by electronic transmission or 13590
facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application 13591
withdrawn.13592

       (7) If the division finds that the financial responsibility, 13593
experience, character, and general fitness of the applicant 13594
command the confidence of the public and warrant the belief that 13595
the business will be operated honestly and fairly in compliance 13596
with the purposes of sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised 13597
Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and that the applicant has 13598
the requisite bond or applicable net worth and assets required by 13599
division (B) of this section, the division shall thereupon issue a 13600
certificate of registration to the applicant. The superintendent 13601
shall not use a credit score as the sole basis for a registration 13602
denial.13603

        (a)(i) Certificates of registration issued on or after July 13604
1, 2010, shall annually expire on the thirty-first day of 13605
December, unless renewed by the filing of a renewal application 13606
and payment of a three-hundred-dollar nonrefundable annual 13607
registration fee, any assessment as determined by the 13608
superintendent pursuant to division (A)(7)(a)(ii) of this section, 13609
and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage 13610
licensing system and registry, on or before the last day of 13611
December of each year. No other fee or assessment shall be 13612
required of a registrant by the state or any political subdivision 13613
of this state.13614

       (ii) If the renewal fees billed by the superintendent 13615
pursuant to division (A)(7)(a)(i) of this section are less than 13616
the estimated expenditures of the consumer finance section of the 13617
division of financial institutions, as determined by the 13618
superintendent, for the following fiscal year, the superintendent 13619
may assess each registrant at a rate sufficient to equal in the 13620
aggregate the difference between the renewal fees billed and the 13621
estimated expenditures. Each registrant shall pay the assessed 13622
amount to the superintendent prior to the last day of June. In no 13623
case shall the assessment exceed ten cents per each one hundred 13624
dollars of interest (excluding charge-off recoveries), points, 13625
loan origination charges, and credit line charges collected by 13626
that registrant during the previous calendar year. If such an 13627
assessment is imposed, it shall not be less than two hundred fifty 13628
dollars per registrant and shall not exceed thirty thousand 13629
dollars less the total renewal fees paid pursuant to division 13630
(A)(7)(a)(i) of this section by each registrant.13631

       (b) Registrants shall timely file renewal applications on 13632
forms prescribed by the division and provide any further 13633
information that the division may require. If a renewal 13634
application does not contain all of the information required under 13635
this section, and if that information is not submitted to the 13636
division or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13637
registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the 13638
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the 13639
information in writing, including by electronic transmission or 13640
facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application 13641
withdrawn.13642

       (c) Renewal shall not be granted if the applicant's 13643
certificate of registration is subject to an order of suspension, 13644
revocation, or an unpaid and past due fine imposed by the 13645
superintendent.13646

       (d) If the division finds the applicant does not meet the 13647
conditions set forth in this section, it shall issue a notice of 13648
intent to deny the application, and forthwith notify the applicant 13649
of the denial, the grounds for the denial, and the applicant's 13650
reasonable opportunity to be heard on the action in accordance 13651
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 13652

       (8) If there is a change of five per cent or more in the 13653
ownership of a registrant, the division may make any investigation 13654
necessary to determine whether any fact or condition exists that, 13655
if it had existed at the time of the original application for a 13656
certificate of registration, the fact or condition would have 13657
warranted the division to deny the application under division 13658
(A)(7) of this section. If such a fact or condition is found, the 13659
division may, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 13660
revoke the registrant's certificate.13661

       (B) Each registrant that engages in lending under sections 13662
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code shall, if not otherwise 13663
required to be bonded pursuant to section 1321.533 of the Revised 13664
Code, maintain both of the following:13665

       (1) A net worth of at least fifty thousand dollars;13666

       (2) For each certificate of registration, assets of at least 13667
fifty thousand dollars either in use or readily available for use 13668
in the conduct of the business.13669

       (C) Not more than one place of business shall be maintained 13670
under the same certificate, but the division may issue additional 13671
certificates to the same registrant upon compliance with sections 13672
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, governing the issuance of 13673
a single certificate. No change in the place of business of a 13674
registrant to a location outside the original municipal 13675
corporation shall be permitted under the same certificate without 13676
the approval of a new application, the payment of the registration 13677
fee and, if required by the superintendent, the payment of an 13678
investigation fee of two hundred dollars. When a registrant wishes 13679
to change its place of business within the same municipal 13680
corporation, it shall give written notice of the change in advance 13681
to the division, which shall provide a certificate for the new 13682
address without cost. If a registrant changes its name, prior to 13683
making loans under the new name it shall give written notice of 13684
the change to the division, which shall provide a certificate in 13685
the new name without cost. Sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 13686
Revised Code do not limit the loans of any registrant to residents 13687
of the community in which the registrant's place of business is 13688
situated. Each certificate shall be kept conspicuously posted in 13689
the place of business of the registrant and is not transferable or 13690
assignable.13691

       (D) Sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code do not 13692
apply to any of the following:13693

       (1) Entities chartered and lawfully doing business under the 13694
authority of any law of this state, another state, or the United 13695
States as a bank, savings bank, trust company, savings and loan 13696
association, or credit union, or a subsidiary of any such entity, 13697
which subsidiary is regulated by a federal banking agency and is 13698
owned and controlled by such a depository institution;13699

       (2) Life, property, or casualty insurance companies licensed 13700
to do business in this state;13701

       (3) Any person that is a lender making a loan pursuant to 13702
sections 1321.01 to 1321.19 of the Revised Code or a business loan 13703
as described in division (B)(6) of section 1343.01 of the Revised 13704
Code;13705

       (4) Any political subdivision, or any governmental or other 13706
public entity, corporation, instrumentality, or agency, in or of 13707
the United States or any state of the United States, or any entity 13708
described in division (B)(3) of section 1343.01 of the Revised 13709
Code;13710

       (5) A college or university, or controlled entity of a 13711
college or university, as those terms are defined in section 13712
1713.05 of the Revised Code;13713

       (6) A credit union service organization, provided the 13714
organization utilizes services provided by registered mortgage 13715
loan originators or the organization complies with section 13716
1321.522 of the Revised Code and holds a valid letter of exemption 13717
issued by the superintendent.13718

       (E) No person engaged in the business of selling tangible 13719
goods or services related to tangible goods may receive or retain 13720
a certificate under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised 13721
Code for such place of business.13722

       Sec. 1321.531. (A) An application for a mortgage loan 13723
originator license shall be in writing, under oath, and in the 13724
form prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. 13725
The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable 13726
application fee of one hundred fifty dollars and all other 13727
required fees, including any fees required by the nationwide 13728
mortgage licensing system and registry.13729

       (B) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter 13730
into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13731
registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and 13732
maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees 13733
related to mortgage loan originator licensees or other persons 13734
subject to or involved in their licensure.13735

       (C) In connection with applying for a mortgage loan 13736
originator license, the applicant shall furnish to the nationwide 13737
mortgage licensing system and registry the following information 13738
concerning the applicant's identity:13739

       (1) The applicant's fingerprints for submission to the 13740
federal bureau of investigation, and any other governmental agency 13741
or entity authorized to receive such information, for purposes of 13742
a state, national, and international criminal history background 13743
check;13744

       (2) Personal history and experience in a form prescribed by 13745
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, along with 13746
authorization for the superintendent and the nationwide mortgage 13747
licensing system and registry to obtain the following:13748

       (a) An independent credit report from a consumer reporting 13749
agency;13750

       (b) Information related to any administrative, civil, or 13751
criminal findings by any governmental jurisdiction.13752

       (D) In order to effectuate the purposes of divisions (C)(1) 13753
and (C)(2)(b) of this section, the superintendent may use the 13754
conference of state bank supervisors, or a wholly owned 13755
subsidiary, as a channeling agent for requesting information from 13756
and distributing information to the United States department of 13757
justice or any other governmental agency. The superintendent may 13758
also use the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry as 13759
a channeling agent for requesting information from and 13760
distributing information to any source related to matters subject 13761
to divisions (C)(2)(a) and (b) of this section.13762

       (E) Upon the filing of the application, payment of the 13763
application fee, and payment of any additional fee, including any 13764
fee required by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13765
registry, the superintendent shall investigate the applicant as 13766
set forth in division (E) of this section.13767

       (1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 13768
Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history 13769
records check and, as part of that records check, request that 13770
criminal record information from the federal bureau of 13771
investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the 13772
superintendent shall do either of the following: 13773

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 13774
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 13775
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 13776
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 13777
based on the applicant's social security number in accordance with 13778
division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;13779

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13780
registry to request a criminal history background check as set 13781
forth in division (C) of this section.13782

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 13783
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 13784
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.13785

       (2) The superintendent of financial institutions shall 13786
conduct a civil records check.13787

       (3) If, in order to issue a license to an applicant, 13788
additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state 13789
is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to 13790
advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the 13791
investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed one 13792
hundred dollars. The superintendent shall provide the applicant 13793
with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that the 13794
applicant is required to pay.13795

       (F) If an application for a mortgage loan originator license 13796
does not contain all of the information required under this 13797
section, and if that information is not submitted to the 13798
superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13799
registry within ninety days after the superintendent or the 13800
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry requests the 13801
information in writing, including by electronic transmission or 13802
facsimile, the superintendent may consider the application 13803
withdrawn.13804

       Sec. 1321.537.  (A) As used in this section:13805

       (1) "Out-of-state mortgage loan originator" means an 13806
individual to whom both of the following apply:13807

       (a) The individual holds a valid mortgage loan originator 13808
license, or comparable authority, issued pursuant to the law of 13809
any other state of the United States.13810

       (b) The individual is registered, fingerprinted, and 13811
maintains a unique identifier through the nationwide mortgage 13812
licensing system and registry.13813

       (2) "Sponsor" means a registrant or entity described in 13814
division (D) of section 1321.53 of the Revised Code that employs 13815
or is associated with an applicant for a temporary mortgage loan 13816
originator license and, during the term of the applicant's 13817
temporary license, covers the applicant under its corporate surety 13818
bond or requires the applicant to obtain and maintain a corporate 13819
surety bond.13820

       (B) The superintendent of financial institutions may, in 13821
accordance with this section, issue to an out-of-state mortgage 13822
loan originator a temporary mortgage loan originator license that 13823
enables the licensee to engage in the business of a mortgage loan 13824
originator while the individual completes the requirements 13825
necessary to meet the conditions set forth in section 1321.532 of 13826
the Revised Code for a mortgage loan originator license. A 13827
temporary mortgage loan originator license shall be valid for a 13828
term of not more than one hundred twenty days from the date of 13829
issuance. A temporary mortgage loan originator license may not be 13830
renewed.13831

       (C) An application for a temporary mortgage loan originator 13832
license shall be in writing, under oath, and in a form that meets 13833
the requirements of the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 13834
registry. The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable 13835
application fee, the amount of which shall be determined by the 13836
superintendent in rule, and a certification that, as of the date 13837
of application, the applicant meets both of the following 13838
conditions:13839

       (1) The applicant has at least two years of experience in the 13840
field of residential mortgage lending in the five years 13841
immediately preceding the date of application for the temporary 13842
mortgage loan originator license.13843

       (2) The applicant has not previously applied for a temporary 13844
mortgage loan originator license in this state.13845

       (3) The applicant has not had a mortgage loan originator 13846
license, or comparable authority, revoked in any governmental 13847
jurisdiction. For purposes of division (C)(3) of this section, a 13848
subsequent formal vacation of such a revocation shall not be 13849
considered a revocation.13850

       (4) The applicant has not been convicted of, or pleaded 13851
guilty or nolo contendere to, any of the following in a domestic, 13852
foreign, or military court:13853

       (a) During the seven-year period immediately preceding the 13854
date of application, a misdemeanor involving theft or any felony;13855

       (b) At any time prior to the date of application, a felony 13856
involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, theft, 13857
or money laundering.13858

       For purposes of division (C)(4) of this section, any 13859
conviction for which the applicant has received a pardon shall not 13860
be considered a conviction.13861

       (D) The superintendent shall issue a temporary mortgage loan 13862
originator license to the applicant if the superintendent finds 13863
that all of the following conditions are met:13864

       (1) The application is accompanied by the application fee and 13865
the certification described in division (C) of this section.13866

       (2) The applicant is registered, fingerprinted, and has a 13867
valid unique identifier through the nationwide mortgage licensing 13868
system and registry as of the date of application.13869

       (3) The applicant has authorized the nationwide mortgage 13870
licensing system and registry to obtain a credit report for 13871
submission to the superintendent.13872

       (4) The applicant has a sponsor that certifies employment of, 13873
or association with, the applicant and has signed the application.13874

       (E) The sponsor of a temporary licensee shall have an 13875
affirmative duty to supervise the conduct of each temporary 13876
mortgage loan originator in the same manner as is required of its 13877
other licensees. If the temporary licensee's employment or 13878
association with the sponsor is terminated, the sponsor shall 13879
notify the division of financial institutions of the termination 13880
through the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. 13881
Upon the division's receipt of the notice, the sponsor shall no 13882
longer be held responsible for the conduct of the temporary 13883
licensee.13884

       (F) The superintendent may, in accordance with Chapter 119. 13885
of the Revised Code, adopt rules necessary for the implementation 13886
and operation of this section.13887

       Sec. 1321.538.  If the "Secure and Fair Enforcement for 13888
Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 12 U.S.C. 5101, 13889
as amended, is modified after the effective date of this section, 13890
or any regulation, statement, or position is adopted under that 13891
act, to permit states to issue a temporary mortgage loan 13892
originator license to a registered mortgage loan originator, the 13893
superintendent shall, in accordance with section 111.15 of the 13894
Revised Code, adopt rules the superintendent considers necessary 13895
and appropriate to issue a temporary license to a registered 13896
mortgage loan originator.13897

       Sec. 1322.02.  (A)(1) No person, on the person's own behalf 13898
or on behalf of any other person, shall act as a mortgage broker 13899
without first having obtained a certificate of registration from 13900
the superintendent of financial institutions for every office to 13901
be maintained by the person for the transaction of business as a 13902
mortgage broker in this state. A registrant shall maintain an 13903
office location in this state for the transaction of business as a 13904
mortgage broker in this state.13905

       (2) No person shall act or hold that person's self out as a 13906
mortgage broker under the authority or name of a registrant or 13907
person exempt from sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code 13908
without first having obtained a certificate of registration from 13909
the superintendent for every office to be maintained by the person 13910
for the transaction of business as a mortgage broker in this 13911
state.13912

       (B)(1) No individual shall act as a loan originator without 13913
first having obtained a license from the superintendent. A loan 13914
originator shall be employed by or associated with a mortgage 13915
broker or any person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of 13916
section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, but shall not be employed by 13917
or associated with more than one mortgage broker or person or 13918
entity at any one time.13919

       (2) An individual acting under the individual's authority as 13920
a registered loan originator shall not be required to be licensed 13921
under division (B)(1) of this section.13922

       (3) An individual who holds a valid temporary loan originator 13923
license issued pursuant to section 1322.042 of the Revised Code 13924
may engage in the business of a loan originator in accordance with 13925
sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code during the term of 13926
the temporary license.13927

       (C)(1) No person acting as a mortgage broker or loan 13928
originator shall fail to register with, and maintain a valid 13929
unique identifier issued by, the nationwide mortgage licensing 13930
system and registry.13931

       (2) No person shall use a mortgage broker's or loan 13932
originator's unique identifier for any purpose other than as set 13933
forth in the "Secure and Fair Enforcement for Mortgage Licensing 13934
Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 12 U.S.C. 5101.13935

       Sec. 1322.03.  (A) An application for a certificate of 13936
registration as a mortgage broker shall be in writing, under oath, 13937
and in the form prescribed by the superintendent of financial 13938
institutions. The application shall be accompanied by a 13939
nonrefundable application fee of five hundred dollars for each 13940
location of an office to be maintained by the applicant in 13941
accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised 13942
Code and any additional fee required by the nationwide mortgage 13943
licensing system and registry. The application shall provide all 13944
of the following:13945

       (1) The location or locations where the business is to be 13946
transacted and whether any location is a residence. If any 13947
location where the business is to be transacted is a residence, 13948
the superintendent may require that the application be accompanied 13949
by a copy of a zoning permit authorizing the use of the residence 13950
for commercial purposes, or by a written opinion or other document 13951
issued by the county or political subdivision where the residence 13952
is located certifying that the use of the residence to transact 13953
business as a mortgage broker is not prohibited by the county or 13954
political subdivision. 13955

       (2)(a) In the case of a sole proprietor, the name and address 13956
of the sole proprietor;13957

       (b) In the case of a partnership, the name and address of 13958
each partner;13959

       (c) In the case of a corporation, the name and address of 13960
each shareholder owning five per cent or more of the corporation;13961

       (d) In the case of any other entity, the name and address of 13962
any person that owns five per cent or more of the entity that will 13963
transact business as a mortgage broker.13964

       (3) Each applicant shall designate an employee or owner of 13965
the applicant as the applicant's operations manager. While acting 13966
as the operations manager, the employee or owner shall be licensed 13967
as a loan originator under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the 13968
Revised Code and shall not be employed by any other mortgage 13969
broker.13970

       (4) Evidence that the person designated on the application 13971
pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section possesses at least 13972
three years of experience in the residential mortgage and lending 13973
field, which experience may include employment with or as a 13974
mortgage broker or with a depository institution, mortgage lending 13975
institution, or other lending institution, or possesses at least 13976
three years of other experience related specifically to the 13977
business of residential mortgage loans that the superintendent 13978
determines meets the requirements of division (A)(4) of this 13979
section;13980

       (5) Evidence that the person designated on the application 13981
pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section has successfully 13982
completed the pre-licensing instruction requirements set forth in 13983
section 1322.031 of the Revised Code;13984

       (6) Evidence of compliance with the surety bond requirements 13985
of section 1322.05 of the Revised Code and with sections 1322.01 13986
to 1322.12 of the Revised Code;13987

       (7) In the case of a foreign business entity, evidence that 13988
it maintains a license or registration pursuant to Chapter 1703., 13989
1705., 1775., 1776., 1777., 1782., or 1783. of the Revised Code to 13990
transact business in this state;13991

       (8) Evidence that the applicant's operations manager has 13992
successfully completed the written test required under division 13993
(A) of section 1322.051 of the Revised Code;13994

       (9) Any further information that the superintendent requires.13995

       (B) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the 13996
nonrefundable application fee and any fee required by the 13997
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, the 13998
superintendent of financial institutions shall investigate the 13999
applicant, and any individual whose identity is required to be 14000
disclosed in the application, as set forth in division (B) of this 14001
section.14002

       (1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 14003
Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history 14004
records check and, as part of that records check, request that 14005
criminal record information from the federal bureau of 14006
investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the 14007
superintendent shall do either of the following:14008

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 14009
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 14010
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 14011
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 14012
based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance 14013
with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;14014

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14015
registry to request a criminal history background check. 14016

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 14017
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 14018
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.14019

       (2) The superintendent shall conduct a civil records check. 14020

       (3) If, in order to issue a certificate of registration to an 14021
applicant, additional investigation by the superintendent outside 14022
this state is necessary, the superintendent may require the 14023
applicant to advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses 14024
of the investigation, if it appears that these expenses will 14025
exceed five hundred dollars. The superintendent shall provide the 14026
applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that 14027
the applicant is required to pay.14028

       (C) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and 14029
application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent 14030
receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.04 of the 14031
Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the 14032
consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised 14033
Code.14034

       (D) If an application for a mortgage broker certificate of 14035
registration does not contain all of the information required 14036
under division (A) of this section, and if that information is not 14037
submitted to the superintendent or to the nationwide mortgage 14038
licensing system and registry within ninety days after the 14039
superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14040
registry requests the information in writing, including by 14041
electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may 14042
consider the application withdrawn.14043

       (E) A mortgage broker certificate of registration and the 14044
authority granted under that certificate is not transferable or 14045
assignable and cannot be franchised by contract or any other 14046
means.14047

       (F) The registration requirements of this chapter apply to 14048
any person acting as a mortgage broker, and no person is exempt 14049
from the requirements of this chapter on the basis of prior work 14050
or employment as a mortgage broker.14051

       (G) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter 14052
into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14053
registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and 14054
maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees 14055
related to mortgage broker certificates of registration or the 14056
persons associated with a mortgage broker.14057

       Sec. 1322.031. (A) An application for a license as a loan 14058
originator shall be in writing, under oath, and in the form 14059
prescribed by the superintendent of financial institutions. The 14060
application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable application 14061
fee of one hundred fifty dollars and any additional fee required 14062
by the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry.14063

       (B)(1) The application shall provide evidence, acceptable to 14064
the superintendent, that the applicant has successfully completed 14065
at least twenty-four hours of pre-licensing instruction consisting 14066
of all of the following:14067

       (a) Twenty hours of instruction in a course or program of 14068
study reviewed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing 14069
system and registry;14070

       (b) Four hours of instruction in a course or program of study 14071
reviewed and approved by the superintendent concerning state 14072
lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales practices act, Chapter 14073
1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to registrants and 14074
licensees.14075

       (2) Notwithstanding division (B)(1) of this section, until 14076
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry implements a 14077
review and approval program, the application shall provide 14078
evidence, as determined by the superintendent, that the applicant 14079
has successfully completed at least twenty-four hours of 14080
instruction in a course or program of study approved by the 14081
superintendent that consists of at least all of the following:14082

       (a) Four hours of instruction concerning state and federal 14083
mortgage lending laws, which shall include no less than two hours 14084
on this chapter;14085

       (b) Four hours of instruction concerning the Ohio consumer 14086
sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it 14087
applies to registrants and licensees;14088

       (c) Four hours of instruction concerning the loan application 14089
process;14090

       (d) Two hours of instruction concerning the underwriting 14091
process;14092

       (e) Two hours of instruction concerning the secondary market 14093
for mortgage loans;14094

       (f) Four hours of instruction concerning the loan closing 14095
process;14096

       (g) Two hours of instruction covering basic mortgage 14097
financing concepts and terms;14098

       (h) Two hours of instruction concerning the ethical 14099
responsibilities of a registrant and a licensee, including with 14100
respect to confidentiality, consumer counseling, and the duties 14101
and standards of care created in section 1322.081 of the Revised 14102
Code.14103

       (3) For purposes of division (B)(1)(a) of this section, the 14104
review and approval of a course or program of study includes the 14105
review and approval of the provider of the course or program of 14106
study.14107

       (4) If an applicant held a valid loan originator license 14108
issued by this state at any time during the immediately preceding 14109
five-year period, the applicant shall not be required to complete 14110
any additional pre-licensing instruction. For this purpose, any 14111
time during which the individual is a registered loan originator 14112
shall not be taken into account.14113

       (5) A person having successfully completed the pre-licensing 14114
education requirement reviewed and approved by the nationwide 14115
mortgage licensing system and registry for any state within the 14116
previous five years shall be granted credit toward completion of 14117
the pre-licensing education requirement of this state.14118

       (C) In addition to the information required under division 14119
(B) of this section, the application shall provide both of the 14120
following:14121

       (1) Evidence that the applicant passed a written test that 14122
meets the requirements described in division (B) of section 14123
1322.051 of the Revised Code;14124

       (2) Any further information that the superintendent requires.14125

       (D) Upon the filing of the application and payment of the 14126
application fee and any fee required by the nationwide mortgage 14127
licensing system and registry, the superintendent of financial 14128
institutions shall investigate the applicant as set forth in 14129
division (D) of this section. 14130

        (1)(a) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 121.08 of the 14131
Revised Code, the superintendent shall obtain a criminal history 14132
records check and, as part of the records check, request that 14133
criminal record information from the federal bureau of 14134
investigation be obtained. To fulfill this requirement, the 14135
superintendent shall do either of the following:14136

       (i) Request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 14137
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 14138
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 14139
applicant's fingerprints or, if the fingerprints are unreadable, 14140
based on the applicant's social security number, in accordance 14141
with division (A)(12) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code;14142

       (ii) Authorize the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14143
registry to request a criminal history background check. 14144

       (b) Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 109.572 14145
of the Revised Code or by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 14146
and registry shall be paid by the applicant.14147

       (2) The superintendent shall conduct a civil records check. 14148

       (3) If, in order to issue a license to an applicant, 14149
additional investigation by the superintendent outside this state 14150
is necessary, the superintendent may require the applicant to 14151
advance sufficient funds to pay the actual expenses of the 14152
investigation, if it appears that these expenses will exceed one 14153
hundred fifty dollars. The superintendent shall provide the 14154
applicant with an itemized statement of the actual expenses that 14155
the applicant is required to pay.14156

       (E)(1) In connection with applying for a loan originator 14157
license, the applicant shall furnish to the nationwide mortgage 14158
licensing system and registry the following information concerning 14159
the applicant's identity:14160

       (a) The applicant's fingerprints for submission to the 14161
federal bureau of investigation, and any other governmental agency 14162
or entity authorized to receive such information, for purposes of 14163
a state, national, and international criminal history background 14164
check;14165

       (b) Personal history and experience in a form prescribed by 14166
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry, along with 14167
authorization for the superintendent and the nationwide mortgage 14168
licensing system and registry to obtain the following:14169

       (i) An independent credit report from a consumer reporting 14170
agency;14171

       (ii) Information related to any administrative, civil, or 14172
criminal findings by any governmental jurisdiction. 14173

       (2) In order to effectuate the purposes of divisions 14174
(E)(1)(a) and (E)(1)(b)(ii) of this section, the superintendent 14175
may use the conference of state bank supervisors, or a wholly 14176
owned subsidiary, as a channeling agent for requesting information 14177
from and distributing information to the United States department 14178
of justice or any other governmental agency. The superintendent 14179
may also use the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry 14180
as a channeling agent for requesting information from and 14181
distributing information to any source related to matters subject 14182
to those divisions of this section.14183

        (F) The superintendent shall pay all funds advanced and 14184
application and renewal fees and penalties the superintendent 14185
receives pursuant to this section and section 1322.041 of the 14186
Revised Code to the treasurer of state to the credit of the 14187
consumer finance fund created in section 1321.21 of the Revised 14188
Code.14189

       (G) If an application for a loan originator license does not 14190
contain all of the information required under this section, and if 14191
that information is not submitted to the superintendent or to the 14192
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry within ninety 14193
days after the superintendent or the nationwide mortgage licensing 14194
system and registry requests the information in writing, including 14195
by electronic transmission or facsimile, the superintendent may 14196
consider the application withdrawn.14197

       (H)(1) The business of a loan originator shall principally be 14198
transacted at an office of the mortgage broker with whom the 14199
licensee is employed or associated, which office is registered in 14200
accordance with division (A) of section 1322.02 of the Revised 14201
Code. Each original loan originator license shall be deposited 14202
with and maintained by the mortgage broker at the mortgage 14203
broker's main office. A copy of the license shall be maintained 14204
and displayed at the office where the loan originator principally 14205
transacts business.14206

       (2) If a loan originator's employment or association is 14207
terminated for any reason, the mortgage broker shall return the 14208
original loan originator license to the superintendent within five 14209
business days after the termination. The licensee may request the 14210
transfer of the license to another mortgage broker by submitting a 14211
transfer application, along with a fifteen dollar fee and any fee 14212
required by the national mortgage licensing system and registry, 14213
to the superintendent or may request the superintendent in writing 14214
to hold the license in escrow. Any licensee whose license is held 14215
in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A licensee 14216
whose license is held in escrow shall be required to apply for 14217
renewal annually and to comply with the annual continuing 14218
education requirement.14219

       (3) A mortgage broker may employ or be associated with a loan 14220
originator on a temporary basis pending the transfer of the loan 14221
originator's license to the mortgage broker, if the mortgage 14222
broker receives written confirmation from the superintendent that 14223
the loan originator is licensed under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 14224
of the Revised Code.14225

       (4) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1) to (3) of this section, 14226
if a licensee is employed by or associated with a person or entity 14227
listed in division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, 14228
all of the following apply:14229

       (a) The licensee shall maintain and display the original loan 14230
originator license at the office where the licensee principally 14231
transacts business;14232

       (b) If the loan originator's employment or association is 14233
terminated, the loan originator shall return the original loan 14234
originator license to the superintendent within five business days 14235
after termination. The licensee may request the transfer of the 14236
license to a mortgage broker or another person or entity listed in 14237
division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code by 14238
submitting a transfer application, along with a fifteen-dollar fee 14239
and any fee required by the national mortgage licensing system and 14240
registry, to the superintendent or may request the superintendent 14241
in writing to hold the license in escrow. A licensee whose license 14242
is held in escrow shall cease activity as a loan originator. A 14243
licensee whose license is held in escrow shall be required to 14244
apply for renewal annually and to comply with the annual 14245
continuing education requirement.14246

       (c) The licensee may seek to be employed or associated with a 14247
mortgage broker or person or entity listed in division (G)(2) of 14248
section 1322.01 of the Revised Code if the mortgage broker or 14249
person or entity receives written confirmation from the 14250
superintendent that the loan originator is licensed under sections 14251
1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.14252

       (I) The superintendent may establish relationships or enter 14253
into contracts with the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14254
registry, or any entities designated by it, to collect and 14255
maintain records and process transaction fees or other fees 14256
related to loan originator licenses or the persons associated with 14257
a licensee.14258

        (J) A loan originator license, or the authority granted under 14259
that license, is not assignable and cannot be franchised by 14260
contract or any other means.14261

       Sec. 1322.042.  (A) As used in this section:14262

       (1) "Out-of-state loan originator" means an individual to 14263
whom both of the following apply:14264

       (a) The individual holds a valid loan originator license, or 14265
comparable authority, issued pursuant to the law of any other 14266
state of the United States.14267

       (b) The individual is registered, fingerprinted, and 14268
maintains a unique identifier through the nationwide mortgage 14269
licensing system and registry.14270

       (2) "Sponsor" means a registrant or entity described in 14271
division (G)(2) of section 1322.01 of the Revised Code that 14272
employs or is associated with an applicant for a temporary loan 14273
originator license and, during the term of the applicant's 14274
temporary license, covers the applicant under its corporate surety 14275
bond or requires the applicant to obtain and maintain a corporate 14276
surety bond.14277

       (B) The superintendent of financial institutions may, in 14278
accordance with this section, issue to an out-of-state loan 14279
originator a temporary loan originator license that enables the 14280
licensee to engage in the business of a loan originator while the 14281
individual completes the requirements necessary to meet the 14282
conditions set forth in section 1322.041 of the Revised Code for a 14283
loan originator license. A temporary loan originator license shall 14284
be valid for a term of not more than one hundred twenty days from 14285
the date of issuance. A temporary loan originator license may not 14286
be renewed.14287

       (C) An application for a temporary loan originator license 14288
shall be in writing, under oath, and in a form that meets the 14289
requirements of the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 14290
registry. The application shall be accompanied by a nonrefundable 14291
application fee, the amount of which shall be determined by the 14292
superintendent in rule, and a certification that, as of the date 14293
of application, the applicant meets the following conditions:14294

       (1) The applicant has at least two years of experience in the 14295
field of residential mortgage lending in the five years 14296
immediately preceding the date of application for the temporary 14297
loan originator license.14298

       (2) The applicant has not previously applied for a temporary 14299
loan originator license in this state.14300

       (3) The applicant has not had a loan originator license, or 14301
comparable authority, revoked in any governmental jurisdiction. 14302
For purposes of division (C)(3) of this section, a subsequent 14303
formal vacation of such a revocation shall not be considered a 14304
revocation.14305

       (4) The applicant has not been convicted of, or pleaded 14306
guilty or nolo contendere to, any of the following in a domestic, 14307
foreign, or military court:14308

       (a) During the seven-year period immediately preceding the 14309
date of application, a misdemeanor involving theft or any felony;14310

       (b) At any time prior to the date of application, a felony 14311
involving an act of fraud, dishonesty, a breach of trust, theft, 14312
or money laundering.14313

       For purposes of division (C)(4) of this section, any 14314
conviction for which the applicant has received a pardon shall not 14315
be considered a conviction.14316

       (D) The superintendent shall issue a temporary loan 14317
originator license to the applicant if the superintendent finds 14318
that all of the following conditions are met:14319

       (1) The application is accompanied by the application fee and 14320
the certification described in division (C) of this section.14321

       (2) The applicant is registered, fingerprinted, and has a 14322
valid unique identifier through the nationwide mortgage licensing 14323
system and registry as of the date of application.14324

       (3) The applicant has authorized the nationwide mortgage 14325
licensing system and registry to obtain a credit report for 14326
submission to the superintendent.14327

       (4) The applicant has a sponsor that certifies employment of, 14328
or association with, the applicant and has signed the application.14329

       (E) The sponsor of a temporary licensee shall have an 14330
affirmative duty to supervise the conduct of each temporary loan 14331
originator in the same manner as is required of its other 14332
licensees. If the temporary licensee's employment or association 14333
with the sponsor is terminated, the sponsor shall notify the 14334
division of financial institutions of the termination through the 14335
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry. Upon the 14336
division's receipt of the notice, the sponsor shall no longer be 14337
held responsible for the conduct of the temporary licensee.14338

        (F) The superintendent may, in accordance with Chapter 119. 14339
of the Revised Code, adopt rules necessary for the implementation 14340
and operation of this section.14341

       Sec. 1322.043.  If the "Secure and Fair Enforcement for 14342
Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 12 U.S.C. 5101, 14343
as amended, is modified after the effective date of this section, 14344
or any regulation, statement, or position is adopted under that 14345
act, to permit states to issue a temporary loan originator license 14346
to a registered loan originator, the superintendent shall, in 14347
accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, adopt rules 14348
the superintendent considers necessary and appropriate to issue a 14349
temporary license to a registered loan originator.14350

       Sec. 1345.05.  (A) The attorney general shall:14351

       (1) Adopt, amend, and repeal procedural rules;14352

       (2) Adopt as a rule a description of the organization of the 14353
attorney general's office, stating the general courses and methods 14354
of operation of the section of the office of the attorney general, 14355
which is to administer Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code and 14356
methods whereby the public may obtain information or make 14357
submissions or requests, including a description of all forms and 14358
instructions used by that office;14359

       (3) Make available for public inspection all rules and all 14360
other written statements of policy or interpretations adopted or 14361
used by the attorney general in the discharge of the attorney 14362
general's functions, together with all judgments, including 14363
supporting opinions, by courts of this state that determine the 14364
rights of the parties and concerning which appellate remedies have 14365
been exhausted, or lost by the expiration of the time for appeal, 14366
determining that specific acts or practices violate section 14367
1345.02, 1345.03, or 1345.031 of the Revised Code;14368

       (4) Inform consumers and suppliers on a continuing basis of 14369
acts or practices that violate Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code 14370
by, among other things, publishing an informational document 14371
describing acts and practices in connection with residential 14372
mortgages that are unfair, deceptive, or unconscionable, and by 14373
making that information available on the attorney general's 14374
official web site;14375

       (5) Cooperate with state and local officials, officials of 14376
other states, and officials of the federal government in the 14377
administration of comparable statutes;14378

       (6) Report annually on or before the firstthirty-first day 14379
of January to the governor and the general assembly on the 14380
operations of the attorney general in respect to Chapter 1345. of 14381
the Revised Code, and on the acts or practices occurring in this 14382
state that violate such chapter. The report shall include a 14383
statement of investigatory and enforcement procedures and 14384
policies, of the number of investigations and enforcement 14385
proceedings instituted and of their disposition, and of other 14386
activities of the state and of other persons to promote the 14387
purposes of Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code.14388

       (7) In carrying out official duties, the attorney general 14389
shall not disclose publicly the identity of suppliers investigated 14390
or the facts developed in investigations unless these matters have 14391
become a matter of public record in enforcement proceedings, in 14392
public hearings conducted pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 14393
section, or the suppliers investigated have consented in writing 14394
to public disclosure.14395

       (B) The attorney general may:14396

       (1) Conduct research, make inquiries, hold public hearings, 14397
and publish studies relating to consumer transactions;14398

       (2) Adopt, amend, and repeal substantive rules defining with 14399
reasonable specificity acts or practices that violate sections 14400
1345.02, 1345.03, and 1345.031 of the Revised Code. In adopting, 14401
amending, or repealing substantive rules defining acts or 14402
practices that violate section 1345.02 of the Revised Code, due 14403
consideration and great weight shall be given to federal trade 14404
commission orders, trade regulation rules and guides, and the 14405
federal courts' interpretations of subsection 45(a)(1) of the 14406
"Federal Trade Commission Act," 38 Stat. 717 (1914), 15 U.S.C.A. 14407
41, as amended.14408

       In adopting, amending, or repealing such rules concerning a 14409
consumer transaction in connection with a residential mortgage, 14410
the attorney general shall consult with the superintendent of 14411
financial institutions and shall give due consideration to state 14412
and federal statutes, regulations, administrative agency 14413
interpretations, and case law.14414

       (C) In the conduct of public hearings authorized by this 14415
section, the attorney general may administer oaths, subpoena 14416
witnesses, adduce evidence, and require the production of relevant 14417
material. Upon failure of a person without lawful excuse to obey a 14418
subpoena or to produce relevant matter, the attorney general may 14419
apply to a court of common pleas for an order compelling 14420
compliance.14421

       (D) The attorney general may request that an individual who 14422
refuses to testify or to produce relevant material on the ground 14423
that the testimony or matter may incriminate the individual be 14424
ordered by the court to provide the testimony or matter. With the 14425
exception of a prosecution for perjury and an action for damages 14426
under section 1345.07 or 1345.09 of the Revised Code, an 14427
individual who complies with a court order to provide testimony or 14428
matter, after asserting a privilege against self incrimination to 14429
which the individual is entitled by law, shall not be subjected to 14430
a criminal proceeding on the basis of the testimony or matter 14431
discovered through that testimony or matter.14432

       (E) Any person may petition the attorney general requesting 14433
the adoption, amendment, or repeal of a rule. The attorney general 14434
shall prescribe by rule the form for such petitions and the 14435
procedure for their submission, consideration, and disposition. 14436
Within sixty days of submission of a petition, the attorney 14437
general shall either deny the petition in writing, stating the 14438
reasons for the denial, or initiate rule-making proceedings. There 14439
is no right to appeal from such denial of a petition.14440

       (F) All rules shall be adopted subject to Chapter 119. of the 14441
Revised Code.14442

       (G) The informational document published in accordance with 14443
division (A)(4) of this section shall be made available for 14444
distribution to consumers who are applying for a mortgage loan. An 14445
acknowledgement of receipt shall be retained by the lender, 14446
mortgage broker, and loan officer, as applicable, subject to 14447
review by the attorney general and the department of commerce.14448

       Sec. 1501.04.  There is hereby created in the department of 14449
natural resources a recreation and resources commission composed 14450
of the chairperson of the wildlife council created under section 14451
1531.03 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the parks and 14452
recreation council created under section 1541.40 of the Revised 14453
Code, the chairperson of the waterways safety council created 14454
under section 1547.73 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the 14455
technical advisory council on oil and gas created under section 14456
1509.38 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the forestry 14457
advisory council created under section 1503.40 of the Revised 14458
Code, the chairperson of the Ohio soil and water conservation 14459
commission created under section 1515.02 of the Revised Code, the 14460
chairperson of the Ohio natural areas council created under 14461
section 1517.03 of the Revised Code, the chairperson of the Ohio 14462
water advisory council created under section 1521.031 of the 14463
Revised Code, the chairperson of the recycling and litter 14464
prevention advisory council created under section 1502.04 of the 14465
Revised Code, the chairperson of the Ohio geology advisory council 14466
created under section 1505.11 of the Revised Code, and five 14467
members appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of 14468
the senate, not more than three of whom shall belong to the same 14469
political party. The director of natural resources shall be an ex 14470
officio member of the commission, with a voice in its 14471
deliberations, but without the power to vote.14472

       Terms of office of members of the commission appointed by the 14473
governor shall be for five years, commencing on the second day of 14474
February and ending on the first day of February. Each member 14475
shall hold office from the date of appointment until the end of 14476
the term for which the member was appointed.14477

       In the event of the death, removal, resignation, or 14478
incapacity of a member of the commission, the governor, with the 14479
advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint a successor who 14480
shall hold office for the remainder of the term for which the 14481
member's predecessor was appointed. Any member shall continue in 14482
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 14483
until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of 14484
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.14485

       The governor may remove any appointed member of the 14486
commission for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.14487

       The commission shall exercise no administrative function, but 14488
may do any of the following:14489

       (A) Advise with and recommend to the director as to plans and 14490
programs for the management, development, utilization, and 14491
conservation of the natural resources of the state;14492

       (B) Advise with and recommend to the director as to methods 14493
of coordinating the work of the divisions of the department;14494

       (C) Consider and make recommendations upon any matter that 14495
the director may submit to it;14496

       (D) Submit to the governor biennially recommendations for 14497
amendments to the conservation laws of the state.14498

        Each member of the commission, before entering upon the 14499
discharge of the member's duties, shall take and subscribe to an 14500
oath of office, which oath, in writing, shall be filed in the 14501
office of the secretary of state.14502

       The members of the commission shall serve without 14503
compensation, but shall be entitled to receive their actual and 14504
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their official 14505
duties.14506

       The commission, by a majority vote of all its members, shall 14507
adopt and amend bylaws.14508

       To be eligible for appointment, a person shall be a citizen 14509
of the United States and an elector of the state and shall possess 14510
a knowledge of and have an interest in the natural resources of 14511
this state.14512

       The commission shall hold at least four regular quarterly 14513
meetings each year. Special meetings shall be held at such times 14514
as the bylaws of the commission provide. Notices of all meetings 14515
shall be given in such manner as the bylaws provide. The 14516
commission shall choose annually from among its members a 14517
chairperson to preside over its meetings and a secretary to keep a 14518
record of its proceedings. A majority of the members of the 14519
commission constitutes a quorum. No advice shall be given or 14520
recommendation made without a majority of the members of the 14521
commission concurring in it.14522

       Sec. 1503.012. There is hereby created in the state treasury 14523
the forestry mineral royalties fund. The fund shall consist of 14524
money deposited into it under section 1509.73 of the Revised Code. 14525
Any investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be 14526
credited to the fund.14527

       Money in the fund shall be used by the division of forestry 14528
to acquire land and to pay capital costs, including equipment and 14529
repairs and renovations of facilities, that are owned by the state 14530
and administered by the division. Expenditures from the fund for 14531
those purposes shall be approved by the director of natural 14532
resources.14533

       The director of natural resources also may request the 14534
director of budget and management to transfer money from the 14535
forestry mineral royalties fund to the parks mineral royalties 14536
fund created in section 1541.26 of the Revised Code. The director 14537
of budget and management shall transfer the money pursuant to the 14538
request if the director consents to the request. Money that is 14539
transferred to the parks mineral royalties fund shall be used for 14540
the purposes specified in section 1541.26 of the Revised Code.14541

       Sec. 1503.43.  (A) As used in this section:14542

       (1) "Wilderness area" means a contiguous area of relatively 14543
undeveloped state-owned land administered by the division of 14544
forestry and consisting of not less than five thousand acres or of 14545
sufficient size as to make practicable its preservation and use in 14546
an unimpaired condition that either has retained its natural 14547
character and influence or has been substantially restored to a 14548
near natural appearance and that meets both of the following 14549
qualifications:14550

       (a) The area is one in which humankind's past influences are 14551
largely unnoticed;14552

       (b) The area has outstanding opportunities for solitude or 14553
for a primitive and unconfined type of recreation.14554

       (2) "Utility facility" includes, without limitation, towers, 14555
poles, pipes, sewers, tubing, conduits, conductors, cables, 14556
valves, lines, wires, manholes, and appurtenances thereto owned by 14557
a utility facility operator.14558

       (3) "Utility facility operator" means a person or public 14559
authority that supplies any of the following materials or services 14560
by means of a utility facility:14561

       (a) Flammable, toxic, or corrosive gas;14562

       (b) Crude oil, petroleum products, or hazardous liquids;14563

       (c) Coal;14564

       (d) Electricity;14565

       (e) Electronic, telephonic, or telegraphic communications;14566

       (f) Television signals;14567

       (g) Sewage disposal or drainage;14568

       (h) Potable water;14569

       (i) Steam or hot water.14570

       (B) That portion of contiguous state lands located in Scioto 14571
and Adams counties and within the Shawnee state forest and bounded 14572
by forest road seventeen and sunshine ridge to the north, by upper 14573
Twin Creek road to the east and northeast, by United States route 14574
fifty-two to the south, and by lower Twin Creek road to the west 14575
and southwest is hereby designated the Shawnee wilderness area. 14576
Except as otherwise specifically provided by this section or by 14577
rule adopted under this chapter, the provisions of this chapter 14578
apply to the Shawnee wilderness area, and that area shall continue 14579
to be a part of the Shawnee state forest.14580

       (C) The Shawnee wilderness area shall be managed to preserve 14581
natural conditions and ensure the continuance of natural 14582
processes. The chief of the division of forestry, with the 14583
approval of the director of natural resources, shall administer 14584
the Shawnee wilderness area in accordance with a management plan, 14585
which the chief shall develop and adopt within one year after 14586
September 14, 1988. Sixty days prior to adopting a plan, the chief 14587
shall solicit public review and comment on a draft plan. At least 14588
once every ten years, the chief shall conduct a review of the 14589
plan, with public input, and revise the plan as appropriate. The 14590
chief shall make the plan available for review by any person upon 14591
request.14592

       (D) Notwithstanding any other authority granted to the chief 14593
under this chapter, the chief shall include within the management 14594
plan adopted under division (C) of this section prohibitions of 14595
the following activities within the Shawnee wilderness area except 14596
for the areas exempted in division (E) of this section:14597

       (1) Picking, removal, cutting, or alteration in any manner of 14598
any vegetation unless the person first has obtained written 14599
consent from the chief for that activity and the action is 14600
necessary for appropriate public access, the preservation or 14601
restoration of a plant or wildlife species, or the documentation 14602
of scientific values;14603

       (2) Granting of any easement or license, or sale or lease of 14604
any of the land, for any purpose. Division (D)(2) of this section 14605
does not apply to any private easement or license in existence on 14606
September 14, 1988.14607

       (3) Exploration for or extraction of any coal, oil, gas, or 14608
minerals;14609

       (4) Operation, construction, or installation of a utility 14610
facility above or below the surface of the land;14611

       (5) Operation of a commercial enterprise;14612

       (6) Except as provided in division (D)(7) of this section, 14613
construction of a road upon any of the land or use of the land as 14614
a road;14615

       (7) Except as is necessary to meet emergency requirements for 14616
administration of the area:14617

       (a) Landing of an aircraft;14618

       (b) Operation of a motor vehicle, motor boat, other form of 14619
mechanical transport, or motorized equipment;14620

       (c) Construction of any building or other structure;14621

       (d) Use of the land as a temporary road.14622

       (E)(1) The following areas, which now are necessary for the 14623
administration of the Shawnee state forest and the state forest 14624
system, are not subject to the prohibitions of division (D) of 14625
this section:14626

       (a) The Buena Vista manager's residence;14627

       (b) The Buena Vista walnut seed orchard;14628

       (c) The Twin Creek fire tower.14629

       (2) The following areas, which now are necessary for the 14630
administration of the Shawnee state forest and the state forest 14631
system, are not subject to the prohibition established in division 14632
(D)(7)(b) of this section for the purpose of trail maintenance:14633

       (a) The hiking trail west of upper Twin Creek road known as 14634
the wilderness loop;14635

       (b) Buckhorn ridge bridle trail;14636

       (c) Cabbage patch bridle trail.14637

       (3) At any time that the chief makes a determination that it 14638
is no longer necessary for the administration of the Shawnee state 14639
forest or the state forest system for an area excluded in division 14640
(E)(1) or (2) of this section to be excluded, the area shall 14641
become subject to the prohibitions ofestablished in division (D) 14642
of this section or the prohibition established in division 14643
(D)(7)(b) of this section, as applicable.14644

       (F) The chief, in developing a management plan under division 14645
(C) of this section, may not prohibit any hunting, fishing, or 14646
trapping that is done in conformity with Chapters 1531. and 1533. 14647
of the Revised Code or any rules adopted under those chapters.14648

       Sec. 1506.42.  The state, acting through the director of 14649
natural resources, subject to section 1506.46 of the Revised Code, 14650
may enter into agreements with counties, townships, municipal 14651
corporations, park boards, and conservancy districts, other 14652
political subdivisions, or any state departments or divisions for 14653
the purpose of constructing and maintaining projects to control 14654
erosion along the Ohio shoreline of Lake Erie and in any rivers 14655
and bays that are connected with Lake Erie and any other 14656
watercourses that flow into Lake Erie. Such projects also may be 14657
constructed on any Lake Erie island that is situated within the 14658
boundaries of the state.14659

       The cost of such shore erosion projects that are for the 14660
benefit of public littoral property shall be prorated on the basis 14661
of two-thirds of the total cost to the state through 14662
appropriations made to the department of natural resources and 14663
one-third of the cost to the counties, townships, municipal 14664
corporations, park boards, conservancy districts, or other 14665
political subdivisions.14666

       If a shore erosion emergency is declared by the governor, the 14667
state, acting through the director, may spend whatever state funds 14668
are available to alleviate shore erosion, without participation by 14669
any political subdivision, regardless of whether the project will 14670
benefit public or private littoral property.14671

       A board of county commissioners, acting for the county over 14672
which it has jurisdiction, may enter into and carry out agreements 14673
with the director for the construction and maintenance of projects 14674
to control shore erosion. In providing the funds for the county's 14675
proportionate share of the cost of constructing and maintaining 14676
the projects referred to in this section, the board shall be 14677
governed by and may issue and refund bonds in accordance with 14678
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code.14679

       A municipal corporation or a township, acting through the 14680
legislative authority or the board of township trustees, may enter 14681
into and carry out agreements with the director for the purpose of 14682
constructing and maintaining projects to control shore erosion. In 14683
providing the funds for the municipal corporation's or township's 14684
proportionate share of the cost of constructing and maintaining 14685
the projects referred to in this section, a municipal corporation 14686
or township may issue and refund bonds in accordance with Chapter 14687
133. of the Revised Code. The contract shall be executed on behalf 14688
of the municipal corporation or township by the mayor, city 14689
manager, or other chief executive officer who has the authority to 14690
act for the municipal corporation or township.14691

       Conservancy districts may enter into and carry out agreements 14692
with the director, in accordance with the intent of this section, 14693
under the powers conferred upon conservancy districts under 14694
Chapter 6101. of the Revised Code.14695

       Park boards may enter into and carry out agreements with the 14696
director, in accordance with the intent of this section, and issue 14697
bonds for that purpose under the powers conferred upon park 14698
districts under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code.14699

       The director shall approve and supervise all projects that 14700
are to be constructed in accordance with this section. The 14701
director shall not proceed with the construction of any project 14702
until all funds that are to be paid by the county, township, 14703
municipal corporation, park board, or conservancy district, in 14704
accordance with the terms of the agreement entered into between 14705
the director and the county, township, municipal corporation, park 14706
board, or conservancy district, are in the director's possession 14707
and deposited in the shore erosion fund, which is hereby created 14708
in the state treasury. If the director finds it to be in the best 14709
interests of the state to construct projects as set forth in this 14710
section by the state itself, without the financial contribution of 14711
counties, townships, municipal corporations, park boards, or 14712
conservancy districts, the director may construct the projects.14713

       In deciding whether to assist a county or municipal 14714
corporation in constructing and maintaining a project under this 14715
section, the state, acting through the director, shall consider, 14716
among other factors, whether the county or municipal corporation 14717
has adopted or is in the process of adopting a Lake Erie coastal 14718
erosion area resolution or ordinance under division (D) of section 14719
1506.07 of the Revised Code.14720

       All projects constructed by the state in conformity with 14721
sections 1506.38 to 1506.46 of the Revised Code shall be 14722
constructed subject to sections 153.01 to 153.20 of the Revised 14723
Code, except that the state architect and engineerOhio facilities 14724
construction commission is not required to prepare the plans and 14725
specifications for those projects.14726

       Sec. 1509.071.  (A) When the chief of the division of oil and 14727
gas resources management finds that an owner has failed to comply 14728
with a final nonappealable order issued or compliance agreement 14729
entered into under section 1509.04, the restoration requirements 14730
of section 1509.072, plugging requirements of section 1509.12, or 14731
permit provisions of section 1509.13 of the Revised Code, or rules 14732
and orders relating thereto, the chief shall make a finding of 14733
that fact and declare any surety bond filed to ensure compliance 14734
with those sections and rules forfeited in the amount set by rule 14735
of the chief. The chief thereupon shall certify the total 14736
forfeiture to the attorney general, who shall proceed to collect 14737
the amount of the forfeiture. In addition, the chief may require 14738
an owner, operator, producer, or other person who forfeited a 14739
surety bond to post a new surety bond in the amount of fifteen 14740
thousand dollars for a single well, thirty thousand dollars for 14741
two wells, or fifty thousand dollars for three or more wells.14742

       In lieu of total forfeiture, the surety or owner, at the 14743
surety's or owner's option, may cause the well to be properly 14744
plugged and abandoned and the area properly restored or pay to the 14745
treasurer of state the cost of plugging and abandonment.14746

       (B) All moneys collected because of forfeitures of bonds as 14747
provided in this section shall be deposited in the state treasury 14748
to the credit of the oil and gas well fund created in section 14749
1509.02 of the Revised Code. 14750

       The chief annually shall spend not less than fourteen per 14751
cent of the revenue credited to the fund during the previous 14752
fiscal year for the following purposes:14753

       (1) In accordance with division (D) of this section, to plug 14754
idle and orphaned wells or to restore the land surface properly as 14755
required in section 1509.072 of the Revised Code;14756

       (2) In accordance with division (E) of this section, to 14757
correct conditions that the chief reasonably has determined are 14758
causing imminent health or safety risks at an idle and orphaned 14759
well or a well for which the owner cannot be contacted in order to 14760
initiate a corrective action within a reasonable period of time as 14761
determined by the chief.14762

       Expenditures from the fund shall be made only for lawful 14763
purposes. In addition, expenditures from the fund shall not be 14764
made to purchase real property or to remove a dwelling in order to 14765
access a well.14766

       (C)(1) Upon determining that the owner of a well has failed 14767
to properly plug and abandon it or to properly restore the land 14768
surface at the well site in compliance with the applicable 14769
requirements of this chapter and applicable rules adopted and 14770
orders issued under it or that a well is an abandoned well for 14771
which no funds are available to plug the well in accordance with 14772
this chapter, the chief shall do all of the following:14773

       (a) Determine from the records in the office of the county 14774
recorder of the county in which the well is located the identity 14775
of the owner of the land on which the well is located, the 14776
identity of the owner of the oil or gas lease under which the well 14777
was drilled or the identity of each person owning an interest in 14778
the lease, and the identities of the persons having legal title 14779
to, or a lien upon, any of the equipment appurtenant to the well;14780

       (b) Mail notice to the owner of the land on which the well is 14781
located informing the landowner that the well is to be plugged. If 14782
the owner of the oil or gas lease under which the well was drilled 14783
is different from the owner of the well or if any persons other 14784
than the owner of the well own interests in the lease, the chief 14785
also shall mail notice that the well is to be plugged to the owner 14786
of the lease or to each person owning an interest in the lease, as 14787
appropriate.14788

       (c) Mail notice to each person having legal title to, or a 14789
lien upon, any equipment appurtenant to the well, informing the 14790
person that the well is to be plugged and offering the person the 14791
opportunity to plug the well and restore the land surface at the 14792
well site at the person's own expense in order to avoid forfeiture 14793
of the equipment to this state.14794

       (2) If none of the persons described in division (C)(1)(c) of 14795
this section plugs the well within sixty days after the mailing of 14796
the notice required by that division, all equipment appurtenant to 14797
the well is hereby declared to be forfeited to this state without 14798
compensation and without the necessity for any action by the state 14799
for use to defray the cost of plugging and abandoning the well and 14800
restoring the land surface at the well site.14801

       (D) Expenditures from the fund for the purpose of division 14802
(B)(1) of this section shall be made in accordance with either of 14803
the following:14804

       (1) The expenditures may be made pursuant to contracts 14805
entered into by the chief with persons who agree to furnish all of 14806
the materials, equipment, work, and labor as specified and 14807
provided in such a contract for activities associated with the 14808
restoration or plugging of a well as determined by the chief. The 14809
activities may include excavation to uncover a well, geophysical 14810
methods to locate a buried well when clear evidence of leakage 14811
from the well exists, cleanout of wellbores to remove material 14812
from a failed plugging of a well, plugging operations, 14813
installation of vault and vent systems, including associated 14814
engineering certifications and permits, restoration of property, 14815
and repair of damage to property that is caused by such 14816
activities. Expenditures shall not be used for salaries, 14817
maintenance, equipment, or other administrative purposes, except 14818
for costs directly attributed to the plugging of an idle and 14819
orphaned well. Agents or employees of persons contracting with the 14820
chief for a restoration or plugging project may enter upon any 14821
land, public or private, on which the well is located for the 14822
purpose of performing the work. Prior to such entry, the chief 14823
shall give to the following persons written notice of the 14824
existence of a contract for a project to restore or plug a well, 14825
the names of the persons with whom the contract is made, and the 14826
date that the project will commence: the owner of the well, the 14827
owner of the land upon which the well is located, the owner or 14828
agents of adjoining land, and, if the well is located in the same 14829
township as or in a township adjacent to the excavations and 14830
workings of a mine and the owner or lessee of that mine has 14831
provided written notice identifying those townships to the chief 14832
at any time during the immediately preceding three years, the 14833
owner or lessee of the mine.14834

       (2)(a) The owner of the land on which a well is located who 14835
has received notice under division (C)(1)(b) of this section may 14836
plug the well and be reimbursed by the division of oil and gas 14837
resources management for the reasonable cost of plugging the well. 14838
In order to plug the well, the landowner shall submit an 14839
application to the chief on a form prescribed by the chief and 14840
approved by the technical advisory council on oil and gas created 14841
in section 1509.38 of the Revised Code. The application, at a 14842
minimum, shall require the landowner to provide the same 14843
information as is required to be included in the application for a 14844
permit to plug and abandon under section 1509.13 of the Revised 14845
Code. The application shall be accompanied by a copy of a proposed 14846
contract to plug the well prepared by a contractor regularly 14847
engaged in the business of plugging oil and gas wells. The 14848
proposed contract shall require the contractor to furnish all of 14849
the materials, equipment, work, and labor necessary to plug the 14850
well properly and shall specify the price for doing the work, 14851
including a credit for the equipment appurtenant to the well that 14852
was forfeited to the state through the operation of division 14853
(C)(2) of this section. Expenditures under division (D)(2)(a) of 14854
this section shall be consistent with the expenditures for 14855
activities described in division (D)(1) of this section. The 14856
application also shall be accompanied by the permit fee required 14857
by section 1509.13 of the Revised Code unless the chief, in the 14858
chief's discretion, waives payment of the permit fee. The 14859
application constitutes an application for a permit to plug and 14860
abandon the well for the purposes of section 1509.13 of the 14861
Revised Code.14862

       (b) Within thirty days after receiving an application and 14863
accompanying proposed contract under division (D)(2)(a) of this 14864
section, the chief shall determine whether the plugging would 14865
comply with the applicable requirements of this chapter and 14866
applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it and whether 14867
the cost of the plugging under the proposed contract is 14868
reasonable. If the chief determines that the proposed plugging 14869
would comply with those requirements and that the proposed cost of 14870
the plugging is reasonable, the chief shall notify the landowner 14871
of that determination and issue to the landowner a permit to plug 14872
and abandon the well under section 1509.13 of the Revised Code. 14873
Upon approval of the application and proposed contract, the chief 14874
shall transfer ownership of the equipment appurtenant to the well 14875
to the landowner. The chief may disapprove an application 14876
submitted under division (D)(2)(a) of this section if the chief 14877
determines that the proposed plugging would not comply with the 14878
applicable requirements of this chapter and applicable rules 14879
adopted and orders issued under it, that the cost of the plugging 14880
under the proposed contract is unreasonable, or that the proposed 14881
contract is not a bona fide, arm's length contract.14882

       (c) After receiving the chief's notice of the approval of the 14883
application and permit to plug and abandon a well under division 14884
(D)(2)(b) of this section, the landowner shall enter into the 14885
proposed contract to plug the well. 14886

       (d) Upon determining that the plugging has been completed in 14887
compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter and 14888
applicable rules adopted and orders issued under it, the chief 14889
shall reimburse the landowner for the cost of the plugging as set 14890
forth in the proposed contract approved by the chief. The 14891
reimbursement shall be paid from the oil and gas well fund. If the 14892
chief determines that the plugging was not completed in accordance 14893
with the applicable requirements, the chief shall not reimburse 14894
the landowner for the cost of the plugging, and the landowner or 14895
the contractor, as applicable, promptly shall transfer back to 14896
this state title to and possession of the equipment appurtenant to 14897
the well that previously was transferred to the landowner under 14898
division (D)(2)(b) of this section. If any such equipment was 14899
removed from the well during the plugging and sold, the landowner 14900
shall pay to the chief the proceeds from the sale of the 14901
equipment, and the chief promptly shall pay the moneys so received 14902
to the treasurer of state for deposit into the oil and gas well 14903
fund.14904

       The chief may establish an annual limit on the number of 14905
wells that may be plugged under division (D)(2) of this section or 14906
an annual limit on the expenditures to be made under that 14907
division.14908

       As used in division (D)(2) of this section, "plug" and 14909
"plugging" include the plugging of the well and the restoration of 14910
the land surface disturbed by the plugging.14911

       (E) Expenditures from the oil and gas well fund for the 14912
purpose of division (B)(2) of this section may be made pursuant to 14913
contracts entered into by the chief with persons who agree to 14914
furnish all of the materials, equipment, work, and labor as 14915
specified and provided in such a contract. The competitive bidding 14916
requirements of Chapter 153. of the Revised Code do not apply if 14917
the chief reasonably determines that an emergency situation exists 14918
requiring immediate action for the correction of the applicable 14919
health or safety risk requires immediate action. A contract or 14920
purchase of materials for purposes of addressing the emergency 14921
situation is not subject to division (B) of section 127.16 of the 14922
Revised Code. The chief, designated representatives of the chief, 14923
and agents or employees of persons contracting with the chief 14924
under this division may enter upon any land, public or private, 14925
for the purpose of performing the work.14926

       (F) Contracts entered into by the chief under this section 14927
are not subject to eitherany of the following:14928

       (1) Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code;14929

       (2) Section 153.54 of the Revised Code, except that the 14930
contractor shall obtain and provide to the chief as a bid guaranty 14931
a surety bond or letter of credit in an amount equal to ten per 14932
cent of the amount of the contract;14933

       (3) Section 4733.17 of the Revised Code.14934

       (G) The owner of land on which a well is located who has 14935
received notice under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, in lieu 14936
of plugging the well in accordance with division (D)(2) of this 14937
section, may cause ownership of the well to be transferred to an 14938
owner who is lawfully doing business in this state and who has met 14939
the financial responsibility requirements established under 14940
section 1509.07 of the Revised Code, subject to the approval of 14941
the chief. The transfer of ownership also shall be subject to the 14942
landowner's filing the appropriate forms required under section 14943
1509.31 of the Revised Code and providing to the chief sufficient 14944
information to demonstrate the landowner's or owner's right to 14945
produce a formation or formations. That information may include a 14946
deed, a lease, or other documentation of ownership or property 14947
rights.14948

       The chief shall approve or disapprove the transfer of 14949
ownership of the well. If the chief approves the transfer, the 14950
owner is responsible for operating the well in accordance with 14951
this chapter and rules adopted under it, including, without 14952
limitation, all of the following:14953

       (1) Filing an application with the chief under section 14954
1509.06 of the Revised Code if the owner intends to drill deeper 14955
or produce a formation that is not listed in the records of the 14956
division for that well;14957

       (2) Taking title to and possession of the equipment 14958
appurtenant to the well that has been identified by the chief as 14959
having been abandoned by the former owner;14960

       (3) Complying with all applicable requirements that are 14961
necessary to drill deeper, plug the well, or plug back the well.14962

       (H) The chief shall issue an order that requires the owner of 14963
a well to pay the actual documented costs of a corrective action 14964
that is described in division (B)(2) of this section concerning 14965
the well. The chief shall transmit the money so recovered to the 14966
treasurer of state who shall deposit the money in the state 14967
treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund.14968

       (I) The chief may engage in cooperative projects under this 14969
section with any agency of this state, another state, or the 14970
United States; any other governmental agencies; or any state 14971
university or college as defined in section 3345.27 of the Revised 14972
Code. A contract entered into for purposes of a cooperative 14973
project is not subject to division (B) of section 127.16 of the 14974
Revised Code.14975

       Sec. 1533.081. (A) As used in this section:14976

       (1) "Energy" has the same meaning as in section 1551.01 of 14977
the Revised Code.14978

       (2) "Energy facility" means a facility at which energy is 14979
produced.14980

       (B) A person operating an energy facility whose operation may 14981
result in the incidental taking of a wild animal shall obtain a 14982
permit to do so from the chief of the division of wildlife under 14983
this section. The chief shall adopt rules under section 1531.10 of 14984
the Revised Code that are necessary to administer this section.14985

       Sec. 1533.10.  Except as provided in this section or division 14986
(A)(2) of section 1533.12 of the Revised Code, no person shall 14987
hunt any wild bird or wild quadruped without a hunting license. 14988
Each day that any person hunts within the state without procuring 14989
such a license constitutes a separate offense. Except as otherwise 14990
provided in this section, every applicant for a hunting license 14991
who is a resident of the state and eighteen years of age or more 14992
shall procure a resident hunting license or an apprentice resident 14993
hunting license, the fee for which shall be eighteen dollars 14994
unless the rules adopted under division (B) of section 1533.12 of 14995
the Revised Code provide for issuance of a resident hunting 14996
license to the applicant free of charge. Except as provided in 14997
rules adopted under division (B)(2) of that section, each 14998
applicant who is a resident of this state and who at the time of 14999
application is sixty-six years of age or older shall procure a 15000
special senior hunting license, the fee for which shall be 15001
one-half of the regular hunting license fee. Every applicant who 15002
is under the age of eighteen years shall procure a special youth 15003
hunting license or an apprentice youth hunting license, the fee 15004
for which shall be one-half of the regular hunting license fee. 15005

       A resident of this state who owns lands in the state and the 15006
owner's children of any age and grandchildren under eighteen years 15007
of age may hunt on the lands without a hunting license. A resident 15008
of any other state who owns real property in this state, and the 15009
spouse and children living with the property owner, may hunt on 15010
that property without a license, provided that the state of 15011
residence of the real property owner allows residents of this 15012
state owning real property in that state, and the spouse and 15013
children living with the property owner, to hunt without a 15014
license. If the owner of land in this state is a limited liability 15015
company or a limited liability partnership that consists of three 15016
or fewer individual members or partners, as applicable, an 15017
individual member or partner who is a resident of this state and 15018
the member's or partner's children of any age and grandchildren 15019
under eighteen years of age may hunt on the land owned by the 15020
limited liability company or limited liability partnership without 15021
a hunting license. In addition, if the owner of land in this state 15022
is a trust that has a total of three or fewer trustees and 15023
beneficiaries, an individual who is a trustee or beneficiary and 15024
who is a resident of this state and the individual's children of 15025
any age and grandchildren under eighteen years of age may hunt on 15026
the land owned by the trust without a hunting license. The tenant 15027
and children of the tenant, residing on lands in the state, may 15028
hunt on them without a hunting license. 15029

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1) of section 15030
1533.12 of the Revised Code, every applicant for a hunting license 15031
who is a nonresident of the state and who is eighteen years of age 15032
or older shall procure a nonresident hunting license or an 15033
apprentice nonresident hunting license, the fee for which shall be 15034
one hundred twenty-four dollars unless the applicant is a resident 15035
of a state that is a party to an agreement under section 1533.91 15036
of the Revised Code, in which case the fee shall be eighteen 15037
dollars. Apprentice resident hunting licenses, apprentice youth 15038
hunting licenses, and apprentice nonresident hunting licenses are 15039
subject to the requirements established under section 1533.102 of 15040
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to it.15041

       The chief of the division of wildlife may issue a small game 15042
hunting license expiring three days from the effective date of the 15043
license to a nonresident of the state, the fee for which shall be 15044
thirty-nine dollars. No person shall take or possess deer, wild 15045
turkeys, fur-bearing animals, ducks, geese, brant, or any nongame 15046
animal while possessing only a small game hunting license. A small 15047
game hunting license or an apprentice nonresident hunting license 15048
does not authorize the taking or possessing of ducks, geese, or 15049
brant without having obtained, in addition to the small game 15050
hunting license or the apprentice nonresident hunting license, a 15051
wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 1533.112 of the 15052
Revised Code. A small game hunting license or an apprentice 15053
nonresident hunting license does not authorize the taking or 15054
possessing of deer, wild turkeys, or fur-bearing animals. A 15055
nonresident of the state who wishes to take or possess deer, wild 15056
turkeys, or fur-bearing animals in this state shall procure, 15057
respectively, a deer or wild turkey permit as provided in section 15058
1533.11 of the Revised Code or a fur taker permit as provided in 15059
section 1533.111 of the Revised Code in addition to a nonresident 15060
hunting license, an apprentice nonresident hunting license, a 15061
special youth hunting license, or an apprentice youth hunting 15062
license, as applicable, as provided in this section.15063

       No person shall procure or attempt to procure a hunting 15064
license by fraud, deceit, misrepresentation, or any false 15065
statement.15066

       This section does not authorize the taking and possessing of 15067
deer or wild turkeys without first having obtained, in addition to 15068
the hunting license required by this section, a deer or wild 15069
turkey permit as provided in section 1533.11 of the Revised Code 15070
or the taking and possessing of ducks, geese, or brant without 15071
first having obtained, in addition to the hunting license required 15072
by this section, a wetlands habitat stamp as provided in section 15073
1533.112 of the Revised Code.15074

       This section does not authorize the hunting or trapping of 15075
fur-bearing animals without first having obtained, in addition to 15076
a hunting license required by this section, a fur taker permit as 15077
provided in section 1533.111 of the Revised Code.15078

       No hunting license shall be issued unless it is accompanied 15079
by a written explanation of the law in section 1533.17 of the 15080
Revised Code and the penalty for its violation, including a 15081
description of terms of imprisonment and fines that may be 15082
imposed.15083

       No hunting license, other than an apprentice hunting license, 15084
shall be issued unless the applicant presents to the agent 15085
authorized to issue the license a previously held hunting license 15086
or evidence of having held such a license in content and manner 15087
approved by the chief, a certificate of completion issued upon 15088
completion of a hunter education and conservation course approved 15089
by the chief, or evidence of equivalent training in content and 15090
manner approved by the chief. A previously held apprentice hunting 15091
license does not satisfy the requirement concerning the 15092
presentation of a previously held hunting license or evidence of 15093
it.15094

       No person shall issue a hunting license, except an apprentice 15095
hunting license, to any person who fails to present the evidence 15096
required by this section. No person shall purchase or obtain a 15097
hunting license, other than an apprentice hunting license, without 15098
presenting to the issuing agent the evidence required by this 15099
section. Issuance of a hunting license in violation of the 15100
requirements of this section is an offense by both the purchaser 15101
of the illegally obtained hunting license and the clerk or agent 15102
who issued the hunting license. Any hunting license issued in 15103
violation of this section is void.15104

       The chief, with approval of the wildlife council, shall adopt 15105
rules prescribing a hunter education and conservation course for 15106
first-time hunting license buyers, other than buyers of apprentice 15107
hunting licenses, and for volunteer instructors. The course shall 15108
consist of subjects including, but not limited to, hunter safety 15109
and health, use of hunting implements, hunting tradition and 15110
ethics, the hunter and conservation, the law in section 1533.17 of 15111
the Revised Code along with the penalty for its violation, 15112
including a description of terms of imprisonment and fines that 15113
may be imposed, and other law relating to hunting. Authorized 15114
personnel of the division or volunteer instructors approved by the 15115
chief shall conduct such courses with such frequency and at such 15116
locations throughout the state as to reasonably meet the needs of 15117
license applicants. The chief shall issue a certificate of 15118
completion to each person who successfully completes the course 15119
and passes an examination prescribed by the chief.15120

       Sec. 1541.26.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 15121
the parks mineral royalties fund. The fund shall consist of money 15122
deposited into it under section 1509.73 of the Revised Code and 15123
money transferred to it under section 1503.012 of the Revised 15124
Code. Any investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be 15125
credited to the fund. 15126

       Money in the fund shall be used by the division of parks and 15127
recreation to acquire land and to pay capital costs, including 15128
equipment and repairs and renovations of facilities, that are 15129
owned by the state and administered by the division. Expenditures 15130
from the fund shall be approved by the director of natural 15131
resources.15132

       Sec. 1551.33.  (A) The director of development shall appoint 15133
and fix the compensation of the director of the Ohio coal 15134
development office. The director shall serve at the pleasure of 15135
the director of development.15136

       (B) The director of the office shall do all of the following:15137

       (1) Biennially prepare and maintain the Ohio coal development 15138
agenda required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code;15139

       (2) Propose and support policies for the office consistent 15140
with the Ohio coal development agenda and develop means to 15141
implement the agenda;15142

       (3) Initiate, undertake, and support projects to carry out 15143
the office's purposes and ensure that the projects are consistent 15144
with and meet the selection criteria established by the Ohio coal 15145
development agenda;15146

       (4) Actively encourage joint participation in and, when 15147
feasible, joint funding of the office's projects with governmental 15148
agencies, electric utilities, universities and colleges, other 15149
public or private interests, or any other person;15150

       (5) Establish a table of organization for and employ such 15151
employees and agents as are necessary for the administration and 15152
operation of the office. Any such employees shall be in the 15153
unclassified service and shall serve at the pleasure of the 15154
director of development.15155

       (6) Appoint specified members of and convene the technical 15156
advisory committee established under section 1551.35 of the 15157
Revised Code;15158

       (7) Review, with the assistance of the technical advisory 15159
committee, proposed coal research and development projects as 15160
defined in section 1555.01 of the Revised Code, and coal 15161
development projects, submitted to the office by public utilities 15162
for the purpose of section 4905.304 of the Revised Code. If the 15163
director and the advisory committee determine that any such 15164
facility or project has as its purpose the enhanced use of Ohio 15165
coal in an environmentally acceptable, cost effective manner, 15166
promotes energy conservation, is cost effective, and is 15167
environmentally sound, the director shall submit to the public 15168
utilities commission a report recommending that the commission 15169
allow the recovery of costs associated with the facility or 15170
project under section 4905.304 of the Revised Code and including 15171
the reasons for the recommendation.15172

       (8) Establish such policies, procedures, and guidelines as 15173
are necessary to achieve the office's purposes.15174

       (C) TheWith the approval of the director of development, the15175
director of the office may exercise any of the powers and duties 15176
that the director of the officedevelopment considers appropriate 15177
or desirable to achieve the office's purposes, including, but not 15178
limited to, the powers and duties enumerated in sections 1551.11, 15179
1551.12, and 1551.15 of the Revised Code.15180

       Additionally, the director of the office may make loans to 15181
governmental agencies or persons for projects to carry out the 15182
office's purposes. Fees, charges, rates of interest, times of 15183
payment of interest and principal, and other terms, conditions, 15184
and provisions of the loans shall be such as the director of the 15185
office determines to be appropriate and in furtherance of the 15186
purposes for which the loans are made. The mortgage lien securing 15187
any moneys lent by the director of the office may be subordinate 15188
to the mortgage lien securing any moneys lent or invested by a 15189
financial institution, but shall be superior to that securing any 15190
moneys lent or expended by any other person. The moneys used in 15191
making the loans shall be disbursed upon order of the director of 15192
the office.15193

       Sec. 1555.02.  It is hereby declared to be the public policy 15194
of this state through the operations of the Ohio coal development 15195
office under this chapter to contribute toward one or more of the 15196
following: to provide for the comfort, health, safety, and general 15197
welfare of all employees and other inhabitants of this state 15198
through research and development directed toward the discovery of 15199
new technologies or the demonstration or application of existing 15200
technologies to enable the conversion or use of Ohio coal as a 15201
fuel or chemical feedstock in an environmentally acceptable manner 15202
thereby enhancing the marketability and fostering the use of this 15203
state's vast reserves of coal, to assist in the financing of coal 15204
research and development and coal research and development 15205
projects or facilities for persons doing business in this state 15206
and educational and scientific institutions located in this state, 15207
to create or preserve jobs and employment opportunities or improve 15208
the economic welfare of the people of this state, or to assist and 15209
cooperate with such persons and educational and scientific 15210
institutions in conducting coal research and development. In 15211
furtherance of this public policy, the Ohio coal development 15212
office, with the advice of the technical advisory committee 15213
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of 15214
the director of development, may make loans, guarantee loans, and 15215
make grants to persons doing business in this state or to 15216
educational or scientific institutions located in this state for 15217
coal research and development projects by such persons or 15218
educational or scientific institutions; may, with the advice of 15219
the technical advisory committee and the approval of the director 15220
of development, request the issuance of coal research and 15221
development general obligations under section 151.07 of the 15222
Revised Code to provide funds for making such loans, loan 15223
guarantees, and grants; and may, with the advice of the technical 15224
advisory committee and the approval of the director of 15225
development, expend moneys credited to the coal research and 15226
development fund created in section 1555.15 of the Revised Code 15227
for the purpose of making such loans, loan guarantees, and grants. 15228
Determinations by the director of the Ohio coal development office 15229
that coal research and development or a coal research and 15230
development facility is a coal research and development project 15231
under this chapter and is consistent with the purposes of Section 15232
15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and this chapter shall be 15233
conclusive as to the validity and enforceability of the coal 15234
research and development general obligations issued to finance 15235
such project and of the authorizations, trust agreements or 15236
indentures, loan agreements, loan guarantee agreements, or grant 15237
agreements, and other agreements made in connection therewith, all 15238
in accordance with their terms.15239

       Sec. 1555.03.  For the purposes of this chapter, the director 15240
of the Ohio coal development office may:15241

       (A) With the advice of the technical advisory committee 15242
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of 15243
the director of development, make loans, guarantee loans, and make 15244
grants to persons doing business in this state or to educational 15245
or scientific institutions located in this state for coal research 15246
and development projects by any such person or educational or 15247
scientific institution and adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the 15248
Revised Code for making such loans, guarantees, and grants.15249

       (B) In making loans, loan guarantees, and grants under 15250
division (A) of this section and section 1555.04 of the Revised 15251
Code, the director of the office shall ensure that an adequate 15252
portion of the total amount of those loans, loan guarantees, and 15253
grants, as determined by the director with the advice of the 15254
technical advisory committee, is used for conducting research on 15255
fundamental scientific problems related to the utilization of Ohio 15256
coal and shall ensure, to the maximum feasible extent, joint 15257
financial participation by the federal government or other 15258
investors or interested parties in conjunction with any such loan, 15259
loan guarantee, or grant. The director, in each grant agreement or 15260
contract under division (A) of this section, loan contract or 15261
agreement under this division or section 1555.04 of the Revised 15262
Code, and contract of guarantee under section 1555.05 of the 15263
Revised Code, shall require that the facility or project be 15264
maintained and kept in good condition and repair by the person or 15265
educational or scientific institution to whom the grant or loan 15266
was made or for whom the guarantee was made.15267

       (C) From time to time, with the advice of the technical 15268
advisory committee and the approval of the director of 15269
development, request the issuance of coal research and development 15270
general obligations under section 151.07 of the Revised Code, for 15271
any of the purposes set forth in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio 15272
Constitution, and subject to the limitations therein upon the 15273
aggregate total amount of obligations that may be outstanding at 15274
any time.15275

       (D) Include as a condition of any loan, loan guarantee, or 15276
grant contract or agreement with any such person or educational or 15277
scientific institution that the director of the office receive, in 15278
addition to payments of principal and interest on any such loan or 15279
service charges for any such guarantee, as appropriate, as 15280
authorized by Section 15,of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, a 15281
reasonable royalty or portion of the income or profits arising out 15282
of the developments, discoveries, or inventions, including patents 15283
or copyrights, that result in whole or in part from coal research 15284
and development projects conducted under any such contract or 15285
agreement, in such amounts and for such period of years as may be 15286
negotiated and provided by the contract or agreement in advance of 15287
the making of the grant, loan, or loan guarantee. Moneys received 15288
by the director of the office under this section may be credited 15289
to the coal research and development bond service fund or used to 15290
make additional loans, loan guarantees, grants, or agreements 15291
under this section.15292

       (E) Employ managers, superintendents, and other employees and 15293
retain or contract with consulting engineers, financial 15294
consultants, accounting experts, architects, and such other 15295
consultants and independent contractors as are necessary in the 15296
judgment of the director of the office to carry out this chapter, 15297
and fix the compensation thereof.15298

       (F) Receive and accept from any federal agency, subject to 15299
the approval of the governor, grants for or in aid of the 15300
construction or operation of any coal research and development 15301
project or for coal research and development, and receive and 15302
accept aid or contributions from any source of money, property, 15303
labor, or other things of value, to be held, used, and applied 15304
only for the purposes for which such grants and contributions are 15305
made.15306

       (G) Purchase fire and extended coverage and liability 15307
insurance for any coal research and development project, insurance 15308
protecting the office and its officers and employees against 15309
liability for damage to property or injury to or death of persons 15310
arising from its operations, and any other insurance the director 15311
of the office determines necessary or proper under this chapter. 15312
Any moneys received by the director from the proceeds of any such 15313
insurance with respect to a coal research and development project 15314
and any moneys received by the director from the proceeds of any 15315
settlement, judgment, foreclosure, or other insurance with respect 15316
to a coal research and development project or facility shall be 15317
credited to the coal research and development bond service fund.15318

       (H) In the exercise of the powers of the director of the 15319
office under this chapter, call to the director's assistance, 15320
temporarily, from time to time, any engineers, technical experts, 15321
financial experts, and other employees in any state department, 15322
agency, or commission, or in the Ohio state university, or other 15323
educational institutions financed wholly or partially by this 15324
state for purposes of assisting the director of the office with 15325
reviewing and evaluating applications for financial assistance 15326
under this chapter, monitoring performance of coal research and 15327
development projects receiving financial assistance under this 15328
chapter, and reviewing and evaluating the progress and findings of 15329
those projects. Such engineers, experts, and employees shall not 15330
receive any additional compensation over that which they receive 15331
from the department, agency, commission, or educational 15332
institution by which they are employed, but they shall be 15333
reimbursed for their actual and necessary expenses incurred while 15334
working under the direction of the director.15335

       (I) Do all acts necessary or proper to carry out the powers 15336
expressly granted in this chapter.15337

       Sec. 1555.04.  (A) With respect to coal research and 15338
development projects financed wholly or partially from a loan or 15339
loan guarantee under this chapter, the director of the Ohio coal 15340
development office, in addition to other powers under this 15341
chapter, with the advice of the technical advisory committee 15342
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of 15343
the director of development, may enter into loan agreements, 15344
accept notes and other forms of obligation to evidence such 15345
indebtedness and mortgages, liens, pledges, assignments, or other 15346
security interests to secure such indebtedness, which may be prior 15347
or subordinate to or on a parity with other indebtedness, 15348
obligations, mortgages, pledges, assignments, other security 15349
interests, or liens or encumbrances, and take such actions as the 15350
director of the office considers appropriate to protect such 15351
security and safeguard against losses, including, without 15352
limitation, foreclosure and the bidding upon and purchase of 15353
property upon foreclosure or other sale.15354

       (B) The authority granted by this section is cumulative and 15355
supplementary to all other authority granted in this chapter. The 15356
authority granted by this section does not alter or impair any 15357
similar authority granted elsewhere in this chapter with respect 15358
to other projects.15359

       Sec. 1555.05.  (A) Subject to any limitations as to aggregate 15360
amounts thereof that may from time to time be prescribed by the 15361
general assembly and to other applicable provisions of this 15362
chapter, and subject to the one-hundred-million-dollar limitation 15363
provided in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, the 15364
director of the Ohio coal development office, on behalf of this 15365
state, with the advice of the technical advisory committee created 15366
in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code and the approval of the 15367
director of development, may enter into contracts to guarantee the 15368
repayment or payment of the unpaid principal amount of loans made 15369
to pay the costs of coal research and development projects.15370

       (B) The contract of guarantee may make provision for the 15371
conditions of, time for, and manner of fulfillment of the 15372
guarantee commitment, subrogation of this state to the rights of 15373
the parties guaranteed and exercise of such parties' rights by the 15374
state, giving the state the option of making payment of the 15375
principal amount guaranteed in one or more installments and, if 15376
deferred, to pay interest thereon from the source specified in 15377
division (A) of this section, and any other terms or conditions 15378
customary to such guarantees and as the director of the office may 15379
approve, and may contain provisions for securing the guarantee in 15380
the manner consistent with this section, covenants on behalf of 15381
this state to issue obligations under section 1555.08 of the 15382
Revised Code to provide moneys to fulfill such guarantees and 15383
covenants, and covenants restricting the aggregate amount of 15384
guarantees that may be contracted under this section and 15385
obligations that may be issued under section 151.07 of the Revised 15386
Code, and terms pertinent to either, to better secure the parties 15387
guaranteed.15388

       (C) The director of the office may fix service charges for 15389
making a guarantee. Such charges shall be payable at such times 15390
and place and in such amounts and manner as may be prescribed by 15391
the director. Moneys received from such charges shall be credited 15392
to the coal research and development bond service fund.15393

       (D) Any guaranteed parties under this section, by any 15394
suitable form of legal proceedings and except to the extent that 15395
their rights are restricted by the guarantee documents, may 15396
protect and enforce any rights under the laws of this state or 15397
granted by such guarantee or guarantee documents. Such rights 15398
include the right to compel the performance of all duties of the 15399
office required by this section or the guarantee or guarantee 15400
documents; and in the event of default with respect to the payment 15401
of any guarantees, to apply to a court having jurisdiction of the 15402
cause to appoint a receiver to receive and administer the moneys 15403
pledged to such guarantee with full power to pay, and to provide 15404
for payment of, such guarantee, and with such powers, subject to 15405
the direction of the court, as are accorded receivers in general 15406
equity cases, excluding any power to pledge or apply additional 15407
revenues or receipts or other income or moneys of this state. Each 15408
duty of the office and its director and employees required or 15409
undertaken under this section or a guarantee made under this 15410
section is hereby established as a duty of the office and of its 15411
director and each such employee having authority to perform such 15412
duty, specifically enjoined by the law resulting from an office, 15413
trust, or station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the 15414
Revised Code. The persons who are at the time the director of the 15415
office, or its employees, are not liable in their personal 15416
capacities on any guarantees or contracts to make guarantees by 15417
the director.15418

       Sec. 1555.06.  Upon application by the director of the Ohio 15419
coal development office with the approval of the director of 15420
development, the controlling board, from appropriations available 15421
to the board, may provide funds for surveys or studies by the 15422
office of any proposed coal research and development project 15423
subject to repayment by the office from funds available to it, 15424
within the time fixed by the board. Funds to be repaid shall be 15425
charged by the office to the appropriate coal research and 15426
development project and the amount thereof shall be a cost of the 15427
project. This section does not abrogate the authority of the 15428
controlling board to otherwise provide funds for use by the office 15429
in the exercise of the powers granted to it by this chapter.15430

       Sec. 1707.08. (A) The transactions enumerated in section 15431
1707.06 of the Revised Code may be consummated on compliance with 15432
this section and section 1707.11 of the Revised Code.15433

       (B) A description, verified either by the oath of the 15434
individual filing it or of any individual having knowledge of the 15435
facts, shall be filed with the division of securities by the 15436
issuer, or by a majority of the incorporators of the issuer prior 15437
to election of officers if it is an incorporated issuer, or by a 15438
licensed dealer, which description shall be on forms prescribed by 15439
the division and shall set forth:15440

       (1) The name of the issuer;15441

       (2) A brief description of the securities;15442

       (3) The amount of the securities to be offered after the 15443
filing of the description for sale in this state and, if all the 15444
securities are not to be offered by the person filing the 15445
description, then the respective amounts to be offered by others, 15446
so far as those amounts are known, and the names and addresses of 15447
the other offerors;15448

       (4) A brief statement of the facts which show that the 15449
securities are the subject matter of a transaction enumerated in 15450
section 1707.06 of the Revised Code;15451

       (5) The price at which the securities are to be offered for 15452
sale.15453

       (C) The individual who executes the application for 15454
registration by description on behalf of the applicant shall state 15455
the individual's relationship to the applicant and certify all of 15456
the following:15457

        (1) The individual has executed the application on behalf of 15458
the applicant.15459

       (2) The individual is fully authorized to execute and file 15460
the application on behalf of the applicant.15461

        (3) The individual is familiar with the applicant's 15462
application.15463

       (4) To the best of the individual's knowledge, information, 15464
and belief, the statements made in the application are true, and 15465
the documents submitted with the application are true copies of 15466
the original documents.15467

        (D) A registration by description is effective seven business 15468
days after the division receives the description on applicable 15469
forms, together with aany filing fee of fifty dollarsrequired 15470
under this division, if no proceeding is pending under section 15471
1707.13 or 1707.131 of the Revised Code. However, the division may 15472
permit an earlier effective date by rule or by issuing a 15473
certificate of acknowledgment for the registration by description.15474

       For an offering that exceeds fifty thousand dollars, a filing 15475
fee of fifty dollars shall be submitted with the registration by 15476
description.15477

       (E) In order to correct errors or omissions, a registration 15478
by description may be amended by the person that originally filed 15479
it, by the filing, in the same manner as in the case of an 15480
original registration by description, of an amended registration 15481
by description or of an amendment of the original registration by 15482
description.15483

       (F) When transactions in any securities enumerated in section 15484
1707.06 of the Revised Code have been registered and the fees 15485
prescribed by this section have been paid, the transactions may be 15486
consummated so long as the registration remains in full force.15487

       Sec. 1707.391.  When any securities have been sold in 15488
reliance upon division (Q), (W), (X), or (Y) of section 1707.03 of 15489
the Revised Code, section 1707.08 of the Revised Code, or any 15490
other section of this chapter that the division of securities may 15491
specify by rule, but such reliance was improper because the 15492
required filings were not timely or properly made due to excusable 15493
neglect, upon the effective date of an application made to the 15494
division and payment of the requiredany applicable fee, if 15495
required and not already paid, plusand upon payment of a penalty 15496
fee equal to the greater of the required fee or one hundred 15497
dollars, the sale of the securities shall be deemed exempt, 15498
qualified, or registered, as though timely and properly filed. The 15499
application shall become effective upon the expiration of fourteen 15500
days after the date of the filing in question if prior thereto the 15501
division did not give notice to the applicant that the application 15502
was denied based on a finding of lack of excusable neglect. The 15503
division shall promptly adopt and promulgate rules establishing 15504
provisions defining excusable neglect and otherwise establishing 15505
reasonable standards for determining excusable neglect.15506

       The effectiveness of an application under this section does 15507
not relieve anyone who has, other than for excusable neglect, 15508
violated sections 1707.01 to 1707.45 of the Revised Code, or any 15509
previous law in force at the time of sale, from prosecution 15510
thereunder.15511

       Sec. 1724.03. (A) After the articles of incorporation have 15512
been filed, and at the first meeting of the board of directors of 15513
a county land reutilization corporation, the board shall adopt 15514
regulations for the government of the corporation, the conduct of 15515
its affairs, and the management of its property, consistent with 15516
law and the articles. The content of the regulations shall be 15517
governed by section 1702.11 of the Revised Code to the extent not 15518
inconsistent with this chapter. 15519

       (B) The board of directors of a county land reutilization 15520
corporation shall be composed of five, seven, or nine members, 15521
including the county treasurer, at least two of the members of the 15522
board of county commissioners, one representative of the largest 15523
municipal corporation, based on the population according to the 15524
most recent federal decennial census, that is located in the 15525
county, one representative of a township with a population of at 15526
least ten thousand in the unincorporated area of the township 15527
according to the most recent federal decennial census, if at least 15528
two such a township existstownships exist in the county, and any 15529
remaining members selected by the treasurer and the county 15530
commissioners who are members of the corporation's board. At least 15531
one board member shall have private sector or nonprofit experience 15532
in rehabilitation or real estate acquisitions. A county treasurer 15533
and the county commissioners each may appoint a representative, as 15534
a director of the corporation, to act for the officer at any of 15535
the meetings of the corporation. Except as may otherwise be 15536
authorized by the regulations of the corporation, all members of 15537
the board of directors shall serve without compensation, but shall 15538
be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses. 15539

       Sec. 1733.47. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 15540
credit unions is required under this chapter, or under an order or 15541
supervisory action issued or taken under this chapter, for a 15542
person to serve as an organizer, incorporator, director, or 15543
executive officer of a credit union, or to otherwise participate 15544
in the management of a credit union, the superintendent shall 15545
request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 15546
identification and investigation, or a vendor approved by the 15547
bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the person's 15548
fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) of section 15549
109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of credit unions 15550
shall request that criminal record information from the federal 15551
bureau of investigation be obtained as part of the criminal 15552
records check. Any fee required under division (C)(3) of section 15553
109.572 of the Revised Code shall be paid by the person who is the 15554
subject of the request.15555

       Sec. 1751.01.  As used in this chapter:15556

       (A)(1) "Basic health care services" means the following 15557
services when medically necessary:15558

       (a) Physician's services, except when such services are 15559
supplemental under division (B) of this section;15560

       (b) Inpatient hospital services;15561

       (c) Outpatient medical services;15562

       (d) Emergency health services;15563

       (e) Urgent care services;15564

       (f) Diagnostic laboratory services and diagnostic and 15565
therapeutic radiologic services;15566

       (g) Diagnostic and treatment services, other than 15567
prescription drug services, for biologically based mental 15568
illnesses;15569

       (h) Preventive health care services, including, but not 15570
limited to, voluntary family planning services, infertility 15571
services, periodic physical examinations, prenatal obstetrical 15572
care, and well-child care;15573

       (i) Routine patient care for patients enrolled in an eligible 15574
cancer clinical trial pursuant to section 3923.80 of the Revised 15575
Code.15576

       "Basic health care services" does not include experimental 15577
procedures.15578

        Except as provided by divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this 15579
section in connection with the offering of coverage for diagnostic 15580
and treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses, a 15581
health insuring corporation shall not offer coverage for a health 15582
care service, defined as a basic health care service by this 15583
division, unless it offers coverage for all listed basic health 15584
care services. However, this requirement does not apply to the 15585
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare pursuant to a 15586
medicare contract, or to the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in 15587
the federal employee health benefits program pursuant to 5 15588
U.S.C.A. 8905, or to the coverage of medicaid recipients, or to 15589
the coverage of beneficiaries under any federal health care 15590
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or to the coverage 15591
of beneficiaries under any contract covering officers or employees 15592
of the state that has been entered into by the department of 15593
administrative services.15594

       (2) A health insuring corporation may offer coverage for 15595
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 15596
illnesses without offering coverage for all other basic health 15597
care services. A health insuring corporation may offer coverage 15598
for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based 15599
mental illnesses alone or in combination with one or more 15600
supplemental health care services. However, a health insuring 15601
corporation that offers coverage for any other basic health care 15602
service shall offer coverage for diagnostic and treatment services 15603
for biologically based mental illnesses in combination with the 15604
offer of coverage for all other listed basic health care services.15605

       (3) A health insuring corporation that offers coverage for 15606
basic health care services is not required to offer coverage for 15607
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 15608
illnesses in combination with the offer of coverage for all other 15609
listed basic health care services if all of the following apply:15610

       (a) The health insuring corporation submits documentation 15611
certified by an independent member of the American academy of 15612
actuaries to the superintendent of insurance showing that incurred 15613
claims for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically 15614
based mental illnesses for a period of at least six months 15615
independently caused the health insuring corporation's costs for 15616
claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of basic 15617
health care services to increase by more than one per cent per 15618
year. 15619

       (b) The health insuring corporation submits a signed letter 15620
from an independent member of the American academy of actuaries to 15621
the superintendent of insurance opining that the increase in costs 15622
described in division (A)(3)(a) of this section could reasonably 15623
justify an increase of more than one per cent in the annual 15624
premiums or rates charged by the health insuring corporation for 15625
the coverage of basic health care services.15626

       (c) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 15627
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 15628
pursuant to divisions (A)(3)(a) and (b) of this section:15629

       (i) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 15630
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 15631
months independently caused the health insuring corporation's 15632
costs for claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of 15633
basic health care services to increase by more than one per cent 15634
per year.15635

       (ii) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase 15636
of more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged 15637
by the health insuring corporation for the coverage of basic 15638
health care services. 15639

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 15640
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.15641

       (B)(1) "Supplemental health care services" means any health 15642
care services other than basic health care services that a health 15643
insuring corporation may offer, alone or in combination with 15644
either basic health care services or other supplemental health 15645
care services, and includes:15646

       (a) Services of facilities for intermediate or long-term 15647
care, or both;15648

       (b) Dental care services;15649

       (c) Vision care and optometric services including lenses and 15650
frames;15651

       (d) Podiatric care or foot care services;15652

       (e) Mental health services, excluding diagnostic and 15653
treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses;15654

       (f) Short-term outpatient evaluative and crisis-intervention 15655
mental health services;15656

       (g) Medical or psychological treatment and referral services 15657
for alcohol and drug abuse or addiction;15658

       (h) Home health services;15659

       (i) Prescription drug services;15660

       (j) Nursing services;15661

       (k) Services of a dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of 15662
the Revised Code;15663

       (l) Physical therapy services;15664

       (m) Chiropractic services;15665

       (n) Any other category of services approved by the 15666
superintendent of insurance.15667

       (2) If a health insuring corporation offers prescription drug 15668
services under this division, the coverage shall include 15669
prescription drug services for the treatment of biologically based 15670
mental illnesses on the same terms and conditions as other 15671
physical diseases and disorders.15672

       (C) "Specialty health care services" means one of the 15673
supplemental health care services listed in division (B) of this 15674
section, when provided by a health insuring corporation on an 15675
outpatient-only basis and not in combination with other 15676
supplemental health care services.15677

       (D) "Biologically based mental illnesses" means 15678
schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, major depressive 15679
disorder, bipolar disorder, paranoia and other psychotic 15680
disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as 15681
these terms are defined in the most recent edition of the 15682
diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders published by 15683
the American psychiatric association.15684

       (E) "Closed panel plan" means a health care plan that 15685
requires enrollees to use participating providers.15686

       (F) "Compensation" means remuneration for the provision of 15687
health care services, determined on other than a fee-for-service 15688
or discounted-fee-for-service basis.15689

       (G) "Contractual periodic prepayment" means the formula for 15690
determining the premium rate for all subscribers of a health 15691
insuring corporation.15692

       (H) "Corporation" means a corporation formed under Chapter 15693
1701. or 1702. of the Revised Code or the similar laws of another 15694
state.15695

       (I) "Emergency health services" means those health care 15696
services that must be available on a seven-days-per-week, 15697
twenty-four-hours-per-day basis in order to prevent jeopardy to an 15698
enrollee's health status that would occur if such services were 15699
not received as soon as possible, and includes, where appropriate, 15700
provisions for transportation and indemnity payments or service 15701
agreements for out-of-area coverage.15702

       (J) "Enrollee" means any natural person who is entitled to 15703
receive health care benefits provided by a health insuring 15704
corporation.15705

       (K) "Evidence of coverage" means any certificate, agreement, 15706
policy, or contract issued to a subscriber that sets out the 15707
coverage and other rights to which such person is entitled under a 15708
health care plan.15709

       (L) "Health care facility" means any facility, except a 15710
health care practitioner's office, that provides preventive, 15711
diagnostic, therapeutic, acute convalescent, rehabilitation, 15712
mental health, mental retardation, intermediate care, or skilled 15713
nursing services.15714

       (M) "Health care services" means basic, supplemental, and 15715
specialty health care services.15716

       (N) "Health delivery network" means any group of providers or 15717
health care facilities, or both, or any representative thereof, 15718
that have entered into an agreement to offer health care services 15719
in a panel rather than on an individual basis.15720

       (O) "Health insuring corporation" means a corporation, as 15721
defined in division (H) of this section, that, pursuant to a 15722
policy, contract, certificate, or agreement, pays for, reimburses, 15723
or provides, delivers, arranges for, or otherwise makes available, 15724
basic health care services, supplemental health care services, or 15725
specialty health care services, or a combination of basic health 15726
care services and either supplemental health care services or 15727
specialty health care services, through either an open panel plan 15728
or a closed panel plan.15729

       "Health insuring corporation" does not include a limited 15730
liability company formed pursuant to Chapter 1705. of the Revised 15731
Code, an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code if 15732
that insurer offers only open panel plans under which all 15733
providers and health care facilities participating receive their 15734
compensation directly from the insurer, a corporation formed by or 15735
on behalf of a political subdivision or a department, office, or 15736
institution of the state, or a public entity formed by or on 15737
behalf of a board of county commissioners, a county board of 15738
developmental disabilities, an alcohol and drug addiction services 15739
board, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 15740
services, or a community mental health board, as those terms are 15741
used in Chapters 340. and 5126. of the Revised Code. Except as 15742
provided by division (D) of section 1751.02 of the Revised Code, 15743
or as otherwise provided by law, no board, commission, agency, or 15744
other entity under the control of a political subdivision may 15745
accept insurance risk in providing for health care services. 15746
However, nothing in this division shall be construed as 15747
prohibiting such entities from purchasing the services of a health 15748
insuring corporation or a third-party administrator licensed under 15749
Chapter 3959. of the Revised Code.15750

       (P) "Intermediary organization" means a health delivery 15751
network or other entity that contracts with licensed health 15752
insuring corporations or self-insured employers, or both, to 15753
provide health care services, and that enters into contractual 15754
arrangements with other entities for the provision of health care 15755
services for the purpose of fulfilling the terms of its contracts 15756
with the health insuring corporations and self-insured employers.15757

       (Q) "Intermediate care" means residential care above the 15758
level of room and board for patients who require personal 15759
assistance and health-related services, but who do not require 15760
skilled nursing care.15761

       (R) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 15762
the Revised Code.15763

       (S) "Medical record" means the personal information that 15764
relates to an individual's physical or mental condition, medical 15765
history, or medical treatment.15766

       (T) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 15767
XVIII of the "Social Security Act" 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 15768
1395, as amended.15769

       (U)(1) "Open panel plan" means a health care plan that 15770
provides incentives for enrollees to use participating providers 15771
and that also allows enrollees to use providers that are not 15772
participating providers.15773

       (2) No health insuring corporation may offer an open panel 15774
plan, unless the health insuring corporation is also licensed as 15775
an insurer under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, the health 15776
insuring corporation, on June 4, 1997, holds a certificate of 15777
authority or license to operate under Chapter 1736. or 1740. of 15778
the Revised Code, or an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the 15779
Revised Code is responsible for the out-of-network risk as 15780
evidenced by both an evidence of coverage filing under section 15781
1751.11 of the Revised Code and a policy and certificate filing 15782
under section 3923.02 of the Revised Code.15783

       (V) "Osteopathic hospital" means a hospital registered under 15784
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that advocates osteopathic 15785
principles and the practice and perpetuation of osteopathic 15786
medicine by doing any of the following:15787

       (1) Maintaining a department or service of osteopathic 15788
medicine or a committee on the utilization of osteopathic 15789
principles and methods, under the supervision of an osteopathic 15790
physician;15791

       (2) Maintaining an active medical staff, the majority of 15792
which is comprised of osteopathic physicians;15793

       (3) Maintaining a medical staff executive committee that has 15794
osteopathic physicians as a majority of its members.15795

       (W) "Panel" means a group of providers or health care 15796
facilities that have joined together to deliver health care 15797
services through a contractual arrangement with a health insuring 15798
corporation, employer group, or other payor.15799

       (W)(X) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of 15800
the Revised Code, and, unless the context otherwise requires, 15801
includes any insurance company holding a certificate of authority 15802
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, any subsidiary and 15803
affiliate of an insurance company, and any government agency.15804

       (X)(Y) "Premium rate" means any set fee regularly paid by a 15805
subscriber to a health insuring corporation. A "premium rate" does 15806
not include a one-time membership fee, an annual administrative 15807
fee, or a nominal access fee, paid to a managed health care system 15808
under which the recipient of health care services remains solely 15809
responsible for any charges accessed for those services by the 15810
provider or health care facility.15811

       (Y)(Z) "Primary care provider" means a provider that is 15812
designated by a health insuring corporation to supervise, 15813
coordinate, or provide initial care or continuing care to an 15814
enrollee, and that may be required by the health insuring 15815
corporation to initiate a referral for specialty care and to 15816
maintain supervision of the health care services rendered to the 15817
enrollee.15818

       (Z)(AA) "Provider" means any natural person or partnership of 15819
natural persons who are licensed, certified, accredited, or 15820
otherwise authorized in this state to furnish health care 15821
services, or any professional association organized under Chapter 15822
1785. of the Revised Code, provided that nothing in this chapter 15823
or other provisions of law shall be construed to preclude a health 15824
insuring corporation, health care practitioner, or organized 15825
health care group associated with a health insuring corporation 15826
from employing certified nurse practitioners, certified nurse 15827
anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse 15828
midwives, dietitians, physician assistants, dental assistants, 15829
dental hygienists, optometric technicians, or other allied health 15830
personnel who are licensed, certified, accredited, or otherwise 15831
authorized in this state to furnish health care services.15832

       (AA)(BB) "Provider sponsored organization" means a 15833
corporation, as defined in division (H) of this section, that is 15834
at least eighty per cent owned or controlled by one or more 15835
hospitals, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, or 15836
one or more physicians licensed to practice medicine or surgery or 15837
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 15838
Revised Code, or any combination of such physicians and hospitals. 15839
Such control is presumed to exist if at least eighty per cent of 15840
the voting rights or governance rights of a provider sponsored 15841
organization are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or 15842
otherwise held by any combination of the physicians and hospitals 15843
described in this division.15844

       (BB)(CC) "Solicitation document" means the written materials 15845
provided to prospective subscribers or enrollees, or both, and 15846
used for advertising and marketing to induce enrollment in the 15847
health care plans of a health insuring corporation.15848

       (CC)(DD) "Subscriber" means a person who is responsible for 15849
making payments to a health insuring corporation for participation 15850
in a health care plan, or an enrollee whose employment or other 15851
status is the basis of eligibility for enrollment in a health 15852
insuring corporation.15853

       (DD)(EE) "Urgent care services" means those health care 15854
services that are appropriately provided for an unforeseen 15855
condition of a kind that usually requires medical attention 15856
without delay but that does not pose a threat to the life, limb, 15857
or permanent health of the injured or ill person, and may include 15858
such health care services provided out of the health insuring 15859
corporation's approved service area pursuant to indemnity payments 15860
or service agreements.15861

       Sec. 1751.02.  (A) Notwithstanding any law in this state to 15862
the contrary, any corporation, as defined in section 1751.01 of 15863
the Revised Code, may apply to the superintendent of insurance for 15864
a certificate of authority to establish and operate a health 15865
insuring corporation. If the corporation applying for a 15866
certificate of authority is a foreign corporation domiciled in a 15867
state without laws similar to those of this chapter, the 15868
corporation must form a domestic corporation to apply for, obtain, 15869
and maintain a certificate of authority under this chapter.15870

       (B) No person shall establish, operate, or perform the 15871
services of a health insuring corporation in this state without 15872
obtaining a certificate of authority under this chapter.15873

       (C) Except as provided by division (D) of this section, no 15874
political subdivision or department, office, or institution of 15875
this state, or corporation formed by or on behalf of any political 15876
subdivision or department, office, or institution of this state, 15877
shall establish, operate, or perform the services of a health 15878
insuring corporation. Nothing in this section shall be construed 15879
to preclude a board of county commissioners, a county board of 15880
developmental disabilities, an alcohol and drug addiction services 15881
board, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 15882
services, or a community mental health board, or a public entity 15883
formed by or on behalf of any of these boards, from using managed 15884
care techniques in carrying out the board's or public entity's 15885
duties pursuant to the requirements of Chapters 307., 329., 340., 15886
and 5126. of the Revised Code. However, no such board or public 15887
entity may operate so as to compete in the private sector with 15888
health insuring corporations holding certificates of authority 15889
under this chapter.15890

       (D) A corporation formed by or on behalf of a publicly owned, 15891
operated, or funded hospital or health care facility may apply to 15892
the superintendent for a certificate of authority under division 15893
(A) of this section to establish and operate a health insuring 15894
corporation.15895

       (E) A health insuring corporation shall operate in this state 15896
in compliance with this chapter and Chapter 1753. of the Revised 15897
Code, and with sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code,15898
and shall operate in conformity with its filings with the 15899
superintendent under this chapter, including filings made pursuant 15900
to sections 1751.03, 1751.11, 1751.12, and 1751.31 of the Revised 15901
Code.15902

       (F) An insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code 15903
need not obtain a certificate of authority as a health insuring 15904
corporation to offer an open panel plan as long as the providers 15905
and health care facilities participating in the open panel plan 15906
receive their compensation directly from the insurer. If the 15907
providers and health care facilities participating in the open 15908
panel plan receive their compensation from any person other than 15909
the insurer, or if the insurer offers a closed panel plan, the 15910
insurer must obtain a certificate of authority as a health 15911
insuring corporation.15912

       (G) An intermediary organization need not obtain a 15913
certificate of authority as a health insuring corporation, 15914
regardless of the method of reimbursement to the intermediary 15915
organization, as long as a health insuring corporation or a 15916
self-insured employer maintains the ultimate responsibility to 15917
assure delivery of all health care services required by the 15918
contract between the health insuring corporation and the 15919
subscriber and the laws of this state or between the self-insured 15920
employer and its employees.15921

       Nothing in this section shall be construed to require any 15922
health care facility, provider, health delivery network, or 15923
intermediary organization that contracts with a health insuring 15924
corporation or self-insured employer, regardless of the method of 15925
reimbursement to the health care facility, provider, health 15926
delivery network, or intermediary organization, to obtain a 15927
certificate of authority as a health insuring corporation under 15928
this chapter, unless otherwise provided, in the case of contracts 15929
with a self-insured employer, by operation of the "Employee 15930
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 829, 29 U.S.C.A. 15931
1001, as amended.15932

       (H) Any health delivery network doing business in this state, 15933
including any health delivery network that is functioning as an 15934
intermediary organization doing business in this state, that is 15935
not required to obtain a certificate of authority under this 15936
chapter shall certify to the superintendent annually, not later 15937
than the first day of July, and shall provide a statement signed 15938
by the highest ranking official which includes the following 15939
information:15940

       (1) The health delivery network's full name and the address 15941
of its principal place of business;15942

       (2) A statement that the health delivery network is not 15943
required to obtain a certificate of authority under this chapter 15944
to conduct its business.15945

       (I) The superintendent shall not issue a certificate of 15946
authority to a health insuring corporation that is a provider 15947
sponsored organization unless all health care plans to be offered 15948
by the health insuring corporation provide basic health care 15949
services. Substantially all of the physicians and hospitals with 15950
ownership or control of the provider sponsored organization, as 15951
defined in section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, shall also be 15952
participating providers for the provision of basic health care 15953
services for health care plans offered by the provider sponsored 15954
organization. If a health insuring corporation that is a provider 15955
sponsored organization offers health care plans that do not 15956
provide basic health care services, the health insuring 15957
corporation shall be deemed, for purposes of section 1751.35 of 15958
the Revised Code, to have failed to substantially comply with this 15959
chapter.15960

       Except as specifically provided in this division and in 15961
division (A) of section 1751.28 of the Revised Code, the 15962
provisions of this chapter shall apply to all health insuring 15963
corporations that are provider sponsored organizations in the same 15964
manner that these provisions apply to all health insuring 15965
corporations that are not provider sponsored organizations.15966

       (J) Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to 15967
any multiple employer welfare arrangement operating pursuant to 15968
Chapter 1739. of the Revised Code.15969

       (K) Any person who violates division (B) of this section, and 15970
any health delivery network that fails to comply with division (H) 15971
of this section, is subject to the penalties set forth in section 15972
1751.45 of the Revised Code.15973

       Sec. 1751.13.  (A)(1)(a) A health insuring corporation shall, 15974
either directly or indirectly, enter into contracts for the 15975
provision of health care services with a sufficient number and 15976
types of providers and health care facilities to ensure that all 15977
covered health care services will be accessible to enrollees from 15978
a contracted provider or health care facility.15979

       (b) A health insuring corporation shall not refuse to 15980
contract with a physician for the provision of health care 15981
services or refuse to recognize a physician as a specialist on the 15982
basis that the physician attended an educational program or a 15983
residency program approved or certified by the American 15984
osteopathic association. A health insuring corporation shall not 15985
refuse to contract with a health care facility for the provision 15986
of health care services on the basis that the health care facility 15987
is certified or accredited by the American osteopathic association 15988
or that the health care facility is an osteopathic hospital as 15989
defined in section 3702.51 of the Revised Code.15990

       (c) Nothing in division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall be 15991
construed to require a health insuring corporation to make a 15992
benefit payment under a closed panel plan to a physician or health 15993
care facility with which the health insuring corporation does not 15994
have a contract, provided that none of the bases set forth in that 15995
division are used as a reason for failing to make a benefit 15996
payment.15997

       (2) When a health insuring corporation is unable to provide a 15998
covered health care service from a contracted provider or health 15999
care facility, the health insuring corporation must provide that 16000
health care service from a noncontracted provider or health care 16001
facility consistent with the terms of the enrollee's policy, 16002
contract, certificate, or agreement. The health insuring 16003
corporation shall either ensure that the health care service be 16004
provided at no greater cost to the enrollee than if the enrollee 16005
had obtained the health care service from a contracted provider or 16006
health care facility, or make other arrangements acceptable to the 16007
superintendent of insurance.16008

       (3) Nothing in this section shall prohibit a health insuring 16009
corporation from entering into contracts with out-of-state 16010
providers or health care facilities that are licensed, certified, 16011
accredited, or otherwise authorized in that state.16012

       (B)(1) A health insuring corporation shall, either directly 16013
or indirectly, enter into contracts with all providers and health 16014
care facilities through which health care services are provided to 16015
its enrollees.16016

       (2) A health insuring corporation, upon written request, 16017
shall assist its contracted providers in finding stop-loss or 16018
reinsurance carriers.16019

       (C) A health insuring corporation shall file an annual 16020
certificate with the superintendent certifying that all provider 16021
contracts and contracts with health care facilities through which 16022
health care services are being provided contain the following:16023

       (1) A description of the method by which the provider or 16024
health care facility will be notified of the specific health care 16025
services for which the provider or health care facility will be 16026
responsible, including any limitations or conditions on such 16027
services;16028

       (2) The specific hold harmless provision specifying 16029
protection of enrollees set forth as follows:16030

       "[Provider/Health Care Facility] agrees that in no event, 16031
including but not limited to nonpayment by the health insuring 16032
corporation, insolvency of the health insuring corporation, or 16033
breach of this agreement, shall [Provider/Health Care Facility] 16034
bill, charge, collect a deposit from, seek remuneration or 16035
reimbursement from, or have any recourse against, a subscriber, 16036
enrollee, person to whom health care services have been provided, 16037
or person acting on behalf of the covered enrollee, for health 16038
care services provided pursuant to this agreement. This does not 16039
prohibit [Provider/Health Care Facility] from collecting 16040
co-insurance, deductibles, or copayments as specifically provided 16041
in the evidence of coverage, or fees for uncovered health care 16042
services delivered on a fee-for-service basis to persons 16043
referenced above, nor from any recourse against the health 16044
insuring corporation or its successor."16045

       (3) Provisions requiring the provider or health care facility 16046
to continue to provide covered health care services to enrollees 16047
in the event of the health insuring corporation's insolvency or 16048
discontinuance of operations. The provisions shall require the 16049
provider or health care facility to continue to provide covered 16050
health care services to enrollees as needed to complete any 16051
medically necessary procedures commenced but unfinished at the 16052
time of the health insuring corporation's insolvency or 16053
discontinuance of operations. The completion of a medically 16054
necessary procedure shall include the rendering of all covered 16055
health care services that constitute medically necessary follow-up 16056
care for that procedure. If an enrollee is receiving necessary 16057
inpatient care at a hospital, the provisions may limit the 16058
required provision of covered health care services relating to 16059
that inpatient care in accordance with division (D)(3) of section 16060
1751.11 of the Revised Code, and may also limit such required 16061
provision of covered health care services to the period ending 16062
thirty days after the health insuring corporation's insolvency or 16063
discontinuance of operations.16064

       The provisions required by division (C)(3) of this section 16065
shall not require any provider or health care facility to continue 16066
to provide any covered health care service after the occurrence of 16067
any of the following:16068

       (a) The end of the thirty-day period following the entry of a 16069
liquidation order under Chapter 3903. of the Revised Code;16070

       (b) The end of the enrollee's period of coverage for a 16071
contractual prepayment or premium;16072

       (c) The enrollee obtains equivalent coverage with another 16073
health insuring corporation or insurer, or the enrollee's employer 16074
obtains such coverage for the enrollee;16075

       (d) The enrollee or the enrollee's employer terminates 16076
coverage under the contract;16077

       (e) A liquidator effects a transfer of the health insuring 16078
corporation's obligations under the contract under division (A)(8) 16079
of section 3903.21 of the Revised Code.16080

       (4) A provision clearly stating the rights and 16081
responsibilities of the health insuring corporation, and of the 16082
contracted providers and health care facilities, with respect to 16083
administrative policies and programs, including, but not limited 16084
to, payments systems, utilization review, quality assurance, 16085
assessment, and improvement programs, credentialing, 16086
confidentiality requirements, and any applicable federal or state 16087
programs;16088

       (5) A provision regarding the availability and 16089
confidentiality of those health records maintained by providers 16090
and health care facilities to monitor and evaluate the quality of 16091
care, to conduct evaluations and audits, and to determine on a 16092
concurrent or retrospective basis the necessity of and 16093
appropriateness of health care services provided to enrollees. The 16094
provision shall include terms requiring the provider or health 16095
care facility to make these health records available to 16096
appropriate state and federal authorities involved in assessing 16097
the quality of care or in investigating the grievances or 16098
complaints of enrollees, and requiring the provider or health care 16099
facility to comply with applicable state and federal laws related 16100
to the confidentiality of medical or health records.16101

       (6) A provision that states that contractual rights and 16102
responsibilities may not be assigned or delegated by the provider 16103
or health care facility without the prior written consent of the 16104
health insuring corporation;16105

       (7) A provision requiring the provider or health care 16106
facility to maintain adequate professional liability and 16107
malpractice insurance. The provision shall also require the 16108
provider or health care facility to notify the health insuring 16109
corporation not more than ten days after the provider's or health 16110
care facility's receipt of notice of any reduction or cancellation 16111
of such coverage.16112

       (8) A provision requiring the provider or health care 16113
facility to observe, protect, and promote the rights of enrollees 16114
as patients;16115

       (9) A provision requiring the provider or health care 16116
facility to provide health care services without discrimination on 16117
the basis of a patient's participation in the health care plan, 16118
age, sex, ethnicity, religion, sexual preference, health status, 16119
or disability, and without regard to the source of payments made 16120
for health care services rendered to a patient. This requirement 16121
shall not apply to circumstances when the provider or health care 16122
facility appropriately does not render services due to limitations 16123
arising from the provider's or health care facility's lack of 16124
training, experience, or skill, or due to licensing restrictions.16125

       (10) A provision containing the specifics of any obligation 16126
on the primary care provider to provide, or to arrange for the 16127
provision of, covered health care services twenty-four hours per 16128
day, seven days per week;16129

       (11) A provision setting forth procedures for the resolution 16130
of disputes arising out of the contract;16131

       (12) A provision stating that the hold harmless provision 16132
required by division (C)(2) of this section shall survive the 16133
termination of the contract with respect to services covered and 16134
provided under the contract during the time the contract was in 16135
effect, regardless of the reason for the termination, including 16136
the insolvency of the health insuring corporation;16137

       (13) A provision requiring those terms that are used in the 16138
contract and that are defined by this chapter, be used in the 16139
contract in a manner consistent with those definitions.16140

       This division does not apply to the coverage of beneficiaries 16141
enrolled in medicare pursuant to a medicare risk contract or 16142
medicare cost contract, or to the coverage of beneficiaries 16143
enrolled in the federal employee health benefits program pursuant 16144
to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or to the coverage of medicaid recipients, or 16145
to the coverage of beneficiaries under any federal health care 16146
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or to the coverage 16147
of beneficiaries under any contract covering officers or employees 16148
of the state that has been entered into by the department of 16149
administrative services.16150

       (D)(1) No health insuring corporation contract with a 16151
provider or health care facility shall contain any of the 16152
following:16153

       (a) A provision that directly or indirectly offers an 16154
inducement to the provider or health care facility to reduce or 16155
limit medically necessary health care services to a covered 16156
enrollee;16157

       (b) A provision that penalizes a provider or health care 16158
facility that assists an enrollee to seek a reconsideration of the 16159
health insuring corporation's decision to deny or limit benefits 16160
to the enrollee;16161

       (c) A provision that limits or otherwise restricts the 16162
provider's or health care facility's ethical and legal 16163
responsibility to fully advise enrollees about their medical 16164
condition and about medically appropriate treatment options;16165

       (d) A provision that penalizes a provider or health care 16166
facility for principally advocating for medically necessary health 16167
care services;16168

       (e) A provision that penalizes a provider or health care 16169
facility for providing information or testimony to a legislative 16170
or regulatory body or agency. This shall not be construed to 16171
prohibit a health insuring corporation from penalizing a provider 16172
or health care facility that provides information or testimony 16173
that is libelous or slanderous or that discloses trade secrets 16174
which the provider or health care facility has no privilege or 16175
permission to disclose.16176

       (f) A provision that violates Chapter 3963. of the Revised 16177
Code.16178

       (2) Nothing in this division shall be construed to prohibit a 16179
health insuring corporation from doing either of the following:16180

       (a) Making a determination not to reimburse or pay for a 16181
particular medical treatment or other health care service;16182

       (b) Enforcing reasonable peer review or utilization review 16183
protocols, or determining whether a particular provider or health 16184
care facility has complied with these protocols.16185

       (E) Any contract between a health insuring corporation and an 16186
intermediary organization shall clearly specify that the health 16187
insuring corporation must approve or disapprove the participation 16188
of any provider or health care facility with which the 16189
intermediary organization contracts.16190

       (F) If an intermediary organization that is not a health 16191
delivery network contracting solely with self-insured employers 16192
subcontracts with a provider or health care facility, the 16193
subcontract with the provider or health care facility shall do all 16194
of the following:16195

       (1) Contain the provisions required by divisions (C) and (G) 16196
of this section, as made applicable to an intermediary 16197
organization, without the inclusion of inducements or penalties 16198
described in division (D) of this section;16199

       (2) Acknowledge that the health insuring corporation is a 16200
third-party beneficiary to the agreement;16201

       (3) Acknowledge the health insuring corporation's role in 16202
approving the participation of the provider or health care 16203
facility, pursuant to division (E) of this section.16204

       (G) Any provider contract or contract with a health care 16205
facility shall clearly specify the health insuring corporation's 16206
statutory responsibility to monitor and oversee the offering of 16207
covered health care services to its enrollees.16208

       (H)(1) A health insuring corporation shall maintain its 16209
provider contracts and its contracts with health care facilities 16210
at one or more of its places of business in this state, and shall 16211
provide copies of these contracts to facilitate regulatory review 16212
upon written notice by the superintendent of insurance.16213

       (2) Any contract with an intermediary organization that 16214
accepts compensation shall include provisions requiring the 16215
intermediary organization to provide the superintendent with 16216
regulatory access to all books, records, financial information, 16217
and documents related to the provision of health care services to 16218
subscribers and enrollees under the contract. The contract shall 16219
require the intermediary organization to maintain such books, 16220
records, financial information, and documents at its principal 16221
place of business in this state and to preserve them for at least 16222
three years in a manner that facilitates regulatory review.16223

       (I)(1) A health insuring corporation shall notify its 16224
affected enrollees of the termination of a contract for the 16225
provision of health care services between the health insuring 16226
corporation and a primary care physician or hospital, by mail, 16227
within thirty days after the termination of the contract.16228

       (a) Notice shall be given to subscribers of the termination 16229
of a contract with a primary care physician if the subscriber, or 16230
a dependent covered under the subscriber's health care coverage, 16231
has received health care services from the primary care physician 16232
within the previous twelve months or if the subscriber or 16233
dependent has selected the physician as the subscriber's or 16234
dependent's primary care physician within the previous twelve 16235
months.16236

       (b) Notice shall be given to subscribers of the termination 16237
of a contract with a hospital if the subscriber, or a dependent 16238
covered under the subscriber's health care coverage, has received 16239
health care services from that hospital within the previous twelve 16240
months.16241

       (2) The health insuring corporation shall pay, in accordance 16242
with the terms of the contract, for all covered health care 16243
services rendered to an enrollee by a primary care physician or 16244
hospital between the date of the termination of the contract and 16245
five days after the notification of the contract termination is 16246
mailed to a subscriber at the subscriber's last known address.16247

       (J) Divisions (A) and (B) of this section do not apply to any 16248
health insuring corporation that, on June 4, 1997, holds a 16249
certificate of authority or license to operate under Chapter 1740. 16250
of the Revised Code.16251

       (K) Nothing in this section shall restrict the governing body 16252
of a hospital from exercising the authority granted it pursuant to 16253
section 3701.351 of the Revised Code.16254

       Sec. 1761.26. Whenever the approval of the superintendent of 16255
credit unions is required under this chapter, or under an order or 16256
supervisory action issued or taken under this chapter, for a 16257
person to serve as an organizer, incorporator, director, or 16258
executive officer of a credit union share guaranty corporation, or 16259
to otherwise participate in the management of such a corporation, 16260
the superintendent shall request the superintendent of the bureau 16261
of criminal identification and investigation, or a vendor approved 16262
by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check based on the 16263
person's fingerprints in accordance with division (A)(14) of16264
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of credit 16265
unions shall request that criminal record information from the 16266
federal bureau of investigation be obtained as part of the 16267
criminal records check. Any fee required under division (C)(3) of 16268
section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be paid by the person 16269
who is the subject of the request.16270

       Sec. 1901.06.  A municipal judge during the judge's term of 16271
office shall be a qualified elector and a resident of the 16272
territory of the court to which the judge is elected or appointed. 16273
A municipal judge shall have been admitted to the practice of law 16274
in this state and shall have been, for a total of at least six 16275
years preceding appointment or the commencement of the judge's 16276
term, engaged in the practice of law in this state or served as a 16277
judge of a court of record in any jurisdiction in the United 16278
States, or both. At least two of the years of practice or service 16279
that qualify a judge shall have been in this state.16280

       Except as provided in section 1901.08 of the Revised Code, 16281
the first election of any newly created office of a municipal 16282
judge shall be held at the next regular municipal election 16283
occurring not less than one hundred days after the creation of the 16284
office. Except as otherwise provided in division (G) of section 16285
1901.01 of the Revised Code, the institution of a new municipal 16286
court shall take place on the first day of January next after the 16287
first election for the court.16288

       Sec. 1901.18.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 16289
division or section 1901.181 of the Revised Code, subject to the 16290
monetary jurisdiction of municipal courts as set forth in section 16291
1901.17 of the Revised Code, a municipal court has original 16292
jurisdiction within its territory in all of the following actions 16293
or proceedings and to perform all of the following functions:16294

       (1) In any civil action, of whatever nature or remedy, of 16295
which judges of county courts have jurisdiction;16296

       (2) In any action or proceeding at law for the recovery of 16297
money or personal property of which the court of common pleas has 16298
jurisdiction;16299

       (3) In any action at law based on contract, to determine, 16300
preserve, and enforce all legal and equitable rights involved in 16301
the contract, to decree an accounting, reformation, or 16302
cancellation of the contract, and to hear and determine all legal 16303
and equitable remedies necessary or proper for a complete 16304
determination of the rights of the parties to the contract;16305

       (4) In any action or proceeding for the sale of personal 16306
property under chattel mortgage, lien, encumbrance, or other 16307
charge, for the foreclosure and marshalling of liens on personal 16308
property of that nature, and for the rendering of personal 16309
judgment in the action or proceeding;16310

       (5) In any action or proceeding to enforce the collection of 16311
its own judgments or the judgments rendered by any court within 16312
the territory to which the municipal court has succeeded, and to 16313
subject the interest of a judgment debtor in personal property to 16314
satisfy judgments enforceable by the municipal court;16315

       (6) In any action or proceeding in the nature of 16316
interpleader;16317

       (7) In any action of replevin;16318

       (8) In any action of forcible entry and detainer;16319

       (9) In any action concerning the issuance and enforcement of 16320
temporary protection orders pursuant to section 2919.26 of the 16321
Revised Code or protection orders pursuant to section 2903.213 of 16322
the Revised Code or the enforcement of protection orders issued by 16323
courts of another state, as defined in section 2919.27 of the 16324
Revised Code;16325

       (10) If the municipal court has a housing or environmental 16326
division, in any action over which the division is given 16327
jurisdiction by section 1901.181 of the Revised Code, provided 16328
that, except as specified in division (B) of that section, no 16329
judge of the court other than the judge of the division shall hear 16330
or determine any action over which the division has jurisdiction;16331

       (11) In any action brought pursuant to division (I) of 16332
section 3733.114781.40 of the Revised Code, if the residential 16333
premises that are the subject of the action are located within the 16334
territorial jurisdiction of the court;16335

       (12) In any civil action as described in division (B)(1) of 16336
section 3767.41 of the Revised Code that relates to a public 16337
nuisance, and, to the extent any provision of this chapter 16338
conflicts or is inconsistent with a provision of that section, the 16339
provision of that section shall control in the civil action;16340

       (13) In a proceeding brought pursuant to section 955.222 of 16341
the Revised Code by the owner of a dog that has been designated as 16342
a nuisance dog, dangerous dog, or vicious dog.16343

       (B) The Cleveland municipal court also shall have 16344
jurisdiction within its territory in all of the following actions 16345
or proceedings and to perform all of the following functions:16346

       (1) In all actions and proceedings for the sale of real 16347
property under lien of a judgment of the municipal court or a lien 16348
for machinery, material, or fuel furnished or labor performed, 16349
irrespective of amount, and, in those actions and proceedings, the 16350
court may proceed to foreclose and marshal all liens and all 16351
vested or contingent rights, to appoint a receiver, and to render 16352
personal judgment irrespective of amount in favor of any party.16353

       (2) In all actions for the foreclosure of a mortgage on real 16354
property given to secure the payment of money or the enforcement 16355
of a specific lien for money or other encumbrance or charge on 16356
real property, when the amount claimed by the plaintiff does not 16357
exceed fifteen thousand dollars and the real property is situated 16358
within the territory, and, in those actions, the court may proceed 16359
to foreclose all liens and all vested and contingent rights and 16360
may proceed to render judgments and make findings and orders 16361
between the parties in the same manner and to the same extent as 16362
in similar actions in the court of common pleas.16363

       (3) In all actions for the recovery of real property situated 16364
within the territory to the same extent as courts of common pleas 16365
have jurisdiction;16366

       (4) In all actions for injunction to prevent or terminate 16367
violations of the ordinances and regulations of the city of 16368
Cleveland enacted or promulgated under the police power of the 16369
city of Cleveland, pursuant to Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio 16370
Constitution, over which the court of common pleas has or may have 16371
jurisdiction, and, in those actions, the court may proceed to 16372
render judgments and make findings and orders in the same manner 16373
and to the same extent as in similar actions in the court of 16374
common pleas.16375

       Sec. 1907.13.  A county court judge, at the time of filing a 16376
nominating petition for the office or at the time of appointment 16377
to the office and during the judge's term of office, shall be a 16378
qualified elector and a resident of the county court district in 16379
which the judge is elected or appointed. A county court judge does 16380
not have to be a resident of an area of separate jurisdiction in 16381
the county court district to which the judge may be assigned 16382
pursuant to section 1907.15 of the Revised Code. Every county 16383
court judge shall have been admitted to the practice of law in 16384
this state and shall have been engaged, for a total of at least 16385
six years preceding the judge's appointment or the commencement of 16386
the judge's term, in the practice of law in any jurisdiction in 16387
the United Statesthis state, except that the six-year practice 16388
requirement does not apply to a county court judge who is holding 16389
office on July 2, 2010the effective date of the amendment of 16390
this section by H.B. 487 of the 129th general assembly, and who 16391
subsequently is a candidate for that office. At least two of the 16392
years of practice that qualify a judge shall have been in this 16393
state.16394

       Judges shall be elected by the electors of the county court 16395
district at the general election in even-numbered years as set 16396
forth in section 1907.11 of the Revised Code for a term of six 16397
years commencing on the first day of January following the 16398
election for the county court or on the dates specified in section 16399
1907.11 of the Revised Code for particular county court judges. 16400
Their successors shall be elected in even-numbered years every six 16401
years.16402

       All candidates for county court judge shall be nominated by 16403
petition. The nominating petition shall be in the general form and 16404
signed and verified as prescribed by section 3513.261 of the 16405
Revised Code and shall be signed by the lesser of fifty qualified 16406
electors of the county court district or a number of qualified 16407
electors of the county court district not less than one per cent 16408
of the number of electors who voted for governor at the most 16409
recent regular state election in the district. A nominating 16410
petition shall not be accepted for filing or filed if it appears 16411
on its face to contain signatures aggregating in number more than 16412
twice the minimum aggregate number of signatures required by this 16413
section. A nominating petition shall be filed with the board of 16414
elections not later than four p.m. of the ninetieth day before the 16415
day of the general election.16416

       Sec. 1909.11.  A county court judge has jurisdiction in any 16417
action brought pursuant to division (I) of section 3733.114781.4016418
of the Revised Code if the residential premises that are the 16419
subject of the action are located within the territorial 16420
jurisdiction of the judge's county court district.16421

       Sec. 1923.01.  (A) As provided in this chapter, any judge of 16422
a county or municipal court or a court of common pleas, within the 16423
judge's proper area of jurisdiction, may inquire about persons who 16424
make unlawful and forcible entry into lands or tenements and 16425
detain them, and about persons who make a lawful and peaceable 16426
entry into lands or tenements and hold them unlawfully and by 16427
force. If, upon the inquiry, it is found that an unlawful and 16428
forcible entry has been made and the lands or tenements are 16429
detained, or that, after a lawful entry, lands or tenements are 16430
held unlawfully and by force, a judge shall cause the plaintiff in 16431
an action under this chapter to have restitution of the lands or 16432
tenements.16433

       (B) An action shall be brought under this chapter within two 16434
years after the cause of action accrues.16435

       (C) As used in this chapter:16436

       (1) "Tenant" means a person who is entitled under a rental 16437
agreement to the use or occupancy of premises, other than premises 16438
located in a manufactured home park, to the exclusion of others, 16439
except that as used in division (A)(6) of section 1923.02 and 16440
section 1923.051 of the Revised Code, "tenant" includes a 16441
manufactured home park resident.16442

       (2) "Landlord" means the owner, lessor, or sublessor of 16443
premises, or the agent or person the landlord authorizes to manage 16444
premises or to receive rent from a tenant under a rental 16445
agreement, except, if required by the facts of the action to which 16446
the term is applied, "landlord" means a park operator.16447

       (3) "Resident" has the same meaning as in section 3733.0116448
4781.01 of the Revised Code.16449

       (4) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 16450
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except, if required by the facts of 16451
the action to which the term is applied, "residential premises" 16452
has the same meaning as in section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised 16453
Code.16454

       (5) "Rental agreement" means any agreement or lease, written 16455
or oral, that establishes or modifies the terms, conditions, 16456
rules, or other provisions concerning the use or occupancy of 16457
premises by one of the parties to the agreement or lease, except 16458
that "rental agreement," as used in division (A)(13) of section 16459
1923.02 of the Revised Code and where the context requires as used 16460
in this chapter, means a rental agreement as defined in division 16461
(D) of section 5322.01 of the Revised Code.16462

       (6) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 16463
3719.01 of the Revised Code.16464

       (7) "School premises" has the same meaning as in section 16465
2925.01 of the Revised Code.16466

       (8) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 16467
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 16468
Revised Code.16469

       (9) "Recreational vehicle" and "mobile home" have the same 16470
meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.16471

       (10) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in section 16472
3781.06 of the Revised Code.16473

       (11) "Manufactured home park" has the same meaning as in 16474
section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code and also means any 16475
tract of land upon which one or two manufactured or mobile homes 16476
used for habitation are parked, either free of charge or for 16477
revenue purposes, pursuant to rental agreements between the owners 16478
of the manufactured or mobile homes and the owner of the tract of 16479
land.16480

       (12) "Park operator" has the same meaning as in section 16481
3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code and also means a landlord of 16482
premises upon which one or two manufactured or mobile homes used 16483
for habitation are parked, either free of charge or for revenue 16484
purposes, pursuant to rental agreements between the owners of the 16485
manufactured or mobile homes and a landlord who is not licensed as 16486
a manufactured home park operator pursuant to Chapter 3733.4781.16487
of the Revised Code.16488

        (13) "Personal property" means tangible personal property 16489
other than a manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 16490
vehicle that is the subject of an action under this chapter.16491

       (14) "Preschool or child day-care center premises" has the 16492
same meaning as in section 2950.034 of the Revised Code.16493

       Sec. 1923.02.  (A) Proceedings under this chapter may be had 16494
as follows:16495

       (1) Against tenants or manufactured home park residents 16496
holding over their terms;16497

       (2) Against tenants or manufactured home park residents in 16498
possession under an oral tenancy, who are in default in the 16499
payment of rent as provided in division (B) of this section;16500

       (3) In sales of real estate, on executions, orders, or other 16501
judicial process, when the judgment debtor was in possession at 16502
the time of the rendition of the judgment or decree, by virtue of 16503
which the sale was made;16504

       (4) In sales by executors, administrators, or guardians, and 16505
on partition, when any of the parties to the complaint were in 16506
possession at the commencement of the action, after the sales, so 16507
made on execution or otherwise, have been examined by the proper 16508
court and adjudged legal;16509

       (5) When the defendant is an occupier of lands or tenements, 16510
without color of title, and the complainant has the right of 16511
possession to them;16512

       (6) In any other case of the unlawful and forcible detention 16513
of lands or tenements. For purposes of this division, in addition 16514
to any other type of unlawful and forcible detention of lands or 16515
tenements, such a detention may be determined to exist when both 16516
of the following apply:16517

       (a) A tenant fails to vacate residential premises within 16518
three days after both of the following occur:16519

       (i) The tenant's landlord has actual knowledge of or has 16520
reasonable cause to believe that the tenant, any person in the 16521
tenant's household, or any person on the premises with the consent 16522
of the tenant previously has or presently is engaged in a 16523
violation of Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code, or of a 16524
municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to any section 16525
in either of those chapters, which involves a controlled substance 16526
and which occurred in, is occurring in, or otherwise was or is 16527
connected with the premises, whether or not the tenant or other 16528
person has been charged with, has pleaded guilty to or been 16529
convicted of, or has been determined to be a delinquent child for 16530
an act that, if committed by an adult, would be a violation as 16531
described in this division. For purposes of this division, a 16532
landlord has "actual knowledge of or has reasonable cause to 16533
believe" that a tenant, any person in the tenant's household, or 16534
any person on the premises with the consent of the tenant 16535
previously has or presently is engaged in a violation as described 16536
in this division if a search warrant was issued pursuant to 16537
Criminal Rule 41 or Chapter 2933. of the Revised Code; the 16538
affidavit presented to obtain the warrant named or described the 16539
tenant or person as the individual to be searched and particularly 16540
described the tenant's premises as the place to be searched, named 16541
or described one or more controlled substances to be searched for 16542
and seized, stated substantially the offense under Chapter 2925. 16543
or 3719. of the Revised Code or the substantially similar 16544
municipal ordinance that occurred in, is occurring in, or 16545
otherwise was or is connected with the tenant's premises, and 16546
states the factual basis for the affiant's belief that the 16547
controlled substances are located on the tenant's premises; the 16548
warrant was properly executed by a law enforcement officer and any 16549
controlled substance described in the affidavit was found by that 16550
officer during the search and seizure; and, subsequent to the 16551
search and seizure, the landlord was informed by that or another 16552
law enforcement officer of the fact that the tenant or person has 16553
or presently is engaged in a violation as described in this 16554
division and it occurred in, is occurring in, or otherwise was or 16555
is connected with the tenant's premises.16556

       (ii) The landlord gives the tenant the notice required by 16557
division (C) of section 5321.17 of the Revised Code.16558

       (b) The court determines, by a preponderance of the evidence, 16559
that the tenant, any person in the tenant's household, or any 16560
person on the premises with the consent of the tenant previously 16561
has or presently is engaged in a violation as described in 16562
division (A)(6)(a)(i) of this section.16563

       (7) In cases arising out of Chapter 5313. of the Revised 16564
Code. In those cases, the court has the authority to declare a 16565
forfeiture of the vendee's rights under a land installment 16566
contract and to grant any other claims arising out of the 16567
contract.16568

       (8) Against tenants who have breached an obligation that is 16569
imposed by section 5321.05 of the Revised Code, other than the 16570
obligation specified in division (A)(9) of that section, and that 16571
materially affects health and safety. Prior to the commencement of 16572
an action under this division, notice shall be given to the tenant 16573
and compliance secured with section 5321.11 of the Revised Code.16574

       (9) Against tenants who have breached an obligation imposed 16575
upon them by a written rental agreement;16576

       (10) Against manufactured home park residents who have 16577
defaulted in the payment of rent or breached the terms of a rental 16578
agreement with a park operator. Nothing in this division precludes 16579
the commencement of an action under division (A)(12) of this 16580
section when the additional circumstances described in that 16581
division apply.16582

       (11) Against manufactured home park residents who have 16583
committed two material violations of the rules of the manufactured 16584
home park, of the public health councilmanufactured homes 16585
commission, or of applicable state and local health and safety 16586
codes and who have been notified of the violations in compliance 16587
with section 3733.134781.45 of the Revised Code;16588

       (12) Against a manufactured home park resident, or the estate 16589
of a manufactured home park resident, who as a result of death or 16590
otherwise has been absent from the manufactured home park for a 16591
period of thirty consecutive days prior to the commencement of an 16592
action under this division and whose manufactured home or mobile 16593
home, or recreational vehicle that is parked in the manufactured 16594
home park, has been left unoccupied for that thirty-day period, 16595
without notice to the park operator and without payment of rent 16596
due under the rental agreement with the park operator;16597

       (13) Against occupants of self-service storage facilities, as 16598
defined in division (A) of section 5322.01 of the Revised Code, 16599
who have breached the terms of a rental agreement or violated 16600
section 5322.04 of the Revised Code;16601

       (14) Against any resident or occupant who, pursuant to a 16602
rental agreement, resides in or occupies residential premises 16603
located within one thousand feet of any school premises or 16604
preschool or child day-care center premises and to whom both of 16605
the following apply:16606

       (a) The resident's or occupant's name appears on the state 16607
registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders maintained 16608
under section 2950.13 of the Revised Code.16609

       (b) The state registry of sex offenders and child-victim 16610
offenders indicates that the resident or occupant was convicted of 16611
or pleaded guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim 16612
oriented offense in a criminal prosecution and was not sentenced 16613
to a serious youthful offender dispositional sentence for that 16614
offense.16615

       (15) Against any tenant who permits any person to occupy 16616
residential premises located within one thousand feet of any 16617
school premises or preschool or child day-care center premises if 16618
both of the following apply to the person:16619

        (a) The person's name appears on the state registry of sex 16620
offenders and child-victim offenders maintained under section 16621
2950.13 of the Revised Code.16622

        (b) The state registry of sex offenders and child-victim 16623
offenders indicates that the person was convicted of or pleaded 16624
guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a child-victim oriented 16625
offense in a criminal prosecution and was not sentenced to a 16626
serious youthful offender dispositional sentence for that offense.16627

       (B) If a tenant or manufactured home park resident holding 16628
under an oral tenancy is in default in the payment of rent, the 16629
tenant or resident forfeits the right of occupancy, and the 16630
landlord may, at the landlord's option, terminate the tenancy by 16631
notifying the tenant or resident, as provided in section 1923.04 16632
of the Revised Code, to leave the premises, for the restitution of 16633
which an action may then be brought under this chapter.16634

       (C)(1) If a tenant or any other person with the tenant's 16635
permission resides in or occupies residential premises that are 16636
located within one thousand feet of any school premises and is a 16637
resident or occupant of the type described in division (A)(14) of 16638
this section or a person of the type described in division (A)(15) 16639
of this section, the landlord for those residential premises, upon 16640
discovery that the tenant or other person is a resident, occupant, 16641
or person of that nature, may terminate the rental agreement or 16642
tenancy for those residential premises by notifying the tenant and 16643
all other occupants, as provided in section 1923.04 of the Revised 16644
Code, to leave the premises.16645

       (2) If a landlord is authorized to terminate a rental 16646
agreement or tenancy pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section 16647
but does not so terminate the rental agreement or tenancy, the 16648
landlord is not liable in a tort or other civil action in damages 16649
for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that 16650
allegedly result from that decision.16651

       (D) This chapter does not apply to a student tenant as 16652
defined by division (H) of section 5321.01 of the Revised Code 16653
when the college or university proceeds to terminate a rental 16654
agreement pursuant to section 5321.031 of the Revised Code.16655

       Sec. 1923.061.  (A) Any defense in an action under this 16656
chapter may be asserted at trial.16657

       (B) In an action for possession of residential premises based 16658
upon nonpayment of the rent or in an action for rent when the 16659
tenant or manufactured home park resident is in possession, the 16660
tenant or resident may counterclaim for any amount hethe tenant 16661
or resident may recover under the rental agreement or under 16662
Chapter 3733.4781. or 5321. of the Revised Code. In that event, 16663
the court from time to time may order the tenant or resident to 16664
pay into court all or part of the past due rent and rent becoming 16665
due during the pendency of the action. After trial and judgment, 16666
the party to whom a net judgment is owed shall be paid first from 16667
the money paid into court, and any balance shall be satisfied as 16668
any other judgment. If no rent remains due after application of 16669
this division, judgment shall be entered for the tenant or 16670
resident in the action for possession. If the tenant or resident 16671
has paid into court an amount greater than that necessary to 16672
satisfy a judgment obtained by the landlord, the balance shall be 16673
returned by the court to the tenant or resident.16674

       Sec. 1923.15.  During any proceeding involving residential 16675
premises under this chapter, the court may order an appropriate 16676
governmental agency to inspect the residential premises. If the 16677
agency determines and the court finds conditions which constitute 16678
a violation of section 3733.104781.38 or 5321.04 of the Revised 16679
Code, and if the premises have been vacated or are to be restored 16680
to the landlord, the court may issue an order forbidding the 16681
re-rental of the property until such conditions are corrected. If 16682
the agency determines and the court finds such conditions, and if 16683
the court finds that the tenant or manufactured home park resident 16684
may remain in possession, the court may order such conditions 16685
corrected. If such conditions have been caused by the tenant or 16686
resident, the court may award damages to the landlord equal to the 16687
reasonable cost of correcting such conditions.16688

       Sec. 2151.33.  (A) Pending hearing of a complaint filed under 16689
section 2151.27 of the Revised Code or a motion filed or made 16690
under division (B) of this section and the service of citations, 16691
the juvenile court may make any temporary disposition of any child 16692
that it considers necessary to protect the best interest of the 16693
child and that can be made pursuant to division (B) of this 16694
section. Upon the certificate of one or more reputable practicing 16695
physicians, the court may summarily provide for emergency medical 16696
and surgical treatment that appears to be immediately necessary to 16697
preserve the health and well-being of any child concerning whom a 16698
complaint or an application for care has been filed, pending the 16699
service of a citation upon the child's parents, guardian, or 16700
custodian. The court may order the parents, guardian, or 16701
custodian, if the court finds the parents, guardian, or custodian 16702
able to do so, to reimburse the court for the expense involved in 16703
providing the emergency medical or surgical treatment. Any person 16704
who disobeys the order for reimbursement may be adjudged in 16705
contempt of court and punished accordingly.16706

       If the emergency medical or surgical treatment is furnished 16707
to a child who is found at the hearing to be a nonresident of the 16708
county in which the court is located and if the expense of the 16709
medical or surgical treatment cannot be recovered from the 16710
parents, legal guardian, or custodian of the child, the board of 16711
county commissioners of the county in which the child has a legal 16712
settlement shall reimburse the court for the reasonable cost of 16713
the emergency medical or surgical treatment out of its general 16714
fund.16715

       (B)(1) After a complaint, petition, writ, or other document 16716
initiating a case dealing with an alleged or adjudicated abused, 16717
neglected, or dependent child is filed and upon the filing or 16718
making of a motion pursuant to division (C) of this section, the 16719
court, prior to the final disposition of the case, may issue any 16720
of the following temporary orders to protect the best interest of 16721
the child:16722

       (a) An order granting temporary custody of the child to a 16723
particular party;16724

       (b) An order for the taking of the child into custody 16725
pursuant to section 2151.31 of the Revised Code pending the 16726
outcome of the adjudicatory and dispositional hearings;16727

       (c) An order granting, limiting, or eliminating parenting 16728
time or visitation rights with respect to the child;16729

       (d) An order requiring a party to vacate a residence that 16730
will be lawfully occupied by the child;16731

       (e) An order requiring a party to attend an appropriate 16732
counseling program that is reasonably available to that party;16733

       (f) Any other order that restrains or otherwise controls the 16734
conduct of any party which conduct would not be in the best 16735
interest of the child.16736

       (2) Prior to the final disposition of a case subject to 16737
division (B)(1) of this section, the court shall do both of the 16738
following:16739

       (a) Issue an order pursuant to Chapters 3119. to 3125. of the 16740
Revised Code requiring the parents, guardian, or person charged 16741
with the child's support to pay support for the child.16742

       (b) Issue an order requiring the parents, guardian, or person 16743
charged with the child's support to continue to maintain any 16744
health insurance coverage for the child that existed at the time 16745
of the filing of the complaint, petition, writ, or other document, 16746
or to obtain health insurance coverage in accordance with sections 16747
3119.29 to 3119.56 of the Revised Code.16748

       (C)(1) A court may issue an order pursuant to division (B) of 16749
this section upon its own motion or if a party files a written 16750
motion or makes an oral motion requesting the issuance of the 16751
order and stating the reasons for it. Any notice sent by the court 16752
as a result of a motion pursuant to this division shall contain a 16753
notice that any party to a juvenile proceeding has the right to be 16754
represented by counsel and to have appointed counsel if the person 16755
is indigent.16756

       (2) If a child is taken into custody pursuant to section 16757
2151.31 of the Revised Code and placed in shelter care, the public 16758
children services agency or private child placing agency with 16759
which the child is placed in shelter care shall file or make a 16760
motion as described in division (C)(1) of this section before the 16761
end of the next day immediately after the date on which the child 16762
was taken into custody and, at a minimum, shall request an order 16763
for temporary custody under division (B)(1)(a) of this section.16764

       (3) A court that issues an order pursuant to division 16765
(B)(1)(b) of this section shall comply with section 2151.419 of 16766
the Revised Code.16767

       (D) The court may grant an ex parte order upon its own motion 16768
or a motion filed or made pursuant to division (C) of this section 16769
requesting such an order if it appears to the court that the best 16770
interest and the welfare of the child require that the court issue 16771
the order immediately. The court, if acting on its own motion, or 16772
the person requesting the granting of an ex parte order, to the 16773
extent possible, shall give notice of its intent or of the request 16774
to the parents, guardian, or custodian of the child who is the 16775
subject of the request. If the court issues an ex parte order, the 16776
court shall hold a hearing to review the order within seventy-two 16777
hours after it is issued or before the end of the next day after 16778
the day on which it is issued, whichever occurs first. The court 16779
shall give written notice of the hearing to all parties to the 16780
action and shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the child prior 16781
to the hearing.16782

       The written notice shall be given by all means that are 16783
reasonably likely to result in the party receiving actual notice 16784
and shall include all of the following:16785

       (1) The date, time, and location of the hearing;16786

       (2) The issues to be addressed at the hearing;16787

       (3) A statement that every party to the hearing has a right 16788
to counsel and to court-appointed counsel, if the party is 16789
indigent;16790

       (4) The name, telephone number, and address of the person 16791
requesting the order;16792

       (5) A copy of the order, except when it is not possible to 16793
obtain it because of the exigent circumstances in the case.16794

       If the court does not grant an ex parte order pursuant to a 16795
motion filed or made pursuant to division (C) of this section or 16796
its own motion, the court shall hold a shelter care hearing on the 16797
motion within ten days after the motion is filed. The court shall 16798
give notice of the hearing to all affected parties in the same 16799
manner as set forth in the Juvenile Rules.16800

       (E) The court, pending the outcome of the adjudicatory and 16801
dispositional hearings, shall not issue an order granting 16802
temporary custody of a child to a public children services agency 16803
or private child placing agency pursuant to this section, unless 16804
the court determines and specifically states in the order that the 16805
continued residence of the child in the child's current home will 16806
be contrary to the child's best interest and welfare and the court 16807
complies with section 2151.419 of the Revised Code.16808

       (F) Each public children services agency and private child 16809
placing agency that receives temporary custody of a child pursuant 16810
to this section shall maintain in the child's case record written 16811
documentation that it has placed the child, to the extent that it 16812
is consistent with the best interest, welfare, and special needs 16813
of the child, in the most family-like setting available and in 16814
close proximity to the home of the parents, custodian, or guardian 16815
of the child.16816

       (G) For good cause shown, any court order that is issued 16817
pursuant to this section may be reviewed by the court at any time 16818
upon motion of any party to the action or upon the motion of the 16819
court.16820

       (H)(1) Pending the hearing of a complaint filed under section 16821
2151.27 of the Revised Code or a motion filed or made under 16822
division (B) of this section and the service of citations, a 16823
public children services agency may request that the 16824
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 16825
investigation conduct a criminal records check with respect to 16826
each parent, guardian, custodian, prospective custodian, or 16827
prospective placement whose actions resulted in a temporary 16828
disposition under division (A) of this section. The public 16829
children services agency may request that the superintendent 16830
obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as 16831
part of the criminal records check of each parent, guardian, 16832
custodian, prospective custodian, or prospective placement.16833

       (2) Each public children services agency authorized by 16834
division (H) of this section to request a criminal records check 16835
shall do both of the following:16836

       (a) Provide to each parent, guardian, custodian, prospective 16837
custodian, or prospective placement for whom a criminal records 16838
check is requested a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to 16839
division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 16840
standard fingerprint impression sheet prescribed pursuant to 16841
division (C)(2) of that section and obtain the completed form and 16842
impression sheet from the parent, guardian, custodian, prospective 16843
custodian, or prospective placement;16844

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 16845
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 16846
investigation.16847

       (3) A parent, guardian, custodian, prospective custodian, or 16848
prospective placement who is given a form and fingerprint 16849
impression sheet under division (H)(2)(a) of this section and who 16850
fails to complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions may 16851
be held in contempt of court.16852

       Sec. 2151.412.  (A) Each public children services agency and 16853
private child placing agency shall prepare and maintain a case 16854
plan for any child to whom the agency is providing services and to 16855
whom any of the following applies:16856

       (1) The agency filed a complaint pursuant to section 2151.27 16857
of the Revised Code alleging that the child is an abused, 16858
neglected, or dependent child;16859

       (2) The agency has temporary or permanent custody of the 16860
child;16861

       (3) The child is living at home subject to an order for 16862
protective supervision;16863

       (4) The child is in a planned permanent living arrangement.16864

       Except as provided by division (A)(2) of section 5103.153 of 16865
the Revised Code, a private child placing agency providing 16866
services to a child who is the subject of a voluntary permanent 16867
custody surrender agreement entered into under division (B)(2) of 16868
section 5103.15 of the Revised Code is not required to prepare and 16869
maintain a case plan for that child.16870

       (B) Each public children services agency shall prepare and 16871
maintain a case plan or a family service plan for any child for 16872
whom the agency is providing in-home services pursuant to an 16873
alternative response.16874

       (C)(1) The director of job and family services shall adopt 16875
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code setting forth 16876
the content and format of case plans required by division (A) of 16877
this section and establishing procedures for developing, 16878
implementing, and changing the case plans. The rules shall at a 16879
minimum comply with the requirements of Title IV-E of the "Social 16880
Security Act," 94 Stat. 501, 42 U.S.C. 671 (1980), as amended.16881

       (2) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 16882
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code requiring public 16883
children services agencies and private child placing agencies to 16884
maintain case plans for children and their families who are 16885
receiving services in their homes from the agencies and for whom 16886
case plans are not required by division (A) of this section. The 16887
rules for public children services agencies shall include the 16888
requirements for case plans or family service plans maintained for 16889
children and their families who are receiving services in their 16890
homes from public children services agencies pursuant to an 16891
alternative response. The agencies shall maintain case plans and 16892
family service plans as required by those rules; however, the case 16893
plans and family service plans shall not be subject to any other 16894
provision of this section except as specifically required by the 16895
rules.16896

       (D) Each public children services agency and private child 16897
placing agency that is required by division (A) of this section to 16898
maintain a case plan shall file the case plan with the court prior 16899
to the child's adjudicatory hearing but no later than thirty days 16900
after the earlier of the date on which the complaint in the case 16901
was filed or the child was first placed into shelter care. If the 16902
agency does not have sufficient information prior to the 16903
adjudicatory hearing to complete any part of the case plan, the 16904
agency shall specify in the case plan the additional information 16905
necessary to complete each part of the case plan and the steps 16906
that will be taken to obtain that information. All parts of the 16907
case plan shall be completed by the earlier of thirty days after 16908
the adjudicatory hearing or the date of the dispositional hearing 16909
for the child.16910

       (E) Any agency that is required by division (A) of this 16911
section to prepare a case plan shall attempt to obtain an 16912
agreement among all parties, including, but not limited to, the 16913
parents, guardian, or custodian of the child and the guardian ad 16914
litem of the child regarding the content of the case plan. If all 16915
parties agree to the content of the case plan and the court 16916
approves it, the court shall journalize it as part of its 16917
dispositional order. If the agency cannot obtain an agreement upon 16918
the contents of the case plan or the court does not approve it, 16919
the parties shall present evidence on the contents of the case 16920
plan at the dispositional hearing. The court, based upon the 16921
evidence presented at the dispositional hearing and the best 16922
interest of the child, shall determine the contents of the case 16923
plan and journalize it as part of the dispositional order for the 16924
child.16925

       (F)(1) All parties, including the parents, guardian, or 16926
custodian of the child, are bound by the terms of the journalized 16927
case plan. A party that fails to comply with the terms of the 16928
journalized case plan may be held in contempt of court.16929

       (2) Any party may propose a change to a substantive part of 16930
the case plan, including, but not limited to, the child's 16931
placement and the visitation rights of any party. A party 16932
proposing a change to the case plan shall file the proposed change 16933
with the court and give notice of the proposed change in writing 16934
before the end of the day after the day of filing it to all 16935
parties and the child's guardian ad litem. All parties and the 16936
guardian ad litem shall have seven days from the date the notice 16937
is sent to object to and request a hearing on the proposed change.16938

       (a) If it receives a timely request for a hearing, the court 16939
shall schedule a hearing pursuant to section 2151.417 of the 16940
Revised Code to be held no later than thirty days after the 16941
request is received by the court. The court shall give notice of 16942
the date, time, and location of the hearing to all parties and the 16943
guardian ad litem. The agency may implement the proposed change 16944
after the hearing, if the court approves it. The agency shall not 16945
implement the proposed change unless it is approved by the court.16946

       (b) If it does not receive a timely request for a hearing, 16947
the court may approve the proposed change without a hearing. If 16948
the court approves the proposed change without a hearing, it shall 16949
journalize the case plan with the change not later than fourteen 16950
days after the change is filed with the court. If the court does 16951
not approve the proposed change to the case plan, it shall 16952
schedule a hearing to be held pursuant to section 2151.417 of the 16953
Revised Code no later than thirty days after the expiration of the 16954
fourteen-day time period and give notice of the date, time, and 16955
location of the hearing to all parties and the guardian ad litem 16956
of the child. If, despite the requirements of division (F)(2) of 16957
this section, the court neither approves and journalizes the 16958
proposed change nor conducts a hearing, the agency may implement 16959
the proposed change not earlier than fifteen days after it is 16960
submitted to the court.16961

       (3) If an agency has reasonable cause to believe that a child 16962
is suffering from illness or injury and is not receiving proper 16963
care and that an appropriate change in the child's case plan is 16964
necessary to prevent immediate or threatened physical or emotional 16965
harm, to believe that a child is in immediate danger from the 16966
child's surroundings and that an immediate change in the child's 16967
case plan is necessary to prevent immediate or threatened physical 16968
or emotional harm to the child, or to believe that a parent, 16969
guardian, custodian, or other member of the child's household has 16970
abused or neglected the child and that the child is in danger of 16971
immediate or threatened physical or emotional harm from that 16972
person unless the agency makes an appropriate change in the 16973
child's case plan, it may implement the change without prior 16974
agreement or a court hearing and, before the end of the next day 16975
after the change is made, give all parties, the guardian ad litem 16976
of the child, and the court notice of the change. Before the end 16977
of the third day after implementing the change in the case plan, 16978
the agency shall file a statement of the change with the court and 16979
give notice of the filing accompanied by a copy of the statement 16980
to all parties and the guardian ad litem. All parties and the 16981
guardian ad litem shall have ten days from the date the notice is 16982
sent to object to and request a hearing on the change.16983

       (a) If it receives a timely request for a hearing, the court 16984
shall schedule a hearing pursuant to section 2151.417 of the 16985
Revised Code to be held no later than thirty days after the 16986
request is received by the court. The court shall give notice of 16987
the date, time, and location of the hearing to all parties and the 16988
guardian ad litem. The agency shall continue to administer the 16989
case plan with the change after the hearing, if the court approves 16990
the change. If the court does not approve the change, the court 16991
shall make appropriate changes to the case plan and shall 16992
journalize the case plan.16993

       (b) If it does not receive a timely request for a hearing, 16994
the court may approve the change without a hearing. If the court 16995
approves the change without a hearing, it shall journalize the 16996
case plan with the change within fourteen days after receipt of 16997
the change. If the court does not approve the change to the case 16998
plan, it shall schedule a hearing under section 2151.417 of the 16999
Revised Code to be held no later than thirty days after the 17000
expiration of the fourteen-day time period and give notice of the 17001
date, time, and location of the hearing to all parties and the 17002
guardian ad litem of the child.17003

       (G)(1) All case plans for children in temporary custody shall 17004
have the following general goals:17005

       (a) Consistent with the best interest and special needs of 17006
the child, to achieve a safe out-of-home placement in the least 17007
restrictive, most family-like setting available and in close 17008
proximity to the home from which the child was removed or the home 17009
in which the child will be permanently placed;17010

       (b) To eliminate with all due speed the need for the 17011
out-of-home placement so that the child can safely return home.17012

       (2) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 17013
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code setting forth the 17014
general goals of case plans for children subject to dispositional 17015
orders for protective supervision, a planned permanent living 17016
arrangement, or permanent custody.17017

       (H) In the agency's development of a case plan and the 17018
court's review of the case plan, the child's health and safety 17019
shall be the paramount concern. The agency and the court shall be 17020
guided by the following general priorities:17021

       (1) A child who is residing with or can be placed with the 17022
child's parents within a reasonable time should remain in their 17023
legal custody even if an order of protective supervision is 17024
required for a reasonable period of time;17025

       (2) If both parents of the child have abandoned the child, 17026
have relinquished custody of the child, have become incapable of 17027
supporting or caring for the child even with reasonable 17028
assistance, or have a detrimental effect on the health, safety, 17029
and best interest of the child, the child should be placed in the 17030
legal custody of a suitable member of the child's extended family;17031

       (3) If a child described in division (H)(2) of this section 17032
has no suitable member of the child's extended family to accept 17033
legal custody, the child should be placed in the legal custody of 17034
a suitable nonrelative who shall be made a party to the 17035
proceedings after being given legal custody of the child;17036

       (4) If the child has no suitable member of the child's 17037
extended family to accept legal custody of the child and no 17038
suitable nonrelative is available to accept legal custody of the 17039
child and, if the child temporarily cannot or should not be placed 17040
with the child's parents, guardian, or custodian, the child should 17041
be placed in the temporary custody of a public children services 17042
agency or a private child placing agency;17043

       (5) If the child cannot be placed with either of the child's 17044
parents within a reasonable period of time or should not be placed 17045
with either, if no suitable member of the child's extended family 17046
or suitable nonrelative is available to accept legal custody of 17047
the child, and if the agency has a reasonable expectation of 17048
placing the child for adoption, the child should be committed to 17049
the permanent custody of the public children services agency or 17050
private child placing agency;17051

       (6) If the child is to be placed for adoption or foster care, 17052
the placement shall not be delayed or denied on the basis of the 17053
child's or adoptive or foster family's race, color, or national 17054
origin.17055

       (I) The case plan for a child in temporary custody shall 17056
include at a minimum the following requirements if the child is or 17057
has been the victim of abuse or neglect or if the child witnessed 17058
the commission in the child's household of abuse or neglect 17059
against a sibling of the child, a parent of the child, or any 17060
other person in the child's household:17061

       (1) A requirement that the child's parents, guardian, or 17062
custodian participate in mandatory counseling;17063

       (2) A requirement that the child's parents, guardian, or 17064
custodian participate in any supportive services that are required 17065
by or provided pursuant to the child's case plan.17066

       (J) A case plan may include, as a supplement, a plan for 17067
locating a permanent family placement. The supplement shall not be 17068
considered part of the case plan for purposes of division (E) of 17069
this section.17070

       (K)(1) A public children services agency may request that the 17071
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 17072
investigation conduct a criminal records check with respect to a 17073
parent, guardian, custodian, prospective custodian, or prospective 17074
placement whose actions result in a finding under division (A)(1) 17075
of this section that a child is an abused, neglected, or dependent 17076
child. The public children services agency shall request that the 17077
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 17078
investigation as part of the criminal records check.17079

       (2) A public children services agency that requests a 17080
criminal records check under division (K)(1) of this section shall 17081
do both of the following:17082

       (a) Provide to each parent, guardian, custodian, prospective 17083
custodian, or prospective placement for whom a criminal records 17084
check is requested a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to 17085
division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 17086
standard fingerprint impression sheet prescribed pursuant to 17087
division (C)(2) of that section and obtain the completed form and 17088
impression sheet from the parent, guardian, custodian, prospective 17089
custodian, or prospective placement;17090

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 17091
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 17092
investigation.17093

       (3) A parent, guardian, custodian, prospective custodian, or 17094
prospective placement who is given a form and fingerprint 17095
impression sheet under division (K)(2)(a) of this section and who 17096
fails to complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions may 17097
be held in contempt of court.17098

       Sec. 2151.86.  (A)(1) The appointing or hiring officer of any 17099
entity that appoints or employs any person responsible for a 17100
child's care in out-of-home care shall request the superintendent 17101
of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with respect to any 17102
person who is under final consideration for appointment or 17103
employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 17104
out-of-home care, except that section 3319.39 of the Revised Code 17105
shall apply instead of this section if the out-of-home care entity 17106
is a public school, educational service center, or chartered 17107
nonpublic school.17108

       (2) At the times specified in this division, the 17109
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 17110
adoption for a prospective adoptive parent shall request the 17111
superintendent of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with 17112
respect to that prospective adoptive parent and a criminal records 17113
check with respect to all persons eighteen years of age or older 17114
who reside with the prospective adoptive parent. The 17115
administrative director or attorney shall request a criminal 17116
records check pursuant to this division at the time of the initial 17117
home study, every four years after the initial home study at the 17118
time of an update, and at the time that an adoptive home study is 17119
completed as a new home study.17120

       (3) Before a recommending agency submits a recommendation to 17121
the department of job and family services on whether the 17122
department should issue a certificate to a foster home under 17123
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, and every four years 17124
thereafter prior to a recertification under that section, the 17125
administrative director of the agency shall request that the 17126
superintendent of BCII conduct a criminal records check with 17127
respect to the prospective foster caregiver and a criminal records 17128
check with respect to all other persons eighteen years of age or 17129
older who reside with the foster caregiver.17130

       (B)(1) If a person subject to a criminal records check under 17131
division (A)(1) of this section does not present proof that the 17132
person has been a resident of this state for the five-year period 17133
immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal records 17134
check is requested or does not provide evidence that within that 17135
five-year period the superintendent of BCII has requested 17136
information about the person from the federal bureau of 17137
investigation in a criminal records check, the appointing or 17138
hiring officer shall request that the superintendent of BCII 17139
obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as a 17140
part of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based 17141
checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 17142
U.S.C. 671. If a person subject to a criminal records check under 17143
division (A)(1) of this section presents proof that the person has 17144
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the 17145
appointing or hiring officer or attorney may request that the 17146
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 17147
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 17148
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 17149
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.17150

       When the administrative director of an agency, or attorney, 17151
who arranges an adoption for a prospective parent requests, at the 17152
time of the initial home study, a criminal records check for a 17153
person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, the 17154
administrative director or attorney shall request that the 17155
superintendent of BCII obtain information from the federal bureau 17156
of investigation as part of the criminal records check, including 17157
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 17158
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to the 17159
criminal records check. In all other cases in which the 17160
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 17161
adoption for a prospective parent requests a criminal records 17162
check for a person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, 17163
the administrative director or attorney may request that the 17164
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 17165
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 17166
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 17167
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.17168

        When the administrative director of a recommending agency 17169
requests, before submitting a recommendation to the department of 17170
job and family services on whether the department should issue a 17171
certificate to a foster home under section 5103.03 of the Revised 17172
Code, a criminal records check for a person pursuant to division 17173
(A)(3) of this section, the administrative director shall request 17174
that the superintendent of BCII obtain information from the 17175
federal bureau of investigation as part of a criminal records 17176
check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 17177
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the 17178
person subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases 17179
in which the administrative director of a recommending agency 17180
requests a criminal records check for a person pursuant to 17181
division (A)(3) of this section, the administrative director may 17182
request that the superintendent of BCII include information from 17183
the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, 17184
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 17185
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.17186

       Prior to a hearing on a final decree of adoption or 17187
interlocutory order of adoption by a probate court, the 17188
administrative director of an agency, or an attorney, who arranges 17189
an adoption for a prospective parent shall provide to the clerk of 17190
the probate court either of the following:17191

       (a) Any information received pursuant to a request made under 17192
this division from the superintendent of BCII or the federal 17193
bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check, 17194
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 17195
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to 17196
the criminal records check;17197

       (b) Written notification that the person subject to a 17198
criminal records check pursuant to this division failed upon 17199
request to provide the information necessary to complete the form 17200
or failed to provide impressions of the person's fingerprints as 17201
required under division (B)(2) of this section. 17202

       (2) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 17203
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 17204
criminal records check shall provide to each person subject to a 17205
criminal records check a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to 17206
division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 17207
standard impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions 17208
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the 17209
Revised Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from 17210
the person, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 17211
the superintendent of BCII at the time the criminal records check 17212
is requested.17213

       Any person subject to a criminal records check who receives 17214
pursuant to this division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant 17215
to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 17216
copy of an impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) 17217
of that section and who is requested to complete the form and 17218
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 17219
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 17220
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 17221
person's fingerprints. If a person subject to a criminal records 17222
check, upon request, fails to provide the information necessary to 17223
complete the form or fails to provide impressions of the person's 17224
fingerprints, the appointing or hiring officer shall not appoint 17225
or employ the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 17226
out-of-home care, a probate court may not issue a final decree of 17227
adoption or an interlocutory order of adoption making the person 17228
an adoptive parent, and the department of job and family services 17229
shall not issue a certificate authorizing the prospective foster 17230
caregiver to operate a foster home.17231

       (C)(1) No appointing or hiring officer shall appoint or 17232
employ a person as a person responsible for a child's care in 17233
out-of-home care, the department of job and family services shall 17234
not issue a certificate under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code 17235
authorizing a prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 17236
home, and no probate court shall issue a final decree of adoption 17237
or an interlocutory order of adoption making a person an adoptive 17238
parent if the person or, in the case of a prospective foster 17239
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent, any person eighteen 17240
years of age or older who resides with the prospective foster 17241
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent previously has been 17242
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 17243
in division (A)(8)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, 17244
unless the person meets rehabilitation standards established in 17245
rules adopted under division (F) of this section.17246

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer may appoint or employ a 17247
person as a person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 17248
care conditionally until the criminal records check required by 17249
this section is completed and the officer receives the results of 17250
the criminal records check. If the results of the criminal records 17251
check indicate that, pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, 17252
the person subject to the criminal records check does not qualify 17253
for appointment or employment, the officer shall release the 17254
person from appointment or employment.17255

       (3) Prior to certification or recertification under section 17256
5103.03 of the Revised Code, the prospective foster caregiver 17257
subject to a criminal records check under division (A)(3) of this 17258
section shall notify the recommending agency of the revocation of 17259
any foster home license, certificate, or other similar 17260
authorization in another state occurring within the five years 17261
prior to the date of application to become a foster caregiver in 17262
this state. The failure of a prospective foster caregiver to 17263
notify the recommending agency of any revocation of that type in 17264
another state that occurred within that five-year period shall be 17265
grounds for denial of the person's foster home application or the 17266
revocation of the person's foster home certification, whichever is 17267
applicable. If a person has had a revocation in another state 17268
within the five years prior to the date of the application, the 17269
department of job and family services shall not issue a foster 17270
home certificate to the prospective foster caregiver.17271

       (D) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 17272
director, or attorney shall pay to the bureau of criminal 17273
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 17274
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 17275
criminal records check conducted in accordance with that section 17276
upon a request pursuant to division (A) of this section. The 17277
officer, director, or attorney may charge the person subject to 17278
the criminal records check a fee for the costs the officer, 17279
director, or attorney incurs in obtaining the criminal records 17280
check. A fee charged under this division shall not exceed the 17281
amount of fees the officer, director, or attorney pays for the 17282
criminal records check. If a fee is charged under this division, 17283
the officer, director, or attorney shall notify the person who is 17284
the applicant at the time of the person's initial application for 17285
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a 17286
certificate to operate a foster home of the amount of the fee and 17287
that, unless the fee is paid, the person who is the applicant will 17288
not be considered for appointment or employment or as an adoptive 17289
parent or foster caregiver.17290

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 17291
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 17292
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 17293
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 17294
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 17295
be made available to any person other than the following:17296

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 17297
check or the person's representative;17298

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 17299
director, or attorney requesting the criminal records check or the 17300
officer's, director's, or attorney's representative;17301

       (3) The department of job and family services, a county 17302
department of job and family services, or a public children 17303
services agency;17304

       (4) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 17305
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment, a final 17306
decree of adoption or interlocutory order of adoption, or a foster 17307
home certificate.17308

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 17309
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 17310
this section. The rules shall include rehabilitation standards a 17311
person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 17312
listed in division (A)(8)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised 17313
Code must meet for an appointing or hiring officer to appoint or 17314
employ the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 17315
out-of-home care, a probate court to issue a final decree of 17316
adoption or interlocutory order of adoption making the person an 17317
adoptive parent, or the department to issue a certificate 17318
authorizing the prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 17319
home or not revoke a foster home certificate for a violation 17320
specified in section 5103.0328 of the Revised Code.17321

       (G) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 17322
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 17323
criminal records check shall inform each person who is the 17324
applicant, at the time of the person's initial application for 17325
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a foster 17326
home certificate, that the person subject to the criminal records 17327
check is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 17328
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 17329
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 17330
109.572 of the Revised Code.17331

       (H) The department of job and family services may waive the 17332
requirement that a criminal records check based on fingerprints be 17333
conducted for an adult resident of a prospective adoptive or 17334
foster home or the home of a foster caregiver if the recommending 17335
agency documents to the department's satisfaction that the adult 17336
resident is physically unable to comply with the fingerprinting 17337
requirement and poses no danger to foster children or adoptive 17338
children who may be placed in the home. In such cases, the 17339
recommending or approving agency shall request that the bureau of 17340
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 17341
records check using the person's name and social security number.17342

        (I) As used in this section:17343

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:17344

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 17345
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 17346
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 17347
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 17348
individuals less than eighteen years of age;17349

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 17350
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 17351
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 17352
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 17353
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 17354
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 17355
individuals less than eighteen years of age;17356

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 17357
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 17358
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 17359
requirements of division (I)(1)(a) of this section.17360

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 17361
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.17362

       (3) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 17363
care" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 17364
Code, except that it does not include a prospective employee of 17365
the department of youth services or a person responsible for a 17366
child's care in a hospital or medical clinic other than a 17367
children's hospital.17368

       (4) "Person subject to a criminal records check" means the 17369
following:17370

       (a) A person who is under final consideration for appointment 17371
or employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 17372
out-of-home care;17373

       (b) A prospective adoptive parent;17374

       (c) A prospective foster caregiver;17375

       (d) A person eighteen years old or older who resides with a 17376
prospective foster caregiver or a prospective adoptive parent.17377

       (5) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 17378
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 17379
agency to which the department of job and family services has 17380
delegated a duty to inspect and approve foster homes.17381

       (6) "Superintendent of BCII" means the superintendent of the 17382
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.17383

       Sec. 2152.121.  (A) If a complaint is filed against a child 17384
alleging that the child is a delinquent child and the case is 17385
transferred pursuant to division (A)(1)(a)(i) or (A)(1)(b)(ii) of 17386
section 2152.12 of the Revised Code, the juvenile court that 17387
transferred the case shall retain jurisdiction for purposes of 17388
making disposition of the child when required under division (B) 17389
of this section.17390

       (B) If a complaint is filed against a child alleging that the 17391
child is a delinquent child, if the case is transferred pursuant 17392
to division (A)(1)(a)(i) or (A)(1)(b)(ii) of section 2152.12 of 17393
the Revised Code, and if the child subsequently is convicted of or 17394
pleads guilty to an offense in that case, the sentence to be 17395
imposed or disposition to be made of the child shall be determined 17396
as follows:17397

       (1) The court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 17398
guilty to the offense shall determine whether, had a complaint 17399
been filed in juvenile court alleging that the child was a 17400
delinquent child for committing an act that would be that offense 17401
if committed by an adult, division (A) of section 2152.12 of the 17402
Revised Code would have required mandatory transfer of the case or 17403
division (B) of that section would have allowed discretionary 17404
transfer of the case. The court shall not consider the factor 17405
specified in division (B)(3) of section 2152.12 of the Revised 17406
Code in making its determination under this division.17407

       (2) If the court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 17408
guilty to the offense determines under division (B)(1) of this 17409
section that, had a complaint been filed in juvenile court 17410
alleging that the child was a delinquent child for committing an 17411
act that would be that offense if committed by an adult, division 17412
(A) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code would not have required 17413
mandatory transfer of the case, and division (B) of that section 17414
would not have allowed discretionary transfer of the case, the 17415
court shall transfer jurisdiction of the case back to the juvenile 17416
court that initially transferred the case, the court and all other 17417
agencies that have any record of the conviction of the child or 17418
the child's guilty plea shall expunge the conviction or guilty 17419
plea and all records of it, the conviction or guilty plea shall be 17420
considered and treated for all purposes other than as provided in 17421
this section to have never occurred, the conviction or guilty plea 17422
shall be considered and treated for all purposes other than as 17423
provided in this section to have been a delinquent child 17424
adjudication of the child, and the juvenile court shall impose one 17425
or more traditional juvenile dispositions upon the child under 17426
sections 2152.19 and 2152.20 of the Revised Code.17427

       (3) If the court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 17428
guilty to the offense determines under division (B)(1) of this 17429
section that, had a complaint been filed in juvenile court 17430
alleging that the child was a delinquent child for committing an 17431
act that would be that offense if committed by an adult, division 17432
(A) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code would not have required 17433
mandatory transfer of the case but division (B) of that section 17434
would have allowed discretionary transfer of the case, the court 17435
shall determine the sentence it believes should be imposed upon 17436
the child under Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, shall impose 17437
that sentence upon the child, and shall stay that sentence pending 17438
completion of the procedures specified in this division. Upon 17439
imposition and staying of the sentence, the court shall transfer 17440
jurisdiction of the case back to the juvenile court that initially 17441
transferred the case and the juvenile court shall proceed in 17442
accordance with this division. In no case may the child waive a 17443
right to a hearing of the type described in division (B)(3)(b) of 17444
this section, regarding a motion filed as described in that 17445
division by the prosecuting attorney in the case. Upon transfer of 17446
jurisdiction of the case back to the juvenile court, both of the 17447
following apply:17448

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(3)(b) of 17449
this section, the juvenile court shall impose a serious youthful 17450
offender dispositional sentence upon the child under division 17451
(D)(1) of section 2152.13 of the Revised Code. In imposing the 17452
adult portion of that sentence, the juvenile court shall consider 17453
and give preference to the sentence imposed upon the child by the 17454
court in which the child was convicted of or pleaded guilty to the 17455
offense. Upon imposing a serious youthful offender dispositional 17456
sentence upon the child as described in this division, the 17457
juvenile court shall notify the court in which the child was 17458
convicted of or pleaded guilty to the offense, the sentence 17459
imposed upon the child by that court shall terminate, the court 17460
and all other agencies that have any record of the conviction of 17461
the child shall expunge the conviction or guilty plea and all 17462
records of it, the conviction or guilty plea shall be considered 17463
and treated for all purposes other than as provided in this 17464
section to have never occurred, and the conviction or guilty plea 17465
shall be considered and treated for all purposes other than as 17466
provided in this section to have been a delinquent child 17467
adjudication of the child.17468

       (b) Upon the transfer, the prosecuting attorney in the case 17469
may file a motion in the juvenile court that objects to the 17470
imposition of a serious youthful offender dispositional sentence 17471
upon the child and requests that the sentence imposed upon the 17472
child by the court in which the child was convicted of or pleaded 17473
guilty to the offense be invoked. Upon the filing of a motion 17474
under this division, the juvenile court shall hold a hearing to 17475
determine whether the child is not amenable to care or 17476
rehabilitation within the juvenile system and whether the safety 17477
of the community may require that the child be subject solely to 17478
adult sanctions. If the juvenile court at the hearing finds that 17479
the child is not amenable to care or rehabilitation within the 17480
juvenile system or that the safety of the community may require 17481
that the child be subject solely to adult sanctions, the court 17482
shall grant the motion. Absent such a finding, the juvenile court 17483
shall deny the motion. In making its decision under this division, 17484
the juvenile court shall consider the factors listed in division 17485
(D) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code as factors indicating 17486
that the motion should be granted, shall consider the factors 17487
listed in division (E) of that section as factors indicating that 17488
the motion should not be granted, and shall consider whether the 17489
applicable factors listed in division (D) of that section outweigh 17490
the applicable factors listed in division (E) of that section.17491

       If the juvenile court grants the motion of the prosecuting 17492
attorney under this division, the juvenile court shall transfer 17493
jurisdiction of the case back to the court in which the child was 17494
convicted of or pleaded guilty to the offense, and the sentence 17495
imposed by that court shall be invoked. If the juvenile court 17496
denies the motion of the prosecuting attorney under this section, 17497
the juvenile court shall impose a serious youthful offender 17498
dispositional sentence upon the child in accordance with division 17499
(B)(3)(a) of this section. 17500

       (4) If the court in which the child is convicted of or pleads 17501
guilty to the offense determines under division (B)(1) of this 17502
section that, had a complaint been filed in juvenile court 17503
alleging that the child was a delinquent child for committing an 17504
act that would be that offense if committed by an adult, division 17505
(A) of section 2152.12 of the Revised Code would have required 17506
mandatory transfer of the case, the court shall impose sentence 17507
upon the child under Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code. 17508

       Sec. 2152.22.  (A) When a child is committed to the legal 17509
custody of the department of youth services under this chapter, 17510
the juvenile court relinquishes control with respect to the child 17511
so committed, except as provided in divisions (B), (C), (D), and 17512
(H) of this section or in sections 2152.82 to 2152.86 of the 17513
Revised Code. Subject to divisions (B), (C), and (D) of this 17514
section, sections 2151.353 and 2151.412 to 2151.421 of the Revised 17515
Code, sections 2152.82 to 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and any 17516
other provision of law that specifies a different duration for a 17517
dispositional order, all other dispositional orders made by the 17518
court under this chapter shall be temporary and shall continue for 17519
a period that is designated by the court in its order, until 17520
terminated or modified by the court or until the child attains 17521
twenty-one years of age.17522

       The department shall not release the child from a department 17523
facility and as a result shall not discharge the child or order 17524
the child's release on supervised release prior to the expiration 17525
of the minimum period specified by the court in division (A)(1) of 17526
section 2152.16 of the Revised Code and any term of commitment 17527
imposed under section 2152.17 of the Revised Code or prior to the 17528
child's attainment of twenty-one years of age, except upon the 17529
order of a court pursuant to division (B), (C), or (D) of this 17530
section or in accordance with section 5139.54 of the Revised Code.17531

       (B)(1) TheUnless the court grants judicial release under 17532
division (D)(1)(b) of this section, the court that commits a 17533
delinquent child to the department of youth services may grant 17534
judicial release of the child to court supervision under this 17535
division during the first half of the prescribed minimum term for 17536
which the child was committed to the department or, if the child 17537
was committed to the department until the child attains twenty-one 17538
years of age, during the first half of the prescribed period of 17539
commitment that begins on the first day of commitment and ends on 17540
the child's twenty-first birthday, provided any commitment imposed 17541
under division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of section 2152.17 of the 17542
Revised Code has ended.17543

       (2) If the department desires to release a child during a 17544
period specified in division (B)(1) of this section, it shall 17545
request the court that committed the child to grant a judicial 17546
release of the child to court supervision under this division. 17547
During whichever of those periods is applicable, the child or the 17548
parents of the child also may request that court to grant a 17549
judicial release of the child to court supervision. Upon receipt 17550
of a request for a judicial release to court supervision under 17551
this division from the department, the child, or the child's 17552
parent, or upon its own motion, the court that committed the child 17553
shall do one of the following: approve the release by journal 17554
entry; schedule within thirty days after the request is received a 17555
time for a hearing on whether the child is to be released; or 17556
reject the request by journal entry without conducting a hearing.17557

       If the court rejects an initial request for a release under 17558
this division by the child or the child's parent, the child or the 17559
child's parent may make one additional request for a judicial 17560
release to court supervision within the applicable period. The 17561
additional request may be made no earlier than thirty days after 17562
the filing of the prior request for a judicial release to court 17563
supervision. Upon the filing of a second request for a judicial 17564
release to court supervision, the court shall either approve or 17565
disapprove the release by journal entry or schedule within thirty 17566
days after the request is received a time for a hearing on whether 17567
the child is to be released.17568

       (3) If a court schedules a hearing under division (B)(2) of 17569
this section, it may order the department to deliver the child to 17570
the court on the date set for the hearing and may order the 17571
department to present to the court a report on the child's 17572
progress in the institution to which the child was committed and 17573
recommendations for conditions of supervision of the child by the 17574
court after release. The court may conduct the hearing without the 17575
child being present. The court shall determine at the hearing 17576
whether the child should be granted a judicial release to court 17577
supervision.17578

       If the court approves the release under this division, it 17579
shall order its staff to prepare a written treatment and 17580
rehabilitation plan for the child that may include any conditions 17581
of the child's release that were recommended by the department and 17582
approved by the court. The committing court shall send the 17583
juvenile court of the county in which the child is placed a copy 17584
of the recommended plan. The court of the county in which the 17585
child is placed may adopt the recommended conditions set by the 17586
committing court as an order of the court and may add any 17587
additional consistent conditions it considers appropriate. If a 17588
child is granted a judicial release to court supervision, the 17589
release discharges the child from the custody of the department of 17590
youth services.17591

       (C)(1) TheUnless the court grants judicial release under 17592
division (D)(1)(b) of this section, the court that commits a 17593
delinquent child to the department of youth services may grant 17594
judicial release of the child to department of youth services 17595
supervision under this division during the second half of the 17596
prescribed minimum term for which the child was committed to the 17597
department or, if the child was committed to the department until 17598
the child attains twenty-one years of age, during the second half 17599
of the prescribed period of commitment that begins on the first 17600
day of commitment and ends on the child's twenty-first birthday, 17601
provided any commitment imposed under division (A), (B), (C), or 17602
(D) of section 2152.17 of the Revised Code has ended.17603

       (2) If the department desires to release a child during a 17604
period specified in division (C)(1) of this section, it shall 17605
request the court that committed the child to grant a judicial 17606
release to department of youth services supervision. During 17607
whichever of those periods is applicable, the child or the child's 17608
parent also may request the court that committed the child to 17609
grant a judicial release to department of youth services 17610
supervision. Upon receipt of a request for judicial release to 17611
department of youth services supervision, the child, or the 17612
child's parent, or upon its own motion at any time during that 17613
period, the court shall do one of the following: approve the 17614
release by journal entry; schedule a time within thirty days after 17615
receipt of the request for a hearing on whether the child is to be 17616
released; or reject the request by journal entry without 17617
conducting a hearing.17618

       If the court rejects an initial request for release under 17619
this division by the child or the child's parent, the child or the 17620
child's parent may make one or more subsequent requests for a 17621
release within the applicable period, but may make no more than 17622
one request during each period of ninety days that the child is in 17623
a secure department facility after the filing of a prior request 17624
for early release. Upon the filing of a request for release under 17625
this division subsequent to an initial request, the court shall 17626
either approve or disapprove the release by journal entry or 17627
schedule a time within thirty days after receipt of the request 17628
for a hearing on whether the child is to be released.17629

       (3) If a court schedules a hearing under division (C)(2) of 17630
this section, it may order the department to deliver the child to 17631
the court on the date set for the hearing and shall order the 17632
department to present to the court at that time a treatment plan 17633
for the child's post-institutional care. The court may conduct the 17634
hearing without the child being present. The court shall determine 17635
at the hearing whether the child should be granted a judicial 17636
release to department of youth services supervision.17637

       If the court approves the judicial release to department of 17638
youth services supervision, the department shall prepare a written 17639
treatment and rehabilitation plan for the child pursuant to 17640
division (F) of this section that shall include the conditions of 17641
the child's release. It shall send the committing court and the 17642
juvenile court of the county in which the child is placed a copy 17643
of the plan. The court of the county in which the child is placed 17644
may adopt the conditions set by the department as an order of the 17645
court and may add any additional consistent conditions it 17646
considers appropriate, provided that the court may not add any 17647
condition that decreases the level or degree of supervision 17648
specified by the department in its plan, that substantially 17649
increases the financial burden of supervision that will be 17650
experienced by the department, or that alters the placement 17651
specified by the department in its plan. If the court of the 17652
county in which the child is placed adds to the department's plan 17653
any additional conditions, it shall enter those additional 17654
conditions in its journal and shall send to the department a copy 17655
of the journal entry of the additional conditions.17656

       If the court approves the judicial release to department of 17657
youth services supervision, the actual date on which the 17658
department shall release the child is contingent upon the 17659
department finding a suitable placement for the child. If the 17660
child is to be returned to the child's home, the department shall 17661
return the child on the date that the court schedules for the 17662
child's release or shall bear the expense of any additional time 17663
that the child remains in a department facility. If the child is 17664
unable to return to the child's home, the department shall 17665
exercise reasonable diligence in finding a suitable placement for 17666
the child, and the child shall remain in a department facility 17667
while the department finds the suitable placement.17668

       (D)(1) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, the court 17669
that commits a delinquent child to the department of youth 17670
services may grant judicial release of the child under this 17671
division at any time after the expiration of one of the following 17672
periods of time:17673

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(b) of 17674
this section, if the child was committed to the department for a 17675
prescribed minimum period and a maximum period not to exceed the 17676
child's attainment of twenty-one years, the court may grant 17677
judicial release of the child at any time after the expiration of 17678
the prescribed minimum term for which the child was committed to 17679
the department.17680

       (b) If the child was committed to the department for both one 17681
or more definite periods under division (A), (B), (C), or (D) of 17682
section 2152.17 of the Revised Code and a period of the type 17683
described in division (D)(1)(a) of this section, all of the 17684
prescribed minimum periods of commitment imposed under division 17685
(A), (B), (C), or (D) of section 2152.17 of the Revised Code and 17686
the prescribed period of commitment of the type described in 17687
division (D)(1)(a) of this section shall be aggregated for 17688
purposes of this division, and the court may grant judicial 17689
release of the child at any time after the expiration of one year 17690
after the child begins serving the aggregate period of commitment.17691

       (2) If a court grants a judicial release of a child under 17692
division (D)(1) of this section, the release shall be a judicial 17693
release to department of youth services supervision, if the 17694
release is granted during a period described in division (C)(1) of 17695
this section, and the second and third paragraphs of division 17696
(C)(3) of this section apply regarding the release. In all other 17697
cases, the release shall be a judicial release to court 17698
supervision, and the second paragraph of division (B)(3) of this 17699
section applies regarding the release.17700

       (3) A court at the time of making the disposition of a child 17701
shall provide notice in the order of disposition that the judge is 17702
retaining jurisdiction over the child for the purpose of a 17703
possible grant of judicial release of the child under division 17704
(D)(1) of this section. The failure of a court to provide this 17705
notice does not affect the authority of the court to grant a 17706
judicial release under that division and does not constitute 17707
grounds for setting aside the child's delinquent child 17708
adjudication or disposition or for granting any post-adjudication 17709
relief to the child.17710

       (4) The department of youth services, a child committed to 17711
the department, or the parents of the child, during a period 17712
specified in division (D)(1) of this section, may request the 17713
court that committed the child to grant a judicial release of the 17714
child under that division. Upon receipt of a request for judicial 17715
release of a child under this division from the department, the 17716
child, or the child's parent, or upon its own motion, the court 17717
that committed the child shall do one of the following:17718

       (a) Approve the request by journal entry;17719

       (b) Schedule within thirty days after the request is received 17720
a time for a hearing on whether the child is to be released;17721

       (c) Reject the request by journal entry without conducting a 17722
hearing.17723

       If the court rejects an initial request for a release under 17724
this division by the child or the child's parent, division (C)(2) 17725
of this section applies regarding the making of additional 17726
requests.17727

       If the court schedules a hearing under this division to 17728
consider the judicial release, the first paragraph of division 17729
(B)(3) of this section applies regarding the hearing.17730

       (E) If a child is released under division (B), (C), or (D) of 17731
this section and the court of the county in which the child is 17732
placed has reason to believe that the child's deportment is not in 17733
accordance with the conditions of the child's judicial release, 17734
the court of the county in which the child is placed shall 17735
schedule a time for a hearing to determine whether the child 17736
violated any of the post-release conditions, and, if the child was 17737
released under division (C) of this section or under division (D) 17738
of this section under department supervision, divisions (A) to (E) 17739
of section 5139.52 of the Revised Code apply regarding the child.17740

       If that court determines at the hearing that the child 17741
violated any of the post-release conditions, the court, if it 17742
determines that the violation was a serious violation, may order 17743
the child to be returned to the department for 17744
institutionalization, consistent with the original order of 17745
commitment of the child, or in any case may make any other 17746
disposition of the child authorized by law that the court 17747
considers proper. If the court of the county in which the child is 17748
placed orders the child to be returned to a department of youth 17749
services institution, the time during which the child was held in 17750
a secure department facility prior to the child's judicial release 17751
shall be considered as time served in fulfilling the prescribed 17752
period of institutionalization that is applicable to the child 17753
under the child's original order of commitment. If the court 17754
orders the child returned to a department institution, the child 17755
shall remain in institutional care for a minimum of three months 17756
or until the child successfully completes a revocation program of 17757
a duration of not less than thirty days operated either by the 17758
department or by an entity with which the department has 17759
contracted to provide a revocation program.17760

       (F) The department of youth services, prior to the release of 17761
a child pursuant to division (C) of this section or pursuant to 17762
division (D) of this section on department supervision, shall do 17763
all of the following:17764

       (1) After reviewing the child's rehabilitative progress 17765
history and medical and educational records, prepare a written 17766
treatment and rehabilitation plan for the child that includes 17767
conditions of the release;17768

       (2) Completely discuss the conditions of the plan prepared 17769
pursuant to division (F)(1) of this section and the possible 17770
penalties for violation of the plan with the child and the child's 17771
parents, guardian, or legal custodian;17772

       (3) Have the plan prepared pursuant to division (F)(1) of 17773
this section signed by the child, the child's parents, legal 17774
guardian, or custodian, and any authority or person that is to 17775
supervise, control, and provide supportive assistance to the child 17776
at the time of the child's release pursuant to division (C) or (D) 17777
of this section;17778

       (4) Prior to the child's release, file a copy of the 17779
treatment plan prepared pursuant to division (F)(1) of this 17780
section with the committing court and the juvenile court of the 17781
county in which the child is to be placed.17782

       (G) The department of youth services shall file a written 17783
progress report with the committing court regarding each child 17784
released pursuant to division (C) of this section or released 17785
pursuant to division (D) of this section on judicial release to 17786
department supervision at least once every thirty days unless 17787
specifically directed otherwise by the court. The report shall 17788
indicate the treatment and rehabilitative progress of the child 17789
and the child's family, if applicable, and shall include any 17790
suggestions for altering the program, custody, living 17791
arrangements, or treatment. The department shall retain legal 17792
custody of a child so released until it discharges the child or 17793
until the custody is terminated as otherwise provided by law.17794

       (H) When a child is committed to the legal custody of the 17795
department of youth services, the court retains jurisdiction to 17796
perform the functions specified in section 5139.51 of the Revised 17797
Code with respect to the granting of supervised release by the 17798
release authority and to perform the functions specified in 17799
section 5139.52 of the Revised Code with respect to violations of 17800
the conditions of supervised release granted by the release 17801
authority and to the revocation of supervised release granted by 17802
the release authority.17803

       Sec. 2301.01.  There shall be a court of common pleas in each 17804
county held by one or more judges, each of whom has been admitted 17805
to practice as an attorney at law in this state and has, for a 17806
total of at least six years preceding the judge's appointment or 17807
commencement of the judge's term, engaged in the practice of law 17808
in this state or served as a judge of a court of record in any 17809
jurisdiction in the United States, or both, resides in the county, 17810
and is elected by the electors therein. At least two of the years 17811
of practice or service that qualify a judge shall have been in 17812
this state. Each judge shall be elected for six years at the 17813
general election immediately preceding the year in which the term, 17814
as provided in sections 2301.02 and 2301.03 of the Revised Code, 17815
commences, and the judge's successor shall be elected at the 17816
general election immediately preceding the expiration of that 17817
term.17818

       Sec. 2301.27.  (A)(1)(a) The court of common pleas may 17819
establish a county department of probation. The establishment of 17820
the department shall be entered upon the journal of the court, and 17821
the clerk of the court of common pleas shall certify a copy of the 17822
journal entry establishing the department to each elective officer 17823
and board of the county. The department shall consist of a chief 17824
probation officer and the number of other probation officers and 17825
employees, clerks, and stenographers that is fixed from time to 17826
time by the court. The court shall appoint those individuals, fix 17827
their salaries, and supervise their work. 17828

       (b) When appointing a chief probation officer, the court 17829
shall do all of the following:17830

       (i) Publicly advertise the position on the court's web site, 17831
including, but not limited to, the job description, qualifications 17832
for the position, and the application requirements;17833

       (ii) Conduct a competitive hiring process that adheres to 17834
state and federal equal employment opportunity laws;17835

       (iii) Review applicants who meet the posted qualifications 17836
and comply with the application requirements.17837

        (c) The court shall not appoint as a probation officer any 17838
person who does not possess the training, experience, and other 17839
qualifications prescribed by the adult parole authority created by 17840
section 5149.02 of the Revised Code. Probation officers have all 17841
the powers of regular police officers and shall perform any duties 17842
that are designated by the judge or judges of the court. All 17843
positions within the department of probation shall be in the 17844
classified service of the civil service of the county.17845

       (2) If two or more counties desire to jointly establish a 17846
probation department for those counties, the judges of the courts 17847
of common pleas of those counties may establish a probation 17848
department for those counties. If a probation department is 17849
established pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section to serve 17850
more than one county, the judges of the courts of common pleas 17851
that established the department shall designate the county 17852
treasurer of one of the counties served by the department as the 17853
treasurer to whom probation fees paid under section 2951.021 of 17854
the Revised Code are to be appropriated and transferred under 17855
division (A)(2) of section 321.44 of the Revised Code for deposit 17856
into the multicounty probation services fund established under 17857
division (B) of section 321.44 of the Revised Code.17858

       The cost of the administration and operation of a probation 17859
department established for two or more counties shall be prorated 17860
to the respective counties on the basis of population.17861

       (3) Probation officers shall receive, in addition to their 17862
respective salaries, their necessary and reasonable travel and 17863
other expenses incurred in the performance of their duties. Their 17864
salaries and expenses shall be paid monthly from the county 17865
treasury in the manner provided for the payment of the 17866
compensation of other appointees of the court.17867

       (4) ProbationAdult probation officers shall be trained in 17868
accordance with a set of minimum standards that are established by 17869
the adult parole authority of the department of rehabilitation and 17870
correction.17871

       (B)(1) In lieu of establishing a county department of 17872
probation under division (A) of this section and in lieu of 17873
entering into an agreement with the adult parole authority as 17874
described in division (B) of section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, 17875
the court of common pleas may request the board of county 17876
commissioners to contract with, and upon that request the board 17877
may contract with, any nonprofit, public or private agency, 17878
association, or organization for the provision of probation 17879
services and supervisory services for persons placed under 17880
community control sanctions. The contract shall specify that each 17881
individual providing the probation services and supervisory 17882
services shall possess the training, experience, and other 17883
qualifications prescribed by the adult parole authority. The 17884
individuals who provide the probation services and supervisory 17885
services shall not be included in the classified or unclassified 17886
civil service of the county.17887

       (2) In lieu of establishing a county department of probation 17888
under division (A) of this section and in lieu of entering into an 17889
agreement with the adult parole authority as described in division 17890
(B) of section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, the courts of common 17891
pleas of two or more adjoining counties jointly may request the 17892
boards of county commissioners of those counties to contract with, 17893
and upon that request the boards of county commissioners of two or 17894
more adjoining counties jointly may contract with, any nonprofit, 17895
public or private agency, association, or organization for the 17896
provision of probation services and supervisory services for 17897
persons placed under community control sanctions for those 17898
counties. The contract shall specify that each individual 17899
providing the probation services and supervisory services shall 17900
possess the training, experience, and other qualifications 17901
prescribed by the adult parole authority. The individuals who 17902
provide the probation services and supervisory services shall not 17903
be included in the classified or unclassified civil service of any 17904
of those counties.17905

       (C) The chief probation officer may grant permission to a 17906
probation officer to carry firearms when required in the discharge 17907
of official duties if the probation officer has successfully 17908
completed a basic firearm training program that is approved by the 17909
executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission. 17910
A probation officer who has been granted permission to carry a 17911
firearm in the discharge of official duties, annually shall 17912
successfully complete a firearms requalification program in 17913
accordance with section 109.801 of the Revised Code.17914

       (D) As used in this section and sections 2301.28 to 2301.32 17915
of the Revised Code, "community control sanction" has the same 17916
meaning as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.17917

       Sec. 2301.271. (A) The adult parole authority of the 17918
department of rehabilitation and correction shall develop minimum 17919
standards for the training of adult probation officers as provided 17920
by section 2301.27 of the Revised Code. The adult parole authority 17921
shall consult and collaborate with the supreme court in developing 17922
the standards.17923

       (B) Within six months after the effective date of this 17924
sectionSeptember 30, 2011, the department of rehabilitation and 17925
correction shall make available a copy of the minimum standards to 17926
the following entities:17927

       (1) Every municipal court, county court, and court of common 17928
pleas;17929

       (2) Every probation department.17930

       Sec. 2301.571.  (A) A person who has been convicted of or 17931
pleaded guilty to an offense and who is confined in a 17932
community-based correctional facility or district community-based 17933
correctional facility, unless indigent, is financially responsible 17934
for the payment of any medical expense or service requested by and 17935
provided to that person.17936

       (B) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 2929.38 17937
of the Revised Code, the facility governing board of a 17938
community-based correctional facility or district community-based 17939
correctional facility shall establish a policy that requires any 17940
person who is not indigent and who is confined in the correctional 17941
facility to pay for any medical treatment or service requested by 17942
and provided to that person. The fee for the medical treatment or 17943
service shall not exceed the actual cost of the treatment or 17944
service provided. No person confined in a community-based 17945
correctional facility or district community-based correctional 17946
facility shall be denied any necessary medical care because of 17947
inability to pay for medical treatment or service.17948

       (C) Any fee paid by a person underNothing in this section 17949
shall be deducted fromcause a community-based correctional 17950
facility or district community-based correctional facility to be 17951
responsible for the payment of any medical or dental costs that 17952
the person is ordered to reimburse under a financial sanction 17953
imposed pursuant to section 2929.28 of the Revised Code or to 17954
repay under a policy adopted underother health care expenses 17955
incurred in connection with an offender who is serving a term in 17956
the facility pursuant to section 2929.372929.16 of the Revised 17957
Code.17958

       Sec. 2305.01.  Except as otherwise provided by this section 17959
or section 2305.03 of the Revised Code, the court of common pleas 17960
has original jurisdiction in all civil cases in which the sum or 17961
matter in dispute exceeds the exclusive original jurisdiction of 17962
county courts and appellate jurisdiction from the decisions of 17963
boards of county commissioners. The court of common pleas shall 17964
not have jurisdiction, in any tort action to which the amounts 17965
apply, to award punitive or exemplary damages that exceed the 17966
amounts set forth in section 2315.21 of the Revised Code. The 17967
court of common pleas shall not have jurisdiction in any tort 17968
action to which the limits apply to enter judgment on an award of 17969
compensatory damages for noneconomic loss in excess of the limits 17970
set forth in section 2315.18 of the Revised Code.17971

       The court of common pleas may on its own motion transfer for 17972
trial any action in the court to any municipal court in the county 17973
having concurrent jurisdiction of the subject matter of, and the 17974
parties to, the action, if the amount sought by the plaintiff does 17975
not exceed one thousand dollars and if the judge or presiding 17976
judge of the municipal court concurs in the proposed transfer. 17977
Upon the issuance of an order of transfer, the clerk of courts 17978
shall remove to the designated municipal court the entire case 17979
file. Any untaxed portion of the common pleas deposit for court 17980
costs shall be remitted to the municipal court by the clerk of 17981
courts to be applied in accordance with section 1901.26 of the 17982
Revised Code, and the costs taxed by the municipal court shall be 17983
added to any costs taxed in the common pleas court.17984

       The court of common pleas has jurisdiction in any action 17985
brought pursuant to division (I) of section 3733.114781.40 of the 17986
Revised Code if the residential premises that are the subject of 17987
the action are located within the territorial jurisdiction of the 17988
court.17989

       The courts of common pleas of Adams, Athens, Belmont, Brown, 17990
Clermont, Columbiana, Gallia, Hamilton, Jefferson, Lawrence, 17991
Meigs, Monroe, Scioto, and Washington counties have jurisdiction 17992
beyond the north or northwest shore of the Ohio river extending to 17993
the opposite shore line, between the extended boundary lines of 17994
any adjacent counties or adjacent state. Each of those courts of 17995
common pleas has concurrent jurisdiction on the Ohio river with 17996
any adjacent court of common pleas that borders on that river and 17997
with any court of Kentucky or of West Virginia that borders on the 17998
Ohio river and that has jurisdiction on the Ohio river under the 17999
law of Kentucky or the law of West Virginia, whichever is 18000
applicable, or under federal law.18001

       Sec. 2307.89. The following apply to all tort actions for 18002
silicosis or mixed dust disease claims brought against a premises 18003
owner to recover damages or other relief for exposure to silica or 18004
mixed dust on the premises owner's property:18005

       (A) A premises owner is not liable for any injury to any 18006
individual resulting from silica or mixed dust exposure unless 18007
that individual's alleged exposure occurred while the individual 18008
was at the premises owner's property.18009

       (B) If exposure to silica or mixed dust is alleged to have 18010
occurred before January 1, 1972, it is presumed that a premises 18011
owner knew that this state had adopted safe levels of exposure for 18012
silica or mixed dust and that products containing silica or mixed 18013
dust were used on its property only at levels below those safe 18014
levels of exposure. To rebut this presumption, the plaintiff must 18015
prove by a preponderance of the evidence that the premises owner 18016
knew or should have known that the levels of silica or mixed dust 18017
in the immediate breathing zone of the plaintiff regularly 18018
exceeded the threshold limit values adopted by this state and that 18019
the premises owner allowed that condition to persist.18020

       (C)(1) A premises owner is presumed to be not liable for any 18021
injury to any invitee who was engaged to work with, install, or 18022
remove products containing silica or mixed dust on the premises 18023
owner's property if the invitee's employer held itself out as 18024
qualified to perform the work. To rebut this presumption, the 18025
plaintiff must demonstrate by a preponderance of the evidence that 18026
the premises owner had actual knowledge of the potential dangers 18027
of the products containing silica or mixed dust at the time of the 18028
alleged exposure that was superior to the knowledge of both the 18029
invitee and the invitee's employer.18030

       (2) A premises owner that hired a contractor before January 18031
1, 1972, to perform the type of work at the premises owner's 18032
property that the contractor was qualified to perform cannot be 18033
liable for any injury to any individual resulting from silica or 18034
mixed dust exposure caused by any of the contractor's employees or 18035
agents on the premises owner's property unless the premises owner 18036
directed the activity that resulted in the injury or gave or 18037
denied permission for the critical acts that led to the 18038
individual's injury.18039

       (3) If exposure to silica or mixed dust is alleged to have 18040
occurred after January 1, 1972, a premises owner is not liable for 18041
any injury to any individual resulting from that exposure caused 18042
by a contractor's employee or agent on the premises owner's 18043
property unless the plaintiff establishes the premises owner's 18044
intentional violation of an established safety standard that was 18045
in effect at the time of the exposure and that the alleged 18046
violation was in the plaintiff's breathing zone and was the 18047
proximate cause of the plaintiff's medical condition.18048

       (D) As used in this section:18049

       (1) "Threshold limit values" means the maximum allowable 18050
concentration of silica, or other dust, set forth in regulation 18051
247 of the "regulations for the prevention and control of diseases 18052
resulting from exposure to toxic fumes, vapors, mists, gases, and 18053
dusts in order to preserve and protect the public health," as 18054
adopted by the former public health council of the department of 18055
health on January 1, 1947, and set forth by the industrial 18056
commission of Ohio in bulletin no. 203, "specific requirements and 18057
general safety standards of the industrial commission of Ohio for 18058
work shops and factories, chapter XV, ventilation and exhausts," 18059
effective January 3, 1955.18060

       (2) "Established safety standard" means that, for the years 18061
after 1971, the concentration of silica or mixed dust in the 18062
breathing zone of the worker does not exceed the maximum allowable 18063
exposure limits for the eight-hour time-weighted average airborne 18064
concentration as promulgated by the occupational safety and health 18065
administration (OSHA) in effect at the time of the alleged 18066
exposure.18067

       (3) "Employee" means an individual who performs labor or 18068
provides construction services pursuant to a construction 18069
contract, as defined in section 4123.79 of the Revised Code, or a 18070
remodeling or repair contract, whether written or oral, if at 18071
least ten of the following criteria apply:18072

       (a) The individual is required to comply with instructions 18073
from the other contracting party regarding the manner or method of 18074
performing services.18075

       (b) The individual is required by the other contracting party 18076
to have particular training.18077

       (c) The individual's services are integrated into the regular 18078
functioning of the other contracting party.18079

       (d) The individual is required to perform the work 18080
personally.18081

       (e) The individual is hired, supervised, or paid by the other 18082
contracting party.18083

       (f) A continuing relationship exists between the individual 18084
and the other contracting party that contemplates continuing or 18085
recurring work even if the work is not full time.18086

       (g) The individual's hours of work are established by the 18087
other contracting party.18088

       (h) The individual is required to devote full time to the 18089
business of the other contracting party.18090

       (i) The individual is required to perform the work on the 18091
premises of the other contracting party.18092

       (j) The individual is required to follow the order of work 18093
set by the other contracting party.18094

       (k) The individual is required to make oral or written 18095
reports of progress to the other contracting party.18096

       (l) The individual is paid for services on a regular basis, 18097
including hourly, weekly, or monthly.18098

       (m) The individual's expenses are paid for by the other 18099
contracting party.18100

       (n) The individual's tools and materials are furnished by the 18101
other contracting party.18102

       (o) The individual is provided with the facilities used to 18103
perform services.18104

       (p) The individual does not realize a profit or suffer a loss 18105
as a result of the services provided.18106

       (q) The individual is not performing services for a number of 18107
employers at the same time.18108

       (r) The individual does not make the same services available 18109
to the general public.18110

       (s) The other contracting party has a right to discharge the 18111
individual.18112

       (t) The individual has the right to end the relationship with 18113
the other contracting party without incurring liability pursuant 18114
to an employment contract or agreement.18115

       Sec. 2317.02.  The following persons shall not testify in 18116
certain respects:18117

       (A)(1) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 18118
attorney by a client in that relation or the attorney's advice to 18119
a client, except that the attorney may testify by express consent 18120
of the client or, if the client is deceased, by the express 18121
consent of the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator 18122
of the estate of the deceased client. However, if the client 18123
voluntarily testifies or is deemed by section 2151.421 of the 18124
Revised Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this 18125
division, the attorney may be compelled to testify on the same 18126
subject.18127

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 18128
does not apply concerning a communication between a client who has 18129
since died and the deceased client's attorney if the communication 18130
is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that 18131
deceased client, regardless of whether the claims are by testate 18132
or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction, and the 18133
dispute addresses the competency of the deceased client when the 18134
deceased client executed a document that is the basis of the 18135
dispute or whether the deceased client was a victim of fraud, 18136
undue influence, or duress when the deceased client executed a 18137
document that is the basis of the dispute.18138

       (2) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 18139
attorney by a client in that relationship or the attorney's advice 18140
to a client, except that if the client is an insurance company, 18141
the attorney may be compelled to testify, subject to an in camera 18142
inspection by a court, about communications made by the client to 18143
the attorney or by the attorney to the client that are related to 18144
the attorney's aiding or furthering an ongoing or future 18145
commission of bad faith by the client, if the party seeking 18146
disclosure of the communications has made a prima-facie showing of 18147
bad faith, fraud, or criminal misconduct by the client.18148

       (B)(1) A physician or a dentist concerning a communication 18149
made to the physician or dentist by a patient in that relation or 18150
the physician's or dentist's advice to a patient, except as 18151
otherwise provided in this division, division (B)(2), and division 18152
(B)(3) of this section, and except that, if the patient is deemed 18153
by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any 18154
testimonial privilege under this division, the physician may be 18155
compelled to testify on the same subject.18156

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 18157
does not apply, and a physician or dentist may testify or may be 18158
compelled to testify, in any of the following circumstances:18159

       (a) In any civil action, in accordance with the discovery 18160
provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a 18161
civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of 18162
the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:18163

       (i) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 18164
representative of the patient gives express consent;18165

       (ii) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 18166
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 18167
express consent;18168

       (iii) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, 18169
or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 18170
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 18171
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 18172
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 18173
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 18174
representative.18175

       (b) In any civil action concerning court-ordered treatment or 18176
services received by a patient, if the court-ordered treatment or 18177
services were ordered as part of a case plan journalized under 18178
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code or the court-ordered 18179
treatment or services are necessary or relevant to dependency, 18180
neglect, or abuse or temporary or permanent custody proceedings 18181
under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code.18182

       (c) In any criminal action concerning any test or the results 18183
of any test that determines the presence or concentration of 18184
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 18185
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 18186
patient's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or 18187
other bodily substance at any time relevant to the criminal 18188
offense in question.18189

       (d) In any criminal action against a physician or dentist. In 18190
such an action, the testimonial privilege established under this 18191
division does not prohibit the admission into evidence, in 18192
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, of a patient's medical or 18193
dental records or other communications between a patient and the 18194
physician or dentist that are related to the action and obtained 18195
by subpoena, search warrant, or other lawful means. A court that 18196
permits or compels a physician or dentist to testify in such an 18197
action or permits the introduction into evidence of patient 18198
records or other communications in such an action shall require 18199
that appropriate measures be taken to ensure that the 18200
confidentiality of any patient named or otherwise identified in 18201
the records is maintained. Measures to ensure confidentiality that 18202
may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting 18203
specific information from its records.18204

       (e)(i) If the communication was between a patient who has 18205
since died and the deceased patient's physician or dentist, the 18206
communication is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim 18207
through that deceased patient, regardless of whether the claims 18208
are by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos 18209
transaction, and the dispute addresses the competency of the 18210
deceased patient when the deceased patient executed a document 18211
that is the basis of the dispute or whether the deceased patient 18212
was a victim of fraud, undue influence, or duress when the 18213
deceased patient executed a document that is the basis of the 18214
dispute.18215

       (ii) If neither the spouse of a patient nor the executor or 18216
administrator of that patient's estate gives consent under 18217
division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section, testimony or the 18218
disclosure of the patient's medical records by a physician, 18219
dentist, or other health care provider under division (B)(1)(e)(i) 18220
of this section is a permitted use or disclosure of protected 18221
health information, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, and an 18222
authorization or opportunity to be heard shall not be required.18223

       (iii) Division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section does not require 18224
a mental health professional to disclose psychotherapy notes, as 18225
defined in 45 C.F.R. 164.501.18226

       (iv) An interested person who objects to testimony or 18227
disclosure under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section may seek a 18228
protective order pursuant to Civil Rule 26.18229

       (v) A person to whom protected health information is 18230
disclosed under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section shall not 18231
use or disclose the protected health information for any purpose 18232
other than the litigation or proceeding for which the information 18233
was requested and shall return the protected health information to 18234
the covered entity or destroy the protected health information, 18235
including all copies made, at the conclusion of the litigation or 18236
proceeding.18237

       (2)(a) If any law enforcement officer submits a written 18238
statement to a health care provider that states that an official 18239
criminal investigation has begun regarding a specified person or 18240
that a criminal action or proceeding has been commenced against a 18241
specified person, that requests the provider to supply to the 18242
officer copies of any records the provider possesses that pertain 18243
to any test or the results of any test administered to the 18244
specified person to determine the presence or concentration of 18245
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 18246
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 18247
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine at 18248
any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, and that 18249
conforms to section 2317.022 of the Revised Code, the provider, 18250
except to the extent specifically prohibited by any law of this 18251
state or of the United States, shall supply to the officer a copy 18252
of any of the requested records the provider possesses. If the 18253
health care provider does not possess any of the requested 18254
records, the provider shall give the officer a written statement 18255
that indicates that the provider does not possess any of the 18256
requested records.18257

       (b) If a health care provider possesses any records of the 18258
type described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section regarding the 18259
person in question at any time relevant to the criminal offense in 18260
question, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of 18261
the test in question, the custodian of the records may submit a 18262
certified copy of the records, and, upon its submission, the 18263
certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be 18264
admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. 18265
Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not 18266
apply to any certified copy of records submitted in accordance 18267
with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to 18268
limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who 18269
administered the test to which the records pertain, the person 18270
under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian 18271
of the records, the person who made the records, or the person 18272
under whose supervision the records were made.18273

       (3)(a) If the testimonial privilege described in division 18274
(B)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division 18275
(B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, a physician or dentist may be 18276
compelled to testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of 18277
Civil Procedure only as to a communication made to the physician 18278
or dentist by the patient in question in that relation, or the 18279
physician's or dentist's advice to the patient in question, that 18280
related causally or historically to physical or mental injuries 18281
that are relevant to issues in the medical claim, dental claim, 18282
chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action for wrongful 18283
death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the 18284
Revised Code.18285

       (b) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) 18286
of this section does not apply to a physician or dentist as 18287
provided in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the physician or 18288
dentist, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the 18289
test in question, may submit a certified copy of those results, 18290
and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as 18291
authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance 18292
with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of 18293
the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of results 18294
submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this 18295
division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to 18296
call as a witness the person who administered the test in 18297
question, the person under whose supervision the test was 18298
administered, the custodian of the results of the test, the person 18299
who compiled the results, or the person under whose supervision 18300
the results were compiled.18301

       (4) The testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of 18302
this section is not waived when a communication is made by a 18303
physician to a pharmacist or when there is communication between a 18304
patient and a pharmacist in furtherance of the physician-patient 18305
relation.18306

       (5)(a) As used in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section, 18307
"communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any 18308
information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or 18309
statements necessary to enable a physician or dentist to diagnose, 18310
treat, prescribe, or act for a patient. A "communication" may 18311
include, but is not limited to, any medical or dental, office, or 18312
hospital communication such as a record, chart, letter, 18313
memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, 18314
financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.18315

       (b) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "health care 18316
provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-term 18317
care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care 18318
practitioner.18319

       (c) As used in division (B)(5)(b) of this section:18320

       (i) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 18321
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 18322
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 18323
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 18324
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 18325
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 18326
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 18327
"Ambulatory health care facility" does not include the private 18328
office of a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an 18329
individual or group practice.18330

       (ii) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 18331
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 18332
services.18333

       (iii) "Health care practitioner" has the same meaning as in 18334
section 4769.01 of the Revised Code.18335

       (iv) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 18336
the Revised Code.18337

       (v) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 18338
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 18339
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; an adult care18340
a residential facility, as defined inlicensed under section 18341
5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 18342
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 18343
unrelated adults; a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 18344
for the mentally retarded, as those terms are defined in section 18345
5111.20 of the Revised Code; a facility or portion of a facility 18346
certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the 18347
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as 18348
amended.18349

       (vi) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 18350
the Revised Code.18351

       (d) As used in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, 18352
"drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 4506.01 of the 18353
Revised Code.18354

       (6) Divisions (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this section 18355
apply to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathic medicine, 18356
doctors of podiatry, and dentists.18357

       (7) Nothing in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section 18358
affects, or shall be construed as affecting, the immunity from 18359
civil liability conferred by section 307.628 of the Revised Code 18360
or the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 18361
of the Revised Code upon physicians who report an employee's use 18362
of a drug of abuse, or a condition of an employee other than one 18363
involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the 18364
employee in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used 18365
in division (B)(7) of this section, "employee," "employer," and 18366
"physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the 18367
Revised Code.18368

       (C)(1) A cleric, when the cleric remains accountable to the 18369
authority of that cleric's church, denomination, or sect, 18370
concerning a confession made, or any information confidentially 18371
communicated, to the cleric for a religious counseling purpose in 18372
the cleric's professional character. The cleric may testify by 18373
express consent of the person making the communication, except 18374
when the disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 18375
trust and except that, if the person voluntarily testifies or is 18376
deemed by division (A)(4)(c) of section 2151.421 of the Revised 18377
Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, 18378
the cleric may be compelled to testify on the same subject except 18379
when disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 18380
trust.18381

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section:18382

        (a) "Cleric" means a member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, 18383
Christian Science practitioner, or regularly ordained, accredited, 18384
or licensed minister of an established and legally cognizable 18385
church, denomination, or sect.18386

        (b) "Sacred trust" means a confession or confidential 18387
communication made to a cleric in the cleric's ecclesiastical 18388
capacity in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to 18389
which the cleric belongs, including, but not limited to, the 18390
Catholic Church, if both of the following apply:18391

        (i) The confession or confidential communication was made 18392
directly to the cleric.18393

        (ii) The confession or confidential communication was made in 18394
the manner and context that places the cleric specifically and 18395
strictly under a level of confidentiality that is considered 18396
inviolate by canon law or church doctrine.18397

       (D) Husband or wife, concerning any communication made by one 18398
to the other, or an act done by either in the presence of the 18399
other, during coverture, unless the communication was made, or act 18400
done, in the known presence or hearing of a third person competent 18401
to be a witness; and such rule is the same if the marital relation 18402
has ceased to exist;18403

       (E) A person who assigns a claim or interest, concerning any 18404
matter in respect to which the person would not, if a party, be 18405
permitted to testify;18406

       (F) A person who, if a party, would be restricted under 18407
section 2317.03 of the Revised Code, when the property or thing is 18408
sold or transferred by an executor, administrator, guardian, 18409
trustee, heir, devisee, or legatee, shall be restricted in the 18410
same manner in any action or proceeding concerning the property or 18411
thing.18412

       (G)(1) A school guidance counselor who holds a valid educator 18413
license from the state board of education as provided for in 18414
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code, a person licensed under 18415
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a professional clinical 18416
counselor, professional counselor, social worker, independent 18417
social worker, marriage and family therapist or independent 18418
marriage and family therapist, or registered under Chapter 4757. 18419
of the Revised Code as a social work assistant concerning a 18420
confidential communication received from a client in that relation 18421
or the person's advice to a client unless any of the following 18422
applies:18423

       (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 18424
danger to the client or other persons. For the purposes of this 18425
division, cases in which there are indications of present or past 18426
child abuse or neglect of the client constitute a clear and 18427
present danger.18428

       (b) The client gives express consent to the testimony.18429

       (c) If the client is deceased, the surviving spouse or the 18430
executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client 18431
gives express consent.18432

       (d) The client voluntarily testifies, in which case the 18433
school guidance counselor or person licensed or registered under 18434
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code may be compelled to testify on 18435
the same subject.18436

       (e) The court in camera determines that the information 18437
communicated by the client is not germane to the counselor-client, 18438
marriage and family therapist-client, or social worker-client 18439
relationship.18440

       (f) A court, in an action brought against a school, its 18441
administration, or any of its personnel by the client, rules after 18442
an in-camera inspection that the testimony of the school guidance 18443
counselor is relevant to that action.18444

       (g) The testimony is sought in a civil action and concerns 18445
court-ordered treatment or services received by a patient as part 18446
of a case plan journalized under section 2151.412 of the Revised 18447
Code or the court-ordered treatment or services are necessary or 18448
relevant to dependency, neglect, or abuse or temporary or 18449
permanent custody proceedings under Chapter 2151. of the Revised 18450
Code.18451

       (2) Nothing in division (G)(1) of this section shall relieve 18452
a school guidance counselor or a person licensed or registered 18453
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code from the requirement to 18454
report information concerning child abuse or neglect under section 18455
2151.421 of the Revised Code.18456

       (H) A mediator acting under a mediation order issued under 18457
division (A) of section 3109.052 of the Revised Code or otherwise 18458
issued in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal 18459
separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and 18460
responsibilities for the care of children, in any action or 18461
proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child abuse, child 18462
neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding, that is brought 18463
by or against either parent who takes part in mediation in 18464
accordance with the order and that pertains to the mediation 18465
process, to any information discussed or presented in the 18466
mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and 18467
responsibilities for the care of the parents' children, or to the 18468
awarding of parenting time rights in relation to their children;18469

       (I) A communications assistant, acting within the scope of 18470
the communication assistant's authority, when providing 18471
telecommunications relay service pursuant to section 4931.06 of 18472
the Revised Code or Title II of the "Communications Act of 1934," 18473
104 Stat. 366 (1990), 47 U.S.C. 225, concerning a communication 18474
made through a telecommunications relay service. Nothing in this 18475
section shall limit the obligation of a communications assistant 18476
to divulge information or testify when mandated by federal law or 18477
regulation or pursuant to subpoena in a criminal proceeding.18478

       Nothing in this section shall limit any immunity or privilege 18479
granted under federal law or regulation.18480

       (J)(1) A chiropractor in a civil proceeding concerning a 18481
communication made to the chiropractor by a patient in that 18482
relation or the chiropractor's advice to a patient, except as 18483
otherwise provided in this division. The testimonial privilege 18484
established under this division does not apply, and a chiropractor 18485
may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any civil action, 18486
in accordance with the discovery provisions of the Rules of Civil 18487
Procedure in connection with a civil action, or in connection with 18488
a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, under any of the 18489
following circumstances:18490

       (a) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 18491
representative of the patient gives express consent.18492

       (b) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 18493
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 18494
express consent.18495

       (c) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or 18496
optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 18497
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 18498
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 18499
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 18500
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 18501
representative.18502

       (2) If the testimonial privilege described in division (J)(1) 18503
of this section does not apply as provided in division (J)(1)(c) 18504
of this section, a chiropractor may be compelled to testify or to 18505
submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as to 18506
a communication made to the chiropractor by the patient in 18507
question in that relation, or the chiropractor's advice to the 18508
patient in question, that related causally or historically to 18509
physical or mental injuries that are relevant to issues in the 18510
medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric 18511
claim, action for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim 18512
under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.18513

       (3) The testimonial privilege established under this division 18514
does not apply, and a chiropractor may testify or be compelled to 18515
testify, in any criminal action or administrative proceeding.18516

       (4) As used in this division, "communication" means 18517
acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any 18518
manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary to 18519
enable a chiropractor to diagnose, treat, or act for a patient. A 18520
communication may include, but is not limited to, any 18521
chiropractic, office, or hospital communication such as a record, 18522
chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, 18523
photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.18524

       (K)(1) Except as provided under division (K)(2) of this 18525
section, a critical incident stress management team member 18526
concerning a communication received from an individual who 18527
receives crisis response services from the team member, or the 18528
team member's advice to the individual, during a debriefing 18529
session.18530

        (2) The testimonial privilege established under division 18531
(K)(1) of this section does not apply if any of the following are 18532
true:18533

        (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 18534
danger to the individual who receives crisis response services or 18535
to other persons. For purposes of this division, cases in which 18536
there are indications of present or past child abuse or neglect of 18537
the individual constitute a clear and present danger.18538

        (b) The individual who received crisis response services 18539
gives express consent to the testimony.18540

       (c) If the individual who received crisis response services 18541
is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator 18542
of the estate of the deceased individual gives express consent.18543

        (d) The individual who received crisis response services 18544
voluntarily testifies, in which case the team member may be 18545
compelled to testify on the same subject.18546

        (e) The court in camera determines that the information 18547
communicated by the individual who received crisis response 18548
services is not germane to the relationship between the individual 18549
and the team member.18550

       (f) The communication or advice pertains or is related to any 18551
criminal act.18552

       (3) As used in division (K) of this section:18553

       (a) "Crisis response services" means consultation, risk 18554
assessment, referral, and on-site crisis intervention services 18555
provided by a critical incident stress management team to 18556
individuals affected by crisis or disaster.18557

       (b) "Critical incident stress management team member" or 18558
"team member" means an individual specially trained to provide 18559
crisis response services as a member of an organized community or 18560
local crisis response team that holds membership in the Ohio 18561
critical incident stress management network.18562

       (c) "Debriefing session" means a session at which crisis 18563
response services are rendered by a critical incident stress 18564
management team member during or after a crisis or disaster.18565

       (L)(1) Subject to division (L)(2) of this section and except 18566
as provided in division (L)(3) of this section, an employee 18567
assistance professional, concerning a communication made to the 18568
employee assistance professional by a client in the employee 18569
assistance professional's official capacity as an employee 18570
assistance professional.18571

        (2) Division (L)(1) of this section applies to an employee 18572
assistance professional who meets either or both of the following 18573
requirements:18574

        (a) Is certified by the employee assistance certification 18575
commission to engage in the employee assistance profession;18576

        (b) Has education, training, and experience in all of the 18577
following:18578

        (i) Providing workplace-based services designed to address 18579
employer and employee productivity issues;18580

        (ii) Providing assistance to employees and employees' 18581
dependents in identifying and finding the means to resolve 18582
personal problems that affect the employees or the employees' 18583
performance;18584

       (iii) Identifying and resolving productivity problems 18585
associated with an employee's concerns about any of the following 18586
matters: health, marriage, family, finances, substance abuse or 18587
other addiction, workplace, law, and emotional issues;18588

       (iv) Selecting and evaluating available community resources;18589

        (v) Making appropriate referrals;18590

        (vi) Local and national employee assistance agreements;18591

        (vii) Client confidentiality.18592

        (3) Division (L)(1) of this section does not apply to any of 18593
the following:18594

        (a) A criminal action or proceeding involving an offense 18595
under sections 2903.01 to 2903.06 of the Revised Code if the 18596
employee assistance professional's disclosure or testimony relates 18597
directly to the facts or immediate circumstances of the offense;18598

        (b) A communication made by a client to an employee 18599
assistance professional that reveals the contemplation or 18600
commission of a crime or serious, harmful act;18601

        (c) A communication that is made by a client who is an 18602
unemancipated minor or an adult adjudicated to be incompetent and 18603
indicates that the client was the victim of a crime or abuse;18604

       (d) A civil proceeding to determine an individual's mental 18605
competency or a criminal action in which a plea of not guilty by 18606
reason of insanity is entered;18607

        (e) A civil or criminal malpractice action brought against 18608
the employee assistance professional;18609

        (f) When the employee assistance professional has the express 18610
consent of the client or, if the client is deceased or disabled, 18611
the client's legal representative;18612

        (g) When the testimonial privilege otherwise provided by 18613
division (L)(1) of this section is abrogated under law.18614

       Sec. 2317.422.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 2317.40 and 18615
2317.41 of the Revised Code but subject to division (B) of this 18616
section, the records, or copies or photographs of the records, of 18617
a hospital, homes required to be licensed pursuant to section 18618
3721.01 of the Revised Code, and adult careresidential facilities 18619
required to be licensed pursuant to Chapter 5119.section 5119.2218620
of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 18621
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, in 18622
lieu of the testimony in open court of their custodian, person who 18623
made them, or person under whose supervision they were made, may 18624
be qualified as authentic evidence if any such person endorses 18625
thereon the person's verified certification identifying such 18626
records, giving the mode and time of their preparation, and 18627
stating that they were prepared in the usual course of the 18628
business of the institution. Such records, copies, or photographs 18629
may not be qualified by certification as provided in this section 18630
unless the party intending to offer them delivers a copy of them, 18631
or of their relevant portions, to the attorney of record for each 18632
adverse party not less than five days before trial. Nothing in 18633
this section shall be construed to limit the right of any party to 18634
call the custodian, person who made such records, or person under 18635
whose supervision they were made, as a witness.18636

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any 18637
certified copy of the results of any test given to determine the 18638
presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a 18639
combination of them, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a 18640
controlled substance in a patient's whole blood, blood serum or 18641
plasma, breath, or urine at any time relevant to a criminal 18642
offense that is submitted in a criminal action or proceeding in 18643
accordance with division (B)(2)(b) or (B)(3)(b) of section 2317.02 18644
of the Revised Code.18645

       Sec. 2317.56.  (A) As used in this section:18646

       (1) "Medical emergency" means a condition of a pregnant woman 18647
that, in the reasonable judgment of the physician who is attending 18648
the woman, creates an immediate threat of serious risk to the life 18649
or physical health of the woman from the continuation of the 18650
pregnancy necessitating the immediate performance or inducement of 18651
an abortion.18652

       (2) "Medical necessity" means a medical condition of a 18653
pregnant woman that, in the reasonable judgment of the physician 18654
who is attending the woman, so complicates the pregnancy that it 18655
necessitates the immediate performance or inducement of an 18656
abortion.18657

       (3) "Probable gestational age of the embryo or fetus" means 18658
the gestational age that, in the judgment of a physician, is, with 18659
reasonable probability, the gestational age of the embryo or fetus 18660
at the time that the physician informs a pregnant woman pursuant 18661
to division (B)(1)(b) of this section.18662

       (B) Except when there is a medical emergency or medical 18663
necessity, an abortion shall be performed or induced only if all 18664
of the following conditions are satisfied:18665

       (1) At least twenty-four hours prior to the performance or 18666
inducement of the abortion, a physician meets with the pregnant 18667
woman in person in an individual, private setting and gives her an 18668
adequate opportunity to ask questions about the abortion that will 18669
be performed or induced. At this meeting, the physician shall 18670
inform the pregnant woman, verbally or, if she is hearing 18671
impaired, by other means of communication, of all of the 18672
following:18673

       (a) The nature and purpose of the particular abortion 18674
procedure to be used and the medical risks associated with that 18675
procedure;18676

       (b) The probable gestational age of the embryo or fetus;18677

       (c) The medical risks associated with the pregnant woman 18678
carrying the pregnancy to term.18679

       The meeting need not occur at the facility where the abortion 18680
is to be performed or induced, and the physician involved in the 18681
meeting need not be affiliated with that facility or with the 18682
physician who is scheduled to perform or induce the abortion.18683

       (2) At least twenty-four hours prior to the performance or 18684
inducement of the abortion, one or more physicians or one or more 18685
agents of one or more physicians do each of the following in 18686
person, by telephone, by certified mail, return receipt requested, 18687
or by regular mail evidenced by a certificate of mailing:18688

       (a) Inform the pregnant woman of the name of the physician 18689
who is scheduled to perform or induce the abortion;18690

       (b) Give the pregnant woman copies of the published materials 18691
described in division (C) of this section;18692

       (c) Inform the pregnant woman that the materials given 18693
pursuant to division (B)(2)(b) of this section are provided18694
published by the state and that they describe the embryo or fetus 18695
and list agencies that offer alternatives to abortion. The 18696
pregnant woman may choose to examine or not to examine the 18697
materials. A physician or an agent of a physician may choose to be 18698
disassociated from the materials and may choose to comment or not 18699
comment on the materials.18700

       (3) Prior to the performance or inducement of the abortion, 18701
the pregnant woman signs a form consenting to the abortion and 18702
certifies both of the following on that form:18703

       (a) She has received the information and materials described 18704
in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, and her questions 18705
about the abortion that will be performed or induced have been 18706
answered in a satisfactory manner.18707

       (b) She consents to the particular abortion voluntarily, 18708
knowingly, intelligently, and without coercion by any person, and 18709
she is not under the influence of any drug of abuse or alcohol.18710

       (4) Prior to the performance or inducement of the abortion, 18711
the physician who is scheduled to perform or induce the abortion 18712
or the physician's agent receives a copy of the pregnant woman's 18713
signed form on which she consents to the abortion and that 18714
includes the certification required by division (B)(3) of this 18715
section.18716

       (C) The department of health shall cause to be published18717
publish in English and in Spanish, in a typeface large enough to 18718
be clearly legible, and in an easily comprehensible format, the 18719
following materials on the department's web site:18720

       (1) Materials that inform the pregnant woman about family 18721
planning information, of publicly funded agencies that are 18722
available to assist in family planning, and of public and private 18723
agencies and services that are available to assist her through the 18724
pregnancy, upon childbirth, and while the child is dependent, 18725
including, but not limited to, adoption agencies. The materials 18726
shall be geographically indexed; include a comprehensive list of 18727
the available agencies, a description of the services offered by 18728
the agencies, and the telephone numbers and addresses of the 18729
agencies; and inform the pregnant woman about available medical 18730
assistance benefits for prenatal care, childbirth, and neonatal 18731
care and about the support obligations of the father of a child 18732
who is born alive. The department shall ensure that the materials 18733
described in division (C)(1) of this section are comprehensive and 18734
do not directly or indirectly promote, exclude, or discourage the 18735
use of any agency or service described in this division.18736

       (2) Materials that inform the pregnant woman of the probable 18737
anatomical and physiological characteristics of the zygote, 18738
blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at two-week gestational increments 18739
for the first sixteen weeks of pregnancy and at four-week 18740
gestational increments from the seventeenth week of pregnancy to 18741
full term, including any relevant information regarding the time 18742
at which the fetus possibly would be viable. The department shall 18743
cause these materials to be published only after it consults with 18744
the Ohio state medical association and the Ohio section of the 18745
American college of obstetricians and gynecologists relative to 18746
the probable anatomical and physiological characteristics of a 18747
zygote, blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at the various gestational 18748
increments. The materials shall use language that is 18749
understandable by the average person who is not medically trained, 18750
shall be objective and nonjudgmental, and shall include only 18751
accurate scientific information about the zygote, blastocyte, 18752
embryo, or fetus at the various gestational increments. If the 18753
materials use a pictorial, photographic, or other depiction to 18754
provide information regarding the zygote, blastocyte, embryo, or 18755
fetus, the materials shall include, in a conspicuous manner, a 18756
scale or other explanation that is understandable by the average 18757
person and that can be used to determine the actual size of the 18758
zygote, blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at a particular gestational 18759
increment as contrasted with the depicted size of the zygote, 18760
blastocyte, embryo, or fetus at that gestational increment.18761

       (D) Upon the submission of a request to the department of 18762
health by any person, hospital, physician, or medical facility for 18763
one or more copiescopy of the materials published in accordance 18764
with division (C) of this section, the department shall make the 18765
requested number of copiescopy of the materials available to the 18766
person, hospital, physician, or medical facility that requested 18767
the copiescopy.18768

       (E) If a medical emergency or medical necessity compels the 18769
performance or inducement of an abortion, the physician who will 18770
perform or induce the abortion, prior to its performance or 18771
inducement if possible, shall inform the pregnant woman of the 18772
medical indications supporting the physician's judgment that an 18773
immediate abortion is necessary. Any physician who performs or 18774
induces an abortion without the prior satisfaction of the 18775
conditions specified in division (B) of this section because of a 18776
medical emergency or medical necessity shall enter the reasons for 18777
the conclusion that a medical emergency or medical necessity 18778
exists in the medical record of the pregnant woman.18779

       (F) If the conditions specified in division (B) of this 18780
section are satisfied, consent to an abortion shall be presumed to 18781
be valid and effective.18782

       (G) The performance or inducement of an abortion without the 18783
prior satisfaction of the conditions specified in division (B) of 18784
this section does not constitute, and shall not be construed as 18785
constituting, a violation of division (A) of section 2919.12 of 18786
the Revised Code. The failure of a physician to satisfy the 18787
conditions of division (B) of this section prior to performing or 18788
inducing an abortion upon a pregnant woman may be the basis of 18789
both of the following:18790

       (1) A civil action for compensatory and exemplary damages as 18791
described in division (H) of this section;18792

       (2) Disciplinary action under section 4731.22 of the Revised 18793
Code.18794

       (H)(1) Subject to divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section, 18795
any physician who performs or induces an abortion with actual 18796
knowledge that the conditions specified in division (B) of this 18797
section have not been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as 18798
to whether those conditions have been satisfied is liable in 18799
compensatory and exemplary damages in a civil action to any 18800
person, or the representative of the estate of any person, who 18801
sustains injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result 18802
of the failure to satisfy those conditions. In the civil action, 18803
the court additionally may enter any injunctive or other equitable 18804
relief that it considers appropriate.18805

       (2) The following shall be affirmative defenses in a civil 18806
action authorized by division (H)(1) of this section:18807

       (a) The physician performed or induced the abortion under the 18808
circumstances described in division (E) of this section.18809

       (b) The physician made a good faith effort to satisfy the 18810
conditions specified in division (B) of this section.18811

       (c) The physician or an agent of the physician requested 18812
copies of the materials published in accordance with division (C) 18813
of this section from the department of health, but the physician 18814
was not able to give a pregnant woman copies of the materials 18815
pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section and to obtain a 18816
certification as described in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of this 18817
section because the department failed to make the requested number 18818
of copies available to the physician or agent in accordance with 18819
division (D) of this section.18820

       (3) An employer or other principal is not liable in damages 18821
in a civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of this section on 18822
the basis of the doctrine of respondeat superior unless either of 18823
the following applies:18824

       (a) The employer or other principal had actual knowledge or, 18825
by the exercise of reasonable diligence, should have known that an 18826
employee or agent performed or induced an abortion with actual 18827
knowledge that the conditions specified in division (B) of this 18828
section had not been satisfied or with a heedless indifference as 18829
to whether those conditions had been satisfied.18830

       (b) The employer or other principal negligently failed to 18831
secure the compliance of an employee or agent with division (B) of 18832
this section.18833

       (4) Notwithstanding division (E) of section 2919.12 of the 18834
Revised Code, the civil action authorized by division (H)(1) of 18835
this section shall be the exclusive civil remedy for persons, or 18836
the representatives of estates of persons, who allegedly sustain 18837
injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result of a 18838
failure to satisfy the conditions specified in division (B) of 18839
this section.18840

       (I) The department of job and family services shall prepare 18841
and conduct a public information program to inform women of all 18842
available governmental programs and agencies that provide services 18843
or assistance for family planning, prenatal care, child care, or 18844
alternatives to abortion.18845

       Sec. 2329.192.  (A) As used in this section:18846

       (1) "State lien" means a lien upon real estate, including 18847
lands and tenements, indebted to the state for debt, taxes, or in 18848
any other manner recorded by a state agency in any office of the 18849
clerk of a county court or the county recorder.18850

       (2) "State lienholder" means the department, agency, or other 18851
division of the state in whose name a state lien has been filed or 18852
recorded.18853

       (B) In every action seeking the judicial sale of real estate 18854
that is subject to a state lien, all of the following apply:18855

       (1) The party seeking a judicial sale shall include the state 18856
lienholder as a party defendant and shall serve that state 18857
lienholder with a copy of the preliminary judicial report or 18858
commitment for an owner's fee policy of title insurance filed in 18859
accordance with section 2329.191 of the Revised Code.18860

       (2) A state lienholder shall not be made a party defendant if 18861
no state lien has been recorded against the owner of the real 18862
estate for which the judicial sale is sought.18863

       (3) The appearance of the state lienholder shall be presumed 18864
for purposes of jurisdiction, and the court shall take judicial 18865
notice that the state has a lien against the real estate.18866

       (4) A state lienholder may, but is not required to, file an 18867
answer to the complaint or any other pleading in the action if the 18868
amount, validity, or priority of the state lien is not identified 18869
in the pleadings as disputed and shall file an answer to the 18870
complaint or any other pleading in the action if the amount, 18871
validity, or priority of the state lien is identified in the 18872
pleadings as disputed. If a state lien is not identified as 18873
disputed, unless the state files an answer or other responsive 18874
pleading, the party seeking the judicial sale is not required to 18875
serve the state lienholder with any answer or subsequent pleadings 18876
in the action for judicial sale.18877

       (5) As part of any order confirming the sale of the real 18878
estate that is subject to any undisputed state lien or 18879
distributing the proceeds of any judicial sale of real estate, the 18880
undisputed state lien shall be protected as if the state had 18881
appeared in the action and filed an answer asserting the validity 18882
of the state lien as recorded in the office of the clerk of the 18883
county court or the office of the county recorder.18884

       (6) Any party asserting a dispute as to the amount, validity, 18885
or priority of the state lien or of any lien or other interest 18886
that has priority over the state lien shall serve the state 18887
lienholder and the attorney general with notice of the dispute, 18888
and the state lienholder shall be permitted to file a responsive 18889
pleading and participate in the proceedings as if the state 18890
lienholder had been served with a summons on the date the state 18891
lienholder received notice of the dispute.18892

       (C) Upon the judicial sale of the real estate that is the 18893
subject of an action under division (B) of this section, the 18894
interest of any undisputed state lien shall transfer to the 18895
proceeds of the sale of the real estate, and the state lienholder 18896
shall be entitled to payment from the proceeds of the sale of the 18897
real estate in accordance with the state lienholder's priority as 18898
set forth in the final judicial report or commitment for an 18899
owner's fee policy of title insurance filed in accordance with 18900
section 2329.191 of the Revised Code.18901

       Sec. 2501.02.  Each judge of a court of appeals shall have 18902
been admitted to practice as an attorney at law in this state and 18903
have, for a total of six years preceding the judge's appointment 18904
or commencement of the judge's term, engaged in the practice of 18905
law in this state or served as a judge of a court of record in any 18906
jurisdiction in the United States, or both. At least two of the 18907
years of practice or service that qualify a judge shall have been 18908
in this state. One judge shall be chosen in each court of appeals 18909
district every two years, and shall hold office for six years, 18910
beginning on the ninth day of February next after the judge's 18911
election.18912

       In addition to the original jurisdiction conferred by Section 18913
3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution, the court shall have 18914
jurisdiction upon an appeal upon questions of law to review, 18915
affirm, modify, set aside, or reverse judgments or final orders of 18916
courts of record inferior to the court of appeals within the 18917
district, including the finding, order, or judgment of a juvenile 18918
court that a child is delinquent, neglected, abused, or dependent, 18919
for prejudicial error committed by such lower court.18920

       The court, on good cause shown, may issue writs of 18921
supersedeas in any case, and all other writs, not specially 18922
provided for or prohibited by statute, necessary to enforce the 18923
administration of justice.18924

       Sec. 2503.01.  The supreme court shall consist of a chief 18925
justice and six justices, each of whom has been admitted to 18926
practice as an attorney at law in this state and has, for a total 18927
of at least six years preceding appointment or commencement of the 18928
justice's term, engaged in the practice of law in this state or 18929
served as a judge of a court of record in any jurisdiction of the 18930
United States, or both. At least two of the years of practice or 18931
service that qualify a justice shall have been in this state.18932

       Sec. 2743.02.  (A)(1) The state hereby waives its immunity 18933
from liability, except as provided for the office of the state 18934
fire marshal in division (G)(1) of section 9.60 and division (B) 18935
of section 3737.221 of the Revised Code and subject to division 18936
(H) of this section, and consents to be sued, and have its 18937
liability determined, in the court of claims created in this 18938
chapter in accordance with the same rules of law applicable to 18939
suits between private parties, except that the determination of 18940
liability is subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter 18941
and, in the case of state universities or colleges, in section 18942
3345.40 of the Revised Code, and except as provided in division 18943
(A)(2) or (3) of this section. To the extent that the state has 18944
previously consented to be sued, this chapter has no 18945
applicability.18946

       Except in the case of a civil action filed by the state, 18947
filing a civil action in the court of claims results in a complete 18948
waiver of any cause of action, based on the same act or omission,18949
whichthat the filing party has against any officer or employee, 18950
as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code. The waiver shall 18951
be void if the court determines that the act or omission was 18952
manifestly outside the scope of the officer's or employee's office 18953
or employment or that the officer or employee acted with malicious 18954
purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner.18955

       (2) If a claimant proves in the court of claims that an 18956
officer or employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised 18957
Code, would have personal liability for the officer's or 18958
employee's acts or omissions but for the fact that the officer or 18959
employee has personal immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised 18960
Code, the state shall be held liable in the court of claims in any 18961
action that is timely filed pursuant to section 2743.16 of the 18962
Revised Code and that is based upon the acts or omissions.18963

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(3)(b) of this 18964
section, the state is immune from liability in any civil action or 18965
proceeding involving the performance or nonperformance of a public 18966
duty, including the performance or nonperformance of a public duty 18967
that is owed by the state in relation to any action of an 18968
individual who is committed to the custody of the state.18969

       (b) The state immunity provided in division (A)(3)(a) of this 18970
section does not apply to any action of the state under 18971
circumstances in which a special relationship can be established 18972
between the state and an injured party. A special relationship 18973
under this division is demonstrated if all of the following 18974
elements exist:18975

       (i) An assumption by the state, by means of promises or 18976
actions, of an affirmative duty to act on behalf of the party who 18977
was allegedly injured;18978

       (ii) Knowledge on the part of the state's agents that 18979
inaction of the state could lead to harm;18980

       (iii) Some form of direct contact between the state's agents 18981
and the injured party;18982

       (iv) The injured party's justifiable reliance on the state's 18983
affirmative undertaking.18984

       (B) The state hereby waives the immunity from liability of 18985
all hospitals owned or operated by one or more political 18986
subdivisions and consents for them to be sued, and to have their 18987
liability determined, in the court of common pleas, in accordance 18988
with the same rules of law applicable to suits between private 18989
parties, subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter. 18990
This division is also applicable to hospitals owned or operated by 18991
political subdivisions whichthat have been determined by the 18992
supreme court to be subject to suit prior to July 28, 1975.18993

       (C) Any hospital, as defined in section 2305.113 of the 18994
Revised Code, may purchase liability insurance covering its 18995
operations and activities and its agents, employees, nurses, 18996
interns, residents, staff, and members of the governing board and 18997
committees, and, whether or not such insurance is purchased, may, 18998
to suchthe extent asthat its governing board considers 18999
appropriate, indemnify or agree to indemnify and hold harmless any 19000
such person against expense, including attorney's fees, damage, 19001
loss, or other liability arising out of, or claimed to have arisen 19002
out of, the death, disease, or injury of any person as a result of 19003
the negligence, malpractice, or other action or inaction of the 19004
indemnified person while acting within the scope of the 19005
indemnified person's duties or engaged in activities at the 19006
request or direction, or for the benefit, of the hospital. Any 19007
hospital electing to indemnify suchthose persons, or to agree to 19008
so indemnify, shall reserve suchany funds asthat are necessary, 19009
in the exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover 19010
the potential expense, fees, damage, loss, or other liability. The 19011
superintendent of insurance may recommend, or, if suchthe19012
hospital requests the superintendent to do so, the superintendent 19013
shall recommend, a specific amount for any period that, in the 19014
superintendent's opinion, represents such a judgment. This 19015
authority is in addition to any authorization otherwise provided 19016
or permitted by law.19017

       (D) Recoveries against the state shall be reduced by the 19018
aggregate of insurance proceeds, disability award, or other 19019
collateral recovery received by the claimant. This division does 19020
not apply to civil actions in the court of claims against a state 19021
university or college under the circumstances described in section 19022
3345.40 of the Revised Code. The collateral benefits provisions of 19023
division (B)(2) of that section apply under those circumstances.19024

       (E) The only defendant in original actions in the court of 19025
claims is the state. The state may file a third-party complaint or 19026
counterclaim in any civil action, except a civil action for two19027
ten thousand five hundred dollars or less, that is filed in the 19028
court of claims.19029

       (F) A civil action against an officer or employee, as defined 19030
in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, that alleges that the 19031
officer's or employee's conduct was manifestly outside the scope 19032
of the officer's or employee's employment or official 19033
responsibilities, or that the officer or employee acted with 19034
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner 19035
shall first be filed against the state in the court of claims, 19036
whichthat has exclusive, original jurisdiction to determine, 19037
initially, whether the officer or employee is entitled to personal 19038
immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised Code and whether the 19039
courts of common pleas have jurisdiction over the civil action. 19040
The officer or employee may participate in the immunity 19041
determination proceeding before the court of claims to determine 19042
whether the officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity 19043
under section 9.86 of the Revised Code.19044

       The filing of a claim against an officer or employee under 19045
this division tolls the running of the applicable statute of 19046
limitations until the court of claims determines whether the 19047
officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity under section 19048
9.86 of the Revised Code.19049

       (G) WheneverIf a claim lies against an officer or employee 19050
who is a member of the Ohio national guard, and the officer or 19051
employee was, at the time of the act or omission complained of, 19052
subject to the "Federal Tort Claims Act," 60 Stat. 842 (1946), 28 19053
U.S.C. 2671, et seq., then the Federal Tort Claims Act is the 19054
exclusive remedy of the claimant and the state has no liability 19055
under this section.19056

       (H) If an inmate of a state correctional institution has a 19057
claim against the state for the loss of or damage to property and 19058
the amount claimed does not exceed three hundred dollars, before 19059
commencing an action against the state in the court of claims, the 19060
inmate shall file a claim for the loss or damage under the rules 19061
adopted by the director of rehabilitation and correction pursuant 19062
to this division. The inmate shall file the claim within the time 19063
allowed for commencement of a civil action under section 2743.16 19064
of the Revised Code. If the state admits or compromises the claim, 19065
the director shall make payment from a fund designated by the 19066
director for that purpose. If the state denies the claim or does 19067
not compromise the claim at least sixty days prior to expiration 19068
of the time allowed for commencement of a civil action based upon 19069
the loss or damage under section 2743.16 of the Revised Code, the 19070
inmate may commence an action in the court of claims under this 19071
chapter to recover damages for the loss or damage.19072

       The director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt 19073
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 19074
this division.19075

       Sec. 2743.10.  (A) Civil actions against the state for two19076
ten thousand five hundred dollars or less shall be determined 19077
administratively by the clerk of the court of claims, except that 19078
the clerk is not required to administratively determine a civil 19079
action of that nature if the civil action was commenced by a 19080
person who has been found to be a vexatious litigator under 19081
section 2323.52 of the Revised Code and who has failed to obtain 19082
leave to proceed under that section and if the clerk refused 19083
pursuant to division (D) of section 2743.09 of the Revised Code to 19084
accept for filing any pleading or paper that relates to the civil 19085
action and that was submitted for filing by that person and except 19086
that all civil actions against the state that have been removed to 19087
the court of claims shall be heard and determined by a judge of 19088
the court of claims.19089

       (B) Civil actions covered by division (A) of this section 19090
shall be commenced by filing with the clerk on complaint forms 19091
prescribed by the supreme court. The clerk shall forward copies of 19092
the form complaint to the attorney general and the state 19093
department, board, office, commission, agency, institution, or 19094
other instrumentality whose actions or failure to act are the 19095
subject of complaint. The latter shall investigate the allegations 19096
made in the form complaint and report the results of its 19097
investigation to the clerk within sixty days of receipt of a copy 19098
of the form complaint. The clerk shall forward a copy of the 19099
report to the claimant and give the claimant an opportunity to 19100
respond to the report either in writing or by appearing before the 19101
clerk.19102

       (C) The clerk shall determine the civil action covered by 19103
division (A) of this section and make a report of the decision, 19104
together with findings of fact and conclusions of law, copies of 19105
which shall be mailed to the claimant and the state 19106
instrumentality. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 19107
the determination shall be based upon principles of law applicable 19108
in the court of claims, including, but not limited to, section 19109
3345.40 of the Revised Code if a state university or college is a 19110
defendant in the court of claims.19111

       Rules of evidence shall not be applicable in the 19112
determination. Procedures shall be governed by rules promulgated 19113
by the clerk, shall be informal, and shall be designed to 19114
accommodate persons who are not skilled in the law.19115

       (D) Upon the motion of a party, the court of claims shall 19116
review the determination of the clerk upon the clerk's report and 19117
papers filed in the action and shall enter judgment consistent 19118
with its findings. The judgment shall not be the subject of 19119
further appeal. No civil action arising out of the same 19120
transaction or set of facts may be commenced by the claimant in 19121
the court of claims.19122

       (E) The determination of the clerk pursuant to division (C) 19123
of this section shall be processed pursuant to section 2743.19 of 19124
the Revised Code as if it were a judgment.19125

       Sec. 2746.01.  A court of record of this state shall tax as 19126
costs or otherwise require the payment of fees for the following 19127
services rendered or as compensation for the following persons or 19128
any other of the following fees that are applicable in a 19129
particular case:19130

       (A) Appraisers, commissioners, or arbitrators appointed to 19131
make or procure an appraisement or valuation of any property, as 19132
provided in section 2335.02 of the Revised Code; 19133

       (B) Auctioneers appointed to conduct any public auction of 19134
goods, chattels, or lands required to be sold by an officer of the 19135
court, as provided in section 2335.021 of the Revised Code; 19136

       (C) Commissioners appointed to make partition of lands or to 19137
assign dower and appraisers of real or personal property on 19138
execution, replevin, or attachment or to fix the value of exempt 19139
property, as provided in section 2335.01 of the Revised Code; 19140

       (D) Deposit of rent with the clerk of court by a resident of 19141
a manufactured home park, as provided in section 3733.1214781.4219142
of the Revised Code, or by a tenant of residential premises, as 19143
provided in section 5321.08 of the Revised Code;19144

       (E) Interpreters, as provided in section 2335.09 of the 19145
Revised Code;19146

       (F) Fees in a civil action or appeal commenced by an inmate 19147
against a government entity or employee, as provided in section 19148
2969.22 of the Revised Code;19149

       (G) Procurement of a transcript of a judgment or proceeding 19150
or exemplification of a record in an appeal or other civil action, 19151
as provided in section 2303.21 of the Revised Code;19152

       (H) Publication of an advertisement, notice, or proclamation 19153
required to be published by a trustee, assignee, executor, 19154
administrator, receiver, or other officer of the court or a party 19155
in a case or proceeding, as provided in section 7.13 of the 19156
Revised Code;19157

       (I) Publication of calendars, motion dockets, legal 19158
advertisements, and notices, the fees for which are not fixed by 19159
law, as provided in section 2701.09 of the Revised Code;19160

       (J) Sheriffs, as provided in section 311.17 of the Revised 19161
Code;19162

       (K) Township constables or members of the police force of a 19163
township police district or joint police district, as provided in 19164
section 509.15 of the Revised Code;19165

       (L) Witnesses, as follows:19166

       (1) Fees and mileage in civil cases, as provided in section 19167
2335.06 of the Revised Code;19168

       (2) Fees and mileage in criminal cases, as provided in 19169
section 2335.08 of the Revised Code;19170

       (3) Fees in all cases or proceedings not specified in 19171
sections 2335.06 and 2335.08 of the Revised Code, as provided in 19172
section 2335.05 of the Revised Code;19173

       (4) Fees of municipal police officers in state felony cases, 19174
as provided in section 2335.17 of the Revised Code;19175

       (5) Fees in arbitration proceedings, as provided in section 19176
2711.06 of the Revised Code.19177

       (M) In an action to abate a nuisance or to enforce a local 19178
code relating to buildings, the expenses of operating and 19179
conserving the building, as provided in section 3767.41 of the 19180
Revised Code.19181

       Sec. 2901.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:19182

       (1) "Force" means any violence, compulsion, or constraint 19183
physically exerted by any means upon or against a person or thing.19184

       (2) "Deadly force" means any force that carries a substantial 19185
risk that it will proximately result in the death of any person.19186

       (3) "Physical harm to persons" means any injury, illness, or 19187
other physiological impairment, regardless of its gravity or 19188
duration.19189

       (4) "Physical harm to property" means any tangible or 19190
intangible damage to property that, in any degree, results in loss 19191
to its value or interferes with its use or enjoyment. "Physical 19192
harm to property" does not include wear and tear occasioned by 19193
normal use.19194

       (5) "Serious physical harm to persons" means any of the 19195
following:19196

       (a) Any mental illness or condition of such gravity as would 19197
normally require hospitalization or prolonged psychiatric 19198
treatment;19199

       (b) Any physical harm that carries a substantial risk of 19200
death;19201

       (c) Any physical harm that involves some permanent 19202
incapacity, whether partial or total, or that involves some 19203
temporary, substantial incapacity;19204

       (d) Any physical harm that involves some permanent 19205
disfigurement or that involves some temporary, serious 19206
disfigurement;19207

       (e) Any physical harm that involves acute pain of such 19208
duration as to result in substantial suffering or that involves 19209
any degree of prolonged or intractable pain.19210

       (6) "Serious physical harm to property" means any physical 19211
harm to property that does either of the following:19212

       (a) Results in substantial loss to the value of the property 19213
or requires a substantial amount of time, effort, or money to 19214
repair or replace;19215

       (b) Temporarily prevents the use or enjoyment of the property 19216
or substantially interferes with its use or enjoyment for an 19217
extended period of time.19218

       (7) "Risk" means a significant possibility, as contrasted 19219
with a remote possibility, that a certain result may occur or that 19220
certain circumstances may exist.19221

       (8) "Substantial risk" means a strong possibility, as 19222
contrasted with a remote or significant possibility, that a 19223
certain result may occur or that certain circumstances may exist.19224

       (9) "Offense of violence" means any of the following:19225

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 19226
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.21, 2903.211, 19227
2903.22, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 19228
2907.05, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 19229
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.04, 19230
2921.34, or 2923.161, of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 19231
2911.12, or of division (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of section 19232
2919.22 of the Revised Code or felonious sexual penetration in 19233
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;19234

       (b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 19235
or law of this or any other state or the United States, 19236
substantially equivalent to any section, division, or offense 19237
listed in division (A)(9)(a) of this section;19238

       (c) An offense, other than a traffic offense, under an 19239
existing or former municipal ordinance or law of this or any other 19240
state or the United States, committed purposely or knowingly, and 19241
involving physical harm to persons or a risk of serious physical 19242
harm to persons;19243

       (d) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in 19244
committing, any offense under division (A)(9)(a), (b), or (c) of 19245
this section.19246

       (10)(a) "Property" means any property, real or personal, 19247
tangible or intangible, and any interest or license in that 19248
property. "Property" includes, but is not limited to, cable 19249
television service, other telecommunications service, 19250
telecommunications devices, information service, computers, data, 19251
computer software, financial instruments associated with 19252
computers, other documents associated with computers, or copies of 19253
the documents, whether in machine or human readable form, trade 19254
secrets, trademarks, copyrights, patents, and property protected 19255
by a trademark, copyright, or patent. "Financial instruments 19256
associated with computers" include, but are not limited to, 19257
checks, drafts, warrants, money orders, notes of indebtedness, 19258
certificates of deposit, letters of credit, bills of credit or 19259
debit cards, financial transaction authorization mechanisms, 19260
marketable securities, or any computer system representations of 19261
any of them.19262

       (b) As used in division (A)(10) of this section, "trade 19263
secret" has the same meaning as in section 1333.61 of the Revised 19264
Code, and "telecommunications service" and "information service" 19265
have the same meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.19266

       (c) As used in divisions (A)(10) and (13) of this section, 19267
"cable television service," "computer," "computer software," 19268
"computer system," "computer network," "data," and 19269
"telecommunications device" have the same meanings as in section 19270
2913.01 of the Revised Code.19271

       (11) "Law enforcement officer" means any of the following:19272

       (a) A sheriff, deputy sheriff, constable, police officer of a 19273
township or joint police district, marshal, deputy marshal, 19274
municipal police officer, member of a police force employed by a 19275
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 19276
3735.31 of the Revised Code, or state highway patrol trooper;19277

       (b) An officer, agent, or employee of the state or any of its 19278
agencies, instrumentalities, or political subdivisions, upon whom, 19279
by statute, a duty to conserve the peace or to enforce all or 19280
certain laws is imposed and the authority to arrest violators is 19281
conferred, within the limits of that statutory duty and authority;19282

       (c) A mayor, in the mayor's capacity as chief conservator of 19283
the peace within the mayor's municipal corporation;19284

       (d) A member of an auxiliary police force organized by 19285
county, township, or municipal law enforcement authorities, within 19286
the scope of the member's appointment or commission;19287

       (e) A person lawfully called pursuant to section 311.07 of 19288
the Revised Code to aid a sheriff in keeping the peace, for the 19289
purposes and during the time when the person is called;19290

       (f) A person appointed by a mayor pursuant to section 737.01 19291
of the Revised Code as a special patrolling officer during riot or 19292
emergency, for the purposes and during the time when the person is 19293
appointed;19294

       (g) A member of the organized militia of this state or the 19295
armed forces of the United States, lawfully called to duty to aid 19296
civil authorities in keeping the peace or protect against domestic 19297
violence;19298

       (h) A prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 19299
secret service officer, or municipal prosecutor;19300

       (i) A veterans' home police officer appointed under section 19301
5907.02 of the Revised Code;19302

       (j) A member of a police force employed by a regional transit 19303
authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised 19304
Code;19305

       (k) A special police officer employed by a port authority 19306
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;19307

       (l) The house of representatives sergeant at arms if the 19308
house of representatives sergeant at arms has arrest authority 19309
pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code 19310
and an assistant house of representatives sergeant at arms;19311

       (m) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate 19312
sergeant at arms;19313

       (n) A special police officer employed by a municipal 19314
corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air 19315
navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 19316
section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 19317
C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 19318
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 19319
transportation security administration of the United States 19320
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 19321
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended.19322

       (12) "Privilege" means an immunity, license, or right 19323
conferred by law, bestowed by express or implied grant, arising 19324
out of status, position, office, or relationship, or growing out 19325
of necessity.19326

       (13) "Contraband" means any property that is illegal for a 19327
person to acquire or possess under a statute, ordinance, or rule, 19328
or that a trier of fact lawfully determines to be illegal to 19329
possess by reason of the property's involvement in an offense. 19330
"Contraband" includes, but is not limited to, all of the 19331
following:19332

       (a) Any controlled substance, as defined in section 3719.01 19333
of the Revised Code, or any device or paraphernalia;19334

       (b) Any unlawful gambling device or paraphernalia;19335

       (c) Any dangerous ordnance or obscene material.19336

       (14) A person is "not guilty by reason of insanity" relative 19337
to a charge of an offense only if the person proves, in the manner 19338
specified in section 2901.05 of the Revised Code, that at the time 19339
of the commission of the offense, the person did not know, as a 19340
result of a severe mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of 19341
the person's acts.19342

       (B)(1)(a) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, as used 19343
in any section contained in Title XXIX of the Revised Code that 19344
sets forth a criminal offense, "person" includes all of the 19345
following:19346

       (i) An individual, corporation, business trust, estate, 19347
trust, partnership, and association;19348

       (ii) An unborn human who is viable.19349

       (b) As used in any section contained in Title XXIX of the 19350
Revised Code that does not set forth a criminal offense, "person" 19351
includes an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, 19352
trust, partnership, and association.19353

       (c) As used in division (B)(1)(a) of this section:19354

       (i) "Unborn human" means an individual organism of the 19355
species Homo sapiens from fertilization until live birth.19356

       (ii) "Viable" means the stage of development of a human fetus 19357
at which there is a realistic possibility of maintaining and 19358
nourishing of a life outside the womb with or without temporary 19359
artificial life-sustaining support.19360

       (2) Notwithstanding division (B)(1)(a) of this section, in no 19361
case shall the portion of the definition of the term "person" that 19362
is set forth in division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section be applied 19363
or construed in any section contained in Title XXIX of the Revised 19364
Code that sets forth a criminal offense in any of the following 19365
manners:19366

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2)(a) of 19367
this section, in a manner so that the offense prohibits or is 19368
construed as prohibiting any pregnant woman or her physician from 19369
performing an abortion with the consent of the pregnant woman, 19370
with the consent of the pregnant woman implied by law in a medical 19371
emergency, or with the approval of one otherwise authorized by law 19372
to consent to medical treatment on behalf of the pregnant woman. 19373
An abortion that violates the conditions described in the 19374
immediately preceding sentence may be punished as a violation of 19375
section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.05, 2903.06, 19376
2903.08, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.14, 2903.21, or 2903.22 19377
of the Revised Code, as applicable. An abortion that does not 19378
violate the conditions described in the second immediately 19379
preceding sentence, but that does violate section 2919.12, 19380
division (B) of section 2919.13, or section 2919.151, 2919.17, or 19381
2919.18 of the Revised Code, may be punished as a violation of 19382
section 2919.12, division (B) of section 2919.13, or section 19383
2919.151, 2919.17, or 2919.18 of the Revised Code, as applicable. 19384
Consent is sufficient under this division if it is of the type 19385
otherwise adequate to permit medical treatment to the pregnant 19386
woman, even if it does not comply with section 2919.12 of the 19387
Revised Code.19388

       (b) In a manner so that the offense is applied or is 19389
construed as applying to a woman based on an act or omission of 19390
the woman that occurs while she is or was pregnant and that 19391
results in any of the following:19392

       (i) Her delivery of a stillborn baby;19393

       (ii) Her causing, in any other manner, the death in utero of 19394
a viable, unborn human that she is carrying;19395

       (iii) Her causing the death of her child who is born alive 19396
but who dies from one or more injuries that are sustained while 19397
the child is a viable, unborn human;19398

       (iv) Her causing her child who is born alive to sustain one 19399
or more injuries while the child is a viable, unborn human;19400

       (v) Her causing, threatening to cause, or attempting to 19401
cause, in any other manner, an injury, illness, or other 19402
physiological impairment, regardless of its duration or gravity, 19403
or a mental illness or condition, regardless of its duration or 19404
gravity, to a viable, unborn human that she is carrying.19405

       (C) As used in Title XXIX of the Revised Code:19406

       (1) "School safety zone" consists of a school, school 19407
building, school premises, school activity, and school bus.19408

       (2) "School," "school building," and "school premises" have 19409
the same meanings as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.19410

       (3) "School activity" means any activity held under the 19411
auspices of a board of education of a city, local, exempted 19412
village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school 19413
district; a governing authority of a community school established 19414
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code; a governing board of an 19415
educational service center, or the governing body of a school for 19416
which the state board of education prescribes minimum standards 19417
under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.19418

       (4) "School bus" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 19419
of the Revised Code.19420

       Sec. 2903.33.  As used in sections 2903.33 to 2903.36 of the 19421
Revised Code:19422

       (A) "Care facility" means any of the following:19423

       (1) Any "home" as defined in section 3721.10 or 5111.20 of 19424
the Revised Code;19425

       (2) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5123.19 19426
of the Revised Code;19427

       (3) Any institution or facility operated or provided by the 19428
department of mental health or by the department of developmental 19429
disabilities pursuant to sections 5119.02 and 5123.03 of the 19430
Revised Code;19431

       (4) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5119.22 19432
of the Revised Code;19433

       (5) Any unit of any hospital, as defined in section 3701.01 19434
of the Revised Code, that provides the same services as a nursing 19435
home, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;19436

       (6) Any institution, residence, or facility that provides, 19437
for a period of more than twenty-four hours, whether for a 19438
consideration or not, accommodations to one individual or two 19439
unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 19440
others;19441

       (7) Any "adult care facility" as defined in section 5119.70 19442
of the Revised Code;19443

       (8) Any adult foster home certified under section 5119.692 of 19444
the Revised Code.19445

       (B) "Abuse" means knowingly causing physical harm or 19446
recklessly causing serious physical harm to a person by physical 19447
contact with the person or by the inappropriate use of a physical 19448
or chemical restraint, medication, or isolation on the person.19449

       (C)(1) "Gross neglect" means knowingly failing to provide a 19450
person with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is 19451
necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person when the 19452
failure results in physical harm or serious physical harm to the 19453
person.19454

       (2) "Neglect" means recklessly failing to provide a person 19455
with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is necessary to 19456
maintain the health or safety of the person when the failure 19457
results in serious physical harm to the person.19458

       (D) "Inappropriate use of a physical or chemical restraint, 19459
medication, or isolation" means the use of physical or chemical 19460
restraint, medication, or isolation as punishment, for staff 19461
convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in 19462
quantities that preclude habilitation and treatment.19463

       Sec. 2907.29.  Every hospital of this state that offers 19464
organized emergency services shall provide that a physician, a 19465
physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified 19466
nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife is available on 19467
call twenty-four hours each day for the examination of persons 19468
reported to any law enforcement agency to be victims of sexual 19469
offenses cognizable as violations of any provision of sections 19470
2907.02 to 2907.06 of the Revised Code. The physician, physician 19471
assistant, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse 19472
practitioner, or certified nurse-midwife, upon the request of any 19473
peace officer or prosecuting attorney and with the consent of the 19474
reported victim or upon the request of the reported victim, shall 19475
examine the person for the purposes of gathering physical evidence 19476
and shall complete any written documentation of the physical 19477
examination. The publicdirector of health council shall establish 19478
procedures for gathering evidence under this section.19479

       Each reported victim shall be informed of available venereal 19480
disease, pregnancy, medical, and psychiatric services.19481

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a minor may 19482
consent to examination under this section. The consent is not 19483
subject to disaffirmance because of minority, and consent of the 19484
parent, parents, or guardian of the minor is not required for an 19485
examination under this section. However, the hospital shall give 19486
written notice to the parent, parents, or guardian of a minor that 19487
an examination under this section has taken place. The parent, 19488
parents, or guardian of a minor giving consent under this section 19489
are not liable for payment for any services provided under this 19490
section without their consent.19491

       Sec. 2909.21. As used in sections 2909.21 to 2909.342909.3119492
of the Revised Code:19493

       (A) "Act of terrorism" means an act that is committed within 19494
or outside the territorial jurisdiction of this state or the 19495
United States, that constitutes a specified offense if committed 19496
in this state or constitutes an offense in any jurisdiction within 19497
or outside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States 19498
containing all of the essential elements of a specified offense, 19499
and that is intended to do one or more of the following:19500

       (1) Intimidate or coerce a civilian population;19501

       (2) Influence the policy of any government by intimidation or 19502
coercion;19503

       (3) Affect the conduct of any government by the act that 19504
constitutes the offense.19505

       (B) "Biological agent," "delivery system," "toxin," and 19506
"vector" have the same meanings as in section 2917.33 of the 19507
Revised Code.19508

       (C) "Biological weapon" means any biological agent, toxin, 19509
vector, or delivery system or combination of any biological agent 19510
or agents, any toxin or toxins, any vector or vectors, and any 19511
delivery system or systems.19512

       (D) "Chemical weapon" means any one or more of the following:19513

       (1) Any toxic chemical or precursor of a toxic chemical that 19514
is listed in Schedule 1, Schedule 2, or Schedule 3 of the 19515
international "Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, 19516
Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons and on their 19517
Destruction (CWC)," as entered into force on April 29, 1997;19518

       (2) A device specifically designed to cause death or other 19519
harm through the toxic properties of a toxic chemical or precursor 19520
identified in division (D)(1) of this section that would be 19521
created or released as a result of the employment of that device;19522

       (3) Any equipment specifically designed for use directly in 19523
connection with the employment of devices identified in division 19524
(D)(2) of this section.19525

       (E) "Radiological or nuclear weapon" means any device that is 19526
designed to create or release radiation or radioactivity at a 19527
level that is dangerous to human life or in order to cause serious 19528
physical harm to persons as a result of the radiation or 19529
radioactivity created or released.19530

       (F) "Explosive device" has the same meaning as in section 19531
2923.11 of the Revised Code.19532

       (G) "Key component of a binary or multicomponent chemical 19533
system" means the precursor that plays the most important role in 19534
determining the toxic properties of the final product and reacts 19535
rapidly with other chemicals in the binary or multicomponent 19536
chemical system.19537

       (H) "Material assistance" means any of the following:19538

       (1) Membership in an organization on the United States 19539
department of state terrorist exclusion list;19540

       (2) Use of the person's position of prominence within any 19541
country to persuade others to support an organization on the 19542
United States department of state terrorist exclusion list;19543

       (3) Knowingly soliciting funds or other things of value for 19544
an organization on the United States department of state terrorist 19545
exclusion list;19546

       (4) Solicitation of any individual for membership in an 19547
organization on the United States department of state terrorist 19548
exclusion list;19549

       (5) Commission of an act that the person knows, or reasonably 19550
should have known, affords material support or resources to an 19551
organization on the United States department of state terrorist 19552
exclusion list;19553

       (6) Hiring or compensating a person known by the person 19554
hiring or providing the compensation to be a member of an 19555
organization on the United States department of state terrorist 19556
exclusion list or a person known by the person hiring or providing 19557
the compensation to be engaged in planning, assisting, or carrying 19558
out an act of terrorism.19559

       (I) "Material support or resources" means currency, payment 19560
instruments, other financial securities, funds, transfer of funds, 19561
financial services, communications, lodging, training, safe 19562
houses, false documentation or identification, communications 19563
equipment, facilities, weapons, lethal substances, explosives, 19564
personnel, transportation, and other physical assets, except 19565
medicine or religious materials.19566

       (J)(I) "Payment instrument" means a check, draft, money 19567
order, traveler's check, cashier's check, teller's check, or other 19568
instrument or order for the transmission or payment of money, 19569
regardless of whether the item in question is negotiable.19570

       (K)(J) "Peace officer" and "prosecutor" have the same 19571
meanings as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.19572

       (L)(K) "Precursor" means any chemical reactant that takes 19573
part at any stage in the production by whatever method of a toxic 19574
chemical, including any key component of a binary or 19575
multicomponent chemical system.19576

       (M)(L) "Response costs" means all costs a political 19577
subdivision incurs as a result of, or in making any response to, a 19578
threat of a specified offense made as described in section 2909.23 19579
of the Revised Code or a specified offense committed as described 19580
in section 2909.24 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited 19581
to, all costs so incurred by any law enforcement officers, 19582
firefighters, rescue personnel, or emergency medical services 19583
personnel of the political subdivision and all costs so incurred 19584
by the political subdivision that relate to laboratory testing or 19585
hazardous material cleanup.19586

       (N)(M) "Specified offense" means any of the following:19587

       (1) A felony offense of violence, a violation of section 19588
2909.04, 2909.081, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 19589
2909.28, 2909.29, or 2927.24 of the Revised Code, a felony of the 19590
first degree that is not a violation of any provision in Chapter 19591
2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code;19592

       (2) An attempt to commit, complicity in committing, or a 19593
conspiracy to commit an offense listed in division (N)(M)(1) of 19594
this section.19595

       (O)(N) "Toxic chemical" means any chemical that through its 19596
chemical action on life processes can cause death or serious 19597
physical harm to persons or animals, regardless of its origin or 19598
of its method of production and regardless of whether it is 19599
produced in facilities, in munitions, or elsewhere.19600

       (P) "United States department of state terrorist exclusion 19601
list" and "terrorist exclusion list" means the list compiled by 19602
the United States secretary of state, in consultation with or upon 19603
the request of the United States attorney general, that designates 19604
terrorist organizations for immigration purposes. "United States 19605
department of state terrorist exclusion list" and "terrorist 19606
exclusion list" also mean the list of terrorist organizations the 19607
director of public safety prepares pursuant to rules adopted in 19608
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that is 19609
comprised of lists of organizations officials of the United States 19610
government designate as terrorist, including the "terrorist 19611
exclusion list" described in this division, the list of "foreign 19612
terrorist organizations" the Unites States secretary of state 19613
prepares in consultation with the United States attorney general 19614
and the United States secretary of the treasury, and the list of 19615
charities that support terrorist activities, known as "designated 19616
charities," that the United States department of treasury 19617
compiles.19618

       (Q)(O) "Hazardous radioactive substance" means any substance 19619
or item that releases or is designed to release radiation or 19620
radioactivity at a level dangerous to human life.19621

       Sec. 2909.28.  (A) No person, with the intent to manufacture 19622
a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear 19623
weapon, or explosive device, shall knowingly assemble or possess 19624
one or more toxins, toxic chemicals, precursors of toxic 19625
chemicals, vectors, biological agents, or hazardous radioactive 19626
substances, including, but not limited to, those listed in rules 19627
the director of public safety adopts, that may be used to 19628
manufacture a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological or 19629
nuclear weapon, or explosive device.19630

       (B) In a prosecution under this section, it is not necessary 19631
to allege or prove that the offender assembled or possessed all 19632
chemicals or substances necessary to manufacture a chemical 19633
weapon, biological weapon, radiological or nuclear weapon, or 19634
explosive device. The assembly or possession of a single chemical 19635
or substance, with the intent to use that chemical or substance in 19636
the manufacture of a chemical weapon, biological weapon, 19637
radiological or nuclear weapon, or explosive device, is sufficient 19638
to violate this section.19639

       (C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of illegal 19640
assembly or possession of chemicals or substances for the 19641
manufacture of a chemical weapon, biological weapon, radiological 19642
or nuclear weapon, or explosive device, which is a felony of the 19643
fourth degree.19644

       (D) This section does not apply when the items described in 19645
division (A) of this section are assembled or possessed for a 19646
purpose related to the performance of official duties related to 19647
any military purpose of the United States and any law enforcement 19648
purpose, including any domestic riot control purpose.19649

       Sec. 2927.023.  (A) As used in this section "authorized:19650

       (1) "Authorized recipient of tobacco products" means a person 19651
who is:19652

       (1)(a) Licensed as a cigarette wholesale dealer under section 19653
5743.15 of the Revised Code;19654

       (2)(b) Licensed as a retail dealer as long as the person 19655
purchases cigarettes with the appropriate tax stamp affixed;19656

       (3)(c) An export warehouse proprietor as defined in section 19657
5702 of the Internal Revenue Code;19658

       (4)(d) An operator of a customs bonded warehouse under 19 19659
U.S.C. 1311 or 19 U.S.C. 1555;19660

       (5)(e) An officer, employee, or agent of the federal 19661
government or of this state acting in the person's official 19662
capacity;19663

       (6)(f) A department, agency, instrumentality, or political 19664
subdivision of the federal government or of this state;19665

       (7)(g) A person having a consent for consumer shipment issued 19666
by the tax commissioner under section 5743.71 of the Revised Code.19667

       (2) "Motor carrier" has the same meaning as in section 19668
4923.01 of the Revised Code.19669

       The purpose of this section is to prevent the sale of 19670
cigarettes to minors and to ensure compliance with the Master 19671
Settlement Agreement, as defined in section 1346.01 of the Revised 19672
Code.19673

       (B)(1) No person shall cause to be shipped any cigarettes to 19674
any person in this state other than an authorized recipient of 19675
tobacco products.19676

       (2) No common carrier, contractmotor carrier, or other 19677
person shall knowingly transport cigarettes to any person in this 19678
state that the carrier or other person reasonably believes is not 19679
an authorized recipient of tobacco products. If cigarettes are 19680
transported to a home or residence, it shall be presumed that the 19681
common carrier, contractmotor carrier, or other person knew that 19682
the person to whom the cigarettes were delivered was not an 19683
authorized recipient of tobacco products.19684

       (C) No person engaged in the business of selling cigarettes 19685
who ships or causes to be shipped cigarettes to any person in this 19686
state in any container or wrapping other than the original 19687
container or wrapping of the cigarettes shall fail to plainly and 19688
visibly mark the exterior of the container or wrapping in which 19689
the cigarettes are shipped with the words "cigarettes."19690

       (D) A court shall impose a fine of up to one thousand dollars 19691
for each violation of division (B)(1), (B)(2), or (C) of this 19692
section.19693

       Sec. 2929.01.  As used in this chapter:19694

       (A)(1) "Alternative residential facility" means, subject to 19695
division (A)(2) of this section, any facility other than an 19696
offender's home or residence in which an offender is assigned to 19697
live and that satisfies all of the following criteria:19698

       (a) It provides programs through which the offender may seek 19699
or maintain employment or may receive education, training, 19700
treatment, or habilitation.19701

       (b) It has received the appropriate license or certificate 19702
for any specialized education, training, treatment, habilitation, 19703
or other service that it provides from the government agency that 19704
is responsible for licensing or certifying that type of education, 19705
training, treatment, habilitation, or service.19706

       (2) "Alternative residential facility" does not include a 19707
community-based correctional facility, jail, halfway house, or 19708
prison.19709

       (B) "Basic probation supervision" means a requirement that 19710
the offender maintain contact with a person appointed to supervise 19711
the offender in accordance with sanctions imposed by the court or 19712
imposed by the parole board pursuant to section 2967.28 of the 19713
Revised Code. "Basic probation supervision" includes basic parole 19714
supervision and basic post-release control supervision.19715

       (C) "Cocaine," "hashish," "L.S.D.," and "unit dose" have the 19716
same meanings as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.19717

       (D) "Community-based correctional facility" means a 19718
community-based correctional facility and program or district 19719
community-based correctional facility and program developed 19720
pursuant to sections 2301.51 to 2301.58 of the Revised Code.19721

       (E) "Community control sanction" means a sanction that is not 19722
a prison term and that is described in section 2929.15, 2929.16, 19723
2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code or a sanction that is not 19724
a jail term and that is described in section 2929.26, 2929.27, or 19725
2929.28 of the Revised Code. "Community control sanction" includes 19726
probation if the sentence involved was imposed for a felony that 19727
was committed prior to July 1, 1996, or if the sentence involved 19728
was imposed for a misdemeanor that was committed prior to January 19729
1, 2004.19730

       (F) "Controlled substance," "marihuana," "schedule I," and 19731
"schedule II" have the same meanings as in section 3719.01 of the 19732
Revised Code.19733

       (G) "Curfew" means a requirement that an offender during a 19734
specified period of time be at a designated place.19735

       (H) "Day reporting" means a sanction pursuant to which an 19736
offender is required each day to report to and leave a center or 19737
other approved reporting location at specified times in order to 19738
participate in work, education or training, treatment, and other 19739
approved programs at the center or outside the center.19740

       (I) "Deadly weapon" has the same meaning as in section 19741
2923.11 of the Revised Code.19742

       (J) "Drug and alcohol use monitoring" means a program under 19743
which an offender agrees to submit to random chemical analysis of 19744
the offender's blood, breath, or urine to determine whether the 19745
offender has ingested any alcohol or other drugs.19746

       (K) "Drug treatment program" means any program under which a 19747
person undergoes assessment and treatment designed to reduce or 19748
completely eliminate the person's physical or emotional reliance 19749
upon alcohol, another drug, or alcohol and another drug and under 19750
which the person may be required to receive assessment and 19751
treatment on an outpatient basis or may be required to reside at a 19752
facility other than the person's home or residence while 19753
undergoing assessment and treatment.19754

       (L) "Economic loss" means any economic detriment suffered by 19755
a victim as a direct and proximate result of the commission of an 19756
offense and includes any loss of income due to lost time at work 19757
because of any injury caused to the victim, and any property loss, 19758
medical cost, or funeral expense incurred as a result of the 19759
commission of the offense. "Economic loss" does not include 19760
non-economic loss or any punitive or exemplary damages.19761

       (M) "Education or training" includes study at, or in 19762
conjunction with a program offered by, a university, college, or 19763
technical college or vocational study and also includes the 19764
completion of primary school, secondary school, and literacy 19765
curricula or their equivalent.19766

       (N) "Firearm" has the same meaning as in section 2923.11 of 19767
the Revised Code.19768

       (O) "Halfway house" means a facility licensed by the division 19769
of parole and community services of the department of 19770
rehabilitation and correction pursuant to section 2967.14 of the 19771
Revised Code as a suitable facility for the care and treatment of 19772
adult offenders.19773

       (P) "House arrest" means a period of confinement of an 19774
offender that is in the offender's home or in other premises 19775
specified by the sentencing court or by the parole board pursuant 19776
to section 2967.28 of the Revised Code and during which all of the 19777
following apply:19778

       (1) The offender is required to remain in the offender's home 19779
or other specified premises for the specified period of 19780
confinement, except for periods of time during which the offender 19781
is at the offender's place of employment or at other premises as 19782
authorized by the sentencing court or by the parole board.19783

       (2) The offender is required to report periodically to a 19784
person designated by the court or parole board.19785

       (3) The offender is subject to any other restrictions and 19786
requirements that may be imposed by the sentencing court or by the 19787
parole board.19788

       (Q) "Intensive probation supervision" means a requirement 19789
that an offender maintain frequent contact with a person appointed 19790
by the court, or by the parole board pursuant to section 2967.28 19791
of the Revised Code, to supervise the offender while the offender 19792
is seeking or maintaining necessary employment and participating 19793
in training, education, and treatment programs as required in the 19794
court's or parole board's order. "Intensive probation supervision" 19795
includes intensive parole supervision and intensive post-release 19796
control supervision.19797

       (R) "Jail" means a jail, workhouse, minimum security jail, or 19798
other residential facility used for the confinement of alleged or 19799
convicted offenders that is operated by a political subdivision or 19800
a combination of political subdivisions of this state.19801

       (S) "Jail term" means the term in a jail that a sentencing 19802
court imposes or is authorized to impose pursuant to section 19803
2929.24 or 2929.25 of the Revised Code or pursuant to any other 19804
provision of the Revised Code that authorizes a term in a jail for 19805
a misdemeanor conviction.19806

       (T) "Mandatory jail term" means the term in a jail that a 19807
sentencing court is required to impose pursuant to division (G) of 19808
section 1547.99 of the Revised Code, division (E) of section 19809
2903.06 or division (D) of section 2903.08 of the Revised Code, 19810
division (E) or (G) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code, 19811
division (B) of section 4510.14 of the Revised Code, or division 19812
(G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or pursuant to any 19813
other provision of the Revised Code that requires a term in a jail 19814
for a misdemeanor conviction.19815

       (U) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 19816
2152.02 of the Revised Code.19817

       (V) "License violation report" means a report that is made by 19818
a sentencing court, or by the parole board pursuant to section 19819
2967.28 of the Revised Code, to the regulatory or licensing board 19820
or agency that issued an offender a professional license or a 19821
license or permit to do business in this state and that specifies 19822
that the offender has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 19823
offense that may violate the conditions under which the offender's 19824
professional license or license or permit to do business in this 19825
state was granted or an offense for which the offender's 19826
professional license or license or permit to do business in this 19827
state may be revoked or suspended.19828

       (W) "Major drug offender" means an offender who is convicted 19829
of or pleads guilty to the possession of, sale of, or offer to 19830
sell any drug, compound, mixture, preparation, or substance that 19831
consists of or contains at least one thousand grams of hashish; at 19832
least one hundred grams of cocaine; at least two thousand five 19833
hundred unit doses or two hundred fifty grams of heroin; at least 19834
five thousand unit doses of L.S.D. or five hundred grams of L.S.D. 19835
in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate 19836
form; or at least one hundred times the amount of any other 19837
schedule I or II controlled substance other than marihuana that is 19838
necessary to commit a felony of the third degree pursuant to 19839
section 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, or 2925.11 of the Revised Code 19840
that is based on the possession of, sale of, or offer to sell the 19841
controlled substance.19842

       (X) "Mandatory prison term" means any of the following:19843

       (1) Subject to division (X)(2) of this section, the term in 19844
prison that must be imposed for the offenses or circumstances set 19845
forth in divisions (F)(1) to (8) or (F)(12) to (18) of section 19846
2929.13 and division (B) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code. 19847
Except as provided in sections 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 19848
and 2925.11 of the Revised Code, unless the maximum or another 19849
specific term is required under section 2929.14 or 2929.142 of the 19850
Revised Code, a mandatory prison term described in this division 19851
may be any prison term authorized for the level of offense.19852

       (2) The term of sixty or one hundred twenty days in prison 19853
that a sentencing court is required to impose for a third or 19854
fourth degree felony OVI offense pursuant to division (G)(2) of 19855
section 2929.13 and division (G)(1)(d) or (e) of section 4511.19 19856
of the Revised Code or the term of one, two, three, four, or five 19857
years in prison that a sentencing court is required to impose 19858
pursuant to division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 19859
Code.19860

       (3) The term in prison imposed pursuant to division (A) of 19861
section 2971.03 of the Revised Code for the offenses and in the 19862
circumstances described in division (F)(11) of section 2929.13 of 19863
the Revised Code or pursuant to division (B)(1)(a), (b), or (c), 19864
(B)(2)(a), (b), or (c), or (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of section 19865
2971.03 of the Revised Code and that term as modified or 19866
terminated pursuant to section 2971.05 of the Revised Code.19867

       (Y) "Monitored time" means a period of time during which an 19868
offender continues to be under the control of the sentencing court 19869
or parole board, subject to no conditions other than leading a 19870
law-abiding life.19871

       (Z) "Offender" means a person who, in this state, is 19872
convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony or a misdemeanor.19873

       (AA) "Prison" means a residential facility used for the 19874
confinement of convicted felony offenders that is under the 19875
control of the department of rehabilitation and correction but 19876
does not include a violation sanction center operated under 19877
authority of section 2967.141 of the Revised Code.19878

       (BB) "Prison term" includes either of the following sanctions 19879
for an offender:19880

       (1) A stated prison term;19881

       (2) A term in a prison shortened by, or with the approval of, 19882
the sentencing court pursuant to section 2929.143, 2929.20, 19883
2967.26, 5120.031, 5120.032, or 5120.073 of the Revised Code.19884

       (CC) "Repeat violent offender" means a person about whom both 19885
of the following apply:19886

       (1) The person is being sentenced for committing or for 19887
complicity in committing any of the following:19888

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, any felony of the first or 19889
second degree that is an offense of violence, or an attempt to 19890
commit any of these offenses if the attempt is a felony of the 19891
first or second degree;19892

       (b) An offense under an existing or former law of this state, 19893
another state, or the United States that is or was substantially 19894
equivalent to an offense described in division (CC)(1)(a) of this 19895
section.19896

       (2) The person previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty 19897
to an offense described in division (CC)(1)(a) or (b) of this 19898
section.19899

       (DD) "Sanction" means any penalty imposed upon an offender 19900
who is convicted of or pleads guilty to an offense, as punishment 19901
for the offense. "Sanction" includes any sanction imposed pursuant 19902
to any provision of sections 2929.14 to 2929.18 or 2929.24 to 19903
2929.28 of the Revised Code.19904

       (EE) "Sentence" means the sanction or combination of 19905
sanctions imposed by the sentencing court on an offender who is 19906
convicted of or pleads guilty to an offense.19907

       (FF) "Stated prison term" means the prison term, mandatory 19908
prison term, or combination of all prison terms and mandatory 19909
prison terms imposed by the sentencing court pursuant to section 19910
2929.14, 2929.142, or 2971.03 of the Revised Code or under section 19911
2919.25 of the Revised Code. "Stated prison term" includes any 19912
credit received by the offender for time spent in jail awaiting 19913
trial, sentencing, or transfer to prison for the offense and any 19914
time spent under house arrest or house arrest with electronic 19915
monitoring imposed after earning credits pursuant to section 19916
2967.193 of the Revised Code. If an offender is serving a prison 19917
term as a risk reduction sentence under sections 2929.143 and 19918
5120.036 of the Revised Code, "stated prison term" includes any 19919
period of time by which the prison term imposed upon the offender 19920
is shortened by the offender's successful completion of all 19921
assessment and treatment or programming pursuant to those 19922
sections.19923

       (GG) "Victim-offender mediation" means a reconciliation or 19924
mediation program that involves an offender and the victim of the 19925
offense committed by the offender and that includes a meeting in 19926
which the offender and the victim may discuss the offense, discuss 19927
restitution, and consider other sanctions for the offense.19928

       (HH) "Fourth degree felony OVI offense" means a violation of 19929
division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code that, under 19930
division (G) of that section, is a felony of the fourth degree.19931

       (II) "Mandatory term of local incarceration" means the term 19932
of sixty or one hundred twenty days in a jail, a community-based 19933
correctional facility, a halfway house, or an alternative 19934
residential facility that a sentencing court may impose upon a 19935
person who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a fourth degree 19936
felony OVI offense pursuant to division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 19937
of the Revised Code and division (G)(1)(d) or (e) of section 19938
4511.19 of the Revised Code.19939

       (JJ) "Designated homicide, assault, or kidnapping offense," 19940
"violent sex offense," "sexual motivation specification," 19941
"sexually violent offense," "sexually violent predator," and 19942
"sexually violent predator specification" have the same meanings 19943
as in section 2971.01 of the Revised Code.19944

       (KK) "Sexually oriented offense," "child-victim oriented 19945
offense," and "tier III sex offender/child-victim offender," have 19946
the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.19947

       (LL) An offense is "committed in the vicinity of a child" if 19948
the offender commits the offense within thirty feet of or within 19949
the same residential unit as a child who is under eighteen years 19950
of age, regardless of whether the offender knows the age of the 19951
child or whether the offender knows the offense is being committed 19952
within thirty feet of or within the same residential unit as the 19953
child and regardless of whether the child actually views the 19954
commission of the offense.19955

       (MM) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 19956
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.19957

       (NN) "Motor vehicle" and "manufactured home" have the same 19958
meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.19959

       (OO) "Detention" and "detention facility" have the same 19960
meanings as in section 2921.01 of the Revised Code.19961

       (PP) "Third degree felony OVI offense" means a violation of 19962
division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code that, under 19963
division (G) of that section, is a felony of the third degree.19964

       (QQ) "Random drug testing" has the same meaning as in section 19965
5120.63 of the Revised Code.19966

       (RR) "Felony sex offense" has the same meaning as in section 19967
2967.28 of the Revised Code.19968

       (SS) "Body armor" has the same meaning as in section 19969
2941.1411 of the Revised Code.19970

       (TT) "Electronic monitoring" means monitoring through the use 19971
of an electronic monitoring device.19972

       (UU) "Electronic monitoring device" means any of the 19973
following:19974

        (1) Any device that can be operated by electrical or battery 19975
power and that conforms with all of the following:19976

        (a) The device has a transmitter that can be attached to a 19977
person, that will transmit a specified signal to a receiver of the 19978
type described in division (UU)(1)(b) of this section if the 19979
transmitter is removed from the person, turned off, or altered in 19980
any manner without prior court approval in relation to electronic 19981
monitoring or without prior approval of the department of 19982
rehabilitation and correction in relation to the use of an 19983
electronic monitoring device for an inmate on transitional control 19984
or otherwise is tampered with, that can transmit continuously and 19985
periodically a signal to that receiver when the person is within a 19986
specified distance from the receiver, and that can transmit an 19987
appropriate signal to that receiver if the person to whom it is 19988
attached travels a specified distance from that receiver.19989

        (b) The device has a receiver that can receive continuously 19990
the signals transmitted by a transmitter of the type described in 19991
division (UU)(1)(a) of this section, can transmit continuously 19992
those signals by a wireless or landline telephone connection to a 19993
central monitoring computer of the type described in division 19994
(UU)(1)(c) of this section, and can transmit continuously an 19995
appropriate signal to that central monitoring computer if the 19996
device has been turned off or altered without prior court approval 19997
or otherwise tampered with. The device is designed specifically 19998
for use in electronic monitoring, is not a converted wireless 19999
phone or another tracking device that is clearly not designed for 20000
electronic monitoring, and provides a means of text-based or voice 20001
communication with the person.20002

        (c) The device has a central monitoring computer that can 20003
receive continuously the signals transmitted by a wireless or 20004
landline telephone connection by a receiver of the type described 20005
in division (UU)(1)(b) of this section and can monitor 20006
continuously the person to whom an electronic monitoring device of 20007
the type described in division (UU)(1)(a) of this section is 20008
attached.20009

        (2) Any device that is not a device of the type described in 20010
division (UU)(1) of this section and that conforms with all of the 20011
following:20012

       (a) The device includes a transmitter and receiver that can 20013
monitor and determine the location of a subject person at any 20014
time, or at a designated point in time, through the use of a 20015
central monitoring computer or through other electronic means.20016

        (b) The device includes a transmitter and receiver that can 20017
determine at any time, or at a designated point in time, through 20018
the use of a central monitoring computer or other electronic means 20019
the fact that the transmitter is turned off or altered in any 20020
manner without prior approval of the court in relation to the 20021
electronic monitoring or without prior approval of the department 20022
of rehabilitation and correction in relation to the use of an 20023
electronic monitoring device for an inmate on transitional control 20024
or otherwise is tampered with.20025

        (3) Any type of technology that can adequately track or 20026
determine the location of a subject person at any time and that is 20027
approved by the director of rehabilitation and correction, 20028
including, but not limited to, any satellite technology, voice 20029
tracking system, or retinal scanning system that is so approved.20030

       (VV) "Non-economic loss" means nonpecuniary harm suffered by 20031
a victim of an offense as a result of or related to the commission 20032
of the offense, including, but not limited to, pain and suffering; 20033
loss of society, consortium, companionship, care, assistance, 20034
attention, protection, advice, guidance, counsel, instruction, 20035
training, or education; mental anguish; and any other intangible 20036
loss.20037

       (WW) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 20038
of the Revised Code.20039

       (XX) "Continuous alcohol monitoring" means the ability to 20040
automatically test and periodically transmit alcohol consumption 20041
levels and tamper attempts at least every hour, regardless of the 20042
location of the person who is being monitored.20043

       (YY) A person is "adjudicated a sexually violent predator" if 20044
the person is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violent sex 20045
offense and also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a sexually 20046
violent predator specification that was included in the 20047
indictment, count in the indictment, or information charging that 20048
violent sex offense or if the person is convicted of or pleads 20049
guilty to a designated homicide, assault, or kidnapping offense 20050
and also is convicted of or pleads guilty to both a sexual 20051
motivation specification and a sexually violent predator 20052
specification that were included in the indictment, count in the 20053
indictment, or information charging that designated homicide, 20054
assault, or kidnapping offense.20055

       (ZZ) An offense is "committed in proximity to a school" if 20056
the offender commits the offense in a school safety zone or within 20057
five hundred feet of any school building or the boundaries of any 20058
school premises, regardless of whether the offender knows the 20059
offense is being committed in a school safety zone or within five 20060
hundred feet of any school building or the boundaries of any 20061
school premises.20062

       (AAA) "Human trafficking" means a scheme or plan to which all 20063
of the following apply:20064

       (1) Its object is to subject a victim or victims to 20065
involuntary servitude, as defined in section 2905.31 of the 20066
Revised Code, to compel a victim or victims to engage in sexual 20067
activity for hire, to engage in a performance that is obscene, 20068
sexually oriented, or nudity oriented, or to be a model or 20069
participant in the production of material that is obscene, 20070
sexually oriented, or nudity oriented.20071

       (2) It involves at least two felony offenses, whether or not 20072
there has been a prior conviction for any of the felony offenses, 20073
to which all of the following apply:20074

       (a) Each of the felony offenses is a violation of section 20075
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.32, 2907.21, 2907.22, or 2923.32, division 20076
(A)(1) or (2) of section 2907.323, or division (B)(1), (2), (3), 20077
(4), or (5) of section 2919.22 of the Revised Code or is a 20078
violation of a law of any state other than this state that is 20079
substantially similar to any of the sections or divisions of the 20080
Revised Code identified in this division.20081

       (b) At least one of the felony offenses was committed in this 20082
state.20083

       (c) The felony offenses are related to the same scheme or 20084
plan and are not isolated instances.20085

       (BBB) "Material," "nudity," "obscene," "performance," and 20086
"sexual activity" have the same meanings as in section 2907.01 of 20087
the Revised Code.20088

       (CCC) "Material that is obscene, sexually oriented, or nudity 20089
oriented" means any material that is obscene, that shows a person 20090
participating or engaging in sexual activity, masturbation, or 20091
bestiality, or that shows a person in a state of nudity.20092

       (DDD) "Performance that is obscene, sexually oriented, or 20093
nudity oriented" means any performance that is obscene, that shows 20094
a person participating or engaging in sexual activity, 20095
masturbation, or bestiality, or that shows a person in a state of 20096
nudity.20097

       Sec. 2929.19.  (A) The court shall hold a sentencing hearing 20098
before imposing a sentence under this chapter upon an offender who 20099
was convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony and before 20100
resentencing an offender who was convicted of or pleaded guilty to 20101
a felony and whose case was remanded pursuant to section 2953.07 20102
or 2953.08 of the Revised Code. At the hearing, the offender, the 20103
prosecuting attorney, the victim or the victim's representative in 20104
accordance with section 2930.14 of the Revised Code, and, with the 20105
approval of the court, any other person may present information 20106
relevant to the imposition of sentence in the case. The court 20107
shall inform the offender of the verdict of the jury or finding of 20108
the court and ask the offender whether the offender has anything 20109
to say as to why sentence should not be imposed upon the offender.20110

       (B)(1) At the sentencing hearing, the court, before imposing 20111
sentence, shall consider the record, any information presented at 20112
the hearing by any person pursuant to division (A) of this 20113
section, and, if one was prepared, the presentence investigation 20114
report made pursuant to section 2951.03 of the Revised Code or 20115
Criminal Rule 32.2, and any victim impact statement made pursuant 20116
to section 2947.051 of the Revised Code.20117

       (2) Subject to division (B)(3) of this section, if the 20118
sentencing court determines at the sentencing hearing that a 20119
prison term is necessary or required, the court shall do all of 20120
the following:20121

       (a) Impose a stated prison term and, if the court imposes a 20122
mandatory prison term, notify the offender that the prison term is 20123
a mandatory prison term;20124

       (b) In addition to any other information, include in the 20125
sentencing entry the name and section reference to the offense or 20126
offenses, the sentence or sentences imposed and whether the 20127
sentence or sentences contain mandatory prison terms, if sentences 20128
are imposed for multiple counts whether the sentences are to be 20129
served concurrently or consecutively, and the name and section 20130
reference of any specification or specifications for which 20131
sentence is imposed and the sentence or sentences imposed for the 20132
specification or specifications;20133

       (c) Notify the offender that the offender will be supervised 20134
under section 2967.28 of the Revised Code after the offender 20135
leaves prison if the offender is being sentenced for a felony of 20136
the first degree or second degree, for a felony sex offense, or 20137
for a felony of the third degree that is not a felony sex offense 20138
and in the commission of which the offender caused or threatened 20139
to cause physical harm to a person. This division applies with 20140
respect to all prison terms imposed for an offense of a type 20141
described in this division, including a term imposed for any such 20142
offense that is a risk reduction sentence, as defined in section 20143
2967.28 of the Revised Code. If a court imposes a sentence 20144
including a prison term of a type described in division (B)(2)(c) 20145
of this section on or after July 11, 2006, the failure of a court 20146
to notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(c) of this 20147
section that the offender will be supervised under section 2967.28 20148
of the Revised Code after the offender leaves prison or to include 20149
in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal a statement 20150
to that effect does not negate, limit, or otherwise affect the 20151
mandatory period of supervision that is required for the offender 20152
under division (B) of section 2967.28 of the Revised Code. Section 20153
2929.191 of the Revised Code applies if, prior to July 11, 2006, a 20154
court imposed a sentence including a prison term of a type 20155
described in division (B)(2)(c) of this section and failed to 20156
notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(c) of this section 20157
regarding post-release control or to include in the judgment of 20158
conviction entered on the journal or in the sentence a statement 20159
regarding post-release control.20160

       (d) Notify the offender that the offender may be supervised 20161
under section 2967.28 of the Revised Code after the offender 20162
leaves prison if the offender is being sentenced for a felony of 20163
the third, fourth, or fifth degree that is not subject to division 20164
(B)(2)(c) of this section. This division applies with respect to 20165
all prison terms imposed for an offense of a type described in 20166
this division, including a term imposed for any such offense that 20167
is a risk reduction sentence, as defined in section 2967.28 of the 20168
Revised Code. Section 2929.191 of the Revised Code applies if, 20169
prior to July 11, 2006, a court imposed a sentence including a 20170
prison term of a type described in division (B)(2)(d) of this 20171
section and failed to notify the offender pursuant to division 20172
(B)(2)(d) of this section regarding post-release control or to 20173
include in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal or in 20174
the sentence a statement regarding post-release control.20175

       (e) Notify the offender that, if a period of supervision is 20176
imposed following the offender's release from prison, as described 20177
in division (B)(2)(c) or (d) of this section, and if the offender 20178
violates that supervision or a condition of post-release control 20179
imposed under division (B) of section 2967.131 of the Revised 20180
Code, the parole board may impose a prison term, as part of the 20181
sentence, of up to one-half of the stated prison term originally 20182
imposed upon the offender. If a court imposes a sentence including 20183
a prison term on or after July 11, 2006, the failure of a court to 20184
notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(e) of this section 20185
that the parole board may impose a prison term as described in 20186
division (B)(2)(e) of this section for a violation of that 20187
supervision or a condition of post-release control imposed under 20188
division (B) of section 2967.131 of the Revised Code or to include 20189
in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal a statement 20190
to that effect does not negate, limit, or otherwise affect the 20191
authority of the parole board to so impose a prison term for a 20192
violation of that nature if, pursuant to division (D)(1) of 20193
section 2967.28 of the Revised Code, the parole board notifies the 20194
offender prior to the offender's release of the board's authority 20195
to so impose a prison term. Section 2929.191 of the Revised Code 20196
applies if, prior to July 11, 2006, a court imposed a sentence 20197
including a prison term and failed to notify the offender pursuant 20198
to division (B)(2)(e) of this section regarding the possibility of 20199
the parole board imposing a prison term for a violation of 20200
supervision or a condition of post-release control.20201

       (f) Require that the offender not ingest or be injected with 20202
a drug of abuse and submit to random drug testing as provided in 20203
section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised Code, whichever 20204
is applicable to the offender who is serving a prison term, and 20205
require that the results of the drug test administered under any 20206
of those sections indicate that the offender did not ingest or was 20207
not injected with a drug of abuse.20208

       (g) Include in the offender's sentence a statement notifying 20209
the offender of the information described in division (F)(3) of 20210
section 2929.14 of the Revised Code regarding earned credits under 20211
section 2967.193 of the Revised Code.20212

       (h)(i) Determine, notify the offender of, and include in the 20213
sentencing entry the number of days that the offender has been 20214
confined for any reason arising out of the offense for which the 20215
offender is being sentenced and by which the department of 20216
rehabilitation and correction must reduce the stated prison term 20217
under section 2967.191 of the Revised Code. The court's 20218
calculation shall not include the number of days, if any, that the 20219
offender previously served in the custody of the department of 20220
rehabilitation and correction arising out of the offense for which 20221
the prisoner was convicted and sentenced.20222

        (ii) In making a determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of 20223
this section, the court shall consider the arguments of the 20224
parties and conduct a hearing if one is requested.20225

       (iii) The sentencing court retains continuing jurisdiction to 20226
correct any error not previously raised at sentencing in making a 20227
determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of this section. The 20228
offender may, at any time after sentencing, file a motion in the 20229
sentencing court to correct any error made in making a 20230
determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of this section, and the 20231
court may in its discretion grant or deny that motion. If the 20232
court changes the number of days in its determination or 20233
redetermination, the court shall cause the entry granting that 20234
change to be delivered to the department of rehabilitation and 20235
correction without delay. Sections 2931.15 and 2953.21 of the 20236
Revised Code do not apply to a motion made under this section.20237

        (iv) An inaccurate determination under division (B)(2)(h)(i) 20238
of this section is not grounds for setting aside the offender's 20239
conviction or sentence and does not otherwise render the sentence 20240
void or voidable.20241

       (3)(a) The court shall include in the offender's sentence a 20242
statement that the offender is a tier III sex 20243
offender/child-victim offender, and the court shall comply with 20244
the requirements of section 2950.03 of the Revised Code if any of 20245
the following apply:20246

       (i) The offender is being sentenced for a violent sex offense 20247
or designated homicide, assault, or kidnapping offense that the 20248
offender committed on or after January 1, 1997, and the offender 20249
is adjudicated a sexually violent predator in relation to that 20250
offense.20251

       (ii) The offender is being sentenced for a sexually oriented 20252
offense that the offender committed on or after January 1, 1997, 20253
and the offender is a tier III sex offender/child-victim offender 20254
relative to that offense.20255

       (iii) The offender is being sentenced on or after July 31, 20256
2003, for a child-victim oriented offense, and the offender is a 20257
tier III sex offender/child-victim offender relative to that 20258
offense.20259

       (iv) The offender is being sentenced under section 2971.03 of 20260
the Revised Code for a violation of division (A)(1)(b) of section 20261
2907.02 of the Revised Code committed on or after January 2, 2007.20262

       (v) The offender is sentenced to a term of life without 20263
parole under division (B) of section 2907.02 of the Revised Code.20264

       (vi) The offender is being sentenced for attempted rape 20265
committed on or after January 2, 2007, and a specification of the 20266
type described in section 2941.1418, 2941.1419, or 2941.1420 of 20267
the Revised Code.20268

       (vii) The offender is being sentenced under division 20269
(B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of section 2971.03 of the Revised Code 20270
for an offense described in those divisions committed on or after 20271
January 1, 2008.20272

       (b) Additionally, if any criterion set forth in divisions 20273
(B)(3)(a)(i) to (vii) of this section is satisfied, in the 20274
circumstances described in division (E) of section 2929.14 of the 20275
Revised Code, the court shall impose sentence on the offender as 20276
described in that division.20277

       (4) If the sentencing court determines at the sentencing 20278
hearing that a community control sanction should be imposed and 20279
the court is not prohibited from imposing a community control 20280
sanction, the court shall impose a community control sanction. The 20281
court shall notify the offender that, if the conditions of the 20282
sanction are violated, if the offender commits a violation of any 20283
law, or if the offender leaves this state without the permission 20284
of the court or the offender's probation officer, the court may 20285
impose a longer time under the same sanction, may impose a more 20286
restrictive sanction, or may impose a prison term on the offender 20287
and shall indicate the specific prison term that may be imposed as 20288
a sanction for the violation, as selected by the court from the 20289
range of prison terms for the offense pursuant to section 2929.14 20290
of the Revised Code.20291

       (5) Before imposing a financial sanction under section 20292
2929.18 of the Revised Code or a fine under section 2929.32 of the 20293
Revised Code, the court shall consider the offender's present and 20294
future ability to pay the amount of the sanction or fine.20295

       (6) If the sentencing court sentences the offender to a 20296
sanction of confinement pursuant to section 2929.14 or 2929.16 of 20297
the Revised Code that is to be served in a local detention 20298
facility, as defined in section 2929.36 of the Revised Code, and 20299
if the local detention facility is covered by a policy adopted 20300
pursuant to section 307.93, 341.14, 341.19, 341.21, 341.23, 20301
753.02, 753.04, 753.16, 2301.56, or 2947.19 of the Revised Code 20302
and section 2929.37 of the Revised Code, both of the following 20303
apply:20304

       (a) The court shall specify both of the following as part of 20305
the sentence:20306

       (i) If the offender is presented with an itemized bill 20307
pursuant to section 2929.37 of the Revised Code for payment of the 20308
costs of confinement, the offender is required to pay the bill in 20309
accordance with that section.20310

       (ii) If the offender does not dispute the bill described in 20311
division (B)(6)(a)(i) of this section and does not pay the bill by 20312
the times specified in section 2929.37 of the Revised Code, the 20313
clerk of the court may issue a certificate of judgment against the 20314
offender as described in that section.20315

       (b) The sentence automatically includes any certificate of 20316
judgment issued as described in division (B)(6)(a)(ii) of this 20317
section.20318

       (7) The failure of the court to notify the offender that a 20319
prison term is a mandatory prison term pursuant to division 20320
(B)(2)(a) of this section or to include in the sentencing entry 20321
any information required by division (B)(2)(b) of this section 20322
does not affect the validity of the imposed sentence or sentences. 20323
If the sentencing court notifies the offender at the sentencing 20324
hearing that a prison term is mandatory but the sentencing entry 20325
does not specify that the prison term is mandatory, the court may 20326
complete a corrected journal entry and send copies of the 20327
corrected entry to the offender and the department of 20328
rehabilitation and correction, or, at the request of the state, 20329
the court shall complete a corrected journal entry and send copies 20330
of the corrected entry to the offender and department of 20331
rehabilitation and correction.20332

       (C)(1) If the offender is being sentenced for a fourth degree 20333
felony OVI offense under division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the 20334
Revised Code, the court shall impose the mandatory term of local 20335
incarceration in accordance with that division, shall impose a 20336
mandatory fine in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 20337
2929.18 of the Revised Code, and, in addition, may impose 20338
additional sanctions as specified in sections 2929.15, 2929.16, 20339
2929.17, and 2929.18 of the Revised Code. The court shall not 20340
impose a prison term on the offender except that the court may 20341
impose a prison term upon the offender as provided in division 20342
(A)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code.20343

       (2) If the offender is being sentenced for a third or fourth 20344
degree felony OVI offense under division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 20345
of the Revised Code, the court shall impose the mandatory prison 20346
term in accordance with that division, shall impose a mandatory 20347
fine in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 2929.18 of the 20348
Revised Code, and, in addition, may impose an additional prison 20349
term as specified in section 2929.14 of the Revised Code. In 20350
addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 20351
additional prison term the court imposes, the court also may 20352
impose a community control sanction on the offender, but the 20353
offender shall serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to 20354
serving the community control sanction.20355

       (D) The sentencing court, pursuant to division (I)(1) of 20356
section 2929.14 of the Revised Code, may recommend placement of 20357
the offender in a program of shock incarceration under section 20358
5120.031 of the Revised Code or an intensive program prison under 20359
section 5120.032 of the Revised Code, disapprove placement of the 20360
offender in a program or prison of that nature, or make no 20361
recommendation. If the court recommends or disapproves placement, 20362
it shall make a finding that gives its reasons for its 20363
recommendation or disapproval.20364

       Sec. 2935.01.  As used in this chapter:20365

       (A) "Magistrate" has the same meaning as in section 2931.01 20366
of the Revised Code.20367

       (B) "Peace officer" includes, except as provided in section 20368
2935.081 of the Revised Code, a sheriff; deputy sheriff; marshal; 20369
deputy marshal; member of the organized police department of any 20370
municipal corporation, including a member of the organized police 20371
department of a municipal corporation in an adjoining state 20372
serving in Ohio under a contract pursuant to section 737.04 of the 20373
Revised Code; member of a police force employed by a metropolitan 20374
housing authority under division (D) of section 3735.31 of the 20375
Revised Code; member of a police force employed by a regional 20376
transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.05 of the 20377
Revised Code; state university law enforcement officer appointed 20378
under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code; enforcement agent of 20379
the department of public safety designated under section 5502.14 20380
of the Revised Code; employee of the department of taxation to 20381
whom investigation powers have been delegated under section 20382
5743.45 of the Revised Code; employee of the department of natural 20383
resources who is a natural resources law enforcement staff officer 20384
designated pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a 20385
forest officer designated pursuant to section 1503.29 of the 20386
Revised Code, a preserve officer designated pursuant to section 20387
1517.10 of the Revised Code, a wildlife officer designated 20388
pursuant to section 1531.13 of the Revised Code, a park officer 20389
designated pursuant to section 1541.10 of the Revised Code, or a 20390
state watercraft officer designated pursuant to section 1547.521 20391
of the Revised Code; individual designated to perform law 20392
enforcement duties under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of 20393
the Revised Code; veterans' home police officer appointed under 20394
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code; special police officer 20395
employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of 20396
the Revised Code; police constable of any township; police officer 20397
of a township or joint police district; a special police officer 20398
employed by a municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or 20399
other municipal air navigation facility, that has scheduled 20400
operations, as defined in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of 20401
Federal Regulations, 14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is 20402
required to be under a security program and is governed by 20403
aviation security rules of the transportation security 20404
administration of the United States department of transportation 20405
as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. of Title 49 of the Code of 20406
Federal Regulations, as amended; the house of representatives 20407
sergeant at arms if the house of representatives sergeant at arms 20408
has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 20409
101.311 of the Revised Code; and an assistant house of 20410
representatives sergeant at arms; the senate sergeant at arms; an 20411
assistant senate sergeant at arms; officer or employee of the 20412
bureau of criminal identification and investigation established 20413
pursuant to section 109.51 of the Revised Code who has been 20414
awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace 20415
officer training commission attesting to the officer's or 20416
employee's satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, 20417
municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic 20418
training program and who is providing assistance upon request to a 20419
law enforcement officer or emergency assistance to a peace officer 20420
pursuant to section 109.54 or 109.541 of the Revised Code; a state 20421
fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division (A)(23) 20422
of section 109.71 of the Revised Code; and, for the purpose of 20423
arrests within those areas, for the purposes of Chapter 5503. of 20424
the Revised Code, and the filing of and service of process 20425
relating to those offenses witnessed or investigated by them, the 20426
superintendent and troopers of the state highway patrol.20427

       (C) "Prosecutor" includes the county prosecuting attorney and 20428
any assistant prosecutor designated to assist the county 20429
prosecuting attorney, and, in the case of courts inferior to 20430
courts of common pleas, includes the village solicitor, city 20431
director of law, or similar chief legal officer of a municipal 20432
corporation, any such officer's assistants, or any attorney 20433
designated by the prosecuting attorney of the county to appear for 20434
the prosecution of a given case.20435

       (D) "Offense," except where the context specifically 20436
indicates otherwise, includes felonies, misdemeanors, and 20437
violations of ordinances of municipal corporations and other 20438
public bodies authorized by law to adopt penal regulations.20439

       Sec. 2935.03.  (A)(1) A sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, 20440
deputy marshal, municipal police officer, township constable, 20441
police officer of a township or joint police district, member of a 20442
police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under 20443
division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a 20444
police force employed by a regional transit authority under 20445
division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code, state 20446
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 20447
of the Revised Code, veterans' home police officer appointed under 20448
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code, special police officer 20449
employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of 20450
the Revised Code, or a special police officer employed by a 20451
municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal 20452
air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined 20453
in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 20454
14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 20455
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 20456
transportation security administration of the United States 20457
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 20458
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended, shall 20459
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found 20460
violating, within the limits of the political subdivision, 20461
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 20462
authority facilities or areas of a municipal corporation that have 20463
been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a municipal 20464
corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, college, 20465
university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. of the 20466
Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 20467
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 20468
appointed, employed, or elected, a law of this state, an ordinance 20469
of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a township.20470

       (2) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 20471
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 20472
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 20473
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 20474
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code shall arrest and 20475
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found violating, 20476
within the limits of the peace officer's, state fire marshal law 20477
enforcement officer's, or individual's territorial jurisdiction, a 20478
law of this state.20479

       (3) The house sergeant at arms, if the house sergeant at arms 20480
has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 20481
101.311 of the Revised Code, and an assistant house sergeant at 20482
arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a 20483
person found violating, within the limits of the sergeant at 20484
arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial jurisdiction 20485
specified in division (D)(1)(a) of section 101.311 of the Revised 20486
Code or while providing security pursuant to division (D)(1)(f) of 20487
section 101.311 of the Revised Code, a law of this state, an 20488
ordinance of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a 20489
township.20490

       (4) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate 20491
sergeant at arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be 20492
obtained, a person found violating, within the limits of the 20493
sergeant at arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial 20494
jurisdiction specified in division (B) of section 101.312 of the 20495
Revised Code, a law of this state, an ordinance of a municipal 20496
corporation, or a resolution of a township.20497

       (B)(1) When there is reasonable ground to believe that an 20498
offense of violence, the offense of criminal child enticement as 20499
defined in section 2905.05 of the Revised Code, the offense of 20500
public indecency as defined in section 2907.09 of the Revised 20501
Code, the offense of domestic violence as defined in section 20502
2919.25 of the Revised Code, the offense of violating a protection 20503
order as defined in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, the 20504
offense of menacing by stalking as defined in section 2903.211 of 20505
the Revised Code, the offense of aggravated trespass as defined in 20506
section 2911.211 of the Revised Code, a theft offense as defined 20507
in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, or a felony drug abuse 20508
offense as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, has 20509
been committed within the limits of the political subdivision, 20510
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 20511
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 20512
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 20513
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 20514
college, university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 20515
of the Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 20516
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 20517
appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 20518
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a peace officer 20519
described in division (A) of this section may arrest and detain 20520
until a warrant can be obtained any person who the peace officer 20521
has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of the violation.20522

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, the 20523
execution of any of the following constitutes reasonable ground to 20524
believe that the offense alleged in the statement was committed 20525
and reasonable cause to believe that the person alleged in the 20526
statement to have committed the offense is guilty of the 20527
violation:20528

       (a) A written statement by a person alleging that an alleged 20529
offender has committed the offense of menacing by stalking or 20530
aggravated trespass;20531

       (b) A written statement by the administrator of the 20532
interstate compact on mental health appointed under section 20533
5119.51 of the Revised Code alleging that a person who had been 20534
hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in any facility under 20535
an order made pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 20536
2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the 20537
Revised Code has escaped from the facility, from confinement in a 20538
vehicle for transportation to or from the facility, or from 20539
supervision by an employee of the facility that is incidental to 20540
hospitalization, institutionalization, or confinement in the 20541
facility and that occurs outside of the facility, in violation of 20542
section 2921.34 of the Revised Code;20543

       (c) A written statement by the administrator of any facility 20544
in which a person has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or 20545
confined under an order made pursuant to or under authority of 20546
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 20547
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 20548
from the facility, from confinement in a vehicle for 20549
transportation to or from the facility, or from supervision by an 20550
employee of the facility that is incidental to hospitalization, 20551
institutionalization, or confinement in the facility and that 20552
occurs outside of the facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of 20553
the Revised Code.20554

       (3)(a) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, a 20555
peace officer described in division (A) of this section has 20556
reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of domestic 20557
violence or the offense of violating a protection order has been 20558
committed and reasonable cause to believe that a particular person 20559
is guilty of committing the offense if any of the following 20560
occurs:20561

       (i) A person executes a written statement alleging that the 20562
person in question has committed the offense of domestic violence 20563
or the offense of violating a protection order against the person 20564
who executes the statement or against a child of the person who 20565
executes the statement.20566

       (ii) No written statement of the type described in division 20567
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer, 20568
based upon the peace officer's own knowledge and observation of 20569
the facts and circumstances of the alleged incident of the offense 20570
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 20571
violating a protection order or based upon any other information, 20572
including, but not limited to, any reasonably trustworthy 20573
information given to the peace officer by the alleged victim of 20574
the alleged incident of the offense or any witness of the alleged 20575
incident of the offense, concludes that there are reasonable 20576
grounds to believe that the offense of domestic violence or the 20577
offense of violating a protection order has been committed and 20578
reasonable cause to believe that the person in question is guilty 20579
of committing the offense.20580

       (iii) No written statement of the type described in division 20581
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer 20582
witnessed the person in question commit the offense of domestic 20583
violence or the offense of violating a protection order.20584

       (b) If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 20585
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 20586
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 20587
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that a 20588
particular person is guilty of committing the offense, it is the 20589
preferred course of action in this state that the officer arrest 20590
and detain that person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section 20591
until a warrant can be obtained.20592

       If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 20593
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 20594
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 20595
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that family or 20596
household members have committed the offense against each other, 20597
it is the preferred course of action in this state that the 20598
officer, pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, arrest and 20599
detain until a warrant can be obtained the family or household 20600
member who committed the offense and whom the officer has 20601
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor. 20602
There is no preferred course of action in this state regarding any 20603
other family or household member who committed the offense and 20604
whom the officer does not have reasonable cause to believe is the 20605
primary physical aggressor, but, pursuant to division (B)(1) of 20606
this section, the peace officer may arrest and detain until a 20607
warrant can be obtained any other family or household member who 20608
committed the offense and whom the officer does not have 20609
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor.20610

       (c) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 20611
section does not arrest and detain a person whom the officer has 20612
reasonable cause to believe committed the offense of domestic 20613
violence or the offense of violating a protection order when it is 20614
the preferred course of action in this state pursuant to division 20615
(B)(3)(b) of this section that the officer arrest that person, the 20616
officer shall articulate in the written report of the incident 20617
required by section 2935.032 of the Revised Code a clear statement 20618
of the officer's reasons for not arresting and detaining that 20619
person until a warrant can be obtained.20620

       (d) In determining for purposes of division (B)(3)(b) of this 20621
section which family or household member is the primary physical 20622
aggressor in a situation in which family or household members have 20623
committed the offense of domestic violence or the offense of 20624
violating a protection order against each other, a peace officer 20625
described in division (A) of this section, in addition to any 20626
other relevant circumstances, should consider all of the 20627
following:20628

       (i) Any history of domestic violence or of any other violent 20629
acts by either person involved in the alleged offense that the 20630
officer reasonably can ascertain;20631

       (ii) If violence is alleged, whether the alleged violence was 20632
caused by a person acting in self-defense;20633

       (iii) Each person's fear of physical harm, if any, resulting 20634
from the other person's threatened use of force against any person 20635
or resulting from the other person's use or history of the use of 20636
force against any person, and the reasonableness of that fear;20637

       (iv) The comparative severity of any injuries suffered by the 20638
persons involved in the alleged offense.20639

       (e)(i) A peace officer described in division (A) of this 20640
section shall not require, as a prerequisite to arresting or 20641
charging a person who has committed the offense of domestic 20642
violence or the offense of violating a protection order, that the 20643
victim of the offense specifically consent to the filing of 20644
charges against the person who has committed the offense or sign a 20645
complaint against the person who has committed the offense.20646

       (ii) If a person is arrested for or charged with committing 20647
the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a 20648
protection order and if the victim of the offense does not 20649
cooperate with the involved law enforcement or prosecuting 20650
authorities in the prosecution of the offense or, subsequent to 20651
the arrest or the filing of the charges, informs the involved law 20652
enforcement or prosecuting authorities that the victim does not 20653
wish the prosecution of the offense to continue or wishes to drop 20654
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense, the 20655
involved prosecuting authorities, in determining whether to 20656
continue with the prosecution of the offense or whether to dismiss 20657
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense and 20658
notwithstanding the victim's failure to cooperate or the victim's 20659
wishes, shall consider all facts and circumstances that are 20660
relevant to the offense, including, but not limited to, the 20661
statements and observations of the peace officers who responded to 20662
the incident that resulted in the arrest or filing of the charges 20663
and of all witnesses to that incident.20664

       (f) In determining pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of 20665
this section whether to arrest a person pursuant to division 20666
(B)(1) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 20667
of this section shall not consider as a factor any possible 20668
shortage of cell space at the detention facility to which the 20669
person will be taken subsequent to the person's arrest or any 20670
possibility that the person's arrest might cause, contribute to, 20671
or exacerbate overcrowding at that detention facility or at any 20672
other detention facility.20673

       (g) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 20674
section intends pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of this 20675
section to arrest a person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 20676
section and if the officer is unable to do so because the person 20677
is not present, the officer promptly shall seek a warrant for the 20678
arrest of the person.20679

       (h) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 20680
section responds to a report of an alleged incident of the offense 20681
of domestic violence or an alleged incident of the offense of 20682
violating a protection order and if the circumstances of the 20683
incident involved the use or threatened use of a deadly weapon or 20684
any person involved in the incident brandished a deadly weapon 20685
during or in relation to the incident, the deadly weapon that was 20686
used, threatened to be used, or brandished constitutes contraband, 20687
and, to the extent possible, the officer shall seize the deadly 20688
weapon as contraband pursuant to Chapter 2981. of the Revised 20689
Code. Upon the seizure of a deadly weapon pursuant to division 20690
(B)(3)(h) of this section, section 2981.12 of the Revised Code 20691
shall apply regarding the treatment and disposition of the deadly 20692
weapon. For purposes of that section, the "underlying criminal 20693
offense" that was the basis of the seizure of a deadly weapon 20694
under division (B)(3)(h) of this section and to which the deadly 20695
weapon had a relationship is any of the following that is 20696
applicable:20697

       (i) The alleged incident of the offense of domestic violence 20698
or the alleged incident of the offense of violating a protection 20699
order to which the officer who seized the deadly weapon responded;20700

       (ii) Any offense that arose out of the same facts and 20701
circumstances as the report of the alleged incident of the offense 20702
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 20703
violating a protection order to which the officer who seized the 20704
deadly weapon responded.20705

       (4) If, in the circumstances described in divisions (B)(3)(a) 20706
to (g) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 20707
of this section arrests and detains a person pursuant to division 20708
(B)(1) of this section, or if, pursuant to division (B)(3)(h) of 20709
this section, a peace officer described in division (A) of this 20710
section seizes a deadly weapon, the officer, to the extent 20711
described in and in accordance with section 9.86 or 2744.03 of the 20712
Revised Code, is immune in any civil action for damages for 20713
injury, death, or loss to person or property that arises from or 20714
is related to the arrest and detention or the seizure.20715

       (C) When there is reasonable ground to believe that a 20716
violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of section 20717
4506.15 or a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code has 20718
been committed by a person operating a motor vehicle subject to 20719
regulation by the public utilities commission of Ohio under Title 20720
XLIX of the Revised Code, a peace officer with authority to 20721
enforce that provision of law may stop or detain the person whom 20722
the officer has reasonable cause to believe was operating the 20723
motor vehicle in violation of the division or section and, after 20724
investigating the circumstances surrounding the operation of the 20725
vehicle, may arrest and detain the person.20726

       (D) If a sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, 20727
municipal police officer, member of a police force employed by a 20728
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 20729
3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a police force employed by 20730
a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 20731
of the Revised Code, special police officer employed by a port 20732
authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code, 20733
special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a 20734
municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility 20735
described in division (A) of this section, township constable, 20736
police officer of a township or joint police district, state 20737
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 20738
of the Revised Code, peace officer of the department of natural 20739
resources, individual designated to perform law enforcement duties 20740
under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code, 20741
the house sergeant at arms if the house sergeant at arms has 20742
arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of 20743
the Revised Code, or an assistant house sergeant at arms is 20744
authorized by division (A) or (B) of this section to arrest and 20745
detain, within the limits of the political subdivision, 20746
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 20747
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 20748
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 20749
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 20750
port authority, municipal airport or other municipal air 20751
navigation facility, college, or university in which the officer 20752
is appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 20753
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a person until a 20754
warrant can be obtained, the peace officer, outside the limits of 20755
that territory, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person until a 20756
warrant can be obtained if all of the following apply:20757

       (1) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 20758
the offense is committed;20759

       (2) The pursuit is initiated within the limits of the 20760
political subdivision, metropolitan housing authority housing 20761
project, regional transit authority facilities or those areas of a 20762
municipal corporation that have been agreed to by a regional 20763
transit authority and a municipal corporation located within its 20764
territorial jurisdiction, port authority, municipal airport or 20765
other municipal air navigation facility, college, or university in 20766
which the peace officer is appointed, employed, or elected or 20767
within the limits of the territorial jurisdiction of the peace 20768
officer;20769

       (3) The offense involved is a felony, a misdemeanor of the 20770
first degree or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, a 20771
misdemeanor of the second degree or a substantially equivalent 20772
municipal ordinance, or any offense for which points are 20773
chargeable pursuant to section 4510.036 of the Revised Code.20774

       (E) In addition to the authority granted under division (A) 20775
or (B) of this section:20776

       (1) A sheriff or deputy sheriff may arrest and detain, until 20777
a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating section 20778
4503.11, 4503.21, or 4549.01, sections 4549.08 to 4549.12, section 20779
4549.62, or Chapter 4511. or 4513. of the Revised Code on the 20780
portion of any street or highway that is located immediately 20781
adjacent to the boundaries of the county in which the sheriff or 20782
deputy sheriff is elected or appointed.20783

       (2) A member of the police force of a township police 20784
district created under section 505.48 of the Revised Code, a 20785
member of the police force of a joint police district created 20786
under section 505.482 of the Revised Code, or a township constable 20787
appointed in accordance with section 509.01 of the Revised Code, 20788
who has received a certificate from the Ohio peace officer 20789
training commission under section 109.75 of the Revised Code, may 20790
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person 20791
found violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed 20792
in division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 20793
and 4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 20794
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 20795
the township police district or joint police district, in the case 20796
of a member of a township police district or joint police district 20797
police force, or the unincorporated territory of the township, in 20798
the case of a township constable. However, if the population of 20799
the township that created the township police district served by 20800
the member's police force, or the townships and municipal 20801
corporations that created the joint police district served by the 20802
member's police force, or the township that is served by the 20803
township constable, is sixty thousand or less, the member of the 20804
township police district or joint police district police force or 20805
the township constable may not make an arrest under division 20806
(E)(2) of this section on a state highway that is included as part 20807
of the interstate system.20808

       (3) A police officer or village marshal appointed, elected, 20809
or employed by a municipal corporation may arrest and detain, 20810
until a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating any 20811
section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in division (E)(1) 20812
of this section on the portion of any street or highway that is 20813
located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of the municipal 20814
corporation in which the police officer or village marshal is 20815
appointed, elected, or employed.20816

       (4) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 20817
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 20818
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 20819
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 20820
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code may arrest and 20821
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person found 20822
violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in 20823
division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 and 20824
4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 20825
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 20826
the lands and waters that constitute the territorial jurisdiction 20827
of the peace officer or state fire marshal law enforcement 20828
officer.20829

       (F)(1) A department of mental health special police officer 20830
or a department of developmental disabilities special police 20831
officer may arrest without a warrant and detain until a warrant 20832
can be obtained any person found committing on the premises of any 20833
institution under the jurisdiction of the particular department a 20834
misdemeanor under a law of the state.20835

       A department of mental health special police officer or a 20836
department of developmental disabilities special police officer 20837
may arrest without a warrant and detain until a warrant can be 20838
obtained any person who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, 20839
or confined in an institution under the jurisdiction of the 20840
particular department pursuant to or under authority of section 20841
2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 20842
2945.402 of the Revised Code and who is found committing on the 20843
premises of any institution under the jurisdiction of the 20844
particular department a violation of section 2921.34 of the 20845
Revised Code that involves an escape from the premises of the 20846
institution.20847

       (2)(a) If a department of mental health special police 20848
officer or a department of developmental disabilities special 20849
police officer finds any person who has been hospitalized, 20850
institutionalized, or confined in an institution under the 20851
jurisdiction of the particular department pursuant to or under 20852
authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 20853
2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code committing a violation 20854
of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code that involves an escape 20855
from the premises of the institution, or if there is reasonable 20856
ground to believe that a violation of section 2921.34 of the 20857
Revised Code has been committed that involves an escape from the 20858
premises of an institution under the jurisdiction of the 20859
department of mental health or the department of developmental 20860
disabilities and if a department of mental health special police 20861
officer or a department of developmental disabilities special 20862
police officer has reasonable cause to believe that a particular 20863
person who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined 20864
in the institution pursuant to or under authority of section 20865
2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 20866
2945.402 of the Revised Code is guilty of the violation, the 20867
special police officer, outside of the premises of the 20868
institution, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person for that 20869
violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code, until a warrant 20870
can be obtained, if both of the following apply:20871

       (i) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 20872
the offense is committed;20873

       (ii) The pursuit is initiated within the premises of the 20874
institution from which the violation of section 2921.34 of the 20875
Revised Code occurred.20876

       (b) For purposes of division (F)(2)(a) of this section, the 20877
execution of a written statement by the administrator of the 20878
institution in which a person had been hospitalized, 20879
institutionalized, or confined pursuant to or under authority of 20880
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 20881
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 20882
from the premises of the institution in violation of section 20883
2921.34 of the Revised Code constitutes reasonable ground to 20884
believe that the violation was committed and reasonable cause to 20885
believe that the person alleged in the statement to have committed 20886
the offense is guilty of the violation.20887

       (G) As used in this section:20888

       (1) A "department of mental health special police officer" 20889
means a special police officer of the department of mental health 20890
designated under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code who is 20891
certified by the Ohio peace officer training commission under 20892
section 109.77 of the Revised Code as having successfully 20893
completed an approved peace officer basic training program.20894

       (2) A "department of developmental disabilities special 20895
police officer" means a special police officer of the department 20896
of developmental disabilities designated under section 5123.13 of 20897
the Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer 20898
training council under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as 20899
having successfully completed an approved peace officer basic 20900
training program.20901

       (3) "Deadly weapon" has the same meaning as in section 20902
2923.11 of the Revised Code.20903

       (4) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 20904
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.20905

       (5) "Street" or "highway" has the same meaning as in section 20906
4511.01 of the Revised Code.20907

       (6) "Interstate system" has the same meaning as in section 20908
5516.01 of the Revised Code.20909

       (7) "Peace officer of the department of natural resources" 20910
means an employee of the department of natural resources who is a 20911
natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated 20912
pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a forest officer 20913
designated pursuant to section 1503.29 of the Revised Code, a 20914
preserve officer designated pursuant to section 1517.10 of the 20915
Revised Code, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 20916
1531.13 of the Revised Code, a park officer designated pursuant to 20917
section 1541.10 of the Revised Code, or a state watercraft officer 20918
designated pursuant to section 1547.521 of the Revised Code.20919

       (8) "Portion of any street or highway" means all lanes of the 20920
street or highway irrespective of direction of travel, including 20921
designated turn lanes, and any berm, median, or shoulder.20922

       Sec. 2945.371.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 20923
to stand trial is raised or if a defendant enters a plea of not 20924
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 20925
evaluations of the defendant's present mental condition or, in the 20926
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 20927
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. 20928
An examiner shall conduct the evaluation.20929

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 20930
division (A) of this section, the prosecutor and the defendant may 20931
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 20932
one of the evaluations. If a defendant enters a plea of not guilty 20933
by reason of insanity and if the court does not designate an 20934
examiner recommended by the defendant, the court shall inform the 20935
defendant that the defendant may have independent expert 20936
evaluation and that, if the defendant is unable to obtain 20937
independent expert evaluation, it will be obtained for the 20938
defendant at public expense if the defendant is indigent.20939

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 20940
this section, the defendant shall be available at the times and 20941
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 20942
evaluation. The court may order a defendant who has been released 20943
on bail or recognizance to submit to an evaluation under this 20944
section. If a defendant who has been released on bail or 20945
recognizance refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 20946
may amend the conditions of bail or recognizance and order the 20947
sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 20948
defendant to a center, program, or facility operated or certified 20949
by the department of mental health or the department of 20950
developmental disabilities where the defendant may be held for 20951
evaluation for a reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty 20952
days.20953

       (D) A defendant who has not been released on bail or 20954
recognizance may be evaluated at the defendant's place of 20955
detention. Upon the request of the examiner, the court may order 20956
the sheriff to transport the defendant to a program or facility 20957
operated or certified by the department of mental health or the 20958
department of developmental disabilities, where the defendant may 20959
be held for evaluation for a reasonable period of time not to 20960
exceed twenty days, and to return the defendant to the place of 20961
detention after the evaluation. A municipal court may make an 20962
order under this division only upon the request of a certified 20963
forensic center examiner.20964

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine a 20965
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 20966
the court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 20967
defendant is charged.20968

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of a defendant's mental 20969
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 20970
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 20971
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 20972
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 20973
the defendant suffered, at the time of the commission of the 20974
offense, from the "battered woman syndrome."20975

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 20976
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 20977
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor 20978
and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 20979
following:20980

       (1) The examiner's findings;20981

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 20982
based;20983

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 20984
defendant's competence to stand trial, all of the following 20985
findings or recommendations that are applicable:20986

       (a) Whether the defendant is capable of understanding the 20987
nature and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or 20988
of assisting in the defendant's defense;20989

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 20990
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 20991
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 20992
defendant's defense, whether the defendant presently is mentally 20993
ill or mentally retarded and, if the examiner's opinion is that 20994
the defendant presently is mentally retarded, whether the 20995
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 20996
institutionalization by court order;20997

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 20998
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 20999
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 21000
defendant's defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood 21001
of the defendant becoming capable of understanding the nature and 21002
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 21003
assisting in the defendant's defense within one year if the 21004
defendant is provided with a course of treatment;21005

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 21006
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 21007
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 21008
defendant's defense and that the defendant presently is mentally 21009
ill or mentally retarded, the examiner's recommendation as to the 21010
least restrictive placement or commitment alternative, consistent 21011
with the defendant's treatment needs for restoration to competency 21012
and with the safety of the community;21013

       (e) If the defendant is charged with a misdemeanor offense 21014
that is not an offense of violence and the examiner's opinion is 21015
that the defendant is incapable of understanding the nature and 21016
objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of assisting 21017
in the defendant's defense and that the defendant is presently 21018
mentally ill or mentally retarded, the examiner's recommendation 21019
as to whether the defendant is amenable to engagement in mental 21020
health treatment or developmental disability services.21021

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 21022
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 21023
the examiner's findings as to whether the defendant, at the time 21024
of the offense charged, did not know, as a result of a severe 21025
mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the defendant's acts 21026
charged.21027

       (H) If the examiner's report filed under division (G) of this 21028
section indicates that in the examiner's opinion the defendant is 21029
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 21030
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 21031
defendant's defense and that in the examiner's opinion the 21032
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 21033
institutionalization by court order, the court shall order the 21034
defendant to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation 21035
conducted by a psychologist designated by the director of 21036
developmental disabilities. Divisions (C) to (F) of this section 21037
apply in relation to a separate mental retardation evaluation 21038
conducted under this division. The psychologist appointed under 21039
this division to conduct the separate mental retardation 21040
evaluation shall file a written report with the court within 21041
thirty days after the entry of the court order requiring the 21042
separate mental retardation evaluation, and the court shall 21043
provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and defense 21044
counsel. The report shall include all of the information described 21045
in divisions (G)(1) to (4) of this section. If the court orders a 21046
separate mental retardation evaluation of a defendant under this 21047
division, the court shall not conduct a hearing under divisions 21048
(B) to (H) of section 2945.37 of the Revised Code regarding that 21049
defendant until a report of the separate mental retardation 21050
evaluation conducted under this division has been filed. Upon the 21051
filing of that report, the court shall conduct the hearing within 21052
the period of time specified in division (C) of section 2945.37 of 21053
the Revised Code.21054

       (I) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 21055
section or under division (H) of this section to evaluate a 21056
defendant to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial 21057
also may be appointed to evaluate a defendant who has entered a 21058
plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, but an examiner of that 21059
nature shall prepare separate reports on the issue of competence 21060
to stand trial and the defense of not guilty by reason of 21061
insanity.21062

       (J) No statement that a defendant makes in an evaluation or 21063
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 21064
defendant's competence to stand trial or to the defendant's mental 21065
condition at the time of the offense charged shall be used against 21066
the defendant on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 21067
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the 21068
prosecutor or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 21069
evaluated the defendant or prepared a report pursuant to a 21070
referral under this section. Neither the appointment nor the 21071
testimony of an examiner appointed under this section precludes 21072
the prosecutor or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 21073
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.21074

       (K) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 21075
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 21076
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 21077
certified by the court. The certified amount shall be paid by the 21078
county in the case of county courts and courts of common pleas and 21079
by the legislative authority, as defined in section 1901.03 of the 21080
Revised Code, in the case of municipal courts.21081

       Sec. 2945.38.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 21082
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 21083
hearing provided for in section 2945.37 of the Revised Code, finds 21084
that the defendant is competent to stand trial, the defendant 21085
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 21086
the defendant competent to stand trial and the defendant is 21087
receiving psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may 21088
authorize the continued administration of the drugs or medication 21089
or other appropriate treatment in order to maintain the 21090
defendant's competence to stand trial, unless the defendant's 21091
attending physician advises the court against continuation of the 21092
drugs, other medication, or treatment.21093

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 21094
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 21095
defendant is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 21096
substantial probability that the defendant will become competent 21097
to stand trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a 21098
course of treatment, the court shall order the defendant to 21099
undergo treatment. If the defendant has been charged with a felony 21100
offense and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 21101
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 21102
defendant is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable 21103
at that time to determine whether there is a substantial 21104
probability that the defendant will become competent to stand 21105
trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a course 21106
of treatment, the court shall order continuing evaluation and 21107
treatment of the defendant for a period not to exceed four months 21108
to determine whether there is a substantial probability that the 21109
defendant will become competent to stand trial within one year if 21110
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.21111

       (b) The court order for the defendant to undergo treatment or 21112
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 21113
this section shall specify that the defendant, if determined to 21114
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 21115
treatment, either shall be committed to the department of mental 21116
health for treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment at a 21117
hospital, facility, or agency, as determined to be clinically 21118
appropriate by the department of mental health andor shall be 21119
committed to a facility certified by the department of mental 21120
health as being qualified to treat mental illness, to a public or 21121
community mental health facility, or to a psychiatrist or another 21122
mental health professional for treatment or continuing evaluation 21123
and treatment. Prior to placing the defendant, the department of 21124
mental health shall obtain court approval for that placement 21125
following a hearing. The court order for the defendant to undergo 21126
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 21127
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall specify that the defendant, if 21128
determined to require treatment or continuing evaluation and 21129
treatment for a developmental disabilitymental retardation, 21130
shall receive treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment at 21131
an institution or facility operated by the department of 21132
developmental disabilities, at a facility certified by the 21133
department of developmental disabilities as being qualified to 21134
treat mental retardation, at a public or private community mental 21135
retardation facility, or by a psychiatrist or another mental 21136
retardation professional. TheIn any case, the order may restrict 21137
the defendant's freedom of movement as the court considers 21138
necessary. The prosecutor in the defendant's case shall send to 21139
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 21140
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health, 21141
or to the managing officer of the institution, the director of the 21142
program or facility, or the person to which the defendant is 21143
committed, copies of relevant police reports and other background 21144
information that pertains to the defendant and is available to the 21145
prosecutor unless the prosecutor determines that the release of 21146
any of the information in the police reports or any of the other 21147
background information to unauthorized persons would interfere 21148
with the effective prosecution of any person or would create a 21149
substantial risk of harm to any person.21150

       In committing the defendant to the department of mental 21151
health, the court shall consider the extent to which the person is 21152
a danger to the person and to others, the need for security, and 21153
the type of crime involved and, if the court finds that 21154
restrictions on the defendant's freedom of movement are necessary, 21155
shall specify the least restrictive limitations on the person's 21156
freedom of movement determined to be necessary to protect public 21157
safety. In determining the place of commitment alternatives for 21158
defendants determined to require treatment or continuing 21159
evaluation and treatment for developmental disabilities, the court 21160
shall consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the 21161
person and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 21162
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 21163
available that is consistent with public safety and treatment 21164
goals. In weighing these factors, the court shall give preference 21165
to protecting public safety.21166

       (c) If the defendant is found incompetent to stand trial, if 21167
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 21168
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 21169
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 21170
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 21171
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 21172
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 21173
the defendant's competency to stand trial, and if the defendant 21174
lacks the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, 21175
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 21176
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 21177
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 21178
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 21179
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 21180
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 21181
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 21182
the filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a 21183
municipal court or a county court regarding an incompetent 21184
defendant charged with a misdemeanor or within ten days of the 21185
filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a court of 21186
common pleas regarding an incompetent defendant charged with a 21187
felony offense. Following the hearing, the court may authorize the 21188
involuntary administration of medication or may dismiss the 21189
petition.21190

       (d) If the defendant is charged with a misdemeanor offense 21191
that is not an offense of violence, the prosecutor may hold the 21192
charges in abeyance while the defendant engages in mental health 21193
treatment or developmental disability services.21194

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 21195
stand trial and that, even if the defendant is provided with a 21196
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 21197
the defendant will become competent to stand trial within one 21198
year, the court shall order the discharge of the defendant, unless 21199
upon motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the court 21200
either seeks to retain jurisdiction over the defendant pursuant to 21201
section 2945.39 of the Revised Code or files an affidavit in the 21202
probate court for the civil commitment of the defendant pursuant 21203
to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code alleging that the 21204
defendant is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 21205
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 21206
institutionalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in 21207
the probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 21208
copies of all written reports of the defendant's mental condition 21209
that were prepared pursuant to section 2945.371 of the Revised 21210
Code.21211

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 21212
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 21213
the Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 21214
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 21215
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. or 21216
5123. of the Revised Code.21217

       (C) No defendant shall be required to undergo treatment, 21218
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 21219
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 21220
periods is applicable:21221

       (1) One year, if the most serious offense with which the 21222
defendant is charged is one of the following offenses:21223

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, or an offense of violence for 21224
which a sentence of death or life imprisonment may be imposed;21225

       (b) An offense of violence that is a felony of the first or 21226
second degree;21227

       (c) A conspiracy to commit, an attempt to commit, or 21228
complicity in the commission of an offense described in division 21229
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section if the conspiracy, attempt, or 21230
complicity is a felony of the first or second degree.21231

       (2) Six months, if the most serious offense with which the 21232
defendant is charged is a felony other than a felony described in 21233
division (C)(1) of this section;21234

       (3) Sixty days, if the most serious offense with which the 21235
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the first or second 21236
degree;21237

       (4) Thirty days, if the most serious offense with which the 21238
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the third or fourth 21239
degree, a minor misdemeanor, or an unclassified misdemeanor.21240

       (D) Any defendant who is committed pursuant to this section 21241
shall not voluntarily admit the defendant or be voluntarily 21242
admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 21243
5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.21244

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 21245
defendant who is charged with an offense and is committed by the 21246
court under this section to the department of mental health with 21247
restrictions on the defendant's freedom of movement or is 21248
committed to an institution or facility for the treatment of 21249
developmental disabilitiesmental retardation shall not be granted 21250
unsupervised on-grounds movement, supervised off-grounds movement, 21251
or nonsecured status except in accordance with the court order. 21252
The court may grant a defendant supervised off-grounds movement to 21253
obtain medical treatment or specialized habilitation treatment 21254
services if the person who supervises the treatment or the 21255
continuing evaluation and treatment of the defendant ordered under 21256
division (B)(1)(a) of this section informs the court that the 21257
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment cannot be 21258
provided at the hospital or facility where the defendant is placed 21259
by the department of mental health or the institution or facility 21260
to which the defendant is committed. The chief clinical officer of 21261
the hospital or facility where the defendant is placed by the 21262
department of mental health or the managing officer of the 21263
institution or director of the facility to which the defendant is 21264
committed, or a designee of any of those persons, may grant a 21265
defendant movement to a medical facility for an emergency medical 21266
situation with appropriate supervision to ensure the safety of the 21267
defendant, staff, and community during that emergency medical 21268
situation. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 21269
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health 21270
or the managing officer of the institution or director of the 21271
facility to which the defendant is committed shall notify the 21272
court within twenty-four hours of the defendant's movement to the 21273
medical facility for an emergency medical situation under this 21274
division.21275

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 21276
evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered to undergo 21277
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 21278
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 21279
court at the following times:21280

       (1) Whenever the person believes the defendant is capable of 21281
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 21282
the defendant and of assisting in the defendant's defense;21283

       (2) For a felony offense, fourteen days before expiration of 21284
the maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of 21285
this section and fourteen days before the expiration of the 21286
maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as specified 21287
in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, and, for a misdemeanor 21288
offense, ten days before the expiration of the maximum time for 21289
treatment, as specified in division (C) of this section;21290

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;21291

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 21292
continuing evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered under 21293
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 21294
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 21295
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 21296
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 21297
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.21298

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 21299
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 21300
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 21301
defendant's capability of understanding the nature and objective 21302
of the proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 21303
defendant's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the defendant 21304
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 21305
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 21306
defendant's defense and there is a substantial probability that 21307
the defendant will become capable of understanding the nature and 21308
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 21309
assisting in the defendant's defense if the defendant is provided 21310
with a course of treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the 21311
defendant remains mentally ill or mentally retarded, and if the 21312
maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of this 21313
section has not expired, the report also shall contain the 21314
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 21315
commitment alternative that is consistent with the defendant's 21316
treatment needs for restoration to competency and with the safety 21317
of the community. The court shall provide copies of the report to 21318
the prosecutor and defense counsel.21319

       (H) If a defendant is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) 21320
of this section, within ten days after the treating physician of 21321
the defendant or the examiner of the defendant who is employed or 21322
retained by the treating facility advises that there is not a 21323
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 21324
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 21325
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 21326
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment, within ten 21327
days after the expiration of the maximum time for treatment as 21328
specified in division (C) of this section, within ten days after 21329
the expiration of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and 21330
treatment as specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, 21331
within thirty days after a defendant's request for a hearing that 21332
is made after six months of treatment, or within thirty days after 21333
being advised by the treating physician or examiner that the 21334
defendant is competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, 21335
the court shall conduct another hearing to determine if the 21336
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of 21337
the following is applicable:21338

       (1) If the court finds that the defendant is competent to 21339
stand trial, the defendant shall be proceeded against as provided 21340
by law.21341

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 21342
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 21343
defendant will become competent to stand trial if the defendant is 21344
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 21345
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 21346
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 21347
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 21348
change the least restrictive limitations on the defendant's 21349
freedom of movementfacility or program at which the treatment is 21350
to be continued, and, if applicable, shall specify whether the 21351
treatment for developmental disabilities is to be continued at the 21352
same or a different facility or institutionprogram.21353

       (3) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 21354
stand trial, if the defendant is charged with an offense listed in 21355
division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that there 21356
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 21357
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 21358
course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment relative 21359
to that offense as specified in division (C) of this section has 21360
expired, further proceedings shall be as provided in sections 21361
2945.39, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.21362

       (4) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 21363
stand trial, if the most serious offense with which the defendant 21364
is charged is a misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed 21365
in division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that 21366
there is not a substantial probability that the defendant will 21367
become competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided 21368
with a course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment 21369
relative to that offense as specified in division (C) of this 21370
section has expired, the court shall dismiss the indictment, 21371
information, or complaint against the defendant. A dismissal under 21372
this division is not a bar to further prosecution based on the 21373
same conduct. The court shall discharge the defendant unless the 21374
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 21375
commitment pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. 21376
If an affidavit for civil commitment is filed, the court may 21377
detain the defendant for ten days pending civil commitment. All of 21378
the following provisions apply to persons charged with a 21379
misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed in division 21380
(C)(1) of this section who are committed by the probate court 21381
subsequent to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit 21382
for civil commitment under authority of this division:21383

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 21384
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 21385
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 21386
admitted shall do all of the following:21387

       (i) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the discharge of 21388
the defendant, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 21389
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 21390
in the notice the date on which the defendant will be discharged;21391

       (ii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, when the defendant is 21392
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 21393
movement, and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 21394
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 21395
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;21396

       (iii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the change of the 21397
defendant's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send the 21398
notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary status, 21399
and state in the notice the date on which the defendant was 21400
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.21401

       (b) Upon receiving notice that the defendant will be granted 21402
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the prosecutor either shall 21403
re-indict the defendant or promptly notify the court that the 21404
prosecutor does not intend to prosecute the charges against the 21405
defendant.21406

       (I) If a defendant is convicted of a crime and sentenced to a 21407
jail or workhouse, the defendant's sentence shall be reduced by 21408
the total number of days the defendant is confined for evaluation 21409
to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial or 21410
treatment under this section and sections 2945.37 and 2945.371 of 21411
the Revised Code or by the total number of days the defendant is 21412
confined for evaluation to determine the defendant's mental 21413
condition at the time of the offense charged.21414

       Sec. 2945.39.  (A) If a defendant who is charged with an 21415
offense described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the 21416
Revised Code is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 21417
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 21418
division (C) of that section or after the court finds that there 21419
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 21420
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 21421
course of treatment, one of the following applies:21422

       (1) The court or the prosecutor may file an affidavit in 21423
probate court for civil commitment of the defendant in the manner 21424
provided in Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. If the 21425
court or prosecutor files an affidavit for civil commitment, the 21426
court may detain the defendant for ten days pending civil 21427
commitment. If the probate court commits the defendant subsequent 21428
to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil 21429
commitment, the chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 21430
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 21431
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 21432
admitted shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in 21433
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 21434
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 21435
specified in those divisions.21436

       (2) On the motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the 21437
court may retain jurisdiction over the defendant if, at a hearing, 21438
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 21439
evidence:21440

       (a) The defendant committed the offense with which the 21441
defendant is charged.21442

       (b) The defendant is a mentally ill person subject to 21443
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 21444
subject to institutionalization by court order.21445

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 21446
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the defendant, 21447
the court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 21448
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 21449
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 21450
and any history of the defendant that is relevant to the 21451
defendant's ability to conform to the law.21452

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 21453
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 21454
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 21455
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 21456
indictment, information, or complaint against the defendant. Upon 21457
the dismissal, the court shall discharge the defendant unless the 21458
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 21459
commitment of the defendant pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of 21460
the Revised Code. If the court or prosecutor files an affidavit 21461
for civil commitment, the court may order that the defendant be 21462
detained for up to ten days pending the civil commitment. If the 21463
probate court commits the defendant subsequent to the court's or 21464
prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 21465
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 21466
managing officer of the institution, the director of the program,21467
or the person to which the defendant is committed or admitted 21468
shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in divisions 21469
(H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code 21470
within the periods of time and under the circumstances specified 21471
in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this division is 21472
not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the same 21473
conduct.21474

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 21475
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 21476
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 21477
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 21478
defendant, if determined to require mental health treatment, 21479
either to the department of mental health for treatment at a 21480
hospital, facility, or agency as determined clinically appropriate 21481
by the department of mental health or to another medical or 21482
psychiatric facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing the 21483
defendant, the department of mental health shall obtain court 21484
approval for that placement. If the court conducts such a hearing 21485
and if it makes those findings by clear and convincing evidence, 21486
the court shall commit the defendant, if determined to require 21487
treatment for developmental disabilitiesmental retardation, to a 21488
facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, 21489
or another facility, as appropriate. In committing the defendant 21490
to the department of mental health, the court shall specify the 21491
least restrictive limitations on the defendant's freedom of 21492
movement determined to be necessary to protect public safety. In 21493
determining the place and nature of the commitment to a facility 21494
operated by the department of developmental disabilities or 21495
another facility for treatment of developmental disabilities, the 21496
courtIn determining the place of commitment, the court shall 21497
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 21498
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 21499
involved and shall order the least restrictive commitment21500
alternative available that is consistent with public safety and 21501
the welfare of the defendant. In weighing these factors, the court 21502
shall give preference to protecting public safety.21503

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of a defendant under 21504
division (D)(1) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the 21505
hospital, facility, or agency where the defendant is placed by the 21506
department of mental health or to the defendant's place of 21507
commitment all reports of the defendant's current mental condition 21508
and, except as otherwise provided in this division, any other 21509
relevant information, including, but not limited to, a transcript 21510
of the hearing held pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, 21511
copies of relevant police reports, and copies of any prior arrest 21512
and conviction records that pertain to the defendant and that the 21513
prosecutor possesses. The prosecutor shall send the reports of the 21514
defendant's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 21515
and, unless the prosecutor determines that the release of any of 21516
the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 21517
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 21518
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the prosecutor 21519
also shall send the other relevant information. Upon admission of 21520
a defendant committed under division (D)(1) of this section, the 21521
place of commitment shall send to the board of alcohol, drug 21522
addiction, and mental health services or the community mental 21523
health board serving the county in which the charges against the 21524
defendant were filed a copy of all reports of the defendant's 21525
current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 21526
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 21527
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 21528
to division (A)(2) of this section, the relevant police reports, 21529
and the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 21530
defendant and that the prosecutor possesses.21531

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 21532
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 21533
sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.21534

       Sec. 2945.40.  (A) If a person is found not guilty by reason 21535
of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and the trial 21536
court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether the person 21537
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order 21538
or a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 21539
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the trial judge believes 21540
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 21541
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 21542
hospitalization by court order or mentally retarded person subject 21543
to institutionalization by court order, the trial judge may issue 21544
a temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 21545
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.21546

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 21547
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 21548
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 21549
confinement prior to and during trial.21550

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 21551
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 21552
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 21553
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 21554
subject to institutionalization by court order within ten court 21555
days after the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. 21556
Failure to conduct the hearing within the ten-day period shall 21557
cause the immediate discharge of the respondent, unless the judge 21558
grants a continuance for not longer than ten court days for good 21559
cause shown or for any period of time upon motion of the 21560
respondent.21561

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 21562
the person has the right to attend all hearings conducted pursuant 21563
to sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. At any 21564
hearing conducted pursuant to one of those sections, the court 21565
shall inform the person that the person has all of the following 21566
rights:21567

       (1) The right to be represented by counsel and to have that 21568
counsel provided at public expense if the person is indigent, with 21569
the counsel to be appointed by the court under Chapter 120. of the 21570
Revised Code or under the authority recognized in division (C) of 21571
section 120.06, division (E) of section 120.16, division (E) of 21572
section 120.26, or section 2941.51 of the Revised Code;21573

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation and to 21574
have that independent expert evaluation provided at public expense 21575
if the person is indigent;21576

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 21577
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 21578
against the person;21579

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 21580
not be compelled to testify;21581

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 21582
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 21583
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 21584
the release to the person of information contained in the document 21585
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.21586

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 21587
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 21588
accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure. The court shall make 21589
and maintain a full transcript and record of the hearing 21590
proceedings. The court may consider all relevant evidence, 21591
including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 21592
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 21593
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 21594
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 21595
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.21596

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 21597
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 21598
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 21599
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 21600
subject to institutionalization by court order, the court shall 21601
discharge the person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the 21602
person by the department of rehabilitation and correction, in 21603
which case the person shall be returned to that department.21604

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 21605
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 21606
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 21607
order, the court shall commit the person either to the department 21608
of mental health for placementtreatment in a hospital, facility, 21609
or agency as determined clinically appropriate by the department 21610
of mental health or to another medical or psychiatric facility, as 21611
appropriate. Prior to placing the defendant, the department of 21612
mental health shall obtain court approval for that placement. If, 21613
at the hearing under division (A) of this section, the court finds21614
determines by clear and convincing evidence that the person is a 21615
mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court 21616
orderrequires treatment for mental retardation, it shall commit 21617
the person to a facility operated by the department of 21618
developmental disabilities or another facility, as appropriate. 21619
Further proceedings shall be in accordance with sections 2945.401 21620
and 2945.402 of the Revised Code. In committing the person to the 21621
department of mental health, the court shall specify the least 21622
restrictive limitations to the defendant's freedom of movement 21623
determined to be necessary to protect public safety. In 21624
determining the place and nature of the commitment of a mentally 21625
retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, 21626
the court shall consider the extent to which the person is a 21627
danger to the person and to others, the need for security, and the 21628
type of crime involved and shall order the least restrictive 21629
commitment alternative available that is consistent with public 21630
safety and the welfare of the person. In weighing these factors, 21631
the court shall give preference to protecting public safety.21632

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 21633
(F) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the hospital, 21634
facility, or agency where the person is placed by the department 21635
of mental health or to the defendant's place of commitment all 21636
reports of the person's current mental condition, and, except as 21637
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 21638
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 21639
hearing held pursuant to division (A) of this section, copies of 21640
relevant police reports, and copies of any prior arrest and 21641
conviction records that pertain to the person and that the 21642
prosecutor possesses. The prosecutor shall send the reports of the 21643
person's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 21644
and, unless the prosecutor determines that the release of any of 21645
the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 21646
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 21647
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the prosecutor 21648
also shall send the other relevant information. Upon admission of 21649
a person committed under division (F) of this section, the place 21650
of commitment shall send to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 21651
and mental health services or the community mental health board 21652
serving the county in which the charges against the person were 21653
filed a copy of all reports of the person's current mental 21654
condition and a copy of the other relevant information provided by 21655
the prosecutor under this division, including, if provided, a 21656
transcript of the hearing held pursuant to division (A) of this 21657
section, the relevant police reports, and the prior arrest and 21658
conviction records that pertain to the person and that the 21659
prosecutor possesses.21660

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 21661
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 21662
hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 5122.15, 21663
5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.21664

       Sec. 2945.401.  (A) A defendant found incompetent to stand 21665
trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised 21666
Code or a person found not guilty by reason of insanity and 21667
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall 21668
remain subject to the jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to 21669
that commitment, and to the provisions of this section, until the 21670
final termination of the commitment as described in division 21671
(J)(1) of this section. If the jurisdiction is terminated under 21672
this division because of the final termination of the commitment 21673
resulting from the expiration of the maximum prison term or term 21674
of imprisonment described in division (J)(1)(b) of this section, 21675
the court or prosecutor may file an affidavit for the civil 21676
commitment of the defendant or person pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 21677
5123. of the Revised Code.21678

       (B) A hearing conducted under any provision of sections 21679
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code shall not be conducted in 21680
accordance with Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised Code. Any 21681
person who is committed pursuant to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of 21682
the Revised Code shall not voluntarily admit the person or be 21683
voluntarily admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to 21684
section 5122.02, 5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code. 21685
All other provisions of Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised 21686
Code regarding hospitalization or institutionalization shall apply 21687
to the extent they are not in conflict with this chapter. A 21688
commitment under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code 21689
shall not be terminated and the conditions of the commitment shall 21690
not be changed except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 21691
this section with respect to a mentally retarded person subject to 21692
institutionalization by court order or except by order of the 21693
trial court.21694

       (C) The department of mental health or the institution or,21695
facility, or program to which a defendant or person has been 21696
committed under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code 21697
shall report in writing to the trial court, at the times specified 21698
in this division, as to whether the defendant or person remains a 21699
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or a 21700
mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by court 21701
order and, in the case of a defendant committed under section 21702
2945.39 of the Revised Code, as to whether the defendant remains 21703
incompetent to stand trial. The department, institution, or21704
facility, or program shall make the reports after the initial six 21705
months of treatment and every two years after the initial report 21706
is made. The trial court shall provide copies of the reports to 21707
the prosecutor and to the counsel for the defendant or person. 21708
Within thirty days after its receipt pursuant to this division of 21709
a report from the department, institution, or facility, or 21710
program, the trial court shall hold a hearing on the continued 21711
commitment of the defendant or person or on any changes in the 21712
conditions of the commitment of the defendant or person. The 21713
defendant or person may request a change in the conditions of 21714
confinement, and the trial court shall conduct a hearing on that 21715
request if six months or more have elapsed since the most recent 21716
hearing was conducted under this section.21717

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 21718
this section, when a defendant or person has been committed under 21719
section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code, at any time after 21720
evaluating the risks to public safety and the welfare of the 21721
defendant or person, the designee of the department of mental 21722
health or the managing officer of the institution or director of 21723
the facility or program to which the defendant or person is 21724
committed may recommend a termination of the defendant's or 21725
person's commitment or a change in the conditions of the 21726
defendant's or person's commitment.21727

       Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of this 21728
section, if the designee of the department of mental health 21729
recommends on-grounds unsupervised movement, off-grounds 21730
supervised movement, or nonsecured status for the defendant or 21731
person or termination of the defendant's or person's commitment, 21732
the following provisions apply:21733

       (a) If the department's designee recommends on-grounds 21734
unsupervised movement or off-grounds supervised movement, the 21735
department's designee shall file with the trial court an 21736
application for approval of the movement and shall send a copy of 21737
the application to the prosecutor. Within fifteen days after 21738
receiving the application, the prosecutor may request a hearing on 21739
the application and, if a hearing is requested, shall so inform 21740
the department's designee. If the prosecutor does not request a 21741
hearing within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 21742
approve the application by entering its order approving the 21743
requested movement or, within five days after the expiration of 21744
the fifteen-day period, shall set a date for a hearing on the 21745
application. If the prosecutor requests a hearing on the 21746
application within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 21747
hold a hearing on the application within thirty days after the 21748
hearing is requested. If the trial court, within five days after 21749
the expiration of the fifteen-day period, sets a date for a 21750
hearing on the application, the trial court shall hold the hearing 21751
within thirty days after setting the hearing date. At least 21752
fifteen days before any hearing is held under this division, the 21753
trial court shall give the prosecutor written notice of the date, 21754
time, and place of the hearing. At the conclusion of each hearing 21755
conducted under this division, the trial court either shall 21756
approve or disapprove the application and shall enter its order 21757
accordingly.21758

       (b) If the department's designee recommends termination of 21759
the defendant's or person's commitment at any time or if the 21760
department's designee recommends the first of any nonsecured 21761
status for the defendant or person, the department's designee 21762
shall send written notice of this recommendation to the trial 21763
court and to the local forensic center. The local forensic center 21764
shall evaluate the committed defendant or person and, within 21765
thirty days after its receipt of the written notice, shall submit 21766
to the trial court and the department's designee a written report 21767
of the evaluation. The trial court shall provide a copy of the 21768
department's designee's written notice and of the local forensic 21769
center's written report to the prosecutor and to the counsel for 21770
the defendant or person. Upon the local forensic center's 21771
submission of the report to the trial court and the department's 21772
designee, all of the following apply:21773

       (i) If the forensic center disagrees with the recommendation 21774
of the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 21775
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 21776
the decision. The department's designee, after consideration of 21777
the forensic center's decision, shall either withdraw, proceed 21778
with, or modify and proceed with the recommendation. If the 21779
department's designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds 21780
with, the recommendation, the department's designee shall proceed 21781
in accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.21782

       (ii) If the forensic center agrees with the recommendation of 21783
the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 21784
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 21785
the decision, and the department's designee shall proceed in 21786
accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.21787

       (iii) If the forensic center disagrees with the 21788
recommendation of the department's designee and the department's 21789
designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds with, the 21790
recommendation or if the forensic center agrees with the 21791
recommendation of the department's designee, the department's 21792
designee shall work with community mental health agencies, 21793
programs, facilities, or boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 21794
mental health services or community mental health boards to 21795
develop a plan to implement the recommendation. If the defendant 21796
or person is on medication, the plan shall include, but shall not 21797
be limited to, a system to monitor the defendant's or person's 21798
compliance with the prescribed medication treatment plan. The 21799
system shall include a schedule that clearly states when the 21800
defendant or person shall report for a medication compliance 21801
check. The medication compliance checks shall be based upon the 21802
effective duration of the prescribed medication, taking into 21803
account the route by which it is taken, and shall be scheduled at 21804
intervals sufficiently close together to detect a potential 21805
increase in mental illness symptoms that the medication is 21806
intended to prevent.21807

       The department's designee, after consultation with the board 21808
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 21809
community mental health board serving the area, shall send the 21810
recommendation and plan developed under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of 21811
this section, in writing, to the trial court, the prosecutor, and 21812
the counsel for the committed defendant or person. The trial court 21813
shall conduct a hearing on the recommendation and plan developed 21814
under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section. Divisions (D)(1)(c) 21815
and (d) and (E) to (J) of this section apply regarding the 21816
hearing.21817

       (c) If the department's designee's recommendation is for 21818
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the prosecutor may 21819
obtain an independent expert evaluation of the defendant's or 21820
person's mental condition, and the trial court may continue the 21821
hearing on the recommendation for a period of not more than thirty 21822
days to permit time for the evaluation.21823

       The prosecutor may introduce the evaluation report or present 21824
other evidence at the hearing in accordance with the Rules of 21825
Evidence.21826

       (d) The trial court shall schedule the hearing on a 21827
department's designee's recommendation for nonsecured status or 21828
termination of commitment and shall give reasonable notice to the 21829
prosecutor and the counsel for the defendant or person. Unless 21830
continued for independent evaluation at the prosecutor's request 21831
or for other good cause, the hearing shall be held within thirty 21832
days after the trial court's receipt of the recommendation and 21833
plan.21834

       (2)(a) Division (D)(1) of this section does not apply to 21835
on-grounds unsupervised movement of a defendant or person who has 21836
been committed under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised 21837
Code, who is a mentally retarded person subject to 21838
institutionalization by court order, and who is being provided 21839
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a facility 21840
operated by the department of developmental disabilities.21841

       (b) If, pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, the 21842
trial court commits a defendant who is found incompetent to stand 21843
trial and who is a mentally retarded person subject to 21844
institutionalization by court order, if the defendant is being 21845
provided residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a 21846
facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, 21847
if an individual who is conducting a survey for the department of 21848
health to determine the facility's compliance with the 21849
certification requirements of the medicaid program under Chapter 21850
5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security 21851
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, cites the 21852
defendant's receipt of the residential habilitation, care, and 21853
treatment in the facility as being inappropriate under the 21854
certification requirements, if the defendant's receipt of the 21855
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility 21856
potentially jeopardizes the facility's continued receipt of 21857
federal medicaid moneys, and if as a result of the citation the 21858
chief clinical officer of the facility determines that the 21859
conditions of the defendant's commitment should be changed, the 21860
department of developmental disabilities may cause the defendant 21861
to be removed from the particular facility and, after evaluating 21862
the risks to public safety and the welfare of the defendant and 21863
after determining whether another type of placement is consistent 21864
with the certification requirements, may place the defendant in 21865
another facility that the department selects as an appropriate 21866
facility for the defendant's continued receipt of residential 21867
habilitation, care, and treatment and that is a no less secure 21868
setting than the facility in which the defendant had been placed 21869
at the time of the citation. Within three days after the 21870
defendant's removal and alternative placement under the 21871
circumstances described in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the 21872
department of developmental disabilities shall notify the trial 21873
court and the prosecutor in writing of the removal and alternative 21874
placement.21875

       The trial court shall set a date for a hearing on the removal 21876
and alternative placement, and the hearing shall be held within 21877
twenty-one days after the trial court's receipt of the notice from 21878
the department of developmental disabilities. At least ten days 21879
before the hearing is held, the trial court shall give the 21880
prosecutor, the department of developmental disabilities, and the 21881
counsel for the defendant written notice of the date, time, and 21882
place of the hearing. At the hearing, the trial court shall 21883
consider the citation issued by the individual who conducted the 21884
survey for the department of health to be prima-facie evidence of 21885
the fact that the defendant's commitment to the particular 21886
facility was inappropriate under the certification requirements of 21887
the medicaid program under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 21888
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 21889
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and potentially jeopardizes the 21890
particular facility's continued receipt of federal medicaid 21891
moneys. At the conclusion of the hearing, the trial court may 21892
approve or disapprove the defendant's removal and alternative 21893
placement. If the trial court approves the defendant's removal and 21894
alternative placement, the department of developmental 21895
disabilities may continue the defendant's alternative placement. 21896
If the trial court disapproves the defendant's removal and 21897
alternative placement, it shall enter an order modifying the 21898
defendant's removal and alternative placement, but that order 21899
shall not require the department of developmental disabilities to 21900
replace the defendant for purposes of continued residential 21901
habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility associated with 21902
the citation issued by the individual who conducted the survey for 21903
the department of health.21904

       (E) In making a determination under this section regarding 21905
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the trial court 21906
shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited 21907
to, all of the following:21908

       (1) Whether, in the trial court's view, the defendant or 21909
person currently represents a substantial risk of physical harm to 21910
the defendant or person or others;21911

       (2) Psychiatric and medical testimony as to the current 21912
mental and physical condition of the defendant or person;21913

       (3) Whether the defendant or person has insight into the 21914
dependant's defendant's or person's condition so that the 21915
defendant or person will continue treatment as prescribed or seek 21916
professional assistance as needed;21917

       (4) The grounds upon which the state relies for the proposed 21918
commitment;21919

       (5) Any past history that is relevant to establish the 21920
defendant's or person's degree of conformity to the laws, rules, 21921
regulations, and values of society;21922

       (6) If there is evidence that the defendant's or person's 21923
mental illness is in a state of remission, the medically suggested 21924
cause and degree of the remission and the probability that the 21925
defendant or person will continue treatment to maintain the 21926
remissive state of the defendant's or person's illness should the 21927
defendant's or person's commitment conditions be altered.21928

       (F) At any hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 21929
(2) of this section, the defendant or the person shall have all 21930
the rights of a defendant or person at a commitment hearing as 21931
described in section 2945.40 of the Revised Code.21932

       (G) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) of 21933
this section, the prosecutor has the burden of proof as follows:21934

       (1) For a recommendation of termination of commitment, to 21935
show by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant or person 21936
remains a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 21937
order or a mentally retarded person subject to 21938
institutionalization by court order;21939

       (2) For a recommendation for a change in the conditions of 21940
the commitment to a less restrictive status, to show by clear and 21941
convincing evidence that the proposed change represents a threat 21942
to public safety or a threat to the safety of any person.21943

       (H) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 21944
(2) of this section, the prosecutor shall represent the state or 21945
the public interest.21946

       (I) At the conclusion of a hearing conducted under division 21947
(D)(1) of this section regarding a recommendation from the 21948
designee of the department of mental health, managing officer of 21949
the institution, or director of a facility or program, the trial 21950
court may approve, disapprove, or modify the recommendation and 21951
shall enter an order accordingly.21952

       (J)(1) A defendant or person who has been committed pursuant 21953
to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code continues to be 21954
under the jurisdiction of the trial court until the final 21955
termination of the commitment. For purposes of division (J) of 21956
this section, the final termination of a commitment occurs upon 21957
the earlier of one of the following:21958

       (a) The defendant or person no longer is a mentally ill 21959
person subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally 21960
retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, as 21961
determined by the trial court;21962

       (b) The expiration of the maximum prison term or term of 21963
imprisonment that the defendant or person could have received if 21964
the defendant or person had been convicted of the most serious 21965
offense with which the defendant or person is charged or in 21966
relation to which the defendant or person was found not guilty by 21967
reason of insanity;21968

       (c) The trial court enters an order terminating the 21969
commitment under the circumstances described in division 21970
(J)(2)(a)(ii) of this section.21971

       (2)(a) If a defendant is found incompetent to stand trial and 21972
committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, if 21973
neither of the circumstances described in divisions (J)(1)(a) and 21974
(b) of this section applies to that defendant, and if a report 21975
filed with the trial court pursuant to division (C) of this 21976
section indicates that the defendant presently is competent to 21977
stand trial or if, at any other time during the period of the 21978
defendant's commitment, the prosecutor, the counsel for the 21979
defendant, or the designee of the department of mental health or 21980
the managing officer of the institution or director of the 21981
facility or program to which the defendant is committed files an 21982
application with the trial court alleging that the defendant 21983
presently is competent to stand trial and requesting a hearing on 21984
the competency issue or the trial court otherwise has reasonable 21985
cause to believe that the defendant presently is competent to 21986
stand trial and determines on its own motion to hold a hearing on 21987
the competency issue, the trial court shall schedule a hearing on 21988
the competency of the defendant to stand trial, shall give the 21989
prosecutor, the counsel for the defendant, and the department's 21990
designee or the managing officer of the institution or the 21991
director of the facility to which the defendant is committed 21992
notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing at least 21993
fifteen days before the hearing, and shall conduct the hearing 21994
within thirty days of the filing of the application or of its own 21995
motion. If, at the conclusion of the hearing, the trial court 21996
determines that the defendant presently is capable of 21997
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 21998
the defendant and of assisting in the defendant's defense, the 21999
trial court shall order that the defendant is competent to stand 22000
trial and shall be proceeded against as provided by law with 22001
respect to the applicable offenses described in division (C)(1) of 22002
section 2945.38 of the Revised Code and shall enter whichever of 22003
the following additional orders is appropriate:22004

       (i) If the trial court determines that the defendant remains 22005
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 22006
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 22007
court order, the trial court shall order that the defendant's 22008
commitment to the department of mental health or to an institution 22009
or, facility, or program for the treatment of developmental 22010
disabilitiesmental retardation be continued during the pendency 22011
of the trial on the applicable offenses described in division 22012
(C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.22013

       (ii) If the trial court determines that the defendant no 22014
longer is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 22015
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 22016
institutionalization by court order, the trial court shall order 22017
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health 22018
or to an institution or, facility, or program for the treatment of 22019
developmental disabilitiesmental retardation shall not be 22020
continued during the pendency of the trial on the applicable 22021
offenses described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the 22022
Revised Code. This order shall be a final termination of the 22023
commitment for purposes of division (J)(1)(c) of this section.22024

       (b) If, at the conclusion of the hearing described in 22025
division (J)(2)(a) of this section, the trial court determines 22026
that the defendant remains incapable of understanding the nature 22027
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 22028
assisting in the defendant's defense, the trial court shall order 22029
that the defendant continues to be incompetent to stand trial, 22030
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health 22031
or to an institution or, facility, or program for the treatment of 22032
developmental disabilitiesmental retardation shall be continued, 22033
and that the defendant remains subject to the jurisdiction of the 22034
trial court pursuant to that commitment, and to the provisions of 22035
this section, until the final termination of the commitment as 22036
described in division (J)(1) of this section.22037

       Sec. 2961.22.  (A)(1) Any prisoner serving a prison term in a 22038
state correctional institution who satisfies all of the following 22039
is eligible to apply to the department of rehabilitation and 22040
correction at a time specified in division (A)(2) of this section 22041
and in accordance with division (D) of this section for a 22042
certificate of achievement and employability:22043

       (a) The prisoner has satisfactorily completed one or more 22044
in-prison vocational programs approved by rule by the department 22045
of rehabilitation and correction.22046

       (b) The prisoner has demonstrated exemplary performance as 22047
determined by completion of one or more cognitive or behavioral 22048
improvement programs approved by rule by the department while 22049
incarcerated in a state correctional institution, while under 22050
supervision, or during both periods of time.22051

       (c) The prisoner has completed community service hours.22052

       (d) The prisoner shows other evidence of achievement and 22053
rehabilitation while under the jurisdiction of the department.22054

       (2) An eligible prisoner may apply to the department of 22055
rehabilitation and correction under division (A)(1) of this 22056
section for a certificate of achievement and employability no 22057
earlier than one year prior to the date scheduled for the release 22058
of the prisoner from department custody and no later than the date 22059
of release of the prisoner.22060

       (B)(1) Any prisoner who has been released from a state 22061
correctional institution, who is under supervision on parole or 22062
under a post-release control sanction, and who satisfies all of 22063
the criteria set forth in division (A)(1) of this section is 22064
eligible to apply to the adult parole authority at a time 22065
specified in division (B)(2) of this section and in accordance 22066
with division (D) of this section for a certificate of achievement 22067
and employability.22068

       (2) An eligible prisoner may apply to the adult parole 22069
authority under division (B)(1) of this section for a certificate 22070
of achievement and employability at any time while the prisoner is 22071
under supervision on parole or under a post-release control 22072
sanction.22073

       (C)(1) An eligible prisoner may apply to the department of 22074
rehabilitation and correction or to the adult parole authority at 22075
a time specified in division (A) or (B) of this section, whichever 22076
is applicable, for a certificate of achievement and employability 22077
that grants the prisoner relief from one or more mandatory civil 22078
impacts that would affect a potential job within a field in which 22079
the prisoner trained as part of the prisoner's in-prison 22080
vocational program. The prisoner shall specify the mandatory civil 22081
impacts from which the prisoner is requesting relief under the 22082
certificate. Upon application by a prisoner in accordance with 22083
this division, if the mandatory civil impact of any licensing 22084
agency would be affected by the issuance of the certificate to the 22085
prisoner, the department or authority shall notify the licensing 22086
agency of the filing of the application, provide the licensing 22087
agency with a copy of the application and all evidence that the 22088
department, authority, or court has regarding the prisoner, and 22089
afford the licensing agency with an opportunity to object in 22090
writing to the issuance of the certificate to the prisoner.22091

       (2) Upon application by a prisoner in accordance with 22092
division (C)(1) of this section, the department of rehabilitation 22093
and correction or the adult parole authority, whichever is 22094
applicable, shall consider the application and all objections to 22095
the issuance of a certificate of achievement and employability to 22096
the prisoner, if any, that were made by a licensing agency under 22097
division (C)(1) of this section. If the department or authority 22098
determines that the prisoner is an eligible prisoner, that the 22099
application was filed at a time specified in division (B) of this 22100
section, and that any licensing agency objections to the issuance 22101
of the certificate to the prisoner are not sufficient to deny the 22102
issuance of the certificate to the prisoner, subject to division 22103
(C)(3) of this section, the department or authority shall issue 22104
the prisoner a certificate of achievement and employability that 22105
grants the prisoner relief from the mandatory civil impacts that 22106
are specified in the prisoner's application and that would affect 22107
a potential job within a field in which the prisoner trained as 22108
part of the prisoner's in-prison vocational program.22109

       (3) The mandatory civil impacts identified in division (A)(1) 22110
of section 2961.01 and in division (B) of section 2961.02 of the 22111
Revised Code shall not be affected by any certificate of 22112
achievement and employability issued under this section. No 22113
certificate of achievement and employability issued to a prisoner 22114
under this section grants the prisoner relief from the mandatory 22115
civil impacts identified in division (A)(1) of section 2961.01 and 22116
in division (B) of section 2961.02 of the Revised Code.22117

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 22118
adopt rules that define in-prison vocational programs and 22119
cognitive or behavioral improvement programs that a prisoner may 22120
complete to satisfy the criteria described in divisions (A)(1)(a) 22121
and (b) of this section.22122

       (F) The department of rehabilitation and correction and the 22123
adult parole authority shall not be liable for any claim for 22124
damages arising from the department's or authority's issuance, 22125
denial, or revocation of a certificate of achievement and 22126
employability or for the department's or authority's failure to 22127
revoke a certificate of achievement and employability under the 22128
circumstances described in section 2961.24 of the Revised Code.22129

       Sec. 2967.03.  The adult parole authority may exercise its 22130
functions and duties in relation to the pardon, commutation of 22131
sentence, or reprieve of a convict upon direction of the governor 22132
or upon its own initiative. It may exercise its functions and 22133
duties in relation to the parole of a prisoner who is eligible for 22134
parole upon the initiative of the head of the institution in which 22135
the prisoner is confined or upon its own initiative. When a 22136
prisoner becomes eligible for parole, the head of the institution 22137
in which the prisoner is confined shall notify the authority in 22138
the manner prescribed by the authority. The authority may 22139
investigate and examine, or cause the investigation and 22140
examination of, prisoners confined in state correctional 22141
institutions concerning their conduct in the institutions, their 22142
mental and moral qualities and characteristics, their knowledge of 22143
a trade or profession, their former means of livelihood, their 22144
family relationships, and any other matters affecting their 22145
fitness to be at liberty without being a threat to society.22146

       The authority may recommend to the governor the pardon, 22147
commutation of sentence, medical release, or reprieve of any 22148
convict or prisoner or grant a parole to any prisoner for whom 22149
parole is authorized, if in its judgment there is reasonable 22150
ground to believe that granting a pardon, commutation, medical 22151
release, or reprieve to the convict or paroling the prisoner would 22152
further the interests of justice and be consistent with the 22153
welfare and security of society. However, the authority shall not 22154
recommend a pardon,or commutation of sentence, or medical release 22155
of, or grant a parole to, any convict or prisoner until the 22156
authority has complied with the applicable notice requirements of 22157
sections 2930.16 and 2967.12 of the Revised Code and until it has 22158
considered any statement made by a victim or a victim's 22159
representative that is relevant to the convict's or prisoner's 22160
case and that was sent to the authority pursuant to section 22161
2930.17 of the Revised Code, any other statement made by a victim 22162
or a victim's representative that is relevant to the convict's or 22163
prisoner's case and that was received by the authority after it 22164
provided notice of the pendency of the action under sections 22165
2930.16 and 2967.12 of the Revised Code, and any written statement 22166
of any person submitted to the court pursuant to division (G) of 22167
section 2967.12 of the Revised Code. If a victim, victim's 22168
representative, or the victim's spouse, parent, sibling, or child 22169
appears at a full board hearing of the parole board and gives 22170
testimony as authorized by section 5149.101 of the Revised Code, 22171
the authority shall consider the testimony in determining whether 22172
to grant a parole. The trial judge and prosecuting attorney of the 22173
trial court in which a person was convicted shall furnish to the 22174
authority, at the request of the authority, a summarized statement 22175
of the facts proved at the trial and of all other facts having 22176
reference to the propriety of recommending a pardon, commutation, 22177
or medical release, or granting a parole, together with a 22178
recommendation for or against a pardon, commutation, medical 22179
release, or parole, and the reasons for the recommendation. The 22180
trial judge, the prosecuting attorney, specified law enforcement 22181
agency members, and a representative of the prisoner may appear at 22182
a full board hearing of the parole board and give testimony in 22183
regard to the grant of a parole to the prisoner as authorized by 22184
section 5149.101 of the Revised Code. All state and local 22185
officials shall furnish information to the authority, when so 22186
requested by it in the performance of its duties.22187

       The adult parole authority shall exercise its functions and 22188
duties in relation to the release of prisoners who are serving a 22189
stated prison term in accordance with section 2967.28 of the 22190
Revised Code.22191

       Sec. 2967.05.  (A) As used in this section:22192

       (1) "Imminent danger of death" means that the inmate has a 22193
medically diagnosable condition that will cause death to occur 22194
within a short period of time.22195

       As used in division (A)(1) of this section, "within a short 22196
period of time" means generally within six months.22197

       (2)(a) "Medically incapacitated" means any diagnosable 22198
medical condition, including mental dementia and severe, permanent 22199
medical or cognitive disability, that prevents the inmate from 22200
completing activities of daily living without significant 22201
assistance, that incapacitates the inmate to the extent that 22202
institutional confinement does not offer additional restrictions, 22203
that is likely to continue throughout the entire period of parole, 22204
and that is unlikely to improve noticeably. 22205

       (b) "Medically incapacitated" does not include conditions 22206
related solely to mental illness unless the mental illness is 22207
accompanied by injury, disease, or organic defect.22208

       (3)(a) "Terminal illness" means a condition that satisfies 22209
all of the following criteria:22210

       (i) The condition is irreversible and incurable and is caused 22211
by disease, illness, or injury from which the inmate is unlikely 22212
to recover.22213

       (ii) In accordance with reasonable medical standards and a 22214
reasonable degree of medical certainty, the condition is likely to 22215
cause death to the inmate within twelve months.22216

       (iii) Institutional confinement of the inmate does not offer 22217
additional protections for public safety or against the inmate's 22218
risk to reoffend.22219

       (b) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 22220
adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 22221
implement the definition of "terminal illness" in division 22222
(A)(3)(a) of this section.22223

       (B) Upon the recommendation of the director of rehabilitation 22224
and correction, accompanied by a certificate of the attending 22225
physician that an inmate is terminally ill, medically 22226
incapacitated, or in imminent danger of death, the governor may 22227
order the inmate's release as if on parole, reserving the right to 22228
return the inmate to the institution pursuant to this section. If, 22229
subsequent to the inmate's release, the inmate's health improves 22230
so that the inmate is no longer terminally ill, medically 22231
incapacitated, or in imminent danger of death, the inmate shall be 22232
returned, by order of the governor, to the institution from which 22233
the inmate was released. If the inmate violates any rules or 22234
conditions applicable to the inmate, the inmate may be returned to 22235
an institution under the control of the department of 22236
rehabilitation and correction. The governor may direct the adult 22237
parole authority to investigate or cause to be investigated the 22238
inmate and make a recommendation in the manner set forth in 22239
section 2967.03 of the Revised Code. An inmate released under this 22240
section shall be subject to supervision by the adult parole 22241
authority in accordance with any recommendation of the adult 22242
parole authority that is approved by the governor. The adult 22243
parole authority shall adopt rules pursuant to section 119.03 of 22244
the Revised Code to establish the procedure for medical release of 22245
an inmate when an inmate is terminally ill, medically 22246
incapacitated, or in imminent danger of death.22247

       (C) No inmate is eligible for release under this section if 22248
the inmate is serving a death sentence, a sentence of life without 22249
parole, a sentence under Chapter 2971. of the Revised Code for a 22250
felony of the first or second degree, a sentence for aggravated 22251
murder or murder, or a mandatory prison term for an offense of 22252
violence or any specification described in Chapter 2941. of the 22253
Revised Code.22254

       Sec. 2967.14.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 22255
correction or the adult parole authority may require or allow a 22256
parolee, a releasee, or a prisoner otherwise released from a state 22257
correctional institution to reside in a halfway house or other 22258
suitable community residential center that has been licensed by 22259
the division of parole and community services pursuant to division 22260
(C) of this section during a part or for the entire period of the 22261
offender's or parolee's conditional release or of the releasee's 22262
term of post-release control. The court of common pleas that 22263
placed an offender under a sanction consisting of a term in a 22264
halfway house or in an alternative residential sanction may 22265
require the offender to reside in a halfway house or other 22266
suitable community residential center that is designated by the 22267
court and that has been licensed by the division pursuant to 22268
division (C) of this section during a part or for the entire 22269
period of the offender's residential sanction.22270

       (B) The division of parole and community services may 22271
negotiate and enter into agreements with any public or private 22272
agency or a department or political subdivision of the state that 22273
operates a halfway house, reentry center, or community residential 22274
center that has been licensed by the division pursuant to division 22275
(C) of this section. An agreement under this division shall 22276
provide for the purchase of beds, shall set limits of supervision 22277
and levels of occupancy, and shall determine the scope of services 22278
for all eligible offenders, including those subject to a 22279
residential sanction, as defined in rules adopted by the director 22280
of rehabilitation and correction in accordance with Chapter 119. 22281
of the Revised Code, or those released from prison without 22282
supervision. The payments for beds and services shall not exceed 22283
the total operating costs of the halfway house, reentry center, or 22284
community residential center during the term of an agreement. The 22285
director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt rules in 22286
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for determining 22287
includable and excludable costs and income to be used in computing 22288
the agency's average daily per capita costs with its facility at 22289
full occupancy.22290

       The departmentdirector of rehabilitation and correction may22291
shall adopt rules providing for the use of no more than ten22292
fifteen per cent of the amount appropriated to the department each 22293
fiscal year for the halfway house, reentry center, and community 22294
residential center program to pay for contracts with licensed 22295
halfway houses for nonresidential services for offenders under the 22296
supervision of the adult parole authority, including but not 22297
limited to, offenders supervised pursuant to an agreement entered 22298
into by the adult parole authority and a court of common pleas 22299
under section 2301.32 of the Revised Code. The nonresidential 22300
services may include, but are not limited to, treatment for 22301
substance abuse, mental health counseling, counseling for sex 22302
offenders, and electronic monitoring services, aftercare, and 22303
other nonresidential services that the director identifies by 22304
rule.22305

       (C) The division of parole and community services may license 22306
a halfway house, reentry center, or community residential center 22307
as a suitable facility for the care and treatment of adult 22308
offenders, including offenders sentenced under section 2929.16 or 22309
2929.26 of the Revised Code, only if the halfway house, reentry 22310
center, or community residential center complies with the 22311
standards that the division adopts in accordance with Chapter 119. 22312
of the Revised Code for the licensure of halfway houses, reentry 22313
centers, and community residential centers. The division shall 22314
annually inspect each licensed halfway house, licensed reentry 22315
center, and licensed community residential center to determine if 22316
it is in compliance with the licensure standards.22317

       Sec. 2967.19.  (A) As used in this section:22318

       (1) "Deadly weapon" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same 22319
meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.22320

       (2) "Disqualifying prison term" means any of the following: 22321

       (a) A prison term imposed for aggravated murder, murder, 22322
voluntary manslaughter, involuntary manslaughter, felonious 22323
assault, kidnapping, rape, aggravated arson, aggravated burglary, 22324
or aggravated robbery;22325

       (b) A prison term imposed for complicity in, an attempt to 22326
commit, or conspiracy to commit any offense listed in division 22327
(A)(2)(a) of this section;22328

       (c) A prison term of life imprisonment, including any term of 22329
life imprisonment that has parole eligibility;22330

       (d) A prison term imposed for any felony other than carrying 22331
a concealed weapon an essential element of which is any conduct or 22332
failure to act expressly involving any deadly weapon or dangerous 22333
ordnance;22334

       (e) A prison term imposed for any violation of section 22335
2925.03 of the Revised Code that is a felony of the first or 22336
second degree;22337

       (f) A prison term imposed for engaging in a pattern of 22338
corrupt activity in violation of section 2923.32 of the Revised 22339
Code;22340

       (g) A prison term imposed pursuant to section 2971.03 of the 22341
Revised Code;22342

       (h) A prison term imposed for any sexually oriented offense.22343

       (3) "Eligible prison term" means any prison term that is not 22344
a disqualifying prison term and is not a restricting prison term. 22345

       (4) "Restricting prison term" means any of the following: 22346

       (a) A mandatory prison term imposed under division 22347
(D)(B)(1)(a), (D)(B)(1)(c), (D)(B)(1)(f), (D)(B)(1)(g), 22348
(D)(B)(2), or (D)(B)(7) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code for 22349
a specification of the type described in that division;22350

       (b) In the case of an offender who has been sentenced to a 22351
mandatory prison term for a specification of the type described in 22352
division (A)(4)(a) of this section, the prison term imposed for 22353
the felony offense for which the specification was stated at the 22354
end of the body of the indictment, count in the indictment, or 22355
information charging the offense;22356

       (c) A prison term imposed for trafficking in persons;22357

       (d) A prison term imposed for any offense that is described 22358
in division (A)(4)(d)(i) of this section if division (A)(4)(d)(ii) 22359
of this section applies to the offender:22360

       (i) The offense is a felony of the first or second degree 22361
that is an offense of violence and that is not described in 22362
division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, an attempt to commit a 22363
felony of the first or second degree that is an offense of 22364
violence and that is not described in division (A)(2)(a) or (b) of 22365
this section if the attempt is a felony of the first or second 22366
degree, or an offense under an existing or former law of this 22367
state, another state, or the United States that is or was 22368
substantially equivalent to any other offense described in this 22369
division. 22370

       (ii) The offender previously was convicted of or pleaded 22371
guilty to any offense listed in division (A)(2) or (A)(4)(d)(i) of 22372
this section. 22373

       (5) "Sexually oriented offense" has the same meaning as in 22374
section 2950.01 of the Revised Code.22375

        (B) The director of the department of rehabilitation and 22376
correction may petitionrecommend in writing to the sentencing 22377
court for the releasethat the court consider releasing from 22378
prison of any offender who, on or after September 30, 2011, is22379
confined in a state correctional institution under, who is serving22380
a stated prison term of one year or more, and who is eligible 22381
under division (C) of this section for a release under this 22382
section and who has served at least eighty per cent of that stated 22383
prison term that remains to be served after the offender becomes 22384
eligible as described in that division. If the director wishes to 22385
submit a petition for releaserecommend that the sentencing court 22386
consider releasing an offender under this section, the director 22387
shall submit the petitionnotify the sentencing court in writing 22388
of the offender's eligibility not earlier than ninety days prior 22389
to the date on which the offender has served eighty per cent of 22390
the offender's stated prison term that remains to be served after 22391
the offender becomes eligible as described in division (C) of this 22392
section. The director's submission of a petition for release under 22393
this sectionthe written notice constitutes a recommendation by 22394
the director that the court strongly consider release of the 22395
offender consistent with the purposes and principles of sentencing 22396
set forth in sections 2929.11 and 2929.13 of the Revised Code. 22397
Only an offender recommended by the director under division (B) of 22398
this section may be considered for early release under this 22399
section.22400

       (C)(1) An offender serving a stated prison term of one year 22401
or more and who has commenced service of that stated prison term 22402
becomes eligible for release from prison under this section only 22403
as described in this division. An offender serving a stated prison 22404
term that includes a disqualifying prison term is not eligible for 22405
release from prison under this section. An offender serving a 22406
stated prison term that consists solely of one or more restricting 22407
prison terms is not eligible for release under this section. An 22408
offender serving a stated prison term of one year or more that 22409
includes one or more restricting prison terms and one or more 22410
eligible prison terms becomes eligible for release under this 22411
section after having fully served eachall restricting prison term22412
terms and having served eighty per cent of the stated prison term 22413
that remains to be served after all restricting prison terms have 22414
been fully served. An offender serving a stated prison term that 22415
consists solely of one or more eligible prison terms becomes 22416
eligible for release under this section upon the offender's 22417
commencement of serviceafter having served eighty per cent of 22418
that stated prison term. After an offender becomes eligible for 22419
release under this section, the director of rehabilitation and 22420
correction may petition for the release of the offender under 22421
division (C)(2) of this section no earlier than ninety days before 22422
the offender has served the portion of the offender's stated 22423
prison term specified in that division. For purposes of 22424
determining an offender's eligibility for release under this 22425
section, if the offender's stated prison term includes consecutive 22426
prison terms, any restricting prison terms shall be deemed served 22427
prior to any eligible prison terms that run consecutively to the 22428
restricting prison terms, and the eligible prison terms are deemed 22429
to commence after all of the restricting prison terms have been 22430
fully served. 22431

       An offender serving a stated prison term oneof one year or 22432
more that includes a mandatory prison term that is not a 22433
disqualifying prison term and is not a restricting prison term is 22434
not automatically ineligible as a result of the offender's service 22435
of that mandatory term for release from prison under this section, 22436
and the offender's eligibility for release from prison under this 22437
section is determined in accordance with this division.22438

       (2) If an offender confined in a state correctional 22439
institution under a stated prison term is eligible for release 22440
under this section as described in division (C)(1) of this 22441
section, the director of the department of rehabilitation and 22442
correction may petitionrecommend in writing that the sentencing 22443
court pursuant to division (B) of this section for the release22444
consider releasing the offender from prison of the offenderunder 22445
this section by submitting to the sentencing court the written 22446
notice described in division (B) of this section.22447

       (D) The director shall include with any petitionnotice22448
submitted to the sentencing court under division (B) of this 22449
section an institutional summary report that covers the offender's 22450
participation while confined in a state correctional institution 22451
in school, training, work, treatment, and other rehabilitative 22452
activities and any disciplinary action taken against the offender 22453
while so confined. The director shall include with the petition a 22454
post-release control assessment and placement plan, when relevant, 22455
andnotice any other documentation requested by the court, if 22456
available. 22457

       (E) When the director submits a petitionwritten notice to a 22458
sentencing court that an offender is eligible to be considered for 22459
early release under this section for release of an offender, the 22460
department promptly shall provide to the prosecuting attorney of 22461
the county in which the offender was indicted a copy of the 22462
petitionwritten notice, a copy of the institutional summary 22463
report, and any other information provided to the court. The 22464
department also promptly shall give written notice of the filing 22465
of the petitionsubmission to any victim of the offender or 22466
victim's representative of any victim of the offender who is 22467
registered with the office of victim's services. 22468

       The department also shall post a copy of the written notice 22469
of the petition on the database it maintains under section 5120.66 22470
of the Revised Code and include information on where a person may 22471
send comments regarding the petitionrecommendation of early 22472
release. 22473

       The information provided to the court, the prosecutor, and 22474
the victim or victim's representative under divisions (D) and (E) 22475
of this section shall include the name and contact information of 22476
a specific department of rehabilitation and correction employee 22477
who is available to answer questions about the offender who is the 22478
subject of the written notice submitted by the director, 22479
including, but not limited to, the offender's institutional 22480
conduct and rehabilitative activities while incarcerated.22481

       (F) Upon receipt of a petition for release of an offender22482
written notice submitted by the director under division (B) of22483
this section, the court may deny the petition withouteither 22484
shall, on its own motion, schedule a hearing to consider releasing 22485
the offender who is the subject of the notice or shall inform the 22486
department that it will not be conducting a hearing relative to 22487
the offender. The court shall not grant a petition foran early22488
release ofto an offender without holding a hearing. If a court 22489
denies a petition for release of an offender withoutdeclines to 22490
hold a hearing relative to an offender with respect to a written 22491
notice submitted by the director, the court may later consider 22492
release of that offender under this section on a subsequent 22493
petition. The court shall enter its ruling withinits own motion 22494
by scheduling a hearing for that purpose. Within thirty days after 22495
the petitionwritten notice is filedsubmitted, the court shall 22496
inform the department whether or not the court is scheduling a 22497
hearing on the offender who is the subject of the notice. 22498

       (G) If the court grantsschedules a hearing onupon receiving22499
a petition for release of an offenderwritten notice submitted 22500
under division (B) of this section or upon its own motion under 22501
division (F) of this section, the court shall notify the head of 22502
the state correctional institution in which the offender is 22503
confined of the hearing prior to the hearing. If the court makes a 22504
journal entry ordering the offender to be conveyed to the hearing, 22505
except as otherwise provided in this division, the head of the 22506
correctional institution shall deliver the offender to the sheriff 22507
of the county in which the hearing is to be held, and the sheriff 22508
shall convey the offender to and from the hearing. Upon the 22509
court's own motion or the motion of the offender or the 22510
prosecuting attorney of the county in which the offender was 22511
indicted, the court may permit the offender to appear at the 22512
hearing by video conferencing equipment if equipment of that 22513
nature is available and compatible.22514

       Upon receipt of notice from a court of a hearing on the 22515
release of an offender under this division, the head of the state 22516
correctional institution in which the offender is confined 22517
immediately shall notify the appropriate person at the department 22518
of rehabilitation and correction of the hearing, and the 22519
department within twenty-four hours after receipt of the notice 22520
shall post on the database it maintains pursuant to section 22521
5120.66 of the Revised Code the offender's name and all of the 22522
information specified in division (A)(1)(c)(i) of that section. If 22523
the court grantsschedules a hearing on a petition for release of 22524
an offender under this section, the court promptly shall give 22525
notice of the hearing to the prosecuting attorney of the county in 22526
which the offender was indicted. Upon receipt of the notice from 22527
the court, the prosecuting attorney shall notify pursuant to 22528
section 2930.16 of the Revised Code any victim of the offender or 22529
the victim's representative of the hearing.22530

       (H) If the court grantsschedules a hearing on a petition for 22531
release of an offender under this section, at the hearing, the 22532
court shall afford the offender and the offender's attorney an 22533
opportunity to present written information and, if present, oral 22534
information relevant to the motionoffender's early release. The 22535
court shall afford a similar opportunity to the prosecuting 22536
attorney, victim or victim's representative, as defined in section 22537
2930.01 of the Revised Code, and any other person the court 22538
determines is likely to present additional relevant information. 22539
If the court pursuant to division (G) of this section permits the 22540
offender to appear at the hearing by video conferencing equipment, 22541
the offender's opportunity to present oral information shall be as 22542
a part of the video conferencing. The court shall consider any 22543
statement of a victim made under section 2930.14 or 2930.17 of the 22544
Revised Code, any victim impact statement prepared under section22545
2947.051 of the Revised Code, and any report, plan, and other 22546
documentation submitted by the director under division (D) of this 22547
section. After ruling on the motionwhether to grant the offender 22548
early release, the court shall notify the victim in accordance 22549
with sections 2930.03 and 2930.16 of the Revised Code. 22550

       (I) If the court grants a petition for release of an offender 22551
early release under this section, it shall order the release of 22552
the offender, shall place the offender under one or more 22553
appropriate community control sanctions, under appropriate 22554
conditions, and under the supervision of the department of 22555
probation that serves the court, and shall reserve the right to 22556
reimpose the sentence that it reduced and from which the offender 22557
was released if the offender violates the sanction. The court 22558
shall not make a release under this section effective prior to the 22559
date on which the offender has served at least eighty per cent of 22560
the offender's stated prison term that remains to be served after 22561
the offender becomes eligible as described in division (C) of this 22562
section. If the sentence under which the offender is confined in a 22563
state correctional institution and from which the offender is 22564
being released was imposed for a felony of the first or second 22565
degree, the court shall consider ordering that the offender be 22566
monitored by means of a global positioning device. If the court 22567
reimposes the sentence that it reduced and from which the offender 22568
was released and if the violation of the sanction is a new 22569
offense, the court may order that the reimposed sentence be served 22570
either concurrently with, or consecutive to, any new sentence 22571
imposed upon the offender as a result of the violation that is a 22572
new offense. The period of all community control sanctions imposed 22573
under this division shall not exceed five years. The court, in its 22574
discretion, may reduce the period of community control sanctions 22575
by the amount of time the offender spent in jail or prison for the 22576
offense. 22577

       If the court grants a petition for release of an offender 22578
early release under this section, it shall notify the appropriate 22579
person at the department of rehabilitation and correction of the 22580
release, and the department shall post notice of the release on 22581
the database it maintains pursuant to section 5120.66 of the 22582
Revised Code.22583

       (J) The department shall adopt under Chapter 119. of the 22584
Revised Code any rules necessary to implement this section.22585

       Sec. 2967.191.  The department of rehabilitation and 22586
correction shall reduce the stated prison term of a prisoner or, 22587
if the prisoner is serving a term for which there is parole 22588
eligibility, the minimum and maximum term or the parole 22589
eligibility date of the prisoner by the total number of days that 22590
the prisoner was confined for any reason arising out of the 22591
offense for which the prisoner was convicted and sentenced, 22592
including confinement in lieu of bail while awaiting trial, 22593
confinement for examination to determine the prisoner's competence 22594
to stand trial or sanity, and confinement while awaiting 22595
transportation to the place where the prisoner is to serve the 22596
prisoner's prison term, as determined by the sentencing court 22597
under division (B)(2)(h)(i) of section 2929.19 of the Revised 22598
Code. The department of rehabilitation and correction also shall 22599
reduce the stated prison term of a prisoner or, if the prisoner is 22600
serving a term for which there is parole eligibility, the minimum 22601
and maximum term or the parole eligibility date of the prisoner by 22602
the total number of days, if any, that the prisoner previously 22603
served in the custody of the department of rehabilitation and 22604
correction arising out of the offense for which the prisoner was 22605
convicted and sentenced.22606

       Sec. 2967.26.  (A)(1) The department of rehabilitation and 22607
correction, by rule, may establish a transitional control program 22608
for the purpose of closely monitoring a prisoner's adjustment to 22609
community supervision during the final one hundred eighty days of 22610
the prisoner's confinement. If the department establishes a 22611
transitional control program under this division, the adult parole 22612
authority may transfer eligible prisoners to transitional control 22613
status under the program during the final one hundred eighty days 22614
of their confinement and under the terms and conditions 22615
established by the department, shall provide for the confinement 22616
as provided in this division of each eligible prisoner so 22617
transferred, and shall supervise each eligible prisoner so 22618
transferred in one or more community control sanctions. Each 22619
eligible prisoner who is transferred to transitional control 22620
status under the program shall be confined in a suitable facility 22621
that is licensed pursuant to division (C) of section 2967.14 of 22622
the Revised Code, or shall be confined in a residence the 22623
department has approved for this purpose and be monitored pursuant 22624
to an electronic monitoring device, as defined in section 2929.01 22625
of the Revised Code. If the department establishes a transitional 22626
control program under this division, the rules establishing the 22627
program shall include criteria that define which prisoners are 22628
eligible for the program, criteria that must be satisfied to be 22629
approved as a residence that may be used for confinement under the 22630
program of a prisoner that is transferred to it and procedures for 22631
the department to approve residences that satisfy those criteria, 22632
and provisions of the type described in division (C) of this 22633
section. At a minimum, the criteria that define which prisoners 22634
are eligible for the program shall provide all of the following:22635

       (a) That a prisoner is eligible for the program if the 22636
prisoner is serving a prison term or term of imprisonment for an 22637
offense committed prior to March 17, 1998, and if, at the time at 22638
which eligibility is being determined, the prisoner would have 22639
been eligible for a furlough under this section as it existed 22640
immediately prior to March 17, 1998, or would have been eligible 22641
for conditional release under former section 2967.23 of the 22642
Revised Code as that section existed immediately prior to March 22643
17, 1998;22644

       (b) That no prisoner who is serving a mandatory prison term 22645
is eligible for the program until after expiration of the 22646
mandatory term;22647

       (c) That no prisoner who is serving a prison term or term of 22648
life imprisonment without parole imposed pursuant to section 22649
2971.03 of the Revised Code is eligible for the program.22650

       (2) At least three weeks prior to transferring to 22651
transitional control under this section a prisoner who is serving 22652
a term of imprisonment or prison term for an offense committed on 22653
or after July 1, 1996, the adultdivision of parole authorityand 22654
community services of the department of rehabilitation and 22655
correction shall give notice of the pendency of the transfer to 22656
transitional control to the court of common pleas of the county in 22657
which the indictment against the prisoner was found and of the 22658
fact that the court may disapprove the transfer of the prisoner to 22659
transitional control and shall include a report prepared by the 22660
head of the state correctional institution in which the prisoner 22661
is confined. The head of the state correctional institution in 22662
which the prisoner is confined, upon the request of the adult 22663
parole authority, shall provide to the authority for inclusion in 22664
the notice sent to the court under this division a report on the 22665
prisoner's conduct in the institution and in any institution from 22666
which the prisoner may have been transferred. The report shall 22667
cover the prisoner's participation in school, vocational training, 22668
work, treatment, and other rehabilitative activities and any 22669
disciplinary action taken against the prisoner. If the court 22670
disapproves of the transfer of the prisoner to transitional 22671
control, the court shall notify the authority of the disapproval 22672
within thirty days after receipt of the notice. If the court 22673
timely disapproves the transfer of the prisoner to transitional 22674
control, the authority shall not proceed with the transfer. If the 22675
court does not timely disapprove the transfer of the prisoner to 22676
transitional control, the authority may transfer the prisoner to 22677
transitional control.22678

       (3) If the victim of an offense for which a prisoner was 22679
sentenced to a prison term or term of imprisonment has requested 22680
notification under section 2930.16 of the Revised Code and has 22681
provided the department of rehabilitation and correction with the 22682
victim's name and address, the adult parole authority, at least 22683
three weeks prior to transferring the prisoner to transitional 22684
control pursuant to this section, shall notify the victim of the 22685
pendency of the transfer and of the victim's right to submit a 22686
statement to the authority regarding the impact of the transfer of 22687
the prisoner to transitional control. If the victim subsequently 22688
submits a statement of that nature to the authority, the authority 22689
shall consider the statement in deciding whether to transfer the 22690
prisoner to transitional control.22691

       (4) The department of rehabilitation and correction, at least 22692
three weeks prior to transferring a prisoner to transitional 22693
control pursuant to this section, shall post on the database it 22694
maintains pursuant to section 5120.66 of the Revised Code the 22695
prisoner's name and all of the information specified in division 22696
(A)(1)(c)(iv) of that section. In addition to and independent of 22697
the right of a victim to submit a statement as described in 22698
division (A)(3) of this section or to otherwise make a statement 22699
and in addition to and independent of any other right or duty of a 22700
person to present information or make a statement, any person may 22701
send to the adult parole authority at any time prior to the 22702
authority's transfer of the prisoner to transitional control a 22703
written statement regarding the transfer of the prisoner to 22704
transitional control. In addition to the information, reports, and 22705
statements it considers under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this 22706
section or that it otherwise considers, the authority shall 22707
consider each statement submitted in accordance with this division 22708
in deciding whether to transfer the prisoner to transitional 22709
control.22710

       (B) Each prisoner transferred to transitional control under 22711
this section shall be confined in the manner described in division 22712
(A) of this section during any period of time that the prisoner is 22713
not actually working at the prisoner's approved employment, 22714
engaged in a vocational training or another educational program, 22715
engaged in another program designated by the director, or engaged 22716
in other activities approved by the department.22717

       (C) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 22718
adopt rules for transferring eligible prisoners to transitional 22719
control, supervising and confining prisoners so transferred, 22720
administering the transitional control program in accordance with 22721
this section, and using the moneys deposited into the transitional 22722
control fund established under division (E) of this section.22723

       (D) The department of rehabilitation and correction may adopt 22724
rules for the issuance of passes for the limited purposes 22725
described in this division to prisoners who are transferred to 22726
transitional control under this section. If the department adopts 22727
rules of that nature, the rules shall govern the granting of the 22728
passes and shall provide for the supervision of prisoners who are 22729
temporarily released pursuant to one of those passes. Upon the 22730
adoption of rules under this division, the department may issue 22731
passes to prisoners who are transferred to transitional control 22732
status under this section in accordance with the rules and the 22733
provisions of this division. All passes issued under this division 22734
shall be for a maximum of forty-eight hours and may be issued only 22735
for the following purposes:22736

       (1) To visit a relative in imminent danger of death;22737

       (2) To have a private viewing of the body of a deceased 22738
relative;22739

       (3) To visit with family;22740

       (4) To otherwise aid in the rehabilitation of the prisoner.22741

       (E) The adult parole authority may require a prisoner who is 22742
transferred to transitional control to pay to the division of 22743
parole and community services the reasonable expenses incurred by 22744
the division in supervising or confining the prisoner while under 22745
transitional control. Inability to pay those reasonable expenses 22746
shall not be grounds for refusing to transfer an otherwise 22747
eligible prisoner to transitional control. Amounts received by the 22748
division of parole and community services under this division 22749
shall be deposited into the transitional control fund, which is 22750
hereby created in the state treasury and which hereby replaces and 22751
succeeds the furlough services fund that formerly existed in the 22752
state treasury. All moneys that remain in the furlough services 22753
fund on March 17, 1998, shall be transferred on that date to the 22754
transitional control fund. The transitional control fund shall be 22755
used solely to pay costs related to the operation of the 22756
transitional control program established under this section. The 22757
director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt rules in 22758
accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the use of 22759
the fund.22760

       (F) A prisoner who violates any rule established by the 22761
department of rehabilitation and correction under division (A), 22762
(C), or (D) of this section may be transferred to a state 22763
correctional institution pursuant to rules adopted under division 22764
(A), (C), or (D) of this section, but the prisoner shall receive 22765
credit towards completing the prisoner's sentence for the time 22766
spent under transitional control.22767

       If a prisoner is transferred to transitional control under 22768
this section, upon successful completion of the period of 22769
transitional control, the prisoner may be released on parole or 22770
under post-release control pursuant to section 2967.13 or 2967.28 22771
of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the department of 22772
rehabilitation and correction. If the prisoner is released under 22773
post-release control, the duration of the post-release control, 22774
the type of post-release control sanctions that may be imposed, 22775
the enforcement of the sanctions, and the treatment of prisoners 22776
who violate any sanction applicable to the prisoner are governed 22777
by section 2967.28 of the Revised Code.22778

       Sec. 2967.28.  (A) As used in this section:22779

       (1) "Monitored time" means the monitored time sanction 22780
specified in section 2929.17 of the Revised Code.22781

       (2) "Deadly weapon" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same 22782
meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.22783

       (3) "Felony sex offense" means a violation of a section 22784
contained in Chapter 2907. of the Revised Code that is a felony.22785

       (4) "Risk reduction sentence" means a prison term imposed by 22786
a court, when the court recommends pursuant to section 2929.143 of 22787
the Revised Code that the offender serve the sentence under 22788
section 5120.036 of the Revised Code, and the offender may 22789
potentially be released from imprisonment prior to the expiration 22790
of the prison term if the offender successfully completes all 22791
assessment and treatment or programming required by the department 22792
of rehabilitation and correction under section 5120.036 of the 22793
Revised Code.22794

       (B) Each sentence to a prison term for a felony of the first 22795
degree, for a felony of the second degree, for a felony sex 22796
offense, or for a felony of the third degree that is not a felony 22797
sex offense and in the commission of which the offender caused or 22798
threatened to cause physical harm to a person shall include a 22799
requirement that the offender be subject to a period of 22800
post-release control imposed by the parole board after the 22801
offender's release from imprisonment. This division applies with 22802
respect to all prison terms of a type described in this division, 22803
including a term of any such type that is a risk reduction 22804
sentence. If a court imposes a sentence including a prison term of 22805
a type described in this division on or after July 11, 2006, the 22806
failure of a sentencing court to notify the offender pursuant to 22807
division (B)(2)(c) of section 2929.19 of the Revised Code of this 22808
requirement or to include in the judgment of conviction entered on 22809
the journal a statement that the offender's sentence includes this 22810
requirement does not negate, limit, or otherwise affect the 22811
mandatory period of supervision that is required for the offender 22812
under this division. Section 2929.191 of the Revised Code applies 22813
if, prior to July 11, 2006, a court imposed a sentence including a 22814
prison term of a type described in this division and failed to 22815
notify the offender pursuant to division (B)(2)(c) of section 22816
2929.19 of the Revised Code regarding post-release control or to 22817
include in the judgment of conviction entered on the journal or in 22818
the sentence pursuant to division (D)(1) of section 2929.14 of the 22819
Revised Code a statement regarding post-release control. Unless 22820
reduced by the parole board pursuant to division (D) of this 22821
section when authorized under that division, a period of 22822
post-release control required by this division for an offender 22823
shall be of one of the following periods:22824

       (1) For a felony of the first degree or for a felony sex 22825
offense, five years;22826

       (2) For a felony of the second degree that is not a felony 22827
sex offense, three years;22828

       (3) For a felony of the third degree that is not a felony sex 22829
offense and in the commission of which the offender caused or 22830
threatened physical harm to a person, three years.22831

       (C) Any sentence to a prison term for a felony of the third, 22832
fourth, or fifth degree that is not subject to division (B)(1) or 22833
(3) of this section shall include a requirement that the offender 22834
be subject to a period of post-release control of up to three 22835
years after the offender's release from imprisonment, if the 22836
parole board, in accordance with division (D) of this section, 22837
determines that a period of post-release control is necessary for 22838
that offender. This division applies with respect to all prison 22839
terms of a type described in this division, including a term of 22840
any such type that is a risk reduction sentence. Section 2929.191 22841
of the Revised Code applies if, prior to July 11, 2006, a court 22842
imposed a sentence including a prison term of a type described in 22843
this division and failed to notify the offender pursuant to 22844
division (B)(2)(d) of section 2929.19 of the Revised Code 22845
regarding post-release control or to include in the judgment of 22846
conviction entered on the journal or in the sentence pursuant to 22847
division (D)(2) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code a statement 22848
regarding post-release control. Pursuant to an agreement entered 22849
into under section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, a court of common 22850
pleas or parole board may impose sanctions or conditions on an 22851
offender who is placed on post-release control under this 22852
division.22853

       (D)(1) Before the prisoner is released from imprisonment, the 22854
parole board or, pursuant to an agreement under section 2967.29 of 22855
the Revised Code, the court shall impose upon a prisoner described 22856
in division (B) of this section, shall impose upon a prisoner 22857
described in division (C) of this section who is to be released 22858
before the expiration of the prisoner's stated prison term under a 22859
risk reduction sentence, may impose upon a prisoner described in 22860
division (C) of this section who is not to be released before the 22861
expiration of the prisoner's stated prison term under a risk 22862
reduction sentence, and shall impose upon a prisoner described in 22863
division (B)(2)(b) of section 5120.031 or in division (B)(1) of 22864
section 5120.032 of the Revised Code, one or more post-release 22865
control sanctions to apply during the prisoner's period of 22866
post-release control. Whenever the board or court imposes one or 22867
more post-release control sanctions upon a prisoner, the board or 22868
court, in addition to imposing the sanctions, also shall include 22869
as a condition of the post-release control that the offender not 22870
leave the state without permission of the court or the offender's 22871
parole or probation officer and that the offender abide by the 22872
law. The board or court may impose any other conditions of release 22873
under a post-release control sanction that the board or court 22874
considers appropriate, and the conditions of release may include 22875
any community residential sanction, community nonresidential 22876
sanction, or financial sanction that the sentencing court was 22877
authorized to impose pursuant to sections 2929.16, 2929.17, and 22878
2929.18 of the Revised Code. Prior to the release of a prisoner 22879
for whom it will impose one or more post-release control sanctions 22880
under this division, the parole board or court shall review the 22881
prisoner's criminal history, results from the single validated 22882
risk assessment tool selected by the department of rehabilitation 22883
and correction under section 5120.114 of the Revised Code, all 22884
juvenile court adjudications finding the prisoner, while a 22885
juvenile, to be a delinquent child, and the record of the 22886
prisoner's conduct while imprisoned. The parole board or court 22887
shall consider any recommendation regarding post-release control 22888
sanctions for the prisoner made by the office of victims' 22889
services. After considering those materials, the board or court 22890
shall determine, for a prisoner described in division (B) of this 22891
section, division (B)(2)(b) of section 5120.031, or division 22892
(B)(1) of section 5120.032 of the Revised Code and for a prisoner 22893
described in division (C) of this section who is to be released 22894
before the expiration of the prisoner's stated prison term under a 22895
risk reduction sentence, which post-release control sanction or 22896
combination of post-release control sanctions is reasonable under 22897
the circumstances or, for a prisoner described in division (C) of 22898
this section who is not to be released before the expiration of 22899
the prisoner's stated prison term under a risk reduction sentence, 22900
whether a post-release control sanction is necessary and, if so, 22901
which post-release control sanction or combination of post-release 22902
control sanctions is reasonable under the circumstances. In the 22903
case of a prisoner convicted of a felony of the fourth or fifth 22904
degree other than a felony sex offense, the board or court shall 22905
presume that monitored time is the appropriate post-release 22906
control sanction unless the board or court determines that a more 22907
restrictive sanction is warranted. A post-release control sanction 22908
imposed under this division takes effect upon the prisoner's 22909
release from imprisonment.22910

        Regardless of whether the prisoner was sentenced to the 22911
prison term prior to, on, or after July 11, 2006, prior to the 22912
release of a prisoner for whom it will impose one or more 22913
post-release control sanctions under this division, the parole 22914
board shall notify the prisoner that, if the prisoner violates any 22915
sanction so imposed or any condition of post-release control 22916
described in division (B) of section 2967.131 of the Revised Code 22917
that is imposed on the prisoner, the parole board may impose a 22918
prison term of up to one-half of the stated prison term originally 22919
imposed upon the prisoner.22920

       (2) If a prisoner who is placed on post-release control under 22921
this section is released before the expiration of the prisoner's 22922
stated prison term by reason of credit earned under section 22923
2967.193 of the Revised Code and if the prisoner earned sixty or 22924
more days of credit, the adult parole authority shall supervise 22925
the offender with an active global positioning system device for 22926
the first fourteen days after the offender's release from 22927
imprisonment. This division does not prohibit or limit the 22928
imposition of any post-release control sanction otherwise 22929
authorized by this section.22930

       (3) At any time after a prisoner is released from 22931
imprisonment and during the period of post-release control 22932
applicable to the releasee, the adult parole authority or, 22933
pursuant to an agreement under section 2967.29 of the Revised 22934
Code, the court may review the releasee's behavior under the 22935
post-release control sanctions imposed upon the releasee under 22936
this section. The authority or court may determine, based upon the 22937
review and in accordance with the standards established under 22938
division (E) of this section, that a more restrictive or a less 22939
restrictive sanction is appropriate and may impose a different 22940
sanction. The authority also may recommend that the parole board 22941
or court increase or reduce the duration of the period of 22942
post-release control imposed by the court. If the authority 22943
recommends that the board or court increase the duration of 22944
post-release control, the board or court shall review the 22945
releasee's behavior and may increase the duration of the period of 22946
post-release control imposed by the court up to eight years. If 22947
the authority recommends that the board or court reduce the 22948
duration of control for an offense described in division (B) or 22949
(C) of this section, the board or court shall review the 22950
releasee's behavior and may reduce the duration of the period of 22951
control imposed by the court. In no case shall the board or court 22952
reduce the duration of the period of control imposed for an 22953
offense described in division (B)(1) of this section to a period 22954
less than the length of the stated prison term originally imposed, 22955
and in no case shall the board or court permit the releasee to 22956
leave the state without permission of the court or the releasee's 22957
parole or probation officer.22958

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction, in 22959
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 22960
rules that do all of the following:22961

       (1) Establish standards for the imposition by the parole 22962
board of post-release control sanctions under this section that 22963
are consistent with the overriding purposes and sentencing 22964
principles set forth in section 2929.11 of the Revised Code and 22965
that are appropriate to the needs of releasees;22966

       (2) Establish standards that provide for a period of 22967
post-release control of up to three years for all prisoners 22968
described in division (C) of this section who are to be released 22969
before the expiration of their stated prison term under a risk 22970
reduction sentence and standards by which the parole board can 22971
determine which prisoners described in division (C) of this 22972
section who are not to be released before the expiration of their 22973
stated prison term under a risk reduction sentence should be 22974
placed under a period of post-release control;22975

       (3) Establish standards to be used by the parole board in 22976
reducing the duration of the period of post-release control 22977
imposed by the court when authorized under division (D) of this 22978
section, in imposing a more restrictive post-release control 22979
sanction than monitored time upon a prisoner convicted of a felony 22980
of the fourth or fifth degree other than a felony sex offense, or 22981
in imposing a less restrictive control sanction upon a releasee 22982
based on the releasee's activities including, but not limited to, 22983
remaining free from criminal activity and from the abuse of 22984
alcohol or other drugs, successfully participating in approved 22985
rehabilitation programs, maintaining employment, and paying 22986
restitution to the victim or meeting the terms of other financial 22987
sanctions;22988

       (4) Establish standards to be used by the adult parole 22989
authority in modifying a releasee's post-release control sanctions 22990
pursuant to division (D)(2) of this section;22991

       (5) Establish standards to be used by the adult parole 22992
authority or parole board in imposing further sanctions under 22993
division (F) of this section on releasees who violate post-release 22994
control sanctions, including standards that do the following:22995

       (a) Classify violations according to the degree of 22996
seriousness;22997

       (b) Define the circumstances under which formal action by the 22998
parole board is warranted;22999

       (c) Govern the use of evidence at violation hearings;23000

       (d) Ensure procedural due process to an alleged violator;23001

       (e) Prescribe nonresidential community control sanctions for 23002
most misdemeanor and technical violations;23003

       (f) Provide procedures for the return of a releasee to 23004
imprisonment for violations of post-release control.23005

       (F)(1) Whenever the parole board imposes one or more 23006
post-release control sanctions upon an offender under this 23007
section, the offender upon release from imprisonment shall be 23008
under the general jurisdiction of the adult parole authority and 23009
generally shall be supervised by the field services section 23010
through its staff of parole and field officers as described in 23011
section 5149.04 of the Revised Code, as if the offender had been 23012
placed on parole. If the offender upon release from imprisonment 23013
violates the post-release control sanction or any conditions 23014
described in division (A) of section 2967.131 of the Revised Code 23015
that are imposed on the offender, the public or private person or 23016
entity that operates or administers the sanction or the program or 23017
activity that comprises the sanction shall report the violation 23018
directly to the adult parole authority or to the officer of the 23019
authority who supervises the offender. The authority's officers 23020
may treat the offender as if the offender were on parole and in 23021
violation of the parole, and otherwise shall comply with this 23022
section.23023

       (2) If the adult parole authority or, pursuant to an 23024
agreement under section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, the court 23025
determines that a releasee has violated a post-release control 23026
sanction or any conditions described in division (A) of section 23027
2967.131 of the Revised Code imposed upon the releasee and that a 23028
more restrictive sanction is appropriate, the authority or court 23029
may impose a more restrictive sanction upon the releasee, in 23030
accordance with the standards established under division (E) of 23031
this section or in accordance with the agreement made under 23032
section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, or may report the violation 23033
to the parole board for a hearing pursuant to division (F)(3) of 23034
this section. The authority or court may not, pursuant to this 23035
division, increase the duration of the releasee's post-release 23036
control or impose as a post-release control sanction a residential 23037
sanction that includes a prison term, but the authority or court 23038
may impose on the releasee any other residential sanction, 23039
nonresidential sanction, or financial sanction that the sentencing 23040
court was authorized to impose pursuant to sections 2929.16, 23041
2929.17, and 2929.18 of the Revised Code.23042

       (3) The parole board or, pursuant to an agreement under 23043
section 2967.29 of the Revised Code, the court may hold a hearing 23044
on any alleged violation by a releasee of a post-release control 23045
sanction or any conditions described in division (A) of section 23046
2967.131 of the Revised Code that are imposed upon the releasee. 23047
If after the hearing the board or court finds that the releasee 23048
violated the sanction or condition, the board or court may 23049
increase the duration of the releasee's post-release control up to 23050
the maximum duration authorized by division (B) or (C) of this 23051
section or impose a more restrictive post-release control 23052
sanction. When appropriate, the board or court may impose as a 23053
post-release control sanction a residential sanction that includes 23054
a prison term. The board or court shall consider a prison term as 23055
a post-release control sanction imposed for a violation of 23056
post-release control when the violation involves a deadly weapon 23057
or dangerous ordnance, physical harm or attempted serious physical 23058
harm to a person, or sexual misconduct, or when the releasee 23059
committed repeated violations of post-release control sanctions. 23060
Unless a releasee's stated prison term was reduced pursuant to 23061
section 5120.032 of the Revised Code, the period of a prison term 23062
that is imposed as a post-release control sanction under this 23063
division shall not exceed nine months, and the maximum cumulative 23064
prison term for all violations under this division shall not 23065
exceed one-half of the stated prison term originally imposed upon 23066
the offender as part of this sentence. If a releasee's stated 23067
prison term was reduced pursuant to section 5120.032 of the 23068
Revised Code, the period of a prison term that is imposed as a 23069
post-release control sanction under this division and the maximum 23070
cumulative prison term for all violations under this division 23071
shall not exceed the period of time not served in prison under the 23072
sentence imposed by the court. The period of a prison term that is 23073
imposed as a post-release control sanction under this division 23074
shall not count as, or be credited toward, the remaining period of 23075
post-release control.23076

       If an offender is imprisoned for a felony committed while 23077
under post-release control supervision and is again released on 23078
post-release control for a period of time determined by division 23079
(F)(4)(d) of this section, the maximum cumulative prison term for 23080
all violations under this division shall not exceed one-half of 23081
the total stated prison terms of the earlier felony, reduced by 23082
any prison term administratively imposed by the parole board or 23083
court, plus one-half of the total stated prison term of the new 23084
felony.23085

       (4) Any period of post-release control shall commence upon an 23086
offender's actual release from prison. If an offender is serving 23087
an indefinite prison term or a life sentence in addition to a 23088
stated prison term, the offender shall serve the period of 23089
post-release control in the following manner:23090

       (a) If a period of post-release control is imposed upon the 23091
offender and if the offender also is subject to a period of parole 23092
under a life sentence or an indefinite sentence, and if the period 23093
of post-release control ends prior to the period of parole, the 23094
offender shall be supervised on parole. The offender shall receive 23095
credit for post-release control supervision during the period of 23096
parole. The offender is not eligible for final release under 23097
section 2967.16 of the Revised Code until the post-release control 23098
period otherwise would have ended.23099

       (b) If a period of post-release control is imposed upon the 23100
offender and if the offender also is subject to a period of parole 23101
under an indefinite sentence, and if the period of parole ends 23102
prior to the period of post-release control, the offender shall be 23103
supervised on post-release control. The requirements of parole 23104
supervision shall be satisfied during the post-release control 23105
period.23106

       (c) If an offender is subject to more than one period of 23107
post-release control, the period of post-release control for all 23108
of the sentences shall be the period of post-release control that 23109
expires last, as determined by the parole board or court. Periods 23110
of post-release control shall be served concurrently and shall not 23111
be imposed consecutively to each other.23112

       (d) The period of post-release control for a releasee who 23113
commits a felony while under post-release control for an earlier 23114
felony shall be the longer of the period of post-release control 23115
specified for the new felony under division (B) or (C) of this 23116
section or the time remaining under the period of post-release 23117
control imposed for the earlier felony as determined by the parole 23118
board or court.23119

       Sec. 2981.11. (A)(1) Any property that has been lost, 23120
abandoned, stolen, seized pursuant to a search warrant, or 23121
otherwise lawfully seized or forfeited and that is in the custody 23122
of a law enforcement agency shall be kept safely by the agency, 23123
pending the time it no longer is needed as evidence or for another 23124
lawful purpose, and shall be disposed of pursuant to sections 23125
2981.12 and 2981.13 of the Revised Code.23126

       (2) This chapter does not apply to the custody and disposal 23127
of any of the following:23128

       (a) Vehicles subject to forfeiture under Title XLV of the 23129
Revised Code, except as provided in division (A)(6) of section 23130
2981.12 of the Revised Code;23131

       (b) Abandoned junk motor vehicles or other property of 23132
negligible value;23133

       (c) Property held by a department of rehabilitation and 23134
correction institution that is unclaimed, that does not have an 23135
identified owner, that the owner agrees to dispose of, or that is 23136
identified by the department as having little value;23137

       (d) Animals taken, and devices used in unlawfully taking 23138
animals, under section 1531.20 of the Revised Code;23139

       (e) Controlled substances sold by a peace officer in the 23140
performance of the officer's official duties under section 23141
3719.141 of the Revised Code;23142

       (f) Property recovered by a township law enforcement agency 23143
under sections 505.105 to 505.109 of the Revised Code;23144

       (g) Property held and disposed of under an ordinance of the 23145
municipal corporation or under sections 737.29 to 737.33 of the 23146
Revised Code, except that a municipal corporation that has 23147
received notice of a citizens' reward program as provided in 23148
division (F) of section 2981.12 of the Revised Code and disposes 23149
of property under an ordinance shall pay twenty-five per cent of 23150
any moneys acquired from any sale or auction to the citizens' 23151
reward program.23152

       (B)(1) Each law enforcement agency that has custody of any 23153
property that is subject to this section shall adopt and comply 23154
with a written internal control policy that does all of the 23155
following:23156

       (a) Provides for keeping detailed records as to the amount of 23157
property acquired by the agency and the date property was 23158
acquired;23159

       (b) Provides for keeping detailed records of the disposition 23160
of the property, which shall include, but not be limited to, both 23161
of the following:23162

       (i) The manner in which it was disposed, the date of 23163
disposition, detailed financial records concerning any property 23164
sold, and the name of any person who received the property. The 23165
record shall not identify or enable identification of the 23166
individual officer who seized any item of property.23167

       (ii) The general types of expenditures made with amounts that 23168
are gained from the sale of the property and that are retained by 23169
the agency, including the specific amount expended on each general 23170
type of expenditure, except that the policy shall not provide for 23171
or permit the identification of any specific expenditure that is 23172
made in an ongoing investigation.23173

       (c) Complies with section 2981.13 of the Revised Code if the 23174
agency has a law enforcement trust fund or similar fund created 23175
under that section.23176

       (2) Each law enforcement agency that during any calendar year 23177
has any seized or forfeited property covered by this section in 23178
its custody, including amounts distributed under section 2981.13 23179
of the Revised Code to its law enforcement trust fund or a similar 23180
fund created for the state highway patrol, department of public 23181
safety, department of taxation, or state board of pharmacy, shall 23182
prepare a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of 23183
the information contained in all of the public records kept by the 23184
agency pursuant to this section for that calendar year. The agency 23185
shall send a copy of the cumulative report to the attorney general 23186
not later than the first day of March in the calendar year 23187
following the calendar year covered by the report.23188

       (3) The records kept under the internal control policy shall 23189
be open to public inspection during the agency's regular business 23190
hours. The policy adopted under this section and each report 23191
received by the attorney general is a public record open for 23192
inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.23193

       (4) Not later than the fifteenth day of April in each 23194
calendar year in which reports are sent to the attorney general 23195
under division (B)(2) of this section, the attorney general shall 23196
send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house 23197
of representatives a written notice that indicates that the 23198
attorney general received reports that cover the previous calendar 23199
year, that the reports are open for inspection under section 23200
149.43 of the Revised Code, and that the attorney general will 23201
provide a copy of any or all of the reports to the president of 23202
the senate or the speaker of the house of representatives upon 23203
request.23204

       (C) A law enforcement agency with custody of property to be 23205
disposed of under section 2981.12 or 2981.13 of the Revised Code 23206
shall make a reasonable effort to locate persons entitled to 23207
possession of the property, to notify them of when and where it 23208
may be claimed, and to return the property to them at the earliest 23209
possible time. In the absence of evidence identifying persons 23210
entitled to possession, it is sufficient notice to advertise in a 23211
newspaper of general circulation in the county and to briefly 23212
describe the nature of the property in custody and inviting 23213
persons to view and establish their right to it.23214

       (D) As used in sections 2981.11 to 2981.13 of the Revised 23215
Code:23216

       (1) "Citizens' reward program" has the same meaning as in 23217
section 9.92 of the Revised Code.23218

       (2) "Law enforcement agency" includes correctional 23219
institutions.23220

       (3) "Township law enforcement agency" means an organized 23221
police department of a township, a township police district, a 23222
joint police district, or the office of a township constable.23223

       Sec. 2981.14. (A) Nothing in this chapter precludes the head 23224
of a law enforcement agency that seizes property from seeking 23225
forfeiture under federal law. If the property is forfeitable under 23226
this chapter and federal forfeiture is not sought, the property is 23227
subject only to this chapter.23228

       (B) Any law enforcement agency that receives moneys from a 23229
sale of forfeited property under federal law shall deposit, use, 23230
and account for the amounts, including any interest derived, in 23231
accordance with applicable federal law. If the state highway 23232
patrol or the investigative unit of the department of public 23233
safety receives such federal forfeiture moneys, the appropriate 23234
official shall deposit all interest or other earnings derived from 23235
the investment of the moneys into the contraband, forfeiture, and 23236
other fund of the highway patrol treasury contraband fund, the 23237
highway patrol justice contraband fund, the investigative unit 23238
treasury contraband fund, or the departmentinvestigative unit 23239
justice contraband fund, whichever is appropriate.23240

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the highway 23241
patrol treasury contraband fund, the highway patrol justice 23242
contraband fund, the investigative unit treasury contraband fund, 23243
and the investigative unit justice contraband fund. Each fund 23244
shall consist of moneys received under division (B) of this 23245
section and shall be used in accordance with any federal or other 23246
requirements associated with moneys received.23247

       Sec. 3109.14.  (A) As used in this section, "birth record" 23248
and "certification of birth" have the meanings given in section 23249
3705.01 of the Revised Code.23250

       (B)(1) The director of health, a person authorized by the 23251
director, a local commissioner of health, or a local registrar of 23252
vital statistics shall charge and collect a fee for each certified 23253
copy of a birth record, for each certification of birth, and for 23254
each copy of a death record. The fee shall be three dollars. The 23255
fee is in addition to the fee imposed by section 3705.24 or any 23256
other section of the Revised Code. A local commissioner of health 23257
or a local registrar of vital statistics may retain an amount of 23258
each additional fee collected, not to exceed three per cent of the 23259
amount of the additional fee, to be used for costs directly 23260
related to the collection of the fee and the forwarding of the fee 23261
to the treasurer of statedepartment of health. The23262

       The additional fees collected by the director of health or a 23263
person authorized by the director and the additional fees23264
collected, but not retained, under division (B)(1) of this section23265
by a local commissioner of health or a local registrar of vital 23266
statistics shall be forwarded to the treasurer of statedepartment 23267
of health not later than thirty days following the end of each 23268
quarter. Not later than two days after the fees are forwarded to 23269
the department each quarter, the department shall pay the 23270
collected fees to the treasurer of state in accordance with rules 23271
adopted by the treasurer of state under section 113.08 of the 23272
Revised Code.23273

       (2) Upon the filing for a divorce decree under section 23274
3105.10 or a decree of dissolution under section 3105.65 of the 23275
Revised Code, a court of common pleas shall charge and collect a 23276
fee. The fee shall be eleven dollars. The fee is in addition to 23277
any other court costs or fees. The county clerk of courts may 23278
retain an amount of each additional fee collected, not to exceed 23279
three per cent of the amount of the additional fee, to be used for 23280
costs directly related to the collection of the fee and the 23281
forwarding of the fee to the treasurer of state. The additional 23282
fees collected, but not retained, under division (B)(2) of this 23283
section shall be forwarded to the treasurer of state not later 23284
than twenty days following the end of each month.23285

       (C) The treasurer of state shall deposit the fees paid or23286
forwarded under this section in the state treasury to the credit 23287
of the children's trust fund, which is hereby created. A person or 23288
government entity that fails to forward the fees in a timely 23289
manner, as determined by the treasurer of state, shall forward23290
send to the treasurer of state, in addition to the fees, a penalty 23291
equal to ten per cent of the fees.23292

       The treasurer of state shall invest the moneys in the fund, 23293
and all earnings resulting from investment of the fund shall be 23294
credited to the fund, except that actual administrative costs 23295
incurred by the treasurer of state in administering the fund may 23296
be deducted from the earnings resulting from investments. The 23297
amount that may be deducted shall not exceed three per cent of the 23298
total amount of fees credited to the fund in each fiscal year, 23299
except that the children's trust fund board may approve an amount 23300
for actual administrative costs exceeding three per cent but not 23301
exceeding four per cent of such amount. The balance of the 23302
investment earnings shall be credited to the fund. Moneys credited 23303
to the fund shall be used only for the purposes described in 23304
sections 3109.13 to 3109.18 of the Revised Code.23305

       Sec. 3125.41.  (A) As used in this section:23306

       (1) "Cable television service" has the same meaning as in 23307
section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.23308

       (2) "Public utility" means a person or entity, including an 23309
entity owned or operated by a municipal corporation or other 23310
government entity, that is described in division (A) of section 23311
4905.03 of the Revised Code as a telephone company, electric light 23312
company, gas company, natural gas company, water-works company, 23313
heating or cooling company, or sewage disposal system company, or 23314
that is providing cable television service.23315

       (B) Except as provided in section 3125.43 of the Revised 23316
Code, the office of child support shall have access to all of the 23317
following unless release of the information is prohibited by 23318
federal or state law:23319

       (1) Any information in the possession of any officer or 23320
entity of the state or any political subdivision of the state that 23321
would aid the office in locating an absent parent or child 23322
pursuant to section 3125.06 of the Revised Code;23323

       (2) Any information concerning the employment, compensation, 23324
and benefits of any obligor or obligee subject to a support order 23325
in the possession of any person;23326

       (3) The name and address of any obligor or obligee subject to 23327
a support order and the obligor's or obligee's employer in the 23328
customer records of a public utility.23329

       Sec. 3301.55.  (A) A school district, county DD board, or 23330
eligible nonpublic school operating a preschool program shall 23331
house the program in buildings that meet the following 23332
requirements:23333

       (1) The building is operated by the district, county DD 23334
board, or eligible nonpublic school and has been approved by the 23335
division of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 23336
commerce or a certified municipal, township, or county building 23337
department for the purpose of operating a program for preschool 23338
children. Any such structure shall be constructed, equipped, 23339
repaired, altered, and maintained in accordance with applicable 23340
provisions of Chapters 3781. and 3791. and with rules adopted by 23341
the board of building standards under Chapter 3781. of the Revised 23342
Code for the safety and sanitation of structures erected for this 23343
purpose.23344

       (2) The building is in compliance with fire and safety laws 23345
and regulations as evidenced by reports of annual school fire and 23346
safety inspections as conducted by appropriate local authorities.23347

       (3) The school is in compliance with rules established by the 23348
state board of education regarding school food services.23349

       (4) The facility includes not less than thirty-five square 23350
feet of indoor space for each child in the program. Safe play 23351
space, including both indoor and outdoor play space, totaling not 23352
less than sixty square feet for each child using the space at any 23353
one time, shall be regularly available and scheduled for use.23354

       (5) First aid facilities and space for temporary placement or 23355
isolation of injured or ill children are provided.23356

       (B) Each school district, county DD board, or eligible 23357
nonpublic school that operates, or proposes to operate, a 23358
preschool program shall submit a building plan including all 23359
information specified by the state board of education to the board 23360
not later than the first day of September of the school year in 23361
which the program is to be initiated. The board shall determine 23362
whether the buildings meet the requirements of this section and 23363
section 3301.53 of the Revised Code, and notify the superintendent 23364
of its determination. If the board determines, on the basis of the 23365
building plan or any other information, that the buildings do not 23366
meet those requirements, it shall cause the buildings to be 23367
inspected by the department of education. The department shall 23368
make a report to the superintendent specifying any aspects of the 23369
building that are not in compliance with the requirements of this 23370
section and section 3301.53 of the Revised Code and the time 23371
period that will be allowed the district, county DD board, or 23372
school to meet the requirements.23373

       Sec. 3304.16.  In carrying out the purposes of sections 23374
3304.11 to 3304.27 of the Revised Code, the rehabilitation 23375
services commission:23376

       (A) Shall develop all necessary rules, including rules 23377
establishing a fee schedule for vocational rehabilitation services 23378
in accordance with 34 C.F.R. 361.50;23379

       (B) Shall prepare and submit to the governor annual reports 23380
of activities and expenditures and, prior to each first regular 23381
session of the general assembly, an estimate of sums required to 23382
carry out the commission's responsibilities;23383

       (C) Shall certify any disbursement of funds available to the 23384
commission for vocational rehabilitation activities;23385

       (D) Shall serve as the sole state agency designated to 23386
administer the plan under the "Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 23387
Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C. 701, as amended;23388

       (E) Shall take appropriate action to guarantee rights of and 23389
services to handicapped persons;23390

       (F) Shall consult with and advise other state agencies to 23391
assist them in meeting the needs of handicapped persons more 23392
effectively and to achieve maximum coordination among programs for 23393
the handicapped;23394

       (G) Shall establish an administrative division of consumer 23395
affairs and advocacy within the commission to promote and help 23396
guarantee the rights of handicapped persons;23397

       (H) Shall maintain an inventory of state services that are 23398
available to handicapped persons;23399

       (I) Shall utilize, support, assist, and cooperate with the 23400
governor's committee on employment of the handicapped;23401

       (J) May delegate to any officer or employee of the commission 23402
any necessary powers and duties;23403

       (K) May take any other necessary or appropriate action for 23404
cooperation with public and private agencies and organizations 23405
which may include:23406

       (1) Reciprocal agreements with other states to provide for 23407
the vocational rehabilitation of individuals within the states 23408
concerned;23409

       (2) Contracts or other arrangements with public and other 23410
nonprofit agencies and organizations for the construction or 23411
establishment and operation of vocational rehabilitation programs 23412
and facilities;23413

       (3) Cooperative arrangements with the federal government for 23414
carrying out sections 3304.11 to 3304.27 of the Revised Code, the 23415
"Vocational Rehabilitation Act," 41 Stat. 735 (1920), 29 U.S.C. 23416
31, as amended, or other federal statutes pertaining to vocational 23417
rehabilitation, and to this end, may adopt plans and methods of 23418
administration found necessary by the federal government for the 23419
efficient operation of any joint arrangements or the efficient 23420
application of any federal statutes;23421

       (4) Upon the designation of the governor, performing 23422
functions and services for the federal government relating to 23423
individuals under a physical or mental disability.23424

        (L) Shall comply withMay take any requirementsappropriate 23425
action necessary to obtain federal funds in the maximum amount and 23426
most advantageous proportion possible.;23427

       (M) May conduct research and demonstration projects, 23428
including inquiries concerning the causes of blindness and its 23429
prevention, provide training and instruction, including the 23430
establishment and maintenance of research fellowships and 23431
traineeships along with all necessary stipends and allowances, 23432
disseminate information, and provide technical assistance relating 23433
to vocational rehabilitation;23434

       (N) May plan, establish, and operate programs, facilities, 23435
and services relating to vocational rehabilitation;23436

       (O) May accept and hold, invest, reinvest, or otherwise use 23437
gifts made for the purpose of furthering vocational 23438
rehabilitation;23439

       (P) May ameliorate the condition of the aged blind or other 23440
severely disabled individuals by establishing a program of home 23441
visitation by commission employees for the purpose of instruction;23442

       (Q) May establish and manage small business enterprises that 23443
are operated by persons with a substantial handicap to employment, 23444
including blind persons;23445

       (R) May purchase from insurance companies licensed to do 23446
business in this state any insurance deemed necessary by the 23447
commission for the efficient operation of a suitable vending 23448
facility as defined in division (A) of section 3304.28 of the 23449
Revised Code;23450

       (S) May accept directly from any state agency, and any state 23451
agency may transfer directly to the commission, surplus computers 23452
and computer equipment to be used for any purposes the commission 23453
considers appropriate, notwithstanding sections 125.12 to 125.14 23454
of the Revised Code.23455

       Sec. 3304.181.  If the total of all funds available from 23456
nonfederal sources to support the activities of the rehabilitation 23457
services commission does not comply with the expenditure 23458
requirements of 34 C.F.R. 361.60 and 361.62 for those activities 23459
or would cause the state to lose an allotment or fail to receive a 23460
reallotment under 34 C.F.R. 361.65, the commission shallmay23461
solicit additional funds from, and enter into agreements for the 23462
use of those funds with, private or public entities, including 23463
local government entities of this state. The commission shallmay23464
continue to solicit additional funds and enter into agreements 23465
until the total funding available is sufficient for the commission 23466
to receive federal funds at the maximum amount and in the most 23467
advantageous proportion possible.23468

       Any agreement entered into between the commission and a 23469
private or public entity to provide funds under this section shall 23470
be in accordance with 34 C.F.R. 361.28 and section 3304.182 of the 23471
Revised Code.23472

       Sec. 3304.182.  Any agreement between the rehabilitation 23473
services commission and a private or public entity providing funds 23474
under section 3304.181 of the Revised Code may permit the 23475
commission to receive a specified percentage of the funds, but the 23476
percentage shall be not more than twenty-five per cent of the 23477
total funds available under the agreement. The agreement shall not 23478
be for less than six months or be discontinued by the commission 23479
without the commission first providing three months notice of 23480
intent to discontinue the agreement. The commission may terminate 23481
an agreement onlyat any time for goodjust cause. It may 23482
terminate an agreement for any other reason by giving at least 23483
thirty days' notice to the public or private entity.23484

       Any services provided under an agreement entered into under 23485
section 3304.181 of the Revised Code shall be provided by a person 23486
or government entity that meets the accreditation standards 23487
established in rules adopted by the commission under section 23488
3304.16 of the Revised Code.23489

       Sec. 3305.01.  As used in this chapter:23490

       (A) "Public institution of higher education" means a state 23491
university as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, the 23492
northeast Ohio medical university, or a university branch, 23493
technical college, state community college, community college, or 23494
municipal university established or operating under Chapter 3345., 23495
3349., 3354., 3355., 3357., or 3358. of the Revised Code.23496

       (B) "State retirement system" means the public employees 23497
retirement system created under Chapter 145. of the Revised Code, 23498
the state teachers retirement system created under Chapter 3307. 23499
of the Revised Code, or the school employees retirement system 23500
created under Chapter 3309. of the Revised Code.23501

       (C) "Eligible employee" means any person employed as a 23502
full-time employee of a public institution of higher education.23503

       In all cases of doubt, the board of trustees of the public 23504
institution of higher education shall determine whether any person 23505
is an eligible employee for purposes of this chapter, and the 23506
board's decision shall be final.23507

       (D) "Electing employee" means any eligible employee who 23508
elects, pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised 23509
Code, to participate in an alternative retirement plan provided 23510
pursuant to this chapter or an eligible employee who is required 23511
to participate in an alternative retirement plan pursuant to 23512
division (C)(4)(3) of section 3305.05 or division (F) of section 23513
3305.051 of the Revised Code.23514

       (E) "Compensation," for purposes of an electing employee, has 23515
the same meaning as the applicable one of the following:23516

       (1) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 145. 23517
of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election pursuant 23518
to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, "earnable 23519
salary" as defined in division (R) of section 145.01 of the 23520
Revised Code;23521

       (2) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 23522
3307. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 23523
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, 23524
"compensation" as defined in division (L) of section 3307.01 of 23525
the Revised Code;23526

       (3) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 23527
3309. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 23528
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, 23529
"compensation" as defined in division (V) of section 3309.01 of 23530
the Revised Code.23531

       (F) "ProviderVendor" means an entity designated under 23532
section 3305.03 of the Revised Code as eligible to be a provider 23533
of investment options for an alternative retirement plan.23534

       (G) "Provider" means, with respect to each public institution 23535
of higher education, a vendor that has entered into an agreement 23536
with that public institution of higher education in accordance 23537
with section 3305.04 of the Revised Code.23538

       Sec. 3305.02.  An alternative retirement program is hereby 23539
established in accordance with this chapter for the purpose of 23540
providing to eligible employees the opportunity of participating 23541
in an alternative retirement plan as an alternative to 23542
participating in a state retirement system. The employer is the 23543
sponsor of each alternative retirement plan offered under this 23544
chapter.23545

       Each alternative retirement plan offered under this program 23546
shall be a defined contribution plan qualified under section 401 23547
(a) of the Internal Revenue Code that provides retirement and, to 23548
the extent applicable, death benefits through investment options. 23549
The options shall be offered to electing employees pursuant to 23550
trust or custodial accounts or pursuant to group or individual 23551
annuity contracts, and certificates issued under group contracts, 23552
and. The options may include life insurance, annuities, variable 23553
annuities, regulated investment trusts, pooled investment funds, 23554
or other forms of investment, at the option of each electing 23555
employee.23556

       Notwithstanding this chapter, any retirement plan established 23557
by a public institution of higher education prior to March 31, 23558
1997, as an alternative to participating in any state retirement 23559
system may continue in effect and be modified without regard to 23560
this chapter for all employees at the public institution eligible 23561
to participate in the plan.23562

       Sec. 3305.03.  (A) The department of insuranceOhio board of 23563
regents shall designate three or morethe entities that are 23564
eligible to provide investment options under alternative 23565
retirement plans establishedmaintained by public institutions of 23566
higher education in accordance with this chapter. An entity shall 23567
be designated a provider under this section if the entity meets. 23568
The board shall accept and review applications from entities 23569
seeking designation as a vendor. The board shall not designate an 23570
entity as a vendor unless the entity meets the requirements 23571
described in division (B) of this section.23572

       (B) To be eligible for designation as a vendor, an entity 23573
must meet both of the following requirements:23574

       (1) It isThe entity must be authorized to conduct business 23575
in this state with regard to the investment options to be offered 23576
under an alternative retirement plan;maintained by a public 23577
institution of higher education.23578

       (2) It providesThe entity must offer the same or similar 23579
investment options to be offered under alternative retirement 23580
plans, as group or individual contracts, or a combination thereof,23581
optional retirement plans, or similar types of plans with respect 23582
to which all of the following apply:23583

       (a) The plans are defined contribution plans that are 23584
qualified plans under Internal Revenue Code 401(a) or 403(b).23585

       (b) The plans are maintained by institutions of higher 23586
education in at least ten other states.23587

       (B)(c) The plans are established as primary retirement plans 23588
that are alternatives to or a component of the applicable state 23589
retirement system.23590

       (C) In designating a provider under this sectiondetermining 23591
whether to designate an entity as a vendor, the department of 23592
insuranceboard of regents shall identify, consider, and evaluate23593
all of the following:23594

       (1) The experience of the providerentity in providing in 23595
other states investment options under alternative retirement 23596
programs in other statesplans, optional retirement plans, or 23597
similar types of plans that meet the requirements of division 23598
(B)(2) of this section;23599

       (2) The potential effectiveness of the providerentity in 23600
recruiting eligible employees to enter into contractsselect that 23601
entity for purposes of participating in an alternative retirement 23602
plan and in retaining those contractsemployees' accounts;23603

       (3) Whether the entity intends to offer a broad range of 23604
investment options to the electing employees;23605

       (4) The suitability of the investment options to the needs 23606
and interests of the electing employees and their beneficiaries;23607

       (5) The capability of the entity to offer sufficient 23608
information to the electing employees and their beneficiaries to 23609
make informed decisions with regard to investment options offered 23610
by the entity;23611

       (6) The capability of the entity to perform in a manner that 23612
is in the best interests of the electing employees and their 23613
beneficiaries;23614

       (7) The fees and expenses associated with the entity's 23615
investment options and the manner in which the entity intends to 23616
disclose those fees and expenses;23617

       (8) The nature and extent of the rights and benefits to be 23618
provided under the investment options;23619

       (4) The relationship between the rights and benefits under 23620
the investment options and the amount of the contributions made 23621
under those options;23622

       (5) The suitability of the rights and benefits under the 23623
investment options to the needs and interests of eligible 23624
employees;23625

       (6)(9) The capability of the providerentity to provide the 23626
rights and benefits under the investment options;23627

       (7)(10) Comments submitted by a public institution of higher 23628
education under section 3305.031 of the Revised Code;23629

       (11) Any other matters itthe board of regents considers 23630
relevant.23631

       (C)(D) The department of insuranceboard of regents shall 23632
periodically reviewconduct periodic reviews of each provider23633
entity designated under division (A) of this sectionas a vendor23634
and the investment options being offered to ensure that the 23635
requirements and purposes of this chapter are being met. If the 23636
departmentThe reviews of a vendor shall occur not less frequently 23637
than once every three years.23638

       If it finds that the providervendor is not in compliance 23639
with any requirementthe requirements of this chapter or the 23640
providervendor is not satisfactorily meeting the purposes of this 23641
chapter, the department mayboard shall rescind the provider's23642
vendor's designation.23643

       (D)(E) Notwithstanding sections 125.01 to 125.11 of the 23644
Revised Code, designation of a providervendor or the execution of 23645
any contractagreement under this chapter is not subject to 23646
competitive bidding under those sections.23647

       Sec. 3305.031.  (A) As part of the process established under 23648
section 3305.03 of the Revised Code for designating an entity as a 23649
vendor and conducting periodic reviews of a vendor, the Ohio board 23650
of regents shall do all of the following:23651

       (1) Provide written notice to each public institution of 23652
higher education that an entity has applied to be designated as a 23653
vendor under section 3305.03 of the Revised Code;23654

       (2) Provide written notice to each public institution of 23655
higher education that a vendor is scheduled for a review;23656

       (3) Establish a comment period of not less than thirty days 23657
during which a public institution of higher education is 23658
authorized to comment about an entity's application for 23659
designation or a vendor's review and to request a meeting with the 23660
board of regents concerning the application or review;23661

       (4) Not later than fourteen days after the board makes a 23662
decision with respect to an application or review, including any 23663
rescission of a vendor's designation, provide written notice to 23664
each public institution of higher education of the board's 23665
decision.23666

       (B) If a meeting is requested by a public institution of 23667
higher education under division (A)(3) of this section, the board 23668
of regents shall do all of the following:23669

       (1) Notify each public institution of higher education of the 23670
meeting and its time and place;23671

       (2) Hold the meeting not less than ten but not more than 23672
thirty days after the end of the comment period;23673

       (3) Continue to accept comments concerning the application or 23674
review, as applicable, until five business days after the meeting 23675
is held.23676

       (C) The board of regents shall adopt rules under section 23677
3305.032 of the Revised Code specifying the method to be used by 23678
public institutions of higher education in submitting comments to 23679
the board concerning an application or review.23680

       Sec. 3305.032.  The Ohio board of regents shall adopt rules 23681
as the board considers necessary to carry out its duties and 23682
responsibilities under this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 23683
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The rules may 23684
provide for fees to be charged providers by the board to cover 23685
administrative and marketing expenses of the board.23686

       Sec. 3305.04. (A) The board of trustees of each public 23687
institution of higher education shall adopt an alternative 23688
retirement plan in accordance with this chapter. Each public 23689
institution of higher education shall enter into a contract with 23690
each provider designated pursuant to section 3305.03 of the 23691
Revised Code that is willing to provide investment options under 23692
an alternative retirement plan at that public institution. Each 23693
contract shall provide for termination of the contract if the 23694
provider ceases to be a designated provider. In23695

       In accordance with this chapter, each board may perform such 23696
functions and provide as necessary for the administration of its 23697
alternative retirement plan.23698

       (B)(1) In implementing the alternative retirement plan 23699
established by the board, the public institution of higher 23700
education shall develop agreements to be entered into with 23701
entities designated under section 3305.03 of the Revised Code as 23702
vendors. Each agreement shall include such terms and conditions as 23703
are determined by the public institution of higher education in 23704
its sole discretion.23705

       (2) Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 23706
the public institution of higher education shall enter into 23707
agreements with a minimum of four vendors or, if fewer than four 23708
vendors are available, with the number of vendors available.23709

       (3) Division (B)(2) of this section does not require a public 23710
institution of higher education to enter into an agreement with a 23711
vendor if either of the following is the case:23712

       (a) The vendor is not willing to provide investment options 23713
under the alternative retirement plan at that public institution.23714

       (b) The vendor is not willing to agree to the terms and 23715
conditions of the agreement.23716

       (4) After an agreement has been entered into, both of the 23717
following apply with respect to termination of the agreement with 23718
the provider:23719

       (a) The agreement shall be terminated if the provider ceases 23720
to be an entity designated as a vendor.23721

       (b) The agreement may be terminated if the provider fails to 23722
comply with the terms and conditions of such agreement.23723

       Sec. 3305.05.  (A) As used in this section and section 23724
3305.051 of the Revised Code, "academic or administrative 23725
employee" means any full-time employee not receiving any benefit, 23726
allowance, or other payment granted on the employee's account from 23727
a state retirement system who, before the effective date of this 23728
sectionAugust 1, 2005, met one of the following requirements:23729

       (1) The employee was a member of the faculty of a public 23730
institution of higher education.23731

       (2) The employee was a member of the administrative staff of 23732
a public institution of higher education serving in a position in 23733
the unclassified civil service pursuant to section 124.11 of the 23734
Revised Code.23735

       (3) If section 124.11 of the Revised Code did not apply to 23736
the public institution of higher education, the employee was a 23737
member of the administrative staff of a public institution of 23738
higher education serving in a position comparable to a position in 23739
the unclassified civil service.23740

       In all cases of doubt, the board of trustees of the public 23741
institution of higher education shall determine whether any person 23742
is an academic or administrative employee for purposes of this 23743
chapter, and the board's decision shall be final.23744

       (B)(1) Each person who, on the effective date of this section23745
August 1, 2005, is an eligible employee of a public institution of 23746
higher education and has accrued less than five years of service 23747
credit in a state retirement system may, not later than one 23748
hundred twenty days after the effective date of this section23749
August 1, 2005, make an election to participate in an alternative 23750
retirement plan available at the employing public institution, 23751
unless, prior to the effective date of this sectionAugust 1, 23752
2005, the person had an opportunity pursuant to former section 23753
3305.05 of the Revised Code to make such an election as an 23754
academic or administrative employee of that public institution of 23755
higher education.23756

       (2) An eligible employee whose employment with a public 23757
institution of higher education commences on or after the 23758
effective date of this sectionAugust 1, 2005, may, not later than 23759
one hundred twenty days after the starting date of the employment, 23760
make an election to participate in an alternative retirement plan 23761
available at the employing public institution.23762

        (3) An eligible employee who, on or after the effective date 23763
of this sectionAugust 1, 2005, terminates employment at one 23764
public institution of higher education and subsequently is 23765
employed by another public institution of higher education in a 23766
position for which an alternative retirement plan is available 23767
may, not later than one hundred twenty days after the starting 23768
date of the employment, elect to participate in an alternative 23769
retirement plan available at that public institution.23770

        (C)(1) An eligible employee who makes an election under 23771
division (B) of this section shall submit the election in writing 23772
to the designated officer of the employee's employing public 23773
institution of higher education. Once submitted, the election is 23774
irrevocable while the eligible employee continues to be employed 23775
by the public institution of higher education. Not later than ten 23776
days after the election becomes irrevocable, the officer shall 23777
file a certified copy of the election with the state retirement 23778
system to which, apart from the election, the employee's 23779
employment would be subject.23780

        Each public institution of higher education that employs a 23781
person eligible to make an election under division (B) of this 23782
section shall notify, in writing, within ten days of the person's 23783
employment, the state retirement system that applies to that 23784
employment in the manner specified by that state retirement 23785
system. The notice shall include the person's name and address. 23786
The notice shall be given not later than ten days after the first 23787
date the person is on the institution's payroll.23788

        (2) Elections made under division (B) of this section take 23789
effect as follows:23790

        (a) An election under division (B)(1) of this section is 23791
effective as of the date on which the employee's election to 23792
participate in the alternative retirement plan becomes 23793
irrevocable.23794

        (b) An election under division (B)(2) or (3) of this section 23795
is effective as of the electing employee's starting date of 23796
employment.23797

        (3) An eligible employee's election under division (B) of 23798
this section applies to the employee's employment in all positions 23799
at that public institution, unless the employee terminates 23800
employment at the public institution and does not return to 23801
employment in any position at that public institution prior to one 23802
yearfor at least three hundred sixty-five days after the date of 23803
termination.23804

        (4) An eligible employee who makes an election under division 23805
(B) of this section is forever barred from claiming or purchasing 23806
service credit under any state retirement system for the period of 23807
employment while the election is in effect.23808

        (D)(1) An eligible employee who fails to make an election 23809
under division (B) of this section within the one-hundred-twenty 23810
day election period shall be deemed to have elected to participate 23811
in the state retirement system that applies to the employee's 23812
employment.23813

        (2) An eligible employee who fails to make an election under 23814
division (B) of this section shall not be permitted to make an 23815
election for employment in any other position at the public 23816
institution of higher education while employed at that public 23817
institution, unless the employee terminates employment at the 23818
public institution and does not return to employment in any 23819
position at the public institution prior to one yearfor at least 23820
three hundred sixty-five days after the date of termination.23821

       Sec. 3305.053.  The board of trustees of a public institution 23822
of higher education shall permit an employee who makes an election 23823
under section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code to do all of 23824
the following:23825

       (A) Select, from among the providers that have entered into a 23826
contractan agreement with the public institution of higher 23827
education under section 3305.04 of the Revised Code, the provider 23828
of an investment option for that employee;23829

       (B) Except as permitted under division (C) of this section, 23830
contract with only one provider in any plan year;23831

       (C) ChangeSubject to any terms and conditions established by 23832
the public institution of higher education, change the provider 23833
selected under division (A) of this section at the following 23834
times:23835

       (1) Once during the first payroll period in any plan year;23836

       (2) Any time the provider that the employee selected ceases, 23837
under division (C) of section 3305.03 of the Revised Code, to be 23838
designatedany time during the plan year.23839

       (D)(C) If under division (C)(B) of this section an employee 23840
changes providers, the employee may direct the provider shallto23841
transfer to the new provider the employee's account balance either 23842
in whole or in part, as directed by the employee, except that the 23843
provider is not required to immediately transfer any part of the 23844
account invested at the employee's election in a fixed annuity 23845
account if the contract with the employee under which the 23846
investment was made permits the provider to make such a transfer 23847
over a period of time not exceeding ten years and the contract was 23848
filed with and approved by the department of insurance pursuant to 23849
section 3911.011 of the Revised Code.23850

       Sec. 3305.06.  (A) Each electing employee shall contribute an 23851
amount, which shall be a certain percentage of the employee's 23852
compensation, to the provider of the investment option the 23853
employee has selected. This percentage shall be the percentage the 23854
electing employee would have otherwise been required to contribute 23855
to the state retirement system that applies to the employee's 23856
position, except that the percentage shall not be less than three 23857
per cent. Employee contributions under this division may be 23858
treated as employer contributions in accordance with Internal 23859
Revenue Code 414(h).23860

       (B) Each public institution of higher education employing an 23861
electing employee shall contribute a percentage of the employee's 23862
compensation to the provider of the investment option the employee 23863
has selected. This percentage shall be equal to the percentage 23864
that the public institution of higher education would otherwise 23865
contribute on behalf of that employee to the state retirement 23866
system that would otherwise cover that employee's position, less 23867
the percentage contributed by the public institution of higher 23868
education under division (D) of this section.23869

       (C)(1) In no event shall the amount contributed by the 23870
electing employee pursuant to division (A) of this section and on 23871
the electing employee's behalf pursuant to division (B) of this 23872
section be less than the amount necessary to qualify the plan as a 23873
state retirement system pursuant to Internal Revenue Code 23874
3121(B)(b)(7) and the regulations adopted thereunder.23875

       (2) The full amount of the electing employee's contribution 23876
under division (A) of this section and the full amount of the 23877
employer's contribution made on behalf of that employee under 23878
division (B) of this section shall be paid to the appropriate 23879
provider for application to the electing employee's investment 23880
option.23881

       (D) Each public institution of higher education employing an 23882
electing employee shall contribute on behalf of that employee to 23883
the state retirement system that otherwise applies to the electing 23884
employee's position a percentage of the electing employee's 23885
compensation to mitigate any negative financial impact of the 23886
alternative retirement program on the state retirement system. The 23887
percentage shall be six per cent, except that the percentage may 23888
be adjusted by the Ohio retirement study council to reflect the 23889
determinations made by actuarial studies conducted under section 23890
171.07 of the Revised Code. Any adjustment shall become effective 23891
on the first day of the second month following submission of the 23892
actuarial study to the Ohio board of regents under section 171.07 23893
of the Revised Code.23894

       Contributions on behalf of an electing employee shall 23895
continue in accordance with this division until the occurrence of 23896
the following:23897

       (1) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 145. 23898
of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election pursuant 23899
to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, until the 23900
unfunded actuarial accrued liability for all benefits, except 23901
health care benefits provided under section 145.325 or 145.58 of 23902
the Revised Code and benefit increases provided after March 31, 23903
1997, is fully amortized, as determined by the annual actuarial 23904
valuation prepared under section 145.22 of the Revised Code;23905

       (2) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 23906
3307. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 23907
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, until 23908
the unfunded actuarial accrued liability for all benefits, except 23909
health care benefits provided under section 3307.39 or 3307.61 of 23910
the Revised Code and benefit increases provided after March 31, 23911
1997, is fully amortized, as determined by the annual actuarial 23912
valuation prepared under section 3307.51 of the Revised Code;23913

       (3) If the electing employee would be subject to Chapter 23914
3309. of the Revised Code had the employee not made an election 23915
pursuant to section 3305.05 or 3305.051 of the Revised Code, until 23916
the unfunded actuarial accrued liability for all benefits, except 23917
health care benefits provided under section 3309.375 or 3309.69 of 23918
the Revised Code and benefit increases provided after March 31, 23919
1997, is fully amortized, as determined by the annual actuarial 23920
valuation prepared under section 3309.21 of the Revised Code.23921

       Sec. 3313.65.  (A) As used in this section and section 23922
3313.64 of the Revised Code:23923

       (1) A person is "in a residential facility" if the person is 23924
a resident or a resident patient of an institution, home, or other 23925
residential facility that is:23926

       (a) Licensed as a nursing home, residential care facility, or 23927
home for the aging by the director of health under section 3721.02 23928
of the Revised Code;23929

       (b) Licensed as an adult care facility by the director of 23930
mental health under sections 5119.70 to 5119.88 of the Revised 23931
Code;23932

       (c) Maintained as a county home or district home by the board 23933
of county commissioners or a joint board of county commissioners 23934
under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;23935

       (d)(c) Operated or administered by a board of alcohol, drug 23936
addiction, and mental health services under section 340.03 or 23937
340.06 of the Revised Code, or provides residential care pursuant 23938
to contracts made under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised 23939
Code;23940

       (e)(d) Maintained as a state institution for the mentally ill 23941
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code;23942

       (f)(e) Licensed by the department of mental health under 23943
section 5119.20 or 5119.22 of the Revised Code;23944

       (g)(f) Licensed as a residential facility by the department 23945
of developmental disabilities under section 5123.19 of the Revised 23946
Code;23947

       (h)(g) Operated by the veteran's administration or another 23948
agency of the United States government;23949

       (i)(h) Operated by the Ohio veterans' home.23950

       (2) A person is "in a correctional facility" if any of the 23951
following apply:23952

       (a) The person is an Ohio resident and is:23953

       (i) Imprisoned, as defined in section 1.05 of the Revised 23954
Code;23955

       (ii) Serving a term in a community-based correctional 23956
facility or a district community-based correctional facility;23957

       (iii) Required, as a condition of parole, a post-release 23958
control sanction, a community control sanction, transitional 23959
control, or early release from imprisonment, as a condition of 23960
shock parole or shock probation granted under the law in effect 23961
prior to July 1, 1996, or as a condition of a furlough granted 23962
under the version of section 2967.26 of the Revised Code in effect 23963
prior to March 17, 1998, to reside in a halfway house or other 23964
community residential center licensed under section 2967.14 of the 23965
Revised Code or a similar facility designated by the court of 23966
common pleas that established the condition or by the adult parole 23967
authority.23968

       (b) The person is imprisoned in a state correctional 23969
institution of another state or a federal correctional institution 23970
but was an Ohio resident at the time the sentence was imposed for 23971
the crime for which the person is imprisoned.23972

       (3) A person is "in a juvenile residential placement" if the 23973
person is an Ohio resident who is under twenty-one years of age 23974
and has been removed, by the order of a juvenile court, from the 23975
place the person resided at the time the person became subject to 23976
the court's jurisdiction in the matter that resulted in the 23977
person's removal.23978

       (4) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 23979
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.23980

       (5) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 23981
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.23982

       (B) If the circumstances described in division (C) of this 23983
section apply, the determination of what school district must 23984
admit a child to its schools and what district, if any, is liable 23985
for tuition shall be made in accordance with this section, rather 23986
than section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.23987

       (C) A child who does not reside in the school district in 23988
which the child's parent resides and for whom a tuition obligation 23989
previously has not been established under division (C)(2) of 23990
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code shall be admitted to the 23991
schools of the district in which the child resides if at least one 23992
of the child's parents is in a residential or correctional 23993
facility or a juvenile residential placement and the other parent, 23994
if living and not in such a facility or placement, is not known to 23995
reside in this state.23996

       (D) Regardless of who has custody or care of the child, 23997
whether the child resides in a home, or whether the child receives 23998
special education, if a district admits a child under division (C) 23999
of this section, tuition shall be paid to that district as 24000
follows:24001

       (1) If the child's parent is in a juvenile residential 24002
placement, by the district in which the child's parent resided at 24003
the time the parent became subject to the jurisdiction of the 24004
juvenile court;24005

       (2) If the child's parent is in a correctional facility, by 24006
the district in which the child's parent resided at the time the 24007
sentence was imposed;24008

       (3) If the child's parent is in a residential facility, by 24009
the district in which the parent resided at the time the parent 24010
was admitted to the residential facility, except that if the 24011
parent was transferred from another residential facility, tuition 24012
shall be paid by the district in which the parent resided at the 24013
time the parent was admitted to the facility from which the parent 24014
first was transferred;24015

       (4) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 24016
district is liable for tuition under division (C)(1), (2), or (3) 24017
of this section, the superintendent of public instruction shall 24018
determine which district shall pay tuition.24019

       (E) If a child covered by division (D) of this section 24020
receives special education in accordance with Chapter 3323. of the 24021
Revised Code, the tuition shall be paid in accordance with section 24022
3323.13 or 3323.14 of the Revised Code. Tuition for children who 24023
do not receive special education shall be paid in accordance with 24024
division (J) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.24025

       Sec. 3313.71.  School physicians may make examinations, which 24026
shall include tests to determine the existence of hearing defects, 24027
and diagnoses of all children referred to them. They may make such 24028
examination of teachers and other school employees and inspection 24029
of school buildings as in their opinion the protection of health 24030
of the pupils, teachers, and other school employees requires.24031

       Boards of education shall require and provide, in accordance 24032
with section 3313.67 of the Revised Code, such tests and 24033
examinations for tuberculosis of pupils in selected grades and of 24034
school employees as may be required by the Ohio publicdirector of24035
health council.24036

       Boards may require annual tuberculin tests of any grades. All 24037
pupils with positive reactions to the test shall have chest x-rays 24038
and all positive reactions and x-ray findings shall be reported 24039
promptly to the county record bureau of tuberculosis cases 24040
provided for in section 339.74 of the Revised Code. Boards shall 24041
waive the required test where a pupil presents a written statement 24042
from the pupil's family physician certifying that such test has 24043
been given and that such pupil is free from tuberculosis in a 24044
communicable stage, or that such test is inadvisable for medical 24045
reasons, or from the pupil's parent or guardian objecting to such 24046
test because of religious convictions.24047

       Whenever a pupil, teacher, or other school employee is found 24048
to be ill or suffering from tuberculosis in a communicable stage 24049
or other communicable disease, the school physician shall promptly 24050
send such pupil, teacher, or other school employee home, with a 24051
statement, in the case of a pupil, to the pupil's parents or 24052
guardian, briefly setting forth the discovered facts, and advising 24053
that the family physician be consulted. School physicians shall 24054
keep accurate card-index records of all examinations, and said 24055
records, that they may be uniform throughout the state, shall be 24056
according to the form prescribed by the state board of education, 24057
and the reports shall be made according to the method of said 24058
form. If the parent or guardian of any pupil or any teacher or 24059
other school employee, after notice from the board of education, 24060
furnishes within two weeks thereafter the written certificate of 24061
any reputable physician that the pupil, teacher, or other school 24062
employee has been examined, in such cases the service of the 24063
school physician shall be dispensed with, and such certificate 24064
shall be furnished by such parent or guardian, as required by the 24065
board of education. Such individual records shall not be open to 24066
the public and shall be solely for the use of the boards of 24067
education and boards of health officer. If any teacher or other 24068
school employee is found to have tuberculosis in a communicable 24069
stage or other communicable disease, the teacher's or employee's 24070
employment shall be discontinued or suspended upon such terms as 24071
to salary as the board deems just until the school physician has 24072
certified to a recovery from such disease. The methods of making 24073
the tuberculin tests and chest x-rays required by this section 24074
shall be such as are approved by the director of health.24075

       Sec. 3313.976.  (A) No private school may receive scholarship 24076
payments from parents pursuant to section 3313.979 of the Revised 24077
Code until the chief administrator of the private school registers 24078
the school with the superintendent of public instruction. The 24079
state superintendent shall register any school that meets the 24080
following requirements:24081

       (1) The school is located within the boundaries of the pilot 24082
project school district;24083

       (2) The school indicates in writing its commitment to follow 24084
all requirements for a state-sponsored scholarship program 24085
specified under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code, 24086
including, but not limited to, the requirements for admitting 24087
students pursuant to section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;24088

       (3) The school meets all state minimum standards for 24089
chartered nonpublic schools in effect on July 1, 1992, except that 24090
the state superintendent at the superintendent's discretion may 24091
register nonchartered nonpublic schools meeting the other 24092
requirements of this division;24093

       (4) The school does not discriminate on the basis of race, 24094
religion, or ethnic background;24095

       (5) The school enrolls a minimum of ten students per class or 24096
a sum of at least twenty-five students in all the classes offered;24097

       (6) The school does not advocate or foster unlawful behavior 24098
or teach hatred of any person or group on the basis of race, 24099
ethnicity, national origin, or religion;24100

       (7) The school does not provide false or misleading 24101
information about the school to parents, students, or the general 24102
public;24103

       (8) For students in grades kindergarten through eight with 24104
family incomes at or below two hundred per cent of the federal 24105
poverty guidelines, as defined in section 5104.46 of the Revised 24106
Code, the school agrees not to charge any tuition to low-income 24107
families receiving ninety per cent of the scholarship amount 24108
through the scholarship program, pursuant to division (A) of 24109
section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, in excess of ten per cent of24110
the scholarship amount established pursuant to division (C)(1) of 24111
section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, excluding any increase 24112
described in division (C)(2) of that section. The school shall 24113
permit any such tuition, at the discretion of the parent, to be 24114
satisfied by the low-income family's provision of in-kind 24115
contributions or services.24116

       (9) For students in grades kindergarten through eight with 24117
family incomes above two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 24118
guidelines, whose scholarship amounts are less than the actual 24119
tuition charge of the school, the school agrees not to charge any 24120
tuition to low-income families receiving a seventy-five per cent 24121
scholarship amount through the scholarship program, pursuant to 24122
division (A) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code, in excess of 24123
the difference between the actual tuition charge of the school and 24124
seventy-five per cent of the scholarship amount established 24125
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3313.978 of the Revised 24126
Code, excluding any increase described in division (C)(2) of that 24127
section. The school shall permit such tuition, at the discretion 24128
of the parent, to be satisfied by the low-income family's 24129
provision of in-kind contributions or services.24130

       (10) The school agrees not to charge any tuition to families 24131
of students in grades nine through twelve receiving a scholarship 24132
in excess of the actual tuition charge of the school less 24133
seventy-five or ninety per cent of the scholarship amount 24134
established pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3313.978 of the 24135
Revised Code, as applicable, excluding any increase described in 24136
division (C)(2) of that section.24137

       (11) Notwithstanding division (K) of section 3301.0711 of the 24138
Revised Code, the school annually administers the assessments 24139
prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code to each 24140
scholarship student enrolled in the school in accordance with 24141
section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code and reports to the 24142
department of education the results of each such assessment 24143
administered to each scholarship student.24144

       (B) The state superintendent shall revoke the registration of 24145
any school if, after a hearing, the superintendent determines that 24146
the school is in violation of any of the provisions of division 24147
(A) of this section.24148

       (C) Any public school located in a school district adjacent 24149
to the pilot project district may receive scholarship payments on 24150
behalf of parents pursuant to section 3313.979 of the Revised Code 24151
if the superintendent of the district in which such public school 24152
is located notifies the state superintendent prior to the first 24153
day of March that the district intends to admit students from the 24154
pilot project district for the ensuing school year pursuant to 24155
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.24156

       (D) Any parent wishing to purchase tutorial assistance from 24157
any person or governmental entity pursuant to the pilot project 24158
program under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code 24159
shall apply to the state superintendent. The state superintendent 24160
shall approve providers who appear to possess the capability of 24161
furnishing the instructional services they are offering to 24162
provide.24163

       Sec. 3313.978.  (A) Annually by the first day of November, 24164
the superintendent of public instruction shall notify the pilot 24165
project school district of the number of initial scholarships that 24166
the state superintendent will be awarding in each of grades 24167
kindergarten through twelve.24168

       The state superintendent shall provide information about the 24169
scholarship program to all students residing in the district, 24170
shall accept applications from any such students until such date 24171
as shall be established by the state superintendent as a deadline 24172
for applications, and shall establish criteria for the selection 24173
of students to receive scholarships from among all those applying 24174
prior to the deadline, which criteria shall give preference to 24175
students from low-income families. For each student selected, the 24176
state superintendent shall also determine whether the student 24177
qualifies for seventy-five or ninety per cent of the scholarship 24178
amount. Students whose family income is at or above two hundred 24179
per cent of the maximum income level established by the state 24180
superintendent for low-income families shall qualify for 24181
seventy-five per cent of the scholarship amount and students whose 24182
family income is below two hundred per cent of that maximum income 24183
level shall qualify for ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.24184
The state superintendent shall notify students of their selection 24185
prior to the fifteenth day of January and whether they qualify for 24186
seventy-five or ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.24187

       (1) A student receiving a pilot project scholarship may 24188
utilize it at an alternative public school by notifying the 24189
district superintendent, at any time before the beginning of the 24190
school year, of the name of the public school in an adjacent 24191
school district to which the student has been accepted pursuant to 24192
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.24193

       (2) A student may decide to utilize a pilot project 24194
scholarship at a registered private school in the district if all 24195
of the following conditions are met:24196

       (a) By the fifteenth day of February of the preceding school 24197
year, or at any time prior to the start of the school year, the 24198
parent makes an application on behalf of the student to a 24199
registered private school.24200

       (b) The registered private school notifies the parent and the 24201
state superintendent as follows that the student has been 24202
admitted:24203

       (i) By the fifteenth day of March of the preceding school 24204
year if the student filed an application by the fifteenth day of 24205
February and was admitted by the school pursuant to division (A) 24206
of section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;24207

       (ii) Within one week of the decision to admit the student if 24208
the student is admitted pursuant to division (C) of section 24209
3313.977 of the Revised Code.24210

       (c) The student actually enrolls in the registered private 24211
school to which the student was first admitted or in another 24212
registered private school in the district or in a public school in 24213
an adjacent school district.24214

       (B) The state superintendent shall also award in any school 24215
year tutorial assistance grants to a number of students equal to 24216
the number of students who receive scholarships under division (A) 24217
of this section. Tutorial assistance grants shall be awarded 24218
solely to students who are enrolled in the public schools of the 24219
district in a grade level covered by the pilot project. Tutorial 24220
assistance grants may be used solely to obtain tutorial assistance 24221
from a provider approved pursuant to division (D) of section 24222
3313.976 of the Revised Code.24223

       All students wishing to obtain tutorial assistance grants 24224
shall make application to the state superintendent by the first 24225
day of the school year in which the assistance will be used. The 24226
state superintendent shall award assistance grants in accordance 24227
with criteria the superintendent shall establish. For each student 24228
awarded a grant, the state superintendent shall also determine 24229
whether the student qualifies for seventy-five or ninety per cent 24230
of the grant amount and so notify the student. Students whose 24231
family income is at or above two hundred per cent of the maximum 24232
income level established by the state superintendent for 24233
low-income families shall qualify for seventy-five per cent of the 24234
grant amount and students whose family income is below two hundred 24235
per cent of that maximum income level shall qualify for ninety per 24236
cent of the grant amount.24237

       (C)(1) In the case of basic scholarships for students in 24238
grades kindergarten through eight, the scholarship amount shall 24239
not exceed the lesser of the net tuition charges of the 24240
alternative school the scholarship recipient attends or three 24241
thousand dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four 24242
hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 24243
2011, and four thousand two hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 24244
2012 and thereafter.24245

       In the case of basic scholarships for students in grades nine 24246
through twelve, the scholarship amount shall not exceed the lesser 24247
of the net tuition charges of the alternative school the 24248
scholarship recipient attends or two thousand seven hundred 24249
dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four hundred fifty 24250
dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 2011, and five 24251
thousand dollars in fiscal year 2012 and thereafter.24252

       The net tuition and fees charged to a student shall be the 24253
tuition amount specified by the alternative school minus all other 24254
financial aid, discounts, and adjustments received for the 24255
student. In cases where discounts are offered for multiple 24256
students from the same family, and not all students in the same 24257
family are scholarship recipients, the net tuition amount 24258
attributable to the scholarship recipient shall be the lowest net 24259
tuition to which the family is entitled.24260

       (2) The state superintendent shall provide for an increase in 24261
the basic scholarship amount in the case of any student who is a 24262
mainstreamed student with a disability and shall further increase 24263
such amount in the case of any separately educated student with a 24264
disability. Such increases shall take into account the 24265
instruction, related services, and transportation costs of 24266
educating such students.24267

       (3) In the case of tutorial assistance grants, the grant 24268
amount shall not exceed the lesser of the provider's actual 24269
charges for such assistance or:24270

       (a) Before fiscal year 2007, a percentage established by the 24271
state superintendent, not to exceed twenty per cent, of the amount 24272
of the pilot project school district's average basic scholarship 24273
amount;24274

       (b) In fiscal year 2007 and thereafter, four hundred dollars.24275

       (4) No scholarship or tutorial assistance grant shall be 24276
awarded unless the state superintendent determines that 24277
twenty-five or ten per cent, as applicable, of the amount 24278
specified for such scholarship or grant pursuant to division 24279
(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section will be furnished by a 24280
political subdivision, a private nonprofit or for profit entity, 24281
or another person. Only seventy-five or ninety per cent of such 24282
amounts, as applicable, shall be paid from state funds pursuant to 24283
section 3313.979 of the Revised Code.24284

       (D)(1) Annually by the first day of November, the state 24285
superintendent shall estimate the maximum per-pupil scholarship 24286
amounts for the ensuing school year. The state superintendent 24287
shall make this estimate available to the general public at the 24288
offices of the district board of education together with the forms 24289
required by division (D)(2) of this section.24290

       (2) Annually by the fifteenth day of January, the chief 24291
administrator of each registered private school located in the 24292
pilot project district and the principal of each public school in 24293
such district shall complete a parental information form and 24294
forward it to the president of the board of education. The 24295
parental information form shall be prescribed by the department of 24296
education and shall provide information about the grade levels 24297
offered, the numbers of students, tuition amounts, achievement 24298
test results, and any sectarian or other organizational 24299
affiliations.24300

       (E)(1) Only for the purpose of administering the pilot 24301
project scholarship program, the department may request from any 24302
of the following entities the data verification code assigned 24303
under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code to 24304
any student who is seeking a scholarship under the program:24305

        (a) The school district in which the student is entitled to 24306
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 24307
Code;24308

        (b) If applicable, the community school in which the student 24309
is enrolled;24310

        (c) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 24311
data verification codes.24312

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (E)(1) of 24313
this section for the data verification code of a student seeking a 24314
scholarship or a request by the student's parent for that code, 24315
the school district or community school shall submit that code to 24316
the department or parent in the manner specified by the 24317
department. If the student has not been assigned a code, because 24318
the student will be entering kindergarten during the school year 24319
for which the scholarship is sought, the district shall assign a 24320
code to that student and submit the code to the department or 24321
parent by a date specified by the department. If the district does 24322
not assign a code to the student by the specified date, the 24323
department shall assign a code to the student.24324

       The department annually shall submit to each school district 24325
the name and data verification code of each student residing in 24326
the district who is entering kindergarten, who has been awarded a 24327
scholarship under the program, and for whom the department has 24328
assigned a code under this division.24329

       (3) The department shall not release any data verification 24330
code that it receives under division (E) of this section to any 24331
person except as provided by law.24332

       (F) Any document relative to the pilot project scholarship 24333
program that the department holds in its files that contains both 24334
a student's name or other personally identifiable information and 24335
the student's data verification code shall not be a public record 24336
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.24337

       (G)(1) The department annually shall compile the scores 24338
attained by scholarship students enrolled in registered private 24339
schools on the assessments administered to the students pursuant 24340
to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of the Revised Code. The 24341
scores shall be aggregated as follows:24342

       (a) By school district, which shall include all scholarship 24343
students residing in the pilot project school district who are 24344
enrolled in a registered private school and were required to take 24345
an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 24346
the Revised Code;24347

       (b) By registered private school, which shall include all 24348
scholarship students enrolled in that school who were required to 24349
take an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 24350
3313.976 of the Revised Code.24351

       (2) The department shall disaggregate the student performance 24352
data described in division (G)(1) of this section according to the 24353
following categories:24354

       (a) Age;24355

       (b) Race and ethnicity;24356

       (c) Gender;24357

       (d) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 24358
for three or more years;24359

       (e) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 24360
for more than one year and less than three years;24361

       (f) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 24362
for one year or less;24363

       (g) Economically disadvantaged students.24364

       (3) The department shall post the student performance data 24365
required under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section on its web 24366
site and shall include that data in the information about the 24367
scholarship program provided to students under division (A) of 24368
this section. In reporting student performance data under this 24369
division, the department shall not include any data that is 24370
statistically unreliable or that could result in the 24371
identification of individual students. For this purpose, the 24372
department shall not report performance data for any group that 24373
contains less than ten students.24374

       (4) The department shall provide the parent of each 24375
scholarship student enrolled in a registered private school with 24376
information comparing the student's performance on the assessments 24377
administered pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 24378
the Revised Code with the average performance of similar students 24379
enrolled in the building operated by the pilot project school 24380
district that the scholarship student would otherwise attend. In 24381
calculating the performance of similar students, the department 24382
shall consider age, grade, race and ethnicity, gender, and 24383
socioeconomic status.24384

       Sec. 3313.979.  Each scholarship to be used for payments to a 24385
registered private school is payable to the parents of the student 24386
entitled to the scholarship. Each scholarship to be used for 24387
payments to a public school in an adjacent school district is 24388
payable to the school district of attendance by the superintendent 24389
of public instruction. Each grant to be used for payments to an 24390
approved tutorial assistance provider is payable to the approved 24391
tutorial assistance provider.24392

       (A)(1) By the fifteenth day of each month of the school year 24393
that any scholarship students are enrolled in a registered private 24394
school, the chief administrator of that school shall notify the 24395
state superintendent of:24396

       (a) The number of scholarship students who were reported to 24397
the school district as having been admitted by that private school 24398
pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of section 3313.978 of the Revised 24399
Code and who were still enrolled in the private school as of the 24400
first day of such month, and the numbers of such students who 24401
qualify for seventy-five and ninety per cent of the scholarship 24402
amount;24403

       (b) The number of scholarship students who were reported to 24404
the school district as having been admitted by another private 24405
school pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of section 3313.978 of the 24406
Revised Code and since the date of admission have transferred to 24407
the school providing the notification under division (A)(1) of 24408
this section, and the numbers of such students who qualify for 24409
seventy-five and ninety per cent of the scholarship amount.24410

       (2) From time to time, the state superintendent shall make a 24411
payment to the parent of each student entitled to a scholarship. 24412
Each payment shall include for each student reported under 24413
division (A)(1) of this section, a portion of seventy-five or 24414
ninety per cent, as applicable, of the scholarship amount 24415
specified in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 3313.978 of the 24416
Revised Code. This amount shall be proportionately reduced in the 24417
case of any such student who is not enrolled in a registered 24418
private school for the entire school year.24419

       (3) The first payment under this division shall be made by 24420
the last day of November and shall equal one-third of seventy-five 24421
or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the estimated total amount 24422
that will be due to the parent for the school year pursuant to 24423
division (A)(2) of this section.24424

       (B) The state superintendent, on behalf of the parents of a 24425
scholarship student enrolled in a public school in an adjacent 24426
school district pursuant to section 3327.06 of the Revised Code, 24427
shall make the tuition payments required by that section to the 24428
school district admitting the student, except that, 24429
notwithstanding sections 3323.13, 3323.14, and 3327.06 of the 24430
Revised Code, the total payments in any school year shall not 24431
exceed seventy-five or ninety per cent, as applicable, of the 24432
scholarship amount provided in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of section 24433
3313.978 of the Revised Code.24434

       (C) Whenever an approved provider provides tutorial 24435
assistance to a student, the state superintendent shall pay the 24436
approved provider for such costs upon receipt of a statement 24437
specifying the services provided and the costs of the services, 24438
which statement shall be signed by the provider and verified by 24439
the chief administrator having supervisory control over the 24440
tutoring site. The total payments to any approved provider under 24441
this division for all provider services to any individual student 24442
in any school year shall not exceed seventy-five or ninety per 24443
cent, as applicable, of the grant amount provided in division 24444
(C)(3) of section 3313.978 of the Revised Code.24445

       Sec. 3318.034.  (A) This section applies to both of the 24446
following:24447

       (1) Any school district that has not executed an agreement 24448
for a project under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised 24449
Code prior to June 24, 2008;24450

       (2) Any school district that is eligible for additional 24451
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 24452
pursuant to division (B)(2) of section 3318.04 of the Revised 24453
Code.24454

       Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the 24455
contrary, with the approval of the Ohio school facilities 24456
commission, any school district to which this section applies may 24457
opt to divide the district's entire classroom facilities needs, as 24458
those needs are jointly determined by the staff of the commission 24459
and the school district, into discrete segments and shall comply 24460
with all of the provisions of those sections unless otherwise 24461
provided in this section.24462

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 24463
segment shall comply with all of the following:24464

       (1) The segment shall consist of the new construction of one 24465
or more entire buildings or the complete renovation of one or more 24466
entire existing buildings, with any necessary additions to that 24467
building.24468

       (2) The segment shall not include any construction of or 24469
renovation or repair to any building that does not complete the 24470
needs of the district with respect to that particular building at 24471
the time the segment is completed.24472

       (3) The segment shall consist of new construction, 24473
renovations, additions, reconstruction, or repair of classroom 24474
facilities to the extent that the school district portion, as 24475
determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code, is an 24476
amount not less than the product of 0.040 times the district's 24477
valuation at the time the agreement for the segment is executed, 24478
unless the district previously has undertaken a segment under this 24479
section and the district's portion of the estimated basic project 24480
cost of the remainder of its entire classroom facilities needs, as 24481
determined jointly by the staff of the commission and the 24482
district, is less than the amount otherwise required by this 24483
division.24484

       (C) A district described in division (A)(2) of this section 24485
that has not received the additional assistance authorized under 24486
division (B)(2) of section 3318.04 of the Revised Code may 24487
undertake a segment, with commission approval, for the purpose of 24488
renovating or replacing work performed on a facility under the 24489
district's prior project. The commission may approve that segment 24490
if the commission determines that the renovation or replacement is 24491
necessary to protect the facility. The basic project cost of the 24492
segment shall be allocated between the state and the district in 24493
accordance with section 3318.032 of the Revised Code. However, the 24494
requirements of division (B) of this section shall not apply to a 24495
segment undertaken under this division. 24496

       (D) The commission shall conditionally approve and seek 24497
controlling board approval in accordance with division (A) of 24498
section 3318.04 of the Revised Code of each segment.24499

       (E) The school district's maintenance levy requirement, as 24500
defined in section 3318.18 of the Revised Code,(1) When 24501
undertaking a segment under this section, a school district may 24502
elect to prorate its full maintenance amount by setting aside for 24503
maintenance the amount calculated under division (E)(2) of this 24504
section to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under the 24505
segment, if the district will use one or more of the alternative 24506
methods authorized in sections 3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of 24507
the Revised Code to generate the entire amount calculated under 24508
that division. If the district so elects, the commission and the 24509
district shall include in the agreement entered into under section 24510
3318.08 of the Revised Code a statement specifying that the 24511
district will use the amount calculated under that division only 24512
to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under the segment.24513

       (2) The commission shall calculate the amount for a school 24514
district to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under a 24515
segment as follows:24516

       The full maintenance amount X (the school district's portion 24517
of the basic project cost for the segment / the school district's 24518
portion of the basic project cost for the district's entire 24519
classroom facilities needs, as determined jointly by the staff of 24520
the commission and the district)24521

       (3) A school district may elect to prorate its full 24522
maintenance amount for any number of segments, provided the 24523
district will use one or more of the alternative methods 24524
authorized in sections 3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of the 24525
Revised Code to generate the entire amount calculated under 24526
division (E)(2) of this section to maintain the classroom 24527
facilities acquired under each segment for which it so elects. If 24528
the district cannot use one or more of those alternative methods 24529
to generate the entire amount calculated under that division, the 24530
district shall levy the tax described in division (B) of section 24531
3318.05 of the Revised Code or an extension of that tax under 24532
section 3318.061 of the Revised Code in an amount necessary to 24533
generate the remainder of its full maintenance amount. The 24534
commission shall calculate the remainder of the district's full 24535
maintenance amount as follows:24536

       The full maintenance amount - the sum of the amounts 24537
calculated for the district under division (E)(2) of this section 24538
for each prior segment of the district's project24539

       (4) In no case shall the sum of the amounts calculated for a 24540
school district's maintenance of classroom facilities under 24541
divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this section exceed the amount that 24542
would have been required for maintenance if the district had 24543
elected to undertake its project in its entirety instead of 24544
segmenting the project under this section.24545

       (5) If a school district commenced a segment under this 24546
section prior to the effective date of this amendment but has not 24547
completed that segment, and has not levied the tax described in 24548
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code or an 24549
extension of that tax under section 3318.061 of the Revised Code, 24550
the district may request approval from the commission to prorate 24551
its full maintenance amount in accordance with divisions (E)(1) to 24552
(4) of this section. If the commission approves the request, the 24553
commission and the district shall amend the agreement entered into 24554
under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code to reflect the change.24555

       (F) If a school district levies the tax described in division 24556
(B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code or an extension of that 24557
tax under section 3318.061 of the Revised Code, the tax shall run 24558
for twenty-three years from the date the first segment for which 24559
the tax is initially levied is undertaken; however, the. The24560
maintenance levy requirement, as defined in section 3318.18 of the 24561
Revised Code, does not apply to a segment undertaken under 24562
division (C) of this section.24563

       (G) As used in this section, "full maintenance amount" means 24564
the amount of total revenue that a school district likely would 24565
generate by one-half mill of the tax described in division (B) of 24566
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code over the entire 24567
twenty-three-year period required under that section, as 24568
determined by the commission in consultation with the department 24569
of taxation.24570

       Sec. 3318.08.  Except in the case of a joint vocational 24571
school district that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 24572
3318.45 of the Revised Code, if the requisite favorable vote on 24573
the election is obtained, or if the school district board has 24574
resolved to apply the proceeds of a property tax levy or the 24575
proceeds of an income tax, or a combination of proceeds from such 24576
taxes, as authorized in section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, the 24577
Ohio school facilities commission, upon certification to it of 24578
either the results of the election or the resolution under section 24579
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall enter into a written agreement 24580
with the school district board for the construction and sale of 24581
the project. In the case of a joint vocational school district 24582
that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 24583
Revised Code, if the school district board of education and the 24584
school district electors have satisfied the conditions prescribed 24585
in division (D)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code, the 24586
commission shall enter into an agreement with the school district 24587
board for the construction and sale of the project. In either 24588
case, the agreement shall include, but need not be limited to, the 24589
following provisions:24590

       (A) The sale and issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation 24591
thereof, as soon as practicable after the execution of the 24592
agreement, in an amount equal to the school district's portion of 24593
the basic project cost, including any securities authorized under 24594
division (J) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code and dedicated 24595
by the school district board to payment of the district's portion 24596
of the basic project cost of the project; provided, that if at 24597
that time the county treasurer of each county in which the school 24598
district is located has not commenced the collection of taxes on 24599
the general duplicate of real and public utility property for the 24600
year in which the controlling board approved the project, the 24601
school district board shall authorize the issuance of a first 24602
installment of bond anticipation notes in an amount specified by 24603
the agreement, which amount shall not exceed an amount necessary 24604
to raise the net bonded indebtedness of the school district as of 24605
the date of the controlling board's approval to within five 24606
thousand dollars of the required level of indebtedness for the 24607
preceding year. In the event that a first installment of bond 24608
anticipation notes is issued, the school district board shall, as 24609
soon as practicable after the county treasurer of each county in 24610
which the school district is located has commenced the collection 24611
of taxes on the general duplicate of real and public utility 24612
property for the year in which the controlling board approved the 24613
project, authorize the issuance of a second and final installment 24614
of bond anticipation notes or a first and final issue of bonds.24615

       The combined value of the first and second installment of 24616
bond anticipation notes or the value of the first and final issue 24617
of bonds shall be equal to the school district's portion of the 24618
basic project cost. The proceeds of any such bonds shall be used 24619
first to retire any bond anticipation notes. Otherwise, the 24620
proceeds of such bonds and of any bond anticipation notes, except 24621
the premium and accrued interest thereon, shall be deposited in 24622
the school district's project construction fund. In determining 24623
the amount of net bonded indebtedness for the purpose of fixing 24624
the amount of an issue of either bonds or bond anticipation notes, 24625
gross indebtedness shall be reduced by moneys in the bond 24626
retirement fund only to the extent of the moneys therein on the 24627
first day of the year preceding the year in which the controlling 24628
board approved the project. Should there be a decrease in the tax 24629
valuation of the school district so that the amount of 24630
indebtedness that can be incurred on the tax duplicates for the 24631
year in which the controlling board approved the project is less 24632
than the amount of the first installment of bond anticipation 24633
notes, there shall be paid from the school district's project 24634
construction fund to the school district's bond retirement fund to 24635
be applied against such notes an amount sufficient to cause the 24636
net bonded indebtedness of the school district, as of the first 24637
day of the year following the year in which the controlling board 24638
approved the project, to be within five thousand dollars of the 24639
required level of indebtedness for the year in which the 24640
controlling board approved the project. The maximum amount of 24641
indebtedness to be incurred by any school district board as its 24642
share of the cost of the project is either an amount that will 24643
cause its net bonded indebtedness, as of the first day of the year 24644
following the year in which the controlling board approved the 24645
project, to be within five thousand dollars of the required level 24646
of indebtedness, or an amount equal to the required percentage of 24647
the basic project costs, whichever is greater. All bonds and bond 24648
anticipation notes shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 133. 24649
of the Revised Code, and notes may be renewed as provided in 24650
section 133.22 of the Revised Code.24651

       (B) The transfer of such funds of the school district board 24652
available for the project, together with the proceeds of the sale 24653
of the bonds or notes, except premium, accrued interest, and 24654
interest included in the amount of the issue, to the school 24655
district's project construction fund;24656

       (C) For all school districts except joint vocational school 24657
districts that receive assistance under sections 3318.40 to 24658
3318.45 of the Revised Code, the following provisions as 24659
applicable:24660

       (1) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code applies, the 24661
earmarking of the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.21 24662
of the Revised Code for general permanent improvements or under 24663
section 5705.218 of the Revised Code for the purpose of permanent 24664
improvements, or the proceeds of a school district income tax 24665
levied under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, or the proceeds 24666
from a combination of those two taxes, in an amount to pay all or 24667
part of the service charges on bonds issued to pay the school 24668
district portion of the project and an amount equivalent to all or 24669
part of the tax required under division (B) of section 3318.05 of 24670
the Revised Code;24671

       (2) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code does not apply, 24672
one of the following:24673

       (a) The levy of the tax authorized at the election for the 24674
payment of maintenance costs, as specified in division (B) of 24675
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;24676

       (b) If the school district electors have approved a 24677
continuing tax for general permanent improvements under section 24678
5705.21 of the Revised Code and that tax can be used for 24679
maintenance, the earmarking of an amount of the proceeds from such 24680
tax for maintenance of classroom facilities as specified in 24681
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;24682

       (c) If, in lieu of the tax otherwise required under division 24683
(B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code, the commission has 24684
approved the transfer of money to the maintenance fund in 24685
accordance with section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, a 24686
requirement that the district board comply with the provisions 24687
that section. The district board may rescind the provision 24688
prescribed under division (C)(2)(c) of this section only so long 24689
as the electors of the district have approved, in accordance with 24690
section 3318.063 of the Revised Code, the levy of a tax for the 24691
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under the 24692
district's project and that levy continues to be collected as 24693
approved by the electors.24694

       (D) For joint vocational school districts that receive 24695
assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code, 24696
provision for deposit of school district moneys dedicated to 24697
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under those 24698
sections as prescribed in section 3318.43 of the Revised Code;24699

       (E) Dedication of any local donated contribution as provided 24700
for under section 3318.084 of the Revised Code, including a 24701
schedule for depositing such moneys applied as an offset of the 24702
district's obligation to levy the tax described in division (B) of 24703
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code as required under division 24704
(D)(2) of section 3318.084 of the Revised Code;24705

       (F) Ownership of or interest in the project during the period 24706
of construction, which shall be divided between the commission and 24707
the school district board in proportion to their respective 24708
contributions to the school district's project construction fund;24709

       (G) Maintenance of the state's interest in the project until 24710
any obligations issued for the project under section 3318.26 of 24711
the Revised Code are no longer outstanding;24712

       (H) The insurance of the project by the school district from 24713
the time there is an insurable interest therein and so long as the 24714
state retains any ownership or interest in the project pursuant to 24715
division (F) of this section, in such amounts and against such 24716
risks as the commission shall require; provided, that the cost of 24717
any required insurance until the project is completed shall be a 24718
part of the basic project cost;24719

       (I) The certification by the director of budget and 24720
management that funds are available and have been set aside to 24721
meet the state's share of the basic project cost as approved by 24722
the controlling board pursuant to either section 3318.04 or 24723
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code;24724

       (J) Authorization of the school district board to advertise 24725
for and receive construction bids for the project, for and on 24726
behalf of the commission, and to award contracts in the name of 24727
the state subject to approval by the commission;24728

       (K) Provisions for the disbursement of moneys from the school 24729
district's project account upon issuance by the commission or the 24730
commission's designated representative of vouchers for work done 24731
to be certified to the commission by the treasurer of the school 24732
district board;24733

       (L) Disposal of any balance left in the school district's 24734
project construction fund upon completion of the project;24735

       (M) Limitations upon use of the project or any part of it so 24736
long as any obligations issued to finance the project under 24737
section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are outstanding;24738

       (N) Provision for vesting the state's interest in the project 24739
to the school district board when the obligations issued to 24740
finance the project under section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are 24741
outstanding;24742

       (O) Provision for deposit of an executed copy of the 24743
agreement in the office of the commission;24744

       (P) Provision for termination of the contract and release of 24745
the funds encumbered at the time of the conditional approval, if 24746
the proceeds of the sale of the bonds of the school district board 24747
are not paid into the school district's project construction fund 24748
and if bids for the construction of the project have not been 24749
taken within such period after the execution of the agreement as 24750
may be fixed by the commission;24751

       (Q) Provision for the school district to maintain the project 24752
in accordance with a plan approved by the commission;24753

       (R) Provision that all state funds reserved and encumbered to 24754
pay the state share of the cost of the project and the funds 24755
provided by the school district to pay for its share of the 24756
project cost, including the respective shares of the cost of a 24757
segment if the project is divided into segments, be spent on the 24758
construction and acquisition of the project or segment 24759
simultaneously in proportion to the state's and the school 24760
district's respective shares of that basic project cost as 24761
determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code or, if the 24762
district is a joint vocational school district, under section 24763
3318.42 of the Revised Code. However, if the school district 24764
certifies to the commission that expenditure by the school 24765
district is necessary to maintain the federal tax status or 24766
tax-exempt status of notes or bonds issued by the school district 24767
to pay for its share of the project cost or to comply with 24768
applicable temporary investment periods or spending exceptions to 24769
rebate as provided for under federal law in regard to those notes 24770
or bonds, the school district may commit to spend, or spend, a 24771
greater portion of the funds it provides during any specific 24772
period than would otherwise be required under this division.24773

       (S) A provision stipulating that the commission may prohibit 24774
the district from proceeding with any project if the commission 24775
determines that the site is not suitable for construction 24776
purposes. The commission may perform soil tests in its 24777
determination of whether a site is appropriate for construction 24778
purposes.24779

       (T) A provision stipulating that, unless otherwise authorized 24780
by the commission, any contingency reserve portion of the 24781
construction budget prescribed by the commission shall be used 24782
only to pay costs resulting from unforeseen job conditions, to 24783
comply with rulings regarding building and other codes, to pay 24784
costs related to design clarifications or corrections to contract 24785
documents, and to pay the costs of settlements or judgments 24786
related to the project as provided under section 3318.086 of the 24787
Revised Code;24788

       (U) Provision stipulating that for continued release of 24789
project funds the school district board shall comply with section 24790
3313.41 of the Revised Code throughout the project and shall 24791
notify the department of education and the Ohio community school 24792
association when the board plans to dispose of facilities by sale 24793
under that section;24794

       (V) Provision that the commission shall not approve a 24795
contract for demolition of a facility until the school district 24796
board has complied with section 3313.41 of the Revised Code 24797
relative to that facility, unless demolition of that facility is 24798
to clear a site for construction of a replacement facility 24799
included in the district's project;24800

       (W) A requirement for the school district to adhere to a 24801
facilities maintenance plan approved by the commission.24802

       Sec. 3318.10.  When such working drawings, specifications, 24803
and estimates of cost have been approved by the school district 24804
board and the Ohio school facilities commission, the treasurer of 24805
the school district board shall advertise for construction bids in 24806
accordance with section 3313.46 of the Revised Code. Such notices 24807
shall state that plans and specifications for the project are on 24808
file in the office of the commission and such other place as may 24809
be designated in such notice, and the time and place when and 24810
where bids therefor will be received.24811

       The form of proposal to be submitted by bidders shall be 24812
supplied by the commission. Bidders may be permitted to bid upon 24813
all the branches of work and materials to be furnished and 24814
supplied, upon any branch thereof, or upon all or any thereof.24815

       When the construction bids for all branches of work and 24816
materials have been tabulated, the commission shall cause to be 24817
prepared a revised estimate of the basic project cost based upon 24818
the lowest responsible bids received. If such revised estimate 24819
exceeds the estimated basic project cost as approved by the 24820
controlling board pursuant to section 3318.04 or division (B)(1) 24821
of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code, no contracts may be 24822
entered into pursuant to this section unless such revised estimate 24823
is approved by the commission and by the controlling board. When 24824
such revised estimate has been prepared, and after such approvals 24825
are given, if necessary, and if the school district board has 24826
caused to be transferred to the project construction fund the 24827
proceeds from the sale of the first or first and final installment 24828
of its bonds or bond anticipation notes pursuant to the provision 24829
of the written agreement required by division (B) of section 24830
3318.08 of the Revised Code, and when the director of budget and 24831
management has certified that there is a balance in the 24832
appropriation, not otherwise obligated to pay precedent 24833
obligations, pursuant to which the state's share of such revised 24834
estimate is required to be paid, the contract for all branches of 24835
work and materials to be furnished and supplied, or for any branch 24836
thereof as determined by the school district board, shall be 24837
awarded by the school district board to the lowest responsible 24838
bidder subject to the approval of the commission. Such award shall 24839
be made within sixty days after the date on which the bids are 24840
opened, and the successful bidder shall enter into a contract 24841
within ten days after the successful bidder is notified of the 24842
award of the contract.24843

       Subject to the approval of the commission, the school 24844
district board may reject all bids and readvertise. Any contract 24845
made under this section shall be made in the name of the state and 24846
executed on its behalf by the president and treasurer of the 24847
school district board.24848

       The provisions of sections 9.312 and 3313.46 of the Revised 24849
Code, which are applicable to construction contracts of boards of 24850
education, shall apply to construction contracts for the project.24851

       The remedies afforded to any subcontractor, materials 24852
supplier, laborer, mechanic, or persons furnishing material or 24853
machinery for the project under sections 1311.26 to 1311.32 of the 24854
Revised Code, shall apply to contracts entered into under this 24855
section and the itemized statement required by section 1311.26 of 24856
the Revised Code shall be filed with the school district board.24857

       Notwithstanding any other requirement of this section, a 24858
school district, with the approval of the commission, may utilize 24859
any otherwise lawful alternative construction delivery method for 24860
the construction of the project.24861

       Sec. 3318.30.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio school 24862
facilities commission as an independent agency of the state within 24863
the Ohio facilities construction commission, which is created 24864
under section 123.20 of the Revised Code. The Ohio school 24865
facilities commission shall administer the provision of financial 24866
assistance to school districts for the acquisition or construction 24867
of classroom facilities in accordance with sections 3318.01 to 24868
3318.33 of the Revised Code.24869

       The Ohio school facilities commission is a body corporate and 24870
politic, an agency of state government and an instrumentality of 24871
the state, performing essential governmental functions of this 24872
state. The carrying out of the purposes and the exercise by the 24873
Ohio school facilities commission of its powers conferred by 24874
sections 3318.01 to 3318.33 of the Revised Code are essential 24875
public functions and public purposes of the state. The Ohio school 24876
facilities commission may, in its own name, sue and be sued, enter 24877
into contracts, and perform all the powers and duties given to it 24878
by sections 3318.01 to 3318.33 of the Revised Code, but it does 24879
not have and shall not exercise the power of eminent domain. In 24880
its discretion and as it determines appropriate, the Ohio school 24881
facilities commission may delegate to any of its members, 24882
executive director, or other employees any of the Ohio school 24883
facilities commission's powers and duties to carry out its 24884
functions.24885

       (B) The Ohio school facilities commission shall consist of 24886
seven members, three of whom are voting members. The voting 24887
members of the Ohio school facilities commission shall be the 24888
director of the office of budget and management, the director of 24889
administrative services, and the superintendent of public 24890
instruction, or their designees. Of the nonvoting members, two 24891
shall be members of the senate appointed by the president of the 24892
senate, and two shall be members of the house of representatives 24893
appointed by the speaker of the house. Each of the appointees of 24894
the president, and each of the appointees of the speaker, shall be 24895
members of different political parties.24896

       Nonvoting members shall serve as members of the Ohio school 24897
facilities commission during the legislative biennium for which 24898
they are appointed, except that any such member who ceases to be a 24899
member of the legislative house from which the member was 24900
appointed shall cease to be a member of the Ohio school facilities24901
commission. Each nonvoting member shall be appointed within 24902
thirty-one days of the end of the term of that member's 24903
predecessor. Such members may be reappointed. Vacancies of 24904
nonvoting members shall be filled in the manner provided for 24905
original appointments.24906

       Members of the Ohio school facilities commission shall serve 24907
without compensation.24908

       After the initial nonvoting members of the Ohio school 24909
facilities commission have been appointed, the Ohio school 24910
facilities commission shall meet and organize by electing voting 24911
members as the chairperson and vice-chairperson of the Ohio school 24912
facilities commission, who shall hold their offices until the next 24913
organizational meeting of the Ohio school facilities commission. 24914
Organizational meetings of the Ohio school facilities commission 24915
shall be held at the first meeting of each calendar year. At each 24916
organizational meeting, the Ohio school facilities commission 24917
shall elect from among its voting members a chairperson and 24918
vice-chairperson, who shall serve until the next annual 24919
organizational meeting. The Ohio school facilities commission 24920
shall adopt rules pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code 24921
for the conduct of its internal business and shall keep a journal 24922
of its proceedings. Including the organizational meeting, the Ohio 24923
school facilities commission shall meet at least once each 24924
calendar quarter.24925

       Two voting members of the Ohio school facilities commission 24926
constitute a quorum, and the affirmative vote of two members is 24927
necessary for approval of any action taken by the Ohio school 24928
facilities commission. A vacancy in the membership of the Ohio 24929
school facilities commission does not impair a quorum from 24930
exercising all the rights and performing all the duties of the 24931
Ohio school facilities commission. Meetings of the Ohio school 24932
facilities commission may be held anywhere in the state and shall 24933
be held in compliance with section 121.22 of the Revised Code.24934

       (C) The Ohio school facilities commission shall file an 24935
annual report of its activities and finances with the governor, 24936
speaker of the house of representatives, president of the senate, 24937
and chairpersons of the house and senate finance committees.24938

       (D) The Ohio school facilities commission shall be exempt 24939
from the requirements of sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised 24940
Code.24941

       (E) The Ohio school facilities commission may share employees 24942
and facilities with the Ohio facilities construction commission.24943

       Sec. 3318.31.  (A) The Ohio school facilities commission may 24944
perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 24945
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 24946
exercise the powers granted under, Chapter 3318. of the Revised 24947
Code, including any of the following:24948

       (1) Adopt, amend, and rescind, pursuant to section 111.15 of 24949
the Revised Code, rules for the administration of programs 24950
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.24951

       (2) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 24952
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 24953
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 24954
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under Chapter 3318. 24955
of the Revised Code, or authorize the executive director to 24956
perform such powers and duties.24957

       (3) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 24958
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 24959
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.24960

       (4) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 24961
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 24962
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 24963
and powers under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, or authorize 24964
the executive director to perform such powers and duties.24965

       (5) Request the director of administrative servicesOhio 24966
facilities construction commission to debar a contractor as 24967
provided in section 153.02 of the Revised Code.24968

       (B) The Ohio school facilities commission shall appoint and 24969
fix the compensation of an executive director who shall serve at 24970
the pleasure of the Ohio school facilities commission. The 24971
executive director shall exercise all powers that the Ohio school 24972
facilities commission possesses, supervise the operations of the 24973
Ohio school facilities commission and perform such other duties as 24974
delegated by the Ohio school facilities commission. The executive 24975
director also shall employ and fix the compensation of such 24976
employees as will facilitate the activities and purposes of the 24977
Ohio school facilities commission, who shall serve at the pleasure 24978
of the executive director. The employees of the Ohio school 24979
facilities commission shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 24980
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 24981
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. Any agreement entered into 24982
prior to July 1, 2012, between the office of collective bargaining 24983
and the exclusive representative for employees of the commission 24984
is binding and shall continue to have effect.24985

       (C) The Ohio school facilities commission may adopt, amend, 24986
and rescind rules pertaining to the administration of the 24987
construction of school facilities of the state under Chapter 119. 24988
of the Revised Code.24989

       (D) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 24990
representative for the Ohio school facilities commission and may 24991
appoint other counsel as necessary for that purpose in accordance 24992
with section 109.07 of the Revised Code.24993

       Sec. 3318.37.  (A)(1) As used in this section:24994

       (a) "Full maintenance amount" has the same meaning as in 24995
section 3318.034 of the Revised Code.24996

       (b) "Large land area school district" means a school district 24997
with a territory of greater than three hundred square miles in any 24998
percentile as determined under section 3318.011 of the Revised 24999
Code.25000

       (b)(c) "Low wealth school district" means a school district 25001
in the first through seventy-fifth percentiles as determined under 25002
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code.25003

       (c)(d) A "school district with an exceptional need for 25004
immediate classroom facilities assistance" means a low wealth or 25005
large land area school district with an exceptional need for new 25006
facilities in order to protect the health and safety of all or a 25007
portion of its students.25008

       (2) No school district that participates in the school 25009
building assistance expedited local partnership program under 25010
section 3318.36 of the Revised Code shall receive assistance under 25011
the program established under this section unless the following 25012
conditions are satisfied:25013

       (a) The district board adopted a resolution certifying its 25014
intent to participate in the school building assistance expedited 25015
local partnership program under section 3318.36 of the Revised 25016
Code prior to September 14, 2000.25017

       (b) The district was selected by the Ohio school facilities 25018
commission for participation in the school building assistance 25019
expedited local partnership program under section 3318.36 of the 25020
Revised Code in the manner prescribed by the commission under that 25021
section as it existed prior to September 14, 2000.25022

       (B)(1) There is hereby established the exceptional needs 25023
school facilities assistance program. Under the program, the Ohio 25024
school facilities commission may set aside from the moneys 25025
annually appropriated to it for classroom facilities assistance 25026
projects up to twenty-five per cent for assistance to school 25027
districts with exceptional needs for immediate classroom 25028
facilities assistance.25029

       (2)(a) After consulting with education and construction 25030
experts, the commission shall adopt guidelines for identifying 25031
school districts with an exceptional need for immediate classroom 25032
facilities assistance.25033

       (b) The guidelines shall include application forms and 25034
instructions for school districts to use in applying for 25035
assistance under this section.25036

       (3) The commission shall evaluate the classroom facilities, 25037
and the need for replacement classroom facilities from the 25038
applications received under this section. The commission, 25039
utilizing the guidelines adopted under division (B)(2)(a) of this 25040
section, shall prioritize the school districts to be assessed.25041

       Notwithstanding section 3318.02 of the Revised Code, the 25042
commission may conduct on-site evaluation of the school districts 25043
prioritized under this section and approve and award funds until 25044
such time as all funds set aside under division (B)(1) of this 25045
section have been encumbered. However, the commission need not 25046
conduct the evaluation of facilities if the commission determines 25047
that a district's assessment conducted under section 3318.36 of 25048
the Revised Code is sufficient for purposes of this section.25049

       (4) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3318.05 of the 25050
Revised Code, the school district's portion of the basic project 25051
cost under this section shall be the "required percentage of the 25052
basic project costs," as defined in division (K) of section 25053
3318.01 of the Revised Code.25054

       (5) Except as otherwise specified in this section, any 25055
project undertaken with assistance under this section shall comply 25056
with all provisions of sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised 25057
Code. A school district may receive assistance under sections 25058
3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code for the remainder of the 25059
district's classroom facilities needs as assessed under this 25060
section when the district is eligible for such assistance pursuant 25061
to section 3318.02 of the Revised Code, but any classroom facility 25062
constructed with assistance under this section shall not be 25063
included in a district's project at that time unless the 25064
commission determines the district has experienced the increased 25065
enrollment specified in division (B)(1) of section 3318.04 of the 25066
Revised Code.25067

       (C) No school district shall receive assistance under this 25068
section for a classroom facility that has been included in the 25069
discrete part of the district's classroom facilities needs 25070
identified and addressed in the district's project pursuant to an 25071
agreement entered into under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code, 25072
unless the district's entire classroom facilities plan consists of 25073
only a single building designed to house grades kindergarten 25074
through twelve.25075

       (D)(1) When undertaking a project under this section, a 25076
school district may elect to prorate its full maintenance amount 25077
by setting aside for maintenance the amount calculated under 25078
division (D)(2) of this section to maintain the classroom 25079
facilities acquired under the project, if the district will use 25080
one or more of the alternative methods authorized in sections 25081
3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of the Revised Code to generate 25082
the entire amount calculated under that division. If the district 25083
so elects, the commission and the district shall include in the 25084
agreement entered into under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code a 25085
statement specifying that the district will use the amount 25086
calculated under that division only to maintain the classroom 25087
facilities acquired under the project under this section.25088

       (2) The commission shall calculate the amount for a school 25089
district to maintain the classroom facilities acquired under a 25090
project under this section as follows:25091

       The full maintenance amount X (the school district's portion 25092
of the basic project cost under this section / the school 25093
district's portion of the basic project cost for the district's 25094
entire classroom facilities needs, as determined jointly by the 25095
staff of the commission and the district)25096

       (3) A school district may elect to prorate its full 25097
maintenance amount for any number of projects under this section, 25098
provided the district will use one or more of the alternative 25099
methods authorized in sections 3318.051, 3318.052, and 3318.084 of 25100
the Revised Code to generate the entire amount calculated under 25101
division (D)(2) of this section to maintain the classroom 25102
facilities acquired under each project for which it so elects. If 25103
the district cannot use one or more of those alternative methods 25104
to generate the entire amount calculated under that division, the 25105
district shall levy the tax described in division (B) of section 25106
3318.05 of the Revised Code or an extension of that tax under 25107
section 3318.061 of the Revised Code in an amount necessary to 25108
generate the remainder of its full maintenance amount. The 25109
commission shall calculate the remainder of the district's full 25110
maintenance amount as follows:25111

       The full maintenance amount - the sum of the amounts 25112
calculated for the district under division (D)(2) of this section 25113
for each of the district's prior projects under this section25114

       (4) In no case shall the sum of the amounts calculated for a 25115
school district's maintenance of classroom facilities under 25116
divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section exceed the amount that 25117
would have been required for maintenance if the district had 25118
elected to meet its entire classroom facilities needs with a 25119
project under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code and 25120
had not undertaken one or more projects under this section.25121

       (5) If a school district commenced a project under this 25122
section prior to the effective date of this amendment but has not 25123
completed that project, and has not levied the tax described in 25124
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code or an 25125
extension of that tax under section 3318.061 of the Revised Code, 25126
the district may request approval from the commission to prorate 25127
its full maintenance amount in accordance with divisions (D)(1) to 25128
(4) of this section. If the commission approves the request, the 25129
commission and the district shall amend the agreement entered into 25130
under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code to reflect the change.25131

       Sec. 3333.04.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 25132
shall:25133

       (A) Make studies of state policy in the field of higher 25134
education and formulate a master plan for higher education for the 25135
state, considering the needs of the people, the needs of the 25136
state, and the role of individual public and private institutions 25137
within the state in fulfilling these needs;25138

       (B)(1) Report annually to the governor and the general 25139
assembly on the findings from the chancellor's studies and the 25140
master plan for higher education for the state;25141

       (2) Report at least semiannually to the general assembly and 25142
the governor the enrollment numbers at each state-assisted 25143
institution of higher education.25144

       (C) Approve or disapprove the establishment of new branches 25145
or academic centers of state colleges and universities;25146

       (D) Approve or disapprove the establishment of state 25147
technical colleges or any other state institution of higher 25148
education;25149

       (E) Recommend the nature of the programs, undergraduate, 25150
graduate, professional, state-financed research, and public 25151
services which should be offered by the state colleges, 25152
universities, and other state-assisted institutions of higher 25153
education in order to utilize to the best advantage their 25154
facilities and personnel;25155

       (F) Recommend to the state colleges, universities, and other 25156
state-assisted institutions of higher education graduate or 25157
professional programs, including, but not limited to, doctor of 25158
philosophy, doctor of education, and juris doctor programs, that 25159
could be eliminated because they constitute unnecessary 25160
duplication, as shall be determined using the process developed 25161
pursuant to this division, or for other good and sufficient cause. 25162
Prior to recommending a program for elimination, the chancellor 25163
shall request the board of regents to hold at least one public 25164
hearing on the matter and advise the chancellor on whether the 25165
program should be recommended for elimination. The board shall 25166
provide notice of each hearing within a reasonable amount of time 25167
prior to its scheduled date. Following the hearing, the board 25168
shall issue a recommendation to the chancellor. The chancellor 25169
shall consider the board's recommendation but shall not be 25170
required to accept it.25171

       For purposes of determining the amounts of any state 25172
instructional subsidies paid to state colleges, universities, and 25173
other state-assisted institutions of higher education, the 25174
chancellor may exclude students enrolled in any program that the 25175
chancellor has recommended for elimination pursuant to this 25176
division except that the chancellor shall not exclude any such 25177
student who enrolled in the program prior to the date on which the 25178
chancellor initially commences to exclude students under this 25179
division.25180

       The chancellor and state colleges, universities, and other 25181
state-assisted institutions of higher education shall jointly 25182
develop a process for determining which existing graduate or 25183
professional programs constitute unnecessary duplication.25184

       (G) Recommend to the state colleges, universities, and other 25185
state-assisted institutions of higher education programs which 25186
should be added to their present programs;25187

       (H) Conduct studies for the state colleges, universities, and 25188
other state-assisted institutions of higher education to assist 25189
them in making the best and most efficient use of their existing 25190
facilities and personnel;25191

       (I) Make recommendations to the governor and general assembly 25192
concerning the development of state-financed capital plans for 25193
higher education; the establishment of new state colleges, 25194
universities, and other state-assisted institutions of higher 25195
education; and the establishment of new programs at the existing 25196
state colleges, universities, and other institutions of higher 25197
education;25198

       (J) Review the appropriation requests of the public community 25199
colleges and the state colleges and universities and submit to the 25200
office of budget and management and to the chairpersons of the 25201
finance committees of the house of representatives and of the 25202
senate the chancellor's recommendations in regard to the biennial 25203
higher education appropriation for the state, including 25204
appropriations for the individual state colleges and universities 25205
and public community colleges. For the purpose of determining the 25206
amounts of instructional subsidies to be paid to state-assisted 25207
colleges and universities, the chancellor shall define "full-time 25208
equivalent student" by program per academic year. The definition 25209
may take into account the establishment of minimum enrollment 25210
levels in technical education programs below which support 25211
allowances will not be paid. Except as otherwise provided in this 25212
section, the chancellor shall make no change in the definition of 25213
"full-time equivalent student" in effect on November 15, 1981, 25214
which would increase or decrease the number of subsidy-eligible 25215
full-time equivalent students, without first submitting a fiscal 25216
impact statement to the president of the senate, the speaker of 25217
the house of representatives, the legislative service commission, 25218
and the director of budget and management. The chancellor shall 25219
work in close cooperation with the director of budget and 25220
management in this respect and in all other matters concerning the 25221
expenditures of appropriated funds by state colleges, 25222
universities, and other institutions of higher education.25223

       (K) Seek the cooperation and advice of the officers and 25224
trustees of both public and private colleges, universities, and 25225
other institutions of higher education in the state in performing 25226
the chancellor's duties and making the chancellor's plans, 25227
studies, and recommendations;25228

       (L) Appoint advisory committees consisting of persons 25229
associated with public or private secondary schools, members of 25230
the state board of education, or personnel of the state department 25231
of education;25232

       (M) Appoint advisory committees consisting of college and 25233
university personnel, or other persons knowledgeable in the field 25234
of higher education, or both, in order to obtain their advice and 25235
assistance in defining and suggesting solutions for the problems 25236
and needs of higher education in this state;25237

       (N) Approve or disapprove all new degrees and new degree 25238
programs at all state colleges, universities, and other 25239
state-assisted institutions of higher education;25240

       (O) Adopt such rules as are necessary to carry out the 25241
chancellor's duties and responsibilities. The rules shall 25242
prescribe procedures for the chancellor to follow when taking 25243
actions associated with the chancellor's duties and 25244
responsibilities and shall indicate which types of actions are 25245
subject to those procedures. The procedures adopted under this 25246
division shall be in addition to any other procedures prescribed 25247
by law for such actions. However, if any other provision of the 25248
Revised Code or rule adopted by the chancellor prescribes 25249
different procedures for such an action, the procedures adopted 25250
under this division shall not apply to that action to the extent 25251
they conflict with the procedures otherwise prescribed by law. The 25252
procedures adopted under this division shall include at least the 25253
following:25254

       (1) Provision for public notice of the proposed action;25255

        (2) An opportunity for public comment on the proposed action, 25256
which may include a public hearing on the action by the board of 25257
regents;25258

        (3) Methods for parties that may be affected by the proposed 25259
action to submit comments during the public comment period;25260

       (4) Submission of recommendations from the board of regents 25261
regarding the proposed action, at the request of the chancellor;25262

        (5) Written publication of the final action taken by the 25263
chancellor and the chancellor's rationale for the action;25264

       (6) A timeline for the process described in divisions (O)(1) 25265
to (5) of this section.25266

       (P) Establish and submit to the governor and the general 25267
assembly a clear and measurable set of goals and timetables for 25268
their achievement for each program under the chancellor's 25269
supervision that is designed to accomplish any of the following:25270

       (1) Increased access to higher education;25271

       (2) Job training;25272

       (3) Adult literacy;25273

       (4) Research;25274

       (5) Excellence in higher education;25275

       (6) Reduction in the number of graduate programs within the 25276
same subject area.25277

       In July of each odd-numbered year, the chancellor shall 25278
submit to the governor and the general assembly a report on 25279
progress made toward these goals.25280

       (Q) Make recommendations to the governor and the general 25281
assembly regarding the design and funding of the student financial 25282
aid programs specified in sections 3333.12, 3333.122, 3333.21 to 25283
3333.26, and 5910.02 of the Revised Code;25284

       (R)(Q) Participate in education-related state or federal 25285
programs on behalf of the state and assume responsibility for the 25286
administration of such programs in accordance with applicable 25287
state or federal law;25288

       (S)(R) Adopt rules for student financial aid programs as 25289
required by sections 3333.12, 3333.122, 3333.21 to 3333.26, 25290
3333.28, and 5910.02 of the Revised Code, and perform any other 25291
administrative functions assigned to the chancellor by those 25292
sections;25293

       (T)(S) Conduct enrollment audits of state-supported 25294
institutions of higher education;25295

       (U)(T) Appoint consortia of college and university personnel 25296
to advise or participate in the development and operation of 25297
statewide collaborative efforts, including the Ohio supercomputer 25298
center, the Ohio academic resources network, OhioLink, and the 25299
Ohio learning network. For each consortium, the chancellor shall 25300
designate a college or university to serve as that consortium's 25301
fiscal agent, financial officer, and employer. Any funds 25302
appropriated for the consortia shall be distributed to the fiscal 25303
agents for the operation of the consortia. A consortium shall 25304
follow the rules of the college or university that serves as its 25305
fiscal agent. The chancellor may restructure existing consortia, 25306
appointed under this division, in accordance with procedures 25307
adopted under divisions (D)(O)(1) to (6) of this section.25308

       (V)(U) Adopt rules establishing advisory duties and 25309
responsibilities of the board of regents not otherwise prescribed 25310
by law;25311

       (W)(V) Respond to requests for information about higher 25312
education from members of the general assembly and direct staff to 25313
conduct research or analysis as needed for this purpose.25314

       Sec. 3333.041. (A) On or before the last day of December of 25315
each year, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 25316
submit a report to the governor and, in accordance with section 25317
101.68 of the Revised Code, the general assembly, the state board 25318
of education, and the board of education of each city, exempted 25319
village, and local school district on thea report or reports 25320
concerning all of the following:25321

       (1) The status of graduates of Ohio school districts at25322
state-assisted colleges or universitiesstate institutions of 25323
higher education during the twelve-month period ending on the 25324
thirtieth day of September of the current calendar year. The 25325
report shall list, by school district, the number of graduates of 25326
each school district who attended such a college or university25327
state institution of higher education and the percentage of each 25328
district's graduates enrolled in such a college or university25329
state institution of higher education during the reporting period 25330
who were required during such period by the college or university, 25331
as a prerequisite to enrolling in those courses generally required 25332
for first-year students, to enroll in a remedial course in 25333
English, including composition or reading, mathematics, and any 25334
other area designated by the boardchancellor. The chancellor also 25335
shall make the information described in division (A)(1) of this 25336
section available to the board of education of each city, exempted 25337
village, and local school district.25338

       Each state-assisted college and universitystate institution 25339
of higher education shall, by the first day of November of each 25340
year, submit to the chancellor in the form specified by the 25341
chancellor the information the chancellor requires to compile the 25342
report.25343

       (2) Aggregate academic growth data for students assigned to 25344
graduates of teacher preparation programs approved under section 25345
3333.048 of the Revised Code who teach English language arts or 25346
mathematics in any of grades four to eight in a public school in 25347
Ohio. For this purpose, the chancellor shall use the value-added 25348
progress dimension prescribed by section 3302.021 of the Revised 25349
Code. The chancellor shall aggregate the data by graduating class 25350
for each approved teacher preparation program, except that if a 25351
particular class has ten or fewer graduates to which this section 25352
applies, the chancellor shall report the data for a group of 25353
classes over a three-year period. In no case shall the report 25354
identify any individual graduate. The department of education 25355
shall share any data necessary for the report with the chancellor.25356

       (3) The following information with respect to the Ohio 25357
tuition trust authority:25358

       (a) The name of each investment manager that is a minority 25359
business enterprise or a women's business enterprise with which 25360
the chancellor contracts;25361

       (b) The amount of assets managed by investment managers that 25362
are minority business enterprises or women's business enterprises, 25363
expressed as a percentage of assets managed by investment managers 25364
with which the chancellor has contracted;25365

       (c) Efforts by the chancellor to increase utilization of 25366
investment managers that are minority business enterprises or 25367
women's business enterprises.25368

       (4) The status of implementation of faculty improvement 25369
programs under section 3345.28 of the Revised Code. The report 25370
shall include, but need not be limited to, the following: the 25371
number of professional leave grants made by each institution; the 25372
purpose of each professional leave; and a statement of the cost to 25373
the institution of each professional leave, to the extent that the 25374
cost exceeds the salary of the faculty member on professional 25375
leave.25376

       (5) The number and types of biobased products purchased under 25377
section 125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount of money spent 25378
by state institutions of higher education for those biobased 25379
products as that information is provided to the chancellor under 25380
division (A) of section 3345.692 of the Revised Code.25381

       (6) A description of dual enrollment programs, as defined in 25382
section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, that are offered by school 25383
districts, community schools established under Chapter 3314. of 25384
the Revised Code, STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of 25385
the Revised Code, college-preparatory boarding schools established 25386
under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, and chartered nonpublic 25387
high schools. The chancellor also shall post the information on 25388
the chancellor's web site.25389

        (7) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio innovation 25390
partnership established under section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. 25391
At a minimum, the report shall include the following:25392

        (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 25393
received an award in the previous fiscal year;25394

        (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 25395
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 25396
statewide economy;25397

        (c) The chancellor's strategy in assigning choose Ohio first 25398
scholarships among state universities and colleges and how the 25399
actual awards fit that strategy.25400

        (8) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio 25401
co-op/internship program established under section 3333.72 of the 25402
Revised Code. At a minimum, the report shall include the 25403
following:25404

        (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 25405
received an award in the previous fiscal year;25406

        (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 25407
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 25408
statewide economy;25409

        (c) The chancellor's strategy in allocating awards among 25410
state institutions of higher education and how the actual awards 25411
fit that strategy.25412

       (B) As used in this section, "state-assisted college or 25413
university" means a state university or college as defined in 25414
division (A)(1) of section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, community 25415
colleges, state community colleges, university branches, and 25416
technical colleges.:25417

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 25418
section 122.71 of the Revised Code.25419

       (2) "State institution of higher education" and "state 25420
university" have the same meanings as in section 3345.011 of the 25421
Revised Code.25422

       (3) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 25423
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.25424

        (4) "Women's business enterprise" means a business, or a 25425
partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint 25426
venture of any kind, that is owned and controlled by women who are 25427
United States citizens and residents of this state.25428

       Sec. 3333.123.  (A) As used in this section:25429

        (1) "The Ohio college opportunity grant program" means the 25430
program established under section 3333.122 of the Revised Code.25431

        (2) "Rules for the Ohio college opportunity grant program" 25432
means the rules authorized in division (S)(R) of section 3333.04 25433
of the Revised Code for the implementation of the program.25434

        (B) In adopting rules for the Ohio college opportunity grant 25435
program, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents may include 25436
provisions that give preferential or priority funding to 25437
low-income students who in their primary and secondary school work 25438
participate in or complete rigorous academic coursework, attain 25439
passing scores on the assessments prescribed in section 3301.0710 25440
of the Revised Code, or meet other high academic performance 25441
standards determined by the chancellor to reduce the need for 25442
remediation and ensure academic success at the postsecondary 25443
education level. Any such rules shall include a specification of 25444
procedures needed to certify student achievement of primary and 25445
secondary standards as well as the timeline for implementation of 25446
the provisions authorized by this section.25447

       Sec. 3333.21.  As used in sections 3333.21 to 3333.23 of the 25448
Revised Code, "term" and "academic year" mean "term" and "academic 25449
year" as defined by the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents.25450

       The chancellor shall establish and administer an academic 25451
scholarship program. Under the program, a total of one thousand 25452
new scholarships shall be awarded annually in the amount of not 25453
less than two thousand dollars per award. At least one such new 25454
scholarship shall be awarded annually to a student in each public 25455
high school and joint vocational school and each nonpublic high 25456
school for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 25457
standards in accordance with section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.25458

       To be eligible for the award of a scholarship, a student 25459
shall be a resident of Ohio and shall be enrolled as a full-time 25460
undergraduate student in an Ohio institution of higher education 25461
that meets the requirements of Title VI of the "Civil Rights Act 25462
of 1964" and is state-assisted, is nonprofit and holds a 25463
certificate of authorization issued under section 1713.02 of the 25464
Revised Code, is a private institution exempt from regulation 25465
under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 25466
3333.046 of the Revised Code, or holds a certificate of 25467
registration and program authorization issued under section 25468
3332.05 of the Revised Code and awards an associate or bachelor's 25469
degree. Students who attend an institution holding a certificate 25470
of registration shall be enrolled in a program leading to an 25471
associate or bachelor's degree for which associate or bachelor's 25472
degree program the institution has program authorization to offer 25473
the program issued under section 3332.05 of the Revised Code.25474

       "Resident" and "full-time student" shall be defined in rules 25475
adopted by the chancellor.25476

       The chancellor shall award the scholarships on the basis of a 25477
formula designed by the chancellor to identify students with the 25478
highest capability for successful college study. The formula shall 25479
weigh the factor of achievement, as measured by grade point 25480
average, and the factor of ability, as measured by performance on 25481
a competitive examination specified by the chancellor. Students 25482
receiving scholarships shall be known as "Ohio academic scholars."25483
Annually, not later than the thirty-first day of July, the 25484
chancellor shall report to the governor and the general assembly 25485
on the performance of current Ohio academic scholars and the 25486
effectiveness of the formula.25487

       Sec. 3333.60.  As used in sections 3333.61 to 3333.703333.6925488
of the Revised Code:25489

       (A) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 25490
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.25491

       (B) "State university" and "state institution of higher 25492
education" have the same meanings as in section 3345.011 of the 25493
Revised Code.25494

       Sec. 3333.61.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 25495
shall establish and administer the Ohio innovation partnership, 25496
which shall consist of the choose Ohio first scholarship program 25497
and the Ohio research scholars program. Under the programs, the 25498
chancellor, subject to approval by the controlling board, shall 25499
make awards to state universities or colleges for programs and 25500
initiatives that recruit students and scientists in the fields of 25501
science, technology, engineering, mathematics, and medicine to 25502
state universities or colleges, in order to enhance regional 25503
educational and economic strengths and meet the needs of the 25504
state's regional economies. Awards may be granted for programs and 25505
initiatives to be implemented by a state university or college 25506
alone or in collaboration with other state institutions of higher 25507
education, nonpublic Ohio universities and colleges, or other 25508
public or private Ohio entities. If the chancellor makes an award 25509
to a program or initiative that is intended to be implemented by a 25510
state university or college in collaboration with other state 25511
institutions of higher education or nonpublic Ohio universities or 25512
colleges, the chancellor may provide that some portion of the 25513
award be received directly by the collaborating universities or 25514
colleges consistent with all terms of the Ohio innovation 25515
partnership.25516

       The choose Ohio first scholarship program shall assign a 25517
number of scholarships to state universities and colleges to 25518
recruit Ohio residents as undergraduate, or as provided in section 25519
3333.66 of the Revised Code graduate, students in the fields of 25520
science, technology, engineering, mathematics, and medicine, or in 25521
science, technology, engineering, mathematics, or medical 25522
education. Choose Ohio first scholarships shall be awarded to each 25523
participating eligible student as a grant to the state university 25524
or college the student is attending and shall be reflected on the 25525
student's tuition bill. Choose Ohio first scholarships are 25526
student-centered grants from the state to students to use to 25527
attend a university or college and are not grants from the state 25528
to universities or colleges.25529

       Notwithstanding any other provision of this section or 25530
sections 3333.62 to 3333.703333.69 of the Revised Code, a 25531
nonpublic four-year Ohio institution of higher education may 25532
submit a proposal for choose Ohio first scholarships or Ohio 25533
research scholars grants. If the chancellor awards a nonpublic 25534
institution scholarships or grants, the nonpublic institution 25535
shall comply with all requirements of this section, sections 25536
3333.62 to 3333.703333.69 of the Revised Code, and the rules 25537
adopted under this section that apply to state universities or 25538
colleges awarded choose Ohio first scholarships or Ohio research 25539
scholars grants.25540

       The Ohio research scholars program shall award grants to use 25541
in recruiting scientists to the faculties of state universities or 25542
colleges.25543

       The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 25544
119. of the Revised Code to administer the programs.25545

       Sec. 3333.71.  As used in sections 3333.71 to 3333.803333.7925546
of the Revised Code:25547

       (A) "Cooperative education program" means a partnership 25548
between students, institutions of higher education, and employers 25549
that formally integrates students' academic study with work 25550
experience in cooperating employer organizations and that meets 25551
all of the following conditions:25552

       (1) Alternates or combines periods of academic study and work 25553
experience in appropriate fields as an integral part of student 25554
education;25555

       (2) Provides students with compensation from the cooperative 25556
employer in the form of wages or salaries for work performed;25557

       (3) Evaluates each participating student's performance in the 25558
cooperative position, both from the perspective of the student's 25559
institution of higher education and the student's cooperative 25560
employer;25561

       (4) Provides participating students with academic credit from 25562
the institution of higher education upon successful completion of 25563
their cooperative education;25564

       (5) Is part of an overall degree or certificate program for 25565
which a percentage of the total program acceptable to the 25566
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents involves cooperative 25567
education.25568

       (B) "Internship program" means a partnership between 25569
students, institutions of higher education, and employers that 25570
formally integrates students' academic study with work or 25571
community service experience and that does both of the following:25572

       (1) Offers internships of specified and definite duration;25573

       (2) Evaluates each participating student's performance in the 25574
internship position, both from the perspective of the student's 25575
institution of higher education and the student's internship 25576
employer.25577

       An internship program may provide participating students with 25578
academic credit upon successful completion of the internship, and 25579
may provide students with compensation in the form of wages or 25580
salaries, stipends, or scholarships.25581

       (C) "Nonpublic university or college" means a nonprofit 25582
institution holding a certificate of authorization issued under 25583
Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code.25584

       (D) "State institution of higher education" has the same 25585
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.25586

       Sec. 3333.72.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 25587
shall establish and administer the Ohio co-op/internship program 25588
to promote and encourage cooperative education programs or 25589
internship programs at Ohio institutions of higher education for 25590
the purpose of recruiting Ohio students to stay in the state, and 25591
recruiting Ohio residents who left Ohio to attend out-of-state 25592
institutions of higher education back to Ohio institutions of 25593
higher education, to participate in high quality academic programs 25594
that use cooperative education programs or significant internship 25595
programs, in order to support the growth of Ohio's businesses by 25596
providing businesses with Ohio's most talented students and 25597
providing Ohio graduates with job opportunities with Ohio's 25598
growing companies.25599

       The chancellor, subject to approval by the controlling board, 25600
shall make awards to state institutions of higher education for 25601
new or existing programs and initiatives meeting the goals of the 25602
Ohio co-op/internship program. Awards may be granted for programs 25603
and initiatives to be implemented by a state institution of higher 25604
education alone or in collaboration with other state institutions 25605
of higher education or nonpublic Ohio universities and colleges. 25606
If the chancellor makes an award to a program or initiative that 25607
is intended to be implemented by a state institution of higher 25608
education in collaboration with other state institutions of higher 25609
education or nonpublic Ohio universities or colleges, the 25610
chancellor may provide that some portion of the award be received 25611
directly by the collaborating universities or colleges consistent 25612
with all terms of the Ohio co-op/internship program.25613

       The Ohio co-op/internship program shall support the creation 25614
and maintenance of high quality academic programs that utilize an 25615
intensive cooperative education or internship program for students 25616
at state institutions of higher education, or assign a number of 25617
scholarships to institutions to recruit Ohio residents as students 25618
in a high quality academic program, or both. If scholarships are 25619
included in an award to an institution of higher education, the 25620
scholarships shall be awarded to each participating eligible 25621
student as a grant to the state institution of higher education 25622
the student is attending and shall be reflected on the student's 25623
tuition bill.25624

        Notwithstanding any other provision of this section or 25625
sections 3333.73 to 3333.803333.79 of the Revised Code, an Ohio 25626
four-year nonpublic university or college may submit a proposal as 25627
lead applicant or co-lead applicant for an award under the Ohio 25628
co-op/internship program if the proposal is to be implemented in 25629
collaboration with a state institution of higher education. If the 25630
chancellor grants a nonpublic university or college an award, the 25631
nonpublic university or college shall comply with all requirements 25632
of this section, sections 3333.73 to 3333.803333.79 of the 25633
Revised Code, and the rules adopted under this section that apply 25634
to state institutions of higher education that receive awards 25635
under the program.25636

       The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 25637
119. of the Revised Code to administer the Ohio co-op/internship 25638
program.25639

       Sec. 3334.08.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 25640
in addition to any other powers conferred by this chapter, the 25641
Ohio tuition trust authority may do any of the following:25642

       (1) Impose reasonable residency requirements for 25643
beneficiaries of tuition units;25644

       (2) Impose reasonable limits on the number of tuition unit 25645
participants;25646

       (3) Impose and collect administrative fees and charges in 25647
connection with any transaction under this chapter;25648

       (4) Purchase insurance from insurers licensed to do business 25649
in this state providing for coverage against any loss in 25650
connection with the authority's property, assets, or activities or 25651
to further ensure the value of tuition units;25652

       (5) Indemnify or purchase policies of insurance on behalf of 25653
members, officers, and employees of the authority from insurers 25654
licensed to do business in this state providing for coverage for 25655
any liability incurred in connection with any civil action, 25656
demand, or claim against a director, officer, or employee by 25657
reason of an act or omission by the director, officer, or employee 25658
that was not manifestly outside the scope of the employment or 25659
official duties of the director, officer, or employee or with 25660
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 25661
manner;25662

       (6) Make, execute, and deliver contracts, conveyances, and 25663
other instruments necessary to the exercise and discharge of the 25664
powers and duties of the authority;25665

       (7) Promote, advertise, and publicize the Ohio college 25666
savings program and the variable college savings program;25667

       (8) Adopt rules under section 111.15 of the Revised Code for 25668
the implementation of the Ohio college savings program;25669

       (9) Contract, for the provision of all or part of the 25670
services necessary for the management and operation of the Ohio 25671
college savings program and the variable college savings program, 25672
with a bank, trust company, savings and loan association, 25673
insurance company, or licensed dealer in securities if the bank, 25674
company, association, or dealer is authorized to do business in 25675
this state and information about the contract is filed with the 25676
controlling board pursuant to division (D)(6) of section 127.16 of 25677
the Revised Code; provided, however, that any funds of the Ohio 25678
college savings program and the variable college savings program 25679
that are not needed for immediate use shall be deposited by the 25680
treasurer of state in the same manner provided under Chapter 135. 25681
of the Revised Code for public moneys of the state. All interest 25682
earned on those deposits shall be credited to the Ohio college 25683
savings program or the variable college savings program, as 25684
applicable.25685

       (10) Contract for other services, or for goods, needed by the 25686
authority in the conduct of its business, including but not 25687
limited to credit card services;25688

       (11) Employ an executive director and other personnel as 25689
necessary to carry out its responsibilities under this chapter, 25690
and fix the compensation of these persons. All employees of the 25691
authority shall be in the unclassified civil service and shall be 25692
eligible for membership in the public employees retirement system. 25693
In the hiring of the executive director, the Ohio tuition trust 25694
authority shall obtain the advice and consent of the Ohio tuition 25695
trust board created in section 3334.03 of the Revised Code, 25696
provided that the executive director shall not be hired unless a 25697
majority of the board votes in favor of the hiring. In addition, 25698
the board may remove the executive director at any time subject to 25699
the advice and consent of the chancellor of the Ohio board of 25700
regents.25701

       (12) Contract with financial consultants, actuaries, 25702
auditors, and other consultants as necessary to carry out its 25703
responsibilities under this chapter;25704

       (13) Enter into agreements with any agency of the state or 25705
its political subdivisions or with private employers under which 25706
an employee may agree to have a designated amount deducted in each 25707
payroll period from the wages or salary due the employee for the 25708
purpose of purchasing tuition units pursuant to a tuition payment 25709
contract or making contributions pursuant to a variable college 25710
savings program contract;25711

       (14) Enter into an agreement with the treasurer of state 25712
under which the treasurer of state will receive, and credit to the 25713
Ohio tuition trust fund or variable college savings program fund, 25714
from any bank or savings and loan association authorized to do 25715
business in this state, amounts that a depositor of the bank or 25716
association authorizes the bank or association to withdraw 25717
periodically from the depositor's account for the purpose of 25718
purchasing tuition units pursuant to a tuition payment contract or 25719
making contributions pursuant to a variable college savings 25720
program contract;25721

       (15) Solicit and accept gifts, grants, and loans from any 25722
person or governmental agency and participate in any governmental 25723
program;25724

       (16) Impose limits on the number of units which may be 25725
purchased on behalf of or assigned or awarded to any beneficiary 25726
and on the total amount of contributions that may be made on 25727
behalf of a beneficiary;25728

       (17) Impose restrictions on the substitution of another 25729
individual for the original beneficiary under the Ohio college 25730
savings program;25731

       (18) Impose a limit on the age of a beneficiary, above which 25732
tuition units may not be purchased on behalf of that beneficiary;25733

       (19) Enter into a cooperative agreement with the treasurer of 25734
state to provide for the direct disbursement of payments under 25735
tuition payment or variable college savings program contracts;25736

       (20) Determine the other higher education expenses for which 25737
tuition units or contributions may be used;25738

       (21) Terminate any tuition payment or variable college 25739
savings program contract if no purchases or contributions are made 25740
for a period of three years or more and there are fewer than a 25741
total of five tuition units or less than a dollar amount set by 25742
rule on account, provided that notice of a possible termination 25743
shall be provided in advance, explaining any options to prevent 25744
termination, and a reasonable amount of time shall be provided 25745
within which to act to prevent a termination;25746

       (22) Maintain a separate account for each tuition payment or 25747
variable college savings program contract;25748

       (23) Perform all acts necessary and proper to carry out the 25749
duties and responsibilities of the authority pursuant to this 25750
chapter.25751

       (B) The authority shall adopt rules under section 111.15 of 25752
the Revised Code for the implementation and administration of the 25753
variable college savings program. The rules shall provide 25754
taxpayers with the maximum tax advantages and flexibility 25755
consistent with section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code and 25756
regulations adopted thereunder with regard to disposition of 25757
contributions and earnings, designation of beneficiaries, and 25758
rollover of account assets to other programs.25759

       (C) Except as otherwise specified in this chapter, the 25760
provisions of Chapters 123., 125., and 4117. of the Revised Code 25761
shall not apply to the authority. The department of administrative 25762
services shall, upon the request of the authority, act as the 25763
authority's agent for the purchase of equipment, supplies, 25764
insurance, or services, or the performance of administrative 25765
services pursuant to Chapter 125. of the Revised Code.25766

       Sec. 3345.16.  The board of trustees of a state college or 25767
university may receive, and hold in trust, for the use and benefit 25768
of the college or university any grant or devise of land, and 25769
donation or bequest of money or other personal property, to be 25770
applied to the general or special use of the college or 25771
university, including use for student loan and scholarship 25772
purposes, unless otherwise directed in the donation or bequest.25773

       The board of trustees of a state college or university may 25774
utilize trust funds to invest in property, real and personal, as a 25775
portion of the holdings in the endowment portfolio under the trust 25776
powers imparted to the board of trustees. Such property, real and 25777
personal, acquired for investment purposes shall be managed by the 25778
board of trustees in the same manner as are other investments in 25779
the college's or university's endowment portfolio. The board of 25780
trustees may lease, lease back, or otherwise contract for the use 25781
of such property in such manner as to provide earning power for 25782
the college or university investment portfolio. Sections 123.01, 25783
123.04123.02, 123.15123.10, and 123.47123.13 of the Revised 25784
Code do not apply to properties, real and personal, held under 25785
this section as earning-power properties in the college or 25786
university endowment portfolio.25787

       Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 25788
contrary, the title in properties, real and personal, purchased by 25789
a board of trustees as an investment and held in the college's or 25790
university's endowment portfolio shall not be vested in the state, 25791
but shall be held in trust by the board.25792

       Sec. 3345.28.  The board of trustees of any state university, 25793
medical university, technical college, state community college, 25794
community college, or the board of trustees or managing authority 25795
of any university branch may establish and administer a faculty 25796
improvement program, under which any full-time faculty member with 25797
at least seven academic years of teaching service at the college, 25798
university, or branch may be granted professional leave for a 25799
period not to exceed one academic year to engage in further 25800
education, research, or any other purpose approved by the board. A 25801
board of trustees or managing authority that establishes such a 25802
program shall, by rule, adopt a definition of "academic years of 25803
teaching service" and of "full-time faculty member."25804

       No such board or authority shall pay any faculty member for 25805
or during a period of professional leave any salary exceeding the 25806
amount that would have been paid to such faculty member for 25807
performing the faculty member's regular duties during the period 25808
of the leave. No faculty member shall, by virtue of being on 25809
professional leave, suffer a reduction or termination of the 25810
faculty member's regular employee retirement or insurance benefits 25811
or of any other benefit or privilege being received as a faculty 25812
member at the college, university, or branch where the faculty 25813
member is employed. Whenever such a benefit would be reduced 25814
because of a reduction in the faculty member's salary during the 25815
period of professional leave, the faculty member shall be given a 25816
chance to have the benefit increased to its normal level, in 25817
accordance with rules adopted by the board of trustees or the 25818
managing authority. A faculty member who has been granted 25819
professional leave shall complete another seven years of service 25820
at the college, university, or branch at which the faculty member 25821
is employed before becoming eligible for another grant of 25822
professional leave at that college, university, or branch. 25823
Professional leave taken as part of a faculty improvement program 25824
established under this section shall not be deemed to be in lieu 25825
of released time or assigned duty in connection with a specific 25826
research, scholarly, or creative program.25827

       Boards of trustees and managing authorities may accept moneys 25828
from any person, political subdivision, or the federal government 25829
to support a faculty improvement program, and may establish such 25830
additional rules as are necessary to establish and administer it.25831

       Each grant of professional leave shall be in accordance with 25832
a professional improvement policy for professional leaves that has 25833
been approved by the board of trustees or the managing authority. 25834
No professional leave shall be granted that requires a 25835
compensating addition to the permanent faculty or staff of the 25836
college, university, or branch. No professional leave shall be 25837
approved unless a specific plan for the professional improvement 25838
of the faculty member while on leave has been submitted to and 25839
accepted by the president of the university, college, or branch. 25840
At the completion of the leave, the faculty member shall submit to 25841
the president a report detailing the attainments of the faculty 25842
member under this professional improvement plan.25843

       Not later than the thirtieth day of June of each year, the 25844
chancellor of the board of regents shall report to the 25845
chairpersons of the education committees of the house of 25846
representatives and the senate on the status of implementation of 25847
faculty improvement programs. The report shall include, but need 25848
not be limited to, the following: the number of professional leave 25849
grants made by each institution; the purpose of each professional 25850
leave; and a statement of the cost to the institution of each 25851
professional leave, to the extent that such cost exceeds the 25852
salary of the faculty member on professional leave.25853

       Sec. 3345.50.  Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in 25854
sections 123.01 and 123.15123.10 of the Revised Code, a state 25855
university, a state community college, or the northeast Ohio 25856
medical university not certified pursuant to section 123.17123.2425857
of the Revised Code may administer any capital facilities project 25858
for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, renovation, 25859
enlargement, or alteration of a public improvement under its 25860
jurisdiction for which the total amount of funds expected to be 25861
appropriated by the general assembly does not exceed four million 25862
dollars without the supervision, control, or approval of the 25863
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 25864
commission as specified in those sections, if both of the 25865
following occur:25866

       (A) Within sixty days after the effective date of the section 25867
of an act in which the general assembly initially makes an 25868
appropriation for the project, the board of trustees of the 25869
institution notifies the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 25870
in writing of its intent to administer the capital facilities 25871
project;25872

       (B) The board of trustees complies with the guidelines 25873
established pursuant to section 153.16 of the Revised Code and all 25874
laws that govern the selection of consultants, preparation and 25875
approval of contract documents, receipt of bids, and award of 25876
contracts with respect to the project.25877

       The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 25878
119. of the Revised Code that establish criteria for the 25879
administration by any such institution of higher education of a 25880
capital facilities project for which the total amount of funds 25881
expected to be appropriated by the general assembly exceeds four 25882
million dollars. The criteria, to be developed with the department 25883
of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission25884
and higher education representatives selected by the chancellor, 25885
shall include such matters as the adequacy of the staffing levels 25886
and expertise needed for the institution to administer the 25887
project, past performance of the institution in administering such 25888
projects, and the amount of institutional or other nonstate money 25889
to be used in financing the project. The chancellor and the 25890
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 25891
commission shall approve the request of any such institution of 25892
higher education that seeks to administer any such capital 25893
facilities project and meets the criteria set forth in the rules 25894
and in the requirements of division (B) of this section.25895

       Sec. 3345.51.  (A) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary 25896
in sections 123.01123.20 and 123.15123.21 of the Revised Code, a 25897
state university, the northeast Ohio medical university, or a 25898
state community college may administer any capital facilities 25899
project for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, 25900
renovation, enlargement, or alteration of a public improvement 25901
under its jurisdiction for which funds are appropriated by the 25902
general assembly without the supervision, control, or approval of 25903
the department of administrative servicesOhio facilities 25904
construction commission as specified in those sections, if all of 25905
the following occur:25906

       (1) The institution is certified by the state architect25907
commission under section 123.17123.24 of the Revised Code;25908

       (2) Within sixty days after the effective date of the section 25909
of an act in which the general assembly initially makes an 25910
appropriation for the project, the board of trustees of the 25911
institution notifies the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 25912
in writing of its request to administer the capital facilities 25913
project and the chancellor approves that request pursuant to 25914
division (B) of this section;25915

       (3) The board of trustees passes a resolution stating its 25916
intent to comply with section 153.13 of the Revised Code and the 25917
guidelines established pursuant to section 153.16 of the Revised 25918
Code and all laws that govern the selection of consultants, 25919
preparation and approval of contract documents, receipt of bids, 25920
and award of contracts with respect to the project.25921

       (B) The chancellor shall adopt rules in accordance with 25922
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish criteria for the 25923
administration by any such institution of higher education of a 25924
capital facilities project for which the general assembly 25925
appropriates funds. The criteria, to be developed with the 25926
department of administrative servicescommission and higher 25927
education representatives selected by the chancellor, shall 25928
include such matters as the adequacy of the staffing levels and 25929
expertise needed for the institution to administer the project, 25930
past performance of the institution in administering such 25931
projects, and the amount of institutional or other nonstate money 25932
to be used in financing the project. The chancellor shall approve 25933
the request of any such institution of higher education that seeks 25934
to administer any such capital facilities project and meets the 25935
criteria set forth in the rules and the requirements of division 25936
(A) of this section.25937

       (C) Any institution that administers a capital facilities 25938
project under this section shall conduct biennial audits for the 25939
duration of the project to ensure that the institution is 25940
complying with Chapters 9., 123., and 153. of the Revised Code and 25941
that the institution is using its certification issued under 25942
section 123.17123.24 of the Revised Code appropriately. The 25943
chancellor, in consultation with higher education representatives 25944
selected by the chancellor, shall adopt rules in accordance with 25945
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish criteria for the 25946
conduct of the audits. The criteria shall include documentation 25947
necessary to determine compliance with Chapters 9., 123., and 153. 25948
of the Revised Code and a method to determine whether an 25949
institution is using its certification issued under section 123.1725950
123.24 of the Revised Code appropriately.25951

       (D) The chancellor, in consultation with higher education 25952
representatives selected by the chancellor, shall adopt rules in 25953
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 25954
criteria for monitoring capital facilities projects administered 25955
by institutions under this section. The criteria shall include the 25956
following:25957

       (1) Conditions under which the chancellor may revoke the 25958
authority of an institution to administer a capital facilities 25959
project under this section, including the failure of an 25960
institution to maintain a sufficient number of employees who have 25961
successfully completed the certification program under section 25962
123.17123.24 of the Revised Code;25963

       (2) A process for institutions to remedy any problems found 25964
by an audit conducted pursuant to division (C) of this section, 25965
including the improper use of state funds or violations of Chapter 25966
9., 123., or 153. of the Revised Code.25967

       (E) If the chancellor revokes an institution's authority to 25968
administer a capital facilities project, the department of 25969
administrative servicescommission shall administer the capital 25970
facilities project. The chancellor also may require an 25971
institution, for which the chancellor revoked authority to 25972
administer a capital facilities project, to acquire a new local 25973
administration competency certification pursuant to section 123.1725974
123.24 of the Revised Code.25975

       Sec. 3345.54. (A) As used in this section:25976

       (1) "Auxiliary facilities" has the same meaning as in section 25977
3345.12 of the Revised Code.25978

       (2) "Conduit entity" means an organization described in 25979
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code qualified as a 25980
public charity under section 509(a)(2) or 509(a)(3) of the 25981
Internal Revenue Code, or any other appropriate legal entity 25982
selected by the state institution, whose corporate purpose allows 25983
it to perform the functions and obligations of a conduit entity 25984
pursuant to the terms of a financing agreement.25985

       (3) "Conveyed property" means auxiliary facilities conveyed 25986
by a state institution to a conduit entity pursuant to a financing 25987
agreement.25988

       (4) "Financing agreement" means a contract described in 25989
division (C) of this section. 25990

       (5) "Independent funding source" means a private entity that 25991
enters into a financing agreement with a conduit entity and a 25992
state institution.25993

       (6) "State institution" means a state institution of higher 25994
education as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.25995

       (B) The board of trustees of a state institution, with the 25996
approval of the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents and the 25997
controlling board, may enter into a financing agreement with a 25998
conduit entity and an independent funding source selected either 25999
through a competitive selection process or by direct negotiations, 26000
and may convey to the conduit entity title to any auxiliary 26001
facilities owned by the state institution pursuant to the terms of 26002
a financing agreement.26003

       (C) A financing agreement under this section is a written 26004
contract entered into among a state institution, a conduit entity, 26005
and an independent funding source that provides for:26006

       (1) The conveyance of auxiliary facilities owned by a state 26007
institution to the conduit entity for consideration deemed 26008
adequate by the state institution;26009

       (2) The lease of the conveyed property by the conduit entity 26010
to the independent funding source and leaseback of the conveyed 26011
property to the conduit entity for a term not to exceed 26012
ninety-nine years; 26013

       (3) Such other terms and conditions that may be negotiated 26014
and agreed upon by the parties, including, but not limited to, 26015
terms regarding:26016

       (a) Payment to the state institution by the conduit entity of 26017
revenues received by it from the operations of the conveyed 26018
property in excess of the payments it is required to make to the 26019
independent funding source under the lease-leaseback arrangement 26020
described in division (C)(2) of this section;26021

       (b) Pledge, assignment, or creation of a lien in favor of the 26022
independent funding source by the conduit entity of any revenues 26023
derived from the conveyed property;26024

       (c) Reverter or conveyance of title to the conveyed property 26025
to the state institution when the conveyed property is no longer 26026
subject to a lease with the independent funding source.26027

       (4) Terms and conditions required by the chancellor or the 26028
controlling board as a condition of approval of the financing 26029
agreement. 26030

       (D) The state institution and the conduit entity may enter 26031
into such other management agreements or other contracts regarding 26032
the conveyed property the parties deem appropriate, including 26033
agreements pursuant to which the state institution may maintain or 26034
administer the conveyed property and collect and disburse revenues 26035
from the conveyed property on behalf of the conduit entity.26036

       (E) The parties may modify or extend the term of the 26037
financing agreement with the approval of the chancellor and the 26038
controlling board.26039

       (F) The conveyed property shall retain its exemption from 26040
property taxes and assessments as though title to the conveyed 26041
property were held by the state institution during any part of a 26042
tax year that title is held by the state institution or the 26043
conduit entity and, if held by the conduit entity, remains subject 26044
to the lease-leaseback arrangement described in division (C)(2) of 26045
this section. However, as a condition of the continued exemption 26046
of the conveyed property during the term of the lease-leaseback 26047
arrangement the conduit entity shall apply for and maintain the 26048
exemption as provided by law.26049

       (G) Nothing in this section is intended to abrogate, amend, 26050
limit, or replace any existing authority state institutions may 26051
have with respect to the conveyance, lease, lease-leaseback, 26052
finance, or acquisition of auxiliary facilities including, but not 26053
limited to, authority granted under sections 3345.07, 3345.11, and 26054
3345.12 of the Revised Code.26055

       Sec. 3345.69.  (A) As used in this section:26056

       (1) "State institution of higher education" has the same 26057
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.26058

       (2) "Board of trustees of a state institution of higher 26059
education" has the same meaning as in section 3345.61 of the 26060
Revised Code.26061

       (B) The chairperson of the interuniversity council of Ohio 26062
and the secretary of the Ohio association of community colleges 26063
shall assist in coordinating the organization and operation of a 26064
committee to carry out this section. The committee shall be 26065
comprised of the presidents of the state institutions of higher 26066
education or their designees. The committee, in consultation with 26067
the office of energy services of the department of administrative 26068
servicesOhio facilities construction commission, shall develop 26069
guidelines for the board of trustees of each state institution of 26070
higher education to use in ensuring energy efficiency and 26071
conservation in on- and off-campus buildings. Initial guidelines 26072
shall be adopted not later than ninety days after the effective 26073
date of this section. At a minimum, guidelines under this section 26074
shall do all of the following:26075

       (1) Include a goal to reduce on- and off-campus building 26076
energy consumption by at least twenty per cent by 2014, using 26077
calendar year 2004 as the benchmark year, while recognizing the 26078
diverse nature and different energy demands and uses of such 26079
buildings and measures already taken to increase building energy 26080
efficiency and conservation;26081

       (2) Prescribe minimum energy efficiency and conservation 26082
standards for any new, on- or off-campus capital improvement 26083
project with a construction cost of one hundred thousand dollars 26084
or more, which standards shall be based on general building type 26085
and cost-effectiveness;26086

       (3) Prescribe minimum energy efficiency and conservation 26087
standards for the leasing of an off-campus space of at least 26088
twenty-thousand square feet;26089

       (4) Incorporate best practices into energy efficiency and 26090
conservation standards and plans;26091

       (5) Provide that each board develop its own fifteen-year plan 26092
for phasing in energy efficiency and conservation projects;26093

       (6) Provide that project impact assessments include the 26094
fiscal effects of energy efficiency and conservation 26095
recommendations and plans;26096

       (7) Establish mechanisms for each board to report 26097
periodically to the committee on its progress relative to the 26098
guidelines.26099

       (C) The board of trustees of a state institution of higher 26100
education shall adopt rules under section 111.15 of the Revised 26101
Code to carry out the guidelines established pursuant to division 26102
(B) of this section, including in the execution of the board's 26103
authority under sections 3345.62 to 3345.66 of the Revised Code.26104

       Sec. 3345.692.  (A) Not later than September 15, 2010, and 26105
the fifteenth day of September each year thereafter, a state 26106
institution of higher education shall prepare and submit to the 26107
chancellor of the board of regents a report that describes the 26108
number and types of biobased products purchased under section 26109
125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount of money spent by the 26110
state institution of higher education for those biobased products.26111

       (B) Not later than September 30, 2010, and the thirtieth day 26112
of September each year thereafter, the chancellor of the board of 26113
regents shall prepare and submit to the governor, the president of 26114
the senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives a 26115
report that describes the number and types of biobased products 26116
purchased under section 125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount 26117
of money spent by state institutions of higher education for those 26118
biobased products as that information is provided to the 26119
chancellor under division (A) of this section.26120

       (C) As used in this section, "state institution of higher 26121
education" has the same meaning as in section 3345.011 of the 26122
Revised Code.26123

       Sec. 3347.03.  Each commission created by section 3347.01 of 26124
the Revised Code may acquire property of any kind by purchase, 26125
gift, or devise and hold and use any such property, or may use 26126
state lands at their respective universities upon consent of the 26127
respective boards of trustees thereof, for the erection, 26128
remodeling, or improving and equipping of buildings for suitable 26129
housing, dormitory, dining hall, and recreational accommodations, 26130
referred to as "buildings" in sections 3347.03 to 3347.08 of the 26131
Revised Code, for students, instructors, members of the faculty, 26132
the administration and maintenance staff of the universities with 26133
which each commission is identified, and their families. The 26134
construction, remodeling, or improving of any such buildings shall 26135
be in accordance with plans and specifications approved by the 26136
commission and with sections 153.01 and 153.04 to 153.20 of the 26137
Revised Code, except that the commission may act in all instances 26138
where the department of administrative servicesOhio facilities 26139
construction commission is mentioned in such sections.26140

       Sec. 3356.10.  During the five-year period after the 26141
effective date of this section, the governor may execute deeds in 26142
the name of the state conveying to one or more purchasers and the 26143
purchasers' heirs and assigns or successors and assigns all of the 26144
state's right, title, and interest in any or all parcels of real 26145
estate held for the use and benefit of Youngstown state university 26146
and located in the city of Youngstown, Mahoning county, in an area 26147
known as "smokey hollow" and bounded on the north by the 26148
east-bound service road of the Madison avenue expressway, on the 26149
east by Andrews avenue, on the south by Rayen avenue, and on the 26150
west by Wick avenue. The parcel or parcels of real estate may be 26151
transferred individually or as a group or multiple groups to a 26152
single purchaser or to multiple purchasers.26153

        The consideration for conveyance of the parcel or parcels of 26154
real estate shall be a purchase price and any terms and conditions 26155
acceptable to the board of trustees of Youngstown state 26156
university. The consideration may include in whole or in part the 26157
benefit that will inure to the university and the students 26158
attending the university from development of a mixed-use urban 26159
neighborhood that will provide convenient housing, retail outlets, 26160
parks, and employment opportunities on a site adjacent to the 26161
university's core campus.26162

        All costs of the conveyance of the parcel or parcels of real 26163
estate shall be paid by the board of trustees of the Youngstown 26164
state university unless otherwise specified in the agreement for 26165
transfer of the property.26166

       Upon adoption of a resolution by the board of trustees of 26167
Youngstown state university specifically describing the parcel or 26168
parcels of real estate to be conveyed, identifying the purchaser 26169
or purchasers of the real estate, and specifying the consideration 26170
paid or to be paid, the auditor of state, with the assistance of 26171
the attorney general, shall prepare a deed or deeds to the parcel 26172
or parcels of real estate described in the resolution. The deed or 26173
deeds shall state the consideration specified in the resolution. 26174
The deed or deeds shall be executed by the governor in the name of 26175
the state, countersigned by the secretary of state, sealed with 26176
the great seal of the state, presented in the office of the 26177
auditor of state for recording, and delivered to the purchaser or 26178
purchasers. The purchaser or purchasers shall present the deed or 26179
deeds for recording in the office of the Mahoning county recorder.26180

        Each deed to any property described in this section shall 26181
contain any exceptions, reservations, or conditions and any right 26182
of reentry or reverter clause specified in the resolution. Any 26183
exceptions, reservations, or conditions or any right of reentry or 26184
reverter clause contained in any deed authorized by this section 26185
may be released by the university without the necessity of further 26186
legislation, provided the release is specifically authorized by 26187
the board of trustees of Youngstown state university.26188

        The net proceeds of the sale of the parcel or parcels of real 26189
estate shall be paid to Youngstown state university and deposited 26190
in university accounts for purposes to be determined by the board 26191
of trustees.26192

       Sec. 3366.05.  The issuing authority, as an eligible 26193
not-for-profit holder of federal education loans, may act as an 26194
eligible not-for-profit servicer of certain student loans owned by 26195
the federal government under Section 2212 of the "Health Care and 26196
Education Reconciliation Act of 2010," Pub. L. No. 111-152. The 26197
issuing authority is authorized to take such actions and to enter 26198
into such contracts and to execute all instruments necessary or 26199
appropriate to act as an eligible not-for-profit servicer. 26200
Notwithstanding division (C) of section 3366.03 and division (B) 26201
of section 3366.04 of the Revised Code, revenues received by the 26202
issuing authority under this section shall be deposited in an 26203
account in the custody of the treasurer of state that is not part 26204
of the state treasury and shall be used to pay administrative 26205
costs incurred by the issuing authority. Unexpended amounts shall 26206
be deposited in the state treasury and credited to the treasurer 26207
of state's administrative fund created under section 113.20 of the 26208
Revised Code.26209

       Sec. 3375.405.  (A) As used in this section, "energy 26210
conservation measure" means the construction of, installation or 26211
modification of an installation in, or remodeling of, a new or 26212
existing building, to reduce energy consumption. It includes:26213

       (1) Insulation of the building structure and of systems 26214
within the building;26215

       (2) Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, 26216
heat-absorbing or heat-reflective glazed and coated window and 26217
door systems, additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and 26218
other window and door system modifications that reduce energy 26219
consumption;26220

       (3) Automatic energy control systems;26221

       (4) Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning system 26222
modifications or replacements;26223

       (5) Caulking and weather-stripping;26224

       (6) Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to 26225
increase the energy efficiency of the system without increasing 26226
the overall illumination of a facility, unless such an increase in 26227
illumination is necessary to conform to the applicable state or 26228
local building code for the proposed lighting system;26229

       (7) Energy recovery systems;26230

       (8) Cogeneration systems that produce steam or forms of 26231
energy such as heat, as well as electricity, for use primarily 26232
within a building or complex of buildings;26233

       (9) Acquiring, constructing, furnishing, equipping, improving 26234
the site of, or otherwise improving a central utility plant to 26235
provide heating and cooling services to a building together with 26236
distribution piping and ancillary distribution controls, 26237
equipment, and related facilities from the central utility plant 26238
to the building; and26239

       (10) Any other construction, modification, installation, or 26240
remodeling approved by a board of library trustees as an energy 26241
conservation measure.26242

       (B) For the purpose of evaluating library buildings for 26243
energy conservation measures, a board of library trustees 26244
appointed pursuant to section 3375.06, 3375.10, 3375.12, 3375.15, 26245
3375.22, or 3375.30 of the Revised Code may contract with an 26246
architect, professional engineer, energy services company, 26247
contractor, or other person experienced in the design and 26248
implementation of energy conservation measures for an energy 26249
conservation report. Such a report shall include all of the 26250
following:26251

       (1) Analyses of the energy needs of library buildings and 26252
recommendations for building installations, modifications of 26253
existing installations, or building remodeling that would 26254
significantly reduce energy consumption in the buildings;26255

       (2) Estimates of all costs of the recommended installations, 26256
modifications, or remodeling, including costs of design, 26257
engineering, installation, maintenance, and repair;26258

       (3) Estimates of the amounts by which energy consumption 26259
could be reduced;26260

       (4) The interest rate used to estimate the costs of any 26261
energy conservation measures that are to be financed by the 26262
library;26263

       (5) The average system life of the energy conservation 26264
measures;26265

       (6) Estimates of the likely savings that will result from the 26266
reduction in energy consumption over the average system life of 26267
the energy conservation measures, including the methods used to 26268
estimate the savings; and26269

       (7) A certification under the seal of a registered 26270
professional engineer that the energy conservation report uses 26271
reasonable methods of analysis and estimation.26272

       (C)(1) A board of library trustees appointed pursuant to 26273
section 3375.06, 3375.10, 3375.12, 3375.15, 3375.22, or 3375.30 of 26274
the Revised Code desiring to implement energy conservation 26275
measures may proceed under any of the following methods:26276

       (a) Procure the energy conservation measures in any manner 26277
authorized by existing authority.26278

       (b) Advertise for bids using an energy conservation report or 26279
any part of an energy conservation report prepared under division 26280
(B) of this section, and, except as otherwise provided in this 26281
section, comply with competitive bidding requirements applicable 26282
to the board of library trustees.26283

       (c) Notwithstanding any requirement in the Revised Code that 26284
requires competitive bidding or specifies bidding procedures, 26285
request proposals from at least three vendors for the 26286
implementation of energy conservation measures. A request for 26287
proposals shall require the vendor that is awarded a contract 26288
under division (C)(2)(b) of this section to prepare an energy 26289
conservation report in accordance with division (B) of this 26290
section.26291

       Prior to sending any vendor a copy of any request for 26292
proposals, the board of library trustees shall advertise its 26293
intent to request proposals for the installation of energy 26294
conservation measures in a newspaper of general circulation within 26295
the territorial boundaries of the political subdivision or 26296
district over which it has jurisdiction of free public library 26297
services once a week for two consecutive weeks. The notice shall 26298
state that the board of trustees intends to request proposals for 26299
the installation of energy conservation measures, indicate the 26300
date on which the request for proposals will be mailed to vendors, 26301
which shall be at least ten days after the second publication in 26302
the newspaper, and state that any vendor interested in receiving 26303
the request for proposals shall submit written notice to the board 26304
of library trustees not later than noon of the day on which the 26305
request for proposals is to be mailed.26306

       (2)(a) Upon receiving bids under division (C)(1)(b) of this 26307
section, the board of library trustees shall analyze them and 26308
select the lowest and best bid or bids most likely to result in 26309
the greatest energy savings considering the cost of the project 26310
and the board of library trustees' ability to pay for the 26311
improvements with current revenues or by financing the 26312
improvements.26313

       (b) Upon receiving proposals under division (C)(1)(c) of this 26314
section, the board of library trustees shall analyze the proposals 26315
and the vendors' qualifications and select the most qualified 26316
vendor to prepare an energy conservation report in accordance with 26317
division (B) of this section. After receipt and review of the 26318
energy conservation report, the board of library trustees may 26319
award a contract to the selected vendor to install the energy 26320
conservation measures that are most likely to result in the 26321
greatest energy savings considering the cost of the project and 26322
the board of library trustees' ability to pay for the improvements 26323
with current revenues or by financing the improvements.26324

       (c) The awarding of a contract to install energy conservation 26325
measures under division (C)(2)(a) or (b) of this section shall be 26326
conditioned upon a finding by the board of library trustees that 26327
the amount of money spent on energy conservation measures is not 26328
likely to exceed the amount of money the library would save in 26329
energy, operating, maintenance, and avoided capital costs over the 26330
average system life of the energy conservation measures as 26331
specified in the energy conservation report. In making such a 26332
finding, the board of trustees may take into account the increased 26333
costs due to inflation as shown in the energy conservation report. 26334
Nothing in this division prohibits a board of library trustees 26335
from rejecting all bids or proposals under division (C)(1)(b) or 26336
(c) of this section or from selecting more than one bid or 26337
proposal.26338

       (D) A board of library trustees appointed pursuant to section 26339
3375.06, 3375.10, 3375.12, 3375.15, 3375.22, or 3375.30 of the 26340
Revised Code may contract for the purchase and installation of 26341
energy conservation measures as provided in division (C) of 26342
section 3375.40 of the Revised Code.26343

       Sec. 3383.02.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio cultural 26344
facilities commission. The commission shall engage in and provide 26345
for the development, performance, and presentation or making 26346
available of culture and professional sports and athletics to the 26347
public in this state, and the provision of training or education 26348
in culture, by the exercise of its powers under this chapter, 26349
including the provision, operation, management, and cooperative 26350
use of Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio sports facilities. The 26351
commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of state 26352
government and an instrumentality of the state, performing 26353
essential governmental functions of this state. The carrying out 26354
of the purposes and the exercise by the commission of its powers 26355
conferred by this chapter are essential public functions and 26356
public purposes of the state and of state government. The 26357
commission may, in its own name, sue and be sued, enter into 26358
contracts, and perform all the powers and duties given to it by 26359
this chapter; however, it does not have and shall not exercise the 26360
power of eminent domain.26361

       (B) The commission shall consist of twelve members, nine of 26362
whom shall be voting members and three of whom shall be nonvoting 26363
members. The nine voting members shall be appointed by the 26364
governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, from 26365
different geographical regions of the state. In addition, one of 26366
the voting members shall represent the state architectOhio 26367
facilities construction commission. Not more than five of the 26368
members appointed by the governor shall be affiliated with the 26369
same political party. The nonvoting members shall be the staff 26370
director of the Ohio arts council, a member of the senate 26371
appointed by the president of the senate, and a member of the 26372
house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house.26373

       (C) Of the five initial appointments made by the governor, 26374
one shall be for a term expiring December 31, 1989, two shall be 26375
for terms expiring December 31, 1990, and two shall be for terms 26376
expiring December 31, 1991. Of the initial appointments of the 26377
sixth and seventh voting members made by the governor, one shall 26378
be for a term expiring December 31, 2003, and one shall be for a 26379
term expiring December 31, 2004. Of the initial appointments of 26380
the eighth and ninth voting members made by the governor, one 26381
shall be for a term expiring December 31, 2007, and one shall be 26382
for a term expiring December 31, 2008. These voting members shall 26383
be appointed within sixty days after the effective date of this 26384
amendmentSeptember 29, 2005. Thereafter, each such term shall be 26385
for three years, commencing on the first day of January and ending 26386
on the thirty-first day of December. Each appointment by the 26387
president of the senate and by the speaker of the house of 26388
representatives shall be for the balance of the then legislative 26389
biennium. Each member shall hold office from the date of the 26390
member's appointment until the end of the term for which the 26391
member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy 26392
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 26393
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 26394
remainder of such term. Any member shall continue in office 26395
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 26396
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 26397
has elapsed, whichever occurs first.26398

       (D) Members of the commission shall serve without 26399
compensation.26400

       (E) Organizational meetings of the commission shall be held 26401
at the first meeting of each calendar year. At each organizational 26402
meeting, the commission shall elect from among its voting members 26403
a chairperson, a vice-chairperson, and a secretary-treasurer, who 26404
shall serve until the next annual meeting. The commission shall 26405
adopt rules pursuant to section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the 26406
conduct of its internal business and shall keep a journal of its 26407
proceedings.26408

       (F) Five voting members of the commission constitute a 26409
quorum, and the affirmative vote of five members is necessary for 26410
approval of any action taken by the commission. A vacancy in the 26411
membership of the commission does not impair a quorum from 26412
exercising all the rights and performing all the duties of the 26413
commission. Meetings of the commission may be held anywhere in the 26414
state, and shall be held in compliance with section 121.22 of the 26415
Revised Code.26416

       (G) All expenses incurred in carrying out this chapter are 26417
payable solely from money accrued under this chapter or 26418
appropriated for these purposes by the general assembly, and the 26419
commission shall incur no liability or obligation beyond such 26420
money.26421

       (H) The commission shall file an annual report of its 26422
activities and finances with the governor, director of budget and 26423
management, speaker of the house of representatives, president of 26424
the senate, and chairpersons of the house and senate finance 26425
committees.26426

       (I) There is hereby established in the state treasury the 26427
Ohio cultural facilities commission administration fund. All 26428
revenues of the commission shall be credited to that fund and to 26429
any accounts created in that fund with the commission's approval. 26430
All expenses of the commission, including reimbursement of, or 26431
payment to, any other fund or any governmental agency for advances 26432
made or services rendered to or on behalf of the commission, shall 26433
be paid from that fund as determined by or pursuant to directions 26434
of the commission. All investment earnings of that fund shall be 26435
credited to it and shall be allocated among any accounts created 26436
in the fund in the manner determined by the commission.26437

       (J) Title to all real property and lesser interests in real 26438
property acquired by the commission, including leasehold and other 26439
interests, pursuant to this chapter shall be taken in the name of 26440
the state and shall be held for the use and benefit of the 26441
commission. The commission shall not mortgage such real property 26442
and interests in real property. Title to other property and 26443
interests in it acquired by the commission pursuant to this 26444
chapter shall be taken in its name.26445

       Sec. 3383.07.  (A) The department of administrative services26446
Ohio facilities construction commission shall provide for the 26447
construction of a cultural project in conformity with Chapter 153. 26448
of the Revised Code, except as follows:26449

       (1) For a cultural project other than a state historical 26450
facility, construction services may be provided on behalf of the 26451
state by the Ohio cultural facilities commission, or by a 26452
governmental agency or a cultural organization that occupies, will 26453
occupy, or is responsible for the Ohio cultural facility, as 26454
determined by the Ohio cultural facilities commission. For a 26455
project receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 26456
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 26457
its executive director the authority to approve the provision of 26458
construction services by such an agency or organization, but not 26459
the authority to disapprove that provision. Construction services 26460
to be provided by a governmental agency or a cultural organization 26461
shall be specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural 26462
facilities commission and the governmental agency or cultural 26463
organization. The agreement, or any actions taken under it, are 26464
not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except 26465
for sections 123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be 26466
subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.26467

       (2) For a cultural project that is a state historical 26468
facility, construction services may be provided by the Ohio 26469
cultural facilities commission or by a cultural organization that 26470
occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the facility, as 26471
determined by the Ohio cultural facilities commission. For a 26472
facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 26473
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 26474
its executive director the authority to approve the provision of 26475
construction services by such an organization, but not the 26476
authority to disapprove that provision. The construction services 26477
to be provided by the cultural organization shall be specified in 26478
an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities commission and 26479
the cultural organization. That agreement, and any actions taken 26480
under it, are not subject to Chapter 123., 153., or 4115. of the 26481
Revised Code.26482

       (B) For an Ohio sports facility that is financed in part by 26483
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 26484
construction services shall be provided on behalf of the state by 26485
or at the direction of the governmental agency or nonprofit 26486
corporation that will own or be responsible for the management of 26487
the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 26488
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 26489
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities26490
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 26491
approve the provision of construction services by or at the 26492
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 26493
disapprove that provision. Any construction services to be 26494
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation shall 26495
be specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities26496
commission and the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation. 26497
That agreement, and any actions taken under it, are not subject to 26498
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 26499
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 26500
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.26501

       (C) General building services for an Ohio cultural facility 26502
shall be provided by the Ohio cultural facilities commission or by 26503
a cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 26504
responsible for the facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 26505
facilities commission. For a facility receiving a state 26506
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 26507
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 26508
authority to approve the provision of general building services by 26509
such an organization, but not the authority to disapprove that 26510
provision. Alternatively, the Ohio building authority may elect to 26511
provide those services for Ohio cultural facilities financed with 26512
proceeds of state bonds issued by the authority. The costs of 26513
management and general building services shall be paid by the 26514
cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 26515
responsible for the facility as provided in an agreement between 26516
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the cultural 26517
organization, except that the state may pay for general building 26518
services for state-owned cultural facilities constructed on 26519
state-owned land.26520

       General building services for an Ohio sports facility shall 26521
be provided by or at the direction of the governmental agency or 26522
nonprofit corporation that will be responsible for the management 26523
of the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities26524
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 26525
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities26526
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 26527
approve the provision of general building services by or at the 26528
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 26529
disapprove that provision. Any general building services to be 26530
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation for an 26531
Ohio sports facility shall be specified in an agreement between 26532
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the governmental 26533
agency or nonprofit corporation. That agreement, and any actions 26534
taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the 26535
Revised Code, except for sections 123.081 and 153.011 of the 26536
Revised Code, and shall be subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised 26537
Code.26538

       (D) This division does not apply to a state historical 26539
facility. No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 26540
be spent on the construction of any cultural project under this 26541
chapter unless, with respect to the cultural project and to the 26542
Ohio cultural facility related to the project, all of the 26543
following apply:26544

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 26545
that there is a need for the cultural project and the Ohio 26546
cultural facility related to the project in the region of the 26547
state in which the Ohio cultural facility is located or for which 26548
the facility is proposed. For a project receiving a state 26549
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 26550
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 26551
authority to determine need but only in the affirmative.26552

       (2) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 26553
that, as an indication of substantial regional support for the 26554
cultural project, the cultural organization has made provision 26555
satisfactory to the Ohio cultural facilities commission, in its 26556
sole discretion, for local contributions amounting to not less 26557
than fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 26558
project. For a project receiving a state appropriation of fifty 26559
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 26560
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 26561
the adequacy of the regional support but only in the affirmative.26562

       (3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 26563
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 26564
construction of the cultural project, or for rental payments 26565
relating to the financing of the construction of the cultural 26566
project. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, for 26567
planning the cultural project does not constitute authorization to 26568
spend money on, or an appropriation for, construction of the 26569
cultural project.26570

       (E) No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 26571
be spent on the construction of any state historical facility 26572
under this chapter unless the general assembly has specifically 26573
authorized the spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, 26574
the construction of the state historical project related to the 26575
facility, or for rental payments relating to the financing of the 26576
construction of the state historical project. Authorization to 26577
spend money, or an appropriation, for planning the state 26578
historical project does not constitute authorization to spend 26579
money on, or an appropriation for, the construction of the state 26580
historical project.26581

       (F) State funds shall not be used to pay or reimburse more 26582
than fifteen per cent of the initial estimated construction cost 26583
of an Ohio sports facility, excluding any site acquisition cost, 26584
and no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall be 26585
spent on any Ohio sports facility under this chapter unless, with 26586
respect to that facility, all of the following apply:26587

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 26588
that there is a need for the facility in the region of the state 26589
for which the facility is proposed to provide the function of an 26590
Ohio sports facility as provided for in this chapter. For a 26591
facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 26592
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 26593
its executive director the authority to determine need but only in 26594
the affirmative.26595

       (2) As an indication of substantial local support for the 26596
facility, the Ohio cultural facilities commission has received a 26597
financial and development plan satisfactory to it, and provision 26598
has been made, by agreement or otherwise, satisfactory to the Ohio 26599
cultural facilities commission, for a contribution amounting to 26600
not less than eighty-five per cent of the total estimated 26601
construction cost of the facility, excluding any site acquisition 26602
cost, from sources other than the state. For a facility receiving 26603
a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio 26604
cultural facilities commission may delegate to its executive 26605
director the authority to evaluate the financial and development 26606
plan and the contribution and to determine their adequacy but only 26607
in the affirmative.26608

       (3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 26609
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 26610
construction of the facility, or for rental payments relating to 26611
state financing of all or a portion of the costs of constructing 26612
the facility. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, 26613
for planning or determining the feasibility of or need for the 26614
facility does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or 26615
an appropriation for, costs of constructing the facility.26616

       (4) If state bond proceeds are being used for the Ohio sports 26617
facility, the state or a governmental agency owns or has 26618
sufficient property interests in the facility or in the site of 26619
the facility or in the portion or portions of the facility 26620
financed from proceeds of state bonds, which may include, but is 26621
not limited to, the right to use or to require the use of the 26622
facility for the presentation of sport and athletic events to the 26623
public at the facility.26624

       (G) In addition to the requirements of division (F) of this 26625
section, no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 26626
be spent on any Ohio sports facility that is a motorsports 26627
complex, unless, with respect to that facility, both of the 26628
following apply:26629

       (1) Motorsports events shall be presented at the facility 26630
pursuant to a lease entered into with the owner of the facility. 26631
The term of the lease shall be for a period of not less than the 26632
greater of the useful life of the portion of the facility financed 26633
from proceeds of state bonds as determined using the guidelines 26634
for maximum maturities as provided under divisions (B) and (C) of 26635
section 133.20 of the Revised Code, or the period of time 26636
remaining to the date of payment or provision for payment of 26637
outstanding state bonds allocable to costs of the facility, all as 26638
determined by the director of budget and management and certified 26639
by the director to the Ohio cultural facilities commission and to 26640
the treasurer of state. 26641

       (2) Any motorsports organization that commits to using the 26642
facility for an established period of time shall give the 26643
political subdivision in which the facility is located not less 26644
than six months' advance notice if the organization intends to 26645
cease utilizing the facility prior to the expiration of that 26646
established period. Such a motorsports organization shall be 26647
liable to the state for any state funds used on the construction 26648
costs of the facility.26649

       (H) In addition to the requirements of division (F) of this 26650
section, no state bond proceeds shall be spent on any Ohio sports 26651
facility that is a tennis facility, unless the owner or manager of 26652
the facility provides contractual commitments from a national or 26653
international professional tennis organization in a form 26654
acceptable to the cultural facilities commission that assures that 26655
one or more sanctioned professional tennis events will be 26656
presented at the facility during each year that the bonds remain 26657
outstanding.26658

       Sec. 3517.20.  (A)(1) As used in this section:26659

       (a) "Political publication for or against a candidate" means 26660
a notice, placard, advertisement, sample ballot, brochure, flyer, 26661
direct mailer, or other form of general publication that is 26662
designed to promote the nomination, election, or defeat of a 26663
candidate.26664

       (b) "Political publication for or against an issue" means a 26665
notice, placard, advertisement, sample ballot, brochure, flyer, 26666
direct mailer, or other form of general publication that is 26667
designed to promote the adoption or defeat of a ballot issue or 26668
question or to influence the voters in an election.26669

       (c) "Public political advertising" means newspapers, 26670
magazines, outdoor advertising facilities, direct mailings, or 26671
other similar types of general public political advertising, or 26672
flyers, handbills, or other nonperiodical printed matter.26673

       (d) "Statewide candidate" has the same meaning as in section 26674
3517.102 of the Revised Code.26675

       (e) "Legislative candidate" means a candidate for the office 26676
of member of the general assembly.26677

       (f) "Local candidate" means a candidate for an elective 26678
office of a political subdivision of this state.26679

       (g) "Legislative campaign fund" has the same meaning as in 26680
section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.26681

       (h) "Limited political action committee" means a political 26682
action committee of fewer than ten members.26683

       (i) "Limited political contributing entity" means a political 26684
contributing entity of fewer than ten members.26685

        (j) "Designated amount" means one hundred dollars in the case 26686
of a local candidate or a local ballot issue, two hundred fifty 26687
dollars in the case of a legislative candidate, or five hundred 26688
dollars in the case of a statewide candidate or a statewide ballot 26689
issue.26690

       (k) "To issue" includes to print, post, distribute, reproduce 26691
for distribution, or cause to be issued, printed, posted, 26692
distributed, or reproduced for distribution.26693

       (l) "Telephone bank" means more than five hundred telephone 26694
calls of an identical or substantially similar nature within any 26695
thirty-day period, whether those telephone calls are made by 26696
individual callers or by recording.26697

       (2)(a) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign 26698
fund, political party, or other entity, except a political action 26699
committee or, a political contributing entity, or a campaign 26700
committee, shall issue a form of political publication for or 26701
against a candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose 26702
of financing political communications in support of or opposition 26703
to a candidate through public political advertising, unless the 26704
name and residence or business address of the candidate or the 26705
chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the campaign committee,26706
legislative campaign fund, political party, or other entity that 26707
issues or otherwise is responsible for that political publication 26708
or that makes an expenditure for that political communication 26709
appears in a conspicuous place on that political publication or is 26710
contained within that political communication. 26711

       (b) No campaign committee shall issue a form of political 26712
publication for or against a candidate, or shall make an 26713
expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications 26714
in support of or opposition to a candidate through public 26715
political advertising, unless the name of the campaign committee 26716
appears in a conspicuous place on that political publication or is 26717
contained within that political communication.26718

       (3) No limited political action committee or limited 26719
political contributing entity shall do either of the following 26720
unless the name and residence or business address of the 26721
chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the limited political 26722
action committee or limited political contributing entity involved 26723
appears in a conspicuous place in the political publication for or 26724
against a candidate described in division (A)(3)(a) of this 26725
section or is contained within the political communication 26726
described in division (A)(3)(b) of this section:26727

       (a) Issue a form of political publication for or against a 26728
candidate that costs in excess of the designated amount or that is 26729
issued in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the 26730
request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a 26731
legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action 26732
committee with ten or more members, a political contributing 26733
entity with ten or more members, or a limited political action 26734
committee or limited political contributing entity that spends in 26735
excess of the designated amount on a related or the same or 26736
similar political publication for or against a candidate;26737

       (b) Make an expenditure in excess of the designated amount in 26738
support of or opposition to a candidate or make an expenditure in 26739
cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request or 26740
suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative 26741
campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee 26742
with ten or more members, a political contributing entity with ten 26743
or more members, or a limited political action committee or 26744
limited political contributing entity that spends in excess of the 26745
designated amount in support of or opposition to the same 26746
candidate, for the purpose of financing political communications 26747
in support of or opposition to that candidate through public 26748
political advertising.26749

       (4) No political action committee with ten or more members 26750
and no political contributing entity with ten or more members 26751
shall issue a form of political publication for or against a 26752
candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of 26753
financing political communications in support of or opposition to 26754
a candidate through public political advertising, unless the name 26755
and residence or business address of the chairperson, treasurer, 26756
or secretary of the political action committee or political 26757
contributing entity that issues or otherwise is responsible for 26758
that political publication or that makes an expenditure for that 26759
political communication through public political advertising 26760
appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is 26761
contained within that political communication.26762

       (5)(a) No corporation, labor organization, campaign 26763
committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, or other 26764
entity, except a political action committee or a campaign 26765
committee, shall issue a form of political publication for or 26766
against an issue, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of 26767
financing political communications in support of or opposition to 26768
a ballot issue or question through public political advertising, 26769
unless the name and residence or business address of the 26770
chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the corporation, labor 26771
organization, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, 26772
political party, or other entity that issues or otherwise is 26773
responsible for that political publication or that makes an 26774
expenditure for that political communication through public 26775
political advertising appears in a conspicuous place in that 26776
political publication or is contained within that political 26777
communication.26778

       (b) No campaign committee shall issue a form of political 26779
publication for or against an issue, or shall make an expenditure 26780
for the purpose of financing political communications in support 26781
of or opposition to a ballot issue or question through public 26782
political advertising, unless the name of the campaign committee 26783
appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is 26784
contained within that political communication.26785

       (6) No limited political action committee shall do either of 26786
the following unless the name and residence or business address of 26787
the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the limited political 26788
action committee involved appears in a conspicuous place in the 26789
political publication for or against a ballot issue described in 26790
division (A)(6)(a) of this section or is contained within the 26791
political communication described in division (A)(6)(b) of this 26792
section:26793

       (a) Issue a form of political publication for or against a 26794
ballot issue that costs in excess of the designated amount or that 26795
is issued in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the 26796
request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a 26797
legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action 26798
committee with ten or more members, or a limited political action 26799
committee that spends in excess of the designated amount for a 26800
related or the same or similar political publication for or 26801
against an issue;26802

       (b) Make an expenditure in excess of the designated amount in 26803
support of or opposition to a ballot issue or make an expenditure 26804
in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request 26805
or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative 26806
campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee 26807
with ten or more members, or a limited political action committee 26808
that spends in excess of the designated amount in support of or 26809
opposition to the same ballot issue, for the purpose of financing 26810
political communications in support of or opposition to that 26811
ballot issue through public political advertising.26812

       (7) No political action committee with ten or more members 26813
shall issue a form of political publication for or against an 26814
issue, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing 26815
political communications in support of or opposition to a ballot 26816
issue or question through public political advertising, unless the 26817
name and residence or business address of the chairperson, 26818
treasurer, or secretary of the political action committee that 26819
issues or otherwise is responsible for that political publication 26820
or that makes an expenditure for that political communication 26821
appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is 26822
contained within that political communication.26823

       (8) The disclaimer "paid political advertisement" is not 26824
sufficient to meet the requirements of this section. 26825

       (9) If the political publication described in division (A) of 26826
this section is issued by the regularly constituted central or 26827
executive committee of a political party that is organized as 26828
provided in this chapter, it shall be sufficiently identified if 26829
it bears the name of the committee and its chairperson or 26830
treasurer. 26831

       (10) If more than one piece of printed matter or printed 26832
political communications are mailed as a single packet, the 26833
requirements of division (A) of this section are met if one of the 26834
pieces of printed matter or printed political communications in 26835
the packet contains the name and residence or business address of 26836
the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the organization or 26837
entity that issues or is responsible for the printed matter or 26838
other printed political communications, except that if a campaign 26839
committee mails more than one piece of printed matter or printed 26840
political communications as a single packet, the requirements of 26841
division (A) of this section are met if one of the pieces of 26842
printed matter or printed political communications in the packet 26843
contains the name of the campaign committee.26844

       (11) This section does not apply to the transmittal of 26845
personal correspondence that is not reproduced by machine for 26846
general distribution.26847

       (12) The secretary of state, by rule, may exempt from the 26848
requirements of this section, printed matter and certain other 26849
kinds of printed communications such as campaign buttons, 26850
balloons, pencils, or similar items, the size or nature of which 26851
makes it unreasonable to add an identification or disclaimer. 26852

       (13) The disclaimer or identification described in division 26853
(A) of this section, when paid for by a campaign committee, shall 26854
be identified by the words "paid for by" followed by the name and 26855
address of the campaign committee and the appropriate officer of 26856
the committee, identified by name and title. The identification or 26857
disclaimer may use reasonable abbreviations for common terms such 26858
as "treasurer" or "committee".26859

       (B)(1) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign 26860
fund, political party, political action committee, limited 26861
political action committee, political contributing entity, limited 26862
political contributing entity, or other entity shall utter or 26863
cause to be uttered, over the broadcasting facilities of any radio 26864
or television station within this state, any communication that is 26865
designed to promote the nomination, election, or defeat of a 26866
candidate, or the adoption or defeat of an issue or to influence 26867
the voters in an election, unless the speaker identifies the 26868
speaker with the speaker's name and residence address or unless 26869
the communication identifies the chairperson, treasurer, or 26870
secretary of the organization responsible for the communication 26871
with the name and residence or business address of that officer, 26872
except that communications by radio need not broadcast the 26873
residence or business address of the officer. However, a radio 26874
station, for a period of at least six months, shall keep the 26875
residence or business address on file and divulge it to any person 26876
upon request.26877

       No person operating a broadcast station or an organ of 26878
printed media shall broadcast or print a paid political 26879
communication that does not contain the identification required by 26880
this section.26881

       (2) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any 26882
communications made on behalf of a radio or television station or 26883
network by any employee of such radio or television station or 26884
network while acting in the course of the employee's employment.26885

       (3) No candidate or entity described in division (B)(1) of 26886
this section shall use or cause to be used a false, fictitious, or 26887
fraudulent name or address in the making or issuing of a 26888
publication or communication included within the provisions of 26889
this section.26890

       (C) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign 26891
fund, political party, political action committee, limited 26892
political action committee, political contributing entity, limited 26893
political contributing entity, or other person or entity shall 26894
conduct a telephone bank for the purpose of promoting the 26895
nomination, election, or defeat of a candidate or the adoption or 26896
defeat of an issue or to influence the voters in an election, 26897
unless the call includes a disclaimer that identifies the name of 26898
the candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, 26899
political party, political action committee, limited political 26900
action committee, political contributing entity, limited political 26901
contributing entity, or other person or entity paying for the 26902
telephone bank.26903

        (D) Before a prosecution may commence under this section, a 26904
complaint shall be filed with the Ohio elections commission under 26905
section 3517.153 of the Revised Code. After the complaint is 26906
filed, the commission shall proceed in accordance with sections 26907
3517.154 to 3517.157 of the Revised Code.26908

       Sec. 3701.021.  (A) The publicdirector of health council26909
shall adopt, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 26910
such rules as are necessary to carry out sections 3701.021 to 26911
3701.0210 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, 26912
rules to establish the following:26913

       (1) Medical and financial eligibility requirements for the 26914
program for medically handicapped children;26915

       (2) Eligibility requirements for providers of services for 26916
medically handicapped children;26917

       (3) Procedures to be followed by the department of health in 26918
disqualifying providers for violating requirements adopted under 26919
division (A)(2) of this section;26920

       (4) Procedures to be used by the department regarding 26921
application for diagnostic services under division (B) of section 26922
3701.023 of the Revised Code and payment for those services under 26923
division (E) of that section;26924

       (5) Standards for the provision of service coordination by 26925
the department of health and city and general health districts;26926

       (6) Procedures for the department to use to determine the 26927
amount to be paid annually by each county for services for 26928
medically handicapped children and to allow counties to retain 26929
funds under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of section 3701.024 of the 26930
Revised Code;26931

       (7) Financial eligibility requirements for services for Ohio 26932
residents twenty-one years of age or older who have cystic 26933
fibrosis;26934

       (8) Criteria for payment of approved providers who provide 26935
services for medically handicapped children;26936

       (9) Criteria for the department to use in determining whether 26937
the payment of health insurance premiums of participants in the 26938
program for medically handicapped children is cost-effective;26939

       (10) Procedures for appeal of denials of applications under 26940
divisions (A) and (D) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, 26941
disqualification of providers, and amounts paid for services;26942

       (11) Terms of appointment for members of the medically 26943
handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 26944
3701.025 of the Revised Code;26945

       (12) Eligibility requirements for the hemophilia program, 26946
including income and hardship requirements;26947

       (13) If a manufacturer discount program is established under 26948
division (J)(1) of section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, 26949
procedures for administering the program, including criteria and 26950
other requirements for participation in the program by 26951
manufacturers of drugs and nutritional formulas.26952

       (B) The department of health shall develop a manual of 26953
operational procedures and guidelines for the program for 26954
medically handicapped children to implement sections 3701.021 to 26955
3701.0210 of the Revised Code.26956

       Sec. 3701.023.  (A) The department of health shall review 26957
applications for eligibility for the program for medically 26958
handicapped children that are submitted to the department by city 26959
and general health districts and physician providers approved in 26960
accordance with division (C) of this section. The department shall 26961
determine whether the applicants meet the medical and financial 26962
eligibility requirements established by the publicdirector of26963
health council pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 3701.021 of 26964
the Revised Code, and by the department in the manual of 26965
operational procedures and guidelines for the program for 26966
medically handicapped children developed pursuant to division (B) 26967
of that section. Referrals of potentially eligible children for 26968
the program may be submitted to the department on behalf of the 26969
child by parents, guardians, public health nurses, or any other 26970
interested person. The department of health may designate other 26971
agencies to refer applicants to the department of health.26972

       (B) In accordance with the procedures established in rules 26973
adopted under division (A)(4) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 26974
Code, the department of health shall authorize a provider or 26975
providers to provide to any Ohio resident under twenty-one years 26976
of age, without charge to the resident or the resident's family 26977
and without restriction as to the economic status of the resident 26978
or the resident's family, diagnostic services necessary to 26979
determine whether the resident has a medically handicapping or 26980
potentially medically handicapping condition.26981

       (C) The department of health shall review the applications of 26982
health professionals, hospitals, medical equipment suppliers, and 26983
other individuals, groups, or agencies that apply to become 26984
providers. The department shall enter into a written agreement 26985
with each applicant who is determined, pursuant to the 26986
requirements set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(2) of 26987
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, to be eligible to be a 26988
provider in accordance with the provider agreement required by the 26989
medical assistance program established under section 5111.01 of 26990
the Revised Code. No provider shall charge a medically handicapped 26991
child or the child's parent or guardian for services authorized by 26992
the department under division (B) or (D) of this section.26993

       The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 26994
division (A)(3) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may 26995
disqualify any provider from further participation in the program 26996
for violating any requirement set forth in rules adopted under 26997
division (A)(2) of that section. The disqualification shall not 26998
take effect until a written notice, specifying the requirement 26999
violated and describing the nature of the violation, has been 27000
delivered to the provider and the department has afforded the 27001
provider an opportunity to appeal the disqualification under 27002
division (H) of this section.27003

       (D) The department of health shall evaluate applications from 27004
city and general health districts and approved physician providers 27005
for authorization to provide treatment services, service 27006
coordination, and related goods to children determined to be 27007
eligible for the program for medically handicapped children 27008
pursuant to division (A) of this section. The department shall 27009
authorize necessary treatment services, service coordination, and 27010
related goods for each eligible child in accordance with an 27011
individual plan of treatment for the child. As an alternative, the 27012
department may authorize payment of health insurance premiums on 27013
behalf of eligible children when the department determines, in 27014
accordance with criteria set forth in rules adopted under division 27015
(A)(9) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of 27016
the premiums is cost-effective.27017

       (E) The department of health shall pay, from appropriations 27018
to the department, any necessary expenses, including but not 27019
limited to, expenses for diagnosis, treatment, service 27020
coordination, supportive services, transportation, and accessories 27021
and their upkeep, provided to medically handicapped children, 27022
provided that the provision of the goods or services is authorized 27023
by the department under division (B) or (D) of this section. Money 27024
appropriated to the department of health may also be expended for 27025
reasonable administrative costs incurred by the program. The 27026
department of health also may purchase liability insurance 27027
covering the provision of services under the program for medically 27028
handicapped children by physicians and other health care 27029
professionals.27030

       Payments made to providers by the department of health 27031
pursuant to this division for inpatient hospital care, outpatient 27032
care, and all other medical assistance furnished to eligible 27033
recipients shall be made in accordance with rules adopted by the 27034
publicdirector of health council pursuant to division (A) of 27035
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.27036

       The departments of health and job and family services shall 27037
jointly implement procedures to ensure that duplicate payments are 27038
not made under the program for medically handicapped children and 27039
the medical assistance program established under section 5111.01 27040
of the Revised Code and to identify and recover duplicate 27041
payments.27042

       (F) At the time of applying for participation in the program 27043
for medically handicapped children, a medically handicapped child 27044
or the child's parent or guardian shall disclose the identity of 27045
any third party against whom the child or the child's parent or 27046
guardian has or may have a right of recovery for goods and 27047
services provided under division (B) or (D) of this section. The 27048
department of health shall require a medically handicapped child 27049
who receives services from the program or the child's parent or 27050
guardian to apply for all third-party benefits for which the child 27051
may be eligible and require the child, parent, or guardian to 27052
apply all third-party benefits received to the amount determined 27053
under division (E) of this section as the amount payable for goods 27054
and services authorized under division (B) or (D) of this section. 27055
The department is the payer of last resort and shall pay for 27056
authorized goods or services, up to the amount determined under 27057
division (E) of this section for the authorized goods or services, 27058
only to the extent that payment for the authorized goods or 27059
services is not made through third-party benefits. When a third 27060
party fails to act on an application or claim for benefits by a 27061
medically handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian, the 27062
department shall pay for the goods or services only after ninety 27063
days have elapsed since the date the child, parents, or guardians 27064
made an application or claim for all third-party benefits. 27065
Third-party benefits received shall be applied to the amount 27066
determined under division (E) of this section. Third-party 27067
payments for goods and services not authorized under division (B) 27068
or (D) of this section shall not be applied to payment amounts 27069
determined under division (E) of this section. Payment made by the 27070
department shall be considered payment in full of the amount 27071
determined under division (E) of this section. Medicaid payments 27072
for persons eligible for the medical assistance program 27073
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code shall be 27074
considered payment in full of the amount determined under division 27075
(E) of this section.27076

       (G) The department of health shall administer a program to 27077
provide services to Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more 27078
years of age who have cystic fibrosis and who meet the eligibility 27079
requirements established by thein rules ofadopted by the public27080
director of health council pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 27081
3701.021 of the Revised Code, subject to all provisions of this 27082
section, but not subject to section 3701.024 of the Revised Code.27083

       (H) The department of health shall provide for appeals, in 27084
accordance with rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the 27085
Revised Code, of denials of applications for the program for 27086
medically handicapped children under division (A) or (D) of this 27087
section, disqualification of providers, or amounts paid under 27088
division (E) of this section. Appeals under this division are not 27089
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.27090

       The department may designate ombudspersons to assist 27091
medically handicapped children or their parents or guardians, upon 27092
the request of the children, parents, or guardians, in filing 27093
appeals under this division and to serve as children's, parents', 27094
or guardians' advocates in matters pertaining to the 27095
administration of the program for medically handicapped children 27096
and eligibility for program services. The ombudspersons shall 27097
receive no compensation but shall be reimbursed by the department, 27098
in accordance with rules of the office of budget and management, 27099
for their actual and necessary travel expenses incurred in the 27100
performance of their duties.27101

       (I) The department of health, and city and general health 27102
districts providing service coordination pursuant to division 27103
(A)(2) of section 3701.024 of the Revised Code, shall provide 27104
service coordination in accordance with the standards set forth in 27105
the rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, 27106
without charge, and without restriction as to economic status.27107

       (J)(1) The department of health may establish a manufacturer 27108
discount program under which a manufacturer of a drug or 27109
nutritional formula is permitted to enter into an agreement with 27110
the department to provide a discount on the price of the drug or 27111
nutritional formula distributed to medically handicapped children 27112
participating in the program for medically handicapped children. 27113
The program shall be administered in accordance with rules adopted 27114
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.27115

       (2) If a manufacturer enters into an agreement with the 27116
department as described in division (J)(1) of this section, the 27117
manufacturer and the department may negotiate the amount and terms 27118
of the discount.27119

       (3) In lieu of establishing a discount program as described 27120
in division (J)(1) of this section, the department and a 27121
manufacturer of a drug or nutritional formula may discuss a 27122
donation of drugs, nutritional formulas, or money by the 27123
manufacturer to the department.27124

       Sec. 3701.024.  (A)(1) Under a procedure established in rules 27125
adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, the department 27126
of health shall determine the amount each county shall provide 27127
annually for the program for medically handicapped children, based 27128
on a proportion of the county's total general property tax 27129
duplicate, not to exceed one-tenth of a mill, and charge the 27130
county for any part of expenses incurred under the program for 27131
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children 27132
having legal settlement in the county that is not paid from 27133
federal funds or through the medical assistance program 27134
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code. The 27135
department shall not charge the county for expenses exceeding the 27136
difference between the amount determined under division (A)(1) of 27137
this section and any amounts retained under divisions (A)(2) and 27138
(3) of this section.27139

       All amounts collected by the department under division (A)(1) 27140
of this section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the 27141
credit of the medically handicapped children-county assessment 27142
fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be used by the 27143
department to comply with sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the 27144
Revised Code.27145

       (2) The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 27146
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow each county to 27147
retain up to ten per cent of the amount determined under division 27148
(A)(1) of this section to provide funds to city or general health 27149
districts of the county with which the districts shall provide 27150
service coordination, public health nursing, or transportation 27151
services for medically handicapped children.27152

       (3) In addition to any amount retained under division (A)(2) 27153
of this section, the department, in accordance with rules adopted 27154
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow counties 27155
that it determines have significant numbers of potentially 27156
eligible medically handicapped children to retain an amount equal 27157
to the difference between:27158

       (a) Twenty-five per cent of the amount determined under 27159
division (A)(1) of this section;27160

       (b) Any amount retained under division (A)(2) of this 27161
section.27162

       Counties shall use amounts retained under division (A)(3) of 27163
this section to provide funds to city or general health districts 27164
of the county with which the districts shall conduct outreach 27165
activities to increase participation in the program for medically 27166
handicapped children.27167

       (4) Prior to any increase in the millage charged to a county, 27168
the publicdirector of health council shall hold a public hearing 27169
on the proposed increase and shall give notice of the hearing to 27170
each board of county commissioners that would be affected by the 27171
increase at least thirty days prior to the date set for the 27172
hearing. Any county commissioner may appear and give testimony at 27173
the hearing. Any increase in the millage any county is required to 27174
provide for the program for medically handicapped children shall 27175
be determined, and notice of the amount of the increase shall be 27176
provided to each affected board of county commissioners, no later 27177
than the first day of June of the fiscal year next preceding the 27178
fiscal year in which the increase will take effect.27179

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 27180
medically handicapped children's fund and shall appropriate 27181
thereto an amount, determined in accordance with division (A)(1) 27182
of this section, for the county's share in providing medical, 27183
surgical, and other aid to medically handicapped children residing 27184
in such county and for the purposes specified in divisions (A)(2) 27185
and (3) of this section. Each county shall use money retained 27186
under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section only for the 27187
purposes specified in those divisions.27188

       Sec. 3701.025.  There is hereby created the medically 27189
handicapped children's medical advisory council consisting of 27190
twenty-one members to be appointed by the director of health for 27191
terms set in accordance with rules adopted by the public health 27192
councildirector under division (A)(11) of section 3701.021 of the 27193
Revised Code. The medically handicapped children's medical 27194
advisory council shall advise the director regarding the 27195
administration of the program for medically handicapped children, 27196
the suitable quality of medical practice for providers, and the 27197
requirements for medical eligibility for the program.27198

       All members of the council shall be licensed physicians, 27199
surgeons, dentists, and other professionals in the field of 27200
medicine, representative of the various disciplines involved in 27201
the treatment of children with medically handicapping conditions, 27202
and representative of the treatment facilities involved, such as 27203
hospitals, private and public health clinics, and private 27204
physicians' offices, and shall be eligible for the program.27205

       Members of the council shall receive no compensation, but 27206
shall receive their actual and necessary travel expenses incurred 27207
in the performance of their official duties in accordance with the 27208
rules of the office of budget and management.27209

       Sec. 3701.03.  (A) The director of health shall perform 27210
duties that are incident to the director's position as chief 27211
executive officer of the department of health. The director shall 27212
administer the laws relating to health and sanitation and the 27213
rules of the department of health. The director may designate 27214
employees of the department and, during a public health emergency, 27215
other persons to administer the laws and rules on the director's 27216
behalf.27217

       (B) Nothing in this section authorizes any action that 27218
prevents the fulfillment of duties or impairs the exercise of 27219
authority established by law for any other person or entity.27220

       (C) The director shall prepare sanitary and public health 27221
rules for consideration by the public health council and submit to 27222
the council recommendations for new legislation. The director 27223
shall sit at meetings of the council but shall have no vote.27224

       Sec. 3701.05.  The director of health shall keep the public 27225
health council, health officials, and the general public fully 27226
informed in a printed annual report in regard to the work of the 27227
department of health and on the progress that is being made in 27228
studying the cause and prevention of disease and such kindred 27229
subjects as may contribute to the welfare of the people of the 27230
state.27231

       Sec. 3701.07.  (A) The publicdirector of health council27232
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 27233
Code defining and classifying hospitals and dispensaries and 27234
providing for the reporting of information by hospitals and 27235
dispensaries. Except as otherwise provided in the Revised Code, 27236
the rules providing for the reporting of information shall not 27237
require inclusion of any confidential patient data or any 27238
information concerning the financial condition, income, expenses, 27239
or net worth of the facilities other than that financial 27240
information already contained in those portions of the medicare or 27241
medicaid cost report that is necessary for the department of 27242
health to certify the per diem cost under section 3701.62 of the 27243
Revised Code. The rules may require the reporting of information 27244
in the following categories:27245

       (1) Information needed to identify and classify the 27246
institution;27247

       (2) Information on facilities and type and volume of services 27248
provided by the institution;27249

       (3) The number of beds listed by category of care provided;27250

       (4) The number of licensed or certified professional 27251
employees by classification;27252

       (5) The number of births that occurred at the institution the 27253
previous calendar year;27254

       (6) Any other information that the councildirector considers 27255
relevant to the safety of patients served by the institution.27256

       Every hospital and dispensary, public or private, annually 27257
shall register with and report to the department of health. 27258
Reports shall be submitted in the manner prescribed in rules 27259
adopted under this division.27260

       (B) Every governmental entity or private nonprofit 27261
corporation or association whose employees or representatives are 27262
defined as residents' rights advocates under divisions (E)(1) and 27263
(2) of section 3721.10 of the Revised Code shall register with the 27264
department of health on forms furnished by the director of health 27265
and shall provide such reasonable identifying information as the 27266
director may prescribe.27267

       The department shall compile a list of the governmental 27268
entities, corporations, or associations registering under this 27269
division and shall update the list annually. Copies of the list 27270
shall be made available to nursing home administrators as defined 27271
in division (C) of section 3721.10 of the Revised Code and to 27272
adult care facility managers as defined in section 5119.70 of the 27273
Revised Code.27274

       Sec. 3701.072. (A) As used in this chapter:27275

        (1) "Bioterrorism" has the same meaning as in section 27276
3701.232 of the Revised Code.27277

        (2) "Surveillance" in the public health service means the 27278
systematic collection, analysis, interpretation, and dissemination 27279
of health data on an ongoing basis, to gain knowledge of the 27280
pattern of disease occurrence and potential in a community in 27281
order to control and prevent disease in the community.27282

       (3) "Trauma center" has the same meaning as in section 27283
4765.01 of the Revised Code.27284

        (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 27285
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that require a 27286
trauma center to report information to the director of health 27287
describing the trauma center's preparedness and capacity to 27288
respond to disasters, mass casualties, and bioterrorism. The 27289
council'sdirector's rules may require the reporting of any 27290
information the councildirector considers necessary for an 27291
accurate description of a trauma center's preparedness and 27292
capacity to respond to disasters, mass casualties, and 27293
bioterrorism. Information reported pursuant to this division is 27294
not a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.27295

        (C) Upon request, the department of health shall provide a 27296
summary report of the public health council's rules adopted 27297
pursuant to this section.27298

       (D) The director shall review all information received 27299
pursuant to this section. After reviewing the information, the 27300
director may conduct an evaluation of a trauma center's 27301
preparedness and capacity to respond to disasters, mass 27302
casualties, and bioterrorism. An evaluation conducted pursuant to 27303
this division is not a public record under section 149.43 of the 27304
Revised Code.27305

       Sec. 3701.11.  The director of health and the secretary of 27306
the public health council shall have power to administer oaths in 27307
all parts of the state so far as the exercise of such power is 27308
incidental to the performance of the duties of the director or of 27309
the council.27310

       Sec. 3701.132.  The department of health is hereby designated 27311
as the state agency to administer the "special supplemental 27312
nutrition program for women, infants, and children" established 27313
under the "Child Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 27314
1786, as amended. The publicdirector of health council may adopt 27315
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 27316
for administering the program. The rules may include civil money 27317
penalties for violations of the rules.27318

       In determining eligibility for services provided under the 27319
program, the department may use the application form established 27320
under section 5111.013 of the Revised Code for the healthy start 27321
program. The department may require applicants to furnish their 27322
social security numbers.27323

       If the department determines that a vendor has committed an 27324
act with respect to the program that federal statutes or 27325
regulations or state statutes or rules prohibit, the department 27326
shall take action against the vendor in the manner required by 7 27327
C.F.R. part 246, including imposition of a civil money penalty in 27328
accordance with 7 C.F.R. 246.12, or rules adopted under this 27329
section.27330

       Sec. 3701.146. (A) In taking actions regarding tuberculosis, 27331
the director of health has all of the following duties and powers:27332

       (1) The director shall maintain registries of hospitals, 27333
clinics, physicians, or other care providers to whom the director 27334
shall refer persons who make inquiries to the department of health 27335
regarding possible exposure to tuberculosis.27336

       (2) The director shall engage in tuberculosis surveillance 27337
activities, including the collection and analysis of 27338
epidemiological information relative to the frequency of 27339
tuberculosis infection, demographic and geographic distribution of 27340
tuberculosis cases, and trends pertaining to tuberculosis.27341

       (3) The director shall maintain a tuberculosis registry to 27342
record the incidence of tuberculosis in this state.27343

       (4) The director may appoint physicians to serve as 27344
tuberculosis consultants for geographic regions of the state 27345
specified by the director. Each tuberculosis consultant shall act 27346
in accordance with rules the director establishes and shall be 27347
responsible for advising and assisting physicians and other health 27348
care practitioners who participate in tuberculosis control 27349
activities and for reviewing medical records pertaining to the 27350
treatment provided to individuals with tuberculosis.27351

       (B)(1) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 27352
establishing standards for the following:27353

       (a) Performing tuberculosis screenings;27354

       (b) Performing examinations of individuals who have been 27355
exposed to tuberculosis and individuals who are suspected of 27356
having tuberculosis;27357

       (c) Providing treatment to individuals with tuberculosis;27358

       (d) Preventing individuals with communicable tuberculosis 27359
from infecting other individuals;27360

       (e) Performing laboratory tests for tuberculosis and studies 27361
of the resistance of tuberculosis to one or more drugs;27362

       (f) Selecting laboratories that provide in a timely fashion 27363
the results of a laboratory test for tuberculosis. The standards 27364
shall include a requirement that first consideration be given to 27365
laboratories located in this state.27366

       (2) Rules adopted pursuant to this section shall be adopted 27367
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and may be 27368
consistent with any recommendations or guidelines on tuberculosis 27369
issued by the United States centers for disease control and 27370
prevention or by the American thoracic society. The rules shall 27371
apply to county or district tuberculosis control units, physicians 27372
who examine and treat individuals for tuberculosis, and 27373
laboratories that perform tests for tuberculosis.27374

       Sec. 3701.161.  The director of health shall make necessary 27375
arrangements for the production and distribution of diphtheria 27376
antitoxin. Such antitoxin shall in all respects be equal in purity 27377
and potency to the standard of requirements of the United States 27378
public health service for antitoxin for interstate commerce. 27379
Diphtheria antitoxin shall be distributed in accordance with rules 27380
the public health councildirector adopts pursuant to Chapter 119. 27381
of the Revised Code.27382

       Sec. 3701.20.  (A) In accordance with rules adopted by the 27383
public health council, under division (C) of this section, the 27384
director of health shall establish, promote, and maintain the Ohio 27385
poison control network; designate regions within the network; and 27386
designate poison prevention and treatment centers within each 27387
region. The purposes of the network are to:27388

       (1) Reduce the mortality resulting from and the expenditures 27389
incurred because of accidental, homicidal, suicidal, occupational, 27390
or environmental poisoning;27391

       (2) Educate the public and health care professionals 27392
concerning the prevention and treatment of exposure to poison;27393

       (3) Organize poison prevention and treatment activities on a 27394
regional basis to avoid duplication and waste.27395

       (B) To be eligible for designation as a poison prevention and 27396
treatment center and to retain the designation, a center must 27397
maintain compliance with the standards established by the public 27398
health councildirector pursuant to division (C) of this section. 27399
A poison prevention and treatment center may be operated by an 27400
individual, hospital, institution of higher education, political 27401
subdivision, association, corporation, or public or private 27402
agency.27403

       (C) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 27404
public health councildirector shall adopt rules that do the 27405
following:27406

       (1) Establish guidelines, based on population density and 27407
other relevant factors, and procedures to be followed by the 27408
director of health in designating poison control network regions 27409
and centers;27410

       (2) Establish standards for the operation of poison 27411
prevention and treatment centers;27412

       (3) Establish standards and procedures to be followed by the 27413
director of health in making grants to poison prevention and 27414
treatment centers;27415

       (4) Establish procedures, other than those prescribed by 27416
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for reconsideration, at the 27417
request of the entity affected, of the denial or revocation of a 27418
designation as a poison prevention and treatment center.27419

       (D) In accordance with rules adopted by the public health 27420
councilunder division (C) of this section, the director of health 27421
shall make grants to poison prevention and treatment centers. A 27422
center is not eligible for a grant unless, prior to receiving the 27423
grant, the entity that operates the center agrees in writing that 27424
the level of the total funds, labor, and services devoted by the 27425
entity to the center during the period of the grant will 27426
approximate, as determined by the director of health, the level of 27427
the total funds, labor, and services devoted to the center by that 27428
entity in the fiscal year preceding the fiscal year in which the 27429
grant begins.27430

       (E) Each poison prevention and treatment center shall do all 27431
of the following:27432

       (1) Maintain and staff a twenty-four-hour per day, toll-free, 27433
telephone line to respond to inquiries and provide information 27434
about poison prevention and treatment and available services;27435

       (2) Provide specialized treatment, consultation, information, 27436
and educational programs to health care professionals and the 27437
public;27438

       (3) Compile information on the types and frequency of 27439
treatment it provides.27440

       A center may provide the services described in divisions 27441
(E)(1) and (2) of this section either directly or through contract 27442
with other facilities, as the director of health considers 27443
appropriate. Each center shall take measures to ensure the 27444
confidentiality of information about individuals to whom treatment 27445
or services are provided.27446

       (F) The director of health may revoke the designation of a 27447
poison treatment and control center, or deny an application for 27448
designation, if the center or applicant fails to meet or maintain 27449
the standards established by rule of the public health councilin 27450
rules adopted under division (C) of this section. The entity 27451
seeking the designation may have the revocation or denial 27452
reconsidered in accordance with rules adopted by the public health 27453
councilunder division (C) of this section.27454

       (G)(1) A poison prevention and treatment center, its 27455
officers, employees, volunteers, or other persons associated with 27456
the center, and a person, organization, or institution that 27457
advises or assists a poison prevention and treatment center are 27458
not liable in damages in a tort action for harm that allegedly 27459
arises from advice or assistance rendered to any person unless the 27460
advice or assistance is given in a manner that constitutes willful 27461
or wanton misconduct or intentionally tortious conduct.27462

       (2) This section does not create, and shall not be construed 27463
as creating, a new cause of action or substantive legal right 27464
against a poison prevention and treatment center, its officers, 27465
employees, volunteers, or other persons associated with the 27466
center, or a person, organization, or institution that advises or 27467
assists a poison prevention and treatment center.27468

       (3) This section does not affect, and shall not be construed 27469
as affecting, any immunities from civil liability or defenses 27470
conferred by any other section of the Revised Code or available at 27471
common law, to which a poison prevention and treatment center, its 27472
officers, employees, volunteers, or other persons associated with 27473
the center or a person, organization, or institution that advises 27474
or assists a poison prevention and treatment center may be 27475
entitled under circumstances not specified by this section.27476

       (H) The director shall annually report to the general 27477
assembly findings and recommendations concerning the 27478
effectiveness, impact, and benefits of the poison prevention and 27479
treatment centers.27480

       Sec. 3701.201. (A) As used in this section, "bioterrorism" 27481
has the same meaning as in section 3701.232 of the Revised Code.27482

        (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 27483
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code under which a 27484
poison prevention and treatment center or other health-related 27485
entity is required to report events that may be caused by 27486
bioterrorism, epidemic or pandemic disease, or established or 27487
novel infectious agents or biological or chemical toxins posing a 27488
risk of human fatality or disability. Rules adopted under this 27489
section may require a report of any of the following:27490

       (1) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of 27491
telephone inquiries or requests to provide information about 27492
poison prevention and treatment and available services;27493

       (2) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of 27494
requests to provide specialized treatment, consultation, 27495
information, and educational programs to health care professionals 27496
and the public;27497

       (3) An unexpected pattern or increase in the number of 27498
requests for information on established or novel infectious agents 27499
or biological or chemical toxins posing a risk of human fatality 27500
or disability that is relatively uncommon and may have been caused 27501
by bioterrorism.27502

       (C) Each poison prevention and treatment center and other 27503
health-related entity shall comply with any reporting requirement 27504
established in rules adopted under division (B) of this section.27505

       (D) Information reported under this section that is protected 27506
health information pursuant to section 3701.17 of the Revised Code 27507
shall be released only in accordance with that section. 27508
Information that does not identify an individual may be released 27509
in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.27510

       Sec. 3701.21.  (A) As used in this section:27511

       (1) "Amblyopia" means reduced vision in an eye that has not 27512
received adequate use during early childhood.27513

       (2) "501(c) organization" means an organization exempt from 27514
federal income taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C.A. 501(a) and (c).27515

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the save 27516
our sight fund. The fund shall consist of voluntary contributions 27517
deposited as provided in section 4503.104 of the Revised Code. All 27518
investment earnings from the fund shall be credited to the fund.27519

       (C) The director of health shall use the money in the save 27520
our sight fund as follows:27521

       (1) To provide support to 501(c) organizations that offer 27522
vision services in all counties of the state and have demonstrated 27523
experience in the delivery of vision services to do one or more of 27524
the following:27525

       (a) Implement a voluntary children's vision screening 27526
training and certification program for volunteers, child care 27527
providers, nurses, teachers, health care professionals practicing 27528
in primary care settings, and others serving children;27529

       (b) Provide materials for the program implemented under 27530
division (C)(1)(a) of this section;27531

       (c) Develop and implement a registry and targeted voluntary 27532
case management system to determine whether children with 27533
amblyopia are receiving professional eye care and to provide their 27534
parents with information and support regarding their child's 27535
vision care;27536

       (d) Establish a matching grant program for the purchase and 27537
distribution of protective eyewear to children;27538

       (e) Provide vision health and safety programs and materials 27539
for classrooms.27540

       (2) For the purpose of section 4503.104 of the Revised Code, 27541
to develop and distribute informational materials on the 27542
importance of eye care and safety to the registrar of motor 27543
vehicles and each deputy registrar;27544

       (3) To pay costs incurred by the director in administering 27545
the fund;27546

       (4) To reimburse the bureau of motor vehicles for the 27547
administrative costs incurred in performing its duties under 27548
section 4503.104 of the Revised Code.27549

       (D) A 501(c) organization seeking funding from the save our 27550
sight fund for any of the projects specified in division (C) of 27551
this section shall submit a request for the funding to the 27552
director in accordance with rules adopted under division (E) of 27553
this section. The director shall determine the appropriateness of 27554
and approve or disapprove projects for funding and approve or 27555
disapprove the disbursement of money from the save our sight fund.27556

       (E) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules in 27557
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 27558
section. The rules shall include the parameters of the projects 27559
specified in division (C)(1) of this section that may be funded 27560
with money in the save our sight fund and procedures for 501(c) 27561
organizations to request funding from the fund.27562

       Sec. 3701.221.  (A) The director of health shall have charge 27563
of the public health laboratory authorized by section 3701.22 of 27564
the Revised Code. The director may employ an assistant for the 27565
laboratory who shall be a person skilled in chemistry and 27566
bacteriology, and receive compensation as the director determines. 27567
All expenses of the laboratory shall be paid from appropriations 27568
made for the department of health.27569

       (B) The public health councildirector, in accordance with 27570
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt, and may amend or 27571
rescind, rules establishing reasonable fees for services the 27572
laboratory performs. The councildirector need not prescribe fees 27573
where the councildirector believes that charging fees would 27574
significantly and adversely affect the public health. All fees 27575
collected for services the laboratory performs shall be deposited 27576
into the state treasury to the credit of the "laboratory handling 27577
fee fund," which is hereby created for the purpose of defraying 27578
expenses of operating the laboratory.27579

       Sec. 3701.23. (A) As used in this section, "health care 27580
provider" means any person or government entity that provides 27581
health care services to individuals. "Health care provider" 27582
includes, but is not limited to, hospitals, medical clinics and 27583
offices, special care facilities, medical laboratories, 27584
physicians, pharmacists, dentists, physician assistants, 27585
registered and licensed practical nurses, laboratory technicians, 27586
emergency medical service organization personnel, and ambulance 27587
service organization personnel.27588

       (B) Boards of health, health authorities or officials, health 27589
care providers in localities in which there are no health 27590
authorities or officials, and coroners or medical examiners shall 27591
report promptly to the department of health the existence of any 27592
of the following:27593

        (1) Asiatic cholera;27594

        (2) Yellow fever;27595

        (3) Diphtheria;27596

        (4) Typhus or typhoid fever;27597

        (5) As specified by the publicdirector of health council, 27598
other contagious or infectious diseases, illnesses, health 27599
conditions, or unusual infectious agents or biological toxins 27600
posing a risk of human fatality or disability.27601

       (C) No person shall fail to comply with the reporting 27602
requirements established under division (B) of this section.27603

        (D) The reports required by this section shall be submitted 27604
on forms, as required by statute or rule, and in the manner the 27605
director of health prescribes.27606

       (E) Information reported under this section that is protected 27607
health information pursuant to section 3701.17 of the Revised Code 27608
shall be released only in accordance with that section. 27609
Information that does not identify an individual may be released 27610
in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.27611

       Sec. 3701.232. (A) As used in this section:27612

        (1) "Bioterrorism" means the intentional use of any 27613
microorganism, virus, infectious substance, or biological product 27614
that may be engineered as a result of biotechnology, or any 27615
naturally occurring or bioengineered component of a microorganism, 27616
virus, infectious substance, or biological product, to cause 27617
death, disease, or other biological malfunction in a human, 27618
animal, plant, or other living organism as a means of influencing 27619
the conduct of government or intimidating or coercing a 27620
population.27621

        (2) "Pharmacist" means an individual licensed under Chapter 27622
4729. of the Revised Code to engage in the practice of pharmacy as 27623
a pharmacist.27624

        (3) "Pharmacy" and "prescription" have the same meanings as 27625
in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.27626

        (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 27627
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code under which a 27628
pharmacy or pharmacist is required to report significant changes 27629
in medication usage that may be caused by bioterrorism, epidemic 27630
or pandemic disease, or established or novel infectious agents or 27631
biological toxins posing a risk of human fatality or disability. 27632
Rules adopted under this section may require a report of any of 27633
the following:27634

        (1) An unexpected increase in the number of prescriptions for 27635
antibiotics;27636

        (2) An unexpected increase in the number of prescriptions for 27637
medication to treat fever or respiratory or gastrointestinal 27638
complaints;27639

       (3) An unexpected increase in sales of, or the number of 27640
requests for information on, over-the-counter medication to treat 27641
fever or respiratory or gastrointestinal complaints;27642

        (4) Any prescription for medication used to treat a disease 27643
that is relatively uncommon and may have been caused by 27644
bioterrorism.27645

       (C) No person shall fail to comply with any reporting 27646
requirement established in rules adopted under division (B) of 27647
this section.27648

        (D) Information reported under this section that is protected 27649
health information pursuant to section 3701.17 of the Revised Code 27650
shall be released only in accordance with that section. 27651
Information that does not identify an individual may be released 27652
in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.27653

       Sec. 3701.24.  (A) As used in this section and sections 27654
3701.241 to 3701.249 of the Revised Code:27655

       (1) "AIDS" means the illness designated as acquired 27656
immunodeficiency syndrome.27657

       (2) "HIV" means the human immunodeficiency virus identified 27658
as the causative agent of AIDS.27659

       (3) "AIDS-related condition" means symptoms of illness 27660
related to HIV infection, including AIDS-related complex, that are 27661
confirmed by a positive HIV test.27662

       (4) "HIV test" means any test for the antibody or antigen to 27663
HIV that has been approved by the director of health under 27664
division (B) of section 3701.241 of the Revised Code.27665

       (5) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as in section 27666
1751.01 of the Revised Code.27667

       (6) "Director" means the director of health or any employee 27668
of the department of health acting on the director's behalf.27669

       (7) "Physician" means a person who holds a current, valid 27670
certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 27671
authorizing the practice of medicine or surgery and osteopathic 27672
medicine and surgery.27673

       (8) "Nurse" means a registered nurse or licensed practical 27674
nurse who holds a license or certificate issued under Chapter 27675
4723. of the Revised Code.27676

       (9) "Anonymous test" means an HIV test administered so that 27677
the individual to be tested can give informed consent to the test 27678
and receive the results by means of a code system that does not 27679
link the identity of the individual tested to the request for the 27680
test or the test results.27681

       (10) "Confidential test" means an HIV test administered so 27682
that the identity of the individual tested is linked to the test 27683
but is held in confidence to the extent provided by sections 27684
3701.24 to 3701.248 of the Revised Code.27685

       (11) "Health care provider" means an individual who provides 27686
diagnostic, evaluative, or treatment services. Pursuant to Chapter 27687
119. of the Revised Code, the public health councildirector may 27688
adopt rules further defining the scope of the term "health care 27689
provider."27690

       (12) "Significant exposure to body fluids" means a 27691
percutaneous or mucous membrane exposure of an individual to the 27692
blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or spinal, synovial, pleural, 27693
peritoneal, pericardial, or amniotic fluid of another individual.27694

       (13) "Emergency medical services worker" means all of the 27695
following:27696

       (a) A peace officer;27697

       (b) An employee of an emergency medical service organization 27698
as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;27699

       (c) A firefighter employed by a political subdivision;27700

       (d) A volunteer firefighter, emergency operator, or rescue 27701
operator;27702

       (e) An employee of a private organization that renders rescue 27703
services, emergency medical services, or emergency medical 27704
transportation to accident victims and persons suffering serious 27705
illness or injury.27706

       (14) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in division (A) 27707
of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, except that it also 27708
includes a sheriff and the superintendent and troopers of the 27709
state highway patrol.27710

       (B) Persons designated by rule adopted by the public health 27711
councildirector under section 3701.241 of the Revised Code shall 27712
report promptly every case of AIDS, every AIDS-related condition, 27713
and every confirmed positive HIV test to the department of health 27714
on forms and in a manner prescribed by the director. In each 27715
county the director shall designate the health commissioner of a 27716
health district in the county to receive the reports.27717

       (C) No person shall fail to comply with the reporting 27718
requirements established under division (B) of this section.27719

        (D) Information reported under this section that identifies 27720
an individual is confidential and may be released only with the 27721
written consent of the individual except as the director 27722
determines necessary to ensure the accuracy of the information, as 27723
necessary to provide treatment to the individual, as ordered by a 27724
court pursuant to section 3701.243 or 3701.247 of the Revised 27725
Code, or pursuant to a search warrant or a subpoena issued by or 27726
at the request of a grand jury, prosecuting attorney, city 27727
director of law or similar chief legal officer of a municipal 27728
corporation, or village solicitor, in connection with a criminal 27729
investigation or prosecution. Information that does not identify 27730
an individual may be released in summary, statistical, or 27731
aggregate form.27732

       Sec. 3701.241.  (A) The director of health shall develop and 27733
administer the following:27734

       (1) A surveillance system to determine the number of cases of 27735
AIDS and the HIV infection rate in various population groups;27736

       (2) Counseling and testing programs for groups determined by 27737
the director to be at risk of HIV infection, including procedures 27738
for both confidential and anonymous tests, counseling training 27739
programs for health care providers, and development of counseling 27740
guidelines;27741

       (3) A confidential partner notification system to alert and 27742
counsel sexual contacts of individuals with HIV infection;27743

       (4) Risk reduction and education programs for groups 27744
determined by the director to be at risk of HIV infection, and, in 27745
consultation with a wide range of community leaders, education 27746
programs for the public;27747

       (5) Pilot programs for the long-term care of individuals with 27748
AIDS or AIDS-related condition, including care in nursing homes 27749
and in alternative settings;27750

       (6) Programs to expand regional outpatient treatment of 27751
individuals with AIDS or AIDS-related condition;27752

       (7) A program to assist communities, including communities of 27753
less than one hundred thousand population, in establishing AIDS 27754
task forces and support groups for individuals with AIDS, 27755
AIDS-related condition, and HIV infection. The program may include 27756
the award of grants if they are matched by local funds.27757

       Information obtained or maintained under the partner 27758
notification system is not a public record under section 149.43 of 27759
the Revised Code and may be released only in accordance with 27760
division (C) of section 3701.243 of the Revised Code.27761

       (B) The director shall:27762

       (1) Approve a test or tests to be used to determine whether 27763
an individual has HIV infection, define a confirmed positive test 27764
result, and develop guidelines for interpreting test results;27765

       (2) Establish sites for confidential and anonymous HIV tests, 27766
and prepare a list of sites where an individual may obtain an 27767
anonymous test;27768

       (3) Prepare a list of counseling services;27769

       (4) Make available a copy of the list of anonymous testing 27770
sites or a copy of the list of counseling services to anyone who 27771
requests it.27772

       (C) The director of health shall require the director or 27773
administrator of each site where anonymous or confidential HIV 27774
tests are given to submit a report every three months evaluating 27775
from an epidemiologic perspective the effectiveness of the HIV 27776
testing program at that site. Not later than January 31, 1991, and 27777
each year thereafter, the director of health shall make a report 27778
evaluating the anonymous and confidential testing programs 27779
throughout the state with regard to their effectiveness as 27780
epidemiologic programs. The report shall be submitted to the 27781
speaker of the house of representatives and the president of the 27782
senate and shall be made available to the public.27783

       The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 27784
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 27785
implementation of the requirements of division (B)(1) of this 27786
section and division (D) of section 3701.24 of the Revised Code.27787

       (D) The director of health shall administer funds received 27788
under Title XXVI of the "Public Health Services Act," 104 Stat. 27789
576 (1990), 42 U.S.C.A. 2601, as amended, for programs to improve 27790
the quality and availability of care for individuals with AIDS, 27791
AIDS-related condition, and HIV infection. In administering these 27792
funds, the director may enter into contracts with any person or 27793
entity for the purpose of administering the programs, including 27794
contracts with the department of job and family services for 27795
establishment of a program of reimbursement of drugs used for 27796
treatment and care of such individuals. The director of health may 27797
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 27798
and issue orders as necessary for administration of the funds. If 27799
the department of job and family services enters into a contract 27800
under this division, the director of job and family services may 27801
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 27802
necessary for carrying out the department's duties under the 27803
contract.27804

       Sec. 3701.242.  (A) An HIV test may be performed by or on the 27805
order of a health care provider who, in the exercise of the 27806
provider's professional judgment, determines the test to be 27807
necessary for providing diagnosis and treatment to the individual 27808
to be tested, if the individual or the individual's parent or 27809
guardian has given consent to the provider for medical or other 27810
health care treatment. The health care provider shall inform the 27811
individual of the individual's right under division (D) of this 27812
section to an anonymous test.27813

       (B) A minor may consent to be given an HIV test. The consent 27814
is not subject to disaffirmance because of minority. The parents 27815
or guardian of a minor giving consent under this division are not 27816
liable for payment and shall not be charged for an HIV test given 27817
to the minor without the consent of a parent or the guardian.27818

       (C) The health care provider ordering an HIV test shall 27819
provide post-test counseling for an individual who receives an 27820
HIV-positive test result. The publicdirector of health council27821
may adopt rules, pursuant to recommendations from the director of 27822
health and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,27823
specifying the information to be provided in post-test counseling.27824

       (D) An individual shall have the right to an anonymous test. 27825
A health care facility or health care provider that does not 27826
provide anonymous testing shall refer an individual requesting an 27827
anonymous test to a site where it is available.27828

       (E) Divisions (B) to (D) of this section do not apply to the 27829
performance of an HIV test in any of the following circumstances:27830

       (1) When the test is performed in a medical emergency by a 27831
nurse or physician and the test results are medically necessary to 27832
avoid or minimize an immediate danger to the health or safety of 27833
the individual to be tested or another individual, except that 27834
post-test counseling shall be given to the individual if the 27835
individual receives an HIV-positive test result;27836

       (2) When the test is performed for the purpose of research if 27837
the researcher does not know and cannot determine the identity of 27838
the individual tested;27839

       (3) When the test is performed by a person who procures, 27840
processes, distributes, or uses a human body part from a deceased 27841
person donated for a purpose specified in Chapter 2108. of the 27842
Revised Code, if the test is medically necessary to ensure that 27843
the body part is acceptable for its intended purpose;27844

       (4) When the test is performed on a person incarcerated in a 27845
correctional institution under the control of the department of 27846
rehabilitation and correction if the head of the institution has 27847
determined, based on good cause, that a test is necessary;27848

       (5) When the test is performed in accordance with section 27849
2907.27 of the Revised Code;27850

       (6) When the test is performed on an individual after the 27851
infection control committee of a health care facility, or other 27852
body of a health care facility performing a similar function 27853
determines that a health care provider, emergency medical services 27854
worker, or peace officer, while rendering health or emergency care 27855
to an individual, has sustained a significant exposure to the body 27856
fluids of that individual, and the individual has refused to give 27857
consent for testing.27858

       Sec. 3701.248.  (A) As used in this section:27859

       (1) "Contagious or infectious disease" means a disease 27860
specified by rulein rules adopted by the publicdirector of27861
health council pursuant to division (F) of this section.27862

       (2) "Patient" means either of the following:27863

       (a) A person, whether alive or dead, who has been treated, or 27864
handled, or transported for medical care by an emergency medical 27865
services worker;27866

       (b) A deceased person whose body is handled by a funeral 27867
services worker.27868

       (3) "Significant exposure" means:27869

       (a) A percutaneous or mucous membrane exposure of an 27870
individual to the blood, semen, vaginal secretions, or spinal, 27871
synovial, pleural, peritoneal, pericardial, or amniotic fluid of 27872
another person;27873

       (b) Exposure to a contagious or infectious disease.27874

       (4) "Funeral services worker" means a person licensed as a 27875
funeral director or embalmer under Chapter 4717. of the Revised 27876
Code or an individual responsible for the direct final disposition 27877
of a deceased person.27878

       (B)(1) An emergency medical services worker or funeral 27879
services worker who believes that significant exposure has 27880
occurred through the worker's contact with a patient may submit to 27881
the health care facility or coroner that received the patient a 27882
written request to be notified of the results of any test 27883
performed on the patient to determine the presence of a contagious 27884
or infectious disease. The request shall include:27885

       (a) The name, address, and telephone number of the individual 27886
submitting the request;27887

       (b) The name of the individual's employer, or, in the case of 27888
a volunteer emergency medical services worker, the entity for 27889
which the worker volunteers, and the individual's supervisor;27890

       (c) The date, time, location, and manner of the exposure.27891

       (2) The request for notification that is submitted by an 27892
emergency medical services worker pursuant to division (B)(1) of 27893
this section is valid for ten days after it is made. If at the end 27894
of that ten-day period no test has been performed to determine the 27895
presence of a contagious or infectious disease, no diagnosis has 27896
been made, or the result of the test is negative, the health care 27897
facility or coroner shall notify the emergency medical services 27898
worker. The notification shall not include the name of the 27899
patient. If necessary, the request may be renewed in accordance 27900
with the same procedures and requirements as the original request.27901

       (3) A health care facility or coroner shall respond 27902
immediately to a request for notification submitted pursuant to 27903
division (B)(1) of this section by a funeral services worker. If 27904
no test has been performed to determine the presence of a 27905
contagious or infectious disease, no diagnosis has been made, or 27906
the result of a test that was performed is negative, the health 27907
care facility or coroner shall immediately notify the funeral 27908
services worker. The notification shall not include the name of 27909
the patient.27910

       On receipt of notification that no test has been performed to 27911
determine the presence of a contagious or infectious disease in a 27912
patient, the funeral services worker may have a test performed on 27913
the patient. The test shall be performed in accordance with rules 27914
adopted by the department of health pursuant to division (G) of 27915
this section.27916

       The consent of the patient's family is not required for 27917
performance of a test pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section.27918

       (C) The health care facility or coroner that receives a 27919
written request for notification shall give an oral notification 27920
of the presence of a contagious or infectious disease, or of a 27921
confirmed positive test result, if known, to the person who made 27922
the request and the person's supervisor and to the infection 27923
control committee or other body described in division (E)(6) of 27924
section 3701.242 of the Revised Code within two days after 27925
determining the presence of a contagious or infectious disease or 27926
after a confirmed positive test result. A written notification 27927
shall follow oral notification within three days. If a contagious 27928
or infectious disease is present, or the test results are 27929
confirmed positive, both the oral and written notification shall 27930
include the name of the disease, its signs and symptoms, the date 27931
of exposure, the incubation period, the mode of transmission of 27932
the disease, the medical precautions necessary to prevent 27933
transmission to other persons, and the appropriate prophylaxis, 27934
treatment, and counseling for the disease. The notification shall 27935
not include the name of the patient.27936

       If the request is made by an emergency medical services 27937
worker and the information is not available from the health care 27938
facility to which the request is made because the patient has been 27939
transferred from that health care facility, the facility shall 27940
assist the emergency medical services worker in locating the 27941
patient and securing the requested information from the health 27942
care facility that treated or is treating the patient. If the 27943
patient has died, the health care facility shall give the 27944
emergency medical services worker the name and address of the 27945
coroner who received the patient.27946

       (D) Each health care facility and coroner shall develop 27947
written procedures to implement the notification procedures 27948
required by this section. A health care facility or coroner may 27949
take measures in addition to those required in this section to 27950
notify emergency medical services workers and funeral services 27951
workers of possible exposure to a contagious or infectious disease 27952
as long as the confidentiality of the information is maintained.27953

       (E) No person shall knowingly fail to comply with division 27954
(C) of this section.27955

       (F) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 27956
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that specify 27957
the diseases that are reasonably likely to be transmitted by air 27958
or blood during the normal course of duties performed by an 27959
emergency medical services worker or funeral services worker. In 27960
adopting such rules, the councildirector shall consider the types 27961
of contact that typically occur between patients and emergency 27962
medical services workers and funeral services workers.27963

       (G) The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance 27964
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying the procedures a 27965
funeral services worker must follow when having a test performed 27966
on a patient pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section. The 27967
rules shall specify how and by whom the test is to be performed. 27968
The rules shall require the funeral services worker or the funeral 27969
services worker's employer to pay the cost of the test. No health 27970
care facility shall be required to perform the test.27971

       Sec. 3701.33. (A) There is hereby created the Ohio public 27972
health advisory board. The board shall consist of the following 27973
members:27974

       (1) The following members appointed by the director of health 27975
from among individuals who are not employed by the state and are 27976
recommended by statewide trade or professional organizations that 27977
represent interests in public health:27978

       (a) One individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of the 27979
Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 27980
medicine and surgery;27981

       (b) One individual authorized under Chapter 4723. of the 27982
Revised Code to practice nursing as a registered nurse;27983

       (c) Three members of the public, two of whom are 27984
representatives of entities licensed by the department of health 27985
or boards of health.27986

       (2) One representative of the association of Ohio health 27987
commissioners, appointed by the association;27988

       (3) One representative of the Ohio public health association, 27989
appointed by the association;27990

       (4) One representative of the Ohio environmental health 27991
association, appointed by the association, who is registered as a 27992
sanitarian under Chapter 4736. of the Revised Code;27993

       (5) One representative of the Ohio association of boards of 27994
health, appointed by the association;27995

       (6) One representative of the Ohio society for public health 27996
education, appointed by the society;27997

       (7) One representative of the Ohio hospital association, 27998
appointed by the association.27999

       The director of health or the director's designee shall serve 28000
as an ex officio, nonvoting member of the board.28001

       (B) Not later than thirty days after the effective date of 28002
this section, initial appointments shall be made to the board. Of 28003
the initial appointments, the members specified in divisions 28004
(A)(5), (6), and (7) and division (A)(1)(c) of this section 28005
representing entities licensed by the department of health or 28006
boards of health shall serve terms ending June 30, 2014, and the 28007
members specified in divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b), divisions 28008
(A)(2), (3), and (4), and division (A)(1)(c) of this section not 28009
representing entities licensed by the department or boards of 28010
health shall serve terms ending June 30, 2015. Thereafter, terms 28011
of office for all members shall be three years, with each term 28012
ending on the same day of the same month as the term it succeeds. 28013
Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until 28014
the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Members 28015
may be reappointed, except that no member who has served two 28016
consecutive terms may be reappointed until three years have 28017
elapsed since the member's last term ended.28018

       Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment 28019
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. 28020
Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as original 28021
appointments.28022

       Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 28023
expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was 28024
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. A 28025
member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date 28026
of the member's term until the member's successor takes office or 28027
until a period of ninety days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.28028

       (C) The board shall annually select from among its members a 28029
chairperson and vice-chairperson. The director shall designate an 28030
officer or employee of the department to act as the board's 28031
secretary. The secretary shall be a nonvoting board member. 28032

       The board may adopt by laws governing its operation. The 28033
chairperson may appoint subcommittees as the chairperson considers 28034
necessary.28035

       (D) The board shall meet at the call of the chairperson, but 28036
not less than four times per year. A majority of the members of 28037
the board constitutes a quorum. Special meetings may be called by 28038
the chairperson and shall be called by the chairperson at the 28039
request of the director. In a request for a special meeting, the 28040
director shall specify the purpose of the meeting and the date and 28041
place the meeting is to be held. No other business shall be 28042
considered at a special meeting except by a unanimous vote of 28043
members present at the meeting. 28044

       In conducting any meeting, the board and its subcommittees 28045
may use an interactive video teleconferencing system. If 28046
provisions are made that allow public attendance at a designated 28047
location with respect to a meeting using such a system, the board 28048
members who attend the meeting by video teleconference shall be 28049
counted for purposes of determining whether a quorum is present 28050
and shall be permitted to vote.28051

       Members shall be expected to attend a majority of meetings of 28052
the board. Unexcused absence from three consecutive meetings shall 28053
be considered notice of a member's intent to resign from the 28054
board. 28055

       (E)(1) The department shall provide meeting space and staff 28056
and other administrative support for the board to carry out its 28057
duties. 28058

       (2) To facilitate the board's review of proposed rules under 28059
division (A)(1) of section 3701.34 of the Revised Code, the 28060
department shall establish and maintain an electronic web-based 28061
database of board meeting agendas, board meeting minutes, proposed 28062
rules, public comments, and other documents relevant to the work 28063
of the board.28064

       (F) Notice of meetings shall be provided to members through 28065
the board's mailing list, the department's web site, or any other 28066
means available to the board.28067

       The minutes of previous meetings, the next meeting's agenda, 28068
and information on any matters to be presented to the board at any 28069
regular or special meeting shall be provided to the board in an 28070
electronic format. 28071

       (G) Members shall attend annual ethics training provided by 28072
the Ohio ethics commission.28073

       (H) Members shall serve without compensation, but may be 28074
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 28075
performance of their official duties.28076

       (I) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 28077
apply to the Ohio public health advisory board.28078

       Sec. 3701.34. (A) The Ohio public health advisory board shall 28079
review and make recommendations to the director of health on all 28080
of the following:28081

       (1) Developing and adopting proposed rules under Chapters 28082
3701 and 3717 of the Administrative Code;28083

       (2) Prescribing proposed fees for services provided by the 28084
office of vital statistics and the bureau of environmental health;28085

       (3) Issues to improve public health and increase awareness of 28086
public health issues at the state level, local level, or both;28087

       (4) Any other public health issues that the director requests 28088
the board to consider.28089

       (B) In making recommendations to the director under division 28090
(A)(1) of this section, all of the following apply: 28091

       (1) Prior to filing a proposed rule with the joint committee 28092
on agency rule review, the department of health shall provide each 28093
board member with a copy of the proposed rule, copies of public 28094
comments received by the department during the public comment 28095
period, and written evidence of stakeholder involvement. 28096

       (2) Prior to board meetings, copies of proposed rules shall 28097
be provided to members. On request of a member, the department 28098
shall ensure that appropriate department employees attend board 28099
meetings to answer questions concerning proposed rules. 28100

       (3)(a) Not later than sixty days after receiving a copy of a 28101
proposed rule, the board shall recommend approval or disapproval 28102
of the rule and submit its recommendation by board action to the 28103
director. In making its recommendation, the board may consider 28104
public comments provided to the department or the board. 28105

       (b) If the board fails to make a recommendation within sixty 28106
days of receiving a copy of the proposed rule, the director may 28107
file the proposed rule.28108

       (4) Except as provided in division (B)(3)(b) of this section, 28109
the director shall consider the board's recommendation before 28110
filing a proposed rule. On request of the board, the director 28111
shall meet with the board to discuss the board's recommendation. 28112

       (5) If the director disagrees with the board's 28113
recommendation, the director shall inform the board in writing of 28114
the director's decision and the reason for the decision prior to 28115
the next quarterly meeting. The director or the director's 28116
designee may meet with the board at the next quarterly meeting to 28117
answer questions regarding why the director disagreed with the 28118
board's recommendation.28119

       (C) To the extent the board believes that a proposed rule 28120
does not comply with requirements established by the joint 28121
committee on agency rule review or the common sense initiative 28122
office, nothing in this section prohibits the board, in carrying 28123
out its duties under division (A)(1) of this section, from 28124
contacting the joint committee on agency rule review or the common 28125
sense initiative office.28126

       (D) In making recommendations under division (A)(2) of this 28127
section for prescribing proposed fees for services provided by the 28128
bureau of environmental health, the board and the department shall 28129
develop a cost methodology subject to approval by the director.28130

       (E) This section does not apply to the following:28131

       (1) A proposed rule that is to be refiled with the joint 28132
committee on agency rule review solely because of technical or 28133
other nonsubstantive revisions;28134

       (2) The emergency adoption, amendment, or rescission of a 28135
rule under division (F) of section 119.03 of the Revised Code.28136

       Sec. 3701.341.  (A) The publicdirector of health council, 28137
pursuant to Chapter 119. and consistent with section 2317.56 of 28138
the Revised Code, shall adopt rules relating to abortions and the 28139
following subjects:28140

       (1) Post-abortion procedures to protect the health of the 28141
pregnant woman;28142

       (2) Pathological reports;28143

       (3) Humane disposition of the product of human conception;28144

       (4) Counseling.28145

       (B) The director of health shall implement the rules and 28146
shall apply to the court of common pleas for temporary or 28147
permanent injunctions restraining a violation or threatened 28148
violation of the rules. This action is an additional remedy not 28149
dependent on the adequacy of the remedy at law.28150

       Sec. 3701.342.  After consultation with the public health 28151
standards task force established under section 3701.343 of the 28152
Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt 28153
rules establishing minimum standards and optimum achievable 28154
standards for boards of health and local health departments. The 28155
minimum standards shall assure that boards of health and local 28156
health departments provide for:28157

       (A) Analysis and prevention of communicable disease;28158

       (B) Analysis of the causes of, and appropriate treatment for, 28159
the leading causes of morbidity and mortality;28160

       (C) The administration and management of the local health 28161
department;28162

       (D) Access to primary health care by medically underserved 28163
individuals;28164

       (E) Environmental health management programs;28165

       (F) Health promotion services designed to encourage 28166
individual and community wellness.28167

       The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 28168
establishing a formula for distribution of state health district 28169
subsidy funds to boards of health and local health departments. 28170
The formula shall provide no subsidy funds to a board or 28171
department unless it meets minimum standards and shall provide 28172
higher funding levels for boards and districts that meet optimum 28173
achievable standards.28174

       Notwithstanding section 119.03 of the Revised Code, rules 28175
adopted under this section shall not take effect unless approved 28176
by concurrent resolution of the general assembly.28177

       Sec. 3701.343.  The chairmandirector of the public health28178
council shall, with the advice of the association of Ohio health 28179
commissioners and the director of health, appoint a public health 28180
standards task force to assist and advise the public health 28181
councildirector in formulating and evaluating the standards 28182
established under section 3701.342 of the Revised Code for the 28183
provision of public health services. The task force shall 28184
recommend its standards for all categories mentioned in section 28185
3701.342 of the Revised Code on or before March 1, 1983.28186

       The task force shall have nine members, consisting of:28187

       (A) A sanitarian registered in accordance with Chapter 4736. 28188
of the Revised Code;28189

       (B) A registered nurse licensed in accordance with Chapter 28190
4723. of the Revised Code;28191

       (C) A physician licensed in accordance withwho is authorized 28192
under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and 28193
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery;28194

       (D) Three health commissioners;28195

       (E) Two representatives of the department of health;28196

       (F) One individual with recognized ability in public health 28197
law, public health laboratories, epidemiology, nutrition, or 28198
health education.28199

       The public health standards task force shall complete its 28200
work within three years after the effective date of this section 28201
and shall cease to exist upon completion of its work, provided, 28202
that the public health council may reconstitute the public health 28203
standards task force, for the purpose of reviewing, evaluating, 28204
and revising the standards mandated in section 3701.342 of the 28205
Revised Code.28206

       Members of the task force shall elect a chairmanchairperson. 28207
Five members of the task force constitute a quorum and six votes 28208
are necessary to validate an action.28209

       Within ninety days of the effective date of this section, the 28210
chairman of the public health council shall make the appointments 28211
to the task force. Within sixty days of their appointment, the 28212
task force members shall meet, organize, and begin their work.28213
Vacancies occurring on the task force shall be filled in the same 28214
manner as the initial appointments.28215

       Members of the task force shall serve without compensation, 28216
but may be reimbursed for necessary expenses.28217

       Sec. 3701.344.  As used in this section and sections 28218
3701.345, 3701.346, and 3701.347 of the Revised Code:28219

       (A) "Private water system" means any water system for the 28220
provision of water for human consumption, if such system has fewer 28221
than fifteen service connections and does not regularly serve an 28222
average of at least twenty-five individuals daily at least sixty 28223
days out of the year. A private water system includes any well, 28224
spring, cistern, pond, or hauled water and any equipment for the 28225
collection, transportation, filtration, disinfection, treatment, 28226
or storage of such water extending from and including the source 28227
of the water to the point of discharge from any pressure tank or 28228
other storage vessel; to the point of discharge from the water 28229
pump where no pressure tank or other storage vessel is present; 28230
or, in the case of multiple service connections serving more than 28231
one dwelling, to the point of discharge from each service 28232
connection. "Private water system" does not include the water 28233
service line extending from the point of discharge to a structure.28234

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3701.347 of the Revised Code and 28235
subject to division (C) of this section, rules adopted by the28236
publicdirector of health council regarding private water systems 28237
shall provide for the following:28238

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, boards of 28239
health of city or general health districts shall be given the 28240
exclusive power to establish fees in accordance with section 28241
3709.09 of the Revised Code for administering and enforcing such 28242
rules. Such fees shall establish a different rate for 28243
administering and enforcing the rules relative to private water 28244
systems serving single-family dwelling houses and nonsingle-family 28245
dwelling houses. Except for an amount established by the public 28246
health councildirector, pursuant to division (B)(5) of this 28247
section, for each new private water system installation, no 28248
portion of any fee for administering and enforcing such rules 28249
shall be returned to the department of health. If the director of 28250
health determines that a board of health of a city or general 28251
health district is unable to administer and enforce a private 28252
water system program in the district, the director shall 28253
administer and enforce such a program in the district and 28254
establish fees for such administration and enforcement.28255

       (2) Boards of health of city or general health districts 28256
shall be given the exclusive power to determine the number of 28257
inspections necessary for determining the safe drinking 28258
characteristics of a private water system.28259

       (3) Private water systems contractors, as a condition of 28260
doing business in this state, shall annually register with, and 28261
comply with surety bonding requirements of, the department of 28262
health. No such contractor shall be permitted to register if the 28263
contractor fails to comply with all applicable rules adopted by 28264
the public health councildirector and the board of health of the 28265
city or general health district. The annual registration fee for 28266
private water systems contractors shall be sixty-five dollars. The 28267
public health councildirector, by rule adopted in accordance with 28268
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may increase the annual 28269
registration fee. Before January 1, 1993, the fee shall not be 28270
increased by more than fifty per cent of the amount prescribed by 28271
this section.28272

       (4) BoardsSubject to rules adopted by the director, boards28273
of health of city or general health districts subject to such 28274
rules of the public health council shall have the option of 28275
determining whether bacteriological examinations shall be 28276
performed at approved laboratories of the state or at approved 28277
private laboratories.28278

       (5) The public health councildirector may establish fees for 28279
each new private water system installation, which shall be 28280
collected by the appropriate board of health and transmitted to 28281
the director of health pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised 28282
Code.28283

       (6) All fees received by the director of health under 28284
divisions (B)(1), (3), and (5) of this section shall be deposited 28285
in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 28286
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code for use in the 28287
administration and enforcement of sections 3701.344 to 3701.347 of 28288
the Revised Code and the rules pertaining to private water systems 28289
adopted under those sections or section 3701.34 of the Revised 28290
Code.28291

       (C) To the extent that rules adopted under division (B) of 28292
this section require health districts to follow specific 28293
procedures or use prescribed forms, no such procedure or form 28294
shall be implemented until it is approved by majority vote of an 28295
approval board of health commissioners, hereby created. Members of 28296
the board shall be the officers of the association of Ohio health 28297
commissioners, or any successor organization, and membership on 28298
the board shall be coterminous with holding an office of the 28299
association. No health district is required to follow a procedure 28300
or use a form required by a rule adopted under division (B) of 28301
this section without the approval of the board.28302

       (D) A board of health shall collect well log filing fees on 28303
behalf of the division of soil and water resources in the 28304
department of natural resources in accordance with section 1521.05 28305
of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it. The fees shall be 28306
submitted to the division quarterly as provided in those rules.28307

       Sec. 3701.345.  Any applicant for a permit to construct, 28308
develop, install, or modify a private water system required by 28309
rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council under 28310
sections 3701.34 andsection 3701.347 of the Revised Code may 28311
apply to the board of health of the city or general health 28312
district administering and enforcing the private water supply 28313
program in the health district in which the private water system 28314
is or is to be located or, if the health district is not 28315
administering and enforcing the program, may apply to the 28316
department of health for a variance from such rules governing the 28317
design, construction, development, installation, or modification 28318
of private water systems. The application for a variance shall be 28319
made in writing and shall include a statement of the particular 28320
rule or rules from which a variance is sought, a description of 28321
the proposed system or modification, and the necessity for the 28322
variance. The board of health or the department of health shall 28323
not grant a variance unless the applicant demonstrates that:28324

       (A) There will be an unusual and unnecessary hardship in 28325
complying with the rules from which the variance is sought;28326

       (B) Contamination of the private water system will not occur 28327
as a result of construction and operation of the system as 28328
proposed by the variance application;28329

       (C) The health of persons using water from the private water 28330
system will not be endangered as a result of construction and 28331
operation of the system as proposed by the variance application; 28332
and28333

       (D) No other technically feasible and economically reasonable 28334
means exist for obtaining water from the proposed type of water 28335
source.28336

       Sec. 3701.347.  Notwithstanding division (E) of section 28337
6111.42 of the Revised Code, rules adopted under such division and 28338
in effect on December 14, 1978, shall continue in effect until 28339
repealed by the environmental protection agency or superseded by 28340
rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of health council as 28341
hereinafter provided, as fully as if such section had not been 28342
amended by Amended Substitute Senate Bill No. 445 of the 112th 28343
general assembly on such date. Insofar as these rules affect wells 28344
for the provision of water for human consumption not used or for 28345
use by a public water system, they shall remain in effect 28346
notwithstanding repeal by the environmental protection agency 28347
until the public health councildirector adopts rules superseding 28348
them which prescribe uniform standards and procedures for the 28349
design, construction, inspection, installation, development, 28350
maintenance, and abandonment of private water systems, to protect 28351
the health of the persons served by such water systems and to 28352
establish fees at a level calculated to pay the cost of 28353
administering and enforcing such rules by the director health or 28354
by boards of health of city and general health districts approved 28355
by the director of health. For purposes of this section "public 28356
water system" has the meaning ascribed to it in section 6109.01 of 28357
the Revised Code.28358

       Sec. 3701.352.  No person shall violate any rule the public 28359
health council, director of health, or department of health adopts 28360
or any order the director or department of health issues under 28361
this chapter to prevent a threat to the public caused by a 28362
pandemic, epidemic, or bioterrorism event.28363

       Sec. 3701.40.  The publicdirector of health council shall by 28364
rule prescribe minimum standards for the maintenance and operation 28365
of hospitals and medical facilities which shall receive federal 28366
aid for construction under the state plan provided for by section 28367
3701.39 of the Revised Code.28368

       Boards of trustees or directors of institutions required to 28369
comply with sections 3701.01, 3701.04, 3701.08, 3701.09, and 28370
3701.37 to 3701.45 of the Revised Code shall have the right to 28371
select the professional staff members of such institutions and to 28372
select and employ interns, nurses, and other personnel, and no 28373
rules, regulations, or standards of the director of health or the 28374
public health council adopted or promulgated severally or jointly 28375
shall be valid which, if enforced, would interfere in such 28376
selection or employment.28377

       The director of health may petition the common pleas court of 28378
the county in which any hospital or medical facility is located 28379
for an order enjoining any person, firm, partnership, association, 28380
corporation, or other entity, private or public, from operating a 28381
hospital or medical facility in violation of any rules adopted 28382
under this section. Irrespective of any other remedy the director 28383
may have in law or equity the court has jurisdiction to grant such 28384
injunctive relief upon a showing that the respondent named in the 28385
petition is operating in violation of such rules.28386

       Sec. 3701.503.  As used in sections 3701.504 to 3701.509 of 28387
the Revised Code:28388

       (A) "Parent" means either parent, unless the parents are 28389
separated or divorced or their marriage has been dissolved or 28390
annulled, in which case "parent" means the parent who is the 28391
residential parent and legal custodian.28392

       (B) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 of 28393
the Revised Code.28394

       (C) "Custodian" means, except as used in division (A) of this 28395
section, a government agency or an individual, other than the 28396
parent or guardian, with legal or permanent custody of a child as 28397
defined in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.28398

       (D) "Hearing screening" means the identification of newborns 28399
and infants who may have a hearing impairment, through the use of 28400
a physiologic test.28401

       (E) "Hearing evaluation" means evaluation through the use of 28402
audiological procedures by an audiologist or physician.28403

       (F) "Hearing impairment" means a loss of hearing in one or 28404
both ears in the frequency region important for speech recognition 28405
and comprehension.28406

       (G) "Newborn" means a child who is less than thirty days old.28407

       (H) "Infant" means a child who is at least thirty days but 28408
less than twenty-four months old.28409

       (I) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 28410
section 3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code.28411

       (J) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 28412
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 28413
osteopathic medicine and surgery.28414

       (K) "Audiologist" means an individual authorized under 28415
section 4753.07 of the Revised Code to practice audiology.28416

       (L) "Hospital" means a hospital that has a maternity unit or 28417
newborn nursery.28418

       (M) "Maternity unit" means any unit or place in a hospital 28419
where women are regularly received and provided care during all or 28420
part of the maternity cycle, except that "maternity unit" does not 28421
include an emergency department or similar place dedicated to 28422
providing emergency health care.28423

       (N) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 28424
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 28425
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.28426

       Sec. 3701.507.  (A) To assist in implementing sections 28427
3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, the medically 28428
handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 28429
3701.025 of the Revised Code shall appoint a permanent infant 28430
hearing screening subcommittee. The subcommittee shall consist of 28431
the following members:28432

       (1) One otolaryngologist;28433

       (2) One neonatologist;28434

       (3) One pediatrician;28435

       (4) One neurologist;28436

       (5) One hospital administrator;28437

       (6) Two or more audiologists who are experienced in infant 28438
hearing screening and evaluation;28439

       (7) One speech-language pathologist licensed under section 28440
4753.07 of the Revised Code;28441

       (8) Two persons who are each a parent of a hearing-impaired 28442
child;28443

       (9) One geneticist;28444

       (10) One epidemiologist;28445

       (11) One adult who is deaf or hearing impaired;28446

       (12) One representative from an organization for the deaf or 28447
hearing impaired;28448

       (13) One family advocate;28449

       (14) One nurse from a well-baby neonatal nursery;28450

       (15) One nurse from a special care neonatal nursery;28451

       (16) One teacher of the deaf who works with infants and 28452
toddlers;28453

       (17) One representative of the health insurance industry;28454

       (18) One representative of the bureau for children with 28455
medical handicaps;28456

       (19) One representative of the department of education;28457

       (20) One representative of the Ohio department of job and 28458
family services who has responsibilities regarding medicaid;28459

       (21) Any other person the advisory council appoints.28460

       (B) The infant hearing subcommittee shall:28461

       (1) Consult with the director of health regarding the 28462
administration of sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised 28463
Code;28464

       (2) Advise and make recommendations regarding proposed rules 28465
prior to their adoption by the public health councildirector28466
under section 3701.508 of the Revised Code;28467

       (3) Consult with the director of health and advise and make 28468
recommendations regarding program development and implementation 28469
under sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, including 28470
all of the following:28471

       (a) Establishment under section 3701.504 of the Revised Code 28472
of the statewide hearing screening, tracking, and early 28473
intervention program to identify newborn and infant hearing 28474
impairment;28475

       (b) Identification of locations where hearing evaluations may 28476
be conducted;28477

       (c) Recommendations for methods and techniques of hearing 28478
screening and hearing evaluation;28479

       (d) Referral, data recording and compilation, and procedures 28480
to encourage follow-up hearing care;28481

       (e) Maintenance of a register of newborns and infants who do 28482
not pass the hearing screening;28483

       (f) Preparation of the information required by section 28484
3701.506 of the Revised Code and any other information the public 28485
health council requires the department of health to provide.28486

       Sec. 3701.508.  (A) The publicdirector of health council28487
shall adopt rules governing the statewide hearing screening, 28488
tracking, and early intervention program established under section 28489
3701.504 of the Revised Code, including rules that do all of the 28490
following:28491

       (1) Specify how hospitals and freestanding birthing centers 28492
are to comply with the requirements of section 3701.505 of the 28493
Revised Code, including methods to be used for hearing screening, 28494
except that with regard to the physiologic equipment to be used 28495
for hearing screening, the rules may require only that the 28496
equipment be capable of giving reliable results and may not 28497
specify particular equipment or a particular type of equipment;28498

       (2) Provide that no newborn or infant shall be required to 28499
undergo a hearing screening if the parent, guardian, or custodian 28500
of the newborn or infant objects on the grounds that the screening 28501
conflicts with the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's religious 28502
tenets and practices;28503

       (3) Provide for situations in which the parent, guardian, or 28504
custodian of a newborn or infant objects to a hearing screening 28505
for reasons other than religious tenets and practices;28506

       (4) Specify how the department of health will determine 28507
whether a person is financially unable to pay for a hearing 28508
screening and define "third-party payer" for the purpose of 28509
reimbursement of hearing screening by the department under section 28510
3701.505 of the Revised Code;28511

       (5) Specify an inexpensive and efficient format and 28512
procedures for the submission of hearing screening information 28513
from hospitals and freestanding birthing centers to the department 28514
of health;28515

       (6) Specify a procedure whereby the department may conduct 28516
timely reviews of hearing screening information submissions for 28517
purposes of quality assurance, training, and disease prevention 28518
and control;28519

       (7) Specify any additional information that hospitals and 28520
freestanding birthing centers are to provide to the medically 28521
handicapped children's medical advisory council's infant hearing 28522
screening subcommittee under section 3701.509 of the Revised Code.28523

       (B) In addition to the rules adopted under division (A) of 28524
this section, the councildirector shall adopt rules that specify 28525
the training that must be completed by persons who will conduct 28526
hearing screenings. In adopting these rules, the councildirector28527
shall consider incorporating cost-saving training methods, 28528
including computer-assisted learning and on-site training. Neither 28529
the rules nor the director of health may establish a minimum 28530
educational level for persons conducting hearing screenings.28531

       (C) All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in 28532
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and shall be 28533
adopted so as to take effect not later than six months after the 28534
effective date of this sectionAugust 1, 2002.28535

       Sec. 3701.509.  (A) The department of health shall develop a 28536
mechanism to analyze and interpret the hearing screening 28537
information to be reported under division (B) of this section. The 28538
department shall notify all hospitals and freestanding birthing 28539
centers subject to the reporting requirements of the date the 28540
department anticipates that the mechanism will be complete. After 28541
the mechanism is complete, the department shall notify each 28542
hospital and freestanding birthing center subject to the reporting 28543
requirement of the date by which the hospital or center must 28544
submit its first report.28545

       (B) Subject to division (A) of this section and in accordance 28546
with rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council under 28547
section 3701.508 of the Revised Code, each hospital and 28548
freestanding birthing center that has conducted a hearing 28549
screening required by section 3701.505 of the Revised Code shall 28550
provide to the department of health for use by the medically 28551
handicapped children's medical advisory council's infant hearing 28552
screening subcommittee information specifying all of the 28553
following:28554

       (1) The number of newborns born in the hospital or 28555
freestanding birthing center and the number of newborns and 28556
infants not screened because they were transferred to another 28557
hospital;28558

       (2) The number of newborns and infants referred to the 28559
hospital or freestanding birthing center for a hearing screening 28560
and the number of those newborns and infants who received a 28561
hearing screening;28562

       (3) The number of newborns and infants who did not pass the 28563
hearing screenings conducted by the hospital or freestanding 28564
birthing center;28565

       (4) Any other information concerning the program established 28566
under section 3701.504 of the Revised Code.28567

       (C) The department of health shall conduct a timely review of 28568
the information submitted by hospitals and freestanding birthing 28569
centers in accordance with rules adopted by the public health 28570
councildirector under section 3701.508 of the Revised Code.28571

       (D) The infant hearing screening subcommittee, with the 28572
support of the department of health, shall compile and summarize 28573
the information submitted to the department by hospitals and 28574
freestanding birthing centers under division (B) of this section. 28575
Beginning with the first year after the mechanism developed under 28576
division (A) of this section is complete, the subcommittee shall 28577
annually prepare and transmit a report to the director of health, 28578
the speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of 28579
the senate. The council shall make the report available to the 28580
public.28581

       (E) The department and all members of the subcommittee shall 28582
maintain the confidentiality of patient-identifying information 28583
submitted under division (B) of this section and section 3701.505 28584
of the Revised Code. The information is not a public record under 28585
section 149.43 of the Revised Code, except to the extent that the 28586
information is used in preparing reports under this section.28587

       Nothing in this division prohibits the department from 28588
providing patient-identifying information to other entities as it 28589
considers necessary to implement the statewide tracking and early 28590
intervention components of the program established under section 28591
3701.504 of the Revised Code. Any entity that receives 28592
patient-identifying information from the department shall maintain 28593
the confidentiality of the information.28594

       Sec. 3701.57.  All prosecutions and proceedings by the 28595
department of health for the violation of sections 3701.01 to 28596
3701.56, 3705.01 to 3705.29, 3707.06, 3709.01 to 3709.04, 3709.07 28597
to 3709.11, 3709.13, 3709.17, 3709.18, and 3709.21 to 3709.36 of 28598
the Revised Code, or for the violation of any of the orders or 28599
rules of the department, shall be instituted by the director of 28600
health. Except as provided in division (C) of section 3701.571 of 28601
the Revised Code, all fines or judgments the department collects 28602
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general 28603
revenue fund.28604

       The director of health, the board of health of a general or 28605
city health district, or any person charged with enforcing the 28606
rules of the department of health as provided in section 3701.56 28607
of the Revised Code may petition the court of common pleas for 28608
injunctive or other appropriate relief requiring any person 28609
violating a rule adopted by the public health council under 28610
section 3701.34 of the Revised Code or any order issued by the 28611
director of health under this chapter to comply with such rule or 28612
order. The court of common pleas of the county in which the 28613
offense is alleged to be occurring may grant such injunctive or 28614
other appropriate relief as the equities of the case require.28615

       Sec. 3701.63. (A) As used in this section and section 3701.64 28616
of the Revised Code:28617

        (1) "Child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 28618
and "certified type B family day-care home" have the same meanings 28619
as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.28620

       (2) "Child care facility" means a child day-care center, a 28621
type A family day-care home, or a certified type B family day-care 28622
home.28623

        (3) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 28624
section 3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code.28625

       (4) "Hospital" means a hospital classified pursuant to rules 28626
adopted under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a general 28627
hospital or children's hospital.28628

        (5) "Maternity unit" means any unit or place in a hospital 28629
where women are regularly received and provided care during all or 28630
part of the maternity cycle, except that "maternity unit" does not 28631
include an emergency department or similar place dedicated to 28632
providing emergency health care.28633

       (6) "Parent" means either parent, unless the parents are 28634
separated or divorced or their marriage has been dissolved or 28635
annulled, in which case "parent" means the parent who is the 28636
residential parent and legal custodian of the child. "Parent" also 28637
means a prospective adoptive parent with whom a child is placed.28638

       (7) "Shaken Baby Syndrome" means signs and symptoms, 28639
including, but not limited to, retinal hemorrhages in one or both 28640
eyes, subdural hematoma, or brain swelling, resulting from the 28641
violent shaking or the shaking and impacting of the head of an 28642
infant or small child.28643

        (B) The director of health shall establish the shaken baby 28644
syndrome education program by doing all of the following:28645

       (1) By not later than one year after February 29, 2008, 28646
developing educational materials that present readily 28647
comprehendible information on shaken baby syndrome;28648

        (2) Making available on the department of health web site in 28649
an easily accessible format the educational materials developed 28650
under division (B)(1) of this section;28651

        (3) Beginning in 2009, annually assessing the effectiveness 28652
of the shaken baby syndrome education program by evaluating the 28653
reports received pursuant to section 5101.135 of the Revised Code.28654

       (C) In meeting the requirements under division (B) of this 28655
section, the director shall not develop educational materials that 28656
will impose an administrative or financial burden on any of the 28657
entities or persons listed in section 3701.64 of the Revised Code.28658

       Sec. 3701.74.  (A) As used in this section and section 28659
3701.741 of the Revised Code:28660

       (1) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 28661
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 28662
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 28663
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 28664
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 28665
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 28666
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 28667
"Ambulatory care facility" does not include the private office of 28668
a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or 28669
group practice.28670

       (2) "Chiropractor" means an individual licensed under Chapter 28671
4734. of the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.28672

       (3) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 28673
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 28674
services.28675

       (4) "Health care practitioner" means all of the following:28676

       (a) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 28677
4715. of the Revised Code;28678

       (b) A registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under 28679
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;28680

       (c) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 28681
Revised Code;28682

       (d) A dispensing optician, spectacle dispensing optician, 28683
contact lens dispensing optician, or spectacle-contact lens 28684
dispensing optician licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 28685
Code;28686

       (e) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 28687
Code;28688

       (f) A physician;28689

       (g) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of 28690
the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;28691

       (h) A practitioner of a limited branch of medicine issued a 28692
certificate under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;28693

       (i) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the 28694
Revised Code;28695

       (j) A chiropractor;28696

       (k) A hearing aid dealer or fitter licensed under Chapter 28697
4747. of the Revised Code;28698

       (l) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed 28699
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;28700

       (m) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy 28701
assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;28702

       (n) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant 28703
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;28704

       (o) A professional clinical counselor, professional 28705
counselor, social worker, or independent social worker licensed, 28706
or a social work assistant registered, under Chapter 4757. of the 28707
Revised Code;28708

       (p) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 28709
Code;28710

       (q) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 28711
4761. of the Revised Code;28712

       (r) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical 28713
technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic 28714
certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.28715

       (5) "Health care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care 28716
facility, long-term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, 28717
or health care practitioner.28718

       (6) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 28719
the Revised Code.28720

       (7) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 28721
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 28722
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; an adult care28723
a residential facility, as defined inlicensed under section 28724
5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 28725
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 28726
unrelated adults; a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 28727
for the mentally retarded, as those terms are defined in section 28728
5111.20 of the Revised Code; a facility or portion of a facility 28729
certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the 28730
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as 28731
amended.28732

       (8) "Medical record" means data in any form that pertains to 28733
a patient's medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical 28734
condition and that is generated and maintained by a health care 28735
provider in the process of the patient's health care treatment.28736

       (9) "Medical records company" means a person who stores, 28737
locates, or copies medical records for a health care provider, or 28738
is compensated for doing so by a health care provider, and charges 28739
a fee for providing medical records to a patient or patient's 28740
representative.28741

       (10) "Patient" means either of the following:28742

       (a) An individual who received health care treatment from a 28743
health care provider;28744

       (b) A guardian, as defined in section 1337.11 of the Revised 28745
Code, of an individual described in division (A)(10)(a) of this 28746
section.28747

       (11) "Patient's personal representative" means a minor 28748
patient's parent or other person acting in loco parentis, a 28749
court-appointed guardian, or a person with durable power of 28750
attorney for health care for a patient, the executor or 28751
administrator of the patient's estate, or the person responsible 28752
for the patient's estate if it is not to be probated. "Patient's 28753
personal representative" does not include an insurer authorized 28754
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of 28755
sickness and accident insurance in this state, a health insuring 28756
corporation holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. 28757
of the Revised Code, or any other person not named in this 28758
division.28759

       (12) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 28760
the Revised Code.28761

       (13) "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 28762
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, 28763
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and 28764
surgery.28765

       (14) "Authorized person" means a person to whom a patient has 28766
given written authorization to act on the patient's behalf 28767
regarding the patient's medical record.28768

       (B) A patient, a patient's personal representative or an 28769
authorized person who wishes to examine or obtain a copy of part 28770
or all of a medical record shall submit to the health care 28771
provider a written request signed by the patient, personal 28772
representative, or authorized person dated not more than one year 28773
before the date on which it is submitted. The request shall 28774
indicate whether the copy is to be sent to the requestor, 28775
physician or chiropractor, or held for the requestor at the office 28776
of the health care provider. Within a reasonable time after 28777
receiving a request that meets the requirements of this division 28778
and includes sufficient information to identify the record 28779
requested, a health care provider that has the patient's medical 28780
records shall permit the patient to examine the record during 28781
regular business hours without charge or, on request, shall 28782
provide a copy of the record in accordance with section 3701.741 28783
of the Revised Code, except that if a physician or chiropractor 28784
who has treated the patient determines for clearly stated 28785
treatment reasons that disclosure of the requested record is 28786
likely to have an adverse effect on the patient, the health care 28787
provider shall provide the record to a physician or chiropractor 28788
designated by the patient. The health care provider shall take 28789
reasonable steps to establish the identity of the person making 28790
the request to examine or obtain a copy of the patient's record.28791

       (C) If a health care provider fails to furnish a medical 28792
record as required by division (B) of this section, the patient, 28793
personal representative, or authorized person who requested the 28794
record may bring a civil action to enforce the patient's right of 28795
access to the record.28796

       (D)(1) This section does not apply to medical records whose 28797
release is covered by section 173.20 or 3721.13 of the Revised 28798
Code, by Chapter 1347. or 5122. of the Revised Code, by 42 C.F.R. 28799
part 2, "Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient 28800
Records," or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.28801

       (2) Nothing in this section is intended to supersede the 28802
confidentiality provisions of sections 2305.24, 2305.25, 2305.251, 28803
and 2305.252 of the Revised Code.28804

       Sec. 3701.77. (A) The department of health may establish, 28805
promote, and maintain a lupus education and awareness program with 28806
an emphasis on at-risk communities to raise public awareness, 28807
educate consumers, and educate and train health professionals, 28808
human services providers, and other audiences.28809

       (B) The department, in creating and implementing the program, 28810
may do all of the following:28811

       (1) Provide sufficient staff and appropriate training to 28812
implement the program;28813

       (2) Establish a grant program to support nonprofit voluntary 28814
health organizations with expertise in lupus to increase public 28815
awareness and enhance health professional education and 28816
understanding of the symptoms and consequences of lupus and the 28817
populations most at risk;28818

       (3) Establish an intergovernmental council and advisory panel 28819
to oversee the implementation of the program;28820

       (4) Identify the appropriate entities to carry out the 28821
program;28822

       (5) Base the program on the most current scientific 28823
information and findings;28824

       (6) Work with government entities, community and business 28825
leaders, community organizations, health and human services 28826
providers, and national, state, and local lupus organizations, 28827
such as the lupus foundation of America, inc., to coordinate 28828
efforts to maximize state resources in the areas of lupus 28829
education and awareness;28830

       (7) Identify and use other successful lupus education and 28831
awareness programs and procure related materials and services from 28832
organizations with appropriate expertise and knowledge of lupus.28833

       (C) The department may accept gifts, grants, and donations 28834
from the federal government, foundations, organizations, medical 28835
schools, and other entities for fulfilling the obligations of the 28836
program.28837

       (D) The department may seek any federal waiver that may be 28838
necessary to maximize funds from the federal government to 28839
implement the program.28840

       Sec. 3701.771. (A)(1) The department of health may conduct a 28841
needs assessment to identify all of the following:28842

       (a) The level of statewide health professional and public 28843
awareness about lupus;28844

       (b) The existence of lupus education, awareness, and 28845
treatment programs and related technical assistance available in 28846
the state and nationwide;28847

       (c) The lupus-related educational and support service needs 28848
of health care providers in the state, including physicians, 28849
nurses, health plans, and other health professionals and health 28850
care entities;28851

       (d) The needs of people with lupus, their families, and 28852
caregivers, including health care providers, physicians, nurses, 28853
health plans, and other health professionals and health care 28854
entities;28855

       (e) The services available to individuals with lupus, 28856
including the existence and availability of lupus treatment and 28857
specialty care, lupus support groups, and other related care and 28858
management services.28859

       (2) Based on the needs assessment, the department may develop 28860
and maintain a directory of lupus-related services and health care 28861
providers with specialization in services to diagnose and treat 28862
lupus. The department may disseminate the directory to all 28863
stakeholders, including individuals with lupus, families, 28864
representatives from voluntary organizations, health 28865
professionals, health plans, and state and local health agencies.28866

       (B) The department may undertake activities to raise public 28867
awareness about the symptoms of lupus, personal risk factors, and 28868
options for diagnosing and treating the disease with a particular 28869
focus on populations at elevated risk for lupus. Such activities 28870
may include, but are not limited to, the following:28871

       (1) Implementing a statewide campaign to educate the general 28872
public about lupus by utilizing print, radio, and television 28873
public service announcements, advertisements, posters, and other 28874
materials;28875

       (2) Disseminating health information and conducting 28876
individual risk assessments at public events, such as health fairs 28877
and community forums sponsored by the department;28878

       (3) Distributing information through local health 28879
departments; schools; area agencies on aging; employer wellness 28880
programs; physicians and other health professionals; hospitals and 28881
health plans; health, nonprofit, and community-based 28882
organizations; and regional offices of the department.28883

       Sec. 3701.772. (A) The department of health may establish a 28884
program to award grants to educate and train physicians, health 28885
professionals, and other service providers on the most current, 28886
accurate scientific and medical information on lupus diagnosis, 28887
treatment, and therapeutic decision-making, including medical best 28888
practices for detecting and treating the disease in special 28889
populations, risks and benefits of medications, and research 28890
advances. If a program to award grants is established, the 28891
department shall allocate the total amount available for the 28892
grants in amounts that are proportionate to the populations of the 28893
areas served by the Ohio chapters of the lupus foundation of 28894
America, inc.28895

        To be eligible for a grant, an applicant must be affiliated 28896
with the foundation.28897

       (B) Each grant recipient shall do all of the following:28898

       (1) Develop health professional educational materials that 28899
identify the latest scientific and medical information and 28900
clinical applications;28901

       (2) Work to increase knowledge among physicians, nurses, and 28902
other health and human services professionals about the importance 28903
of lupus diagnosis, treatment, and rehabilitation;28904

       (3) Use available curricula for training of health and human 28905
services providers and community leaders on lupus detection and 28906
treatment;28907

       (4) Support continuing medical education programs in all 28908
geographical areas of the state presented by the leading state 28909
academic institutions by providing the most current information;28910

       (5) Provide workshops and seminars for in-depth professional 28911
development in the field of care and management of lupus patients 28912
to bring the latest information on clinical advances to health 28913
care providers;28914

       (6) Conduct statewide conferences on lupus at appropriate 28915
intervals;28916

       (7) Prepare an annual report that describes the recipient's 28917
use of the grant and submit a copy of the report to the 28918
department.28919

       Sec. 3701.773. (A) If the department of health establishes 28920
the intergovernmental council as permitted by division (B)(3) of 28921
section 3701.77 of the Revised Code, the department shall seek to 28922
ensure coordination of lupus education and awareness efforts. The 28923
director of health shall serve as the council's chairperson. The 28924
council shall include representatives from appropriate state 28925
departments and agencies, including entities with responsibility 28926
for health disparities, medicaid, public health programs, 28927
education, and public welfare.28928

       (B) The council shall do all of the following:28929

       (1) Provide oversight to the lupus education and awareness 28930
program, as well as other lupus programs conducted by the 28931
department;28932

       (2) Develop and issue grant applications and policies and 28933
procedures for programs aimed at health professionals and the 28934
public;28935

       (3) Establish a mechanism for sharing information on lupus 28936
among all officials and employees involved in carrying out 28937
lupus-related programs;28938

       (4) Assist the department and other offices in developing and 28939
coordinating plans for education and health promotion on lupus and 28940
ensure that issues related to lupus are integrated into other 28941
statewide plans;28942

       (5) Prepare an annual report that describes educational 28943
initiatives on lupus sponsored by the state and make 28944
recommendations for new educational initiatives on lupus. The 28945
report shall be transmitted to the general assembly and be made 28946
available to the public.28947

       Sec. 3701.774. (A) If the department of health establishes 28948
the advisory panel as permitted by division (B)(3) of section 28949
3701.77 of the Revised Code, the department shall coordinate the 28950
panel to provide input and counsel regarding the lupus education 28951
and awareness program.28952

       (B) If the panel is established, all of the following apply:28953

       (1) Individuals and organizations may submit to the 28954
department nominations for appointments to the panel. Each panel 28955
member shall have familiarity with lupus and issues that surround 28956
lupus.28957

       (2) The panel shall be comprised of the following members to 28958
be appointed by the director of health:28959

       (a) At least three individuals with lupus;28960

       (b) Not more than two representatives from the department;28961

       (c) At least five individuals from lupus nonprofit health 28962
organizations, with preference given to individuals from the lupus 28963
foundation of America, inc.;28964

       (d) At least five scientists or clinicians with experience in 28965
lupus who participate in various fields of scientific endeavor, 28966
including the fields of biomedical research, social, 28967
translational, behavioral and epidemiological research, and public 28968
health.28969

       (3) The department shall select from among the panel members 28970
one member to serve as chairperson of the panel.28971

       Members of the panel shall serve terms of two years each. 28972
Members may be named to serve a total of two terms and terms may 28973
be consecutive.28974

       A majority of the members of the panel constitutes a quorum. 28975
A majority vote of a quorum is required for any official action of 28976
the panel.28977

       The panel shall meet at the call of the panel chairperson, 28978
but not fewer than four times per year.28979

       All members shall serve without compensation, but may be 28980
reimbursed for actual, necessary expenses incurred in the 28981
performance of their duties.28982

       (4) The panel shall be responsible for advising the 28983
department and the intergovernmental council with respect to the 28984
implementation of the lupus education and awareness program. The 28985
department shall consult with the advisory panel on a regular 28986
basis.28987

       Sec. 3701.775. There is hereby created in the state treasury 28988
the lupus education and awareness program fund. If the department 28989
of health establishes the lupus education and awareness program, 28990
as authorized under section 3701.77 of the Revised Code, all 28991
moneys accepted under division (C) of that section shall be 28992
credited to the fund. Money in the fund shall be used solely to 28993
administer the lupus education and awareness program.28994

       Sec. 3701.87.  The governor may authorize the department of 28995
health to enter into an agreement on behalf of the state with the 28996
United States secretary of health, education, and welfarehuman 28997
services whereby the department may serve as the agency for review 28998
of proposed capital expenditures by health care facilities 28999
pursuant to section 1122 of the "Social Security Act" as amended 29000
by Public Law 92-603, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-1, and the regulations 29001
adopted thereunder. Such agreement shall be subject to and include 29002
the following terms and conditions:29003

       (A) All applications, notices, requests for information, and 29004
other official communications shall be on written forms prescribed 29005
by and approved by the director of health and approved by the 29006
public health council.29007

       (B) The councildirector, subject to Chapter 119. of the 29008
Revised Code, shall propose, modify, amend, and adopt rules, 29009
standards, guidelines, and official policies which are consistent 29010
with federal law, as it deems necessary to implement the capital 29011
expenditures review program.29012

       (C) The director shall make all findings and recommendations 29013
required by federal law and shall give due consideration to the 29014
findings, reviews, and comments of areawide health planning 29015
agencies performing reviews pursuant to section 314 (b)(2) of the 29016
"Public Health Service Act," 42 U.S.C. 246, or the appropriate 29017
health systems agency.29018

       (D) The findings and recommendations of the director shall be 29019
in writing and shall clearly specify the provisions of the state 29020
health facilities plan with which any application is found to be 29021
inconsistent. Any applicant adversely affected by the findings and 29022
recommendations of the director may request a hearing before the 29023
councildirector pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 29024
findings and recommendations of the councildirector are an 29025
adjudication as defined in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and 29026
may be appealed as provided in that chapter.29027

       Sec. 3701.881.  (A) As used in this section:29028

       (1) "Applicant" means both of the following:29029

       (a) Aa person who is under final consideration for 29030
appointment to or employment with a home health agency in a 29031
position as a person responsible for the care, custody, or control 29032
of a child;29033

       (b) A person who is under final consideration for employment 29034
with a home health agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 29035
position that involves providing direct care to an older adult29036
individual or is referred to a home health agency by an employment 29037
service for such a position. With regard to persons providing 29038
direct care to older adults, "applicant" does not include a person 29039
who provides direct care as a volunteer without receiving or 29040
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 29041
reimbursement for actual expenses.29042

       (2) "Criminal records check" and "older adult" havehas the 29043
same meaningsmeaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.29044

       (3) "Direct care" means any of the following:29045

       (a) Any service identified in divisions (A)(6)(a) to (f) of 29046
this section that is provided in a patient's place of residence 29047
used as the patient's home;29048

       (b) Any activity that requires the person performing the 29049
activity to be routinely alone with a patient or to routinely have 29050
access to a patient's personal property or financial documents 29051
regarding a patient;29052

       (c) For each home health agency individually, any other 29053
routine service or activity that the chief administrator of the 29054
home health agency designates as direct care.29055

       (4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:29056

       (a) One or more violations of section 959.13, 2903.01, 29057
2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 29058
2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 29059
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 29060
2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 29061
2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 29062
2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 29063
2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 29064
2913.02, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 29065
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 29066
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 29067
2917.03, 2917.12, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 29068
2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 29069
2921.24, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 29070
2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 29071
2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 29072
2925.09, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 29073
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;29074

       (b) One or more violations of felonious sexual penetration 29075
under former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;29076

       (c) One or more violations of section 2905.04 of the Revised 29077
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;29078

       (d) One violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code when 29079
the violation is not a minor drug possession offense;29080

       (e) Two or more violations of section 2925.11 of the Revised 29081
Code, regardless of whether any of the violations are a minor drug 29082
possession offense;29083

       (f) One or more violations of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 29084
2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is 29085
the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the 29086
offenses listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of this section;29087

       (g) One or more violations of an existing or former municipal 29088
ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United 29089
States that is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses 29090
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (f) of this section.29091

       (5) "Employee" means a person employed by a home health 29092
agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that 29093
involves providing direct care to an individual and a person who 29094
works in such a position due to being referred to a home health 29095
agency by an employment service.29096

       (6) "Home health agency" means a person or government entity, 29097
other than a nursing home, residential care facility, or hospice 29098
care program, that has the primary function of providing any of 29099
the following services to a patient at a place of residence used 29100
as the patient's home:29101

       (a) Skilled nursing care;29102

       (b) Physical therapy;29103

       (c) Speech-language pathology;29104

       (d) Occupational therapy;29105

       (e) Medical social services;29106

       (f) Home health aide services.29107

       (4)(7) "Home health aide services" means any of the following 29108
services provided by an individual employed with or contracted for 29109
byemployee of a home health agency:29110

       (a) Hands-on bathing or assistance with a tub bath or shower;29111

       (b) Assistance with dressing, ambulation, and toileting;29112

       (c) Catheter care but not insertion;29113

       (d) Meal preparation and feeding.29114

       (5)(8) "Hospice care program" has the same meaning as in 29115
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code.29116

       (6)(9) "Medical social services" means services provided by a 29117
social worker under the direction of a patient's attending 29118
physician.29119

       (7)(10) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning 29120
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.29121

       (8)(11) "Nursing home," "residential care facility," and 29122
"skilled nursing care" have the same meanings as in section 29123
3721.01 of the Revised Code.29124

       (9)(12) "Occupational therapy" has the same meaning as in 29125
section 4755.04 of the Revised Code.29126

       (10)(13) "Physical therapy" has the same meaning as in 29127
section 4755.40 of the Revised Code.29128

       (11)(14) "Social worker" means a person licensed under 29129
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to practice as a social worker 29130
or independent social worker.29131

       (12)(15) "Speech-language pathology" has the same meaning as 29132
in section 4753.01 of the Revised Code.29133

       (B) No home health agency shall employ an applicant or 29134
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 29135
providing direct care to an individual if any of the following 29136
apply:29137

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 29138
section reveals any of the following:29139

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 29140
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 29141
section;29142

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 29143
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 29144
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 29145
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 29146
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 29147
such a resident;29148

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 29149
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 29150
section and the rules prohibit the home health agency from 29151
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 29152
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 29153
direct care to an individual.29154

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 29155
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 29156
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 29157
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 29158
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 29159
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 29160
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.29161

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 29162
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 29163
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 29164
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 29165
for a disqualifying offense.29166

       (C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the 29167
chief administrator of a home health agency shall inform each 29168
applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's 29169
initial application for employment or referral to the home health 29170
agency by an employment service for a position that involves 29171
providing direct care to an individual:29172

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 29173
this section will be conducted to determine whether the home 29174
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 29175
from employing the applicant in the position;29176

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 29177
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 29178
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 29179
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 29180
impressions as part of the criminal records check.29181

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 29182
that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief 29183
administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a database 29184
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 29185
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 29186
chief administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a 29187
database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a 29188
condition of continuing to employ the employee in a position that 29189
involves providing direct care to an individual. However, the 29190
chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review 29191
of an applicant or employee if division (F) of this section 29192
applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant 29193
or employee is included in any of the following:29194

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 29195
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 29196
the federal acquisition regulation;29197

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 29198
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 29199
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 29200
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 29201
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 29202
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;29203

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 29204
5123.52 of the Revised Code;29205

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 29206
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 29207
the Revised Code;29208

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 29209
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;29210

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 29211
3721.32 of the Revised Code;29212

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 29213
under this section.29214

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this sectionAs 29215
a condition of employing any applicant in a position that involves 29216
providing direct care to an individual, the chief administrator of 29217
a home health agency shall request the superintendent of the 29218
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 29219
criminal records check with respect to eachof the applicant. If 29220
the position may involve both responsibility for the care, 29221
custody, or control of a child and provision of direct care to an 29222
older adult, the chief administrator shall request that the 29223
superintendent conduct a single criminal records check for the 29224
applicant.If rules adopted under this section so require, the 29225
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 29226
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check of an employee 29227
at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 29228
employ the employee in a position that involves providing direct 29229
care to an individual. However, the chief administrator is not 29230
required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or 29231
the employee if division (F) of this section applies or the home 29232
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 29233
from employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee 29234
in a position that involves providing direct care to an 29235
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 29236
records check request is required underby this divisionsection29237
does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for 29238
the five-year period immediately prior to the date upon which the 29239
criminal records check is requested or does not provide evidence 29240
that within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 29241
information about the applicant from the federal bureau of 29242
investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator 29243
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 29244
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 29245
check for the applicant. Even if an applicant or employee for whom 29246
a criminal records check request is required underby this29247
divisionsection presents proof that the applicant or employee has 29248
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the chief 29249
administrator may request that the superintendent include 29250
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 29251
criminal records check.29252

       (2) Any person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 29253
request a criminal records checkThe chief administrator shall 29254
providedo all of the following:29255

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 29256
criminal records check request is required under that divisionby 29257
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 29258
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 29259
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that29260
section 109.572 of the Revised Code, obtain;29261

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 29262
from each applicant, and forwardemployee;29263

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 29264
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 29265
investigation at the time the chief administrator requests athe29266
criminal records check pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 29267
section.29268

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (B)(2) of 29269
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 29270
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 29271
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 29272
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 29273
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 29274
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 29275
provide the impression sheets with the impressions of the 29276
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 29277
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 29278
provide fingerprint impressions, the home health agency shall not 29279
employ that applicant for any position for which a criminal 29280
records check is required by division (B)(1) of this section.29281

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department 29282
of health in accordance with division (F) of this section and 29283
subject to division (C)(3) of this section, no home health agency 29284
shall employ a person as a person responsible for the care, 29285
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 29286
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:29287

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 29288
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 29289
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 29290
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 29291
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 29292
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 29293
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 29294
2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 29295
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a 29296
violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have 29297
been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 29298
existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed 29299
prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised 29300
Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, or felonious 29301
sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the 29302
Revised Code;29303

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 29304
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 29305
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 29306
this section.29307

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department of 29308
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 29309
to division (C)(3) of this section, no home health agency shall 29310
employ a person in a position that involves providing direct care 29311
to an older adult if the person previously has been convicted of 29312
or pleaded guilty to any of the following:29313

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 29314
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 29315
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 29316
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 29317
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 29318
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 29319
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 29320
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 29321
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.29322

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 29323
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 29324
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(2)(a) of 29325
this section.29326

       (3)(a)A home health agency shall pay to the bureau of 29327
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 29328
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 29329
for each criminal records check the agency requests under this 29330
section. A home health agency may charge an applicant a fee not 29331
exceeding the amount the agency pays to the bureau under this 29332
section if both of the following apply:29333

       (a) The home health agency notifies the applicant at the time 29334
of initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 29335
that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered 29336
for employment.29337

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 29338
the Revised Code does not reimburse the home health agency for the 29339
fee it pays to the bureau under this section.29340

       (F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with 29341
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 29342
referred to a home health agency by an employment service that 29343
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 29344
that involve providing direct care to an individual and both of 29345
the following apply:29346

       (1) The chief administrator of the home health agency 29347
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 29348
the databases listed in division (D) of this section was conducted 29349
with regard to the applicant or employee.29350

       (2) The chief administrator of the home health agency 29351
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 29352
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 29353
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 29354
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:29355

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 29356
referral by the employment service to the home health agency;29357

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the home 29358
health agency would otherwise have to request a criminal records 29359
check of the employee under division (E) of this section.29360

       (G)(1) A home health agency may employ conditionally an 29361
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required29362
under division (B) ofby this section as a person responsible for 29363
the care, custody, or control of a child until the criminal 29364
records check regarding the applicant required by this section is 29365
completed and the agency receivesbefore obtaining the results of 29366
the criminal records check if the agency is not prohibited by 29367
division (B) of this section from employing the applicant in a 29368
position that involves providing direct care to an individual and 29369
either of the following applies:29370

       (a) The chief administrator of the home health agency 29371
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 29372
(E) of this section not later than five business days after the 29373
applicant begins conditional employment.29374

       (b) The applicant is referred to the home health agency by an 29375
employment service, the employment service or the applicant 29376
provides the chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on 29377
the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and 29378
signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the 29379
employment service, and the letter states all of the following:29380

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 29381
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 29382
applicant;29383

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 29384
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 29385
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 29386
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;29387

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 29388
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 29389
the letter;29390

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 29391
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 29392
administrator of the home health agency when the employment 29393
service receives the results.29394

       (2) If a home health agency employs an applicant 29395
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this section, the 29396
employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal 29397
records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the 29398
chief administrator of the agency. If the results of the criminal 29399
records check indicate that, pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 29400
section, the applicant does not qualify for employment, the agency 29401
shall release the applicant from employment unless the agency 29402
chooses to employ the applicant pursuant to division (F) of this 29403
section.29404

       (b)(i) A home health agency may employ conditionally an 29405
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 29406
under division (B) of this section in a position that involves 29407
providing direct care to an older adult or in a position that 29408
involves both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of 29409
a child and the provision of direct care to older adults prior to 29410
obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the 29411
individual, provided that the agency shall request a criminal 29412
records check regarding the individual in accordance with division 29413
(B)(1) of this section not later than five business days after the 29414
individual begins conditional employment. In the circumstances 29415
described in division (I)(2) of this section, a home health agency 29416
may employ conditionally in a position that involves providing 29417
direct care to an older adult an applicant who has been referred 29418
to the home health agency by an employment service that supplies 29419
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 29420
the direct care of older adults and for whom, pursuant to that 29421
division, a criminal records check is not required under division 29422
(B) of this section. In the circumstances described in division 29423
(I)(4) of this section, a home health agency may employ 29424
conditionally in a position that involves both responsibility for 29425
the care, custody, and control of a child and the provision of 29426
direct care to older adults an applicant who has been referred to 29427
the home health agency by an employment service that supplies 29428
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 29429
both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child 29430
and the provision of direct care to older adults and for whom, 29431
pursuant to that division, a criminal records check is not 29432
required under division (B) of this section.29433

       (ii)(3) A home health agency that employs an individual29434
applicant conditionally under authority ofpursuant to division29435
(C)(3)(b)(i)(G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the29436
individual'sapplicant's employment if the results of the criminal 29437
records check requested under division (B)(1) of this section or 29438
described in division (I)(2) or (4) of this section, other than 29439
the results of any request for information from the federal bureau 29440
of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending thirty 29441
days after the date the request for the criminal records check is 29442
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 29443
are obtained, if the individual was employed conditionally in a 29444
position that involves the provision of direct care to older 29445
adults and the results indicate that the individualapplicant has 29446
been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed 29447
or described in division (C)(2) of this section, or if the 29448
individual was employed conditionally in a position that involves 29449
both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child 29450
and the provision of direct care to older adults and the results 29451
indicate that the individual has been convicted of or pleaded 29452
guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in division 29453
(C)(1) or (2) of this section, or been found eligible for 29454
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 29455
the home health agency shall terminate the individual's29456
applicant's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 29457
adopted under this section that permit the agency to employ the 29458
applicant exist and the agency chooses to employ the individual 29459
pursuant to division (F) of this sectionapplicant. Termination of 29460
employment under this division shall be considered just cause for 29461
discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of 29462
the Revised Code if the individualapplicant makes any attempt to 29463
deceive the home health agency about the individual'sapplicant's29464
criminal record.29465

       (D)(1) Each home health agency shall pay to the bureau of 29466
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 29467
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 29468
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 29469
section upon the request pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 29470
section of the chief administrator of the home health agency.29471

       (2) A home health agency may charge an applicant a fee for 29472
the costs it incurs in obtaining a criminal records check under 29473
this section, unless the medical assistance program established 29474
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code reimburses the agency for 29475
the costs. A fee charged under division (D)(2) of this section 29476
shall not exceed the amount of fees the agency pays under division 29477
(D)(1) of this section. If a fee is charged under division (D)(2) 29478
of this section, the agency shall notify the applicant at the time 29479
of the applicant's initial application for employment of the 29480
amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the agency 29481
will not consider the applicant for employment.29482

       (E)(H) The report of any criminal records check conducted by 29483
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in 29484
accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant 29485
to a request made under division (B)(1) of this section is not a 29486
public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised 29487
Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the 29488
following:29489

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 29490
of the criminal records check or the individual'sapplicant's or 29491
employee's representative;29492

       (2) The home health agency requesting the criminal records 29493
check or its representative;29494

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 29495
program that provides direct care to older adultsindividuals that 29496
is owned or operated by the same entity that owns or operates the 29497
home health agency that requested the criminal records check;29498

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 29499
records check;29500

       (5) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 29501
involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:29502

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 29503
employmentemployee;29504

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 29505
employee;29506

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 29507
and in accordance with, division (I)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this 29508
section(c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 29509
program.29510

       (F) The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance 29511
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 29512
The rules shall specify circumstances under which the home health 29513
agency may employ a person who has been convicted of or pleaded 29514
guilty to an offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of 29515
this section but who meets standards in regard to rehabilitation 29516
set by the department or employ a person who has been convicted of 29517
or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 29518
(C)(2) of this section but meets personal character standards set 29519
by the department.29520

       (G) Any person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 29521
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 29522
time of initial application for employment that the person is 29523
required to provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a 29524
criminal records check is required to be conducted and 29525
satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 109.572 of the 29526
Revised Code if the person comes under final consideration for 29527
appointment or employment as a precondition to employment for that 29528
position.29529

       (H)(I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 29530
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 29531
property caused by an individualapplicant or employee who a home 29532
health agency employs in a position that involves providing direct 29533
care to older adultsan individual, all of the following shall 29534
apply:29535

       (1) If the home health agency employed the individual29536
applicant or employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the 29537
report of a criminal records check requested under this section, 29538
the agency shall not be found negligent solely because of its 29539
reliance on the report, even if the information in the report is 29540
determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate;.29541

       (2) If the home health agency employed the individual29542
applicant in good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to 29543
division (C)(3)(b)(G) of this section, the agency shall not be 29544
found negligent solely because it employed the individual29545
applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal records 29546
check requested under this section;.29547

       (3) If the home health agency in good faith employed the 29548
individualapplicant or employee according to the personal 29549
character standards established in rules adopted under division 29550
(F) of this section, the agency shall not be found negligent 29551
solely because the individual prior to being employedapplicant or 29552
employee had been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an, or been 29553
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 29554
disqualifying offense listed or described in division (C)(1) or 29555
(2) of this section.29556

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 29557
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 29558
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 29559
records check of an applicant for a position that involves the 29560
provision of direct care to older adults if the applicant has been 29561
referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies 29562
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 29563
the direct care of older adults and both of the following apply:29564

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 29565
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 29566
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 29567
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 29568
preceding the applicant's referral;29569

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 29570
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 29571
offense listed or described in division (C)(2) of this section, or 29572
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 29573
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the home 29574
health agency chooses to employ the individual pursuant to 29575
division (F) of this section.29576

       (2) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 29577
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 29578
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 29579
records check of an applicant for a position that involves 29580
providing direct care to older adults and may employ the applicant 29581
conditionally in a position of that nature as described in this 29582
division, if the applicant has been referred to the agency by an 29583
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 29584
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 29585
adults and if the chief administrator receives from the employment 29586
service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that 29587
is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed 29588
by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment 29589
service and that states that the employment service has requested 29590
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 29591
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 29592
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 29593
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 29594
in division (C)(2) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 29595
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 29596
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 29597
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 29598
promptly will send a copy of the results to the home health 29599
agency. If a home health agency employs an applicant conditionally 29600
in accordance with this division, the employment service, upon its 29601
receipt of the results of the criminal records check, promptly 29602
shall send a copy of the results to the home health agency, and 29603
division (C)(3)(b) of this section applies regarding the 29604
conditional employment.29605

       (3) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 29606
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 29607
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 29608
records check of an applicant for a position that involves both 29609
responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child and 29610
the provision of direct care to older adults if the applicant has 29611
been referred to the agency by an employment service that supplies 29612
full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving 29613
both responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child 29614
and the provision of direct care to older adults and both of the 29615
following apply:29616

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 29617
service or applicant a report of a criminal records check of the 29618
type described in division (I)(1)(a) of this section;29619

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 29620
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 29621
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) or (2) of this 29622
section, or the report demonstrates that the person has been 29623
convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, 29624
but the home health agency chooses to employ the individual 29625
pursuant to division (F) of this section.29626

       (4) The chief administrator of a home health agency is not 29627
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 29628
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 29629
records check of an applicant for a position that involves both 29630
responsibility for the care, custody, and control of a child and 29631
the provision of direct care to older adults and may employ the 29632
applicant conditionally in a position of that nature as described 29633
in this division, if the applicant has been referred to the agency 29634
by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 29635
temporary staff for positions involving both responsibility for 29636
the care, custody, and control of a child and the direct care of 29637
older adults and if the chief administrator receives from the 29638
employment service or the applicant a letter from the employment 29639
service that is on the letterhead of the employment service, 29640
dated, and signed by a supervisor or another designated official 29641
of the employment service and that states that the employment 29642
service has requested the superintendent to conduct a criminal 29643
records check regarding the applicant, that the requested criminal 29644
records check will include a determination of whether the 29645
applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense 29646
listed or described in division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, 29647
that, as of the date set forth on the letter, the employment 29648
service had not received the results of the criminal records 29649
check, and that, when the employment service receives the results 29650
of the criminal records check, it promptly will send a copy of the 29651
results to the home health agency. If a home health agency employs 29652
an applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the 29653
employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the 29654
criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results 29655
to the home health agency, and division (C)(3)(b) of this section 29656
applies regarding the conditional employment.29657

       (J) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 29658
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 29659

       (1) The rules may do the following:29660

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 29661
criminal records checks under this section;29662

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 29663
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 29664
or more classes of employees from the requirements;29665

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 29666
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 29667
database review conducted under this section.29668

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:29669

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 29670
section;29671

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 29672
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 29673
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 29674
be conducted;29675

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 29676
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a home 29677
health agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or 29678
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 29679
to be included in one or more of those databases;29680

       (d) Circumstances under which a home health agency may employ 29681
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 29682
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 29683
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 29684
for a disqualifying offense but meets personal character 29685
standards.29686

       Sec. 185.01.        Sec. 3701.92.  As used in this chaptersections 29687
3701.921 to 3701.929 of the Revised Code:29688

       (A) "Advanced practice nurse" has the same meaning as in 29689
section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.29690

       (B) "Collaboration" has the same meaning as in section 29691
4723.01 of the Revised Code.29692

       (C) "Patient centered medical home education advisory group" 29693
means the entity established under section 185.033701.924 of the 29694
Revised Code to implement and administer the patient centered 29695
medical home education pilot project.29696

       (D) "Patient centered medical home education program" means 29697
the program established under section 3701.921 of the Revised Code 29698
and any pilot projects operated pursuant to that section.29699

       (E) "Patient centered medical home education pilot project" 29700
means the pilot project established under section 185.023701.92329701
of the Revised Code.29702

       (F) "Physician assistant" has the same meaning as in section 29703
4730.01 of the Revised Code.29704

       Sec. 3701.921.  There is hereby established the patient 29705
centered medical home education program in the department of 29706
health. For the purpose of advancing education in the patient 29707
centered medical home model of care, the director of health may 29708
implement and administer the program pursuant to sections 3701.922 29709
to 3701.929 of the Revised Code. The patient centered medical home 29710
model of care is an enhanced model of primary care in which care 29711
teams attend to the multifaceted needs of patients, providing 29712
whole person comprehensive and coordinate patient centered care.29713

       To the extent that funds are available, the program shall 29714
include the patient centered medical home education pilot project 29715
and may include any other pilot projects the director establishes 29716
pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 3701.922 of the Revised 29717
Code.29718

       Sec. 3701.922.  (A) The director of health may do any of the 29719
following to implement and administer the patient centered medical 29720
home education program:29721

       (1) Develop and implement programs of education or training 29722
on the patient centered medical home model of care or other 29723
similar enhanced models of coordinated patient centered care that 29724
are intended to address the multifaceted needs of patients and 29725
provide whole person comprehensive and coordinated patient 29726
centered care;29727

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 29728
or other arrangement, government agencies or institutions or 29729
private organizations, corporations, or associations in the 29730
development and promotion of programs pertaining to the evaluation 29731
and implementation of the patient centered medical home model of 29732
care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated patient 29733
centered care;29734

       (3) Establish pilot projects that do any of the following:29735

       (a) Evaluate or implement the patient centered medical home 29736
model of care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated 29737
patient centered care;29738

       (b) Provide education or training on the patient centered 29739
medical home model of care or other similar enhanced models of 29740
coordinated patient centered care.29741

       (4) Seek and administer state funds or grants from other 29742
sources to carry out any functions of the patient centered medical 29743
home education program.29744

        Any funds or grants received by the director for purposes of 29745
the program shall be used for the program.29746

       (B) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 29747
and administer the patient centered medical home education 29748
program, including rules that define what constitutes a "patient 29749
centered medical home" for purposes of an entity authorized to 29750
provide care coordination services. The rules shall be adopted in 29751
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.29752

       Sec. 185.02.        Sec. 3701.923. (A) There is hereby established the 29753
patient centered medical home education pilot project. The pilot 29754
project shall be implemented and administered by the patient 29755
centered medical home education advisory group.29756

       (B) The pilot project shall be operated to advance medical 29757
education in the patient centered medical home model of care. The 29758
patient centered medical home model of care is an enhanced model 29759
of primary care in which care teams attend to the multifaceted 29760
needs of patients, providing whole person comprehensive and 29761
coordinated patient centered care.29762

       (C)To the extent that funds are available, the director of 29763
health shall establish the patient centered medical home education 29764
pilot project. If the director establishes the project, all of the 29765
following apply:29766

       (1) The director shall select practices led by physicians and 29767
primary care practices led by advanced practice nurses to 29768
participate in the project. The director may consider the 29769
recommendations of the advisory group made in accordance with 29770
section 3701.925 of the Revised Code, but may not select a 29771
practice unless the practice complies with any applicable 29772
requirements under section 3701.926 of the Revised Code.29773

       (2) The director shall conduct the project in a manner that 29774
advances education in the patient centered medical home model of 29775
care.29776

       (3) The director shall evaluate all of the following:29777

       (a) Learning opportunities generated by the project;29778

        (b) Training of physicians and advanced practice nurses under 29779
the project;29780

       (c) Costs of the project;29781

       (d) The extent to which the project met the expected outcomes 29782
developed under division (A) of section 3701.924 of the Revised 29783
Code.29784

       (4) The director shall assess and review results of the 29785
project.29786

       (5) The director shall recommend best practices and 29787
opportunities for improving technology, education, comprehensive 29788
training, consultation, and technical assistance for health care 29789
service providers in the patient centered medical home model of 29790
care.29791

       (B) The director may contract with an entity that has 29792
significant experience in assisting physician-led practices and 29793
advanced practice nurse-led primary care practices in 29794
transitioning to the patient centered medical home model of care. 29795
The contract shall require the entity to do both of the following:29796

       (1) Provide, to each practice that enters into a contract 29797
with the director pursuant to section 3701.927 of the Revised 29798
Code, comprehensive training, consultation, and technical 29799
assistance in the operation of a patient centered medical home, 29800
including assistance with leadership training, scheduling changes, 29801
staff support, and care management for chronic health conditions;29802

       (2) Assist the director in identifying necessary financial 29803
and operational requirements and any barriers or challenges 29804
associated with transitioning to a patient centered medical home 29805
model of care.29806

       (C) The project established under this section shall begin 29807
not later than the date the first practice enters into a contract 29808
with the director pursuant to section 3701.927 of the Revised Code 29809
and shall cease not later than the date the final report is 29810
submitted pursuant to division (B)(3) of section 3701.929 of the 29811
Revised Code.29812

       (D) The pilot project shall not be operated in a manner that 29813
requires a patient, unless otherwise required by the Revised Code, 29814
to receive a referral from a physician in a practice selected for 29815
inclusion in the pilot project under division (A)(1) of this29816
section 185.05 of the Revised Code as a condition of being 29817
authorized to receive specialized health care services from an 29818
individual licensed or certified under Title XLVII of the Revised 29819
Code to provide those services.29820

       Sec. 185.03.        Sec. 3701.924. (A) The patient centered medical home 29821
education advisory group is hereby created for the purpose of 29822
implementing and administeringadvising the director of health on 29823
the implementation and administration of the patient centered 29824
medical home pilot projecteducation program. The advisory group 29825
shall develop and provide to the director a set of expected 29826
outcomes for the pilot project. The advisory group shall consider 29827
and provide other recommendations to the director and complete 29828
other duties as the director considers appropriate. 29829

       (B) The advisory group shall consist of the following voting29830
members:29831

       (1) The following members appointed by the director of 29832
health:29833

       (1)(a) One individual with expertise in the training and 29834
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended29835
by the dean of the university of Toledo college of medicine;29836

       (2)(b) One individual with expertise in the training and 29837
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended29838
by the dean of the Boonshoft school of medicine at Wright state 29839
university;29840

       (3)(c) One individual with expertise in the training and 29841
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended29842
by the president and dean of the northeast Ohio medical 29843
university;29844

       (4)(d) One individual with expertise in the training and 29845
education of primary care physicians who is appointedrecommended29846
by the dean of the Ohio university college of osteopathic 29847
medicine;29848

       (5)(e) Two individuals appointedrecommended by the governing 29849
board of the Ohio academy of family physicians;29850

       (6)(f) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 29851
board of the Ohio chapter of the American college of physicians;29852

       (7)(g) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 29853
board of the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics;29854

       (8)(h) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 29855
board of the Ohio osteopathic association;29856

       (9)(i) One individual with expertise in the training and 29857
education of advanced practice nurses who is appointed, 29858
recommended by the governing board of the Ohio council of deans 29859
and directors of baccalaureate and higher degree programs in 29860
nursing;29861

       (10)(j) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 29862
board of the Ohio nurses association;29863

       (11)(k) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 29864
board of the Ohio association of advanced practice nurses;29865

       (12)(l) One individual appointedrecommended by the governing 29866
board of the Ohio council for home care and hospice;29867

       (13)(m) One individual appointedrecommended by the 29868
superintendent of insurance;29869

       (n) An employee of the department of health;29870

       (o) Not more than five additional members who have relevant 29871
expertise that the director considers appropriate.29872

       (C)(2) The advisory group shall consist of the following 29873
nonvoting, ex officio members:29874

       (1)(a) The executive director of the state medical board, or 29875
the director's designee;29876

       (2)(b) The executive director of the board of nursing or the 29877
director's designee;29878

       (3)(c) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents, or the 29879
chancellor's designee;29880

       (4)(d) The individual within the department of job and family 29881
services who serves as themedical assistance director of 29882
medicaid, or the director's designee;29883

       (5) The director of health or the director's designee.29884

       (D) Advisory group members who are appointed shall serve at 29885
the pleasure of their appointing authorities. Terms of office of 29886
appointed members shall be three years, except that a member's 29887
term ends if the pilot project ceases operation during the 29888
member's term.29889

       (C)(1) In making the original appointments of the members 29890
specified in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (m) of this section, the 29891
director shall appoint the member who served in that capacity in 29892
the patient centered medical home advisory group, as it existed 29893
immediately prior to the effective date of this section. If for 29894
any reason the member who served immediately prior to the 29895
effective date of this section is unable to serve on the advisory 29896
group, the director shall request from the specified recommending 29897
authority a list of not less than two persons qualified to serve 29898
as members of the advisory group. The director shall appoint as a 29899
member one person from the list submitted by the recommending 29900
authority.29901

        (2) The advisory group members specified in divisions 29902
(B)(1)(a) to (m) of this section shall serve at the pleasure of 29903
the director, in consultation with their respective recommending 29904
authorities. 29905

       (3) Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for 29906
original appointments.29907

       (D) Members shall serve without compensation, except to the 29908
extent that serving on the advisory group is considered part of 29909
their regular employment duties.29910

       (E) The advisory group shall selectdirector may appoint from 29911
among itsthe members of the advisory group a chairperson and 29912
vice-chairperson. The advisory group may select any other officers 29913
it considers necessary to conduct its business.29914

       A majority of the members of the advisory group constitutes a 29915
quorum for the transaction of official business. A majority of a 29916
quorum is necessary for the advisory group to take any action, 29917
except that when one or more members of a quorum are required to 29918
abstain from voting as provided in division (C)(1)(d) or (C)(2)(c) 29919
of section 185.05 of the Revised Code, the number of members 29920
necessary for a majority of a quorum shall be reduced accordingly29921
make any recommendations to the director.29922

       The advisory group shall meet as necessary to fulfill its 29923
duties. The times and places for the meetings shall be selected by 29924
the chairpersonat the call of the director. The director shall 29925
call the advisory group to meet not less than annually to discuss 29926
or consider recommendations to the director on the administration 29927
of the patient centered medical home education program.29928

       (F) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 29929
apply to the advisory group.29930

       Sec. 185.05.        Sec. 3701.925. (A) The patient centered medical home 29931
education advisory group shall accept applications for inclusion 29932
in the patient centered medical home education pilot project from 29933
primary care practices with educational affiliations, as 29934
determined by the advisory group, with one or more of the 29935
following:29936

       (1) The Boonshoft school of medicine at Wright state 29937
university;29938

       (2) The university of Toledo college of medicine;29939

       (3) The northeast Ohio medical university;29940

       (4) The Ohio university college of osteopathic medicine;29941

       (5) The college of nursing at the university of Toledo;29942

        (6) The Wright state university college of nursing and 29943
health;29944

       (7) The college of nursing at Kent state university;29945

        (8) The university of Akron college of nursing;29946

       (9) The school of nursing at Ohio university.29947

       (B)(1) Subject to division (C)(1) of this section, the 29948
advisory group shall selectrecommend to the director of health29949
for inclusion in the pilot project not moreless than the 29950
following number of physician practices led by physicians:29951

       (a) Ten practices affiliated with the Boonshoft school of 29952
medicine at Wright state university;29953

       (b) Ten practices affiliated with the university of Toledo 29954
college of medicine;29955

       (c) Ten practices affiliated with the northeast Ohio medical 29956
university;29957

       (d) Ten practices affiliated with the centers for osteopathic 29958
research and education of the Ohio university college of 29959
osteopathic medicine.29960

       (2) Subject to division (C)(2) of this section, the advisory 29961
group shall selectrecommend to the director of health for 29962
inclusion in the pilot project not less than the following number 29963
of advanced practice nurse primary care practices led by advanced 29964
practice nurses:29965

        (a) One practice affiliated with the college of nursing at 29966
the university of Toledo;29967

        (b) One practice affiliated with the Wright state university 29968
college of nursing and health;29969

        (c) One practice affiliated with the college of nursing at 29970
Kent state university or the university of Akron college of 29971
nursing;29972

        (d) One practice affiliated with the school of nursing at 29973
Ohio university. 29974

       (C)(1) All of the following apply with respect to the 29975
selectionrecommendation of physicianphysician-led practices 29976
under division (B) of this section:29977

       (a) The advisory group shall strive to select physician29978
recommend physician-led practices in such a manner that the pilot 29979
project includes a diverse range of primary care specialties, 29980
including practices specializing in pediatrics, geriatrics, 29981
general internal medicine, or family medicine.29982

       (b) When evaluating an application, the advisory group shall 29983
consider the percentage of patients in the physicianphysician-led29984
practice who are part of a medically underserved population, 29985
including medicaid recipients and individuals without health 29986
insurance.29987

       (c) The advisory group shall selectrecommend not fewer than 29988
six practices that serve rural areas of this state, as those areas 29989
are determined by the advisory group.29990

       (d) A member of the advisory group shall abstain from 29991
participating in any vote taken regarding the selection29992
recommendation of a physicianphysician-led practice if the 29993
member would receive any financial benefit from having the 29994
practice included in the pilot project.29995

       (2) All of the following apply with respect to the selection29996
recommendation of advanced practice nursenurse-led primary care 29997
practices under division (B) of this section:29998

       (a) When evaluating an application, the advisory group shall 29999
consider the percentage of patients in the advanced practice nurse30000
nurse-led primary care practice who are part of a medically 30001
underserved population, including medicaid recipients and 30002
individuals without health insurance.30003

       (b) If the advisory group determines that it has not received 30004
an application from a sufficiently qualified advanced practice 30005
nursenurse-led primary care practice affiliated with a particular 30006
institution specified in division (B)(2) of this section, the 30007
advisory group shall make the selectionsrecommendations required 30008
under that division in such a manner that the greatest possible 30009
number of those institutions are representedrecommended to be 30010
included in the pilot project. To be selectedrecommended in this 30011
manner, a practice remains subject to the eligibility requirements 30012
specified in division (B) of section 185.063701.926 of the 30013
Revised Code. As specified in division (B)(2) of this section, the 30014
number of practices selectedrecommended for inclusion in the 30015
pilot project shall be at least four.30016

       (c) A member of the advisory group shall abstain from 30017
participating in any vote taken regarding the selection30018
recommendation of an advanced practice nursenurse-led primary 30019
care practice if the member would receive any financial benefit 30020
from having the practice included in the pilot project. 30021

       (D) The advisory group shall provide a copy of all 30022
applications received under this section to the director of health 30023
after making recommendations under division (B)(1) of this 30024
section.30025

       Sec. 185.06.        Sec. 3701.926. (A) To be eligible for inclusion in the 30026
patient centered medical home education pilot project, a physician30027
physician-led practice shall meet all of the following 30028
requirements: 30029

       (1) Consist of physicians who are board-certified in family 30030
medicine, general pediatrics, or internal medicine, as those 30031
designations are issued by a medical specialty certifying board 30032
recognized by the American board of medical specialties or 30033
American osteopathic association; 30034

       (2) Be capable of adapting the practice during the period in 30035
which the practice receives funding fromparticipates in the 30036
patient centered medical home education advisory grouppilot 30037
project in such a manner that the practice is fully compliant with 30038
the minimum standards for operation of a patient centered medical 30039
home, as those standards are established by the advisory group30040
director of health; 30041

        (3) Have submitted an application to participate in the 30042
project established under former section 185.05 of the Revised 30043
Code not later than April 15, 2011.30044

       (4) Meet any other criteria established by the advisory group30045
director as part of the selection process.30046

       (B) To be eligible for inclusion in the pilot project, an 30047
advanced practice nursenurse-led primary care practice shall meet 30048
all of the following requirements:30049

        (1) Consist of advanced practice nurses who meet, each of 30050
whom meets all of the following requirements:30051

        (a) HoldHolds a certificate to prescribe issued under 30052
section 4723.48 of the Revised Code;30053

       (b) AreIs board-certified as a family nurse practitioner or 30054
adult nurse practitioner by the American academy of nurse 30055
practitioners or American nurses credentialing center, 30056
board-certified as a geriatric nurse practitioner or women's 30057
health nurse practitioner by the American nurses credentialing 30058
center, or is board-certified as a pediatric nurse practitioner by 30059
the American nurses credentialing center or pediatric nursing 30060
certification board;30061

        (c) Has a collaboration agreementCollaborates under a 30062
standard care arrangement with a physician with board 30063
certification as specified in division (A)(1) of this section and 30064
who is an active participant on the health care team. 30065

       (2) Be capable of adapting the primary care practice during 30066
the period in which the practice receives funding from30067
participates in the advisory groupproject in such a manner that 30068
the practice is fully compliant with the minimum standards for 30069
operation of a patient centered medical home, as those standards 30070
are established by the advisory groupdirector;30071

        (3) Have submitted an application to participate in the 30072
project established under former section 185.05 of the Revised 30073
Code not later than April 15, 2011.30074

       (4) Meet any other criteria established by the advisory group30075
director as part of the selection process. 30076

       Sec. 185.07.        Sec. 3701.927. The patient centered medical home 30077
education advisory groupdirector of health shall enter into a 30078
contract with each primary care practice selected by the director30079
for inclusion in the patient centered medical home education pilot 30080
project. The contract shall specify the terms and conditions for 30081
inclusion in the pilot project, including a requirement that the 30082
practice provide comprehensive, coordinated primary care services 30083
to patients and serve as the patients' medical home. The contract 30084
shall also require the practice to participate in the training of 30085
medical students, advanced practice nursing students, orphysician 30086
assistant students, and primary care medical residents.30087

       The director may include as part of the contract any other 30088
requirements necessary for a practice to be included in the 30089
project, including requirements regarding the number of patients 30090
served who are medicaid recipients and individuals without health 30091
insurance.30092

       Sec. 185.09.        Sec. 3701.928. (A) The director of health or, at the 30093
director's request, the patient centered medical home education 30094
advisory group shall jointlymay work with all medical and,30095
nursing, and physician assistant schools or programs in this state 30096
to develop appropriate curricula designed to prepare primary care 30097
physicians and, advanced practice nurses, and physician assistants30098
to practice within the patient centered medical home model of 30099
care. In developing the curricula, the director or advisory group, 30100
medical schools, and nursingand the schools or programs shall 30101
include all of the following:30102

       (1) Components for use at the medical student, advanced 30103
practice nursing student, physician assistant student, and primary 30104
care resident training levels;30105

       (2) Components that reflect, as appropriate, the special 30106
needs of patients who are part of a medically underserved 30107
population, including medicaid recipients, individuals without 30108
health insurance, individuals with disabilities, individuals with 30109
chronic health conditions, and individuals within racial or ethnic 30110
minority groups;30111

       (3) Components that include training in interdisciplinary 30112
cooperation between physicians and, advanced practice nurses, and 30113
physician assistants in the patient centered medical home model of 30114
care, including curricula ensuring that a common conception of a 30115
patient centered medical home model of care is provided to medical 30116
students, advanced practice nurses, physician assistants, and 30117
primary care residents.30118

       (B) The director or advisory group shallmay work in 30119
association with the medical and, nursing, and physician assistant30120
schools or programs to identify funding sources to ensure that the 30121
curricula developed under division (A) of this section are 30122
accessible to medical students, advanced practice nursing 30123
students, physician assistant students, and primary care 30124
residents. The director or advisory group shall consider 30125
scholarship options or incentives provided to students in addition 30126
to those provided under the choose Ohio first scholarship program 30127
operated under section 3333.61 of the Revised Code.30128

       Sec. 185.12.        Sec. 3701.929. (A) The patient centered medical home 30129
education advisory groupIf the director of health establishes the 30130
patient centered medical home education pilot project, the 30131
director shall prepare reports of its findings and recommendations 30132
from the patient centered medical home education pilot project. 30133
Each report shall include an evaluation of the learning 30134
opportunities generated by the pilot project, the physicians and 30135
advanced practice nurses trained in the pilot project, the costs 30136
of the pilot project, and the extent to which the pilot project 30137
has met the set of expected outcomes developed under division (A) 30138
of section 185.033701.924 of the Revised Code.30139

       (B) The reports shall be completed in accordance with the 30140
following schedule:30141

       (1) An interim report not later than six months after the 30142
date on which the first funding is releasedlast primary care 30143
practice selected to participate in the project enters into a 30144
contract with the department of health pursuant to section 185.1130145
3701.927 of the Revised Code;30146

       (2) An update of the interim report not later than one year 30147
after the date on which the first funding is releasedspecified 30148
under division (B)(1) of this section;30149

       (3) A final report not later than two years after the date on 30150
which the first funding is releasedspecified under division 30151
(B)(1) of this section.30152

       (C) The advisory groupdirector shall submit each of the 30153
reports to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 30154
the Revised Code, to the general assembly.30155

       Sec. 3701.93. Subject to available funds, the director of 30156
health shall establish the Ohio violent death reporting system to 30157
collect and maintain information, data, and records regarding 30158
violent deaths in Ohio.30159

       Sec. 3701.931. The Ohio violent death reporting system shall 30160
do all of the following regarding violent death information, data, 30161
and records maintained in the system:30162

        (A) Monitor the incidence and causes of the various types of 30163
violent deaths;30164

        (B) Make appropriate epidemiologic studies of the violent 30165
deaths;30166

        (C) Analyze trends and patterns in, and circumstances related 30167
to, the violent deaths;30168

        (D) With the assistance of the advisory group established 30169
pursuant to section 3701.932 of the Revised Code, recommend 30170
actions to relevant entities to prevent violent deaths and make 30171
any other such recommendations the director of health determines 30172
necessary.30173

       Sec. 3701.932. The director of health shall establish an 30174
advisory group of interested parties and stakeholders to recommend 30175
actions to relevant entities to prevent violent deaths, and make 30176
other recommendations the director determines necessary, in 30177
accordance with division (D) of section 3701.931 of the Revised 30178
Code.30179

       Sec. 3701.933. The data collection model used by the Ohio 30180
violent death reporting system shall follow the data collection 30181
model used by the United States centers for disease control and 30182
prevention national violent death reporting system and any other 30183
data collection model set forth by the director of health pursuant 30184
to section 3701.934 of the Revised Code.30185

       Sec. 3701.934. The director of health, pursuant to rules 30186
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall 30187
do all of the following:30188

        (A) Specify the types of violent deaths that shall be 30189
included in the Ohio violent death reporting system;30190

        (B) Specify the information, data, and records to be 30191
collected for use by the Ohio violent death reporting system;30192

        (C) Specify the sources from which the information, data, and 30193
records are to be collected for use by the Ohio violent death 30194
reporting system;30195

        (D) If determined appropriate by the director, set forth any 30196
other data collection model to be used by the Ohio violent death 30197
reporting system. 30198

       Sec. 3701.935.  The director of health shall collect 30199
information about violent deaths in Ohio only from existing 30200
sources related to violent crimes and shall not conduct 30201
independent criminal investigations in order to obtain 30202
information, data, or records for use by the Ohio violent death 30203
reporting system.30204

       Sec. 3701.936. At the request of the director of health, 30205
every department, agency, and political subdivision of the state 30206
shall provide information, data, records, and otherwise assist in 30207
the execution of sections 3701.93 to 3701.9314 of the Revised 30208
Code.30209

       Sec. 3701.937. At the request of the director of health, any 30210
individual or entity not specified in section 3701.936 of the 30211
Revised Code, at the individual's or entity's discretion, may 30212
provide information, data, records, and otherwise assist in the 30213
execution of sections 3701.93 to 3701.9314 of the Revised Code. 30214
Any information, data, and records provided to the director by any 30215
other individual or entity shall contain only information, data, 30216
or records that are available or reasonably drawn from any 30217
information, data, and record developed and kept in the normal 30218
course of business.30219

       Sec. 3701.938. Notwithstanding any section of the Revised 30220
Code pertaining to confidentiality, any individual, public social 30221
service agency, or public agency that provides services to 30222
individuals or families, law enforcement agency, coroner, or 30223
public entity that provided services to an individual whose death 30224
is the type of death specified by the director of health under 30225
section 3701.934 of the Revised Code shall provide information, 30226
data, records, and otherwise assist in the execution of sections 30227
3701.93 to 3701.9314 of the Revised Code.30228

       Sec. 3701.9310. Except as otherwise provided in section 30229
3701.9212 of the Revised Code, all of the following are not public 30230
records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code, shall be 30231
confidential, and shall be published only in statistical form:30232

        (A) Information, data, and records collected for use and 30233
maintained by the Ohio violent death reporting system including, 30234
but not limited to, medical records, law enforcement investigative 30235
records, coroner investigative records, laboratory reports, and 30236
other records concerning a decedent;30237

        (B) Work products created in carrying out the purposes of the 30238
Ohio violent death reporting system.30239

       Sec. 3701.9311. Information, data, and records collected for 30240
use and maintained by, and all work products created in carrying 30241
out the purposes of, the Ohio violent death reporting system shall 30242
not be subject to subpoena or discovery while in the possession of 30243
the system or admissible in any criminal or civil proceeding if 30244
obtained through, or from, the system.30245

       Sec. 3701.9312. The director of health, pursuant to rules 30246
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall 30247
establish standards and procedures to make available to 30248
researchers confidential information collected by the Ohio violent 30249
death reporting system. Researchers complying with those standards 30250
and procedures also shall comply with the confidentiality 30251
requirements of section 3701.9310 of the Revised Code.30252

       Sec. 3701.9314. The director of health may adopt rules in 30253
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code necessary to 30254
establish, maintain, and carry out the purposes of the Ohio 30255
violent death reporting system under sections 3701.93 to 3701.9314 30256
of the Revised Code.30257

       Sec. 3702.141.  (A) As used in this section:30258

       (1) "Existing health care facility" means a health care 30259
facility that is licensed or otherwise approved to practice in 30260
this state, in accordance with applicable law, is staffed and 30261
equipped to provide health care services, and actively provides 30262
health services or has not been actively providing health services 30263
for less than twelve consecutive months.30264

       (2) "Freestanding birthing center" means any facility in 30265
which deliveries routinely occur, regardless of whether the 30266
facility is located on the campus of another health care facility, 30267
and which is not licensed under Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code 30268
as a level one, two, or three maternity unit or a limited 30269
maternity unit.30270

       (3) "Health care facility" and "health service" have the same 30271
meanings as in section 3702.51 of the Revised Codemeans:30272

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 30273
Revised Code;30274

       (b) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 30275
Revised Code, or by a political subdivision certified under 30276
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;30277

       (c) A county home or a county nursing home as defined in 30278
section 5155.31 of the Revised Code that is certified under Title 30279
XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 30280
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;30281

       (d) A freestanding dialysis center;30282

       (e) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;30283

       (f) An ambulatory surgical facility;30284

       (g) A freestanding cardiac catheterization facility;30285

       (h) A freestanding birthing center;30286

       (i) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center;30287

       (j) A freestanding radiation therapy center.30288

       A health care facility does not include the offices of 30289
private physicians and dentists whether for individual or group 30290
practice, residential facilities licensed under section 5123.19 of 30291
the Revised Code, or an institution for the sick that is operated 30292
exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and 30293
for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their 30294
religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting 30295
organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 30296
501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 30297
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four hour nursing 30298
care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 30299
of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 30300
4723. of the Revised Code.30301

       (4) "Health service" means a clinically related service, such 30302
as a diagnostic, treatment, rehabilitative, or preventive service.30303

       (B) Section 3702.14 of the Revised Code shall not be 30304
construed to require any existing health care facility that is 30305
conducting an activity specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised 30306
Code, which activity was initiated on or before March 20, 1997, to 30307
alter, upgrade, or otherwise improve the structure or fixtures of 30308
the facility in order to comply with any rule adopted under 30309
section 3702.11 of the Revised Code relating to that activity, 30310
unless one of the following applies:30311

       (1) The facility initiates a construction, renovation, or 30312
reconstruction project that involves a capital expenditure of at 30313
least fifty thousand dollars, not including expenditures for 30314
equipment or staffing or operational costs, and that directly 30315
involves the area in which the existing service is conducted.30316

       (2) The facility initiates another activity specified in 30317
section 3702.11 of the Revised Code.30318

       (3) The facility initiates a service level designation change 30319
for obstetric and newborn care.30320

       (4) The facility proposes to add a cardiac catheterization 30321
laboratory to an existing cardiac catheterization service.30322

       (5)(4) The facility proposes to add an open-heart operating 30323
room to an existing open-heart surgery service.30324

       (6)(5) The director of health determines, by clear and 30325
convincing evidence, that failure to comply with the rule would 30326
create an imminent risk to the health and welfare of any patient.30327

       (C) If division (B)(4)(3) or (5)(4) of this section applies, 30328
any alteration, upgrade, or other improvement required shall apply 30329
only to the proposed addition to the existing service if the cost 30330
of the addition is less than the capital expenditure threshold set 30331
forth in division (B)(1) of this section. 30332

       (D) No person or government entity shall divide or otherwise 30333
segment a construction, renovation, or reconstruction project in 30334
order to evade application of the capital expenditure threshold 30335
set forth in division (B)(1) of this section.30336

       Sec. 3702.31.  (A) The quality monitoring and inspection fund 30337
is hereby created in the state treasury. The director of health 30338
shall use the fund to administer and enforce this section and 30339
sections 3702.11 to 3702.20, 3702.30, 3702.301, and 3702.32, and 30340
3702.33 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to those 30341
sections. The director shall deposit in the fund any moneys 30342
collected pursuant to this section or section 3702.32 of the 30343
Revised Code. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 30344
credited to the fund.30345

       (B) The director of health shall adopt rules pursuant to 30346
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing fees for both of the 30347
following:30348

       (1) Initial and renewal license applications submitted under 30349
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code. The fees established under 30350
division (B)(1) of this section shall not exceed the actual and 30351
necessary costs of performing the activities described in division 30352
(A) of this section.30353

       (2) Inspections conducted under section 3702.15 or 3702.30 of 30354
the Revised Code. The fees established under division (B)(2) of 30355
this section shall not exceed the actual and necessary costs 30356
incurred during an inspection, including any indirect costs 30357
incurred by the department for staff, salary, or other 30358
administrative costs. The director of health shall provide to each 30359
health care facility or provider inspected pursuant to section 30360
3702.15 or 3702.30 of the Revised Code a written statement of the 30361
fee. The statement shall itemize and total the costs incurred. 30362
Within fifteen days after receiving a statement from the director, 30363
the facility or provider shall forward the total amount of the fee 30364
to the director.30365

       (3) The fees described in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 30366
section shall meet both of the following requirements:30367

       (a) For each service described in section 3702.11 of the 30368
Revised Code, the fee shall not exceed one thousand seven hundred 30369
fifty dollars annually, except that the total fees charged to a 30370
health care provider under this section shall not exceed five 30371
thousand dollars annually.30372

       (b) The fee shall exclude any costs reimbursable by the 30373
United States centers for medicare and medicaid services as part 30374
of the certification process for the medicare program established 30375
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 30376
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, and the medicaid program 30377
established under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 30378
286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396.30379

       (4) The director shall not establish a fee for any service 30380
for which a licensure or inspection fee is paid by the health care 30381
provider to a state agency for the same or similar licensure or 30382
inspection.30383

       Sec. 3702.51.  As used in sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the 30384
Revised Code:30385

       (A) "Applicant" means any person that submits an application 30386
for a certificate of need and who is designated in the application 30387
as the applicant.30388

       (B) "Person" means any individual, corporation, business 30389
trust, estate, firm, partnership, association, joint stock 30390
company, insurance company, government unit, or other entity.30391

       (C) "Certificate of need" means a written approval granted by 30392
the director of health to an applicant to authorize conducting a 30393
reviewable activity.30394

       (D) "Health serviceService area" means a geographic region 30395
designated by the director of health under section 3702.58 of the 30396
Revised Codethe current and projected primary and secondary 30397
service areas to which the long-term care facility is, or will be, 30398
providing long-term care services.30399

       (E) "HealthPrimary service area" means a clinically related 30400
service, such as a diagnostic, treatment, rehabilitative, or 30401
preventive servicethe geographic region, usually comprised of the 30402
Ohio zip code in which the long-term care facility is located and 30403
contiguous zip codes, from which approximately seventy-five to 30404
eighty per cent of the facility's residents currently originate or 30405
are expected to originate.30406

       (F) "HealthSecondary service agencyarea" means an agency 30407
designated to serve a health service area in accordance with 30408
section 3702.58 of the Revised Codethe geographic region, usually 30409
comprised of Ohio zip codes not included in the primary service 30410
area, excluding isolated exceptions, from which the facility's 30411
remaining residents currently originate or are expected to 30412
originate.30413

       (G) "Health care facility" means:30414

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 30415
Revised Code;30416

       (2) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 30417
Revised Code, or by a political subdivision certified under 30418
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;30419

       (3) A county home or a county nursing home as defined in 30420
section 5155.31 of the Revised Code that is certified under Title 30421
XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 30422
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;30423

       (4) A freestanding dialysis center;30424

       (5) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;30425

       (6) An ambulatory surgical facility;30426

       (7) A freestanding cardiac catheterization facility;30427

       (8) A freestanding birthing center;30428

       (9) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center;30429

       (10) A freestanding radiation therapy center.30430

       A health care facility does not include the offices of 30431
private physicians and dentists whether for individual or group 30432
practice, residential facilities licensed under section 5123.19 of 30433
the Revised Code, or an institution for the sick that is operated 30434
exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and 30435
for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their 30436
religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting 30437
organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 30438
501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 30439
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four hour nursing 30440
care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 30441
of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 30442
4723. of the Revised Code.30443

       (H) "Medical equipment" means a single unit of medical 30444
equipment or a single system of components with related functions 30445
that is used to provide health services.30446

       (I) "Third-party payer" means a health insuring corporation 30447
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, a health 30448
maintenance organization as defined in division (K)(I) of this 30449
section, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 30450
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 30451
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701., 30452
4123., or 5111. of the Revised Code, or any self-insurance plan.30453

       (J)(H) "Government unit" means the state and any county, 30454
municipal corporation, township, or other political subdivision of 30455
the state, or any department, division, board, or other agency of 30456
the state or a political subdivision.30457

       (K)(I) "Health maintenance organization" means a public or 30458
private organization organized under the law of any state that is 30459
qualified under section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public 30460
Health Service Act," 87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9.30461

       (L)(J) "Existing healthlong-term care facility" means either 30462
of the following:30463

       (1) A healthlong-term care facility that is licensed or 30464
otherwise authorized to operate in this state in accordance with 30465
applicable law, including a county home or a county nursing home 30466
that is certified as of February 1, 2008, under Title XVIII or 30467
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 30468
U.S.C. 301, as amended, is staffed and equipped to provide health30469
long-term care services, and is actively providing health30470
long-term care services;30471

       (2) A healthlong-term care facility that is licensed or 30472
otherwise authorized to operate in this state in accordance with 30473
applicable law, including a county home or a county nursing home 30474
that is certified as of February 1, 2008, under Title XVIII or 30475
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 30476
U.S.C. 301, as amended, or that has beds registered under section 30477
3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds or long-term 30478
care beds and has provided long-term care services for at least 30479
three hundred sixty-five consecutive days within the twenty-four 30480
months immediately preceding the date a certificate of need 30481
application is filed with the director of health.30482

       (M)(K) "State" means the state of Ohio, including, but not 30483
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, the offices 30484
of all elected state officers, and all departments, boards, 30485
offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, and other 30486
instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not include 30487
political subdivisions.30488

       (N)(L) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 30489
township, county, school district, and all other bodies corporate 30490
and politic responsible for governmental activities only in 30491
geographic areas smaller than that of the state to which the 30492
sovereign immunity of the state attaches.30493

       (O)(M) "Affected person" means:30494

       (1) An applicant for a certificate of need, including an 30495
applicant whose application was reviewed comparatively with the 30496
application in question;30497

       (2) The person that requested the reviewability ruling in 30498
question;30499

       (3) Any person that resides or regularly uses health30500
long-term care facilities within the geographicservice area 30501
served or to be served by the healthlong-term care services that 30502
would be provided under the certificate of need or reviewability 30503
ruling in question;30504

       (4) Any healthlong-term care facility that is located in the 30505
health service area where the healthlong-term care services would 30506
be provided under the certificate of need or reviewability ruling 30507
in question;30508

       (5) Third-party payers that reimburse healthlong-term care 30509
facilities for services in the health service area where the 30510
healthlong-term care services would be provided under the 30511
certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;.30512

       (6) Any other person who testified at a public hearing held 30513
under division (B) of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code or 30514
submitted written comments in the course of review of the 30515
certificate of need application in question.30516

       (P) "Osteopathic hospital" means a hospital registered under 30517
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that advocates osteopathic 30518
principles and the practice and perpetuation of osteopathic 30519
medicine by doing any of the following:30520

       (1) Maintaining a department or service of osteopathic 30521
medicine or a committee on the utilization of osteopathic 30522
principles and methods, under the supervision of an osteopathic 30523
physician;30524

       (2) Maintaining an active medical staff, the majority of 30525
which is comprised of osteopathic physicians;30526

       (3) Maintaining a medical staff executive committee that has 30527
osteopathic physicians as a majority of its members.30528

       (Q) "Ambulatory surgical facility" has the same meaning as in 30529
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code.30530

       (R) Except as provided in division (S) of this section, 30531
"reviewable activity" means any of the following activities:30532

       (1) The establishment, development, or construction of a new 30533
long-term care facility;30534

       (2) The replacement of an existing long-term care facility;30535

       (3) The renovation of a long-term care facility that involves 30536
a capital expenditure of two million dollars or more, not 30537
including expenditures for equipment, staffing, or operational 30538
costs;30539

       (4) Either of the following changes in long-term care bed 30540
capacity:30541

       (a) An increase in bed capacity;30542

       (b) A relocation of beds from one physical facility or site 30543
to another, excluding the relocation of beds within a long-term 30544
care facility or among buildings of a long-term care facility at 30545
the same site.30546

       (5) Any change in the health services, bed capacity, or site, 30547
or any other failure to conduct the reviewable activity in 30548
substantial accordance with the approved application for which a 30549
certificate of need concerning long-term care beds was granted, if 30550
the change is made within five years after the implementation of 30551
the reviewable activity for which the certificate was granted;30552

       (6) The expenditure of more than one hundred ten per cent of 30553
the maximum expenditure specified in a certificate of need 30554
concerning long-term care beds.30555

       (S) "Reviewable activity" does not include any of the 30556
following activities:30557

       (1) Acquisition of computer hardware or software;30558

       (2) Acquisition of a telephone system;30559

       (3) Construction or acquisition of parking facilities;30560

       (4) Correction of cited deficiencies that are in violation of 30561
federal, state, or local fire, building, or safety laws and rules 30562
and that constitute an imminent threat to public health or safety;30563

       (5) Acquisition of an existing health care facility that does 30564
not involve a change in the number of the beds, by service, or in 30565
the number or type of health services;30566

       (6) Correction of cited deficiencies identified by 30567
accreditation surveys of the joint commission on accreditation of 30568
healthcare organizations or of the American osteopathic 30569
association;30570

       (7) Acquisition of medical equipment to replace the same or 30571
similar equipment for which a certificate of need has been issued 30572
if the replaced equipment is removed from service;30573

       (8) Mergers, consolidations, or other corporate 30574
reorganizations of health care facilities that do not involve a 30575
change in the number of beds, by service, or in the number or type 30576
of health services;30577

       (9) Construction, repair, or renovation of bathroom 30578
facilities;30579

       (10) Construction of laundry facilities, waste disposal 30580
facilities, dietary department projects, heating and air 30581
conditioning projects, administrative offices, and portions of 30582
medical office buildings used exclusively for physician services;30583

       (11) Acquisition of medical equipment to conduct research 30584
required by the United States food and drug administration or 30585
clinical trials sponsored by the national institute of health. Use 30586
of medical equipment that was acquired without a certificate of 30587
need under division (S)(11) of this section and for which 30588
premarket approval has been granted by the United States food and 30589
drug administration to provide services for which patients or 30590
reimbursement entities will be charged shall be a reviewable 30591
activity.30592

       (12) Removal of asbestos from a health care facility.30593

       Only that portion of a project that meets the requirements of 30594
this division is not a reviewable activity.30595

       (T) "Small rural hospital" means a hospital that is located 30596
within a rural area, has fewer than one hundred beds, and to which 30597
fewer than four thousand persons were admitted during the most 30598
recent calendar year.30599

       (U) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:30600

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 30601
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 30602
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 30603
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 30604
individuals less than eighteen years of age;30605

       (2) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 30606
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 30607
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 30608
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 30609
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 30610
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 30611
individuals less than eighteen years of age;30612

       (3) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 30613
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 30614
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 30615
requirements of division (U)(1) of this section.30616

       (V)(N) "Long-term care facility" means any of the following:30617

       (1) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 30618
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 30619
3721.09 of the Revised Code;30620

       (2) The portion of any facility, including a county home or 30621
county nursing home, that is certified as a skilled nursing 30622
facility or a nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the 30623
"Social Security Act";30624

       (3) The portion of any hospital that contains beds registered 30625
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds 30626
or long-term care beds.30627

       (W)(O) "Long-term care bed" or "bed" means a bed in a 30628
long-term care facilitythat is categorized as one of the 30629
following:30630

        (1) A bed that is located in a facility that is a nursing 30631
home licensed under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or a 30632
facility licensed by a political subdivision certified under 30633
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code and is included in the 30634
authorized maximum licensed capacity of the facility;30635

       (2) A bed that is located in the portion of any facility, 30636
including a county home or county nursing home, that is certified 30637
as a skilled nursing facility under the medicare program or a 30638
nursing facility under the medicaid program and is included in the 30639
authorized maximum certified capacity of that portion of the 30640
facility;30641

       (3) A bed that is registered under section 3701.07 of the 30642
Revised Code as a skilled nursing bed, a long-term care bed, or a 30643
special skilled nursing bed;30644

       (4) A bed in a county home or county nursing home that has 30645
been certified under section 5155.38 of the Revised Code as having 30646
been in operation on July 1, 1993, and is eligible for licensure 30647
as a nursing home bed;30648

       (5) A bed held as an approved bed under a certificate of need 30649
approved by the director.30650

       A bed cannot simultaneously be both a bed described in 30651
division (O)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section and a bed 30652
described in division (O)(5) of this section.30653

       (X) "Freestanding birthing center" means any facility in 30654
which deliveries routinely occur, regardless of whether the 30655
facility is located on the campus of another health care facility, 30656
and which is not licensed under Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code 30657
as a level one, two, or three maternity unit or a limited 30658
maternity unit.30659

       (Y)(1)(P) "Reviewability ruling" means a ruling issued by the 30660
director of health under division (A) of section 3702.52 of the 30661
Revised Code as to whether a particular proposed project is or is 30662
not a reviewable activity.30663

       (2) "Nonreviewability ruling" means a ruling issued under 30664
that division that a particular proposed project is not a 30665
reviewable activity.30666

       (Z)(1) "Metropolitan statistical area" means an area of this 30667
state designated a metropolitan statistical area or primary 30668
metropolitan statistical area in United States office of 30669
management and budget bulletin no. 93-17, June 30, 1993, and its 30670
attachments.30671

       (2) "Rural area" means any area of this state not located 30672
within a metropolitan statistical area.30673

       (AA)(Q) "County nursing home" has the same meaning as in 30674
section 5155.31 of the Revised Code.30675

       (BB)(R) "Principal participant" means both of the following:30676

       (1) A person who has an ownership or controlling interest of 30677
at least five per cent in an applicant, in a healthlong-term care 30678
facility that is the subject of an application for a certificate 30679
of need, or in the owner or operator of the applicant or such a 30680
facility;30681

       (2) An officer, director, trustee, or general partner of an 30682
applicant, of a healthlong-term care facility that is the subject 30683
of an application for a certificate of need, or of the owner or 30684
operator of the applicant or such a facility.30685

       (CC)(S) "Actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiency" 30686
means a deficiency that, under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either 30687
constitutes a pattern of deficiencies resulting in actual harm 30688
that is not immediate jeopardy or represents widespread 30689
deficiencies resulting in actual harm that is not immediate 30690
jeopardy.30691

       (DD)(T) "Immediate jeopardy deficiency" means a deficiency 30692
that, under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a pattern of 30693
deficiencies resulting in immediate jeopardy to resident health or 30694
safety or represents widespread deficiencies resulting in 30695
immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety.30696

       (U) "Existing bed" or "existing long-term care bed" means a 30697
bed from an existing long-term care facility, a bed described in 30698
division (O)(5) of this section, or a bed correctly reported as a 30699
long-term care bed pursuant to section 5155.38 of the Revised 30700
Code.30701

       Sec. 3702.511. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 30702
section, the following activities are reviewable under sections 30703
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code:30704

       (1) Establishment, development, or construction of a new 30705
long-term care facility;30706

       (2) Replacement of an existing long-term care facility;30707

       (3) Renovation of or addition to a long-term care facility 30708
that involves a capital expenditure of two million dollars or 30709
more, not including expenditures for equipment, staffing, or 30710
operational costs;30711

       (4) Either of the following changes in long-term care bed 30712
capacity:30713

       (a) An increase in bed capacity;30714

       (b) A relocation of beds from one physical facility or site 30715
to another, excluding relocation of beds within a long-term care 30716
facility or among buildings of a long-term care facility at the 30717
same site.30718

       (5) Any change in the bed capacity or site, or any other 30719
failure to conduct a reviewable activity in substantial accordance 30720
with the approved application for which a certificate of need 30721
concerning long-term care beds was granted, if the change is made 30722
within five years after the implementation of the reviewable 30723
activity for which the certificate was granted;30724

       (6) Expenditure of more than one hundred ten per cent of the 30725
maximum expenditure specified in a certificate of need concerning 30726
long-term care beds.30727

       (B) The following activities are not subject to review under 30728
sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code:30729

       (1) Acquisition of computer hardware or software;30730

       (2) Acquisition of a telephone system;30731

       (3) Construction or acquisition of parking facilities;30732

       (4) Correction of cited deficiencies that constitute an 30733
imminent threat to public health or safety and are in violation of 30734
federal, state, or local fire, building, or safety statutes, 30735
ordinances, rules, or regulations;30736

       (5) Acquisition of an existing long-term care facility that 30737
does not involve a change in the number of the beds;30738

       (6) Mergers, consolidations, or other corporate 30739
reorganizations of long-term care facilities that do not involve a 30740
change in the number of beds;30741

       (7) Construction, repair, or renovation of bathroom 30742
facilities;30743

       (8) Construction of laundry facilities, waste disposal 30744
facilities, dietary department projects, heating and air 30745
conditioning projects, administrative offices, and portions of 30746
medical office buildings used exclusively for physician services;30747

       (9) Removal of asbestos from a health care facility.30748

       Only that portion of a project that is described in this 30749
division is not reviewable.30750

       Sec. 3702.52.  The director of health shall administer a 30751
state certificate of need program in accordance with sections 30752
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 30753
those sections.30754

       (A) The director shall issue rulings on whether a particular 30755
proposed project is a reviewable activity. The director shall 30756
issue a ruling not later than forty-five days after receiving a 30757
request for a ruling accompanied by the information needed to make 30758
the ruling. If the director does not issue a ruling in that time, 30759
the project shall be considered to have been ruled not a 30760
reviewable activity.30761

       (B)(1) Each application for a certificate of need shall be 30762
submitted to the director on forms and in the manner prescribed by 30763
the director. Each application shall include a plan for obligating 30764
the capital expenditures or implementing the proposed project on a 30765
timely basis in accordance with section 3702.5253702.524 of the 30766
Revised Code. Each application shall also include all other 30767
information required by rules adopted under division (B) of 30768
section 3702.57 of the Revised Code.30769

       (2) Each application shall be accompanied by the application 30770
fee established in rules adopted under division (G) of section 30771
3702.57 of the Revised Code. Application fees received by the 30772
director under this division shall be deposited into the state 30773
treasury to the credit of the certificate of need fund, which is 30774
hereby created. The director shall use the fund only to pay the 30775
costs of administering sections 3702.11 to 3702.20, 3702.30, and 30776
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 30777
those sections. An application fee is nonrefundable unless the 30778
director determines that the application cannot be accepted.30779

       (3) The director shall review applications for certificates 30780
of need. As part of a review, the director shall determine whether 30781
an application is complete. The director shall not consider an 30782
application to be complete unless the application meets all 30783
criteria for a complete application specified in rules adopted 30784
under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code. The director shall mail 30785
to the applicant a written notice that the application is 30786
complete, or a written request for additional information, not 30787
later than thirty days after receiving an application or a 30788
response to an earlier request for information. Except as provided 30789
in section 3702.5233702.522 of the Revised Code, the director 30790
shall not make more than two requests for additional information. 30791
The director's determination that an application is not complete 30792
is final and not subject to appeal.30793

       The director may conduct a public informational hearing in 30794
the course of reviewing any application for a certificate of need, 30795
and shall conduct one if requested to do so by any affected person 30796
not later than fifteen days after the director mails the notice 30797
that the application is complete. The hearing shall be conducted 30798
in the community in which the activities authorized by the 30799
certificate of need would be carried out. Any affected person may 30800
testify at the hearing. The director may, with the health service 30801
agency's consent, designate a health service agency to conduct the 30802
hearing.30803

       (4) Except during a public hearing or as necessary to comply 30804
with a subpoena issued under division (E)(F) of this section, 30805
after a notice of completeness has been received, no person shall 30806
make revisions to information that was submitted to the director 30807
before the director mailed the notice of completeness or knowingly 30808
discuss in person or by telephone the merits of the application 30809
with the director. A person may supplement an application after a 30810
notice of completeness has been received by submitting clarifying 30811
information to the director. If one or more persons request a 30812
meeting in person or by telephone, the director shall make a 30813
reasonable effort to invite interested parties to the meeting or 30814
conference call.30815

       (C) All of the following apply to the process of granting or 30816
denying a certificate of need:30817

        (1) If the project proposed in a certificate of need 30818
application meets all of the applicable certificate of need 30819
criteria for approval under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the 30820
Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections, the 30821
director shall grant a certificate of need for all or part of the 30822
project that is the subject of the application by the applicable 30823
deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section or any 30824
extension of it under division (C)(5) of this section.30825

       (2) The director's grant of a certificate of need does not 30826
affect, and sets no precedent for, the director's decision to 30827
grant or deny other applications for similar reviewable activities 30828
proposed to be conducted in the same or different health service 30829
areas.30830

       (3) If the director receives written objections to an 30831
application from anyAny affected person may submit written 30832
comments regarding an application. The director shall consider all 30833
written comments received by the thirtieth day after mailing the 30834
notice of completeness, the director shall notify the applicant 30835
and assign a hearing examiner to conduct an adjudication hearing 30836
concerning the application in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 30837
Revised Code. Inor, in the case of applications under comparative 30838
review, if the director receives written objections to any of the 30839
applications from any affected person by the thirtieth day after 30840
the director mails the last notice of completeness, the director 30841
shall notify all of the applicants and appoint a hearing examiner 30842
to conduct a consolidated adjudication hearing concerning the 30843
applications in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 30844
The hearing examiner shall be employed by or under contract with 30845
the department of health.30846

       The adjudication hearings may be conducted in the health 30847
service area in which the reviewable activity is proposed to be 30848
conducted. Consolidated adjudication hearings for applications in 30849
comparative review may be conducted in the geographic region in 30850
which all of the reviewable activities will be conducted. The 30851
applicant, the director, and the affected persons that filed 30852
objections to the application shall be parties to the hearing. If 30853
none of the affected persons that submitted written objections to 30854
the application appears or prosecutes the hearing, the hearing 30855
examiner shall dismiss the hearing and the director shall grant a 30856
certificate of need for all or part of the project that is the 30857
subject of the application if the proposed project meets all of 30858
the applicable certificate of need criteria for approval under 30859
sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code and the rules 30860
adopted under those sections. The affected persons bear the burden 30861
of proving by a preponderance of evidence that the project is not 30862
needed or that granting the certificate would not be in accordance 30863
with sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code or the rules 30864
adopted under those sections.30865

       (4) Except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section, 30866
the director shall grant or deny certificate of need applications 30867
for which an adjudication hearing is not conducted under division 30868
(C)(3) of this section not later than sixty days after mailing the 30869
notice of completeness or, in the case of an application proposing 30870
addition of long-term care beds, not later than sixty days after 30871
such other time as is specified in rules adopted under section 30872
3702.57 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division (C)(5) 30873
of this section, the director shall grant or deny certificate of 30874
need applications for which an adjudication hearing is conducted 30875
under division (C)(3) of this section not later than thirty days 30876
after the expiration of the time for filing objections to the 30877
report and recommendation of the hearing examiner under section 30878
119.09 of the Revised Code. The director shall base decisions 30879
concerning applications for which an adjudication hearing is 30880
conducted under division (C)(3) of this section on the report and 30881
recommendations of the hearing examiner.30882

       (5) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6) of this 30883
section, the director or the applicant may extend the deadline 30884
prescribed in division (C)(4) of this section once, for no longer 30885
than thirty days, by written notice before the end of the deadline 30886
prescribed by division (C)(4) of this section. An extension by the 30887
director under division (C)(5) of this section shall apply to all 30888
applications that are in comparative review.30889

       (6) No applicant in a comparative review may extend the 30890
deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this section. 30891

       (7) If the director does not grant or deny the certificate by 30892
the applicable deadline specified in division (C)(4) of this 30893
section or any extension of it under division (C)(5) of this 30894
section, the certificate shall be considered to have been granted. 30895

       (8) In granting a certificate of need, the director shall 30896
specify as the maximum capital expenditure the certificate holder 30897
may obligate under the certificate a figure equal to one hundred 30898
ten per cent of the approved project cost.30899

       (9) In granting a certificate of need, the director may grant 30900
the certificate with conditions that must be met by the holder of 30901
the certificate.30902

       (D) When a certificate of need is granted for a project under 30903
which beds are to be relocated, upon completion of the project for 30904
which the certificate of need was granted a number of beds equal 30905
to the number of beds relocated shall cease to be operated in the 30906
long-term care facility from which they are relocated, except that 30907
the beds may continue to be operated for not more than fifteen 30908
days to allow relocation of residents to the facility to which the 30909
beds have been relocated. Notwithstanding section 3721.03 of the 30910
Revised Code, if the relocated beds are in a home licensed under 30911
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the facility's license is 30912
automatically reduced by the number of beds relocated effective 30913
fifteen days after the beds are relocated. If the beds are in a 30914
facility that is certified as a skilled nursing facility or 30915
nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security 30916
Act," the certification for the beds shall be surrendered. If the 30917
beds are registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as 30918
skilled nursing beds or long-term care beds, the director shall 30919
remove the beds from registration not later than fifteen days 30920
after the beds are relocated.30921

       (E) The director shall monitor the activities of persons 30922
granted certificates of need during the period beginning with the 30923
granting of the certificate of need and ending five years after 30924
implementation of the activity for which the certificate was 30925
granted.30926

       (E)(F) When reviewing applications for certificates of need, 30927
considering appeals under section 3702.60 of the Revised Code, or 30928
monitoring activities of persons granted certificates of need, the 30929
director may issue and enforce, in the manner provided in section 30930
119.09 of the Revised Code, subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum to 30931
compel the production ofa person to testify and produce documents 30932
relevant to review of the application, consideration of the 30933
appeal, or monitoring of the activities. In addition, the director 30934
or the director's designee, which may include a health service 30935
agency, may visit the sites where the activities are or will be 30936
conducted.30937

       (F)(G) The director may withdraw certificates of need.30938

       (G) The director shall conduct, on a regular basis, health 30939
system data collection and analysis activities and prepare 30940
reports. The director shall make recommendations based upon these 30941
activities to the public health council concerning the adoption of 30942
appropriate rules under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code.(H)30943
All healthlong-term care facilities and other health care 30944
providers shall submit to the director, upon request, any 30945
information prescribed by rules adopted under division (H) of 30946
section 3702.57 of the Revised Code that is necessary to conduct 30947
reviews of certificate of need applications and to develop 30948
recommendations for criteria for reviews, and that is prescribed 30949
by rules adopted under division (H) of section 3702.57 of the 30950
Revised Code.30951

       (H)(I) Any decision to grant or deny a certificate of need 30952
shall consider the special needs and circumstances resulting from 30953
moral and ethical values and the free exercise of religious rights 30954
of healthlong-term care facilities administered by religious 30955
organizations, and the special needs and circumstances of inner 30956
city and rural communities.30957

       Sec. 3702.522.        Sec. 3702.521.  (A) Reviews of applications for 30958
certificates of need to recategorize hospital beds to skilled 30959
nursing beds shall be conducted in accordance with this division 30960
and rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council.30961

       (1) No hospital recategorizing beds shall apply for a 30962
certificate of need for more than twenty skilled nursing beds.30963

       (2) No beds for which a certificate of need is requested 30964
under this division shall be reviewed under or counted in any 30965
formula developed under public health council rules adopted by the 30966
director for the purpose of determining the number of long-term 30967
care beds that may be needed within the state.30968

       (3) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 30969
hospital certifies and demonstrates in the application that the 30970
beds will be dedicated to patients with a length of stay of no 30971
more than thirty days.30972

       (4) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 30973
hospital can satisfactorily demonstrate in the application that it 30974
is routinely unable to place the patients planned for the beds in 30975
accessible skilled nursing facilities.30976

       (5) In developing rules to implement this division, the30977
public health councildirector shall give special attention to the 30978
required documentation of the need for such beds, including the 30979
efforts made by the hospital to place patients in suitable skilled 30980
nursing facilities, and special attention to the appropriate size 30981
of units with such beds given the historical pattern of the 30982
applicant hospital's documented difficulty in placing skilled 30983
nursing patients.30984

       (B) To assist the director of healthFor assistance in 30985
monitoring the use of hospital beds recategorized as skilled 30986
nursing beds after August 5, 1989, the public health council30987
director shall adopt rules specifying appropriate quarterly 30988
procedures for reporting to the department of health.30989

       (C) A patient may stay in a hospital bed that, after August 30990
5, 1989, has been recategorized as a skilled nursing bed for more 30991
than thirty days if the hospital is able to demonstrate that it 30992
made a good faith effort to place the patient in an accessible 30993
skilled nursing facility acceptable to the patient within the 30994
thirty-day period, but was unable to do so.30995

       (D) No hospital bed recategorized after August 5, 1989, as a 30996
skilled nursing bed shall be covered by a provider agreement under 30997
the medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111. of 30998
the Revised Code.30999

       (E) Nothing in this section requires a hospital to place a 31000
patient in any nursing home if the patient does not wish to be 31001
placed in the nursing home. Nothing in this section limits the 31002
ability of a hospital to file a certificate of need application 31003
for the addition of long-term care beds that meet the definition 31004
of "home" in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this 31005
section limits the ability of the director to grant certificates 31006
of need necessary for hospitals to engage in demonstration 31007
projects authorized by the federal government for the purpose of 31008
enhancing long-term quality of care and cost containment. Nothing 31009
in this section limits the ability of hospitals to develop swing 31010
bed programs in accordance with federal regulations.31011

       No hospital that is granted a certificate of need after 31012
August 5, 1989, to recategorize hospital beds as skilled nursing 31013
beds is subject to sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the Revised 31014
Code. If the portion of the hospital in which the recategorized 31015
beds are located is certified as a skilled nursing facility under 31016
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 31017
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, that portion of the hospital is subject 31018
to sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 and sections 3721.21 to 3721.34 of 31019
the Revised Code. If the beds are registered pursuant to section 31020
3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds, the beds are 31021
subject to sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code.31022

       (F) The public health council shall adopt rules authorizing 31023
the creation of one or more nursing home placement clearinghouses. 31024
Any public or private agency or facility may apply to the 31025
department of health to serve as a nursing home placement 31026
clearinghouse, and the rules shall provide the procedure for 31027
application and process for designation of clearinghouses.31028

       The department may approve one or more clearinghouses, but in 31029
no event shall there be more than one nursing home placement 31030
clearinghouse in each county. Any nursing home may list with a 31031
nursing home placement clearinghouse the services it provides and 31032
the types of patients it is approved for and equipped to serve. 31033
The clearinghouse shall make reasonable efforts to update its 31034
information at least every six months.31035

       If an appropriate clearinghouse has been designated, each 31036
hospital granted a certificate of need after August 5, 1989, to 31037
recategorize hospital beds as skilled nursing beds shall, and any 31038
other hospital may, utilize the nursing home placement 31039
clearinghouse prior to admitting a patient to a skilled nursing 31040
bed within the hospital and prior to keeping a patient in a 31041
skilled nursing bed within a hospital in excess of thirty days.31042

       The department shall provide at least annually to all 31043
hospitals a list of the designated nursing home placement 31044
clearinghouses.31045

       Sec. 3702.523.        Sec. 3702.522.  A person who has an application for 31046
a certificate of need pending with the director of health may 31047
revise the application to change the site of the proposed project 31048
unless either of the following applies:31049

       (A) The director, under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, 31050
has mailed the applicant a written notice that the application is 31051
complete.31052

       (B) The application is subject to a comparative review under 31053
section 3702.593 of the Revised Code.31054

       The only revision that may be made in the revised application 31055
is the site of the proposed project. The revised site of the 31056
proposed project must be located in the same county as the site of 31057
the proposed project specified in the original application. The 31058
director may not accept a revised application if it includes 31059
revisions other than the site of the proposed project or if the 31060
revised site is located in a different county than the county in 31061
which the site specified in the original application is located. 31062

       A revised application shall be accompanied by an additional, 31063
non-refundablenonrefundable fee equal to twenty-five per cent of 31064
the fee charged under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code for the 31065
original application. The additional fee shall be deposited into 31066
the certificate of need fund created under section 3702.52 of the 31067
Revised Code. 31068

       On acceptance of a revised application, the director shall 31069
continue to review the application as revised in accordance with 31070
section 3702.52 of the Revised Code to determine whether it is 31071
complete and, if necessary and regardless of whether the director 31072
previously made two requests for additional information, may make 31073
a final written request to the applicant for additional 31074
information not later than thirty days after the date the director 31075
accepts the revised application.31076

       Sec. 3702.524.        Sec. 3702.523.  (A) Except as provided in division 31077
(B) of this section, a certificate of need granted on or after 31078
April 20, 1995, is not transferable prior to the completion of the 31079
reviewable activity for which it was granted. If any person 31080
holding a certificate of need issued on or after that date31081
transfers the certificate of need to another person before the 31082
reviewable activity is completed, or enters into an agreement that 31083
contemplates the transfer of the certificate of need on the 31084
completion of the reviewable activity, the certificate of need is 31085
void. If the controlling interest in an entity that holds a 31086
certificate of need issued on or after that date is transferred 31087
prior to the completion of the reviewable activity, the 31088
certificate of need is void.31089

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not prohibit the 31090
transfer of a certificate of need issued on or after April 20, 31091
1995, between affiliated or related persons, as defined in rules 31092
adopted under section 3702.57 of the Revised Code, if the transfer 31093
does not result in a change in the person that holds the ultimate 31094
controlling interest, as defined in the rules, in the certificate 31095
of need.31096

       The transfer of a healthlong-term care facility after the 31097
completion of a reviewable activity for which a certificate of 31098
need was issued on or after April 20, 1995, is not a transfer of 31099
the certificate of need, unless the facility is transferred 31100
pursuant to an agreement entered into prior to the completion of 31101
the reviewable activity.31102

       Sec. 3702.525.        Sec. 3702.524.  (A) Not later than twenty-four 31103
months after the date the director of health mails the notice that 31104
the certificate of need has been granted or, if the grant or 31105
denial of the certificate of need is appealed under section 31106
3702.60 of the Revised Code, not later than twenty-four months 31107
after issuance of an order granting the certificate that is not 31108
subject to further appeal, each person holding a certificate of 31109
need granted on or after April 20, 1995, shall:31110

       (1) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31111
granted primarily involves construction and is to be financed 31112
primarily through external borrowing of funds, secure financial 31113
commitment for the stated purpose of developing the project and 31114
commence construction that continues uninterrupted except for 31115
interruptions or delays that are unavoidable due to reasons beyond 31116
the person's control, including labor strikes, natural disasters, 31117
material shortages, or comparable events;31118

       (2) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31119
granted primarily involves construction and is to be financed 31120
primarily internally, receive formal approval from the holder's 31121
board of directors or trustees or other governing authority to 31122
commit specified funds for implementation of the project and 31123
commence construction that continues uninterrupted except for 31124
interruptions or delays that are unavoidable due to reasons beyond 31125
the person's control, including labor strikes, natural disasters, 31126
material shortages, or comparable events;31127

       (3) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31128
granted primarily involves acquisition of medical equipment, enter 31129
into a contract to purchase or lease the equipment and to accept 31130
the equipment at the site for which the certificate was granted;31131

       (4) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31132
granted involves no capital expenditure or only minor renovations 31133
to existing structures, provide the healthlong-term care service 31134
or activity by the means specified in the approved application for 31135
the certificate;31136

       (5)(4) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31137
granted primarily involves leasing a building or space that 31138
requires only minor renovations to the existing space, execute a 31139
lease and provide the healthlong-term care service or activity by 31140
the means specified in the approved application for the 31141
certificate;31142

       (6)(5) If the project for which the certificate of need was 31143
granted primarily involves leasing a building or space that has 31144
not been constructed or requires substantial renovations to 31145
existing space, commence construction for the purpose of 31146
implementing the reviewable activity that continues uninterrupted 31147
except for interruptions or delays that are unavoidable due to 31148
reasons beyond the person's control, including labor strikes, 31149
natural disasters, material shortages, or comparable events.31150

       (B) The twenty-four-month period specified in division (A) of 31151
this section shall not be extended by any means, including the 31152
granting of a subsequent or replacement certificate of need. Each 31153
person holding a certificate of need granted on or after April 20, 31154
1995, shall provide the director of health documentation of 31155
compliance with that division not later than the earlier of thirty 31156
days after complying with that division or five days after the 31157
twenty-four-month period expires. Not later than the earlier of 31158
fifteen days after receiving the documentation or fifteen days 31159
after the twenty-four-month period expires, the director shall 31160
send by certified mail a notice to the holder of the certificate 31161
of need specifying whether the holder has complied with division 31162
(A) of this section.31163

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, the 31164
twenty-four-month period specified in division (A) of this section 31165
shall be extended for an additional twenty-four months for any 31166
certificate of need granted for the purchase and relocation of 31167
licensed nursing home beds on February 26, 1999.31168

       (D) A certificate of need granted on or after April 20, 1995,31169
expires, regardless of whether the director sends a notice under 31170
division (B) of this section, if the holder fails to comply with 31171
division (A) or (C) of this section or to provide information 31172
under division (B) of this section as necessary for the director 31173
to determine compliance. The determination by the director that a 31174
certificate of need has expired is final and not appealable under 31175
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.31176

       Sec. 3702.526.        Sec. 3702.525.  Every six months after complying 31177
with section 3702.5253702.524 of the Revised Code, the holder of 31178
the certificate of need shall demonstrate to the director of 31179
health, in the form and manner required by rules adopted under 31180
section 3702.57 of the Revised Code, that reasonable progress is 31181
being made toward the completion of the reviewable activity. If 31182
the director determines, in accordance with standards specified in 31183
the rules, that reasonable progress is not being made, hethe 31184
director shall withdraw the certificate of need.31185

       Sec. 3702.526. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 31186
section, the director of health shall accept an application for a 31187
replacement certificate of need for an activity described in 31188
division (A)(5) of section 3702.511 of the Revised Code to replace 31189
an approved certificate of need for that activity if all of the 31190
following conditions are met:31191

       (1) The applicant is the same as the applicant for the 31192
approved certificate of need or an affiliated or related person as 31193
described in division (B) of section 3702.523 of the Revised Code.31194

       (2) The source of any long-term care beds to be relocated is 31195
the same as in the approved certificate of need.31196

       (3) The application for the approved certificate of need was 31197
not subject to comparative review under section 3702.593 of the 31198
Revised Code.31199

       (B) The director shall not accept an application for a 31200
replacement certificate that proposes to increase the number of 31201
long-term care beds to be relocated specified in the application 31202
for the approved certificate of need.31203

       (C) For the purpose of determining whether long-term care 31204
beds are from an existing long-term care facility, the director 31205
shall consider the date of filing of the application for a 31206
replacement certificate to be the same as the date of filing of 31207
the original application for the approved certificate of need.31208

       (D) Any long-term care beds that were approved in the 31209
approved certificate of need remain approved in the application 31210
for a replacement certificate.31211

       (E) The applicant shall submit with the application for a 31212
replacement certificate a nonrefundable fee equal to the 31213
application fee for the approved certificate of need.31214

       (F) Upon approval of the application for a replacement 31215
certificate, the original certificate of need is automatically 31216
voided.31217

       Sec. 3702.527.  A bed described in division (O)(5) of section 31218
3702.51 of the Revised Code may be converted to a bed described in 31219
division (O)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of that section only as provided 31220
in the certificate of need under which the beds were approved or 31221
its replacement certificate of need.31222

       Sec. 3702.53.  (A) No person shall carry out any reviewable 31223
activity unless a certificate of need for such activity has been 31224
granted under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code or 31225
the person is exempted by division (S)(B) of section 3702.5131226
3702.511 or section 3702.5210 or 3702.62 of the Revised Code from 31227
the requirement that a certificate of need be obtained. No person 31228
shall carry out any reviewable activity if a certificate of need 31229
authorizing that activity has been withdrawn by the director of 31230
health under section 3702.52 or 3702.5263702.525 of the Revised 31231
Code. No person shall carry out a reviewable activity if the 31232
certificate of need authorizing that activity is void pursuant to 31233
section 3702.5243702.523 of the Revised Code or has expired 31234
pursuant to section 3702.5253702.524 of the Revised Code.31235

       (B) No person shall separate portions of any proposal for any 31236
reviewable activity to evade the requirements of sections 3702.51 31237
to 3702.62 of the Revised Code.31238

       (C) No person granted a certificate of need shall carry out 31239
the reviewable activity authorized by the certificate of need 31240
other than in substantial accordance with the approved application 31241
for the certificate of need.31242

       Sec. 3702.531.  The director of health shall evaluate and may 31243
investigate evidence that appears to demonstrate that any person 31244
has violated section 3702.53 of the Revised Code. If the director 31245
elects to conduct an investigation, hethe director shall mail to 31246
the alleged violator by certified mail, return receipt requested, 31247
a notice that an investigation is underway.31248

       When conducting an investigation under this section, the 31249
director may request any relevant information pertaining to the 31250
alleged violation, including the total operating cost of the 31251
activity in question during the period of the alleged violation 31252
and the total capital cost associated with implementation of the 31253
activity. A person shall provide information requested by the 31254
director not later than forty-five days after receiving the 31255
director's request. The director also may issue and enforce, in 31256
the manner provided in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, subpoenas 31257
duces tecum to compel the production of documents relevant to the 31258
alleged violation. The subpoenas may be served in any manner 31259
authorized by the rules of civil procedure.31260

       The director or histhe director's designee, which may 31261
include a health service agency, may conduct a site visit to 31262
investigate an alleged violation of section 3702.53 of the Revised 31263
Code.31264

       Each investigation under this section shall be conducted in a 31265
manner that protects patient confidentiality. Names or other 31266
identifying information about any patient shall not be made public 31267
without the written consent of the patient or histhe patient's31268
guardian, or, if the patient is a minor, histhe patient's parent 31269
or guardian.31270

       Sec. 3702.54.  Except as provided in section 3702.541 of the 31271
Revised Code, divisions (A) and (B) of this section apply when the 31272
director of health determines that a person has violated section 31273
3702.53 of the Revised Code.31274

       (A) The director shall impose a civil penalty on the person 31275
in an amount equal to the greatest of the following:31276

       (1) Three thousand dollars;31277

       (2) Five per cent of the operating cost of the activity that 31278
constitutes the violation during the period of time it was 31279
conducted in violation of section 3702.53 of the Revised Code;31280

       (3) If a certificate of need was granted, two per cent of the 31281
total approved capital cost associated with implementation of the 31282
activity for which the certificate of need was granted.31283

       In no event, however, shall the penalty exceed two hundred 31284
fifty thousand dollars.31285

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, 31286
the director shall refuse to accept for review any application for 31287
a certificate of need filed by or on behalf of the person, or any 31288
successor to the person or entity related to the person, for a 31289
period of not less than one year and not more than three years 31290
after the director mails the notice of the director's 31291
determination under section 3702.532 of the Revised Code or, if 31292
the determination is appealed under section 3702.60 of the Revised 31293
Code, the issuance of the order upholding the determination that 31294
is not subject to further appeal. In determining the length of 31295
time during which applications will not be accepted, the director 31296
may consider any of the following:31297

       (a) The nature and magnitude of the violation;31298

       (b) The ability of the person to have averted the violation;31299

       (c) Whether the person disclosed the violation to the 31300
director before the director commenced his investigation;31301

       (d) The person's history of compliance with sections 3702.51 31302
to 3702.62 and the rules adopted under section 3702.57 of the 31303
Revised Code;31304

       (e) Any community hardship that may result from refusing to 31305
accept future applications from the person.31306

       (2) Notwithstanding the one-year minimum imposed by division 31307
(B)(1) of this section, the director may establish a period of 31308
less than one year during which the director will refuse to accept 31309
certificate of need applications if, after reviewing all 31310
information available to the director, the director determines and 31311
expressly indicates in the notice mailed under section 3702.532 of 31312
the Revised Code that refusing to accept applications for a longer 31313
period would result in hardship to the community in which the 31314
person provides healthlong-term care services. The director's 31315
finding of community hardship shall not affect the granting or 31316
denial of any future certificate of need application filed by the 31317
person.31318

       Sec. 3702.55.  A person that the director of health 31319
determines has violated section 3702.53 of the Revised Code shall 31320
cease conducting the activity that constitutes the violation or 31321
utilizing the equipment or facility resulting from the violation 31322
not later than thirty days after the person receives the notice 31323
mailed under section 3702.532 of the Revised Code or, if the 31324
person appeals the director's determination under section 3702.60 31325
of the Revised Code, thirty days after the person receives an 31326
order upholding the director's determination that is not subject 31327
to further appeal. 31328

       If any person determined to have violated section 3702.53 of 31329
the Revised Code fails to cease conducting an activity or using31330
equipment or a facility as required by this section or if the 31331
person continues to seek payment or reimbursement for services 31332
rendered or costs incurred in conducting the activity as 31333
prohibited by section 3702.56 of the Revised Code, in addition to 31334
the penalties imposed under section 3702.54 or 3702.541 of the 31335
Revised Code:31336

       (A) The director of health may refuse to include any beds 31337
involved in the activity in the bed capacity of a hospital for 31338
purposes of registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised 31339
Code;31340

       (B) The director of health may refuse to license, or may 31341
revoke a license or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a 31342
hospice care program under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code; a 31343
nursing home, rest homeresidential care facility, or home for the 31344
aging under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code; or any beds 31345
within any of those facilities that are involved in the activity;31346

       (C) A political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 31347
of the Revised Code may refuse to license, or may revoke a license 31348
or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a nursing home, rest 31349
homeresidential care facility, or home for the aging, or any beds 31350
within any of those facilities that are involved in the activity;31351

       (D) The director of mental health may refuse to license under 31352
section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, or may revoke a license or 31353
reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a hospital receiving 31354
mentally ill persons or beds within such a hospital that are 31355
involved in the activity;31356

       (E) The department of job and family services may refuse to 31357
enter into a provider agreement that includes a facility, beds, or 31358
services that result from the activity.31359

       Sec. 3702.56.  No third-party payer or other person or 31360
government entity is required to pay, and no person shall seek or 31361
accept payment or reimbursement for, any service rendered or costs 31362
incurred in conducting an activity during the period of time in 31363
which the activity was conducted in violation of section 3702.53 31364
of the Revised Code. Each person that accepts any amount in 31365
violation of this division shall refund that amount on request of 31366
the person or government entity that paid it.31367

       Sec. 3702.57.  (A) The publicdirector of health council31368
shall adopt rules establishing procedures and criteria for reviews 31369
of applications for certificates of need and issuance, denial, or 31370
withdrawal of certificates.31371

       (1) In adopting rules that establish criteria for reviews of 31372
applications of certificates of need, the councildirector shall 31373
consider the availability of and need for long-term care beds to 31374
provide care and treatment to persons diagnosed as having 31375
traumatic brain injuries and shall prescribe criteria for 31376
reviewing applications that propose to add long-term care beds to 31377
provide care and treatment to persons diagnosed as having 31378
traumatic brain injuries.31379

       (2) The criteria for reviews of applications for certificates 31380
of need shall relate to the need for the reviewable activity and 31381
shall pertain to all of the following matters:31382

       (a) The impact of the reviewable activity on the cost and 31383
quality of healthlong-term care services in the relevant 31384
geographicservice area, including, but not limited, to the 31385
historical and projected utilization of the services to which the 31386
application pertains and the effect of the reviewable activity on 31387
utilization of other providers of similar services;31388

       (b) The quality of the services to be provided as the result 31389
of the activity, as evidenced by the historical performance of the 31390
persons that will be involved in providing the services and by the 31391
provisions that are proposed in the application to ensure quality, 31392
including but not limited to adequate available personnel, 31393
available ancillary and support services, available equipment, 31394
size and configuration of physical plant, and relations with other 31395
providers;31396

       (c) The impact of the reviewable activity on the availability 31397
and accessibility of the type of services proposed in the 31398
application to the population of the relevant geographicservice31399
area, and the level of access to the services proposed in the 31400
application that will be provided to medically underserved 31401
individuals such as recipients of public assistance and 31402
individuals who have no health insurance or whose health insurance 31403
is insufficient;31404

       (d) The activity's short- and long-term financial feasibility 31405
and cost-effectiveness, the impact of the activity on the 31406
applicant's costs and charges, and a comparison of the applicant's 31407
costs and charges with those of providers of similar services in 31408
the applicant's proposed service area;31409

       (e) The advantages, disadvantages, and costs of alternatives 31410
to the reviewable activity;31411

       (f) The impact of the activity on all other providers of 31412
similar services in the health service area or other relevant 31413
geographicservice area, including the impact on their 31414
utilization, market share, and financial status;31415

       (g) The historical performance of the applicant and related 31416
or affiliated parties in complying with previously granted 31417
certificates of need and any applicable certification, 31418
accreditation, or licensure requirements;31419

       (h) The relationship of the activity to the current edition 31420
of the state health resources plan issued under section 3702.521 31421
of the Revised Code;31422

       (i) The historical performance of the applicant and related 31423
or affiliated parties in providing cost-effective healthlong-term31424
care services;31425

       (j)(i) The special needs and circumstances of the applicant 31426
or population proposed to be served by the proposed project, 31427
including research activities, prevalence of particular diseases, 31428
unusual demographic characteristics, cost-effective contractual 31429
affiliations, and other special circumstances;31430

       (k)(j) The appropriateness of the zoning status of the 31431
proposed site of the activity;31432

       (l)(k) The participation by the applicant in research 31433
conducted by the United States food and drug administration or 31434
clinical trials sponsored by the national institutes of health.31435

       (3) The criteria for reviews of applications shall include a 31436
formula for determining each county's long-term care bed need for 31437
purposes of section 3702.593 of the Revised Code and may include 31438
other formulas for determining need for beds.31439

        Any rules prescribing criteria that establish ratios of beds 31440
to population shall specify the bases for establishing the ratios 31441
or mitigating factors or exceptions to the ratios.31442

       (B) The councildirector shall adopt rules specifying all of 31443
the following:31444

       (1) Information that must be provided in applications for 31445
certificates of need;31446

       (2) Procedures for reviewing applications for completeness of 31447
information;31448

       (3) Criteria for determining that the application is 31449
complete.31450

       (C) The councildirector shall adopt rules specifying 31451
requirements that holders of certificates of need must meet in 31452
order for the certificates to remain valid and establishing 31453
definitions and requirements for obligation of capital 31454
expenditures and implementation of projects authorized by 31455
certificates of need.31456

       (D) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 31457
criteria and procedures under which the director of health may 31458
withdraw a certificate of need if the holder fails to meet 31459
requirements for continued validity of the certificate.31460

       (E) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 31461
procedures under which the department of health shall monitor 31462
project implementation activities of holders of certificates of 31463
need. The rules adopted under this division also may establish 31464
procedures for monitoring implementation activities of persons 31465
that have received nonreviewability rulings.31466

       (F) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 31467
procedures under which the director of health shall review 31468
certificates of need whose holders exceed or appear likely to 31469
exceed an expenditure maximum specified in a certificate.31470

       (G) The councildirector shall adopt rules establishing 31471
certificate of need application fees sufficient to pay the costs 31472
incurred by the department for administering sections 3702.51 to 31473
3702.62 of the Revised Code and to pay health service agencies for 31474
the functions they perform under division (D)(5) of section 31475
3702.58 of the Revised Code. Unless rules are adopted under this 31476
division establishing different application fees, the application 31477
fee for a project not involving a capital expenditure shall be 31478
three thousand dollars and the application fee for a project 31479
involving a capital expenditure shall be nine-tenths of one per 31480
cent of the capital expenditure proposed subject to a minimum of 31481
three thousand dollars and a maximum of twenty thousand dollars.31482

       (H) The councildirector shall adopt rules specifying 31483
information that is necessary to conduct reviews of certificate of 31484
need applications and to develop recommendations for criteria for 31485
reviews that healthlong-term care facilities and other health 31486
care providers are to submit to the director under division (G)(H)31487
of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.31488

       (I) The councildirector shall adopt rules defining 31489
"affiliated person," "related person," and "ultimate controlling 31490
interest" for purposes of section 3702.5243702.523 of the Revised 31491
Code.31492

       (J) The councildirector shall adopt rules prescribing 31493
requirements for holders of certificates of need to demonstrate to 31494
the director under section 3702.5263702.525 of the Revised Code 31495
that reasonable progress is being made toward completion of the 31496
reviewable activity and establishing standards by which the 31497
director shall determine whether reasonable progress is being 31498
made.31499

       (K) The public health councildirector shall adopt all rules 31500
under divisions (A) to (J) of this section in accordance with 31501
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The councildirector may adopt 31502
other rules as necessary to carry out the purposes of sections 31503
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code.31504

       Sec. 3702.59.  (A) The director of health shall accept for 31505
review certificate of need applications as provided in sections 31506
3702.592, 3702.593, and 3702.594 of the Revised Code.31507

       (B)(1) The director shall not approve an application for a 31508
certificate of need for the addition of long-term care beds to an 31509
existing healthlong-term care facility or for the development of 31510
a new healthlong-term care facility if any of the following 31511
apply:31512

       (a) The existing healthlong-term care facility in which the 31513
beds are being placed has one or more waivers for life safety code 31514
deficiencies, one or more state fire code violations, or one or 31515
more state building code violations, and the project identified in 31516
the application does not propose to correct all life safety code 31517
deficiencies for which a waiver has been granted, all state fire 31518
code violations, and all state building code violations at the 31519
existing healthlong-term care facility in which the beds are 31520
being placed;31521

       (b) During the sixty-month period preceding the filing of the 31522
application, a notice of proposed license revocation was issued 31523
under section 3721.03 of the Revised Code for the existing health31524
long-term care facility in which the beds are being placed or a 31525
nursing home owned or operated by the applicant or a principal 31526
participant.31527

        (c) During the period that precedes the filing of the 31528
application and is encompassed by the three most recent standard 31529
surveys of the existing healthlong-term care facility in which 31530
the beds are being placed, any of the following occurred:31531

       (i) The facility was cited on three or more separate 31532
occasions for final, nonappealable actual harm but not immediate 31533
jeopardy deficiencies.31534

        (ii) The facility was cited on two or more separate occasions 31535
for final, nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiencies.31536

        (iii) The facility was cited on two separate occasions for 31537
final, nonappealable actual harm but not immediate jeopardy 31538
deficiencies and on one occasion for a final, nonappealable 31539
immediate jeopardy deficiency.31540

       (d) More than two nursing homes owned or operated in this 31541
state by the applicant or a principal participant or, if the 31542
applicant or a principal participant owns or operates more than 31543
twenty nursing homes in this state, more than ten per cent of 31544
those nursing homes, were each cited during the period that 31545
precedes the filing of the application for the certificate of need 31546
and is encompassed by the three most recent standard surveys of 31547
the nursing homes that were so cited in any of the following 31548
manners:31549

       (i) On three or more separate occasions for final, 31550
nonappealable actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiencies;31551

       (ii) On two or more separate occasions for final, 31552
nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiencies;31553

       (iii) On two separate occasions for final, nonappealable 31554
actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiencies and on one 31555
occasion for a final, nonappealable immediate jeopardy deficiency.31556

        (2) In applying divisions (B)(1)(a) to (d) of this section, 31557
the director shall not consider deficiencies or violations cited 31558
before the applicant or a principal participant acquired or began 31559
to own or operate the healthlong-term care facility at which the 31560
deficiencies or violations were cited. The director may disregard 31561
deficiencies and violations cited after the healthlong-term care 31562
facility was acquired or began to be operated by the applicant or 31563
a principal participant if the deficiencies or violations were 31564
attributable to circumstances that arose under the previous owner 31565
or operator and the applicant or principal participant has 31566
implemented measures to alleviate the circumstances. In the case 31567
of an application proposing development of a new healthlong-term31568
care facility by relocation of beds, the director shall not 31569
consider deficiencies or violations that were solely attributable 31570
to the physical plant of the existing healthlong-term care 31571
facility from which the beds are being relocated.31572

       (C) The director also shall accept for review any application 31573
for the conversion of infirmary beds to long-term care beds if the 31574
infirmary meets all of the following conditions:31575

       (1) Is operated exclusively by a religious order;31576

       (2) Provides care exclusively to members of religious orders 31577
who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of their vows within 31578
the orders as if related;31579

       (3) Was providing care exclusively to members of such a 31580
religious order on January 1, 1994.31581

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C)(2) of this section, a 31582
facility that has been granted a certificate of need under 31583
division (C) of this section may provide care to any of the 31584
following family members of the individuals described in division 31585
(C)(2) of this section: mothers, fathers, brothers, sisters, 31586
brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, or children.31587

        The long-term care beds in a facility that have been granted 31588
a certificate of need under division (C) of this section may not 31589
be relocated pursuant to sections 3702.592 to 3702.594 of the 31590
Revised Code.31591

       Sec. 3702.592. (A) The director of health shall accept, for 31592
review under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, certificate of 31593
need applications for any of the following purposes if the 31594
proposed increase in beds is attributable solely to a replacement 31595
or relocation of existing beds from an existing healthlong-term31596
care facility within the same county:31597

       (1) Approval of beds in a new healthlong-term care facility 31598
or an increase of beds in an existing healthlong-term care 31599
facility if the beds are proposed to be licensed as nursing home 31600
beds under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;31601

       (2) Approval of beds in a new county home or new county 31602
nursing home, or an increase of beds in an existing county home or 31603
existing county nursing home if the beds are proposed to be 31604
certified as skilled nursing facility beds under the medicare 31605
program, Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 31606
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended, or nursing facility beds under 31607
the medicaid program, Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 31608
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended;31609

       (3) An increase of hospital beds registered pursuant to 31610
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds;31611

       (4) An increase of hospital beds registered pursuant to 31612
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as special skilled nursing 31613
beds that were originally authorized by and are operated in 31614
accordance with section 3702.5223702.521 of the Revised Code.31615

       (B) The director shall accept applications described in 31616
division (A) of this section at any time.31617

       Sec. 3702.593. (A) At the times specified in this section, 31618
the director of health shall accept, for review under section 31619
3702.52 of the Revised Code, certificate of need applications for 31620
any of the following purposes if the proposed increase in beds is 31621
attributable solely to relocation of existing beds from an 31622
existing healthlong-term care facility in a county with excess 31623
beds to a healthlong-term care facility in a county in which 31624
there are fewer long-term care beds than the county's bed need:31625

       (1) Approval of beds in a new healthlong-term care facility 31626
or an increase of beds in an existing healthlong-term care 31627
facility if the beds are proposed to be licensed as nursing home 31628
beds under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;31629

       (2) Approval of beds in a new county home or new county 31630
nursing home, or an increase of beds in an existing county home or 31631
existing county nursing home if the beds are proposed to be 31632
certified as skilled nursing facility beds under the medicare 31633
program, Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 286 31634
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended, or nursing facility beds under 31635
the medicaid program, Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 31636
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended;31637

       (3) An increase of hospital beds registered pursuant to 31638
section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds.31639

       (B) For the purpose of implementing this section, the 31640
director shall do all of the following:31641

       (1) DetermineNot later than April 1, 2012, and every four 31642
years thereafter, determine the long-term care bed supply for each 31643
county, which shall consist of all of the following:31644

       (a) Nursing home beds licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 31645
Revised Code;31646

       (b) Beds certified as skilled nursing facility beds under the 31647
medicare program or nursing facility beds under the medicaid 31648
program;31649

       (c) Beds in any portion of a hospital that are properly 31650
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled 31651
nursing beds, long-term care beds, or special skilled nursing 31652
beds;31653

       (d) Beds in a county home or county nursing home that are 31654
certified under section 5155.38 of the Revised Code as having been 31655
in operation on July 1, 1993, and are eligible for licensure as 31656
nursing home beds;31657

       (d)(e) Beds held as approved long-term care beds under a 31658
certificate of need approved by the directordescribed in division 31659
(O)(5) of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code.31660

       (2) Determine the long-term care bed occupancy rate for the 31661
state at the time the determination is made;31662

       (3) For each county, determine the county's bed need by 31663
identifying the number of long-term care beds that would be needed 31664
in the county in order for the statewide occupancy rate for a 31665
projected population aged sixty-five and older to be ninety per 31666
cent.31667

       In determining each county's bed need, the director shall use 31668
the formula developed in rules adopted under section 3702.57 of 31669
the Revised Code. The director's first determination after the 31670
effective date of this section shall be made not later than April 31671
1, 2010. The second determination shall be made not later than 31672
April 1, 2012. Thereafter, aA determination shall be made every 31673
four years. After each determination is made, the director shall 31674
publish the county's bed need on the web site maintained by the 31675
department of health.31676

       (C) The director's consideration of a certificate of need 31677
that would increase the number of beds in a county shall be 31678
consistent with the county's bed need determined under division 31679
(B) of this section except as follows:31680

       (1) If a county's occupancy rate is less than eighty-five per 31681
cent, the county shall be considered to have no need for 31682
additional beds.31683

       (2) Even if a county is determined not to need any additional 31684
long-term care beds, the director may approve an increase in beds 31685
equal to up to ten per cent of the county's bed supply if the 31686
county's occupancy rate is greater than ninety per cent.31687

       (D)(1) Applications made under this section shall be subject 31688
to comparative review. The review period for the first comparative31689
review process after the effective date of this section shall 31690
begin July 1, 2010, and end June 30, 2012. The next review period 31691
shall begin July 1, 2012, and end June 30, 2016. Thereafter, the 31692
review period for each comparative review process shall begin on 31693
the first day of July following the end of the previous review 31694
period and shall be four years.31695

       (2) Certificate of need applications shall be accepted during 31696
the first month of the review period and reviewed from the first 31697
day of the review period through the thirtieth day of April of the 31698
following year.31699

       (3) Except for the first review period after the effective 31700
date of this sectionOctober 16, 2009, each review period may 31701
consist of two phases. The first phase of the review period shall 31702
be the period during which the director accepts and reviews 31703
certificate of need applications as provided in division (D)(2) of 31704
this section. If the director determines that there will be 31705
acceptance and review of additional certificate of need 31706
applications, the second phase of the review period shall begin on 31707
the first day of July of the third year of the review period. The 31708
second phase shall be limited to acceptance and review of 31709
applications for redistribution of beds made available pursuant to 31710
division (G)(2)(I) of this section. During the period between the 31711
first and second phases of the review period, the director shall 31712
act in accordance with division (H)(I) of this section.31713

       (E) The director shall consider certificate of need 31714
applications in accordance with all of the following:31715

       (1) The number of beds approved for a county shall include 31716
only beds available for relocation from another county and shall 31717
not exceed the bed need of the receiving county;31718

       (2) The director shall consider the existence of community 31719
resources serving persons who are age sixty-five or older or 31720
disabled that are demonstrably effective in providing alternatives 31721
to long-term care facility placement.31722

       (3) The director shall approve relocation of beds from a 31723
county only if, after the relocation, the number of beds remaining 31724
in the county will exceed the county's bed need by at least one 31725
hundred beds;31726

       (4) The director shall approve relocation of beds from a 31727
healthlong-term care facility only if, after the relocation, the 31728
number of beds in the facility's service area is at least equal to 31729
the state bed need rate. For purposes of this division, a 31730
facility's service area shall be either of the following:31731

       (a) The census tract in which the facility is located, if the 31732
facility is located in an area designated by the United States 31733
secretary of health and human services as a health professional 31734
shortage area under the "Public Health Service Act," 88 Stat. 682 31735
(1944), 42 U.S.C. 254(e), as amended;31736

       (b) The area that is within a fifteen-mile radius of the 31737
facility's location, if the facility is not located in a health 31738
professional shortage area.31739

       (F) Applications made under this section are subject to 31740
comparative review if two or more applications are submitted 31741
during the same review period and any of the following applies:31742

       (1) The applications propose to relocate beds from the same 31743
county and the number of beds for which certificates of need are 31744
being requested totals more than the number of beds available in 31745
the county from which the beds are to be relocated.31746

       (2) The applications propose to relocate beds to the same 31747
county and the number of beds for which certificates of need are 31748
being requested totals more than the number of beds needed in the 31749
county to which the beds are to be relocated.31750

       (3) The applications propose to relocate beds from the same 31751
service area and the number of beds left in the service area from 31752
which the beds are being relocated would be less than the state 31753
bed need rate determined by the director.31754

       (G) In determining which applicants should receive preference 31755
in the comparative review process, the director shall consider all 31756
of the following as weighted priorities:31757

       (1) Whether the beds will be part of a continuing care 31758
retirement community;31759

       (2) Whether the beds will serve an underserved population, 31760
such as low-income individuals, individuals with disabilities, or 31761
individuals who are members of racial or ethnic minority groups;31762

       (3) Whether the project in which the beds will be included 31763
will provide alternatives to institutional care, such as adult 31764
day-care, home health care, respite or hospice care, mobile meals, 31765
residential care, independent living, or congregate living 31766
services;31767

       (4) Whether the healthlong-term care facility's owner or 31768
operator will participate in medicaid waiver programs for 31769
alternatives to institutional care;31770

       (5) Whether the project in which the beds will be included 31771
will reduce alternatives to institutional care by converting 31772
residential care beds or other alternative care beds to long-term 31773
care beds;31774

       (6) Whether the facility in which the beds will be placed has 31775
positive resident and family satisfaction surveys;31776

       (7) Whether the facility in which the beds will be placed has 31777
fewer than fifty long-term care beds;31778

       (8) Whether the healthlong-term care facility in which the 31779
beds will be placed is located within the service area of a 31780
hospital and is designed to accept patients for rehabilitation 31781
after an in-patient hospital stay;31782

       (9) Whether the healthlong-term care facility in which the 31783
beds will be placed is or proposes to become a nurse aide training 31784
and testing site;31785

       (10) The rating, under the centers for medicare and medicaid 31786
services' five star nursing home quality rating system, of the 31787
healthlong-term care facility in which the beds will be placed.31788

       (G)(1) When a certificate of need application is approved 31789
during the initial phase of a four-year review period, on 31790
completion of the project under which the beds are relocated, that 31791
number of beds shall cease to be operated in the health care 31792
facility from which they were relocated and, if the licensure or 31793
certification of those beds cannot be or is not transferred to the 31794
facility to which the beds are relocated, the licensure or 31795
certification shall be surrendered.31796

       (2) In(H) A person who has submitted an application under 31797
this section that is not subject to comparative review may revise 31798
the site of the proposed project pursuant to section 3702.522 of 31799
the Revised Code.31800

       (I) When a certificate of need application is approved during 31801
the initial phase of a four-year review period, in addition to the 31802
actions required by division (G)(1)(D) of this section 3702.52 of 31803
the Revised Code, the healthlong-term care facility from which 31804
the beds were relocated shall reduce the number of beds operated 31805
in the facility by a number of beds equal to at least ten per cent 31806
of the number of beds relocated and shall surrender the licensure 31807
or certification of those beds. If these beds are in a home 31808
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the long-term 31809
care facility shall have the beds removed from the license. If the 31810
beds are in a facility that is certified as a skilled nursing 31811
facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the 31812
"Social Security Act," the facility shall surrender the 31813
certification of these beds. If the beds are registered as skilled 31814
nursing beds or long-term care beds under section 3701.07 of the 31815
Revised Code, the long-term care facility shall surrender the 31816
registration for these beds. This reduction shall be made not 31817
later than the completion date of the project for which the beds 31818
were relocated.31819

       (H)(J)(1) Once approval of certificate of need applications 31820
in the first phase of a four-year review period is complete, the 31821
director shall make a new determination of the bed need for each 31822
county by reducing the county's bed need by the number of beds 31823
approved for relocation to the county. The new bed-need 31824
determination shall be made not later than the first day of April 31825
of the third year of the review period.31826

       (2) The director may publish on the department's web site the 31827
remaining bed need for counties that will be considered for 31828
redistribution of beds that, in accordance with division (G)(2)(I)31829
of this section, have ceased or will cease to be operated. The 31830
director shall base the determination of whether to include a 31831
county on all of the following:31832

       (a) The statewide number of beds that, in accordance with 31833
division (G)(2)(I) of this section, have ceased or will cease to 31834
be operated;31835

       (b) The county's remaining bed need;31836

       (c) The county's bed occupancy rate.31837

       (I)(K) If the director publishes the remaining bed need for a 31838
county under division (H)(J)(2) of this section, the director may, 31839
beginning on the first day of the second phase of the review 31840
period, accept certificate of need applications for redistribution 31841
to healthlong-term care facilities in that county of beds that 31842
have ceased or will cease operation in accordance with division 31843
(G)(2)(I) of this section. The total number of beds approved for 31844
redistribution in the second phase of a review period shall not 31845
exceed the number that have ceased or will cease operation in 31846
accordance with division (G)(2)(I) of this section. Beds that are 31847
not approved for redistribution during the second phase of a 31848
review period shall not be available for redistribution at any 31849
future time.31850

       Sec. 3702.594.  (A) The director of health shall accept, for 31851
review under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code, certificate of 31852
need applications for an increase in beds in an existing nursing 31853
home if all of the following conditions are met:31854

       (1) The proposed increase is attributable solely to a 31855
relocation of licensed nursing home beds from an existing nursing 31856
home to another existing nursing home located in a county that is 31857
contiguous to the county from which the beds are to be relocated; 31858

       (2) Not more than a total of thirty nursing home beds are 31859
proposed for relocation to the same existing nursing home 31860
regardless of the number of applications filed. Once the 31861
cumulative total of beds relocated under this section to a nursing 31862
home reaches thirty, no further applications under this section 31863
will be accepted until the period of monitoring specified in 31864
division (E) of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code of the most 31865
recent reviewable activity implemented under this section has 31866
expired; 31867

       (3) After the proposed relocation, there will be existing 31868
nursing home beds remaining in the county from which the beds are 31869
relocated;31870

       (4) The beds are proposed to be licensed as nursing home beds 31871
under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code.31872

       (B) The director shall accept applications described in 31873
division (A) of this section at any time.31874

       Sec. 3702.60.  (A) Any affected person may appeal a 31875
reviewability ruling issued on or after April 20, 1995, to the 31876
director of health in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 31877
Code, and the director shall provide an adjudication hearing in 31878
accordance with that chapter. An affected person may appeal the 31879
director's ruling in the adjudication hearing to the tenth 31880
district court of appeals.31881

       (B) The certificate of need applicant or another affected 31882
person may appeal to the director in accordance with Chapter 119. 31883
of the Revised Code a decision issued by the director on or after 31884
April 20, 1995, to grant or deny a certificate of need application 31885
for which an adjudication hearing was not conducted under section 31886
3702.52 of the Revised Code, and the director shall provide an 31887
adjudication hearing in accordance with that chapter. The 31888
certificate of need applicant or other affected person that 31889
appeals the director's decision to grant or deny a certificate of 31890
need application must prove by a preponderance of the evidence 31891
that the director's decision is not in accordance with sections 31892
3702.52 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code or rules adopted under 31893
those sections. The certificate of need applicant or an affected 31894
person that was a party to and participated in an adjudication 31895
hearing conducted under this division or section 3702.52 of the 31896
Revised Code may appeal to the tenth district court of appeals the 31897
decision issued by the director following the adjudication 31898
hearing. No person may appeal to the director or a court the 31899
director's granting of a certificate of need prior to June 30, 31900
1995, under the version of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code in 31901
effect immediately prior to that date due to failure to submit 31902
timely written objections, no person may appeal to the director or 31903
a court the director's granting of a certificate of need under 31904
division (C)(1) of section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.31905

       (C) The certificate of need holder may appeal to the director 31906
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code a decision 31907
issued by the director under section 3702.52 or 3702.5263702.52531908
of the Revised Code on or after April 20, 1995, to withdraw a 31909
certificate of need, and the director shall provide an 31910
adjudication hearing in accordance with that chapter. The person 31911
may appeal the director's ruling in the adjudication hearing to 31912
the tenth district court of appeals.31913

       (D) Any person determined by the director to have violated 31914
section 3702.53 of the Revised Code may appeal that determination, 31915
or the penalties imposed under section 3702.54 or 3702.541 of the 31916
Revised Code, to the director in accordance with Chapter 119. of 31917
the Revised Code, and the director shall provide an adjudication 31918
hearing in accordance with that chapter. The person may appeal the 31919
director's ruling in the adjudication hearing to the tenth 31920
district court of appeals.31921

       (E) Each person appealing under this section to the director 31922
shall file with the director, not later than thirty days after the 31923
decision, ruling, or determination of the director was mailed, a 31924
notice of appeal designating the decision, ruling, or 31925
determination appealed from.31926

       (F) Each person appealing under this section to the tenth 31927
district court of appeals shall file with the court, not later 31928
than thirty days after the date the director's adjudication order 31929
was mailed, a notice of appeal designating the order appealed 31930
from. The appellant also shall file notice with the director not 31931
later than thirty days after the date the order was mailed.31932

       (1) Not later than thirty days after receipt of the notice of 31933
appeal, the director shall prepare and certify to the court the 31934
complete record of the proceedings out of which the appeal arises. 31935
The expense of preparing and transcribing the record shall be 31936
taxed as part of the costs of the appeal. In the event that the 31937
record or a part thereof is not certified within the time 31938
prescribed by this division, the appellant may apply to the court 31939
for an order that the record be certified.31940

       (2) In hearing the appeal, the court shall consider only the 31941
evidence contained in the record certified to it by the director. 31942
The court may remand the matter to the director for the admission 31943
of additional evidence on a finding that the additional evidence 31944
is material, newly discovered, and could not with reasonable 31945
diligence have been ascertained before the hearing before the 31946
director. Except as otherwise provided by statute, the court shall 31947
give the hearing on the appeal preference over all other civil 31948
matters, irrespective of the position of the proceedings on the 31949
calendar of the court.31950

       (3) The court shall affirm the director's order if it finds, 31951
upon consideration of the entire record and any additional 31952
evidence admitted under division (F)(2) of this section, that the 31953
order is supported by reliable, probative, and substantial 31954
evidence and is in accordance with law. In the absence of such a 31955
finding, it shall reverse, vacate, or modify the order.31956

       (4) If the court determines that the director committed 31957
material procedural error, the court shall remand the matter to 31958
the director for further consideration or action.31959

       (G) The court may award reasonable attorney's fees against 31960
the appellant if it determines that the appeal was frivolous. 31961
Sections 119.092, 119.093, and 2335.39 of the Revised Code do not 31962
apply to adjudication hearings under this section or section 31963
3702.52 of the Revised Code and judicial appeals under this 31964
section.31965

       (H) No person may intervene in an appeal brought under this 31966
section.31967

       Sec. 3702.62. (A) Any action pursuant to section 140.03, 31968
140.04, 140.05, 307.091, 313.21, 339.01, 339.021, 339.03, 339.06, 31969
339.08, 339.09, 339.12, 339.14, 513.05, 513.07, 513.08, 513.081, 31970
513.12, 513.15, 513.17, 513.171, 749.02, 749.03, 749.14, 749.16, 31971
749.20, 749.25, 749.28, 749.35, 1751.06, or 3707.29 of the Revised 31972
Code shall be taken in accordance with sections 3702.51 to 3702.61 31973
of the Revised Code.31974

       (B) A nursing home certified as an intermediate care facility 31975
for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security 31976
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, that is 31977
required to apply for licensure as a residential facility under 31978
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code is not, with respect to the 31979
portion of the home certified as an intermediate care facility for 31980
the mentally retarded, subject to sectionsSections 3702.51 to 31981
3702.61 of the Revised Code do not apply to any part of long-term 31982
care facility's campus that is certified as an intermediate care 31983
facility for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social 31984
Security Act," 79 Stat. 343 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., as 31985
amended.31986

       Sec. 3703.01. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 31987
section, the division of laborindustrial compliance in the 31988
department of commerce shall do all of the following:31989

       (1) Inspect all nonresidential buildings within the meaning 31990
of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code;31991

       (2) Condemn all unsanitary or defective plumbing that is 31992
found in connection with those places;31993

       (3) Order changes in plumbing necessary to insure the safety 31994
of the public health.31995

       (B)(1)(a) The division of laborindustrial compliance, boards 31996
of health of city and general health districts, and county 31997
building departments shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 31998
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 31999
municipal corporation that is certified by the board of building 32000
standards under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise 32001
enforcement authority for plumbing in those types of buildings.32002

       (b) The division shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 32003
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 32004
health district that employs one or more plumbing inspectors 32005
certified pursuant to division (D) of this section to enforce 32006
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 32007
pursuant to those chapters relating to plumbing in those types of 32008
buildings.32009

        (c) The division shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 32010
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 32011
health district where the county building department is authorized 32012
to inspect those types of buildings pursuant to a contract 32013
described in division (C)(1) of this section.32014

       (d) The division shall not inspect plumbing or collect fees 32015
for inspecting plumbing in particular types of buildings in any 32016
health district where the board of health has entered into a 32017
contract with the board of health of another district to conduct 32018
inspections pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section.32019

       (2) No county building department shall inspect plumbing or 32020
collect fees for inspecting plumbing in any type of building in a 32021
health district unless the department is authorized to inspect 32022
that type of building pursuant to a contract described in division 32023
(C)(1) of this section.32024

        (3) No municipal corporation shall inspect plumbing or 32025
collect fees for inspecting plumbing in types of buildings for 32026
which it is not certified by the board of building standards under 32027
section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise enforcement 32028
authority.32029

       (4) No board of health of a health district shall inspect 32030
plumbing or collect fees for inspecting plumbing in types of 32031
buildings for which it does not have a plumbing inspector 32032
certified pursuant to division (D) of this section.32033

       (C)(1) The board of health of a health district may enter 32034
into a contract with a board of county commissioners to authorize 32035
the county building department to inspect plumbing in buildings 32036
within the health district. The contract may designate that the 32037
department inspect either residential or nonresidential buildings, 32038
as those terms are defined in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, 32039
or both types of buildings, so long as the department employs or 32040
contracts with a plumbing inspector certified pursuant to division 32041
(D) of this section to inspect the types of buildings the contract 32042
designates. The board of health may enter into a contract 32043
regardless of whether the health district employs any certified 32044
plumbing inspectors to enforce Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the 32045
Revised Code.32046

        (2) The board of health of a health district, regardless of 32047
whether it employs any certified plumbing inspectors to enforce 32048
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code, may enter into a 32049
contract with the board of health of another health district to 32050
authorize that board to inspect plumbing in buildings within the 32051
contracting board's district. The contract may designate the 32052
inspection of either residential or nonresidential buildings as 32053
defined in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, or both types of 32054
buildings, so long as the board that performs the inspections 32055
employs a plumbing inspector certified pursuant to division (D) of 32056
this section to inspect the types of buildings the contract 32057
designates.32058

       (D) The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 32059
adopt rules prescribing minimum qualifications based on education, 32060
training, experience, or demonstrated ability, that the 32061
superintendent shall use in certifying or recertifying plumbing 32062
inspectors to do plumbing inspections for health districts and 32063
county building departments that are authorized to perform 32064
inspections pursuant to a contract under division (C)(1) of this 32065
section, and for continuing education of plumbing inspectors. 32066
Those minimum qualifications shall be related to the types of 32067
buildings for which a person seeks certification.32068

       (E) The superintendent may enter into reciprocal 32069
registration, licensure, or certification agreements with other 32070
states and other agencies of this state relative to plumbing 32071
inspectors if both of the following apply:32072

        (1) The requirements for registration, licensure, or 32073
certification of plumbing inspectors under the laws of the other 32074
state or laws administered by the other agency are substantially 32075
equal to the requirements the superintendent adopts under division 32076
(D) of this section for certifying plumbing inspectors.32077

        (2) The other state or agency extends similar reciprocity to 32078
persons certified under this chapter.32079

       (F) The superintendent may select and contract with one or 32080
more persons to do all of the following regarding examinations for 32081
certification of plumbing inspectors:32082

        (1) Prepare, administer, score, and maintain the 32083
confidentiality of the examination;32084

        (2) Maintain responsibility for all expenses required to 32085
comply with division (F)(1) of this section;32086

        (3) Charge each applicant a fee for administering the 32087
examination in an amount the superintendent authorizes;32088

       (4) Design the examination for certification of plumbing 32089
inspectors to determine an applicant's competence to inspect 32090
plumbing.32091

       (G) Standards and methods prescribed in local plumbing 32092
regulations shall not be less than those prescribed in Chapters 32093
3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted pursuant 32094
to those chapters.32095

        (H) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, the 32096
division shall make a plumbing inspection of any building or other 32097
place that there is reason to believe is in a condition to be a 32098
menace to the public health.32099

       Sec. 3703.03.  In the administration of sections 3703.01 to 32100
3703.08 of the Revised Code, the division of laborindustrial 32101
compliance shall enforce rules governing plumbing adopted by the 32102
board of building standards under authority of sections 3781.10 32103
and 3781.11 of the Revised Code, and register those persons 32104
engaged in or at the plumbing business.32105

       Plans and specifications for all plumbing to be installed in 32106
or for buildings coming within such sections shall be submitted to 32107
and approved by the division before the contract for plumbing is 32108
let.32109

       Sec. 3703.04.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 32110
compliance shall appoint such number of plumbing inspectors as is 32111
required. The inspectors shall be practical plumbers with at least 32112
seven years' experience, and skilled and well-trained in matters 32113
pertaining to sanitary regulations concerning plumbing work.32114

       Sec. 3703.05.  Plumbing inspectors employed by the division 32115
of laborindustrial compliance assigned to the enforcement of 32116
sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 of the Revised Code may, between 32117
sunrise and sunset, enter any building where there is good and 32118
sufficient reason to believe that the sanitary condition of the 32119
premises endangers the public health, for the purpose of making an 32120
inspection to ascertain the condition of the premises.32121

       Sec. 3703.06.  When any building is found to be in a sanitary 32122
condition or when changes which are ordered, under authority of 32123
this chapter, in the plumbing, drainage, or ventilation have been 32124
made, and after a thorough inspection and approval by the 32125
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, the superintendent 32126
shall issue a certificate, which shall be posted in a conspicuous 32127
place for the benefit of the public at large. Upon notification by 32128
the superintendent, the certificate shall be revoked for any 32129
violation of those sections.32130

       Sec. 3703.07.  No plumbing work shall be done in any building 32131
or place coming within the jurisdiction of the division of labor32132
industrial compliance, except in cases of repairs or leaks in 32133
existing plumbing, until a permit has been issued by the division.32134

       Before granting such permit, an application shall be made by 32135
the owner of the property or by the person, firm, or corporation 32136
which is to do the work. The application shall be made on a form 32137
prepared by the division for the purpose, and each application 32138
shall be accompanied by a fee of twenty-seven dollars, and an 32139
additional fee of seven dollars for each trap, vented fixture, 32140
appliance, or device. Each application also shall be accompanied 32141
by a plan approval fee of eighteen dollars for work containing one 32142
through twenty fixtures; thirty-six dollars for work containing 32143
twenty-one through forty fixtures; and fifty-four dollars for work 32144
containing forty-one or more fixtures.32145

       Whenever a reinspection is made necessary by the failure of 32146
the applicant or plumbing contractor to have the work ready for 32147
inspection when so reported, or by reason of faulty or improper 32148
installation, the person shall pay a fee of forty-five dollars for 32149
each reinspection.32150

       All fees collected pursuant to this section shall be paid 32151
into the state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial 32152
compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of the 32153
Revised Code.32154

       The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, by rule 32155
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may 32156
increase the fees required by this section and may establish fees 32157
to pay the costs of the division to fulfill its duties established 32158
by this chapter, including, but not limited to, fees for 32159
administering a program for continuing education for, and 32160
certifying and recertifying plumbing inspectors. The fees shall 32161
bear some reasonable relationship to the cost of administering and 32162
enforcing the provisions of this chapter.32163

       Sec. 3703.08.  Any owner, agent, or manager of a building in 32164
which an inspection is made by the division of laborindustrial 32165
compliance, a board of health of a health district, or a certified 32166
department of building inspection of a municipal corporation or a 32167
county shall have the entire system of drainage and ventilation 32168
repaired, as the division, board of health, or department of 32169
building inspection directs by its order. After due notice to 32170
repair that work is given, the owner, agent, or manager shall 32171
notify the public authority that issued the order when the work is 32172
ready for its inspection. No person shall fail to have the work 32173
ready for inspection at the time specified in the notice.32174

       Sec. 3703.10.  All prosecutions and proceedings by the 32175
division of laborindustrial compliance for the violation of 32176
sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 of the Revised Code, or for the 32177
violation of any of the orders or rules of the division under 32178
those sections, shall be instituted by the superintendent of 32179
laborindustrial compliance. All fines or judgments collected by 32180
the division shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit 32181
of the laborindustrial compliance operating fund created by 32182
section 121.084 of the Revised Code.32183

       The superintendent, the board of health of a general or city 32184
health district, or any person charged with enforcing the rules of 32185
the division adopted under sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 of the 32186
Revised Code may petition the court of common pleas for injunctive 32187
or other appropriate relief requiring any person violating a rule 32188
adopted or order issued by the superintendent under those sections 32189
to comply with the rule or order. The court of common pleas of the 32190
county in which the offense is alleged to be occurring may grant 32191
injunctive or other appropriate relief.32192

       The superintendent may do all of the following:32193

       (A) Deny an applicant certification as a plumbing inspector;32194

       (B) Suspend or revoke the certification of a plumbing 32195
inspector;32196

       (C) Examine any certified plumbing inspector under oath;32197

       (D) Examine the records and books of any certified plumbing 32198
inspector if the superintendent finds the material to be examined 32199
relevant to a determination described in division (A), (B), or (C) 32200
of this section.32201

       Sec. 3703.21.  (A) Within ninety days after September 16, 32202
2004, the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 32203
appoint a backflow advisory board consisting of not more than ten 32204
members, who shall serve at the pleasure of the superintendent. 32205
The superintendent shall appoint a representative from the 32206
plumbing section of the division of laborindustrial compliance, 32207
three representatives recommended by the plumbing administrator of 32208
the division of laborindustrial compliance, a representative of 32209
the drinking water program of the Ohio environmental protection 32210
agency, three representatives recommended by the director of 32211
environmental protection, and not more than two members who are 32212
not employed by the plumbing or water industry.32213

       The board shall advise the superintendent on matters 32214
pertaining to the training and certification of backflow 32215
technicians.32216

       (B) The superintendent shall adopt rules in accordance with 32217
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to provide for the certification 32218
of backflow technicians. The rules shall establish all of the 32219
following requirements, specifications, and procedures:32220

       (1) Requirements and procedures for the initial certification 32221
of backflow technicians, including eligibility criteria and 32222
application requirements and fees;32223

       (2) Specifications concerning and procedures for taking 32224
examinations required for certification as a backflow technician, 32225
including eligibility criteria to take the examination and 32226
application requirements and fees for taking the examination;32227

       (3) Specifications concerning and procedures for renewing a 32228
certification as a backflow technician, including eligibility 32229
criteria, application requirements, and fees for renewal;32230

       (4) Specifications concerning and procedures for both of the 32231
following:32232

       (a) Approval of training agencies authorized to teach 32233
required courses to candidates for certification as backflow 32234
technicians or continuing education courses to certified backflow 32235
technicians;32236

       (b) Renewal of the approval described in division (B)(4)(a) 32237
of this section.32238

       (5) Education requirements that candidates for initial 32239
certification as backflow technicians must satisfy and continuing 32240
education requirements that certified backflow technicians must 32241
satisfy;32242

       (6) Grounds and procedures for denying, suspending, or 32243
revoking certification, or denying the renewal of certification, 32244
as a backflow technician;32245

       (7) Procedures for issuing administrative orders for the 32246
remedy of any violation of this section or any rule adopted 32247
pursuant to division (B) of this section, including, but not 32248
limited to, procedures for assessing a civil penalty authorized 32249
under division (D) of this section;32250

       (8) Any provision the superintendent determines is necessary 32251
to administer or enforce this section.32252

       (C) No individual shall engage in the installation, testing, 32253
or repair of any isolation backflow prevention device unless that 32254
individual possesses a valid certification as a backflow 32255
technician. This division does not apply with respect to the 32256
installation, testing, or repair of any containment backflow 32257
prevention device.32258

       (D) Whoever violates division (C) of this section or any rule 32259
adopted pursuant to division (B) of this section shall pay a civil 32260
penalty of not more than five thousand dollars for each day that 32261
the violation continues. The superintendent may, by order, assess 32262
a civil penalty under this division, or may request the attorney 32263
general to bring a civil action to impose the civil penalty in the 32264
court of common pleas of the county in which the violation 32265
occurred or where the violator resides.32266

       (E) Any action taken under a rule adopted pursuant to 32267
division (B)(6) of this section is subject to the appeal process 32268
of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. An administrative order 32269
issued pursuant to rules adopted under division (B)(7) of this 32270
section and an appeal to that type of administrative order shall 32271
be executed in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.32272

       (F) As used in this section:32273

       (1) "Isolation backflow prevention device" means a device for 32274
the prevention of the backflow of liquids, solids, or gases that 32275
is regulated by the building code adopted pursuant to section 32276
3781.10 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to this 32277
section.32278

       (2) "Containment backflow prevention device" means a device 32279
for the prevention of the backflow of liquids, solids, or gases 32280
that is installed by the supplier of, or as a requirement of, any 32281
public water system as defined in division (A) of section 6109.01 32282
of the Revised Code.32283

       Sec. 3703.99.  Whoever violates sections 3703.01 to 3703.08 32284
of the Revised Code, or any rule the division of laborindustrial 32285
compliance is required to enforce under such sections, shall be 32286
fined not less than ten nor more than one hundred dollars or 32287
imprisoned for not less than ten nor more than ninety days, or 32288
both. No person shall be imprisoned under this section for the 32289
first offense, and the prosecution always shall be as for a first 32290
offense unless the affidavit upon which the prosecution is 32291
instituted contains the allegation that the offense is a second or 32292
repeated offense.32293

       Sec. 3704.035. (A) There is hereby created in the state 32294
treasury the Title V clean air fund. Except as otherwise provided 32295
in division (K) of section 3745.11 of the Revised Code, all moneys 32296
collected under divisions (C), (D), (F), (G), (H), (I), and (J)32297
division (B) of that section and under section 3745.111 of the 32298
Revised Code, and any gifts, grants, or contributions received by 32299
the director of environmental protection for the purposes of the 32300
fund, shall be credited to the fund. The director shall expend 32301
moneys from the fund exclusively to pay the cost of administering 32302
and enforcing the laws of this state pertaining to the prevention, 32303
control, and abatement of air pollution and rules adopted and 32304
terms and conditions of permits, variances, and orders issued 32305
under those laws, except that the director shall not expend moneys 32306
credited to the fund for the administration and enforcement of 32307
motor vehicle inspection and maintenance programs and requirements 32308
under sections 3704.14, 3704.141, 3704.16, 3704.161, and 3704.162 32309
of the Revised Code.32310

       Specifically, theThe director shall expend all moneys 32311
credited to the fund from fees assessed under section 3745.11 of 32312
the Revised Code pursuant to the Title V permit program 32313
established under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code, and from 32314
any gifts, grants, or contributions received for the purposes of 32315
that program, solely to administer and enforce thatthe Title V32316
program pursuant to the federal Clean Air Act, this chapter, and 32317
rules adopted under it, except as costs relating to enforcement 32318
are limited by the federal Clean Air Act. The director shall 32319
establish separate and distinct accounting for all such moneys.32320

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 32321
non-Title V clean air fund. All money collected under divisions 32322
(D), (F), (G), (H), (I), and (J) of section 3745.11 of the Revised 32323
Code shall be credited to the fund. In addition, any gifts, 32324
grants, or contributions received by the director for the purposes 32325
of the fund shall be credited to the fund.32326

       The director shall expend money in the fund exclusively to 32327
pay the cost of administering and enforcing the laws of this state 32328
pertaining to the prevention, control, and abatement of air 32329
pollution, rules adopted under those laws, and terms and 32330
conditions of permits, variances, and orders issued under those 32331
laws. However, the director shall not expend money credited to the 32332
fund for the administration and enforcement of the Title V permit 32333
program established under this chapter and rules adopted under it 32334
or motor vehicle inspection and maintenance programs established 32335
under sections 3704.14, 3704.141, 3704.16, 3704.161, and 3704.162 32336
of the Revised Code.32337

       (C) The director shall report biennially to the general 32338
assembly the amounts of fees and other moneys credited to the fund32339
funds under this section and the amounts expended from itthem for 32340
each of the various air pollution control programs.32341

       Sec. 3705.24.  (A)(1) The publicdirector of health council32342
shall, in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, 32343
adopt rules prescribing fees for the following items or services 32344
provided by the state office of vital statistics:32345

       (a) Except as provided in division (A)(4) of this section:32346

       (i) A certified copy of a vital record or a certification of 32347
birth;32348

       (ii) A search by the office of vital statistics of its files 32349
and records pursuant to a request for information, regardless of 32350
whether a copy of a record is provided;32351

       (iii) A copy of a record provided pursuant to a request.32352

       (b) Replacement of a birth certificate following an adoption, 32353
legitimation, paternity determination or acknowledgement, or court 32354
order;32355

       (c) Filing of a delayed registration of a vital record;32356

       (d) Amendment of a vital record that is requested later than 32357
one year after the filing date of the vital record;32358

       (e) Any other documents or services for which the public 32359
health councildirector considers the charging of a fee 32360
appropriate.32361

       (2) Fees prescribed under division (A)(1)(a) of this section 32362
shall not be less than twelve dollars.32363

       (3) Fees prescribed under division (A)(1) of this section 32364
shall be collected in addition to any fees required by sections 32365
3109.14 and 3705.242 of the Revised Code.32366

       (4) Fees prescribed under division (A) of this section shall 32367
not apply to certifications issued under division (H) of this 32368
section or copies provided under section 3705.241 of the Revised 32369
Code.32370

       (B) In addition to the fees prescribed under division (A) of 32371
this section or section 3709.09 of the Revised Code, the office of 32372
vital statistics, the board of health of a city or general health 32373
district, or a local registrar of vital statistics who is not a 32374
salaried employee of a city or general health district shall 32375
charge a five-dollar fee for each certified copy of a vital record 32376
and each certification of birth. This fee shall be deposited in 32377
the general operations fund created under section 3701.83 of the 32378
Revised Code and be used to support the operations, the 32379
modernization, and the automation of the vital records program in 32380
this state. A board of health or a local registrar shall forward 32381
all fees collected under this division to the department of health 32382
not later than thirty days after the end of each calendar quarter.32383

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (H) of this 32384
section, and except as provided in section 3705.241 of the Revised 32385
Code, fees collected by the director of health under sections 32386
3705.01 to 3705.29 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the 32387
state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 32388
created by section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. Except as provided 32389
in division (B) or (I) of this section, money generated by the 32390
fees shall be used only for administration and enforcement of this 32391
chapter and the rules adopted under it. Amounts submitted to the 32392
department of health for copies of vital records or services in 32393
excess of the fees imposed by this section shall be dealt with as 32394
follows:32395

       (1) An overpayment of two dollars or less shall be retained 32396
by the department and deposited in the state treasury to the 32397
credit of the general operations fund created by section 3701.83 32398
of the Revised Code.32399

       (2) An overpayment in excess of two dollars shall be returned 32400
to the person who made the overpayment.32401

       (D) If a local registrar is a salaried employee of a city or 32402
a general health district, any fees the local registrar receives 32403
pursuant to section 3705.23 of the Revised Code shall be paid into 32404
the general fund of the city or the health fund of the general 32405
health district.32406

       Each local registrar of vital statistics, or each health 32407
district where the local registrar is a salaried employee of the 32408
district, shall be entitled to a fee for each birth, fetal death, 32409
death, or military service certificate properly and completely 32410
made out and registered with the local registrar or district and 32411
correctly copied and forwarded to the office of vital statistics 32412
in accordance with the population of the primary registration 32413
district at the last federal census. The fee for each birth, fetal 32414
death, death, or military service certificate shall be:32415

       (1) In primary registration districts of over two hundred 32416
fifty thousand, twenty cents;32417

       (2) In primary registration districts of over one hundred 32418
twenty-five thousand and less than two hundred fifty thousand, 32419
sixty cents;32420

       (3) In primary registration districts of over fifty thousand 32421
and less than one hundred twenty-five thousand, eighty cents;32422

       (4) In primary registration districts of less than fifty 32423
thousand, one dollar.32424

       (E) The director of health shall annually certify to the 32425
county treasurers of the several counties the number of birth, 32426
fetal death, death, and military service certificates registered 32427
from their respective counties with the names of the local 32428
registrars and the amounts due each registrar and health district 32429
at the rates fixed in this section. Such amounts shall be paid by 32430
the treasurer of the county in which the registration districts 32431
are located. No fees shall be charged or collected by registrars 32432
except as provided by this chapter and section 3109.14 of the 32433
Revised Code.32434

       (F) A probate judge shall be paid a fee of fifteen cents for 32435
each certified abstract of marriage prepared and forwarded by the 32436
probate judge to the department of health pursuant to section 32437
3705.21 of the Revised Code. The fee shall be in addition to the 32438
fee paid for a marriage license and shall be paid by the 32439
applicants for the license.32440

       (G) The clerk of a court of common pleas shall be paid a fee 32441
of one dollar for each certificate of divorce, dissolution, and 32442
annulment of marriage prepared and forwarded by the clerk to the 32443
department pursuant to section 3705.21 of the Revised Code. The 32444
fee for the certified abstract of divorce, dissolution, or 32445
annulment of marriage shall be added to the court costs allowed in 32446
these cases.32447

       (H) The fee for an heirloom certification of birth issued 32448
pursuant to division (B)(2) of section 3705.23 of the Revised Code 32449
shall be an amount prescribed by rule by the director of health 32450
plus any fee required by section 3109.14 of the Revised Code. In 32451
setting the amount of the fee, the director shall establish a 32452
surcharge in addition to an amount necessary to offset the expense 32453
of processing heirloom certifications of birth. The fee prescribed 32454
by the director of health pursuant to this division shall be 32455
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the heirloom 32456
certification of birth fund which is hereby created. Money 32457
credited to the fund shall be used by the office of vital 32458
statistics to offset the expense of processing heirloom 32459
certifications of birth. However, the money collected for the 32460
surcharge, subject to the approval of the controlling board, shall 32461
be used for the purposes specified by the family and children 32462
first council pursuant to section 121.37 of the Revised Code.32463

       (I)(1) Four dollars of each fee collected by the board of 32464
health of a city or general health district for a certified copy 32465
of a vital record or a certification of birth shall be transferred 32466
to the office of vital statistics not later than thirty days after 32467
the end of each calendar quarter. The amount collected shall be 32468
used to support public health systems. Of each four dollars 32469
collected, one dollar shall be used by the director of health to 32470
pay subsidies to boards of health. The subsidies shall be 32471
distributed in accordance with the same formula established under 32472
section 3701.342 of the Revised Code for the distribution of state 32473
health district subsidy funds to boards of health and local health 32474
departments.32475

       (2) Four dollars of each fee collected by a local registrar 32476
of vital statistics who is not a salaried employee of a city or 32477
general health district, for a certified copy of a vital record or 32478
certification of birth, shall be transferred to the office of 32479
vital statistics not later than thirty days after the end of each 32480
calendar quarter. The amount collected shall be used to support 32481
public health systems.32482

       Sec. 3705.242. (A)(1) The director of health, a person 32483
authorized by the director, a local commissioner of health, or a 32484
local registrar of vital statistics shall charge and collect a fee 32485
of one dollar and fifty cents for each certified copy of a birth 32486
record, each certification of birth, and each copy of a death 32487
record. The fee is in addition to the fee imposed by section 32488
3705.24 or any other section of the Revised Code. A local 32489
commissioner of health or local registrar of vital statistics may 32490
retain an amount of each additional fee collected, not to exceed 32491
three per cent of the amount of the additional fee, to be used for 32492
costs directly related to the collection of the fee and the 32493
forwarding of the fee to the treasurer of statedepartment of 32494
health. The32495

       The additional fees collected by the director of health or a 32496
person authorized by the director and the additional fees32497
collected, but not retained, under division (A)(1) of this section32498
by a local commissioner of health or a local registrar of vital 32499
statistics shall be forwarded to the treasurer of statedepartment 32500
of health not later than thirty days following the end of each 32501
quarter. Not later than two days after the fees are forwarded to 32502
the department each quarter, the department shall pay the 32503
collected fees to the treasurer of state in accordance with rules 32504
adopted by the treasurer of state under section 113.08 of the 32505
Revised Code.32506

       (2) On the filing of a divorce decree under section 3105.10 32507
or a decree of dissolution under section 3105.65 of the Revised 32508
Code, a court of common pleas shall charge and collect a fee of 32509
five dollars and fifty cents. The fee is in addition to any other 32510
court costs or fees. The county clerk of courts may retain an 32511
amount of each additional fee collected, not to exceed three per 32512
cent of the amount of the additional fee, to be used for costs 32513
directly related to the collection of the fee and the forwarding 32514
of the fee to the treasurer of state. The additional fees 32515
collected, but not retained, under division (A)(2) of this section 32516
shall be forwarded to the treasurer of state not later than twenty 32517
days following the end of each month.32518

       (B) The treasurer of state shall deposit the fees paid or32519
forwarded under this section in the state treasury to the credit 32520
of the family violence prevention fund, which is hereby created. A 32521
person or government entity that fails to pay or forward the fees 32522
in a timely manner, as determined by the treasurer of state, shall 32523
forwardsend to the treasurer of state, in addition to the fees, a 32524
penalty equal to ten per cent of the fees.32525

       The treasurer of state shall invest the moneys in the fund. 32526
All earnings resulting from investment of the fund shall be 32527
credited to the fund, except that actual administration costs 32528
incurred by the treasurer of state in administering the fund may 32529
be deducted from the earnings resulting from investments. The 32530
amount that may be deducted shall not exceed three per cent of the 32531
total amount of fees credited to the fund in each fiscal year. The 32532
balance of the investment earnings shall be credited to the fund.32533

       (C) The director of public safety shall use money credited to 32534
the fund to provide grants to family violence shelters in Ohio and 32535
to operate the division of criminal justice services.32536

       Sec. 3705.30.  (A) As used in this section:32537

       (1) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 32538
section 3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code.32539

       (2) "Hospital" means a hospital classified under section 32540
3701.07 of the Revised Code as a general hospital or children's 32541
hospital.32542

       (3) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 32543
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 32544
osteopathic medicine and surgery.32545

       (B) The director of health shall establish and, if funds for 32546
this purpose are available, implement a statewide birth defects 32547
information system for the collection of information concerning 32548
congenital anomalies, stillbirths, and abnormal conditions of 32549
newborns.32550

       (C) If the system is implemented under division (B) of this 32551
section, all of the following apply:32552

       (1) The director may require each physician, hospital, and 32553
freestanding birthing center to report to the system information 32554
concerning all patients under five years of age with a primary 32555
diagnosis of a congenital anomaly or abnormal condition. The 32556
director shall not require a hospital, freestanding birthing 32557
center, or physician to report to the system any information that 32558
is reported to the director or department of health under another 32559
provision of the Revised Code or Administrative Code.32560

       (2) On request, each physician, hospital, and freestanding 32561
birthing center shall give the director or authorized employees of 32562
the department of health access to the medical records of any 32563
patient described in division (C)(1) of this section. The 32564
department shall pay the costs of copying any medical records 32565
pursuant to this division.32566

       (3) The director may review vital statistics records and 32567
shall consider expanding the list of congenital anomalies and 32568
abnormal conditions of newborns reported on birth certificates 32569
pursuant to section 3705.08 of the Revised Code.32570

       (D) A physician, hospital, or freestanding birthing center 32571
that provides information to the system under division (C) of this 32572
section shall not be subject to criminal or civil liability for 32573
providing the information.32574

       Sec. 3706.19.  (A) There is hereby created in the Ohio air 32575
quality development authority the office of ombudsmanombudsperson32576
for the small business stationary source technical and 32577
environmental compliance assistance program created under section 32578
3704.18 of the Revised Code. The office shall exercise its duties 32579
independently of any other state agency.32580

       (B) Not later than one year after the effective date of this 32581
section, theThe governor, with the advice and consent of the 32582
senate, shall appoint the initial ombudsmanombudsperson. The32583
ombudsmanombudsperson shall serve for a term of four years. The 32584
person who is appointed to serve as the ombudsmanombudsperson32585
shall be experienced in management and in working with private 32586
enterprise and government entities, knowledgeable in the areas of 32587
arbitration and negotiation, experienced in interpreting statutory 32588
and regulatory law, and knowledgeable in investigation techniques 32589
and procedures, recordkeeping, and report writing. The ombudsman32590
ombudsperson may be the highest ranking managerial employee of the 32591
authority.32592

       (C) The ombudsmanombudsperson shall do all of the following:32593

       (1) Ensure that the goals of the program are being met;32594

       (2) Conduct independent evaluations of all aspects of the 32595
program;32596

       (3) Review the development and implementation of air 32597
pollution control requirements that have an impact on small 32598
businesses in the state and provide comments and recommendations, 32599
as appropriate, to the environmental protection agency and the 32600
United States environmental protection agency;32601

       (4) Facilitate and promote the participation of small 32602
businesses in the development of rules to be adopted under Chapter 32603
3704. of the Revised Code that affect small businesses;32604

       (5) Aid in the dissemination of information, including air 32605
pollution requirements and control technologies, to small 32606
businesses and other interested persons;32607

       (6) Provide free, confidential assistance on individual 32608
source problems and grievances presented by small businesses;32609

       (7) Aid in investigating and resolving complaints against, 32610
and disputes involving, the agency from small businesses;32611

       (8) Refer small businesses to the appropriate specialist in 32612
the program from whom they may obtain information and assistance 32613
on affordable alternative technologies, process changes, and 32614
products and operational methods to help reduce air pollution and 32615
accidental releases;32616

       (9) Work with trade associations and small businesses to 32617
effect voluntary compliance with the federal Clean Air Act, 32618
Chapter 3704. of the Revised Code, and rules adopted under it;32619

       (10) Work with other states to establish a network for 32620
sharing information on small businesses and their efforts to 32621
comply with the federal Clean Air Act and state and local air 32622
pollution control laws;32623

       (11) Seek public and private funding sources that can 32624
financially assist small businesses that are in need of moneys to 32625
comply with air pollution control laws;32626

       (12) Conduct studies to evaluate the impacts of the federal 32627
Clean Air Act on the state's economy, local economies, and small 32628
businesses.32629

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the small 32630
business ombudsmanombudsperson fund, which shall consist of 32631
moneys transferred to it from the Title V clean air fund created 32632
in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code. Moneys in the fund shall 32633
be used exclusively for the purposes of this section.32634

       The director of environmental protection and the executive 32635
director of the authority annually shall determine the amount of 32636
moneys necessary for the operation of the office of the ombudsman32637
ombudsperson. Thereafter, the director shall request the director 32638
of budget and management to, and that director shall, transfer 32639
that amount of moneys from the Title V clean air fund to the small 32640
business ombudsmanombudsperson fund.32641

       (E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the small 32642
business assistance fund, which shall consist of moneys credited 32643
to it under division (K) of section 3745.11 of the Revised Code. 32644
The ombudsmanombudsperson shall use moneys in the fund solely to 32645
provide financial assistance to small businesses that have one 32646
hundred or fewer employees and that are having financial 32647
difficulty complying with the "Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990," 32648
104 Stat. 2399, 42 U.S.C.A. 7401, and regulations adopted under 32649
it.32650

       In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the32651
ombudsmanombudsperson shall adopt rules establishing procedures 32652
and requirements governing grants awarded under this division.32653

       Sec. 3709.03.  (A) There is hereby created in each general 32654
health district a district advisory council. A council shall 32655
consist of the president of the board of county commissioners, the 32656
chief executive of each municipal corporation not constituting a 32657
city health district, and the president of the board of township 32658
trustees of each township. The board of county commissioners, the 32659
legislative body of a municipal corporation, and the board of 32660
township trustees of a township may select an alternate from among 32661
themselves to serve if the president, the chief executive, or the 32662
president of the board of township trustees is unable to attend 32663
any meeting of the district advisory council. When attending a 32664
meeting on behalf of a council member, the alternate may vote on 32665
any matter on which the member is authorized to vote.32666

       The council shall organize by selecting a chair and secretary 32667
from among its members. The council shall adopt bylaws governing 32668
its meetings, the transaction of business, and voting procedures.32669

       The council shall meet annually in March at a place 32670
determined by the chair and the health commissioner for the 32671
purpose of electing the chair and the secretary, making necessary 32672
appointments to the board of health, receiving and considering the 32673
annual or special reports from the board of health, and making 32674
recommendations to the board of health or to the department of 32675
health in regard to matters for the betterment of health and 32676
sanitation within the district or for needed legislation. The 32677
secretary of the council shall notify the district health 32678
commissioner and the director of health of the proceedings of such 32679
meeting.32680

       Special meetings of the council shall be held on the order of 32681
any of the following:32682

       (1) The director of health;32683

       (2) The board of health;32684

       (3) The lesser of five or a majority of district advisory 32685
council members.32686

       The district health commissioner shall attend all meetings of 32687
the council.32688

       (B) The district advisory council shall appoint four members 32689
of the board of health, and the remaining member shall be 32690
appointed by the health district licensing council established 32691
under section 3709.41 of the Revised Code. At least one member of 32692
the board of health shall be a physician. Appointments shall be 32693
made with due regard to equal representation of all parts of the 32694
district.32695

       (C) If at an annual or special meeting at which a member of 32696
the board of health is to be appointed fewer than a majority of 32697
the members of the district council are present, the council, by 32698
the majority vote of council members present, may organize an 32699
executive committee to make the appointment. An executive 32700
committee shall consist of five council members, including the 32701
president of the board of county commissioners, the council chair, 32702
the council secretary, and two additional council members selected 32703
by majority affirmative vote of the council members present at the 32704
meeting. The additional members selected shall include one 32705
representative of municipal corporations in the district that are 32706
not city health districts and one representative of townships in 32707
the district. If an individual is eligible for more than one 32708
position on the executive committee due to holding a particular 32709
office, the individual shall fill one position on the committee 32710
and the other position shall be filled by a member selected by a 32711
majority affirmative vote of the council members present at the 32712
meeting. A council member's alternate for annual meetings may 32713
serve as the member's alternate at meetings of the executive 32714
committee.32715

       Not later than thirty days after an executive committee is 32716
organized, the committee shall meet and the council chair shall 32717
present to the committee the matter of appointing a member of the 32718
board of health. The committee shall appoint the board member by 32719
majority affirmative vote. In the case of a combined health 32720
district, the executive committee shall appoint only members of 32721
the board of health that are to be appointed by the district 32722
advisory council, unless the contract for administration of health 32723
affairs in the combined district provides otherwise. If a majority 32724
affirmative vote is not reached within thirty days after the 32725
executive committee is organized, the director of health shall 32726
appoint the member of the board of health under the authority 32727
conferred by section 3709.03 of the Revised Code.32728

       If the council fails to meet or appoint a member of the board 32729
of health as required by this section or section 3709.02 of the 32730
Revised Code, the director of health, with the consent of the 32731
public health council, may appoint the member.32732

       Sec. 3709.04.  If in any general health district the district 32733
advisory council fails to meet or to select a board of health, the 32734
director of health may, with the consent of the public health 32735
council, appoint a board of health for such district which shall 32736
have and exercise all powers conferred on a board of health of a 32737
general health district.32738

       Sec. 3709.06.  If any city fails to establish a board of 32739
health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, the director of 32740
health, with the approval of the public health council, may 32741
appoint a health commissioner for such city, and fix histhe 32742
commissioner's salary and term of office. Such commissioner shall 32743
have the same powers and perform the duties granted to or imposed 32744
upon a board of health of a city health district, except that 32745
rules, regulations, or orders of a general nature, made by himthe 32746
commissioner and required to be published, shall be approved by 32747
the director. The salary of such commissioner and all necessary 32748
expenses incurred by himthe commissioner in performing the duties 32749
of the board shall be paid by and be a valid claim against such 32750
city.32751

       Sec. 3709.085.  (A) The board of health of a city or general 32752
health district may enter into a contract with any political 32753
subdivision or other governmental agency to obtain or provide all 32754
or part of any services, including, but not limited to, 32755
enforcement services, for the purposes of Chapter 3704. of the 32756
Revised Code, the rules adopted and orders made pursuant thereto, 32757
or any other ordinances or rules for the prevention, control, and 32758
abatement of air pollution.32759

       (B)(1) As used in division (B)(2) of this section:32760

       (a) "Semipublic disposal system" means a disposal system that 32761
treats the sanitary sewage discharged from publicly or privately 32762
owned buildings or places of assemblage, entertainment, 32763
recreation, education, correction, hospitalization, housing, or 32764
employment, but does not include a disposal system that treats 32765
sewage in amounts of more than twenty-five thousand gallons per 32766
day; a disposal system for the treatment of sewage that is exempt 32767
from the requirements of section 6111.04 of the Revised Code 32768
pursuant to division (F)(7) of that section; or a disposal system 32769
for the treatment of industrial waste.32770

       (b) Terms defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code have 32771
the same meanings as in that section.32772

       (2) The board of health of a city or general health district 32773
may enter into a contract with the environmental protection agency 32774
to conduct on behalf of the agency inspection or enforcement 32775
services, for the purposes of Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code 32776
and rules adopted thereunder, for the disposal or treatment of 32777
sewage from semipublic disposal systems. The board of health of a 32778
city or general health district may charge a fee established 32779
pursuant to section 3709.09 of the Revised Code to be paid by the 32780
owner or operator of a semipublic disposal system for inspections 32781
conducted by the board pursuant to a contract entered into under 32782
division (B)(2) of this section, except that the board shall not 32783
charge a fee for those inspections conducted at any recreational 32784
vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined park-camp that is 32785
licensed under section 3729.05 of the Revised Code or at any 32786
manufactured home park that is licensed under section 3733.0332787
4781.27 of the Revised Code.32788

       Sec. 3709.09.  (A) The board of health of a city or general 32789
health district may, by rule, establish a uniform system of fees 32790
to pay the costs of any services provided by the board.32791

       The fee for issuance of a certified copy of a vital record or 32792
a certification of birth shall not be less than the fee prescribed 32793
for the same service under division (A)(1) of section 3705.24 of 32794
the Revised Code and shall include the fees required by division 32795
(B) of section 3705.24 and section 3109.14 of the Revised Code.32796

       Fees for services provided by the board for purposes 32797
specified in sections 3701.344, 3711.10, 3718.06, 3729.07, 32798
3730.03, and 3749.04 of the Revised Code shall be established in 32799
accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section. 32800
The district advisory council, in the case of a general health 32801
district, and the legislative authority of the city, in the case 32802
of a city health district, may disapprove any fee established by 32803
the board of health under this division, and any such fee, as 32804
disapproved, shall not be charged by the board of health.32805

       (B) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 32806
under section 111.15 of the Revised Code that establish fee 32807
categories and a uniform methodology for use in calculating the 32808
costs of services provided for purposes specified in sections 32809
3701.344, 3711.10, 3718.06, 3729.07, 3730.03, and 3749.04 of the 32810
Revised Code. In adopting the rules, the public health council32811
director shall consider recommendations it receives from advisory 32812
boards established either by statute or the director of health for 32813
entities subject to the fees.32814

       (C) Except when a board of health establishes a fee by 32815
adopting a rule as an emergency measure, the board of health shall 32816
hold a public hearing regarding each proposed fee for a service 32817
provided by the board for a purpose specified in section 3701.344, 32818
3711.10, 3718.06, 3729.07, 3730.03, or 3749.04 of the Revised 32819
Code. If a public hearing is held, at least twenty days prior to 32820
the public hearing the board shall give written notice of the 32821
hearing to each entity affected by the proposed fee. The notice 32822
shall be mailed to the last known address of each entity and shall 32823
specify the date, time, and place of the hearing and the amount of 32824
the proposed fee.32825

       (D) If payment of a fee established under this section is not 32826
received by the day on which payment is due, the board of health 32827
shall assess a penalty. The amount of the penalty shall be equal 32828
to twenty-five per cent of the applicable fee.32829

       (E) All rules adopted by a board of health under this section 32830
shall be adopted, recorded, and certified as are ordinances of 32831
municipal corporations and the record thereof shall be given in 32832
all courts the same effect as is given such ordinances, but the 32833
advertisements of such rules shall be by publication in one 32834
newspaper of general circulation within the health district. 32835
Publication shall be made once a week for two consecutive weeks or 32836
as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, and such rules 32837
shall take effect and be in force ten days from the date of the 32838
first publication.32839

       Sec. 3709.092. (A) A board of health of a city or general 32840
health district shall transmit to the director of health all fees 32841
or additional amounts that the public health councildirector32842
requires to be collected under sections 3701.344, 3718.06, 32843
3729.07, and 3749.04 of the Revised Code. The fees and amounts 32844
shall be transmitted according to the following schedule:32845

       (1) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 32846
the first day of January but not later than the thirty-first day 32847
of March, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the 32848
fifteenth day of May; 32849

       (2) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 32850
the first day of April but not later than the thirtieth day of 32851
June, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the fifteenth 32852
day of August; 32853

       (3) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 32854
the first day of July but not later than the thirtieth day of 32855
September, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the 32856
fifteenth day of November; 32857

       (4) For fees and amounts received by the board on or after 32858
the first day of October but not later than the thirty-first day 32859
of December, transmit the fees and amounts not later than the 32860
fifteenth day of February of the following year. 32861

       (B) The director shall deposit the fees and amounts received 32862
under this section into the state treasury to the credit of the 32863
general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised 32864
Code. Each amount shall be used solely for the purpose for which 32865
it was collected.32866

       Sec. 3709.32.  The president of each board of health 32867
providing health services in one or more health districts and the 32868
chief executive officer of each health department providing health 32869
services in one or more health districts shall, on or before the 32870
first day of March of each year, certify the amounts expended 32871
during the preceding calendar year which qualify for state health 32872
district subsidy funds under section 3701.342 of the Revised Code 32873
and rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of health council. The 32874
director of health shall certify the amount payable under the 32875
state health district subsidy funds distribution formula adopted 32876
by the publicdirector of health council under section 3701.342 of 32877
the Revised Code to the director of budget and management for 32878
payment. Payment shall not be made unless:32879

       (A) The board or department has provided such information 32880
concerning services and costs as is requested by the director of 32881
health;32882

       (B) The certificate of the board of health or health 32883
department has been endorsed by the director of health;32884

       (C) The board or department has complied with section 32885
3701.342 of the Revised Code and public health council rules 32886
adopted by the director of health;32887

       (D) The municipal corporations and townships composing the 32888
health district have provided adequate local funding for public 32889
health services. The publicdirector of health council shall 32890
determine what constitutes adequate local funding, and may grant 32891
an exception to this requirement to a municipal corporation or 32892
township if unusually severe economic conditions prevent it from 32893
receiving adequate tax revenues to help support minimally 32894
acceptable public health services.32895

       No state health district subsidy funds shall be granted to 32896
any board or department that decreases its appropriation for 32897
public health services in anticipation of using state funds to 32898
provide public health services normally supported by local 32899
revenues.32900

       Sec. 3709.35.  If the director of health findscharges that 32901
the health commissioner or a member of the board of health of a 32902
health district is guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, or 32903
nonfeasance or has failed to perform any or all of the duties 32904
required by sections 3701.10, 3701.29, 3701.81, 3707.08, 3707.14, 32905
3707.16, 3707.47, and 3709.01 to 3709.36 of the Revised Code, the 32906
director shall prefer a charge against the commissioner or board 32907
member before the public health council and shall notify the 32908
commissioner or board member as to the time and place at which 32909
such charges will be heard. If the councildirector, after 32910
hearing, finds the commissioner or board member guilty of the 32911
charge, it may remove such commissioner or member from office.32912

       If the lesser of three or one-fifth of the members of a 32913
district advisory council have reason to believe a member of the 32914
board of health of a general health district is guilty of 32915
misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance or has failed to perform 32916
any or all of the duties required by sections 3701.10, 3701.29, 32917
3701.81, 3707.14, 3707.16, 3707.47, and 3709.01 to 3709.36 of the 32918
Revised Code, the district advisory council members shall prefer a 32919
charge against the board member before the district advisory 32920
council and shall notify the board member as to the time and place 32921
at which such charges will be heard. If a majority of the council, 32922
after hearing, finds the board member guilty of the charge, it may 32923
remove the member from office.32924

       When any member of the board of health of a general or city 32925
health district is removed from office, the district advisory 32926
council or the chief executive of the city, upon notice of such 32927
removal, shall within thirty days after receipt of such notice 32928
fill the vacancy in accordance with section 3709.03 or 3709.05 of 32929
the Revised Code.32930

       Sec. 3710.01.  As used in this chapter:32931

       (A) "Asbestos" means the asbestiform varieties of chrysotile 32932
or serpentine, amosite or cummingtonitegrunerite, crocidolite or 32933
riebeckite, actinolite, tremolite, and anthophylite.32934

       (B) "Asbestos hazard abatement activity" means any activity 32935
involving the removal, renovation, enclosure, repair, or 32936
encapsulation of reasonably related friable asbestos-containing 32937
materials in an amount greater than fifty linear feet or fifty 32938
square feet. "Asbestos hazard abatement activity" also includes 32939
any such activity involving such asbestos-containing materials in 32940
an amount of fifty linear or fifty square feet or less if, when 32941
combined with any other reasonably related activity in terms of 32942
time and location of the activity, the total amount is in an 32943
amount greater than fifty linear or fifty square feet.32944

       (C) "Asbestos hazard abatement contractor" means a business 32945
entity or public entity that engages in or intends to engage in 32946
asbestos hazard abatement activities and that employs or 32947
supervises one or more asbestos hazard abatement specialists for 32948
asbestos hazard abatement activities. "Asbestos hazard abatement 32949
contractor" does not mean an employee of an asbestos hazard 32950
abatement contractor, a general contractor who subcontracts to an 32951
asbestos hazard abatement contractor an asbestos hazard abatement 32952
activity, or any individual who engages in asbestos hazard 32953
abatement activity in histhe individual's own home.32954

       (D) "Asbestos hazard abatement project" means one or more 32955
asbestos hazard abatement activities that are conducted by one 32956
asbestos hazard abatement contractor and that are reasonably 32957
related to each other.32958

       (E) "Asbestos hazard abatement specialist" means a person 32959
with responsibility for the oversight or supervision of asbestos 32960
hazard abatement activities, including asbestos hazard abatement 32961
project managers, hazard abatement project supervisors and 32962
foremen, and employees of school districts or other governmental 32963
or public entities who coordinate or directly supervise or oversee 32964
asbestos hazard abatement activities performed by school district, 32965
governmental, or other public employees in school district, 32966
governmental, or other public buildings.32967

       (F) "Asbestos hazard evaluation specialist" means a person 32968
responsible for the identification, detection, and assessment of 32969
asbestos-containing materials, the determination of appropriate 32970
response actions, or the preparation of asbestos management plans 32971
for the purpose of protecting the public health from the hazards 32972
associated with exposure to asbestos, including the performance of 32973
air and bulk sampling. This category of specialists includes 32974
management planners, health professionals, industrial hygienists, 32975
private consultants, or other individuals involved in asbestos 32976
risk identification or assessment or regulatory activities.32977

       (G) "Business entity" means a partnership, firm, association, 32978
corporation, sole proprietorship, or other business concern.32979

       (H) "Public entity" means the state or any of its political 32980
subdivisions or any agency or instrumentality of either.32981

       (I) "License" means a document issued by the department of 32982
health to a business entity or public entity affirming that the 32983
entity has met the requirements set forth in this chapter to 32984
engage in asbestos hazard abatement activities as an asbestos 32985
hazard abatement contractor.32986

       (J) "Certificate" means:32987

       (1) A document issued by the department to an individual 32988
affirming that the individual has successfully completed the 32989
training and other requirements set forth in this chapter to 32990
qualify as an asbestos hazard abatement specialist, an asbestos 32991
hazard evaluation specialist, an asbestos hazard abatement worker, 32992
an asbestos hazard abatement project designer, an asbestos hazard 32993
abatement air-monitoring technician, an approved asbestos hazard 32994
training provider, or other category of asbestos hazard specialist 32995
that the public health councildirector establishes by rule; or32996

       (2) A document issued by a training institution in accordance 32997
with rules adopted by the public health councildirector affirming 32998
that an individual has successfully completed the instruction 32999
required in all categories as provided in sections 3710.07 and 33000
3710.10 of the Revised Code.33001

       (K) "Person" means any individual, business entity, 33002
governmental body, or other public or private entity.33003

       (L) "Encapsulate" means to coat, bind, or resurface walls, 33004
ceilings, pipes, or other structures to prevent friable asbestos 33005
from becoming airborne.33006

       (M) "Friable asbestos-containing material" means any material 33007
that contains more than one per cent asbestos by weight and that 33008
can be crumbled, pulverized, or reduced to powder, when dry, by 33009
hand pressure.33010

       (N) "Enclosure" means the permanent confinement of friable 33011
asbestos-containing materials with an airtight barrier in an area 33012
not used as an air plenum.33013

       (O) "Renovation" means the removal or stripping of friable 33014
asbestos-containing materials used on any pipe, duct, boiler, 33015
tank, reactor, turbine, furnace, or load supporting member.33016

       (P) "Asbestos hazard abatement worker" means the person 33017
responsible in a nonsupervisory capacity for the performance of an 33018
asbestos hazard abatement activity.33019

       (Q) "Asbestos hazard abatement project designer" means the 33020
person responsible for the determination of the workscope, work 33021
sequence, or performance standards for an asbestos hazard 33022
abatement activity, including preparation of specifications, 33023
plans, and contract documents.33024

       (R) "Director" means the director of health or histhe 33025
director's authorized representative.33026

       (S) "Clearance air sampling" means an air sampling performed 33027
after the completion of any asbestos hazard abatement activity and 33028
prior to the reoccupation of the contained work area by the public 33029
and conducted for the purpose of protecting the public from the 33030
health hazards associated with exposure to friable 33031
asbestos-containing material.33032

       (T) "Asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technician" 33033
means the person who is responsible for environmental monitoring 33034
or work area clearance air sampling, including air monitoring 33035
performed to determine completion of response actions under the 33036
rules set forth in 40 C.F.R. 763 Subpart E, adopted by the United 33037
States environmental protection agency pursuant to the "Asbestos 33038
Hazard Emergency Response Act of 1986," Pub. L. 99-519, 100 Stat. 33039
2970. "Asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technician" does 33040
not mean an industrial hygienist or industrial hygienist in 33041
training, certified by the American board of industrial hygiene.33042

       Sec. 3710.02.  (A) Subject toIn accordance with Chapter 119. 33043
of the Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall, 33044
as itthe director determines necessary, adopt rules to carry out 33045
this chapter. The rules shall include all of the following:33046

       (1) Criteria and procedures for the certification of asbestos 33047
hazard abatement specialists, asbestos hazard evaluation 33048
specialists, asbestos hazard abatement workers, asbestos hazard 33049
abatement project designers, and asbestos hazard abatement 33050
air-monitoring technicians by the director of health;33051

       (2) Criteria and procedures for the director to examine the 33052
records of licensees, certificate holders, and asbestos hazard 33053
abatement training schools;33054

       (3) Procedures and criteria in addition to those provided in 33055
this chapter for the approval of courses for asbestos hazard 33056
training;33057

       (4) Fees for licenses, certifications, and course approvals 33058
in excess of the levels set in section 3710.05 of the Revised Code 33059
and fees for the certification of asbestos hazard abatement 33060
air-monitoring technicians;33061

       (5) Levels of asbestos exposure or other circumstances 33062
constituting a public health emergency that authorize the director 33063
to issue an emergency order under division (B) of section 3710.13 33064
of the Revised Code;33065

       (6) Employee training standards, work practices that reduce 33066
the risk of contamination and recontamination of the environment, 33067
record-keeping requirements, action levels, project clearance 33068
levels, and other requirements that asbestos hazard abatement 33069
contractors, asbestos hazard abatement specialists, asbestos 33070
hazard evaluation specialists, asbestos hazard abatement project 33071
designers, asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technicians, 33072
asbestos hazard abatement workers, and other persons involved with 33073
asbestos hazard abatement activities must follow for the 33074
prevention of hazard to the public;33075

       (7) Worker protection equipment and practices and other 33076
health and safety standards for employees and agents of public 33077
entities coming in contact with asbestos through asbestos hazard 33078
abatement activity;33079

       (8) Standards of acceptable conduct for licensees and 33080
certificate holders engaged in asbestos hazard abatement or 33081
evaluation activities and acts and omissions that constitute 33082
grounds for the suspension or revocation of a license or 33083
certificate, or the denial of an application or renewal of a 33084
license or certificate in addition to those otherwise provided in 33085
this chapter;33086

       (9) Training requirements for asbestos hazard abatement 33087
project designers and asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring 33088
technicians;33089

       (10)(a) Subject to the condition specified in division 33090
(A)(10)(b) of this section, a standard requiring that the amount 33091
of asbestos contained in the air in areas accessible to the public 33092
in buildings that are owned, operated, or leased by a public 33093
entity be not more than ten thousand asbestos fibers longer than 33094
five microns per cubic meter of air calculated as an eight-hour 33095
time-weighted average, which is measured during periods of normal 33096
building occupancy, and a requirement that measurement of airborne 33097
asbestos be made by either or both of the following methods, 33098
provided that results derived by use of the method described in 33099
division (A)(10)(a)(i) of this section supersede results derived 33100
by use of the method described in division (A)(10)(a)(ii) of this 33101
section if both methods are used and the methods yield conflicting 33102
results concerning the presence of fibers in the tested air that 33103
may not be asbestos:33104

       (i) Transmission electron microscopy in the manner described 33105
in the measurement protocol established by the United States 33106
environmental protection agency as set forth in 40 C.F.R. 763;33107

       (ii) Optical phase contrast microscopy in the manner 33108
described in the measurement protocol established by the United 33109
States occupational safety and health administration as set forth 33110
in 29 C.F.R. 1910.33111

       (b) The public health councildirector periodically shall 33112
review the standard required by division (A)(10)(a) of this 33113
section and determine whether and how it should be amended and how 33114
it shall be used in conjunction with visual and physical 33115
assessment of asbestos-containing materials located in buildings 33116
that are owned, operated, or leased by a public entity to 33117
determine appropriate and cost-effective response actions to such 33118
asbestos-containing materials and shall amend the standard if it 33119
determines that such action is necessary.33120

       (11) Other rules that the public health councildirector33121
determines necessary for the implementation of this chapter and to 33122
protect the public health from the hazards associated with 33123
exposure to asbestos.33124

       (B) The director shall do all of the following:33125

       (1) Administer and enforce this chapter and the rules of the 33126
public health council adopted pursuant thereto;33127

       (2) Develop comprehensive programs and policies for the 33128
control and prevention of nonoccupational exposure of the public 33129
to friable asbestos-containing materials;33130

       (3) Ensure that persons are trained and licensed or 33131
certified, where appropriate, in accordance with this chapter and 33132
the rules of the public health council adopted pursuant thereto;33133

       (4) Examine those records of licensed asbestos hazard 33134
abatement contractors, certified asbestos hazard abatement 33135
specialists, asbestos hazard evaluation specialists, asbestos 33136
hazard abatement project designers, asbestos hazard abatement 33137
air-monitoring technicians, and asbestos hazard training courses 33138
in accordance with rules adopted by the public health council33139
director as hethe director determines necessary to determine 33140
compliance with this chapter and the rules of the public health 33141
council adopted pursuant thereto;33142

       (5) Prohibit and prevent improper asbestos hazard abatement 33143
procedures and require the modification or alteration of asbestos 33144
abatement procedures as they relate to this chapter and the rules 33145
of the public health council adopted pursuant thereto;33146

       (6) Collect and disseminate health education information 33147
relating to safe management of asbestos hazards;33148

       (7) Accept and administer grants from the federal government 33149
and other sources, both public and private, for carrying out any 33150
of histhe director's functions;33151

       (8) As hethe director determines appropriate, conduct 33152
on-site inspections at any location where an asbestos hazard 33153
abatement activity is planned, in progress, or has been completed, 33154
at any location where a public health emergency may occur, is 33155
occurring, or has occurred, or to evaluate the performance or 33156
compliance of any person subject to this chapter;33157

       (9) Conduct an on-site audit of each asbestos hazard training 33158
provider approved pursuant to this chapter, at least once 33159
biennially, during an actual course conducted by the provider 33160
within the state;33161

       (10) Cooperate and assist in investigations, as such relate 33162
to this chapter, conducted by local law enforcement agencies, the 33163
Ohio environmental protection agency, the United States 33164
occupational safety and health administration, and other local, 33165
state, and federal agencies.33166

       Sec. 3710.04.  (A) To qualify for an asbestos hazard 33167
abatement contractor's license, a business entity or public entity 33168
shall meet the requirements of this section.33169

       (B) Each employee or agent of the business entity or public 33170
entity applying for a license who will come in contact with 33171
asbestos or will be responsible for an asbestos hazard abatement 33172
project shall:33173

       (1) Be familiar with all applicable state and federal 33174
standards for asbestos hazard abatement projects;33175

       (2) Have successfully completed the course of instruction on 33176
asbestos hazard abatement activities, for their particular 33177
certification, approved by the department of health pursuant to 33178
section 3710.10 of the Revised Code, have passed an examination 33179
approved by the department, and demonstrate to the department that 33180
hethe employee or agent is capable of complying with all 33181
applicable standards of this state, the United States 33182
environmental protection agency, and the United States 33183
occupational safety and health administration.33184

       (C) A business entity or public entity applying for an 33185
asbestos hazard abatement contractor's license shall, in addition 33186
to the other requirements of this section, provide at least one 33187
asbestos hazard abatement specialist, certified pursuant to this 33188
chapter and the rules of the public health council adopted 33189
pursuant theretounder it, for each asbestos hazard abatement 33190
project, and demonstrate to the satisfaction of the department 33191
that hethe applicant:33192

       (1) Has access to at least one asbestos disposal site 33193
approved by the Ohio environmental protection agency that is 33194
sufficient for the deposit of all asbestos waste that hethe 33195
applicant will generate during the term of the license;33196

       (2) Is sufficiently qualified to safely remove asbestos, 33197
demonstrated by reliability as an asbestos hazard abatement 33198
contractor, possesses a work program that prevents the 33199
contamination or recontamination of the environment and protects 33200
the public health from the hazards of exposure to asbestos, 33201
possesses evidence of certification of each individual employee or 33202
agent who will be responsible for others who may come in contact 33203
with friable asbestos-containing materials, possesses evidence of 33204
training of workers required by section 3710.07 of the Revised 33205
Code, and has prior successful experience in asbestos hazard 33206
abatement projects or equivalent qualifications as determined by 33207
rulein accordance with rules adopted by the publicdirector of33208
health council;33209

       (3) Possesses a worker protection program consistent with 33210
requirements established by the public health councildirector if 33211
the contractor is a public entity, and a worker protection program 33212
consistent with the requirements of the United States occupational 33213
safety and health administration if the contractor is a business 33214
entity;33215

       (4) Is registered as a business entity with the secretary of 33216
state.33217

       (D) No applicant for licensure as an asbestos hazard 33218
abatement contractor, in order to meet the requirements of this 33219
chapter, shall list an employee of another contractor.33220

       (E) The business entity or public entity shall meet any other 33221
standards that the public health councildirector, by rule, sets.33222

       (F) Nothing in this chapter or the rules adopted pursuant 33223
thereto relating to asbestos hazard abatement project designers 33224
shall be interpreted as authorizing or permitting an individual 33225
who is certified as an asbestos hazard abatement project designer 33226
to perform the services of a registered architect or professional 33227
engineer unless that person is registered under Chapter 4703. or 33228
4733. of the Revised Code to perform such services.33229

       Sec. 3710.05.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 33230
chapter, no person shall engage in any asbestos hazard abatement 33231
activities in this state unless licensed or certified pursuant to 33232
this chapter.33233

       (B) To apply for licensure as an asbestos abatement 33234
contractor or certification as an asbestos hazard abatement 33235
specialist, an asbestos hazard evaluation specialist, an asbestos 33236
hazard abatement project designer, or an asbestos hazard abatement 33237
air-monitoring technician, a person shall do all of the following:33238

       (1) Submit a completed application to the department of 33239
health, on a form provided by the department;33240

       (2) Pay the requisite fee as provided in division (D) of this 33241
section;33242

       (3) Submit any other information the publicdirector of33243
health council by rule requires.33244

       (C) The application form for a business entity or public 33245
entity applying for an asbestos hazard abatement contractor's 33246
license shall include all of the following:33247

       (1) A description of the protective clothing and respirators 33248
that the public entity will use to comply with rules adopted by 33249
the public health councildirector and that the business entity 33250
will use to comply with requirements of the United States 33251
occupational safety and health administration;33252

       (2) A description of procedures the business entity or public 33253
entity will use for the selection, utilization, handling, removal, 33254
and disposal of clothing to prevent contamination or 33255
recontamination of the environment and to protect the public 33256
health from the hazards associated with exposure to asbestos;33257

       (3) The name and address of each asbestos disposal site that 33258
the business entity or public entity might use during the year;33259

       (4) A description of the site decontamination procedures that 33260
the business entity or public entity will use;33261

       (5) A description of the asbestos hazard abatement procedures 33262
that the business entity or public entity will use;33263

       (6) A description of the procedures that the business entity 33264
or public entity will use for handling waste containing asbestos;33265

       (7) A description of the air-monitoring procedures that the 33266
business entity or public entity will use to prevent contamination 33267
or recontamination of the environment and to protect the public 33268
health from the hazards of exposure to asbestos;33269

       (8) A description of the final clean-up procedures that the 33270
business entity or public entity will use;33271

       (9) A list of all partners, owners, and officers of the 33272
business entity along with their social security numbers;33273

       (10) The federal tax identification number of the business 33274
entity or the public entity.33275

       (D) The fees to be charged to each public entity and business 33276
entity and their employees and agents for licensure, 33277
certification, approval, and renewal of licenses, certifications, 33278
and approvals granted under this chapter, subject to division 33279
(A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised Code, are:33280

       (1) Seven hundred fifty dollars for asbestos hazard abatement 33281
contractors;33282

       (2) Two hundred dollars for asbestos hazard abatement project 33283
designers;33284

       (3) Fifty dollars for asbestos hazard abatement workers;33285

       (4) Two hundred dollars for asbestos hazard abatement 33286
specialists;33287

       (5) Two hundred dollars for asbestos hazard evaluation 33288
specialists; and33289

       (6) Nine hundred dollars for approval or renewal of asbestos 33290
hazard training providers.33291

       (E) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, no business 33292
entity which engages in asbestos hazard abatement activities 33293
solely at its own place of business is required to be licensed as 33294
an asbestos hazard abatement contractor provided that the business 33295
entity is required to and does comply with all applicable 33296
standards of the United States environmental protection agency and 33297
the United States occupational safety and health administration 33298
and provided further that all persons employed by the business 33299
entity on the activity meet the requirements of this chapter.33300

       Sec. 3710.051.  No person shall enter into an agreement to 33301
perform any aspect of an asbestos hazard abatement project unless 33302
the agreement is written and contains at least all of the 33303
following:33304

       (A) A requirement that all persons working on the project are 33305
licensed or certified by the department of health as required by 33306
this chapter;33307

       (B) A requirement that all project clearance levels and 33308
sampling be in accordance with the public health council rules 33309
adopted by the director of health;33310

       (C) A requirement that all clearance air-monitoring be 33311
conducted by asbestos hazard abatement air-monitoring technicians 33312
or asbestos hazard evaluation specialists certified by the 33313
department.33314

       Sec. 3710.06.  (A) Within fifteen business days after 33315
receiving an application, the department of health shall 33316
acknowledge receipt of the application and notify the applicant of 33317
any deficiency in the application. Within sixty calendar days 33318
after receiving a completed application, including all additional 33319
information requested by the department, the department shall 33320
issue a license or certificate or deny the application. The 33321
department shall issue only one license or certificate that is in 33322
effect at one time to a business entity and its principal officers 33323
and a public entity and its principal officers.33324

       (B)(1) The department shall deny an application if it 33325
determines that the applicant has not demonstrated the ability to 33326
comply fully with all applicable federal and state requirements 33327
and all requirements, procedures, and standards established by the 33328
publicdirector of health council in this chapter.33329

       (2) The department shall deny any application for an asbestos 33330
hazard abatement contractor's license if the applicant or an 33331
officer or employee of the applicant has been convicted of a 33332
felony under any state or federal law designed to protect the 33333
environment.33334

       (3) The department shall send all denials of an application 33335
by certified mail to the applicant. If the department receives a 33336
timely request for a hearing from the applicant, as provided in 33337
division (D) of section 3710.13 of the Revised Code, the 33338
department shall hold a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of 33339
the Revised Code.33340

       (C) In an emergency that results from a sudden, unexpected 33341
event that is not a planned asbestos hazard abatement project, the 33342
department may waive the requirements for a license or 33343
certificate. For the purposes of this division, "emergency" 33344
includes operations necessitated by nonroutine failures of 33345
equipment or by actions of fire and emergency medical personnel 33346
pursuant to duties within their official capacities. Any person 33347
who performs an asbestos hazard abatement activity under emergency 33348
conditions shall notify the director within three days after 33349
performance thereof.33350

       (D) Each license or certificate issued under this chapter 33351
expires one year after the date of issue, but each licensee or 33352
certificate holder may apply to the department for the extension 33353
of histhe holder's license or certificate under the standard 33354
renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code.33355

       To qualify for renewal of a license or certificate issued 33356
under this chapter, each licensee or certificate holder shall send 33357
the appropriate renewal fee set forth in division (D) of section 33358
3710.05 of the Revised Code or as adopted by rule by the public 33359
health councildirector pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 33360
3710.02 of the Revised Code.33361

       Certificate holders also shall successfully complete an 33362
annual renewal course approved by the department pursuant to 33363
section 3710.10 of the Revised Code.33364

       (E) The department may charge a fee in addition to those 33365
specified in division (D) of section 3710.05 of the Revised Code 33366
or in rule ofrules adopted by the public health councildirector33367
pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised Code 33368
if the licensee or certificate holder applies for renewal after 33369
the expiration thereof or requests a reissuance of any license or 33370
certificate, provided that no such fee shall exceed the original 33371
fees by more than fifty per cent.33372

       Sec. 3710.07.  (A) Prior to engaging in any asbestos hazard 33373
abatement project, an asbestos hazard abatement contractor shall 33374
do all of the following:33375

       (1) Prepare a written respiratory protection program as 33376
defined by the publicdirector of health council pursuant to rule, 33377
and make the program available to the department of health, and 33378
workers at the job site if the contractor is a public entity or 33379
prepare a written respiratory protection program, consistent with 33380
29 C.F.R. 1910.134 and make the program available to the 33381
department, and workers at the job site if the contractor is a 33382
business entity;33383

       (2) Ensure that each worker who will be involved in any 33384
asbestos hazard abatement project has been examined within the 33385
preceding year and has been declared by a physician to be 33386
physically capable of working while wearing a respirator;33387

       (3) Ensure that each of the contractor's employees or agents 33388
who will come in contact with asbestos-containing materials or 33389
will be responsible for an asbestos hazard abatement project 33390
receives the appropriate certification or licensure required by 33391
this chapter and the following training:33392

       (a) An initial course approved by the department pursuant to 33393
section 3710.10 of the Revised Code, completed before engaging in 33394
any asbestos hazard abatement project; and33395

       (b) An annual review course approved by the department 33396
pursuant to section 3710.10 of the Revised Code.33397

       (B) After obtaining or renewing a license, an asbestos hazard 33398
abatement contractor shall notify the department, on a form 33399
approved by the director of health, at least ten days before 33400
beginning each asbestos hazard abatement project conducted during 33401
the term of the contractor's license.33402

       (C) In addition to any other fee imposed under this chapter, 33403
an asbestos hazard abatement contractor shall pay, at the time of 33404
providing notice under division (B) of this section, the 33405
department a fee of sixty-five dollars for each asbestos hazard 33406
abatement project conducted.33407

       Sec. 3710.08.  (A) An asbestos hazard abatement contractor 33408
engaging in any asbestos hazard abatement project shall, during 33409
the course of the project:33410

       (1) Conduct each project in a manner that is in compliance 33411
with the requirements the director of environmental protection 33412
adopts pursuant to section 3704.03 of the Revised Code and the 33413
asbestos requirements of the United States occupational safety and 33414
health administration set forth in 29 C.F.R. 1926.58;33415

       (2) Comply with all applicable rules adopted by the public33416
director of health council pursuant to section 3710.02 of the 33417
Revised Code.33418

       (B) An asbestos hazard abatement contractor that is a public 33419
entity shall:33420

       (1) Provide workers with protective clothing and equipment 33421
and ensure that the workers involved in any asbestos hazard 33422
abatement project use the items properly. Protective clothing and 33423
equipment shall include:33424

       (a) Respirators approved by the national institute of 33425
occupational safety and health. These respirators shall be fit 33426
tested in accordance with requirements of the United States 33427
occupational safety and health administration set forth in 29 33428
C.F.R. 1926.58(h). At the request of an employee, the asbestos 33429
hazard abatement contractor shall provide the employee with a 33430
powered air purifying respirator, in which case, the testing 33431
requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section do not apply.33432

       (b) Items required by the publicdirector of health council33433
by rule as provided in division (A)(7) of section 3710.02 of the 33434
Revised Code.33435

       (2) Comply with all applicable standards of conduct and 33436
requirements adopted by the public health council and the director 33437
of health pursuant to section 3710.02 of the Revised Code.33438

       (C) An asbestos hazard abatement specialist engaging in any 33439
asbestos hazard abatement project shall, during the course of the 33440
project:33441

       (1) Conduct each project in a manner that will meet 33442
decontamination procedures, project containment procedures, and 33443
asbestos fiber dispersal methods as provided in division (A)(6) of 33444
section 3710.02 of the Revised Code;33445

       (2) Ensure that workers utilize, handle, remove, and dispose 33446
of the disposable clothing provided by abatement contractors in a 33447
manner that will prevent contamination or recontamination of the 33448
environment and protect the public health from the hazards of 33449
exposure to asbestos;33450

       (3) Ensure that workers utilize protective clothing and 33451
equipment and comply with the applicable health and safety 33452
standards set forth in division (A) of section 3710.08 of the 33453
Revised Code;33454

       (4) Ensure that there is no smoking, eating, or drinking in 33455
the work area;33456

       (5) Comply with all applicable standards of conduct and 33457
requirements adopted by the public health council and director of 33458
health pursuant to section 3710.02 of the Revised Code.33459

       (D) An asbestos hazard evaluation specialist engaged in the 33460
identification, detection, and assessment of asbestos-containing 33461
materials, the determination of appropriate response actions, or 33462
other activities associated with an abatement project or the 33463
preparation of management plans, shall comply with the applicable 33464
standards of conduct and requirements adopted by the public health 33465
council and the director of health pursuant to section 3710.02 of 33466
the Revised Code.33467

       (E) Every asbestos hazard abatement worker shall comply with 33468
all applicable standards adopted by the publicdirector of health33469
council pursuant to section 3710.02 of the Revised Code.33470

       (F) The department may, on a case-by-case basis, approve an 33471
alternative to the worker protection requirements of divisions 33472
(A), (B), and (C) of this section for an asbestos hazard abatement 33473
project conducted by a public entity, provided that the asbestos 33474
hazard abatement contractor submits the alternative procedure to 33475
the department in writing and demonstrates to the satisfaction of 33476
the department that the proposed alternative procedure provides 33477
equivalent worker protection.33478

       Sec. 3710.09.  (A) As a means of protecting the public, each 33479
asbestos hazard abatement contractor licensed under this chapter 33480
shall maintain records of all asbestos hazard abatement projects 33481
which hethe contractor performs and make these records available 33482
to the department of health upon request. The licensee shall 33483
maintain the records for at least thirty years.33484

       (B) The records required by this section shall include all of 33485
the following:33486

       (1) The name, social security number, and address of the 33487
person who supervised the asbestos hazard abatement project;33488

       (2) The names and social security numbers of all workers at 33489
the job site;33490

       (3) The location and description of the asbestos hazard 33491
abatement project and the amount of asbestos-containing material 33492
that was removed;33493

       (4) The starting and completion dates of each asbestos hazard 33494
abatement project;33495

       (5) A summary of the procedures that were used to comply with 33496
all applicable federal, state, and local standards;33497

       (6) The name and address of each asbestos disposal site where 33498
the waste containing asbestos was deposited;33499

       (7) Any other information that the publicdirector of health 33500
council, by rule, requires.33501

       Sec. 3710.10.  (A) No person other than the department of 33502
health shall conduct or offer to conduct any initial or review 33503
training course or examination required by this chapter unless 33504
that person is approved to sponsor the courses and examinations 33505
under this section. In conducting any such course or examination, 33506
the department and the approved person shall administer the 33507
courses and examinations according to the United States 33508
environmental protection agency "Model Accreditation Plan," 40 33509
C.F.R. 763, Subpart E, Appendix C, and the rules of the public33510
director of health council adopted pursuant to division (A)(3) of 33511
section 3710.02 of the Revised Code. A person may apply for 33512
approval or renewal of a course on the health and safety aspects 33513
of asbestos hazard abatement activities which meets the 33514
requirements of division (A)(3) of section 3710.07 of the Revised 33515
Code by submitting a written application on forms provided by the 33516
department.33517

       (B) In order to obtain or renew department approval, a person 33518
sponsoring a course shall substantially satisfy all of the 33519
following criteria:33520

       (1) Provide courses of instruction and examinations that meet 33521
the requirements of division (A) of this section;33522

       (2) Ensure that instruction is given or supervised by 33523
personnel with sufficient education and experience as determined, 33524
by rule,in rules adopted by the public health councildirector;33525

       (3) Maintain lists of students trained and the dates on which 33526
training occurred for at least twenty years, and make this 33527
information available to the department upon request.33528

       (C) In order to obtain or renew department approval, a person 33529
sponsoring an initial course or a review course annually shall 33530
apply to the department for approval. In applying, the person 33531
shall submit the fee set forth in division (D) of section 3710.05 33532
of the Revised Code along with any increase in fee adopted 33533
pursuant to division (A)(4) of section 3710.02 of the Revised 33534
Code.33535

       (D)(1) The department shall act or acknowledge receipt of an 33536
application within ten working days after receiving the 33537
application.33538

       (2) The department shall act on the application within ninety 33539
days after it is complete.33540

       (3) The department shall grant contingent approval of an 33541
application if the department determines the course substantially 33542
satisfies or will substantially satisfy the criteria in this 33543
chapter and the rules adopted by the public health council33544
director.33545

       (4) The department may deny or revoke approval of a course if 33546
the department determines the course does not or will not 33547
substantially satisfy the criteria in this chapter or the rules 33548
adopted by the public health councildirector.33549

       (5) The department shall grant final approval of a course 33550
only after an on-site audit by the department which reveals that 33551
the course substantially satisfies the criteria in this chapter 33552
and the rules adopted by the public health councildirector. 33553
Course approvals expire one year from the date of final approval 33554
under division (D)(5) of this section.33555

       (E) Each course approval issued under this section expires 33556
one year after the date of issue, but a person who received 33557
approval may apply to the department for renewal under the 33558
standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. 33559
The fee prescribed in section 3710.05 of the Revised Code must 33560
accompany the application.33561

       Sec. 3710.12.  Subject to the hearing provisions of this 33562
chapter, the department of health may deny, suspend, or revoke any 33563
license or certificate, or renewal thereof, if the licensee or 33564
certificate holder:33565

       (A) Fraudulently or deceptively obtains or attempts to obtain 33566
a license or certificate;33567

       (B) Fails at any time to meet the qualifications for a 33568
license or certificate;33569

       (C) Is violating or threatening to violate any provisions of 33570
any of the following:33571

       (1) This chapter or the rules of the public health council or33572
director of health adopted pursuant thereto;33573

       (2) The "National Emission Standard for Hazardous Air 33574
Pollutants" regulations of the United States environmental 33575
protection agency as the regulations pertain to asbestos; or33576

       (3) The regulations of the United States occupational safety 33577
and health administration as the regulations pertain to asbestos.33578

       Sec. 3710.13.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in Chapter 33579
119. of the Revised Code or this section, before the department of 33580
health takes any action under section 3710.12 of the Revised Code, 33581
it shall give the licensee or certificate holder against whom 33582
action is contemplated an opportunity for a hearing.33583

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, the department 33584
shall give notice and hold the hearing in accordance with Chapter 33585
119. of the Revised Code.33586

       (B) The department, without notice or hearing and in 33587
accordance with the rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of33588
health council, may issue an order requiring any action necessary 33589
to meet a public health emergency involving asbestos. Any person 33590
to whom an order is directed shall immediately comply with the 33591
order. Upon application to the director of health, the person 33592
shall be afforded a hearing as soon as possible, but no more than 33593
twenty days after receipt of the application by the director.33594

       (C) If the director determines, pursuant to division (B) of 33595
this section, that a public health emergency exists, hethe 33596
director may order, without a hearing, the denial, suspension, or 33597
revocation of any license or certificate issued under this chapter 33598
of the parties involved, provided that an opportunity for a 33599
hearing is provided to the affected party as soon as reasonably 33600
possible.33601

       (D) All proceedings under this chapter are subject to Chapter 33602
119. of the Revised Code, except that:33603

       (1) Upon the request of a licensee or certificate holder, the 33604
location of an adjudicatory hearing is the county seat of the 33605
county in which the licensee or certificate holder conducts 33606
business.33607

       (2) The director shall notify, by certified mail or personal 33608
delivery, a licensee or certificate holder that hethe licensee or 33609
certificate holder is entitled to a hearing if hethe licensee or 33610
certificate holder requests it, in writing, within ten days of the 33611
time that hethe licensee or certificate holder receives the 33612
notice. If the licensee or certificate holder requests such a 33613
hearing, the director shall set the hearing date no later than ten 33614
days after the director receives the request.33615

       (3) The director shall not apply for or receive a 33616
postponement or continuation of an adjudication hearing. If a 33617
licensee or certificate holder requests a postponement or 33618
continuation of an adjudication hearing, the director only shall 33619
grant the request if the licensee or certificate holder 33620
demonstrates extreme hardship in complying with the hearing date. 33621
If the director grants a postponement or continuation on the 33622
grounds of extreme hardship, the director shall include in the 33623
record of the case, the nature and cause of the extreme hardship.33624

       (4) In lieu of an adjudicatory hearing required by this 33625
chapter, a licensee or certificate holder, by no later than the 33626
date set for a hearing pursuant to division (A)(3) of this 33627
section, may by written request to the director, request that the 33628
matter be resolved by the licensee or certificate holder 33629
submitting documents, papers, and other written evidence to the 33630
director to support histhe licensee's or certificate holder's33631
claim.33632

       (5) If the director appoints a referee or an examiner to 33633
conduct a hearing, all of the following apply:33634

       (a) The examiner or referee shall serve, by certified mail 33635
and within three business days of the conclusion of the hearing, a 33636
copy of the written adjudication report and histhe referee's or 33637
examiner's recommendations, on the director and the affected 33638
licensee or certificate holder or the licensee's or certificate 33639
holder's attorney or other representative of record.33640

       (b) The licensee or certificate holder, within three business 33641
days of receipt of the report under division (D)(5)(a) of this 33642
section, may file with the director written objections to the 33643
report and recommendations.33644

       (c) The director shall consider any objections received under 33645
division (D)(5)(b) of this section prior to approving, modifying, 33646
or disapproving the report and recommendations. Within six 33647
business days of receiving the report under division (D)(5)(a) of 33648
this section, the director shall serve histhe director's order, 33649
by certified mail, on the affected licensee or certificate holder 33650
or the licensee's or certificate holder's attorney or other 33651
representative of record.33652

       (6) If the director conducts an adjudicatory hearing under 33653
this chapter, hethe director shall serve histhe director's33654
decision, by certified mail and within three business days of the 33655
conclusion of the hearing, on the affected licensee or certificate 33656
holder or the licensee's or certificate holder's attorney or other 33657
representative of record.33658

       (7) If no hearing is held, the director shall issue an order, 33659
by certified mail and within three business days of the last date 33660
possible for a hearing, based upon the record available to himthe 33661
director, to the affected licensee or certificate holder or the 33662
licensee's or certificate holder's attorney or other 33663
representative of record.33664

       (8) A licensee or certificate holder shall file a notice of 33665
appeal to an adverse adjudication decision within fifteen days 33666
after receipt of the director's order.33667

       Sec. 3710.17.  (A) Where any person is certified or licensed 33668
by the department of health to engage in asbestos hazard abatement 33669
or evaluation activity pursuant to this chapter, the liability of 33670
that person when performing such activity in accordance with 33671
procedures established pursuant to state or federal law for an 33672
injury to any individual or property caused or related to this 33673
activity shall be limited to acts or omissions of the person 33674
during the course of performing the activity which can be shown, 33675
based on a preponderance of the evidence, to have been negligent. 33676
For the purposes of this section, the demonstration that acts or 33677
omissions of a person performing asbestos hazard abatement or 33678
evaluation activities were in accordance with generally accepted 33679
practice and with procedures established by state or federal law 33680
at the time the abatement or evaluation activity was performed 33681
creates a rebuttable presumption that the acts or omissions were 33682
not negligent.33683

       (B) Where any person contracts with a certified asbestos 33684
hazard abatement specialist, asbestos hazard evaluation 33685
specialist, or other category of asbestos hazard specialist 33686
established by the publicdirector of health council, or a 33687
licensed asbestos hazard abatement contractor, the liability of 33688
that person for asbestos-related injuries caused by histhe 33689
person's contractee in the performance of asbestos hazard 33690
abatement or evaluation activities shall be limited to those 33691
asbestos-related injuries arising from acts which the person knew 33692
or could reasonably have been expected to know were not in 33693
accordance with generally accepted practice or with procedures 33694
established by state or federal law at the time the abatement 33695
activity took place.33696

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code 33697
or rules of a court to the contrary, this section governs all 33698
claims for asbestos-related injuries arising from asbestos hazard 33699
abatement or evaluation activities.33700

       Sec. 3711.04. Each person seeking to operate a maternity 33701
unit, newborn care nursery, or maternity home shall apply to the 33702
director of health for a license under this chapter. The 33703
application shall be submitted in the form and manner prescribed 33704
by the public health councildirector in rules adopted under 33705
section 3711.12 of the Revised Code.33706

       A single application and license is required if an applicant 33707
will operate both a maternity unit and newborn care nursery.33708

       Sec. 3711.06. The director of health shall inspect each 33709
maternity unit, newborn care nursery, or maternity home for which 33710
a person has applied for an initial license under section 3711.04 33711
of the Revised Code prior to issuing the license. Inspections 33712
shall be conducted in accordance with inspection criteria, 33713
procedures, and guidelines adopted by the public health council33714
director under section 3711.12 of the Revised Code.33715

       Sec. 3711.08. A license issued under this chapter is valid 33716
for three years, unless earlier revoked or suspended under section 33717
3711.14 of the Revised Code. The license may be renewed in the 33718
manner prescribed by the publicdirector of health council in 33719
rules adopted under section 3711.12 of the Revised Code. The 33720
license renewal fee specified in the rules shall be paid not later 33721
than sixty days after the director of health mails an invoice for 33722
the fee to the license holder. A penalty of ten per cent of the 33723
amount of the renewal fee shall be assessed for each month the fee 33724
is overdue.33725

       Sec. 3711.12. (A) The publicdirector of health council shall 33726
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 33727
the councildirector considers necessary to implement the 33728
requirements of this chapter for licensure and operation of 33729
maternity units, newborn care nurseries, and maternity homes. The 33730
rules shall include provisions for the following:33731

       (1) Licensure application forms and procedures;33732

       (2) Renewal procedures, including procedures that address the 33733
right of the director of health, at the director's sole 33734
discretion, to conduct an inspection prior to renewal of a 33735
license;33736

       (3) Initial license fees and license renewal fees;33737

       (4) Fees for inspections conducted by the director under 33738
section 3711.10 of the Revised Code;33739

       (5) Safety standards, quality-of-care standards, and 33740
quality-of-care data reporting requirements;33741

       (6) Reporting and auditing requirements;33742

       (7) Inspection criteria, procedures, and guidelines;33743

       (8) Any other rules necessary to implement this chapter.33744

       (B) When adopting rules under this section, the public health 33745
councildirector shall give consideration to recommendations 33746
regarding obstetric and newborn care issued by the American 33747
college of obstetricians and gynecologists; American academy of 33748
pediatrics; American academy of family physicians; American 33749
society of anesthesiologists; American college of nurse-midwives; 33750
United States centers for disease control and prevention; 33751
association of women's health, obstetric and neonatal nurses; and 33752
association of perioperative registered nurses, or their successor 33753
organizations. The councildirector shall also consider the 33754
recommendations of the maternity and newborn advisory council 33755
established in section 3711.20 of the Revised Code.33756

       Sec. 3711.21. The maternity and newborn advisory council 33757
shall do all of the following:33758

       (A) Advise and consult with the director of health in the 33759
development of rules to be presented to the public health council 33760
for proposed adoptionadopted under this chapter;33761

       (B) Advise and consult with the director concerning the 33762
implementation and enforcement of this chapter;33763

       (C) Advise and consult with the director in the development 33764
of inspection criteria, procedures, and guidelines to be used in 33765
enforcement of this chapter;33766

       (D) Advise and consult with the director regarding 33767
recommendations to be presented to the public health council33768
regarding improving maternity and newborn care in this state;33769

       (E) Prepare and submit to the director an annual report 33770
evaluating the department's enforcement of this chapter.33771

       Sec. 3712.03.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 33772
Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt, 33773
and may amend and rescind, rules:33774

       (1) Providing for the licensing of persons or public agencies 33775
providing hospice care programs within this state by the 33776
department of health and for the suspension and revocation of 33777
licenses;33778

       (2) Establishing a license fee and license renewal fee, 33779
neither of which shall, except as provided in division (B) of this 33780
section, exceed six hundred dollars. The fees shall cover the 33781
three-year period during which an existing license is valid as 33782
provided in division (B) of section 3712.04 of the Revised Code.33783

       (3) Establishing an inspection fee not to exceed, except as 33784
provided in division (B) of this section, one thousand seven 33785
hundred fifty dollars;33786

       (4) Establishing requirements for hospice care program 33787
facilities and services;33788

       (5) Providing for a waiver of the requirement for the 33789
provision of physical, occupational, or speech or language therapy 33790
contained in division (A)(2) of section 3712.01 of the Revised 33791
Code when the requirement would create a hardship because such 33792
therapy is not readily available in the geographic area served by 33793
the provider of a hospice care program;33794

       (6) Providing for the granting of licenses to provide hospice 33795
care programs to persons and public agencies that are accredited 33796
or certified to provide such programs by an entity whose standards 33797
for accreditation or certification equal or exceed those provided 33798
for licensure under this chapter and rules adopted under it;33799

       (7) Establishing interpretive guidelines for each rule.33800

       (B) Subject to the approval of the controlling board, the33801
public health councildirector may establish fees in excess of the 33802
maximum amounts specified in this section, provided that the fees 33803
do not exceed those amounts by greater than fifty per cent.33804

       (C) The department of health shall:33805

       (1) Grant, suspend, and revoke licenses for hospice care 33806
programs in accordance with this chapter and rules adopted under 33807
it;33808

       (2) Make such inspections as are necessary to determine 33809
whether hospice care program facilities and services meet the 33810
requirements of this chapter and rules adopted under it; and33811

       (3) Implement and enforce this chapter and rules adopted 33812
under it.33813

       Sec. 3712.04.  (A) Every person or public agency that 33814
proposes to provide a hospice care program shall apply to the 33815
department of health for a license. Application shall be made on 33816
forms prescribed and provided by the department, shall include 33817
such information as the department requires, and shall be 33818
accompanied by the license fee established by rules of the public33819
director of health council adopted under division (A) of section 33820
3712.03 of the Revised Code.33821

       The department shall grant a license to the applicant if the 33822
applicant is in compliance with this chapter and rules adopted 33823
under it.33824

       (B) A license granted under this section shall be valid for 33825
three years. Application for renewal of a license shall be made at 33826
least ninety days before the expiration of the license in the same 33827
manner as for an initial license. The department shall renew the 33828
license if the applicant meets the requirements of this chapter 33829
and rules adopted under it.33830

       (C) Subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 33831
department may suspend or revoke a license if the licensee made 33832
any material misrepresentation in the application for the license 33833
or no longer meets the requirements of this chapter or rules 33834
adopted under it.33835

       (D) A hospital, nursing home, home for the aged, county 33836
medical care facility, or other health facility or agency that 33837
provides a hospice care program shall be licensed to provide a 33838
hospice care program under this section.33839

       (E) A nursing home licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 33840
Revised Code that does not hold itself out to be a hospice, does 33841
not hold itself out as providing a hospice care program, does not 33842
use the term hospice to describe or refer to its activities or 33843
facilities, and that does not provide all of the services 33844
enumerated in division (A) of section 3712.01 of the Revised Code 33845
is not subject to the licensing provisions of this chapter.33846

       Sec. 3712.09.  (A) As used in this section:33847

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 33848
consideration for employment with a hospice care program in a 33849
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 33850
providing direct care to an older adult. "Applicant" does not 33851
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 33852
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 33853
than reimbursement for actual expenses.33854

       (2) "Criminal records check" and "older adult" havehas the 33855
same meaningsmeaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.33856

       (3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.33857

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 33858
the chief administrator of a hospice care program shall request 33859
that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification 33860
and investigation conduct a criminal records check with respect to33861
of each applicant. If an applicant for whom a criminal records 33862
check request is required under this division does not present 33863
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 33864
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 33865
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 33866
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 33867
from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records 33868
check, the chief administrator shall request that the 33869
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 33870
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 33871
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 33872
request is required under this division presents proof of having 33873
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 33874
administrator may request that the superintendent include 33875
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 33876
criminal records check.33877

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 33878
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:33879

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 33880
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 33881
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 33882
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 33883
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 33884
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;33885

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 33886
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 33887
investigation.33888

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 33889
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 33890
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 33891
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 33892
required by this section.33893

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the public33894
director of health council in accordance with division (F) of this 33895
section and subject to division (C)(2) of this section, no hospice 33896
care program shall employ a person in a position that involves 33897
providing direct care to an older adult if the person has been 33898
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:33899

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 33900
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 33901
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 33902
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 33903
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 33904
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 33905
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 33906
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 33907
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.33908

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 33909
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 33910
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 33911
this section.33912

       (2)(a) A hospice care program may employ conditionally an 33913
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 33914
under division (B) of this section prior to obtaining the results 33915
of a criminal records check regarding the individual, provided 33916
that the program shall request a criminal records check regarding 33917
the individual in accordance with division (B)(1) of this section 33918
not later than five business days after the individual begins 33919
conditional employment. In the circumstances described in division 33920
(I)(2) of this section, a hospice care program may employ 33921
conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the hospice 33922
care program by an employment service that supplies full-time, 33923
part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving the direct 33924
care of older adults and for whom, pursuant to that division, a 33925
criminal records check is not required under division (B) of this 33926
section.33927

       (b) A hospice care program that employs an individual 33928
conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of this 33929
section shall terminate the individual's employment if the results 33930
of the criminal records check requested under division (B) of this 33931
section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, other 33932
than the results of any request for information from the federal 33933
bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending 33934
thirty days after the date the request is made. Regardless of when 33935
the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the 33936
results indicate that the individual has been convicted of or 33937
pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in 33938
division (C)(1) of this section, the program shall terminate the 33939
individual's employment unless the program chooses to employ the 33940
individual pursuant to division (F) of this section. Termination 33941
of employment under this division shall be considered just cause 33942
for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 33943
of the Revised Code if the individual makes any attempt to deceive 33944
the program about the individual's criminal record.33945

       (D)(1) Each hospice care program shall pay to the bureau of 33946
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 33947
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 33948
for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request 33949
made under division (B) of this section.33950

       (2) A hospice care program may charge an applicant a fee not 33951
exceeding the amount the program pays under division (D)(1) of 33952
this section. A program may collect a fee only if both of the 33953
following apply:33954

       (a) The program notifies the person at the time of initial 33955
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 33956
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 33957
employment;33958

       (b) The medical assistance program established under Chapter 33959
5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the program the fee 33960
it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.33961

       (E) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 33962
to a request made under this section is not a public record for 33963
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 33964
be made available to any person other than the following:33965

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 33966
check or the individual's representative;33967

       (2) The chief administrator of the program requesting the 33968
criminal records check or the administrator's representative;33969

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 33970
program that provides direct care to older adults that is owned or 33971
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the hospice care 33972
program;33973

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 33974
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 33975
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 33976
the applicant;33977

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 33978
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section.33979

       (F) The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 33980
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 33981
this section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a 33982
hospice care program may employ a person who has been convicted of 33983
or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 33984
(C)(1) of this section but meets personal character standards set 33985
by the councildirector.33986

       (G) The chief administrator of a hospice care program shall 33987
inform each individual, at the time of initial application for a 33988
position that involves providing direct care to an older adult, 33989
that the individual is required to provide a set of fingerprint 33990
impressions and that a criminal records check is required to be 33991
conducted if the individual comes under final consideration for 33992
employment.33993

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 33994
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 33995
property caused by an individual who a hospice care program 33996
employs in a position that involves providing direct care to older 33997
adults, all of the following shall apply:33998

       (1) If the program employed the individual in good faith and 33999
reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check 34000
requested under this section, the program shall not be found 34001
negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if 34002
the information in the report is determined later to have been 34003
incomplete or inaccurate;34004

       (2) If the program employed the individual in good faith on a 34005
conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the 34006
program shall not be found negligent solely because it employed 34007
the individual prior to receiving the report of a criminal records 34008
check requested under this section;34009

       (3) If the program in good faith employed the individual 34010
according to the personal character standards established in rules 34011
adopted under division (F) of this section, the program shall not 34012
be found negligent solely because the individual prior to being 34013
employed had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 34014
listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section.34015

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a hospice care program is 34016
not required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 34017
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 34018
records check of an applicant if the applicant has been referred 34019
to the program by an employment service that supplies full-time, 34020
part-time, or temporary staff for positions involving the direct 34021
care of older adults and both of the following apply:34022

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 34023
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 34024
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 34025
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 34026
preceding the applicant's referral;34027

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 34028
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 34029
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 34030
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 34031
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the hospice 34032
care program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division 34033
(F) of this section.34034

       (2) The chief administrator of a hospice care program is not 34035
required to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 34036
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 34037
records check of an applicant and may employ the applicant 34038
conditionally as described in this division, if the applicant has 34039
been referred to the program by an employment service that 34040
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 34041
involving the direct care of older adults and if the chief 34042
administrator receives from the employment service or the 34043
applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the 34044
letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a 34045
supervisor or another designated official of the employment 34046
service and that states that the employment service has requested 34047
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 34048
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 34049
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 34050
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 34051
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 34052
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 34053
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 34054
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 34055
promptly will send a copy of the results to the hospice care 34056
program. If a hospice care program employs an applicant 34057
conditionally in accordance with this division, the employment 34058
service, upon its receipt of the results of the criminal records 34059
check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the hospice 34060
care program, and division (C)(2)(b) of this section applies 34061
regarding the conditional employment.34062

       Sec. 3713.01.  As used in sections 3713.01 to 3713.10 of the 34063
Revised Code:34064

       (A) "Person" has the same meaning as used in division (C) of 34065
section 1.59 of the Revised Code and also means any limited 34066
company, limited liability partnership, joint stock company, or 34067
other association.34068

       (B) "Bedding" means any upholstered furniture, any mattress, 34069
upholstered spring, comforter, bolster, pad, cushion, pillow, 34070
mattress protector, quilt, and any other upholstered article, to 34071
be used for sleeping, resting, or reclining purposes, and any 34072
glider, hammock, or other substantially similar article that is 34073
wholly or partly upholstered.34074

       (C) "Secondhand" means any article, or material, or portion 34075
thereof of which prior use has been made in any manner whatsoever.34076

       (D) "Remade, repaired, or renovated articles not for sale" 34077
means any article that is remade, repaired, or renovated for and 34078
is returned to the owner for the owner's own use.34079

       (E) "Sale," "sell," or "sold" shall, in the corresponding 34080
tense, mean sell, offer to sell, or deliver or consign in sale, or 34081
possess with intent to sell, or deliver in sale.34082

       (F) "Upholstered furniture" means any article of furniture 34083
wholly or partly stuffed or filled with material and that is used 34084
or intended for use for sitting, resting, or reclining purposes.34085

       (G) "Stuffed toy" means any article intended for use as a 34086
plaything or for an educational or recreational purpose that is 34087
wholly or partially stuffed with material.34088

       (H) "Tag" or "label" means any material prescribed by the 34089
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance to be attached to an 34090
article that contains information required under this chapter.34091

       Sec. 3713.02. (A) Except as provided in section 3713.05 of 34092
the Revised Code, no person shall import, manufacture, renovate, 34093
wholesale, or reupholster stuffed toys or articles of bedding in 34094
this state without first registering to do so with the 34095
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance in accordance with 34096
section 3713.05 of the Revised Code.34097

       (B) No person shall manufacture, offer for sale, sell, 34098
deliver, or possess for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, or 34099
delivering, an article of bedding or a stuffed toy that is not 34100
labeled in accordance with section 3713.08 of the Revised Code.34101

       (C) No person shall manufacture, offer for sale, sell, 34102
deliver, or possess for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, or 34103
delivering, an article of bedding or a stuffed toy that is falsely 34104
labeled.34105

       (D) No person shall sell or offer for sale any secondhand 34106
article of bedding or any secondhand stuffed toy that has not been 34107
sanitized in accordance with section 3713.08 of the Revised Code.34108

       (E) The possession of any article of bedding or stuffed toy 34109
in the course of business by a person required to obtain 34110
registration under this chapter, or by that person's agent or 34111
servant shall be prima-facie evidence of the person's intent to 34112
sell the article of bedding or stuffed toy.34113

       Sec. 3713.03. The superintendent of laborindustrial 34114
compliance in the department of commerce shall administer and 34115
enforce this chapter.34116

       Sec. 3713.04.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 34117
Revised Code, the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance34118
shall:34119

       (1) Adopt rules pertaining to the definition, name, and 34120
description of materials necessary to carry out this chapter;34121

       (2) Determine the testing standards, fees, and charges to be 34122
paid for making any test or analysis required pursuant to section 34123
3713.08 of the Revised Code.34124

       (B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 34125
superintendent may adopt rules regarding the following:34126

       (1) Establishing an initial application fee or an annual 34127
registration renewal fee not more than fifty per cent higher than 34128
the fees set forth in section 4713.05 of the Revised Code;34129

       (2) Establishing standards, on a reciprocal basis, for the 34130
acceptance of labels and laboratory analyses from other states 34131
where the labeling requirements and laboratory analysis standards 34132
are substantially equal to the requirements of this state, 34133
provided the other state extends similar reciprocity to labels and 34134
laboratory analysis conducted under this chapter;34135

       (3) Any other rules necessary to administer and carry out 34136
this chapter.34137

       (C) The superintendent may do any of the following:34138

       (1) Issue administrative orders, conduct hearings, and take 34139
all actions necessary under the authority of Chapter 119. of the 34140
Revised Code for the administration of this chapter. The authority 34141
granted under this division shall include the authority to 34142
suspend, revoke, or deny registration under this chapter.34143

       (2) Establish and maintain facilities within the department 34144
of commerce to make tests and analysis of materials used in the 34145
manufacture of bedding and stuffed toys. The superintendent also 34146
may designate established laboratories in various sections of the 34147
state that are qualified to make these tests. If the 34148
superintendent exercises this authority, the superintendent shall 34149
adopt rules to determine the fees and charges to be paid for 34150
making the tests or analyses authorized under this section.34151

       (3) Exercise such other powers and duties as are necessary to 34152
carry out the purpose and intent of this chapter.34153

       Sec. 3713.05. (A) Applications to register to import, 34154
manufacture, renovate, wholesale, make, or reupholster stuffed 34155
toys or bedding in this state shall be made in writing on forms 34156
provided by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance. The 34157
application shall be accompanied by a registration fee of fifty 34158
dollars per person unless the applicant engages only in 34159
renovation, in which case the registration fee shall be 34160
thirty-five dollars.34161

       (B) Upon receipt of the application and the appropriate fee, 34162
the superintendent shall register the applicant and assign a 34163
registration number to the registrant.34164

       (C) Notwithstanding section 3713.02 of the Revised Code and 34165
division (A) of this section, the following are exempt from 34166
registration:34167

       (1) An organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the 34168
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," and exempt from income tax under 34169
section 501(a) of that code and that is operated exclusively to 34170
provide recreation or social services;34171

       (2) A person who is not regularly engaged in the business of 34172
manufacturing, making, wholesaling, or importing stuffed toys but 34173
who manufactures or makes stuffed toys as a leisure pursuit and 34174
who sells one hundred or fewer stuffed toys within one calendar 34175
year;34176

       (3) A person who is not regularly engaged in the business of 34177
manufacturing, making, wholesaling, or importing quilts, 34178
comforters, pillows, or cushions, but who manufactures or makes 34179
these items as a leisure pursuit and who sells five or fewer 34180
quilts, ten or fewer comforters, or twenty or fewer pillows or 34181
cushions within one calendar year.34182

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C)(2) or (3) of this section, a 34183
person exempt under that division must attach a label to each 34184
stuffed toy that contains all of the following information:34185

       (1) The person's name and address;34186

       (2) A statement that the person is not registered by the 34187
state of Ohio;34188

       (3) A statement that the contents of the product have not 34189
been inspected.34190

       Sec. 3713.06. (A) Any person required to register under 34191
division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who imports 34192
bedding or stuffed toys into this state for retail sale or use in 34193
this state and any person required to register under division (A) 34194
of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who manufactures bedding or 34195
stuffed toys in this state for retail sale or use in this state 34196
shall submit a report to the superintendent of laborindustrial 34197
compliance, in a form and manner prescribed by the superintendent. 34198
The form shall be submitted once every six months and shall show 34199
the total number of items of bedding or stuffed toys imported into 34200
this state or manufactured in this state. Each report shall be 34201
accompanied by a fee of four cents for each item of bedding or 34202
stuffed toy imported into this state or manufactured in this 34203
state.34204

       (B) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 34205
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 34206
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 34207
dealer, and auction house shall retain records, designated by the 34208
superintendent in rule, for the time period established in rule.34209

       (C) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 34210
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 34211
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 34212
dealer, and auction house shall make sufficient investigation of 34213
its records to ensure that the information reported to the 34214
superintendent under division (A) of this section is accurate.34215

       Sec. 3713.07. (A) Registration obtained under this chapter 34216
expires annually on the last day of the month in the month that 34217
the registration was obtained. The superintendent of labor34218
industrial compliance shall renew the registration in accordance 34219
with Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code.34220

       (B) Failure on the part of any registrant to renew 34221
registration prior to its expiration, when notified as required in 34222
this section, shall not deprive the person of the right to renewal 34223
within the ninety days that follow expiration, but the fee to be 34224
paid for renewal after its expiration shall be one hundred dollars 34225
plus the standard registration fee for the registrant.34226

       (C) If a registrant fails to renew registration within ninety 34227
days of the date that it expired, the former registrant shall 34228
comply with the registration requirements under section 3713.05 of 34229
the Revised Code to obtain valid registration.34230

       Sec. 3713.08. (A) All persons required to register under 34231
division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code manufacturing, 34232
making, or wholesaling bedding or stuffed toys, or both, that are 34233
sold or offered for sale shall have the material content of their 34234
products tested and analyzed at an established laboratory 34235
designated by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance34236
before the bedding or stuffed toys are sold or offered for sale.34237

       (B) Every stuffed toy or item of bedding sold or offered for 34238
sale shall have a label affixed to it that reports the contents of 34239
the stuffed toy or bedding material in conformity with 34240
requirements established by the superintendent, a registration 34241
number, and any other identifying information as required by the 34242
superintendent.34243

       (C) The seller of any secondhand articles of bedding or 34244
stuffed toys shall sanitize all items in accordance with rules 34245
established by the superintendent prior to the sale of or the 34246
offering for sale of any secondhand articles.34247

       (D) This section does not apply to any of the following:34248

       (1) Persons who meet the qualifications of division (C)(2) or 34249
(3) of section 3713.05 of the Revised Code;34250

       (2) The sale of furniture more than fifty years old;34251

       (3) The sale of furniture from the home of the owner directly 34252
to the purchaser.34253

       Sec. 3713.09. (A) The superintendent of laborindustrial 34254
compliance may appoint inspectors and periodically inspect and 34255
investigate any establishment where bedding or stuffed toys are 34256
manufactured, made, remade, renovated, repaired, sanitized, sold, 34257
or offered for sale, or where previously used material is 34258
processed for use in the manufacture of bedding or stuffed toys.34259

       (1) Each inspector shall make a written report to the 34260
superintendent of each examination and inspection complete with 34261
the inspector's findings and recommendations. Inspectors may place 34262
"off sale" any article of bedding or stuffed toy offered for sale, 34263
or found in the possession of any person with the intent to sell, 34264
in violation of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code. Inspectors 34265
shall perform other duties related to inspection and examination 34266
as prescribed by the superintendent.34267

       (2) When articles are placed "off sale" under division (A)(1) 34268
of this section, they shall be tagged, and the tag shall not be 34269
removed except by an authorized representative of the division of 34270
laborindustrial compliance after the violator demonstrates to the 34271
satisfaction of the superintendent proof of compliance with the 34272
requirements of section 3713.08 of the Revised Code.34273

       (B)(1) When an inspector has cause to believe that any 34274
bedding or stuffed toy is not tagged or labeled in accordance with 34275
section 3713.08 of the Revised Code, the inspector may open any 34276
seam of the bedding or stuffed toy in question to examine the 34277
material used or contained within it and take a reasonable amount 34278
of the material for testing and analysis and, if necessary, 34279
examine any and all purchase records in order to determine the 34280
contents or the kind of material used in the bedding or stuffed 34281
toy in question. An inspector may seize and hold evidence of any 34282
article of bedding, stuffed toy, or material manufactured, made, 34283
possessed, renovated, remade, or repaired, sold, or offered for 34284
sale contrary to this chapter.34285

       (2) Immediately after seizing articles believed to be in 34286
violation of this chapter, the inspector immediately shall report 34287
the seizure to the superintendent. The superintendent shall hold a 34288
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code or 34289
make a ruling in the matter. If the superintendent finds that the 34290
article of bedding, stuffed toy, or material is not in violation 34291
of this chapter, the superintendent shall order the item or items 34292
returned to the owner. If the superintendent finds a violation of 34293
this chapter, the superintendent may do either of the following:34294

       (a) Return the articles to the owner for proper treatment, 34295
tagging or labeling, or other action as ordered by the 34296
superintendent, subject to the requirement that the articles be 34297
reinspected at cost to the owner, prior to being sold or offered 34298
for sale;34299

       (b) Report the violation to the appropriate prosecuting 34300
attorney or city law director.34301

       (C) The superintendent, at reasonable times and upon 34302
reasonable notice, may examine or cause to be examined the records 34303
of any importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed toys or 34304
articles of bedding, mobile home and recreational vehicle dealer, 34305
conversion van dealer, secondhand dealer, or auction house to 34306
determine compliance with this chapter. The superintendent may 34307
enter into contracts, pursuant to procedures prescribed by the 34308
superintendent, with persons to examine these records to determine 34309
compliance with this chapter. These persons may collect and remit 34310
to the superintendent any amounts due under this chapter.34311

       (D) Records audited pursuant to division (C) of this section 34312
are confidential and shall not be disclosed except as required by 34313
section 149.43 of the Revised Code, or as the superintendent finds 34314
necessary for the proper administration of this chapter.34315

       (E) In the case of any investigation or examination, or both, 34316
that requires investigation or examination outside of this state 34317
of any importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed toys or 34318
articles of bedding, or of any mobile home or recreational vehicle 34319
dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand dealer, or auction 34320
house, the superintendent may require the investigated or examined 34321
person to pay the actual expense of the investigation or 34322
examination. The superintendent shall provide an itemized 34323
statement of actual expenses to the investigated or examined 34324
person.34325

       (F) Whenever the superintendent has reason to believe, from 34326
the superintendent's own information, upon complaint, or 34327
otherwise, that any person has engaged in, is engaging in, or is 34328
about to engage in any practice prohibited by this chapter, or 34329
when the superintendent has reason to believe that it is necessary 34330
for public health and safety, the superintendent may do any of the 34331
following:34332

       (1) Investigate violations of this chapter, and for that 34333
purpose, may subpoena witnesses in connection with the 34334
investigation. The superintendent may make application to the 34335
appropriate court of common pleas for an order enjoining the 34336
violation of this chapter, and upon a showing by the 34337
superintendent that any registrant or person acting in a manner 34338
that requires registration has violated or is about to violate 34339
this chapter, an injunction, restraining order, or other order as 34340
may be appropriate shall be granted by the court.34341

       (2) Compel by subpoena the attendance of witnesses to testify 34342
in relation to any matter over which the superintendent has 34343
jurisdiction and that is the subject of inquiry and investigation 34344
by the superintendent, and require the production of any book, 34345
paper, or document pertaining to the matter. In case any person 34346
fails to file any statement or report, obey any subpoena, give 34347
testimony, or produce any books, records, or papers as required by 34348
a subpoena, the court of common pleas of any county in the state, 34349
upon application made to it by the superintendent, shall compel 34350
obedience by attachment proceedings for contempt.34351

       (3) Suspend or revoke the registration of any importer, 34352
manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed toys or articles of 34353
bedding, mobile home or recreational vehicle dealer, conversion 34354
van dealer, secondhand dealer, or auction house;34355

       (4) Submit evidence of the violation or violations to any 34356
city prosecutor, city director of law, or prosecuting attorney 34357
with authority to prosecute. If the city prosecutor, city director 34358
of law, or prosecuting attorney with authority to prosecute fails 34359
to prosecute, the superintendent shall submit the evidence to the 34360
attorney general who may proceed with the prosecution.34361

       Sec. 3713.10.  All money collected under this chapter shall 34362
be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the labor34363
industrial compliance operating fund created under section 121.084 34364
of the Revised Code.34365

       Sec. 3714.073. (A) In addition to the fee levied under 34366
division (A)(1) of section 3714.07 of the Revised Code, beginning 34367
July 1, 2005, there is hereby levied on the disposal of 34368
construction and demolition debris at a construction and 34369
demolition debris facility that is licensed under this chapter or 34370
at a solid waste facility that is licensed under Chapter 3734. of 34371
the Revised Code the following fees:34372

       (1) A fee of twelve and one-half cents per cubic yard or 34373
twenty-five cents per ton, as applicable, the proceeds of which 34374
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the soil 34375
and water conservation district assistance fund created in section 34376
1515.14 of the Revised Code;34377

        (2) A fee of thirty-seven and one-half cents per cubic yard 34378
or seventy-five cents per ton, as applicable, the proceeds of 34379
which shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of 34380
the recycling and litter prevention fund created in section 34381
1502.023736.03 of the Revised Code.34382

        (B) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 34383
debris facility or a solid waste facility, as a trustee of the 34384
state, shall collect the fees levied under this section and remit 34385
the money from the fees in the manner that is established in 34386
divisions (A)(2) and (3) of section 3714.07 of the Revised Code 34387
for the fee that is levied under division (A)(1) of that section 34388
and may enter into an agreement for the quarterly payment of the 34389
fees in the manner established in division (B) of that section for 34390
the quarterly payment of the fee that is levied under division 34391
(A)(1) of that section.34392

        (C) The money that is collected from a construction and 34393
demolition debris facility or a solid waste facility and remitted 34394
to a board of health or the director of environmental protection, 34395
as applicable, pursuant to this section shall be transmitted by 34396
the board or director to the treasurer of state not later than 34397
forty-five days after the receipt of the money to be credited to 34398
the soil and water conservation district assistance fund or the 34399
recycling and litter prevention fund, as applicable.34400

       (D) This section does not apply to the disposal of 34401
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 34402
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if the owner 34403
or operator of the facility chooses to collect fees on the 34404
disposal of the construction and demolition debris that are 34405
identical to the fees that are collected under Chapters 343. and 34406
3734. of the Revised Code on the disposal of solid wastes at that 34407
facility.34408

       (E) This section does not apply to the disposal of source 34409
separated materials that are exclusively composed of reinforced or 34410
nonreinforced concrete, asphalt, clay tile, building or paving 34411
brick, or building or paving stone at a construction and 34412
demolition debris facility that is licensed under this chapter 34413
when either of the following applies:34414

       (1) The materials are placed within the limits of 34415
construction and demolition debris placement at the facility as 34416
specified in the license issued to the facility under section 34417
3714.06 of the Revised Code, are not placed within the unloading 34418
zone of the facility, and are used as a fire prevention measure in 34419
accordance with rules adopted by the director under section 34420
3714.02 of the Revised Code.34421

       (2) The materials are not placed within the unloading zone of 34422
the facility or within the limits of construction and demolition 34423
debris placement at the facility as specified in the license 34424
issued to the facility under section 3714.06 of the Revised Code, 34425
but are used as fill material, either alone or in conjunction with 34426
clean soil, sand, gravel, or other clean aggregates, in legitimate 34427
fill operations for construction purposes at the facility or to 34428
bring the facility up to a consistent grade.34429

       Sec. 3715.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:34430

       (1) "Public health council" means the public health council 34431
established by section 3701.33 of the Revised Code.34432

       (2) "Person" means an individual, partnership, corporation, 34433
or association.34434

       (3)(2) "Food" means:34435

       (a) Articles used for food or drink for humans or animals;34436

       (b) Chewing gum;34437

       (c) Articles used for components of any such articles.34438

       (4)(3) "Drug" means:34439

       (a) Articles recognized in the United States pharmacopoeia 34440
and national formulary, or any supplement to them;34441

       (b) Articles intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, 34442
mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in humans or 34443
animals;34444

       (c) Articles, other than food, intended to affect the 34445
structure or any function of the body of humans or other animals;34446

       (d) Articles intended for use as a component of any of the 34447
foregoing articles, other than devices or their components, parts, 34448
or accessories.34449

       (5)(4) "Device," except when used in division (B)(1) of this 34450
section and in division (A)(10) of section 3715.52, division (F) 34451
of section 3715.60, division (A)(5) of section 3715.64, and 34452
division (C) of section 3715.67 of the Revised Code, means any 34453
instrument, apparatus, implement, machine, contrivance, implant, 34454
in vitro reagent, or other similar or related article, including 34455
any component, part, or accessory, that is any of the following:34456

       (a) Recognized in the United States pharmacopoeia and 34457
national formulary, or any supplement to them;34458

       (b) Intended for use in the diagnosis of disease or other 34459
conditions, or in the cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention 34460
of disease in humans or animals;34461

       (c) Intended to affect the structure or any function of the 34462
body of humans or animals, and that does not achieve any of its 34463
principal intended purposes through chemical action within or on 34464
the body of humans or animals and is not dependent upon being 34465
metabolized for the achievement of any of its principal intended 34466
purposes.34467

       (6)(5) "Cosmetic" means:34468

       (a) Articles intended to be rubbed, poured, sprinkled, or 34469
sprayed on, introduced into, or otherwise applied to the human 34470
body or any part thereof for cleansing, beautifying, promoting 34471
attractiveness, or altering the appearance;34472

       (b) Articles intended for use as a component of any such 34473
article, except that "cosmetic" does not include soap.34474

       (7)(6) "Label" means a display of written, printed, or 34475
graphic matter upon the immediate container, exclusive of package 34476
liners, of any article.34477

       Any word, statement, or other information required by this 34478
chapter to appear on the label must appear on the outside 34479
container or wrapper, if any, of the retail package of the 34480
article, or the label must be easily legible through the outside 34481
container or wrapper.34482

       (8)(7) "Labeling" means all labels and other written, 34483
printed, or graphic matter:34484

       (a) Upon an article or any of its containers or wrappers;34485

       (b) Accompanying such article.34486

       (9)(8) "Advertisement" means all representations disseminated 34487
in any manner or by any means, other than by labeling, for the 34488
purpose of inducing, or that are likely to induce, directly or 34489
indirectly, the purchase of food, drugs, devices, or cosmetics.34490

       (10)(9) "New drug" means:34491

       (a) Any drug the composition of which is such that the drug 34492
is not generally recognized among experts qualified by scientific 34493
training and experience to evaluate the safety of drugs, as safe 34494
for use under the conditions prescribed, recommended, or suggested 34495
in the labeling thereof;34496

       (b) Any drug the composition of which is such that the drug, 34497
as a result of investigation to determine its safety for use under 34498
such conditions, has become so recognized, but that has not, other 34499
than in an investigation, been used to a material extent or for a 34500
material time under such conditions.34501

       (11)(10) "Contaminated with filth" applies to any food, drug, 34502
device, or cosmetic that has not been protected as far as may be 34503
necessary by all reasonable means from dust, dirt, and all foreign 34504
or injurious substances.34505

       (12)(11) "Honey" means the nectar and saccharine exudation of 34506
plants that has been gathered, modified, and stored in a honeycomb 34507
by honeybees.34508

       (13)(12) "Finished dosage form" means the form of a drug that 34509
is, or is intended to be, dispensed or administered to humans or 34510
animals and requires no further manufacturing or processing other 34511
than packaging, reconstituting, or labeling.34512

       (14)(13)(a) "Manufacture" means the planting, cultivating, 34513
harvesting, processing, making, preparing, or otherwise engaging 34514
in any part of the production of a drug by propagating, 34515
compounding, converting, or processing, either directly or 34516
indirectly by extracting from substances of natural origin, or 34517
independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination 34518
of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes the following:34519

       (i) Any packaging or repackaging of the drug or labeling or 34520
relabeling of its container, the promotion and marketing of the 34521
drug, and other activities incident to production;34522

       (ii) The preparation and promotion of commercially available 34523
products from bulk compounds for resale by pharmacies, licensed 34524
health professionals authorized to prescribe drugs, or other 34525
persons.34526

       (b) "Manufacture" does not include the preparation, 34527
compounding, packaging, or labeling of a drug by a pharmacist as 34528
an incident to either of the following:34529

       (i) Dispensing a drug in the usual course of professional 34530
practice;34531

       (ii) Providing a licensed health professional authorized to 34532
prescribe drugs with a drug for the purpose of administering to 34533
patients or for using the drug in treating patients in the 34534
professional's office.34535

       (15)(14) "Dangerous drug" has the same meaning as in section 34536
4729.01 of the Revised Code.34537

       (16)(15) "Generically equivalent drug" means a drug that 34538
contains identical amounts of the identical active ingredients, 34539
but not necessarily containing the same inactive ingredients, that 34540
meets the identical compendial or other applicable standard of 34541
identity, strength, quality, and purity, including potency, and 34542
where applicable, content uniformity, disintegration times, or 34543
dissolution rates, as the prescribed brand name drug and the 34544
manufacturer or distributor holds, if applicable, either an 34545
approved new drug application or an approved abbreviated new drug 34546
application unless other approval by law or from the federal food 34547
and drug administration is required.34548

       No drug shall be considered a generically equivalent drug for 34549
the purposes of this chapter if it has been listed by the federal 34550
food and drug administration as having proven bioequivalence 34551
problems.34552

       (17)(16) "Licensed health professional authorized to 34553
prescribe drugs" and "prescriber" have the same meanings as in 34554
section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.34555

       (18)(17) "Home" means the primary residence occupied by the 34556
residence's owner, on the condition that the residence contains 34557
only one stove or oven used for cooking, which may be a double 34558
oven, designed for common residence usage and not for commercial 34559
usage, and that the stove or oven be operated in an ordinary 34560
kitchen within the residence.34561

       (19)(18) "Potentially hazardous food" means a food that is 34562
natural or synthetic, to which any of the following apply:34563

       (a) It has a pH level greater than 4.6 when measured at 34564
seventy-five degrees fahrenheit or twenty-four degrees celsius.34565

       (b) It has a water activity value greater than 0.85.34566

       (c) It requires temperature control because it is in a form 34567
capable of supporting the rapid and progressive growth of 34568
infectious or toxigenic microorganisms, the growth and toxin 34569
production of clostridium botulinium, or in the case of raw shell 34570
eggs, the growth of salmonella enteritidis.34571

       (20)(19) "Cottage food production operation" means a person 34572
who, in the person's home, produces food items that are not 34573
potentially hazardous foods, including bakery products, jams, 34574
jellies, candy, fruit butter, and similar products specified in 34575
rules adopted pursuant to section 3715.025 of the Revised Code.34576

       (B) For the purposes of sections 3715.52 to 3715.72 of the 34577
Revised Code:34578

       (1) If an article is alleged to be misbranded because the 34579
labeling is misleading, or if an advertisement is alleged to be 34580
false because it is misleading, then in determining whether the 34581
labeling or advertisement is misleading, there shall be taken into 34582
account, among other things, not only representations made or 34583
suggested by statement, word, design, device, sound, or in any 34584
combination thereof, but also the extent to which the labeling or 34585
advertisement fails to reveal facts material in the light of such 34586
representations or material with respect to consequence which may 34587
result from the use of the article to which the labeling or 34588
advertisement relates under the conditions of use prescribed in 34589
the labeling or advertisement thereof or under such conditions of 34590
use as are customary or usual.34591

       (2) The provisions regarding the selling of food, drugs, 34592
devices, or cosmetics include the manufacture, production, 34593
processing, packing, exposure, offer, possession, and holding of 34594
any such article for sale; and the sale, dispensing, and giving of 34595
any such article, and the supplying or applying of any such 34596
articles in the conduct of any food, drug, or cosmetic 34597
establishment. The provisions do not prohibit a licensed health 34598
professional authorized to prescribe drugs from administering or 34599
personally furnishing a drug or device to a patient.34600

       (3) The representation of a drug, in its labeling or 34601
advertisement, as an antiseptic is a representation that it is a 34602
germicide, except in the case of a drug purporting to be, or 34603
represented as, an antiseptic for inhibitory use as a wet 34604
dressing, ointment, dusting powder, or other use that involves 34605
prolonged contact with the body.34606

       (4) Whenever jurisdiction is vested in the director of 34607
agriculture or the state board of pharmacy, the jurisdiction of 34608
the board shall be limited to the sale, offering for sale, giving 34609
away, delivery, or dispensing in any manner of drugs at the 34610
wholesale and retail levels or to the consumer and shall be 34611
exclusive in the case of such sale, offering for sale, giving 34612
away, delivery, or dispensing in any manner of drugs at the 34613
wholesale and retail levels or to the consumer in any place where 34614
prescriptions are dispensed or compounded.34615

       (5) To assist in effectuating the provisions of those 34616
sections, the director of agriculture or state board of pharmacy 34617
may request assistance or data from any government or private 34618
agency or individual.34619

       Sec. 3715.025. (A) A cottage food production operation shall 34620
not process acidified foods, low acid canned foods, or potentially 34621
hazardous foods.34622

       (B) The director of agriculture shall adopt rules in 34623
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying the 34624
food items a cottage food production operation may produce that 34625
are in addition to the food items identified by name in division 34626
(A)(20)(19) of section 3715.01 of the Revised Code. The director 34627
shall not adopt rules that permit a cottage food production 34628
operation to produce any food that is a potentially hazardous 34629
food.34630

       Sec. 3715.60.  Food is misbranded within the meaning of 34631
sections 3715.01, 3715.02, 3715.022, and 3715.52 to 3715.72 of the 34632
Revised Code, if:34633

       (A) Its labeling is false or misleading in any particular.34634

       (B) It is offered for sale under the name of another food.34635

       (C) Its container is so made, formed, or filled as to be 34636
misleading.34637

       (D) It is an imitation of another food, unless its label 34638
bears in type of uniform size and prominence, the word 34639
"imitation," and immediately thereafter the name of the food 34640
imitated.34641

       (E) When it is in package form, it does not bear a label 34642
containing:34643

       (1) The name and place of business of the manufacturer, 34644
packer, or distributor;34645

       (2) An accurate statement of the quantity of the contents in 34646
terms of weight, measure, or numerical count; provided, that 34647
reasonable variations shall be permitted, and exemptions as to 34648
small packages shall be established by rules adopted by the 34649
director of agriculture;34650

       (3) In the case of food subject to section 3715.023 of the 34651
Revised Code, the information specified in that section.34652

       (F) Any word, statement, or other information required by or 34653
under authority of sections 3715.01, 3715.02, and 3715.52 to 34654
3715.72 of the Revised Code, to appear on the label or labeling is 34655
not prominently placed thereon with such conspicuousness as 34656
compared with other words, statements, designs, or devices, in the 34657
labeling, and in such terms as to render it likely to be read and 34658
understood by the ordinary individual under customary conditions 34659
of purchase and use.34660

       (G) It purports to be, or is represented as, a food for which 34661
a definition and standard of identity have been prescribed by 34662
statute, or by any rule adopted under an existing statute, or by 34663
rule as provided by section 3715.02 of the Revised Code, unless:34664

       (1) It conforms to such definition and standard.34665

       (2) Its label bears the name of the food specified in the 34666
definition and standard, and, insofar as may be required by such 34667
statute or rules, the common names of optional ingredients, other 34668
than spices, flavoring, and coloring, present in such food.34669

       (H) It purports to be or is represented as:34670

       (1) A food for which a standard of quality has been 34671
prescribed by rule as provided by section 3715.02 of the Revised 34672
Code and its quality falls below the standard unless its label 34673
bears, in the manner and form that the rules specify, a statement 34674
that it falls below the standard;34675

       (2) A food for which a standard or standards of fill of 34676
container have been prescribed by rule as provided by section 34677
3715.02 of the Revised Code, and it falls below the standard of 34678
fill of container applicable thereto, unless its label bears, in 34679
the manner and form that the rules specify, a statement that it 34680
falls below the standard.34681

       (I) It is not subject to the provisions of division (G) of 34682
this section, unless it bears labeling clearly giving:34683

       (1) The common or usual name of the food, if any;34684

       (2) In case it is fabricated from two or more ingredients, 34685
the common or usual name of each ingredient; except that spices, 34686
flavorings, and colorings, other than those sold as such, may be 34687
designated as spices, flavorings, and colorings, without naming 34688
each; provided, that, to the extent that compliance with the 34689
requirements of division (I)(2) of this section is impractical or 34690
results in deception or unfair competition, exemptions shall be 34691
established by rules adopted by the director; and provided that 34692
these requirements shall not apply to any carbonated beverage of 34693
which a full and correct statement of the ingredients, to the 34694
extent prescribed by division (I)(2) of this section, has been 34695
filed under oath with the director.34696

       (J) It purports to be or is represented to be for special 34697
dietary uses, unless its label bears such information concerning 34698
its vitamin, mineral, and other dietary properties as is provided 34699
by rules proposedadopted by the director and adopted by the 34700
public health council, as necessary, in order to fully inform 34701
purchasers as to its value for such uses.34702

       (K) It bears or contains any artificial flavoring, artificial 34703
coloring, or chemical preservative, unless it bears labeling 34704
stating that fact; provided, that to the extent that compliance 34705
with the requirements of this division is impracticable, 34706
exemptions shall be established by rules proposedadopted by the 34707
director and adopted by the public health council.34708

       Sec. 3715.61.  (A) Whenever the director of agriculture finds 34709
after investigation that the distribution in this state of any 34710
class of food may, by reason of contamination with microorganisms 34711
during manufacture, processing, or packing thereof in any 34712
locality, be injurious to health, and that such injurious nature 34713
cannot be adequately determined after such articles have entered 34714
commerce, and in such case only, hethe director shall propose 34715
regulations for adoption by the public health counciladopt rules34716
providing for the issuance, to manufacturers, processor, or 34717
packers of such class of food in such locality, of permits to 34718
which shall be attached such conditions governing the manufacture, 34719
processing, or packing of such class food, for such temporary 34720
period of time, as may be necessary to protect the public health; 34721
and after the effective date of such regulations, and during such 34722
temporary period, no person shall introduce or deliver for 34723
introduction into commerce any such food manufactured, processed, 34724
or packed by any such manufacturer, processor, or packer unless 34725
such manufacturer, processor, or packer holds a permit issued by 34726
the director as provided by such regulationsrules.34727

       (B) The director is authorized to suspend immediately upon 34728
notice any permit issued under authority of this section if it is 34729
found that any of the conditions of the permit have been violated. 34730
The holder of a permit so suspended shall be privileged at any 34731
time to apply for the reinstatement of such permit, and the 34732
director shall, immediately after prompt hearing and on inspection 34733
of the establishment, reinstate such permit if it is found that 34734
adequate measures have been taken to comply with and maintain the 34735
conditions of the permit, as originally issued, or as amended.34736

       (C) The director shall have access to any factory or 34737
establishment, the operator of which holds a permit from the 34738
director for the purpose of ascertaining whether or not the 34739
conditions of the permit are being complied with, and denial of 34740
access for such inspection shall be ground for suspension of the 34741
permit until such access is freely given by the operator.34742

       Sec. 3715.62.  Any poisonous or deleterious substance added 34743
to any food, except where such substance is required in the 34744
production thereof or cannot be avoided by good manufacturing 34745
practice, shall be unsafe for purposes of the application of 34746
division (B) of section 3715.59 of the Revised Code, but when such 34747
substance is so required or cannot be so avoided, the director of 34748
agriculture shall propose regulations for adoption by the public 34749
health counciladopt rules limiting the quantity therein or 34750
thereon to such extent as the director finds necessary for the 34751
protection of public health, and any quantity exceeding the limits 34752
so fixed shall also be deemed to be unsafe for purposes of the 34753
application of division (B) of section 3715.59 of the Revised 34754
Code. While such a regulation is in effect limiting the quantity 34755
of any such substance in the case of any food, such food shall 34756
not, by reason of bearing or containing any added amount of such 34757
substance, be considered to be adulterated within the meaning of 34758
division (A) of section 3715.59 of the Revised Code. In 34759
determining the quantity of such added substance to be tolerated 34760
in or on different articles of food, the director shall take into 34761
account the extent to which the use of such substance is required 34762
or cannot be avoided in the production of each such article and 34763
the other ways in which the consumer may be affected by the same 34764
or other poisonous or deleterious substances.34765

       Sec. 3715.68.  (A) An advertisement of food, drug, device, or 34766
cosmetic is false if it is false or misleading in any particular.34767

       (B) For the purpose of sections 3715.01 and 3715.52 to 34768
3715.72 of the Revised Code, the advertisement of a drug or device 34769
representing it to have any effect in albuminuria, appendicitis, 34770
arteriosclerosis, blood poison, bone disease, Bright's disease, 34771
cancer, carbuncles, cholecystitis, diabetes, diphtheria, dropsy, 34772
erysipelas, gallstones, heart and vascular diseases, high blood 34773
pressure, mastoiditis, measles, meningitis, mumps, nephritis, 34774
otitis media, paralysis, pneumonia, poliomyelitis (infantile 34775
paralysis), prostate gland disorders, pyelitis, scarlet fever, 34776
sexual impotence, sinus infection, tuberculosis, tumors, typhoid, 34777
uremia, venereal disease, is also false, except that no 34778
advertisement not in violation of division (A) of this section is 34779
false under this division if it is disseminated only to members of 34780
the medical, dental, pharmaceutical, or veterinary profession, or 34781
appears only in the scientific periodicals of these professions; 34782
provided, that whenever the director of agriculture determines 34783
that an advance in medical science has made any type of 34784
self-medication safe as to any of the diseases named above, the 34785
director shall propose regulations for adoption by the public 34786
health counciladopt rules authorizing the advertisement of drugs 34787
having curative or therapeutic effect for such disease, subject to 34788
such conditions and restrictions as the director may deem 34789
necessary in the interests of public health; provided, that this 34790
division shall not be construed as indicating that self-medication 34791
for diseases other than those named in this section is safe or 34792
efficacious.34793

       Sec. 3715.87. (A) As used in this section and in sections 34794
3715.871, 3715.872, and 3715.873 of the Revised Code:34795

       (1) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 34796
3719.01 of the Revised Code.34797

       (2) "Health care facility" has the same meaning as in section 34798
1337.11 of the Revised Code.34799

       (3) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 34800
the Revised Code.34801

       (4) "Nonprofit clinic" means a charitable nonprofit 34802
corporation organized and operated pursuant to Chapter 1702. of 34803
the Revised Code, or any charitable organization not organized and 34804
not operated for profit, that provides health care services to 34805
indigent and uninsured persons as defined in section 2305.234 of 34806
the Revised Code. "Nonprofit clinic" does not include a hospital 34807
as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, a facility 34808
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or a facility 34809
that is operated for profit.34810

       (5) "Prescription drug" means any drug to which the following 34811
applies:34812

       (a) Under the "Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 34813
(1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, the drug is required to bear 34814
a label containing the legend, "Caution: Federal law prohibits 34815
dispensing without prescription" or "Caution: Federal law 34816
restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed 34817
veterinarian" or any similar restrictive statement, or the drug 34818
may be dispensed only upon a prescription.34819

       (b) Under Chapter 3715. or 3719. of the Revised Code, the 34820
drug may be dispensed only upon a prescription.34821

       (B) The state board of pharmacy shall establish a drug 34822
repository program to accept and dispense prescription drugs 34823
donated or given for the purpose of being dispensed to individuals 34824
who are residents of this state and meet eligibility standards 34825
established in rules adopted by the board under section 3715.873 34826
of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division (C) of this 34827
section, all of the following conditions shall apply to the 34828
program:34829

       (1) Only drugs in their original sealed and tamper-evident 34830
unit dose packaging may be accepted and dispensed;34831

       (2) The packaging must be unopened, except that drugs 34832
packaged in single unit doses may be accepted and dispensed when 34833
the outside packaging is opened if the single unit dose packaging 34834
is undisturbed;34835

       (3) Drugs donated by individuals bearing an expiration date 34836
that is less than six months from the date the drug is donated 34837
shall not be accepted or dispensed;34838

       (4) A drug shall not be accepted or dispensed if there is 34839
reason to believe that it is adulterated as described in section 34840
3715.63 of the Revised Code. 34841

       (C) Orally administered cancer drugs that are not controlled 34842
substances and that do not require refrigeration, freezing, or 34843
storage at a special temperature may be accepted and dispensed 34844
even if not in original sealed and tamper-evident unit dose 34845
packaging, subject to rules adopted by the board pursuant to 34846
section 3715.873 of the Revised Code.34847

       (D) Subject to the limitations specified in divisions (B) and 34848
(C) of this section, unused drugs dispensed for purposes of the 34849
medicaid program may be accepted and dispensed under the drug 34850
repository program.34851

       Sec. 3716.01.  As used in sections 3716.01 to 3716.07, 34852
inclusive, of the Revised Code:34853

       (A) "Department" means the department of health.34854

       (B) "Director" means the director of health.34855

       (C) "Person" includes an individual, partnership, 34856
corporation, or association.34857

       (D) "Hazardous substance" means any substance or mixture of 34858
substances which is toxic, corrosive, an irritant, strong 34859
sensitizer, flammable, or which generates pressure through 34860
decomposition, heat, or other means, if such substance or mixture 34861
of substances may cause substantial personal injury or illness 34862
during any customary or reasonably anticipated handling or use.34863

       (E) "Toxic" applies to any substance which has the inherent 34864
capacity to produce bodily injury to man through ingestion, 34865
inhalation, or absorption through any body surface.34866

       (F)(1) "Highly toxic" means any substance which falls within 34867
any of the following categories:34868

       (a) Produces death within fourteen days in half or more than 34869
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 34870
between two hundred and three hundred grams, at a single dose of 34871
fifty milligrams or less per kilogram of body weight, when orally 34872
administered;34873

       (b) Produces death within fourteen days in half or more than 34874
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 34875
between two hundred and three hundred grams, when inhaled 34876
continuously for a period of one hour or less at an atmospheric 34877
concentration of two hundred parts per million by volume or less 34878
of gas, vapor, mist, or dust provided such concentration is likely 34879
to be encountered by mana human being when the substance is used 34880
in any reasonably foreseeable manner;34881

       (c) Produces death within fourteen days in half or more than 34882
half of a group of ten or more rabbits tested in a dosage of two 34883
hundred milligrams or less per kilogram of body weight, when 34884
administered by continuous contact with the bare skin for 34885
twenty-four hours or less.34886

       (2) If the director finds that available data on human 34887
experience with any substance indicates results different from 34888
those obtained on animals in the above named dosages or 34889
concentrations, the human data shall take precedence.34890

       (G) "Corrosive" means any substance which in contact with 34891
living tissue will cause destruction of tissue by chemical action; 34892
but shall not refer to action on inanimate surfaces.34893

       (H) "Irritant" means any substance not corrosive within the 34894
meaning of division (G) of this section which on immediate, 34895
prolonged, or repeated contact with normal living tissue will 34896
induce a local inflammatory reaction.34897

       (I) "Strong sensitizer" means any substance which will cause 34898
on normal living tissue, through an allergic or photodynamic 34899
process, a hypersensitivity which becomes evident on reapplication 34900
of the same substance and which is designated as such by the 34901
director. Before designating any substance as a strong sensitizer, 34902
the director shall, after public hearing following due notice, 34903
find that the frequency of occurrence and severity of the reaction 34904
indicate a significant potential for causing hypersensitivity.34905

       (J) "Extremely flammable" applies to any substance which has 34906
a flash point at or below twenty degrees Fahrenheit as determined 34907
by the tagliabue open cut tester.34908

       (K) "Flammable" applies to any substance which has a flash 34909
point of above twenty degrees to and including eighty degrees 34910
Fahrenheit, as determined by the tagliabue open cut tester; except 34911
that the flammability of the contents of self-pressurized 34912
containers shall be determined by methods generally applicable to 34913
such containers and established by regulation of the public health 34914
councildirector.34915

       (L) "Label" means a display of written, printed, or graphic 34916
matter upon or attached to the immediate package or container of 34917
any substance. Any word, statement, or other information required 34918
by sections 3716.01 to 3716.07, inclusive, of the Revised Code, to 34919
appear on the label must also appear (1) on the outside container 34920
or wrapper, if any, unless it is easily legible through the 34921
outside container or wrapper, and (2) on all accompanying 34922
literature where there are directions for use, written or 34923
otherwise.34924

       (M) "Immediate container" does not include package liners.34925

       (N) "Misbranded package" means any container of a hazardous 34926
substance intended or suitable for household use which fails to 34927
bear a label:34928

       (1) Which states conspicuously:34929

       (a) The name and place of business of the manufacturer, 34930
packer, or distributor;34931

       (b) The common or usual name, or the chemical name or the 34932
recognized generic name (not trade name only) of the hazardous 34933
substance or of each component which contributes substantially to 34934
its hazard;34935

       (c) The signal word "DANGER" on substances which are 34936
extremely flammable, corrosive, or which:34937

       (i) Produce death within fourteen days in half or more than 34938
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 34939
between two hundred and three hundred grams, at a single dose of 34940
one gram or less per kilogram of body weight, when orally 34941
administered;34942

       (ii) Produce death within fourteen days in half or more than 34943
half of a group of ten or more laboratory white rats each weighing 34944
between two hundred and three hundred grams, when inhaled 34945
continuously for a period of one hour or less at an atmospheric 34946
concentration of two thousand parts per million by volume of gas, 34947
vapor, mist, or dust, provided such concentration is likely to be 34948
encountered by mana human being when the substances are used in 34949
any reasonably foreseeable manner;34950

       (iii) Produce death within fourteen days in half or more than 34951
half of a group of ten or more rabbits tested in a dosage of one 34952
gram or less per kilogram of body weight, when administered by 34953
continuous contact with the bare skin for twenty-four hours or 34954
less;34955

       (iv) If the director finds that available data on human 34956
experience with any substance indicates results different from 34957
those obtained on animals in the above named dosages or 34958
concentrations, hethe director may require the use of the signal 34959
word "DANGER" on such substance or permit use of the signal word 34960
"WARNING" or "CAUTION" on such substance.34961

       (d) The signal word "WARNING" or "CAUTION" on all other 34962
hazardous substances;34963

       (e) An affirmative statement of the principal hazard or 34964
hazards, such as "Flammable," "Vapor Harmful," "Causes Burns," 34965
"Absorbed Through Skin," or similar wording descriptive of the 34966
hazard;34967

       (f) Precautionary measures describing the action to be 34968
followed or avoided;34969

       (g) Instructions, when necessary, for the first-aid treatment 34970
in case of contact or exposure, if the substance is hazardous 34971
through contact or exposure;34972

       (h) The word "poison" for any hazardous substance which is 34973
defined as "highly toxic" by division (F) of this section;34974

       (i) Instructions for handling and storage of packages which 34975
require special care in handling or storage;34976

       (j) The statement "Keep out of the reach of children," or its 34977
practical equivalent.34978

       (2) On which any statements required under division (N) (1) 34979
of this section are located prominently and are in the English 34980
language in legible type in contrast by typography, layout, or 34981
color with other printed matter on the label.34982

       The public health councildirector shall, by regulations, 34983
provide for minimum information which shall appear on the labels 34984
for small packages, which labels need not include all of the 34985
information required by this section. The director may permit less 34986
than the foregoing statement of the hazard or precautionary 34987
measures for labels of hazardous substances presenting only minor 34988
hazards; and the term "misbranded package" does not apply to 34989
packages of economic poisons subject to the "Federal Insecticide, 34990
Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act," 61 Stat. 163 (1947), 7 U.S.C.A. 34991
135, nor to packages of foods, drugs, and cosmetics subject to the 34992
"Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act," nor to sections 3715.01 to 34993
3715.72, inclusive, of the Revised Code.34994

       Sec. 3716.03.  The director of health shall:34995

       (A) Propose and submit regulations for adoption by the public 34996
health council, subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13, inclusive,34997
Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,34998
for the efficient enforcement of section 3716.02 of the Revised 34999
Code;35000

       (B) Conduct examinations, inspections, and investigations for 35001
the purpose of establishing such regulations, through such 35002
officers of the department of health or the boards of health, as35003
hethe director delegates;35004

       (C) Designate officers and employees to enter at reasonable 35005
times any factory, warehouse, or establishment in which hazardous 35006
substances are held, or to enter any vehicle being used to 35007
transport or hold such hazardous substance:35008

       (1) For the purpose of determining the nature of such 35009
substances;35010

       (2) To inspect or copy all records showing the movement of 35011
any such hazardous substance, or the holding thereof during or 35012
after such movement, and the quantity, shipper, and consignee 35013
thereof; provided, evidence obtained under this subdivision shall 35014
not be used in a criminal prosecution of the person from whom 35015
obtained;35016

       (D) Inspect and sample, upon tender of reasonable price for 35017
such sample, at reasonable times and within reasonable limits and 35018
in a reasonable manner, finished hazardous substances in retail 35019
packages and labeling thereon in such factory, warehouse, 35020
establishment, or vehicle.35021

       Sec. 3717.01.  As used in this chapter:35022

       (A) "Ohio uniform food safety code" means the food safety and 35023
related standards adopted under section 3717.05 of the Revised 35024
Code.35025

       (B) "Food" means any raw, cooked, or processed edible 35026
substance used or intended for use in whole or in part for human 35027
consumption. "Food" includes ice, water or any other beverage, 35028
food ingredients, and chewing gum.35029

       (C) "Retail food establishment" means a premises or part of a 35030
premises where food is stored, processed, prepared, manufactured, 35031
or otherwise held or handled for retail sale. Except when 35032
expressly provided otherwise, "retail food establishment" includes 35033
a mobile retail food establishment, seasonal retail food 35034
establishment, and temporary retail food establishment.35035

       As used in this division:35036

       (1) "Retail" means the sale of food to a person who is the 35037
ultimate consumer.35038

       (2) "Prepared" means any action that affects a food, 35039
including receiving and maintaining it at the temperature at which 35040
it was received.35041

       (D) "Seasonal retail food establishment" means a retail food 35042
establishment, other than a mobile retail food establishment, that 35043
is operated for not more than six months in a licensing period.35044

       (E) "Temporary retail food establishment" means a retail food 35045
establishment that is operated at an event for not more than five 35046
consecutive days, except when operated for more than five 35047
consecutive days pursuant to division (E)(2) of section 3717.23 of 35048
the Revised Code.35049

       (F) "Food service operation" means a place, location, site, 35050
or separate area where food intended to be served in individual 35051
portions is prepared or served for a charge or required donation. 35052
As used in this division, "served" means a response made to an 35053
order for one or more individual portions of food in a form that 35054
is edible without washing, cooking, or additional preparation and 35055
"prepared" means any action that affects a food other than 35056
receiving or maintaining it at the temperature at which it was 35057
received.35058

       Except when expressly provided otherwise, "food service 35059
operation" includes a catering food service operation, food 35060
delivery sales operation, mobile food service operation, seasonal 35061
food service operation, temporary food service operation, and 35062
vending machine location.35063

       (G) "Catering food service operation" means a food service 35064
operation where food is prepared for serving at a function or 35065
event held at an off-premises site, for a charge determined on a 35066
per-function or per-event basis.35067

       (H) "Food delivery sales operation" means a food service 35068
operation from which individual portions of food are ordered by a 35069
customer, prepared at another food service operation or a retail 35070
food establishment, and delivered to the customer by a person 35071
other than an employee of the food service operation or retail 35072
food establishment that prepared the food.35073

       (I) "Mobile food service operation" means a food service 35074
operation that is operated from a movable vehicle, portable 35075
structure, or watercraft and that routinely changes location, 35076
except that if the operation remains at any one location for more 35077
than forty consecutive days, the operation is no longer a mobile 35078
food service operation. "Mobile food service operation" includes a 35079
food service operation that does not remain at any one location 35080
for more than forty consecutive days and serves, in a manner 35081
consistent with division (F) of this section, only frozen 35082
desserts; beverages, nuts, popcorn, candy, or similar confections; 35083
bakery products identified in section 911.01 of the Revised Code; 35084
or any combination of those items.35085

       (J) "Seasonal food service operation" means a food service 35086
operation, other than a mobile food service operation, that is 35087
operated for not more than six months in a licensing period.35088

       (K) "Temporary food service operation" means a food service 35089
operation that is operated at an event for not more than five 35090
consecutive days, except when operated for more than five 35091
consecutive days pursuant to division (E)(2) of section 3717.43 of 35092
the Revised Code.35093

       (L) "Vending machine location" means an area or room where 35094
one or more vending machines are installed and operated, except 35095
that if the machines within an area are separated by more than one 35096
hundred fifty feet, each area separated by that distance 35097
constitutes a separate vending machine location. As used in this 35098
division, "vending machine" means a self-service device that 35099
automatically dispenses on the insertion of currency, tokens, or 35100
similar means a predetermined unit serving of food, either in bulk 35101
or in package, without having to be replenished after each use.35102

       (M) "Board of health" means a board of health of a city or 35103
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 35104
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.35105

       (N) "Government entity" means this state, a political 35106
subdivision of this state, another state, or a political 35107
subdivision or other local government body of another state.35108

       (O) "Licensor" means one of the following:35109

       (1) A board of health approved under section 3717.11 of the 35110
Revised Code;35111

       (2) The director of agriculture acting pursuant to section 35112
3717.11 of the Revised Code with respect to the licensing of 35113
retail food establishments;35114

       (3) The director of health acting pursuant to section 3717.11 35115
of the Revised Code with respect to the licensing of food service 35116
operations.35117

       (P) "Licensing period" means the first day of March to the 35118
last day of February of the next succeeding year.35119

       (Q) "Mobile retail food establishment" means a retail food 35120
establishment that is operated from a movable vehicle or other 35121
portable structure, and that routinely changes location, except 35122
that if the establishment operates from any one location for more 35123
than forty consecutive days, the establishment is no longer a 35124
mobile retail food establishment.35125

       (R) "Unprocessed," when used with respect to fruits and 35126
vegetables, means that the fruits and vegetables are not processed 35127
beyond merely rough trimming and rinsing.35128

       (S) "Cottage food production operation" has the same meaning 35129
as in division (A)(20)(19) of section 3715.01 of the Revised Code.35130

       Sec. 3717.04.  The director of agriculture, the public health 35131
council, and the director of health have the exclusive power in 35132
this state to adopt rules regarding retail food establishments and 35133
food service operations. The rules adopted under this chapter 35134
shall be applied uniformly throughout this state.35135

       All rules adopted under this chapter shall be adopted in 35136
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Subject to the 35137
approval of the joint committee on agency rule review, portions of 35138
the rules may be adopted by referencing all or any part of any 35139
federal regulations pertaining to food safety.35140

       Sec. 3717.05.  (A) The director of agriculture and the public35141
director of health council shall adopt rules establishing 35142
standards for safe food handling and sanitation in retail food 35143
establishments and food service operations. The rules shall be 35144
compiled as the Ohio uniform food safety code, which shall be used 35145
by the licensors of retail food establishments and food service 35146
operations in ensuring the safe handling of food in this state. 35147
All scientific provisions of the Ohio uniform food safety code 35148
that are relevant to both retail food establishments and food 35149
service operations shall be adopted by the director of agriculture 35150
and the publicdirector of health council with each other's 35151
concurrence.35152

       The Ohio uniform food safety code shall include the 35153
following:35154

       (1) Criteria for sanitation in retail food establishments and 35155
food service operations;35156

       (2) Criteria for equipment in retail food establishments and 35157
food service operations;35158

       (3) Criteria for reviewing the facility layout and equipment 35159
specifications of retail food establishments and food service 35160
operations;35161

       (4) A definition of "potentially hazardous" as it pertains to 35162
food in retail food establishments and to food in food service 35163
operations;35164

       (5) Criteria to be used in evaluating the primary business of 35165
a person or government entity for purposes of determining whether 35166
the person or entity should be licensed as a retail food 35167
establishment or food service operation.35168

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 35169
if a model food code is established by the United States food and 35170
drug administration, the Ohio uniform food safety code shall be 35171
based on the most current version of the food and drug 35172
administration's model food code. If the food and drug 35173
administration adopts, modifies, or rescinds a provision in the 35174
model food code, not later than twelve months after the 35175
administration's action, the director of agriculture and public35176
director of health council shall adopt, amend, or rescind 35177
provisions in the Ohio uniform food safety code to ensure that it 35178
continues to conform with the model food code.35179

       (2) The Ohio uniform food safety code may contain or omit 35180
provisions that do not correspond to the food and drug 35181
administration's model food code if the director of agriculture or 35182
the publicdirector of health council, with each other's 35183
concurrence, determines either of the following:35184

       (a) That rules can be adopted under this chapter that provide 35185
protection at least as effective as that which would be provided 35186
by basing the rules on the model food code;35187

       (b) That local conditions warrant the adoption of standards 35188
that are different from the model food code.35189

       Sec. 3717.07.  (A) For purposes of establishing a licensing 35190
fee under sections 3717.25 and 3717.45 of the Revised Code, the 35191
director of agriculture and the publicdirector of health council35192
shall adopt rules establishing uniform methodologies for use in 35193
calculating the costs of licensing retail food establishments in 35194
the categories specified by the director of agriculture and the 35195
costs of licensing food service operations in the categories 35196
specified by the councildirector of health. In adopting the 35197
rules, the director of agriculture and the publicdirector of35198
health council shall consider any recommendations received from 35199
advisory boards or other entities representing the interests of 35200
retail food establishments and food service operations.35201

       (B) The rules shall include provisions that do all of the 35202
following:35203

       (1) Provide for calculations to be made according to fiscal 35204
years rather than licensing periods;35205

       (2) Limit the direct costs that may be attributed to the use 35206
of sanitarians by establishing appropriate statewide averages that 35207
may not be exceeded;35208

       (3) Limit the indirect costs that may be included in the 35209
calculation of fees to an amount that does not exceed thirty per 35210
cent of the cost of the licensing program;35211

       (4) Provide for a proportionate reduction in the fees to be 35212
charged if a licensor included anticipated costs in the 35213
immediately preceding calculation of licensing fees and the total 35214
amount of the anticipated costs was not incurred;35215

       (5) Provide for a proportionate reduction in the fees to be 35216
charged if it is discovered through an audit by the auditor of 35217
state or through any other means that the licensor has charged or 35218
is charging a licensing fee that exceeds the amount that should 35219
have been charged;35220

       (6) Provide for a twenty per cent reduction in the fees to be 35221
charged when the reduction is imposed as a penalty under division 35222
(C) of section 3717.071 of the Revised Code;35223

       (7) With regard to any fees charged for licensing vending 35224
machine locations, the rules shall prohibit a licensor from 35225
increasing fees by a percentage of increase over the previous 35226
year's fee that exceeds the percentage of increase in the consumer 35227
price index for all urban consumers (United States city average, 35228
all items), prepared by the United States department of labor, 35229
bureau of labor statistics, for the immediately preceding calendar 35230
year.35231

       Sec. 3717.45.  (A) A licensor may charge fees for issuing and 35232
renewing food service operation licenses. Any licensing fee 35233
charged shall be used solely for the administration and 35234
enforcement of the provisions of this chapter and the rules 35235
adopted under it applicable to food service operations.35236

       Any licensing fee charged under this section shall be based 35237
on the licensor's costs of regulating food service operations, as 35238
determined according to the uniform methodologies established 35239
under section 3717.07 of the Revised Code. If the licensor is a 35240
board of health, a fee may be disapproved by the district advisory 35241
council in the case of a general health district or the 35242
legislative authority of the city in the case of a city health 35243
district. A disapproved fee shall not be charged by the board of 35244
health.35245

        Except when a licensing fee is established as an emergency 35246
measure, the licensor shall hold a public hearing regarding the 35247
proposed fee. At least twenty days prior to holding a public 35248
hearing, the licensor shall give written notice of the hearing to 35249
each person or government entity holding a food service operation 35250
license that may be affected by the proposed fee. The notice shall 35251
be mailed to the last known address of the licensee and shall 35252
specify the date, time, and place of the hearing and the amount of 35253
the proposed fee. On request, the licensor shall provide the 35254
completed uniform methodology used in the calculation of the 35255
licensor's costs and the proposed fee.35256

       (B) In addition to licensing fees, a licensor may charge fees 35257
for the following:35258

       (1) Review of facility layout and equipment specifications 35259
pertaining to food service operations, other than mobile and 35260
temporary food service operations, or similar reviews conducted 35261
for vending machine locations;35262

       (2) Any necessary collection and bacteriological examination 35263
of samples from food service operations, or similar services 35264
specified in rules adopted under this chapter by the public35265
director of health council;35266

       (3) Attendance at a course of study offered by the licensor 35267
in food protection as it pertains to food service operations, if 35268
the course is approved under section 3717.09 of the Revised Code.35269

       (C)(1) The public health councildirector may determine by 35270
rule an amount to be collected from applicants for food service 35271
operation licenses for use by the director of health in 35272
administering and enforcing the provisions of this chapter and the 35273
rules adopted under it applicable to food service operations. 35274
Licensors shall collect the amount prior to issuing an applicant's 35275
new or renewed license. If a licensing fee is charged under this 35276
section, the licensor shall collect the amount at the same time 35277
the fee is collected. Licensors are not required to provide notice 35278
or hold public hearings regarding amounts to be collected.35279

       (2) A licensor shall certify the amount collected under 35280
division (C)(1) of this section and transmit the amount to the 35281
treasurer of state according to the following schedule:35282

       (a) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 35283
first day of January but not later than the thirty-first day of 35284
March, transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day of 35285
May;35286

       (b) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 35287
first day of April but not later than the thirtieth day of June, 35288
transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day of August;35289

       (c) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 35290
first day of July but not later than the thirtieth day of 35291
September, transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day 35292
of November;35293

       (d) For amounts received by the licensor on or after the 35294
first day of October but not later than the thirty-first day of 35295
December, transmit the amounts not later than the fifteenth day of 35296
February of the following year.35297

       (3) All amounts received under division (C)(2) of this 35298
section shall be deposited into the general operations fund 35299
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The director shall 35300
use the amounts solely for the administration and enforcement of 35301
the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted under it 35302
applicable to food service operations.35303

       (4) The director may submit recommendations to the public 35304
health council regarding the amounts collected under division 35305
(C)(1) of this section. When making recommendations, the director 35306
shall submit a report stating the current and projected expenses 35307
of administering and enforcing the provisions of this chapter and 35308
the rules adopted under it applicable to food service operations 35309
and the total of all amounts that have been deposited in the 35310
general operations fund pursuant to division (C)(3) of this 35311
section. The director may include in the report any 35312
recommendations for modifying the department's administration and 35313
enforcement of the provisions of this chapter and the rules 35314
adopted under it applicable to food service operations.35315


       Sec. 3717.51.  Pursuant to section 3717.04 of the Revised 35317
Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules 35318
regarding food service operations, as follows:35319

       (A) Licensing categories for food service operations and 35320
licensing requirements for each category;35321

       (B) Standards and procedures, including a schedule of 35322
frequency, for conducting inspections of food service operations;35323

       (C) Standards and procedures for conducting investigations of 35324
complaints pertaining to food service operations;35325

       (D) Procedures to be used by the director of health in 35326
approving courses of study for persons seeking certification in 35327
food protection, standards that must be met to receive and 35328
maintain the director's approval, and procedures for withdrawing 35329
the director's approval of a course if the standards for approval 35330
are no longer being met;35331

       (E) Standards for the provision of assistance to choking 35332
victims;35333

       (F) Any other matter the councildirector considers relevant 35334
to the administration and enforcement of the provisions of this 35335
chapter applicable to food service operations.35336

       Sec. 3718.02. (A) The publicdirector of health council, in 35337
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt, and 35338
subsequently may amend and rescind, rules of general application 35339
throughout the state to administer this chapter. Rules adopted 35340
under division (A) of this section shall do at least all of the 35341
following:35342

       (1) Require that the appropriate board of health approve or 35343
disapprove the installation, operation, and alteration of a sewage 35344
treatment system if it is not connected to a sanitary sewerage 35345
system;35346

        (2) Require a board of health, or other person as established 35347
by rule, to conduct a site evaluation for any proposed 35348
installation of a sewage treatment system;35349

        (3) Prescribe standards for the siting, design, installation, 35350
operation, monitoring, maintenance, and abandonment of sewage 35351
treatment systems that may be used in this state and for the 35352
progressive or incremental alteration or repair of an existing 35353
sewage treatment system or the progressive or incremental 35354
installation of a new system to replace an existing sewage 35355
treatment system. The rules shall be adopted so as to establish a 35356
preference for the repair of an existing sewage treatment system, 35357
when technically and economically feasible, rather than its 35358
replacement with a new system. The standards shall include at a 35359
minimum all of the following:35360

        (a) Soil absorption specifications and vertical separation 35361
distances.35362

       (i) Soil absorption specifications established in rules shall 35363
include standards regarding the sizing of sewage treatment systems 35364
in use in the state.35365

       (ii) In establishing soil absorption specifications and 35366
vertical separation distances, the rules shall identify those soil 35367
conditions that present a low or moderate risk of inadequate 35368
treatment or dispersal of sewage from sewage treatment systems. 35369
For low and moderate risk conditions, the required vertical 35370
separation distance shall not exceed eighteen inches except as 35371
authorized pursuant to rules adopted under divisions 35372
(A)(3)(a)(iii) and (iv) of this section.35373

       In addition, the rules shall identify those soil conditions 35374
that present a high risk of inadequate treatment or dispersal of 35375
sewage. For such high risk conditions, the vertical separation 35376
distance shall be set at a depth from twenty-four to thirty-six 35377
inches and shall not be lowered unless a reduction of vertical 35378
separation is granted in accordance with rules adopted under 35379
division (A)(3)(a)(iii) of this section.35380

       (iii) The rules shall establish options to be utilized by a 35381
board of health when approving the reductions of or compliance 35382
with vertical separation distances that are established in rules 35383
adopted under division (A)(3)(a)(ii) of this section. The options 35384
for a board of health in providing such approval shall include, 35385
but not be limited to: the use where deemed appropriate for a 35386
particular site of subsurface interceptor drains, perimeter 35387
drains, or engineered drainage; pretreatment of sewage; or soil 35388
elevation.35389

       (iv) The rules shall provide that a board of health may 35390
petition the director to increase the vertical separation 35391
distances required for sewage treatment systems in the applicable 35392
health district or a portion of the district when conditions 35393
present a high risk of inadequate treatment or dispersal of 35394
sewage. The rules also shall provide that the director may approve 35395
such a request upon a demonstration by the board of health that 35396
unusual or unique local conditions relating to terrain, bedrock, 35397
water table, soil fragments, or soil textures require the 35398
establishment of greater vertical separation distances within the 35399
jurisdiction of the board of health or a portion thereof. If, 35400
under the rules, the director of health approves a greater 35401
vertical separation distance, a board of health still may approve 35402
a reduction of that vertical separation distance for an individual 35403
sewage treatment system pursuant to rules adopted under division 35404
(A)(3)(a)(iii) of this section. Further, if, under the rules, the 35405
director approves a greater vertical separation distance, a person 35406
who is denied permission by a board of health to install or 35407
replace a sewage treatment system as a result of the director's 35408
approval may request a hearing in accordance with section 3718.11 35409
of the Revised Code.35410

        (b) Specifications for the quality of treated sewage effluent 35411
from household sewage treatment systems that is applied to soil on 35412
the property where a household sewage treatment system is located. 35413
The specifications established in the rules for the quality of 35414
effluent from discharging systems shall comply with discharge 35415
requirements imposed by the national pollutant discharge 35416
elimination system permit program established under section 35417
6111.03 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.35418

       (c) Requirements for the reasonable maintenance of a system 35419
according to maintenance requirements approved by the director of 35420
health as recommended by the sewage treatment system technical 35421
advisory committee or according to accepted standards and 35422
practices established in rules, as applicable. The requirements 35423
may include standards for service contracts or other arrangements 35424
that assure regular maintenance and upkeep of the system. In 35425
determining the reasonableness of a maintenance requirement, the 35426
director shall consider a manufacturer's maintenance requirements 35427
as well as all other maintenance alternatives.35428

       (4) Prescribe procedures for notification to boards of health 35429
of the approval of a sewage treatment system or components of a 35430
system by the director of health under section 3718.04 of the 35431
Revised Code;35432

       (5) Prescribe criteria and procedures under which boards of 35433
health shall issue installation permits, operation permits, and 35434
alteration permits for sewage treatment systems. The rules shall 35435
require as a condition of an installation permit that the 35436
installer of a system must warrant that the system was installed 35437
in accordance with all applicable rules and design requirements. 35438
In addition, the rules shall require a board of health, not later 35439
than sixty days after the issuance of an installation, operation, 35440
or alteration permit, to notify the director that the permit was 35441
issued. The rules shall require the notification to be in a format 35442
prescribed by the director and to include information related to 35443
the issuance of the permit. With the assistance of the department 35444
of health, a board of health, to the extent practicable, shall 35445
computerize the process of the issuance of permits for sewage 35446
treatment systems.35447

       (6) Require a board of health to inspect a sewage treatment 35448
system not later than twelve months after its installation to 35449
ensure that the system is operating properly. The rules shall 35450
require a board of health, not later than sixty days after the 35451
inspection, to certify to the director on a form provided by the 35452
director that the inspection was performed.35453

        (7) Require each board of health to develop a program for the 35454
administration of maintenance requirements established in rules 35455
adopted under division (A)(3)(c) of this section. The rules shall 35456
include requirements and procedures under which a person may 35457
demonstrate the required maintenance of a system in lieu of having 35458
an inspection conducted when an inspection otherwise is required. 35459
The rules shall require a board of health to provide written 35460
notice to a person that is demonstrating maintenance of a system 35461
in lieu of an inspection that if proof of the required maintenance 35462
of the system is not provided as required by rules, the system is 35463
subject to inspection by the board and the reasonable cost of the 35464
inspection must be paid by the person. The rules shall authorize a 35465
board of health to inspect any sewage treatment system if there is 35466
a good-faith complaint regarding the system, there is probable 35467
cause for the inspection, or proof of the required maintenance of 35468
the system has not been provided as required by rules. In 35469
addition, the rules shall authorize a board of health to inspect a 35470
sewage treatment system without prior notice in any instance in 35471
which the board has probable cause to believe that the system is 35472
endangering or threatening to endanger public health. The rules 35473
shall require that the reasonable costs for sewage effluent 35474
testing or evaluation be paid by the owner of a sewage treatment 35475
system that is being investigated. Further, the rules shall 35476
establish a methodology for determining the reasonable costs of an 35477
inspection in accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code. 35478
The rules shall allow, but shall not require, a board of health to 35479
continue an inspection program that was established by the board 35480
prior to the effective date of the rules, provided that the 35481
program authorizes a person to demonstrate the required 35482
maintenance of a system in lieu of an inspection.35483

       (8) Require a board of health to register installers, service 35484
providers, and septage haulers that perform work within the health 35485
district; prescribe criteria and procedures for the registration; 35486
and prescribe criteria for a demonstration of competency as a part 35487
of the registration. The rules shall establish uniform statewide 35488
bonding requirements or other financial security requirements for 35489
installers, service providers, and septage haulers as a condition 35490
of registration within any health district. The rules shall 35491
establish a methodology by which the required amount of a bond or 35492
other security may be calculated for each installer, service 35493
provider, and septage hauler. The methodology, at a minimum, shall 35494
consider the number of systems installed or serviced and the type 35495
of system installed or serviced by an installer, service provider, 35496
or septage hauler on an annual basis. The rules shall provide that 35497
no board of health shall require an additional or different bond 35498
or security requirement as a condition of registration beyond the 35499
bonding and security requirements established in the rules adopted 35500
under division (A)(8) of this section.35501

       The rules shall establish a cost methodology for determining 35502
the fee for the registration of an installer, service provider, or 35503
septage hauler in any health district.35504

        (9) Prescribe requirements for the collection, 35505
transportation, disposal, and land application of domestic septage 35506
in this state from a sewage treatment system;35507

        (10) Require boards of health to maintain records that are 35508
determined necessary to ascertain compliance with this chapter and 35509
the rules adopted under it;35510

       (11) Require the manufacturer of a sewage treatment system 35511
that is authorized for use in this state in rules adopted under 35512
this section or that is approved for use in this state under 35513
section 3718.04 of the Revised Code to provide instructions for 35514
the operation and maintenance of the system. The rules shall 35515
provide that a board of health may require a copy of a 35516
manufacturer's instructions for the operation and maintenance of a 35517
system to be filed with the board prior to the installation and 35518
use of the system in the health district in which the board has 35519
jurisdiction. In addition, the rules shall require a board of 35520
health and a manufacturer to provide a copy of the operation and 35521
maintenance instructions, if available, when a board of health or 35522
a manufacturer receives a written request for instructions.35523

       (12) Prescribe criteria for the provision of written evidence 35524
of compliance with rules pertaining to sewage treatment for 35525
purposes of sections 711.05 and 711.10 of the Revised Code;35526

       (13) Pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section, 35527
prescribe standards for the siting, design, installation, 35528
operation, monitoring, maintenance, and abandonment of small flow 35529
on-site sewage treatment systems that may be used in this state;35530

       (14) Prescribe minimum criteria and procedures under which 35531
boards of health may establish household sewage treatment district 35532
management programs for the purpose of providing a responsive 35533
approach toward preventing or solving sewage treatment problems 35534
resulting from household sewage treatment systems within the 35535
districts established under the program. For purposes of division 35536
(A)(14) of this section, a board of health may enter into a 35537
contract with any entity to administer a household sewage 35538
treatment district management program.35539

       (15) Prescribe standards for the use of subsurface 35540
interceptor drains, perimeter drains, and engineered drainage to 35541
remove or divert any subsurface water from an area to be used for 35542
soil absorption of sewage in the soil of a sewage treatment 35543
system;35544

       (16) Prescribe standards for the inspection of septage 35545
hauling truck tanks by boards of health, including, but not 35546
limited to, tank seal safety specifications;35547

       (17) Establish standards and testing methods to ensure that 35548
all septic tanks, other disposal component tanks, dosing tanks, 35549
pump vaults, household sewage treatment disposal system holding 35550
tanks and privy vaults, or other applicable sewage disposal system 35551
components manufactured after the effective date of this section35552
September 17, 2010, and used in this state are watertight and 35553
structurally sound;35554

       (18) Require a board of health to give notice and an 35555
opportunity for a hearing, pursuant to section 3718.11 of the 35556
Revised Code, to an affected property owner regarding any of the 35557
following:35558

       (a) The denial of an installation, operation, or alteration 35559
permit for a sewage treatment system;35560

       (b) The imposition of a condition on the installation of a 35561
sewage treatment system;35562

       (c) The required replacement of a sewage treatment system;35563

       (d) Any other final order or decision of a board of health 35564
that is made under this chapter concerning which a property owner 35565
is claiming to be aggrieved or adversely affected.35566

       The rules also shall establish procedures for giving such 35567
notice and for conducting the hearing required in rules adopted 35568
under division (A)(18) of this section.35569

       (19) Prescribe standards for the regulation of gray water 35570
recycling systems;35571

       (20) Prohibit a sewage treatment system from causing a public 35572
health nuisance;35573

       (21) Define economic impact for purposes of division (B) of 35574
this section and section 3718.022 of the Revised Code.35575

        The councildirector may adopt other rules under division (A) 35576
of this section that itthe director determines are necessary to 35577
implement this chapter and to protect the public health and 35578
welfare.35579

        At least sixty days prior to adopting a rule under division 35580
(A) of this section, the councildirector shall provide boards of 35581
health and any other interested parties an opportunity to comment 35582
on the rule.35583

        (B)(1) In accordance with section 3709.20 or 3709.21 of the 35584
Revised Code, as applicable, and subject to review by and approval 35585
of the director under division (C) of section 3718.05 of the 35586
Revised Code, a board of health may adopt rules necessary for the 35587
public health providing for more stringent standards than those 35588
established in rules of the public health council adopted by the 35589
director under division (A) of this section. In proposing or 35590
adopting the rules, a board of health shall consider and document 35591
the economic impact of the rules on property owners within the 35592
applicable health district.35593

       (2) A board that intends to adopt rules shall notify the 35594
department of health of the proposed rules and submit a copy of 35595
the proposed rules and the documentation of the economic impact of 35596
the rules at least ninety days prior to the proposed date of 35597
adoption. The director shall approve or disapprove any such 35598
proposed rule within ninety days after receiving a copy of the 35599
proposed rule from the board of health. 35600

       (3) In reviewing a proposed rule, the director shall approve 35601
the rule if all of the following apply:35602

       (a) The proposed rule is not in conflict with this chapter or 35603
rules adopted under it.35604

       (b) The proposed rule is authorized by division (B) of this 35605
section.35606

       (c) The proposed rule is no less stringent than rules adopted 35607
by the public health councildirector.35608

       (d) Unless otherwise authorized by this chapter or rules 35609
adopted under it, the proposed rule does not require design 35610
changes to a sewage treatment system, or component thereof, that 35611
differ from a design authorized in rules adopted under division 35612
(A) of this section, including rules adopted under division (A)(1) 35613
or (A)(3)(a)(iii) or (iv) of this section, or approved by the 35614
director under section 3718.04 of the Revised Code.35615

       (e) The proposed rule does not require operation or 35616
maintenance procedures for a sewage treatment system that conflict 35617
with operation or maintenance procedures authorized in rules 35618
adopted under division (A) of this section, including rules 35619
adopted under division (A)(1) or (A)(3)(a)(iii) or (iv) of this 35620
section, or approved by the director under section 3718.04 of the 35621
Revised Code.35622

        (4) If a board of health fails to submit a proposed rule to 35623
the director or fails to demonstrate that the board has considered 35624
the economic impact of the proposed rule, the rule shall have no 35625
force or effect and is not enforceable.35626

       Sec. 3718.021. (A) A board of health may regulate the siting, 35627
design, installation, operation, monitoring, maintenance, and 35628
abandonment of small flow on-site sewage treatment systems in 35629
accordance with rules adopted by the publicdirector of health 35630
council under division (A)(13) of section 3718.02 of the Revised 35631
Code. If a board of health chooses to regulate small flow on-site 35632
sewage treatment systems, the board first shall send written 35633
notification to the director of health and the director of 35634
environmental protection.35635

       (B) If a board of health chooses to regulate small flow 35636
on-site sewage treatment systems under division (A) of this 35637
section and later determines that it no longer wants to regulate 35638
those systems, the board shall notify the director of health and 35639
the director of environmental protection. Upon the receipt of the 35640
notification by the director of environmental protection, the 35641
board of health shall cease regulating small flow on-site sewage 35642
treatment systems, and the environmental protection agency shall 35643
regulate those systems.35644

       (C) If after a survey conducted under section 3718.07 of the 35645
Revised Code the director of health finds that a board of health 35646
that has chosen to regulate small flow on-site sewage treatment 35647
systems is not complying with the rules adopted under division 35648
(A)(13) of section 3718.02 of the Revised Code, the director shall 35649
notify the director of environmental protection and the board of 35650
health. Upon receipt of the notification, the board shall cease 35651
regulating small flow on-site sewage treatment systems, and the 35652
environmental protection agency shall regulate those systems.35653

       Sec. 3718.022. Notwithstanding any provision in this chapter 35654
to the contrary, in adopting rules under division (A) of section 35655
3718.02 of the Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council35656
shall consider the economic impact of the rules on property 35657
owners, the state of available technology, and the nature and 35658
economics of the available alterativesalternatives.35659

       Sec. 3718.05. The director of health shall do all of the 35660
following:35661

        (A) Administer and enforce this chapter and the rules of the 35662
public health council adopted under it;35663

        (B) Examine records of boards of health, in accordance with 35664
rules adopted by the councildirector, that are determined 35665
necessary to ascertain compliance with this chapter and rules 35666
adopted under it;35667

        (C) Review and approve or disapprove rules proposed by boards 35668
of health under division (B) of section 3718.02 of the Revised 35669
Code. The director shall not disapprove a proposed rule unless the 35670
director determines that the proposed rule conflicts with this 35671
chapter or rules adopted under division (A) of section 3718.02 of 35672
the Revised Code by the public health council or fails to promote 35673
public health or environmental protection. If the director 35674
disapproves a proposed rule, the director shall provide a written 35675
explanation of the director's disapproval to the board of health 35676
that proposed the rule.35677

        (D) Survey boards of health as required by section 3718.07 of 35678
the Revised Code;35679

        (E) Develop with the sewage treatment system technical 35680
advisory committee standards, guidelines, and protocols for use by 35681
the director in approving or disapproving a sewage treatment 35682
system under section 3718.04 of the Revised Code and an 35683
application form for use by applicants for that approval, 35684
including identification of the information that must be included 35685
with the form;35686

       (F) Provide instructions on the operation and maintenance of 35687
a sewage treatment system. The director shall provide the 35688
operation and maintenance instructions on the department of 35689
health's web site. In addition, the director shall provide a copy 35690
of the operation and maintenance instructions when the director 35691
receives a written request for the instructions.35692

       (G) Develop educational programs, in conjunction with boards 35693
of health, to educate owners of sewage treatment systems regarding 35694
the proper operation and maintenance of those systems.35695

       Sec. 3718.06. (A)(1) A board of health shall establish fees 35696
in accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code for the 35697
purpose of carrying out its duties under this chapter and rules 35698
adopted under it, including fees for installation permits, 35699
operation permits, and alteration permits issued by the board. All 35700
fees so established and collected by the board shall be deposited 35701
in a special fund of the district to be used exclusively by the 35702
board in carrying out those duties.35703

       (2)(B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 35704
the publicdirector of health council may establish by rule a fee 35705
to be collected from applicants for installation permits and 35706
alteration permits issued under rules adopted under this chapter. 35707
The director of health shall use not more than seventy-five per 35708
cent of the proceeds from that fee for administering and enforcing 35709
this chapter and the rules adopted under it by the council35710
director. The director shall use not less than twenty-five per 35711
cent of the proceeds from that fee to establish a program in 35712
cooperation with boards of health to fund installation and 35713
evaluation of sewage treatment system new technology pilot 35714
projects through grants or other agreements. In the selection of 35715
pilot projects, the director shall consult with the sewage 35716
treatment system technical advisory committee. A board of health 35717
shall collect and transmit the fee to the director pursuant to 35718
section 3709.092 of the Revised Code. 35719

        (B) The director may submit recommendations to the public 35720
health council regarding the amount of the fee collected under 35721
division (A)(2) of this section for installation and alteration 35722
permits. When making the recommendations, the director shall 35723
submit a report stating the current and projected expenses of 35724
administering and enforcing this chapter and the rules adopted 35725
under it and of the sewage treatment system new technology pilot 35726
projects program established under this section and the total of 35727
all money that has been deposited to the credit of the general 35728
operations fund under division (A)(2) of this section. The 35729
director may include in the report any recommendations for 35730
modifying the requirements established under this chapter and the 35731
rules adopted under it by the council.35732


       Sec. 3718.07. The director of health shall survey each city 35734
and general health district at least once every three years to 35735
determine whether there is substantial compliance with the 35736
requirements of this chapter pertaining to health districts and 35737
the applicable rules adopted by the public health councildirector35738
under this chapter. Upon determining that there is substantial 35739
compliance, the director shall place the district on an approved 35740
list. The director may resurvey an approved district if it is 35741
determined by the director to be necessary and may remove from the 35742
list a district that is found not to be substantially complying 35743
with the requirements of this chapter pertaining to health 35744
districts and the applicable rules.35745

        If the director determines that a district is not eligible to 35746
be placed on the approved list or to continue on the list after a 35747
resurvey, the director shall certify that determination to the 35748
board of health, and the director shall carry out the duties of 35749
the unapproved health district under this chapter and the 35750
applicable rules adopted under it within the district or shall 35751
contract with an approved health district to conduct those duties 35752
until the unapproved district is placed on or returned to the 35753
approved list. The director or the contracting district shall have 35754
within the unapproved district the authority to exercise powers 35755
and perform duties granted to or imposed on the board under this 35756
chapter and the applicable rules adopted under it.35757

        Until the unapproved district is placed on or returned to the 35758
approved list, the director or the contracting district shall 35759
collect all fees payable to the board of health under this chapter 35760
and all such fees previously paid to the unapproved district that 35761
have not been expended or encumbered. The director shall deposit 35762
those fees in the state treasury to the credit of a special fund, 35763
which is hereby created, to be used by the director for the 35764
purpose of carrying out the duties of the unapproved health 35765
district under this chapter and the applicable rules adopted under 35766
it. A contracting district shall deposit those fees to the credit 35767
of its fund created under section 3718.06 of the Revised Code to 35768
be used by the district for the purpose of carrying out the duties 35769
of the unapproved district under this chapter and the applicable 35770
rules adopted under it. The director or contracting district shall 35771
repay to the unapproved district any balance remaining in the 35772
applicable fund from all sources when the unapproved district is 35773
placed on or returned to the approved list by the director.35774

       If a health district is removed from the approved list under 35775
this section and the board of health of the district is regulating 35776
small flow on-site sewage treatment systems in the district under 35777
section 3718.021 of the Revised Code, the director of 35778
environmental protection shall regulate those systems in that 35779
district in accordance with division (C) of that section.35780

       Sec. 3718.09. (A) A board of health may issue, modify, 35781
suspend, or revoke enforcement orders to a registration or permit 35782
holder or other person directing the holder or person to abate a 35783
violation of this chapter, any rule adopted or order issued under 35784
it, or a condition of a registration or permit issued under it 35785
within a specified, reasonable time. If an order issued under this 35786
division is neglected or disregarded, the applicable board of 35787
health may proceed in accordance with section 3707.02 of the 35788
Revised Code.35789

        (B) The health commissioner or the commissioner's designated 35790
representative, without prior notice or hearing and in accordance 35791
with the rules ofadopted by the publicdirector of health 35792
council, may issue an emergency order requiring any action 35793
necessary to meet a public health emergency or to prevent or abate 35794
an imminent and substantial threat to surface water or ground 35795
water regarding domestic septage management or regarding a sewage 35796
treatment system that is being operated in a manner that does not 35797
comply with this chapter or rules adopted under it. A person to 35798
whom such an emergency order is issued immediately shall comply 35799
with the order. A person so ordered may apply to the issuer of the 35800
order for a hearing, which shall be held as soon as possible, but 35801
not later than twenty days after the issuer's receipt of the 35802
application for a hearing.35803

       Sec. 3721.01.  (A) As used in sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 35804
3721.99 of the Revised Code:35805

       (1)(a) "Home" means an institution, residence, or facility 35806
that provides, for a period of more than twenty-four hours, 35807
whether for a consideration or not, accommodations to three or 35808
more unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 35809
others, including a nursing home, residential care facility, home 35810
for the aging, and a veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 35811
of the Revised Code.35812

       (b) "Home" also means both of the following:35813

       (i) Any facility that a person, as defined in section 3702.51 35814
of the Revised Code, proposes for certification as a skilled 35815
nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of 35816
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 35817
as amended, and for which a certificate of need, other than a 35818
certificate to recategorize hospital beds as described in section 35819
3702.5223702.521 of the Revised Code or division (R)(7)(d) of the 35820
version of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code in effect 35821
immediately prior to April 20, 1995, has been granted to the 35822
person under sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code after 35823
August 5, 1989;35824

       (ii) A county home or district home that is or has been 35825
licensed as a residential care facility.35826

       (c) "Home" does not mean any of the following:35827

       (i) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this section, 35828
a public hospital or hospital as defined in section 3701.01 or 35829
5122.01 of the Revised Code;35830

       (ii) A residential facility for mentally ill persons as 35831
defined underin section 5119.22 of the Revised Code;35832

       (iii) A residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of 35833
the Revised Code;35834

       (iv) An adult care facility as defined in section 5119.70 of 35835
the Revised Code;35836

       (v) An alcohol or drug addiction program as defined in 35837
section 3793.01 of the Revised Code;35838

       (vi)(v) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment 35839
under section 3793.11 of the Revised Code;35840

       (vii)(vi) A facility providing services under contract with 35841
the department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 35842
of the Revised Code unless section 5123.192 of the Revised Code 35843
makes the facility subject to the requirements of this chapter;35844

       (viii)(vii) A facility operated by a hospice care program 35845
licensed under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used 35846
exclusively for care of hospice patients;35847

       (ix)(viii) A facility, infirmary, or other entity that is 35848
operated by a religious order, provides care exclusively to 35849
members of religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by 35850
virtue of their vows within the orders as if related, and does not 35851
participate in the medicare program established under Title XVIII 35852
of the "Social Security Act" or the medical assistance program 35853
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX 35854
of the "Social Security Act," if on January 1, 1994, the facility, 35855
infirmary, or entity was providing care exclusively to members of 35856
the religious order;35857

       (x)(ix) A county home or district home that has never been 35858
licensed as a residential care facility.35859

       (2) "Unrelated individual" means one who is not related to 35860
the owner or operator of a home or to the spouse of the owner or 35861
operator as a parent, grandparent, child, grandchild, brother, 35862
sister, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, or as the child of an aunt or 35863
uncle.35864

       (3) "Mental impairment" does not mean mental illness as 35865
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code or mental 35866
retardation as defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.35867

       (4) "Skilled nursing care" means procedures that require 35868
technical skills and knowledge beyond those the untrained person 35869
possesses and that are commonly employed in providing for the 35870
physical, mental, and emotional needs of the ill or otherwise 35871
incapacitated. "Skilled nursing care" includes, but is not limited 35872
to, the following:35873

       (a) Irrigations, catheterizations, application of dressings, 35874
and supervision of special diets;35875

       (b) Objective observation of changes in the patient's 35876
condition as a means of analyzing and determining the nursing care 35877
required and the need for further medical diagnosis and treatment;35878

       (c) Special procedures contributing to rehabilitation;35879

       (d) Administration of medication by any method ordered by a 35880
physician, such as hypodermically, rectally, or orally, including 35881
observation of the patient after receipt of the medication;35882

       (e) Carrying out other treatments prescribed by the physician 35883
that involve a similar level of complexity and skill in 35884
administration.35885

       (5)(a) "Personal care services" means services including, but 35886
not limited to, the following:35887

       (i) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;35888

       (ii) Assisting residents with self-administration of 35889
medication, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.04 35890
of the Revised Code;35891

       (iii) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 35892
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 35893
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 35894
section 3721.04 of the Revised Code.35895

       (b) "Personal care services" does not include "skilled 35896
nursing care" as defined in division (A)(4) of this section. A 35897
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 35898
division (A)(5)(a) of this section to be considered to be 35899
providing personal care services.35900

       (6) "Nursing home" means a home used for the reception and 35901
care of individuals who by reason of illness or physical or mental 35902
impairment require skilled nursing care and of individuals who 35903
require personal care services but not skilled nursing care. A 35904
nursing home is licensed to provide personal care services and 35905
skilled nursing care.35906

       (7) "Residential care facility" means a home that provides 35907
either of the following:35908

       (a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated 35909
individuals and supervision and personal care services for three 35910
or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of 35911
others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment;35912

       (b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, 35913
supervision and personal care services for at least three of those 35914
individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason 35915
of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of 35916
those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by 35917
section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.35918

       (8) "Home for the aging" means a home that provides services 35919
as a residential care facility and a nursing home, except that the 35920
home provides its services only to individuals who are dependent 35921
on the services of others by reason of both age and physical or 35922
mental impairment.35923

       The part or unit of a home for the aging that provides 35924
services only as a residential care facility is licensed as a 35925
residential care facility. The part or unit that may provide 35926
skilled nursing care beyond the extent authorized by section 35927
3721.011 of the Revised Code is licensed as a nursing home.35928

       (9) "County home" and "district home" mean a county home or 35929
district home operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.35930

       (B) The publicdirector of health council may further 35931
classify homes. For the purposes of this chapter, any residence, 35932
institution, hotel, congregate housing project, or similar 35933
facility that meets the definition of a home under this section is 35934
such a home regardless of how the facility holds itself out to the 35935
public.35936

       (C) For purposes of this chapter, personal care services or 35937
skilled nursing care shall be considered to be provided by a 35938
facility if they are provided by a person employed by or 35939
associated with the facility or by another person pursuant to an 35940
agreement to which neither the resident who receives the services 35941
nor the resident's sponsor is a party.35942

       (D) Nothing in division (A)(4) of this section shall be 35943
construed to permit skilled nursing care to be imposed on an 35944
individual who does not require skilled nursing care.35945

       Nothing in division (A)(5) of this section shall be construed 35946
to permit personal care services to be imposed on an individual 35947
who is capable of performing the activity in question without 35948
assistance.35949

       (E) Division (A)(1)(c)(ix)(viii) of this section does not 35950
prohibit a facility, infirmary, or other entity described in that 35951
division from seeking licensure under sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 35952
of the Revised Code or certification under Title XVIII or XIX of 35953
the "Social Security Act." However, such a facility, infirmary, or 35954
entity that applies for licensure or certification must meet the 35955
requirements of those sections or titles and the rules adopted 35956
under them and obtain a certificate of need from the director of 35957
health under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.35958

       (F) Nothing in this chapter, or rules adopted pursuant to it, 35959
shall be construed as authorizing the supervision, regulation, or 35960
control of the spiritual care or treatment of residents or 35961
patients in any home who rely upon treatment by prayer or 35962
spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any 35963
recognized church or religious denomination.35964

       Sec. 3721.011.  (A) In addition to providing accommodations, 35965
supervision, and personal care services to its residents, a 35966
residential care facility may do the following:35967

       (1) Provide the following skilled nursing care to its 35968
residents:35969

       (a) Supervision of special diets;35970

       (b) Application of dressings, in accordance with rules 35971
adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;35972

       (c) Subject to division (B)(1) of this section, 35973
administration of medication.35974

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide other 35975
skilled nursing care on a part-time, intermittent basis for not 35976
more than a total of one hundred twenty days in a twelve-month 35977
period;35978

        (3) Provide skilled nursing care for more than one hundred 35979
twenty days in a twelve-month period to a resident when the 35980
requirements of division (D) of this section are met.35981

       A residential care facility may not admit or retain an 35982
individual requiring skilled nursing care that is not authorized 35983
by this section. A residential care facility may not provide 35984
skilled nursing care beyond the limits established by this 35985
section.35986

       (B)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 35987
individual requiring medication, including biologicals, only if 35988
the individual's personal physician has determined in writing that 35989
the individual is capable of self-administering the medication or 35990
the facility provides for the medication to be administered to the 35991
individual by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 35992
the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 620 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as 35993
amended; a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 35994
the Revised Code; or a member of the staff of the residential care 35995
facility who is qualified to perform medication administration. 35996
Medication may be administered in a residential care facility only 35997
by the following persons authorized by law to administer 35998
medication:35999

       (a) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 36000
Revised Code;36001

       (b) A licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. 36002
of the Revised Code who holds proof of successful completion of a 36003
course in medication administration approved by the board of 36004
nursing and who administers the medication only at the direction 36005
of a registered nurse or a physician authorized under Chapter 36006
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 36007
osteopathic medicine and surgery;36008

       (c) A medication aide certified under Chapter 4723. of the 36009
Revised Code;36010

       (d) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 36011
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 36012
surgery.36013

       (2) In assisting a resident with self-administration of 36014
medication, any member of the staff of a residential care facility 36015
may do the following:36016

       (a) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 36017
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;36018

       (b) Assist a resident by taking the medication from the 36019
locked area where it is stored, in accordance with rules adopted 36020
pursuant to section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, and handing it to 36021
the resident. If the resident is physically unable to open the 36022
container, a staff member may open the container for the resident.36023

       (c) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 36024
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 36025
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 36026
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 36027
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 36028
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 36029
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 36030
place the container to the mouth of the resident.36031

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 36032
residential care facility may admit or retain individuals who 36033
require skilled nursing care beyond the supervision of special 36034
diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication, 36035
only if the care will be provided on a part-time, intermittent 36036
basis for not more than a total of one hundred twenty days in any 36037
twelve-month period. In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 36038
Revised Code, the publicdirector of health council shall adopt 36039
rules specifying what constitutes the need for skilled nursing 36040
care on a part-time, intermittent basis. The councildirector36041
shall adopt rules that are consistent with rules pertaining to 36042
home health care adopted by the director of job and family 36043
services for the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. 36044
of the Revised Code. Skilled nursing care provided pursuant to 36045
this division may be provided by a home health agency certified 36046
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," a hospice care 36047
program licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code, or a 36048
member of the staff of a residential care facility who is 36049
qualified to perform skilled nursing care.36050

       A residential care facility that provides skilled nursing 36051
care pursuant to this division shall do both of the following:36052

       (1) Evaluate each resident receiving the skilled nursing care 36053
at least once every seven days to determine whether the resident 36054
should be transferred to a nursing home;36055

       (2) Meet the skilled nursing care needs of each resident 36056
receiving the care.36057

       (D)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 36058
individual who requires skilled nursing care for more than one 36059
hundred twenty days in any twelve-month period only if the 36060
facility has entered into a written agreement with each of the 36061
following:36062

        (a) The individual or individual's sponsor;36063

        (b) The individual's personal physician;36064

        (c) Unless the individual's personal physician oversees the 36065
skilled nursing care, the provider of the skilled nursing care;36066

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient as defined in 36067
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, a hospice care program 36068
licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code. 36069

       (2) The agreement required by division (D)(1) of this section 36070
shall include all of the following provisions:36071

        (a) That the individual will be provided skilled nursing care 36072
in the facility only if a determination has been made that the 36073
individual's needs can be met at the facility;36074

       (b) That the individual will be retained in the facility only 36075
if periodic redeterminations are made that the individual's needs 36076
are being met at the facility;36077

       (c) That the redeterminations will be made according to a 36078
schedule specified in the agreement;36079

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient, that the 36080
individual has been given an opportunity to choose the hospice 36081
care program that best meets the individual's needs;36082

       (e) Unless the individual is a hospice patient, that the 36083
individual's personal physician has determined that the skilled 36084
nursing care the individual needs is routine.36085

       (E) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a 36086
residential care facility in which residents receive skilled 36087
nursing care pursuant to this section is not a nursing home.36088

       Sec. 3721.02. (A) As used in this section, "residential 36089
facility" means a residential facility licensed under section 36090
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 36091
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 36092
unrelated adults.36093

        (B) The director of health shall license homes and establish 36094
procedures to be followed in inspecting and licensing homes. The 36095
director may inspect a home at any time. Each home shall be 36096
inspected by the director at least once prior to the issuance of a 36097
license and at least once every fifteen months thereafter. The 36098
state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or other legally 36099
constituted fire department approved by the marshal shall also 36100
inspect a home prior to issuance of a license, at least once every 36101
fifteen months thereafter, and at any other time requested by the 36102
director. A home does not have to be inspected prior to issuance 36103
of a license by the director, state fire marshal, or a fire 36104
department if ownership of the home is assigned or transferred to 36105
a different person and the home was licensed under this chapter 36106
immediately prior to the assignment or transfer. The director may 36107
enter at any time, for the purposes of investigation, any 36108
institution, residence, facility, or other structure that has been 36109
reported to the director or that the director has reasonable cause 36110
to believe is operating as a nursing home, residential care 36111
facility, or home for the aging without a valid license required 36112
by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a county 36113
home or district home, is operating despite the revocation of its 36114
residential care facility license. The director may delegate the 36115
director's authority and duties under this chapter to any 36116
division, bureau, agency, or official of the department of health.36117

       (B)(C) A single facility may be licensed both as a nursing 36118
home pursuant to this chapter and as an adult carea residential36119
facility pursuant to Chapter 5119.section 5119.22 of the Revised 36120
Code if the director determines that the part or unit to be 36121
licensed as a nursing home can be maintained separate and discrete 36122
from the part or unit to be licensed as an adult carea 36123
residential facility.36124

       (C)(D) In determining the number of residents in a home for 36125
the purpose of licensing, the director shall consider all the 36126
individuals for whom the home provides accommodations as one group 36127
unless one of the following is the case:36128

       (1) The home is a home for the aging, in which case all the 36129
individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall 36130
be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or 36131
unit licensed as a rest home shall be considered as another group.36132

       (2) The home is both a nursing home and an adult carea 36133
residential facility. In that case, all the individuals in the 36134
part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one 36135
group, and all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as an 36136
adult care facility shall be considered as another group.36137

       (3) The home maintains, in addition to a nursing home or 36138
residential care facility, a separate and discrete part or unit 36139
that provides accommodations to individuals who do not require or 36140
receive skilled nursing care and do not receive personal care 36141
services from the home, in which case the individuals in the 36142
separate and discrete part or unit shall not be considered in 36143
determining the number of residents in the home if the separate 36144
and discrete part or unit is in compliance with the Ohio basic 36145
building code established by the board of building standards under 36146
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the home permits 36147
the director, on request, to inspect the separate and discrete 36148
part or unit and speak with the individuals residing there, if 36149
they consent, to determine whether the separate and discrete part 36150
or unit meets the requirements of this division.36151

       (D)(E)(1) The director of health shall charge the following 36152
application fee and annual renewal licensing and inspection fee 36153
for each fifty persons or part thereof of a home's licensed 36154
capacity:36155

       (a) For state fiscal year 2010, two hundred twenty dollars;36156

       (b) For state fiscal year 2011, two hundred seventy dollars;36157

       (c) For each state fiscal year thereafter, three hundred 36158
twenty dollars. 36159

       (2) All fees collected by the director for the issuance or 36160
renewal of licenses shall be deposited into the state treasury to 36161
the credit of the general operations fund created in section 36162
3701.83 of the Revised Code for use only in administering and 36163
enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it.36164

       (E)(F)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the 36165
results of an inspection or investigation of a home that is 36166
conducted under this section, including any statement of 36167
deficiencies and all findings and deficiencies cited in the 36168
statement on the basis of the inspection or investigation, shall 36169
be used solely to determine the home's compliance with this 36170
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code in any action or 36171
proceeding other than an action commenced under division (I) of 36172
section 3721.17 of the Revised Code. Those results of an 36173
inspection or investigation, that statement of deficiencies, and 36174
the findings and deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be 36175
used in any court or in any action or proceeding that is pending 36176
in any court and are not admissible in evidence in any action or 36177
proceeding unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an 36178
action by the department of health under this chapter or is an 36179
action by any department or agency of the state to enforce this 36180
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code.36181

       (2) Nothing in division (E)(1) of this section prohibits the 36182
results of an inspection or investigation conducted under this 36183
section from being used in a criminal investigation or 36184
prosecution.36185

       Sec. 3721.03.  (A) As used in this section, "person" has the 36186
same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised Code.36187

        (B) The director of health shall enforce the provisions of 36188
sections 3721.01 to 3721.13 and 3721.99 of the Revised Code and 36189
may issue orders to secure compliance with the provisions of these 36190
sections and the rules adopted under them. The director may hold 36191
hearings, issue subpoenas, compel testimony, and make 36192
adjudications. 36193

       The director may issue an order revoking a license in the 36194
event the director finds, upon hearing or opportunity afforded 36195
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that any of the 36196
following apply to a person, county home, or district home 36197
licensed under section 3721.07 of the Revised Code:36198

       (1) Has violated any of the provisions of Chapter 3721. of 36199
the Revised Code or rules adopted by the public health council36200
director under it; 36201

       (2) Has violated any order issued by the director; 36202

       (3) Is not, or any of its principals are not suitable, 36203
morally or financially to operate such an institution; 36204

       (4) Is not furnishing humane, kind, and adequate treatment 36205
and care;36206

       (5) Has had a long-standing pattern of violations of this 36207
chapter or the rules adopted under it that has caused physical, 36208
emotional, mental, or psychosocial harm to one or more residents. 36209

       Upon the issuance of any order of revocation, the person 36210
whose license is revoked, or the county home or district home that 36211
has its license revoked, may appeal in accordance with Chapter 36212
119. of the Revised Code.36213

        (C) Once the director notifies a person, county home, or 36214
district home licensed to operate a home that the license may be 36215
revoked or issues any order under this section, the person, county 36216
home, or district home shall not assign or transfer to another 36217
person or entity the right to operate the home. This prohibition 36218
shall remain in effect until proceedings under Chapter 119. of the 36219
Revised Code concerning the order or license revocation have been 36220
concluded or the director notifies the person, county home, or 36221
district home that the prohibition has been lifted.36222

        If a license is revoked under this section, the former 36223
license holder shall not assign or transfer or consent to 36224
assignment or transfer of the right to operate the home. Any 36225
attempted assignment or transfer to another person or entity is 36226
void.36227

       On revocation of a license, the former licensee shall take 36228
all necessary steps to cease operation of the home.36229

       The director of health shall not accept a certificate of need 36230
application under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code regarding a 36231
home if the license to operate the home has been revoked under 36232
this section.36233

       Sec. 3721.032. The state fire marshal shall enforce all 36234
statutes and rules pertaining to fire safety in homes and shall 36235
adopt rules pertaining to fire safety in homes as the marshal 36236
determines necessary. The rules adopted by the marshal shall be in 36237
addition to those fire safety rules that the board of building 36238
standards and the publicdirector of health council are empowered 36239
to adopt. In the event of a dispute between the marshal and 36240
another officer having responsibilities under sections 3721.01 to 36241
3721.09 of the Revised Code with respect to the interpretation or 36242
application of a specific fire safety statute or rule, the 36243
interpretation of the marshal shall prevail.36244

       Sec. 3721.04.  (A) The publicdirector of health council36245
shall adopt and publish rules governing the operation of homes, 36246
which shall have uniform application throughout the state, and 36247
shall prescribe standards for homes with respect to, but not 36248
limited to, the following matters:36249

       (1) The minimum space requirements for occupants and 36250
equipping of the buildings in which homes are housed so as to 36251
ensure healthful, safe, sanitary, and comfortable conditions for 36252
all residents, so long as they are not inconsistent with Chapters 36253
3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code or with any rules adopted by 36254
the board of building standards and by the state fire marshal;36255

       (2) The number and qualifications of personnel, including 36256
management and nursing staff, for each class of home, and the 36257
qualifications of nurse aides, as defined in section 3721.21 of 36258
the Revised Code, used by long-term care facilities, as defined in 36259
that section;36260

       (3) The medical, rehabilitative, and recreational services to 36261
be provided by each class of home;36262

       (4) Dietetic services, including but not limited to 36263
sanitation, nutritional adequacy, and palatability of food;36264

       (5) The personal and social services to be provided by each 36265
class of home;36266

       (6) The business and accounting practices to be followed and 36267
the type of patient and business records to be kept by such homes;36268

       (7) The operation of adult day-care programs provided by and 36269
on the same site as homes licensed under this chapter;36270

       (8) The standards and procedures to be followed by 36271
residential care facilities in admitting and retaining a resident 36272
who requires the application of dressings, including requirements 36273
for charting and evaluating on a weekly basis;36274

       (9) The requirements for conducting weekly evaluations of 36275
residents receiving skilled nursing care in residential care 36276
facilities.36277

       (B) The public health councildirector may adopt whatever 36278
additional rules are necessary to carry out or enforce the 36279
provisions of sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 3721.99 of the 36280
Revised Code.36281

       (C) The following apply to the public health councildirector36282
when adopting rules under division (A)(1) of this section 36283
regarding the equipping of the buildings in which homes are 36284
housed:36285

       (1) The rules shall not require that each resident sleeping 36286
room, or a percentage of the resident sleeping rooms, have a 36287
bathtub or shower that is directly accessible from or exclusively 36288
for the room.36289

       (2) The rules shall require that the privacy and dignity of 36290
residents be protected when the residents are transported to and 36291
from bathing facilities, prepare for bathing, and bathe.36292

       (D) The following apply to the public health councildirector36293
when adopting rules under division (A)(2) of this section 36294
regarding the number and qualifications of personnel in homes:36295

       (1) When adopting rules applicable to residential care 36296
facilities, the public health councildirector shall take into 36297
consideration the effect that the following may have on the number 36298
of personnel needed:36299

        (a) Provision of personal care services;36300

       (b) Provision of part-time, intermittent skilled nursing care 36301
pursuant to division (C) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code;36302

        (c) Provision of skilled nursing care to residents pursuant 36303
to division (D) of section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.36304

       (2) When adopting rules applicable to nursing homes, the 36305
public health councildirector shall require each nursing home to 36306
do both of the following:36307

       (a) Have sufficient direct care staff on each shift to meet 36308
the needs of the residents in an appropriate and timely manner;36309

       (b) Have the following individuals provide a minimum daily 36310
average of two and one-half hours of direct care per resident:36311

       (i) Registered nurses, including registered nurses who 36312
perform administrative and supervisory duties;36313

       (ii) Licensed practical nurses, including licensed practical 36314
nurses who perform administrative and supervisory duties;36315

       (iii) Nurse aides.36316

       (3) The rules prescribing qualifications of nurse aides used 36317
by long-term care facilities, as those terms are defined in 36318
section 3721.21 of the Revised Code, shall be no less stringent 36319
than the requirements, guidelines, and procedures established by 36320
the United States secretary of health and human services under 36321
sectionssection 1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 4936322
101 Stat. 6201330-160 (19351987), 42 U.S.C. 3011395i-3, as 36323
amended, and section 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 101 Stat. 36324
1330-182 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396r, as amended.36325

       (E) The following apply to the director when adopting rules 36326
under division (A)(2) of this section regarding the number and 36327
qualifications of personnel in nursing homes or rules under 36328
division (A)(5) of this section regarding social services to be 36329
provided by nursing homes:36330

        (1) The rules shall not prescribe the number of individuals 36331
licensed as social workers under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code 36332
that a nursing home with one hundred twenty or fewer beds must 36333
employ.36334

        (2) The rules shall require each nursing home with more than 36335
one hundred twenty beds to employ on a full-time basis one 36336
individual licensed as a social worker under Chapter 4757. of the 36337
Revised Code.36338

        (3) The rules shall require each nursing home to offer its 36339
residents medically related social services that assist the 36340
residents in attaining or maintaining their highest practicable 36341
physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being.36342

       Sec. 3721.07.  Every person desiring to operate a home and 36343
the superintendent or administrator of each county home or 36344
district home for which a license as a residential care facility 36345
is sought shall apply for a license to the director of health. The 36346
director shall issue a license for the home, if after 36347
investigation of the applicant and, if required by section 3721.02 36348
of the Revised Code, inspection of the home, the following 36349
requirements or conditions are satisfied or complied with:36350

       (A) The applicant has not been convicted of a felony or a 36351
crime involving moral turpitude;36352

       (B) The applicant is not violating any of the rules made36353
adopted by the publicdirector of health council or any order 36354
issued by the director of health;36355

       (C) The applicant has not had a license to operate the home 36356
revoked pursuant to section 3721.03 of the Revised Code because of 36357
any act or omission that jeopardized a resident's health, welfare, 36358
or safety nor has the applicant had a long-standing pattern of 36359
violations of this chapter or rules adopted under it that caused 36360
physical, emotional, mental, or psychosocial harm to one or more 36361
residents.36362

        (D) The buildings in which the home is housed have been 36363
approved by the state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or 36364
other legally constituted fire department approved by the marshal. 36365
In the approval of a home such agencies shall apply standards 36366
prescribed by the board of building standards, and by the state 36367
fire marshal, and by section 3721.071 of the Revised Code.36368

       (E) The applicant, if it is an individual, or the principal 36369
participants, if it is an association or a corporation, is or are 36370
suitable financially and morally to operate a home;36371

       (F) The applicant is equipped to furnish humane, kind, and 36372
adequate treatment and care;36373

       (G) The home does not maintain or contain:36374

       (1) Facilities for the performance of major surgical 36375
procedures;36376

       (2) Facilities for providing therapeutic radiation;36377

       (3) An emergency ward;36378

       (4) A clinical laboratory unless it is under the supervision 36379
of a clinical pathologist who is a licensed physician in this 36380
state;36381

       (5) Facilities for radiological examinations unless such 36382
examinations are performed only by a person licensed to practice 36383
medicine, surgery, or dentistry in this state.36384

       (H) The home does not accept or treat outpatients, except 36385
upon the written orders of a physician licensed in this state, 36386
maternity cases, boarding children, and does not house transient 36387
guests, other than participants in an adult day-care program, for 36388
twenty-four hours or less;36389

       (I) The home is in compliance with sections 3721.28 and 36390
3721.29 of the Revised Code.36391

       When the director issues a license, the license shall remain 36392
in effect until revoked by the director or voided at the request 36393
of the applicant; provided, there shall be an annual renewal fee 36394
payable during the month of January of each calendar year. Any 36395
licensed home that does not pay its renewal fee in January shall 36396
pay, beginning the first day of February, a late fee of one 36397
hundred dollars for each week or part thereof that the renewal fee 36398
is not paid. If either the renewal fee or the late fee is not paid 36399
by the fifteenth day of February, the director may, in accordance 36400
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, revoke the home's license.36401

        If, under division (B)(5) of section 3721.03 of the Revised 36402
Code, the license of a person has been revoked or the license of a 36403
county home or district home to operate as a residential care 36404
facility has been revoked, the director of health shall not issue 36405
a license to the person or home at any time. A person whose 36406
license is revoked, and a county home or district home that has 36407
its license as a residential care facility revoked other than 36408
under division (B)(5) of section 3721.03 of the Revised Code, for 36409
any reason other than nonpayment of the license renewal fee or 36410
late fees shall not be issued a new license under this chapter 36411
until a period of one year following the date of revocation has 36412
elapsed.36413

       Any applicant who is denied a license may appeal in 36414
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.36415

       Sec. 3721.071.  The buildings in which a home is housed shall 36416
be equipped with both an automatic fire extinguishing system and 36417
fire alarm system. Such systems shall conform to standards set 36418
forth in the regulations of the board of building standards and 36419
the state fire marshal.36420

       The time for compliance with the requirements imposed by this 36421
section shall be January 1, 1975, except that the date for 36422
compliance with the automatic fire extinguishing requirements is 36423
extended to January 1, 1976, provided the buildings of the home 36424
are otherwise in compliance with fire safety laws and regulations 36425
and:36426

       (A) The home within thirty days after August 4, 1975, files a 36427
written plan with the state fire marshal's office that:36428

       (1) Outlines the interim safety procedures which shall be 36429
carried out to reduce the possibility of a fire;36430

       (2) Provides evidence that the home has entered into an 36431
agreement for a fire safety inspection to be conducted not less 36432
than monthly by a qualified independent safety engineer consultant 36433
or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted fire 36434
department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention officer;36435

       (3) Provides verification that the home has entered into a 36436
valid contract for the installation of an automatic fire 36437
extinguishing system or fire alarm system, or both, as required to 36438
comply with this section;36439

       (4) Includes a statement regarding the expected date for the 36440
completion of the fire extinguishing system or fire alarm system, 36441
or both.36442

       (B) Inspections by a qualified independent safety engineer 36443
consultant or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted 36444
fire department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention 36445
officer are initiated no later than sixty days after August 4, 36446
1975, and are conducted no less than monthly thereafter, and 36447
reports of the consultant, fire department, or fire prevention 36448
officer identifying existing hazards and recommended corrective 36449
actions are submitted to the state fire marshal, the division of 36450
laborindustrial compliance in the department of commerce, and the 36451
department of health.36452

       It is the express intent of the general assembly that the 36453
department of job and family services shall terminate payments 36454
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 36455
42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, to those homes which do not comply with 36456
the requirements of this section for the submission of a written 36457
fire safety plan and the deadline for entering into contracts for 36458
the installation of systems.36459

       Sec. 3721.121.  (A) As used in this section:36460

       (1) "Adult day-care program" means a program operated 36461
pursuant to rules adopted by the publicdirector of health council36462
under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code and provided by and on 36463
the same site as homes licensed under this chapter.36464

       (2) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 36465
consideration for employment with a home or adult day-care program 36466
in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 36467
providing direct care to an older adult. "Applicant" does not 36468
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 36469
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 36470
than reimbursement for actual expenses.36471

       (3) "Criminal records check" and "older adult" havehas the 36472
same meaningsmeaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.36473

       (4) "Home" means a home as defined in section 3721.10 of the 36474
Revised Code.36475

       (5) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.36476

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 36477
the chief administrator of a home or adult day-care program shall 36478
request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 36479
identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check 36480
with respect toof each applicant. If an applicant for whom a 36481
criminal records check request is required under this division 36482
does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for 36483
the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 36484
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 36485
five-year period the superintendent has requested information 36486
about the applicant from the federal bureau of investigation in a 36487
criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that 36488
the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 36489
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 36490
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 36491
request is required under this division presents proof of having 36492
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 36493
administrator may request that the superintendent include 36494
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 36495
criminal records check.36496

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 36497
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:36498

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 36499
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 36500
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 36501
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 36502
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 36503
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;36504

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 36505
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 36506
investigation.36507

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 36508
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 36509
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 36510
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 36511
required by this section.36512

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 36513
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 36514
to division (C)(2) of this section, no home or adult day-care 36515
program shall employ a person in a position that involves 36516
providing direct care to an older adult if the person has been 36517
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:36518

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 36519
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 36520
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 36521
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 36522
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 36523
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 36524
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 36525
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 36526
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.36527

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 36528
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 36529
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 36530
this section.36531

       (2)(a) A home or an adult day-care program may employ 36532
conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check 36533
request is required under division (B) of this section prior to 36534
obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the 36535
individual, provided that the home or program shall request a 36536
criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance with 36537
division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business days 36538
after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 36539
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a home 36540
or adult day-care program may employ conditionally an applicant 36541
who has been referred to the home or adult day-care program by an 36542
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 36543
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 36544
adults and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal records 36545
check is not required under division (B) of this section.36546

       (b) A home or adult day-care program that employs an 36547
individual conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of 36548
this section shall terminate the individual's employment if the 36549
results of the criminal records check requested under division (B) 36550
of this section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, 36551
other than the results of any request for information from the 36552
federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 36553
period ending thirty days after the date the request is made. 36554
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 36555
obtained, if the results indicate that the individual has been 36556
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or 36557
described in division (C)(1) of this section, the home or program 36558
shall terminate the individual's employment unless the home or 36559
program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (F) 36560
of this section. Termination of employment under this division 36561
shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of 36562
division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 36563
individual makes any attempt to deceive the home or program about 36564
the individual's criminal record.36565

       (D)(1) Each home or adult day-care program shall pay to the 36566
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 36567
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 36568
Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to 36569
a request made under division (B) of this section.36570

       (2) A home or adult day-care program may charge an applicant 36571
a fee not exceeding the amount the home or program pays under 36572
division (D)(1) of this section. A home or program may collect a 36573
fee only if both of the following apply:36574

       (a) The home or program notifies the person at the time of 36575
initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 36576
that, unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered 36577
for employment;36578

       (b) The medical assistance program established under Chapter 36579
5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the home or program 36580
the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.36581

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted 36582
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 36583
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 36584
shall not be made available to any person other than the 36585
following:36586

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 36587
check or the individual's representative;36588

       (2) The chief administrator of the home or program requesting 36589
the criminal records check or the administrator's representative;36590

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 36591
program that provides direct care to older adults that is owned or 36592
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home or 36593
program;36594

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 36595
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 36596
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 36597
the applicant;36598

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 36599
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section;36600

       (6) The board of nursing for purposes of accepting and 36601
processing an application for a medication aide certificate issued 36602
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.36603

       (F) In accordance with section 3721.11 of the Revised Code, 36604
the director of health shall adopt rules to implement this 36605
section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a home 36606
or adult day-care program may employ a person who has been 36607
convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described 36608
in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal character 36609
standards set by the director.36610

       (G) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 36611
program shall inform each individual, at the time of initial 36612
application for a position that involves providing direct care to 36613
an older adult, that the individual is required to provide a set 36614
of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 36615
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 36616
consideration for employment.36617

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 36618
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 36619
property caused by an individual who a home or adult day-care 36620
program employs in a position that involves providing direct care 36621
to older adults, all of the following shall apply:36622

       (1) If the home or program employed the individual in good 36623
faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records 36624
check requested under this section, the home or program shall not 36625
be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, 36626
even if the information in the report is determined later to have 36627
been incomplete or inaccurate;36628

       (2) If the home or program employed the individual in good 36629
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this 36630
section, the home or program shall not be found negligent solely 36631
because it employed the individual prior to receiving the report 36632
of a criminal records check requested under this section;36633

       (3) If the home or program in good faith employed the 36634
individual according to the personal character standards 36635
established in rules adopted under division (F) of this section, 36636
the home or program shall not be found negligent solely because 36637
the individual prior to being employed had been convicted of or 36638
pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 36639
(C)(1) of this section.36640

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 36641
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 36642
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 36643
criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been 36644
referred to the home or program by an employment service that 36645
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 36646
involving the direct care of older adults and both of the 36647
following apply:36648

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 36649
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 36650
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 36651
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 36652
preceding the applicant's referral;36653

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 36654
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 36655
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 36656
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 36657
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the home or 36658
adult day-care program chooses to employ the individual pursuant 36659
to division (F) of this section.36660

       (2) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 36661
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 36662
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 36663
criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the 36664
applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the 36665
applicant has been referred to the home or program by an 36666
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 36667
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 36668
adults and if the chief administrator receives from the employment 36669
service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that 36670
is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed 36671
by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment 36672
service and that states that the employment service has requested 36673
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 36674
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 36675
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 36676
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 36677
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 36678
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 36679
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 36680
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 36681
promptly will send a copy of the results to the home or adult 36682
day-care program. If a home or adult day-care program employs an 36683
applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the 36684
employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the 36685
criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results 36686
to the home or adult day-care program, and division (C)(2)(b) of 36687
this section applies regarding the conditional employment.36688

       Sec. 3721.13.  (A) The rights of residents of a home shall 36689
include, but are not limited to, the following:36690

       (1) The right to a safe and clean living environment pursuant 36691
to the medicare and medicaid programs and applicable state laws 36692
and regulations prescribedrules adopted by the publicdirector of36693
health council;36694

       (2) The right to be free from physical, verbal, mental, and 36695
emotional abuse and to be treated at all times with courtesy, 36696
respect, and full recognition of dignity and individuality;36697

       (3) Upon admission and thereafter, the right to adequate and 36698
appropriate medical treatment and nursing care and to other 36699
ancillary services that comprise necessary and appropriate care 36700
consistent with the program for which the resident contracted. 36701
This care shall be provided without regard to considerations such 36702
as race, color, religion, national origin, age, or source of 36703
payment for care.36704

       (4) The right to have all reasonable requests and inquiries 36705
responded to promptly;36706

       (5) The right to have clothes and bed sheets changed as the 36707
need arises, to ensure the resident's comfort or sanitation;36708

       (6) The right to obtain from the home, upon request, the name 36709
and any specialty of any physician or other person responsible for 36710
the resident's care or for the coordination of care;36711

       (7) The right, upon request, to be assigned, within the 36712
capacity of the home to make the assignment, to the staff 36713
physician of the resident's choice, and the right, in accordance 36714
with the rules and written policies and procedures of the home, to 36715
select as the attending physician a physician who is not on the 36716
staff of the home. If the cost of a physician's services is to be 36717
met under a federally supported program, the physician shall meet 36718
the federal laws and regulations governing such services.36719

       (8) The right to participate in decisions that affect the 36720
resident's life, including the right to communicate with the 36721
physician and employees of the home in planning the resident's 36722
treatment or care and to obtain from the attending physician 36723
complete and current information concerning medical condition, 36724
prognosis, and treatment plan, in terms the resident can 36725
reasonably be expected to understand; the right of access to all 36726
information in the resident's medical record; and the right to 36727
give or withhold informed consent for treatment after the 36728
consequences of that choice have been carefully explained. When 36729
the attending physician finds that it is not medically advisable 36730
to give the information to the resident, the information shall be 36731
made available to the resident's sponsor on the resident's behalf, 36732
if the sponsor has a legal interest or is authorized by the 36733
resident to receive the information. The home is not liable for a 36734
violation of this division if the violation is found to be the 36735
result of an act or omission on the part of a physician selected 36736
by the resident who is not otherwise affiliated with the home.36737

       (9) The right to withhold payment for physician visitation if 36738
the physician did not visit the resident;36739

       (10) The right to confidential treatment of personal and 36740
medical records, and the right to approve or refuse the release of 36741
these records to any individual outside the home, except in case 36742
of transfer to another home, hospital, or health care system, as 36743
required by law or rule, or as required by a third-party payment 36744
contract;36745

       (11) The right to privacy during medical examination or 36746
treatment and in the care of personal or bodily needs;36747

       (12) The right to refuse, without jeopardizing access to 36748
appropriate medical care, to serve as a medical research subject;36749

       (13) The right to be free from physical or chemical 36750
restraints or prolonged isolation except to the minimum extent 36751
necessary to protect the resident from injury to self, others, or 36752
to property and except as authorized in writing by the attending 36753
physician for a specified and limited period of time and 36754
documented in the resident's medical record. Prior to authorizing 36755
the use of a physical or chemical restraint on any resident, the 36756
attending physician shall make a personal examination of the 36757
resident and an individualized determination of the need to use 36758
the restraint on that resident.36759

       Physical or chemical restraints or isolation may be used in 36760
an emergency situation without authorization of the attending 36761
physician only to protect the resident from injury to self or 36762
others. Use of the physical or chemical restraints or isolation 36763
shall not be continued for more than twelve hours after the onset 36764
of the emergency without personal examination and authorization by 36765
the attending physician. The attending physician or a staff 36766
physician may authorize continued use of physical or chemical 36767
restraints for a period not to exceed thirty days, and at the end 36768
of this period and any subsequent period may extend the 36769
authorization for an additional period of not more than thirty 36770
days. The use of physical or chemical restraints shall not be 36771
continued without a personal examination of the resident and the 36772
written authorization of the attending physician stating the 36773
reasons for continuing the restraint.36774

       If physical or chemical restraints are used under this 36775
division, the home shall ensure that the restrained resident 36776
receives a proper diet. In no event shall physical or chemical 36777
restraints or isolation be used for punishment, incentive, or 36778
convenience.36779

       (14) The right to the pharmacist of the resident's choice and 36780
the right to receive pharmaceutical supplies and services at 36781
reasonable prices not exceeding applicable and normally accepted 36782
prices for comparably packaged pharmaceutical supplies and 36783
services within the community;36784

       (15) The right to exercise all civil rights, unless the 36785
resident has been adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 36786
2111. of the Revised Code and has not been restored to legal 36787
capacity, as well as the right to the cooperation of the home's 36788
administrator in making arrangements for the exercise of the right 36789
to vote;36790

       (16) The right of access to opportunities that enable the 36791
resident, at the resident's own expense or at the expense of a 36792
third-party payer, to achieve the resident's fullest potential, 36793
including educational, vocational, social, recreational, and 36794
habilitation programs;36795

       (17) The right to consume a reasonable amount of alcoholic 36796
beverages at the resident's own expense, unless not medically 36797
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 36798
attending physician or unless contradictory to written admission 36799
policies;36800

       (18) The right to use tobacco at the resident's own expense 36801
under the home's safety rules and under applicable laws and rules 36802
of the state, unless not medically advisable as documented in the 36803
resident's medical record by the attending physician or unless 36804
contradictory to written admission policies;36805

       (19) The right to retire and rise in accordance with the 36806
resident's reasonable requests, if the resident does not disturb 36807
others or the posted meal schedules and upon the home's request 36808
remains in a supervised area, unless not medically advisable as 36809
documented by the attending physician;36810

       (20) The right to observe religious obligations and 36811
participate in religious activities; the right to maintain 36812
individual and cultural identity; and the right to meet with and 36813
participate in activities of social and community groups at the 36814
resident's or the group's initiative;36815

       (21) The right upon reasonable request to private and 36816
unrestricted communications with the resident's family, social 36817
worker, and any other person, unless not medically advisable as 36818
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 36819
physician, except that communications with public officials or 36820
with the resident's attorney or physician shall not be restricted. 36821
Private and unrestricted communications shall include, but are not 36822
limited to, the right to:36823

       (a) Receive, send, and mail sealed, unopened correspondence;36824

       (b) Reasonable access to a telephone for private 36825
communications;36826

       (c) Private visits at any reasonable hour.36827

       (22) The right to assured privacy for visits by the spouse, 36828
or if both are residents of the same home, the right to share a 36829
room within the capacity of the home, unless not medically 36830
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 36831
attending physician;36832

       (23) The right upon reasonable request to have room doors 36833
closed and to have them not opened without knocking, except in the 36834
case of an emergency or unless not medically advisable as 36835
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 36836
physician;36837

       (24) The right to retain and use personal clothing and a 36838
reasonable amount of possessions, in a reasonably secure manner, 36839
unless to do so would infringe on the rights of other residents or 36840
would not be medically advisable as documented in the resident's 36841
medical record by the attending physician;36842

       (25) The right to be fully informed, prior to or at the time 36843
of admission and during the resident's stay, in writing, of the 36844
basic rate charged by the home, of services available in the home, 36845
and of any additional charges related to such services, including 36846
charges for services not covered under the medicare or medicaid 36847
program. The basic rate shall not be changed unless thirty days'36848
notice is given to the resident or, if the resident is unable to 36849
understand this information, to the resident's sponsor.36850

       (26) The right of the resident and person paying for the care 36851
to examine and receive a bill at least monthly for the resident's 36852
care from the home that itemizes charges not included in the basic 36853
rates;36854

       (27)(a) The right to be free from financial exploitation;36855

       (b) The right to manage the resident's own personal financial 36856
affairs, or, if the resident has delegated this responsibility in 36857
writing to the home, to receive upon written request at least a 36858
quarterly accounting statement of financial transactions made on 36859
the resident's behalf. The statement shall include:36860

       (i) A complete record of all funds, personal property, or 36861
possessions of a resident from any source whatsoever, that have 36862
been deposited for safekeeping with the home for use by the 36863
resident or the resident's sponsor;36864

       (ii) A listing of all deposits and withdrawals transacted, 36865
which shall be substantiated by receipts which shall be available 36866
for inspection and copying by the resident or sponsor.36867

       (28) The right of the resident to be allowed unrestricted 36868
access to the resident's property on deposit at reasonable hours, 36869
unless requests for access to property on deposit are so 36870
persistent, continuous, and unreasonable that they constitute a 36871
nuisance;36872

       (29) The right to receive reasonable notice before the 36873
resident's room or roommate is changed, including an explanation 36874
of the reason for either change.36875

       (30) The right not to be transferred or discharged from the 36876
home unless the transfer is necessary because of one of the 36877
following:36878

       (a) The welfare and needs of the resident cannot be met in 36879
the home.36880

       (b) The resident's health has improved sufficiently so that 36881
the resident no longer needs the services provided by the home.36882

       (c) The safety of individuals in the home is endangered.36883

       (d) The health of individuals in the home would otherwise be 36884
endangered.36885

       (e) The resident has failed, after reasonable and appropriate 36886
notice, to pay or to have the medicare or medicaid program pay on 36887
the resident's behalf, for the care provided by the home. A 36888
resident shall not be considered to have failed to have the 36889
resident's care paid for if the resident has applied for medicaid, 36890
unless both of the following are the case:36891

       (i) The resident's application, or a substantially similar 36892
previous application, has been denied by the county department of 36893
job and family services.36894

       (ii) If the resident appealed the denial pursuant to division 36895
(C) of section 5101.35 of the Revised Code, the director of job 36896
and family services has upheld the denial.36897

       (f) The home's license has been revoked, the home is being 36898
closed pursuant to section 3721.08, sections 5111.35 to 5111.62, 36899
or section 5155.31 of the Revised Code, or the home otherwise 36900
ceases to operate.36901

       (g) The resident is a recipient of medicaid, and the home's 36902
participation in the medicaid program is involuntarily terminated 36903
or denied.36904

       (h) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program, 36905
and the home's participation in the medicare program is 36906
involuntarily terminated or denied.36907

       (31) The right to voice grievances and recommend changes in 36908
policies and services to the home's staff, to employees of the 36909
department of health, or to other persons not associated with the 36910
operation of the home, of the resident's choice, free from 36911
restraint, interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal. 36912
This right includes access to a residents' rights advocate, and 36913
the right to be a member of, to be active in, and to associate 36914
with persons who are active in organizations of relatives and 36915
friends of nursing home residents and other organizations engaged 36916
in assisting residents.36917

       (32) The right to have any significant change in the 36918
resident's health status reported to the resident's sponsor. As 36919
soon as such a change is known to the home's staff, the home shall 36920
make a reasonable effort to notify the sponsor within twelve 36921
hours.36922

       (B) A sponsor may act on a resident's behalf to assure that 36923
the home does not deny the residents' rights under sections 36924
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.36925

       (C) Any attempted waiver of the rights listed in division (A) 36926
of this section is void.36927

       Sec. 3721.21.  As used in sections 3721.21 to 3721.34 of the 36928
Revised Code:36929

       (A) "Long-term care facility" means either of the following:36930

       (1) A nursing home as defined in section 3721.01 of the 36931
Revised Code, other than a nursing home or part of a nursing home 36932
certified as an intermediate care facility for the mentally 36933
retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 36934
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;36935

       (2) A facility or part of a facility that is certified as a 36936
skilled nursing facility or a nursing facility under Title XVIII 36937
or XIX of the "Social Security Act."36938

       (B) "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 36939
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.36940

       (C) "Abuse" means knowingly causing physical harm or 36941
recklessly causing serious physical harm to a resident by physical 36942
contact with the resident or by use of physical or chemical 36943
restraint, medication, or isolation as punishment, for staff 36944
convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in 36945
amounts that preclude habilitation and treatment.36946

       (D) "Neglect" means recklessly failing to provide a resident 36947
with any treatment, care, goods, or service necessary to maintain 36948
the health or safety of the resident when the failure results in 36949
serious physical harm to the resident. "Neglect" does not include 36950
allowing a resident, at the resident's option, to receive only 36951
treatment by spiritual means through prayer in accordance with the 36952
tenets of a recognized religious denomination.36953

       (E) "Misappropriation" means depriving, defrauding, or 36954
otherwise obtaining the real or personal property of a resident by 36955
any means prohibited by the Revised Code, including violations of 36956
Chapter 2911. or 2913. of the Revised Code.36957

       (F) "Resident" includes a resident, patient, former resident 36958
or patient, or deceased resident or patient of a long-term care 36959
facility or a residential care facility.36960

       (G) "Physical restraint" has the same meaning as in section 36961
3721.10 of the Revised Code.36962

       (H) "Chemical restraint" has the same meaning as in section 36963
3721.10 of the Revised Code.36964

       (I) "Nursing and nursing-related services" means the personal 36965
care services and other services not constituting skilled nursing 36966
care that are specified in rules the publicdirector of health 36967
council shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 36968
Code.36969

       (J) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in 36970
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.36971

       (K)(1) Except as provided in division (K)(2) of this section, 36972
"nurse aide" means an individual who provides nursing and 36973
nursing-related services to residents in a long-term care 36974
facility, either as a member of the staff of the facility for 36975
monetary compensation or as a volunteer without monetary 36976
compensation.36977

       (2) "Nurse aide" does not include either of the following:36978

        (a) A licensed health professional practicing within the 36979
scope of the professional's license;36980

        (b) An individual providing nursing and nursing-related 36981
services in a religious nonmedical health care institution, if the 36982
individual has been trained in the principles of nonmedical care 36983
and is recognized by the institution as being competent in the 36984
administration of care within the religious tenets practiced by 36985
the residents of the institution.36986

       (L) "Licensed health professional" means all of the 36987
following:36988

       (1) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy 36989
assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;36990

       (2) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant 36991
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;36992

       (3) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 36993
Code to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and 36994
surgery, or podiatry;36995

       (4) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of 36996
the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;36997

       (5) A registered nurse or licensed practical nurse licensed 36998
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;36999

       (6) A social worker or independent social worker licensed 37000
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code or a social work assistant 37001
registered under that chapter;37002

       (7) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed 37003
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;37004

       (8) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 37005
4715. of the Revised Code;37006

       (9) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 37007
Revised Code;37008

       (10) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 37009
Code;37010

       (11) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the 37011
Revised Code;37012

       (12) A chiropractor licensed under Chapter 4734. of the 37013
Revised Code;37014

       (13) A nursing home administrator licensed or temporarily 37015
licensed under Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code;37016

       (14) A professional counselor or professional clinical 37017
counselor licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code.37018

       (M) "Religious nonmedical health care institution" means an 37019
institution that meets or exceeds the conditions to receive 37020
payment under the medicare program established under Title XVIII 37021
of the "Social Security Act" for inpatient hospital services or 37022
post-hospital extended care services furnished to an individual in 37023
a religious nonmedical health care institution, as defined in 37024
section 1861(ss)(1) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 37025
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395x(ss)(1), as amended.37026

       (N) "Competency evaluation program" means a program through 37027
which the competency of a nurse aide to provide nursing and 37028
nursing-related services is evaluated.37029

       (O) "Training and competency evaluation program" means a 37030
program of nurse aide training and evaluation of competency to 37031
provide nursing and nursing-related services.37032

       Sec. 3721.28.  (A)(1) Each nurse aide used by a long-term 37033
care facility on a full-time, temporary, per diem, or other basis 37034
on July 1, 1989, shall be provided by the facility a competency 37035
evaluation program approved by the director of health under 37036
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 37037
by himthe director under division (C) of that section. Each 37038
long-term care facility using a nurse aide on July 1, 1989, shall 37039
provide the nurse aide the preparation necessary to complete the 37040
competency evaluation program by January 1, 1990.37041

       (2) Each nurse aide used by a long-term care facility on a 37042
full-time, temporary, per diem, or other basis on January 1, 1990, 37043
who either was not used by the facility on July 1, 1989, or was 37044
used by the facility on July 1, 1989, but had not successfully 37045
completed a competency evaluation program by January 1, 1990, 37046
shall be provided by the facility a competency evaluation program 37047
approved by the director under division (A) of section 3721.31 of 37048
the Revised Code or conducted by himthe director under division 37049
(C) of that section. Each long-term care facility using a nurse 37050
aide described in division (A)(2) of this section shall provide 37051
the nurse aide the preparation necessary to complete the 37052
competency evaluation program by October 1, 1990, and shall assist 37053
the nurse aide in registering for the program.37054

       (B) Effective June 1, 1990, no long-term care facility shall 37055
use an individual as a nurse aide for more than four months unless 37056
the individual is competent to provide the services hethe 37057
individual is to provide, the facility has received from the nurse 37058
aide registry established under section 3721.32 of the Revised 37059
Code the information concerning the individual provided through 37060
the registry, and one of the following is the case:37061

       (1) The individual was used by a facility as a nurse aide on 37062
a full-time, temporary, per diem, or other basis at any time 37063
during the period commencing July 1, 1989, and ending January 1, 37064
1990, and successfully completed, not later than October 1, 1990, 37065
a competency evaluation program approved by the director under 37066
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 37067
by himthe director under division (C) of that section.37068

       (2) The individual has successfully completed a training and 37069
competency evaluation program approved by the director under 37070
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 37071
by himthe director under division (C) of that section or has met 37072
the conditions specified in division (F) of this section and, in 37073
addition, if the training and competency evaluation program or the 37074
training, instruction, or education the individual completed in 37075
meeting the conditions specified in division (F) of this section 37076
was conducted by or in a long-term care facility, or if the 37077
director pursuant to division (E) of section 3721.31 of the 37078
Revised Code so requires, the individual has successfully 37079
completed a competency evaluation program conducted by the 37080
director.37081

       (3) Prior to July 1, 1989, if the long-term care facility is 37082
certified as a skilled nursing facility or a nursing facility 37083
under Title XVIII or XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 37084
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, or prior to January 1, 37085
1990, if the facility is not so certified, the individual 37086
completed a program that the director determines included a 37087
competency evaluation component no less stringent than the 37088
competency evaluation programs approved by himthe director under 37089
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted 37090
by himthe director under division (C) of that section, and was 37091
otherwise comparable to the training and competency evaluation 37092
programs being approved by the director under division (A) of that 37093
section.37094

       (4) The individual is listed in a nurse aide registry 37095
maintained by another state and that state certifies that its 37096
program for training and evaluation of competency of nurse aides 37097
complies with Titles XVIII and XIX of the "Social Security Act" 37098
and regulations adopted thereunder.37099

       (5) Prior to July 1, 1989, the individual was found competent 37100
to serve as a nurse aide after the completion of a course of nurse 37101
aide training of at least one hundred hours' duration.37102

       (6) The individual is enrolled in a prelicensure program of 37103
nursing education approved by the board of nursing or by an agency 37104
of another state that regulates nursing education, has provided 37105
the long-term care facility with a certificate from the program 37106
indicating that the individual has successfully completed the 37107
courses that teach basic nursing skills including infection 37108
control, safety and emergency procedures, and personal care, and 37109
has successfully completed a competency evaluation program 37110
conducted by the director under division (C) of section 3721.31 of 37111
the Revised Code.37112

       (7) The individual has the equivalent of twelve months or 37113
more of full-time employment in the preceding five years as a 37114
hospital aide or orderly and has successfully completed a 37115
competency evaluation program conducted by the director under 37116
division (C) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code.37117

       (C) Effective June 1, 1990, no long-term care facility shall 37118
continue for longer than four months to use as a nurse aide an 37119
individual who previously met the requirements of division (B) of 37120
this section but since most recently doing so has not performed 37121
nursing and nursing-related services for monetary compensation for 37122
twenty-four consecutive months, unless the individual successfully 37123
completes additional training and competency evaluation by 37124
complying with divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section:37125

       (1) Doing one of the following:37126

       (a) Successfully completing a training and competency 37127
evaluation program approved by the director under division (A) of 37128
section 3721.31 of the Revised Code or conducted by himthe 37129
director under division (C) of that section;37130

       (b) Successfully completing a training and competency 37131
evaluation program described in division (B)(4) of this section;37132

       (c) Meeting the requirements specified in division (B)(6) or 37133
(7) of this section.37134

       (2) If the training and competency evaluation program 37135
completed under division (C)(1)(a) of this section was conducted 37136
by or in a long-term care facility, or if the director pursuant to 37137
division (E) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code so requires, 37138
successfully completing a competency evaluation program conducted 37139
by the director.37140

       (D)(1) The four-month periods provided for in divisions (B) 37141
and (C) of this section include any time, on or after June 1, 37142
1990, that an individual is used as a nurse aide on a full-time, 37143
temporary, per diem, or any other basis by the facility or any 37144
other long-term care facility.37145

       (2) During the four-month period provided for in division (B) 37146
of this section, during which a long-term care facility may, 37147
subject to division (E) of this section, use as a nurse aide an 37148
individual who does not have the qualifications specified in 37149
divisions (B)(1) to (7) of this section, a facility shall require 37150
the individual to comply with divisions (D)(2)(a) and (b) of this 37151
section:37152

       (a) Participate in one of the following:37153

       (i) If the individual has successfully completed a training 37154
and competency evaluation program approved by the director under 37155
division (A) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code, and the 37156
program was conducted by or in a long-term care facility, or the 37157
director pursuant to division (E) of section 3721.31 of the 37158
Revised Code so requires, a competency evaluation program 37159
conducted by the director;37160

       (ii) If the individual is enrolled in a prelicensure program 37161
of nursing education described in division (B)(6) of this section 37162
and has completed or is working toward completion of the courses 37163
described in that division, or the individual has the experience 37164
described in division (B)(7) of this section, a competency 37165
evaluation program conducted by the director;37166

       (iii) A training and competency evaluation program approved 37167
by the director under division (A) of section 3721.31 of the 37168
Revised Code or conducted by himthe director under division (C) 37169
of that section.37170

       (b) If the individual participates in or has successfully 37171
completed a training and competency evaluation program under 37172
division (D)(2)(a)(iii) of this section that is conducted by or in 37173
a long-term care facility, or the director pursuant to division 37174
(E) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code so requires, paticipate37175
participate in a competency evaluation program conducted by the 37176
director.37177

       (3) During the four-month period provided for in division (C) 37178
of this section, during which a long-term care facility may, 37179
subject to division (E) of this section, use as a nurse aide an 37180
individual who does not have the qualifications specified in 37181
divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section, a facility shall require 37182
the individual to comply with divisions (D)(3)(a) and (b) of this 37183
section:37184

       (a) Participate in one of the following:37185

       (i) If the individual has successfully completed a training 37186
and competency evaluation program approved by the director, and 37187
the program was conducted by or in a long-term care facility, or 37188
the director pursuant to division (E) of section 3721.31 of the 37189
Revised Code so requires, a competency evaluation program 37190
conducted by the director;37191

       (ii) If the individual is enrolled in a prelicensure program 37192
of nursing education described in division (B)(6) of this section 37193
and has completed or is working toward completion of the courses 37194
described in that division, or the individual has the experience 37195
described in division (B)(7) of this section, a competency 37196
evaluation program conducted by the director;37197

       (iii) A training and competency evaluation program approved 37198
or conducted by the director.37199

       (b) If the individual participates in or has successfully 37200
completed a training and competency evaluation program under 37201
division (D)(3)(a)(iii) of this section that is conducted by or in 37202
a long-term care facility, or the director pursuant to division 37203
(E) of section 3721.31 of the Revised Code so requires, 37204
participate in a competency evaluation program conducted by the 37205
director.37206

       (E) A long-term care facility shall not permit an individual 37207
used by the facility as a nurse aide while participating in a 37208
training and competency evaluation program to provide nursing and 37209
nursing-related services unless both of the following are the 37210
case:37211

       (1) The individual has completed the number of hours of 37212
training that he must completebe completed prior to providing 37213
services to residents as prescribed by rules that shall be adopted 37214
by the director in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 37215
Code;37216

       (2) The individual is under the personal supervision of a 37217
registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 37218
4723. of the Revised Code.37219

       (F) An individual shall be considered to have satisfied the 37220
requirement, under division (B)(2) of this section, of having 37221
successfully completed a training and competency evaluation 37222
program conducted or approved by the director, if the individual 37223
meets both of the following conditions:37224

       (1) The individual, as of July 1, 1989, completed at least 37225
sixty hours divided between skills training and classroom 37226
instruction in the topic areas described in divisions (B)(1) to 37227
(8) of section 3721.30 of the Revised Code;37228

       (2) The individual received, as of that date, at least the 37229
difference between seventy-five hours and the number of hours 37230
actually spent in training and competency evaluation in supervised 37231
practical nurse aide training or regular in-service nurse aide 37232
education.37233

       (G) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules in 37234
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code specifying 37235
persons, in addition to the director, who may establish competence 37236
of nurse aides under division (B)(5) of this section, and 37237
establishing criteria for determining whether an individual meets 37238
the conditions specified in division (F) of this section.37239

       (H) The rules adopted pursuant to divisions (E)(1) and (G) of 37240
this section shall be no less stringent than the requirements, 37241
guidelines, and procedures established by the United States 37242
secretary of health and human services under sections 1819 and 37243
1919 of the "Social Security Act."37244

       Sec. 3721.29.  In addition to competency evaluation programs 37245
and training and competency evaluation programs required by this 37246
chapter, each long-term care facility shall provide both of the 37247
following to each nurse aide it uses:37248

       (A) An orientation program that includes at least an 37249
explanation of the organizational structure of the facility, its 37250
policies and procedures, its philosophy of care, a description of 37251
its resident population, and an enumeration of its employee rules;37252

       (B) Regular performance review and in-service education to 37253
assure that individuals working in the facility as nurse aides are 37254
competent to perform the nursing and nursing-related services they 37255
perform. In-service education shall include training for nurse 37256
aides providing nursing and nursing-related services to residents 37257
and patients with cognitive impairments.37258

       The publicdirector of health council shall adopt rules to 37259
implement the purposes of this section. The rules shall be no less 37260
stringent than the requirements, guidelines, and procedures 37261
established by the United States secretary of health and human 37262
services under sections 1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security 37263
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended.37264

       Sec. 3721.50.  As used in sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the 37265
Revised Code:37266

       (A) "Bed surrender" means the following:37267

        (1) In the case of a nursing home, the removal of a bed from 37268
a nursing home's licensed capacity in a manner that reduces the 37269
total licensed capacity of all nursing homes;37270

        (2) In the case of a hospital, the removal of a hospital bed 37271
from registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 37272
skilled nursing facility bed or long-term care bed in a manner 37273
that reduces the total number of hospital beds registered under 37274
that section as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 37275
beds.37276

        (B) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 37277
the operator of a nursing home or hospital in the place of the 37278
exiting operator.37279

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 37280
following:37281

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 37282
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 37283
corporation from a sole proprietorship;37284

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 37285
interest in the operation of the nursing home or hospital to the 37286
entering operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all 37287
of the real property or personal property associated with the 37288
nursing home or hospital is also transferred;37289

       (c) A lease of the nursing home or hospital to the entering 37290
operator or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting 37291
operator's lease;37292

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 37293
the partnership;37294

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 37295
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:37296

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 37297
partnership's dissolution under state law.37298

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 37299
not constitute a change in operator.37300

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 37301
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 37302
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 37303
more other corporations to form a new corporation.37304

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 37305
operator:37306

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing home or 37307
hospital as the operator's agent, subject to the operator's 37308
approval of daily operating and management decisions;37309

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 37310
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 37311
home or hospital if an entering operator does not become the 37312
operator in place of an exiting operator;37313

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 37314
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 37315
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 37316
same corporation continues to be the operator.37317

       (C) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day an 37318
entering operator becomes the operator of a nursing home or 37319
hospital.37320

       (D) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 37321
that will become the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the 37322
effective date of a change of operator.37323

       (E) "Exiting operator" means an operator that will cease to 37324
be the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the effective 37325
date of a change of operator.37326

       (F) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:37327

       (1) For fiscal year 2012, eleven dollars and forty-seven 37328
cents;37329

       (2) For fiscal year 2013 and each fiscal year thereafter, 37330
eleven dollars and sixty-seven cents.37331

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 37332
the Revised Code.37333

       (H) "Hospital long-term care unit" means any distinct part of 37334
a hospital in which any of the following beds are located:37335

       (1) Beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 of the 37336
Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 37337
beds;37338

       (2) Beds licensed as nursing home beds under section 3721.02 37339
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code.37340

       (I) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 37341
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 37342
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii) that is 37343
to be used in determining whether a class of providers is 37344
indirectly held harmless for any portion of the costs of a 37345
broad-based health-care-related tax. If the indirect guarantee 37346
percentage changes during a fiscal year, the indirect guarantee 37347
percentage is the following:37348

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 37349
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;37350

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 37351
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.37352

       (J) "Inpatient days" means all days during which a resident 37353
of a nursing facility, regardless of payment source, occupies a 37354
bed in the nursing facility that is included in the facility's 37355
certified capacity under Title XIX. Therapeutic or hospital leave 37356
days for which payment is made under section 5111.26 of the 37357
Revised Code are considered inpatient days proportionate to the 37358
percentage of the facility's per resident per day rate paid for 37359
those days.37360

       (K) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 37361
the Revised Code.37362

       (L) "Medicaid day" means all days during which a resident who 37363
is a medicaid recipient occupies a bed in a nursing facility that 37364
is included in the facility's certified capacity under Title XIX. 37365
Therapeutic or hospital leave days for which payment is made under 37366
section 5111.26 of the Revised Code are considered medicaid days 37367
proportionate to the percentage of the nursing facility's per 37368
resident per day rate for those days.37369

       (M)(K) "Medicare" means the program established by Title 37370
XVIII.37371

       (N)(L) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 37372
5111.20 of the Revised Code.37373

       (O)(M)(1) "Nursing home" means all of the following:37374

       (a) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 37375
of the Revised Code, including any part of a home for the aging 37376
licensed as a nursing home;37377

       (b) A facility or part of a facility, other than a hospital, 37378
that is certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII;37379

       (c) A nursing facility, other than a portion of a hospital 37380
certified as a nursing facility.37381

       (2) "Nursing home" does not include anyeither of the 37382
following:37383

       (a) A county home, county nursing home, or district home 37384
operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;37385

       (b) A nursing home maintained and operated by the department 37386
of veterans services under section 5907.01 of the Revised Code;37387

       (c) A nursing home or part of a nursing home licensed under 37388
section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code that is certified 37389
as an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 37390
Title XIX.37391

       (P)(N) "Operator" means the person or government entity 37392
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 37393
nursing home or hospital.37394

       (Q)(O) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 37395
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended.37396

       (R)(P) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 37397
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.37398

       Sec. 3721.51.  The department of job and family services 37399
shall do all of the following:37400

       (A) Subject to sections 3721.512, 3721.513, and 3721.531 of 37401
the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) of this section and for 37402
the purposes specified in section 3721.56 of the Revised Code, 37403
determine an annual franchise permit fee on each nursing home in 37404
an amount equal to the franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the 37405
product of the following:37406

       (1) The number of beds licensed as nursing home beds, plus 37407
any other beds certified as skilled nursing facility beds under 37408
Title XVIII or nursing facility beds under Title XIX on the first 37409
day of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 37410
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the Revised Code;37411

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 37412
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 37413
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the 37414
Revised Code.37415

       (B) Subject to sections 3721.512, 3721.513, and 3721.531 of 37416
the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) of this section and for 37417
the purposes specified in section 3721.56 of the Revised Code, 37418
determine an annual franchise permit fee on each hospital in an 37419
amount equal to the franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the 37420
product of the following:37421

       (1) The number of beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 37422
of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term 37423
care beds, plus any other beds licensed as nursing home beds under 37424
section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code, on the first day 37425
of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 37426
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the Revised Code;37427

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 37428
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 37429
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.53 of the 37430
Revised Code.37431

       (C) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 37432
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for a fiscal year 37433
exceeds the indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net 37434
patient revenue for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care 37435
units for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 37436
the combined total number of nursing homes and hospital long-term 37437
care units receive enhanced medicaid payments or other state 37438
payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their total 37439
franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:37440

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under divisions (A) and (B) 37441
of this section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 37442
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all nursing 37443
homes and hospital long-term care units for that fiscal year;37444

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 37445
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under divisions (A) and 37446
(B) of this section and the amount recalculated under division 37447
(C)(1) of this section as a credit against the assessments imposed 37448
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for the subsequent 37449
fiscal year.37450

       (D) If the United States centers for medicare and medicaid 37451
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 37452
sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code is an 37453
impermissible health care-related tax under section 1903(w) of the 37454
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as 37455
amended, take all necessary actions to cease implementation of 37456
sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code in accordance with 37457
rules adopted under section 3721.58 of the Revised Code.37458

       Sec. 3723.06.  (A) The director of health shall license radon 37459
testers, mitigation specialists, and mitigation contractors. Each 37460
applicant for a license shall submit a completed application to 37461
the director on a form the director shall prescribe and furnish.37462

       (B) In accordance with rules adopted by the public health 37463
council under section 3723.09 of the Revised Code, the director 37464
shall issue the appropriate license to each applicant that pays 37465
the license fee prescribed by the councildirector, meets the 37466
licensing criteria established by the councildirector, and 37467
complies with any other licensing and training requirements 37468
established by the councildirector. An individual, business 37469
entity, or government entity may hold more than one license issued 37470
under this section, but a separate application is required for 37471
each license.37472

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, the 37473
director shall issue a radon mitigation contractor license on 37474
request to the holder of a radon mitigation specialist license if 37475
the license holder is the owner or chief stockholder of a business 37476
entity for which hethe license holder is the only individual who 37477
will work as a radon mitigation specialist. The licensing criteria 37478
and any other licensing and training requirements the individual 37479
was required to meet to qualify for the radon mitigation 37480
specialist license are hereby deemed to satisfy any and all 37481
criteria and requirements for a radon mitigation contractor 37482
license. A license issued under this division shall expire at the 37483
same time as the individual's radon mitigation specialist license. 37484
No license fee shall be imposed for a license issued under this 37485
division.37486

       (D) A license issued under this section expires biennially 37487
and may be renewed by the director in accordance with criteria and 37488
procedures established by the public health councilin rules 37489
adopted under section 3723.09 of the Revised Code and on payment 37490
of the license renewal fee prescribed by the councilin those 37491
rules.37492

       (E) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 37493
director may do either of the following:37494

       (1) Refuse to issue a license to an individual, business 37495
entity, or government entity that does not meet the requirements 37496
of this chapter or the rules adopted under it or has been in 37497
violation of those requirements;37498

       (2) Suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the license of an 37499
individual, business entity, or government entity that is or has 37500
been in violation of the requirements of this chapter or the rules 37501
adopted under it.37502

       Sec. 3723.07.  The director of health shall approve all of 37503
the following:37504

       (A) Licensure training courses for radon testers and 37505
mitigation specialists;37506

       (B) Training courses for employees of mitigation contractors;37507

       (C) Radon laboratories.37508

       Each applicant for approval shall submit a completed 37509
application to the director on a form the director shall prescribe 37510
and furnish.37511

       In accordance with rules adopted by the public health council37512
under section 3723.09 of the Revised Code, the director shall 37513
issue the appropriate approval to each applicant that pays the 37514
approval fee prescribed by the councildirector and meets the 37515
criteria for approval established by the councildirector.37516

       In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 37517
director may refuse to issue an approval and may revoke or suspend 37518
an approval issued under this section if the operator of the 37519
course or laboratory fails to meet the criteria established by the 37520
public health councildirector.37521

       Sec. 3723.09.  (A) To protect the health of individuals 37522
inhabiting, occupying, or frequenting buildings, the public37523
director of health council shall adopt rules to implement the 37524
requirements of this chapter. All rules adopted under this section 37525
shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 37526
Code.37527

       (B) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 37528
establishing criteria and procedures to be followed by the 37529
director of health infor issuing and renewing licenses under 37530
section 3723.06 of the Revised Code to radon testers, mitigation 37531
specialists, and mitigation contractors. The rules may require 37532
that all applicants for licensure as a radon tester or mitigation 37533
specialist pass an examination. If an examination is required, the 37534
rules may require applicants to pass an examination conducted by 37535
the department or an appropriate examination conducted by the 37536
United States environmental protection agency.37537

       (C) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 37538
establishing criteria and procedures to be followed by the 37539
director of health infor approving training courses under section 37540
3723.07 of the Revised Code. The rules may require that 37541
participants in training courses pass an examination conducted by 37542
the operator of the course and may require that the examinations 37543
be approved by the director of health.37544

       (D) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 37545
establishing criteria and procedures to be followed by the 37546
director of health infor approving radon laboratories under 37547
section 3723.07 of the Revised Code.37548

       (E) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 37549
establishing reasonable fees for licenses, license renewals, radon 37550
laboratory approvals, and training course approvals.37551

       (F) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 37552
establishing standards to be followed by licensed radon testers, 37553
mitigation specialists, and mitigation contractors for the 37554
prevention of hazards to the public health, including standards 37555
for worker protection, record keeping, and training of employees 37556
of licensed radon mitigation contractors.37557

       (G) The public health councildirector shall adopt rules 37558
establishing procedures to be followed by any individual, business 37559
entity, or government entity licensed by another state to practice 37560
as a radon tester, mitigation specialist, or mitigation contractor 37561
in providing notice to the director of health prior to commencing 37562
practice in this state pursuant to section 3723.03 of the Revised 37563
Code.37564

       (H) The public health councildirector may adopt rules that 37565
require licensed radon testers and mitigation specialists to 37566
report to the director of health, by street address, radon test 37567
results that indicate the presence of radon at a level considered 37568
to be dangerous as determined by the councildirector. The rules 37569
may require the reporting of screening measurements, follow-up 37570
measurements, post-mitigation measurements, and, if it is known 37571
that radon mitigation has been performed, the methods of 37572
mitigation that were used. Any information required to be reported 37573
to the director under these rules is not a public record under 37574
section 149.43 of the Revised Code, and shall not be released 37575
except in aggregate statistical form.37576

       Sec. 3725.02.  (A) No person other than a hospital shall 37577
collect plasma, regardless of the use for which the plasma is 37578
intended, except at a plasmapheresis center holding a current, 37579
valid certificate of approval issued by the director of health.37580

       Whoever violates this division is guilty of a misdemeanor of 37581
the fourth degree.37582

       (B) The public health councildirector shall adopt such rules 37583
as are necessary to carry out this chapter.37584

       Sec. 3727.01. (A) As used in this section, "health 37585
maintenance organization" means a public or private organization 37586
organized under the law of any state that is qualified under 37587
section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public Health Service Act," 37588
87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9, or that does all of the 37589
following:37590

       (1) Provides or otherwise makes available to enrolled 37591
participants health care services including at least the following 37592
basic health care services: usual physician services, 37593
hospitalization, laboratory, x-ray, emergency and preventive 37594
service, and out-of-area coverage;37595

       (2) Is compensated, except for copayments, for the provision 37596
of basic health care services to enrolled participants by a 37597
payment that is paid on a periodic basis without regard to the 37598
date the health care services are provided and that is fixed 37599
without regard to the frequency, extent, or kind of health service 37600
actually provided;37601

       (3) Provides physician services primarily in either of the 37602
following ways:37603

       (a) Directly through physicians who are either employees or 37604
partners of the organization;37605

       (b) Through arrangements with individual physicians or one or 37606
more groups of physicians organized on a group-practice or 37607
individual-practice basis.37608

       (B) As used in this chapter:37609

       (1) "Children's hospital" has the same meaning as in section 37610
3702.51 of the Revised Codemeans any of the following:37611

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 37612
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 37613
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 37614
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 37615
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 37616

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 37617
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 37618
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 37619
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 37620
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 37621
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 37622
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 37623

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 37624
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 37625
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 37626
requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section.37627

        (2) "Hospital" means an institution classified as a hospital 37628
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code in which are provided to 37629
inpatients diagnostic, medical, surgical, obstetrical, 37630
psychiatric, or rehabilitation care for a continuous period longer 37631
than twenty-four hours or a hospital operated by a health 37632
maintenance organization. "Hospital" does not include a facility 37633
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a health care 37634
facility operated by the department of mental health or the 37635
department of developmental disabilities, a health maintenance 37636
organization that does not operate a hospital, the office of any 37637
private licensed health care professional, whether organized for 37638
individual or group practice, or a clinic that provides ambulatory 37639
patient services and where patients are not regularly admitted as 37640
inpatients. "Hospital" also does not include an institution for 37641
the sick that is operated exclusively for patients who use 37642
spiritual means for healing and for whom the acceptance of medical 37643
care is inconsistent with their religious beliefs, accredited by a 37644
national accrediting organization, exempt from federal income 37645
taxation under section 501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 37646
100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing 37647
twenty-four hour nursing care pursuant to the exemption in 37648
division (E) of section 4723.32 of the Revised Code from the 37649
licensing requirements of Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.37650

       (3) "Joint commission" means the commission formerly known as 37651
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations 37652
or the joint commission on accreditation of hospitals.37653

       Sec. 3727.42.  (A) Every hospital shall compile and make 37654
available for inspection by the public a price information list 37655
containing the information specified in division (B) of this 37656
section and shall periodically update the list to maintain current 37657
information. The price information list shall be compiled and made 37658
available in a format that complies with the electronic 37659
transaction standards and code sets adopted by the United States 37660
secretary of health and human services under 42 U.S.C. 1320d-2.37661

        (B) Each price information list required by division (A) of 37662
this section shall contain all of the following information:37663

       (1) The usual and customary room and board charges for each 37664
level of care within the hospital, including but not limited to 37665
private rooms, semiprivate rooms, other multiple patient rooms, 37666
and intensive care and other specialty units;37667

       (2) Rates charged for nursing care, if the hospital charges 37668
separately for nursing care;37669

       (3) The usual and customary charges, stated separately for 37670
inpatients and outpatients if different charges are imposed, for 37671
any of the following services provided by the hospital:37672

       (a) The thirty most common x-ray and radiological procedures;37673

       (b) The thirty most common laboratory procedures;37674

       (c) Emergency room services;37675

       (d) Operating room services;37676

       (e) Delivery room services;37677

       (f) Physical, occupational, and pulmonary therapy services;37678

       (g) Any other services designated as high volume services by 37679
a rule which shall be adopted by the publicdirector of health 37680
council.37681

        (4) The hospital's billing policies, including whether the 37682
hospital charges interest on an amount not paid in full by any 37683
person or government entity and the interest rate charged;37684

        (5) Whether or not the charges listed include fees for the 37685
services of hospital-based anesthesiologists, radiologists, 37686
pathologists, and emergency room physicians and, if a charge does 37687
not include such fees, how such fee information can be obtained.37688

       (C) Every hospital shall do all of the following with the 37689
price information list required by this section:37690

       (1) At the time of admission, or as soon as practical 37691
thereafter, inform each patient of the availability of the list 37692
and on request provide the patient with a free copy of the list;37693

       (2) On request, provide a paper copy of the list to any 37694
person or governmental agency, subject to payment of a reasonable 37695
fee for copying and processing;37696

       (3) Make the list available free of charge on the hospital's 37697
internet web site.37698

       Sec. 3729.01.  As used in this chapter:37699

       (A) "Camp operator" means the operator of a recreational 37700
vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, or temporary 37701
park-camp.37702

       (B) "Campsite user" means a person who enters into a campsite 37703
use agreement with a camp operator for the use of a campsite at a 37704
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, or 37705
temporary park-camp.37706

       (C) "Combined park-camp" means any tract of land upon which a 37707
combination of five or more self-contained recreational vehicles 37708
or portable camping units are placed and includes any roadway, 37709
building, structure, vehicle, or enclosure used or intended for 37710
use as part of the park facilities. A tract of land that is 37711
subdivided for lease or other contract of the individual lots is a 37712
combined park-camp if a combination of five or more recreational 37713
vehicles or portable camping units are placed on it for 37714
recreation, vacation, or business purposes.37715

       "Combined park-camp" does not include any tract of land used 37716
solely as a temporary park-camp or solely as a manufactured home 37717
park.37718

       (D) "Dependent recreational vehicle" means a recreational 37719
vehicle other than a self-contained recreational vehicle. 37720
"Dependent recreational vehicle" includes a park model.37721

       (E) "Development" means any artificial change to improved or 37722
unimproved real estate, including, without limitation, buildings 37723
or structures, dredging, filling, grading, paving, excavation or 37724
drilling operations, or storage of equipment or materials, and the 37725
construction, expansion, or substantial alteration of a 37726
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined park-camp, 37727
for which plan review is required under division (A) of section 37728
3729.03 of the Revised Code. "Development" does not include the 37729
building, construction, erection, or manufacture of any building 37730
to which section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable.37731

       (F) "Director of health" means the director of health or the 37732
director's authorized representative.37733

       (G) "Flood" or "flooding" means either of the following:37734

       (1) A general and temporary condition of partial or complete 37735
inundation of normally dry land areas from any of the following:37736

       (a) The overflow of inland or tidal waters;37737

       (b) The unusual and rapid accumulation or runoff of surface 37738
waters from any source;37739

       (c) Mudslides that are proximately caused by flooding as 37740
defined in division (G)(1)(b) of this section and that are akin to 37741
a river of liquid and flowing mud on the surface of normally dry 37742
land areas, as when earth is carried by a current of water and 37743
deposited along the path of the current.37744

       (2) The collapse or subsidence of land along the shore of a 37745
lake or other body of water as a result of erosion or undermining 37746
that is caused by waves or currents of water exceeding anticipated 37747
cyclical levels or that is suddenly caused by an unusually high 37748
water level in a natural body of water, and that is accompanied by 37749
a severe storm, by an unanticipated force of nature, such as a 37750
flash flood, by an abnormal tidal surge, or by some similarly 37751
unusual and unforeseeable event, that results in flooding as 37752
defined in division (G)(1)(a) of this section.37753

       (H) "Flood plain" means the area adjoining any river, stream, 37754
watercourse, or lake that has been or may be covered by flood 37755
water.37756

       (I) "Licensor" means either the board of health of a city or 37757
general health district, or the authority having the duties of a 37758
board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of 37759
the Revised Code, or the director of health, when required under 37760
division (B) of section 3729.06 of the Revised Code. "Licensor" 37761
also means an authorized representative of any of those entities 37762
or of the director.37763

       (J) "Manufactured home park" has the same meaning as in 37764
section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code.37765

       (K) "One-hundred-year flood" means a flood having a one per 37766
cent chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given year.37767

       (L) "One-hundred-year flood plain" means that portion of a 37768
flood plain inundated by a one-hundred-year flood.37769

       (M) "Operator" means the person who has responsible charge of 37770
a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, 37771
or temporary park-camp and who is licensed under this chapter.37772

       (N) "Park model" means a recreational vehicle that meets the 37773
American national standard institute standard A119.5(1988) for 37774
park trailers, is built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer 37775
area of not more than four hundred square feet when set up, is 37776
designed for seasonal or temporary living quarters, and may be 37777
connected to utilities necessary for operation of installed 37778
features and appliances.37779

       (O) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 37780
Revised Code and also includes this state, any political 37781
subdivision of this state, and any other state or local body of 37782
this state.37783

       (P) "Portable camping units" means dependent recreational 37784
vehicles, tents, portable sleeping equipment, and similar camping 37785
equipment used for travel, recreation, vacation, or business 37786
purposes.37787

       (Q) "Recreation camp" means any tract of land upon which five 37788
or more portable camping units are placed and includes any 37789
roadway, building, structure, vehicle, or enclosure used or 37790
intended for use as a part of the facilities of the camp. A tract 37791
of land that is subdivided for lease or other contract of the 37792
individual lots is a recreation camp if five or more portable 37793
camping units are placed on it for recreation, vacation, or 37794
business purposes.37795

       "Recreation camp" does not include any tract of land used 37796
solely for the storage or display for sale of dependent 37797
recreational vehicles, solely as a temporary park-camp, or solely 37798
as a manufactured home park.37799

       (R) "Recreational vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 37800
4501.01 of the Revised Code.37801

       (S) "Recreational vehicle park" means any tract of land used 37802
for parking five or more self-contained recreational vehicles and 37803
includes any roadway, building, structure, vehicle, or enclosure 37804
used or intended for use as part of the park facilities and any 37805
tract of land that is subdivided for lease or other contract of 37806
the individual lots for the express or implied purpose of placing 37807
self-contained recreational vehicles for recreation, vacation, or 37808
business purposes.37809

       "Recreational vehicle park" does not include any tract of 37810
land used solely for the storage or display for sale of 37811
self-contained recreational vehicles, solely as a temporary 37812
park-camp, or solely as a manufactured home park.37813

       (T) "Self-contained recreational vehicle" means a 37814
recreational vehicle that can operate independent of connections 37815
to sewer and water and has plumbing fixtures or appliances all of 37816
which are connected to sewage holding tanks located within the 37817
vehicle. "Self-contained recreational vehicle" includes a park 37818
model.37819

       (U) "Substantially alter" means a change in the layout or 37820
design of a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined 37821
park-camp, or temporary park-camp, including, without limitation, 37822
the movement of utilities or changes in established streets, lots, 37823
or sites or in other facilities.37824

       (V) "Temporary park-camp" means any tract of land used for a 37825
period not to exceed a total of twenty-one days per calendar year 37826
for the purpose of parking five or more recreational vehicles, 37827
dependent recreational vehicles, or portable camping units, or any 37828
combination thereof, for one or more periods of time that do not 37829
exceed seven consecutive days or parts thereof.37830

       (W) "Tract" means a contiguous area of land that consists of 37831
one or more parcels, lots, or sites that have been separately 37832
surveyed regardless of whether the individual parcels, lots, or 37833
sites have been recorded and regardless of whether the one or more 37834
parcels, lots, or sites are under common or different ownership.37835

       Sec. 3729.02.  (A) The publicdirector of health council, 37836
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules of 37837
uniform application throughout the state governing the review of 37838
plans and issuance of licenses for and the location, layout, 37839
construction, drainage, sanitation, safety, and operation of 37840
recreational vehicle parks, recreation camps, and combined 37841
park-camps. The rules shall not apply to the construction, 37842
erection, or manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 37843
of the Revised Code is applicable.37844

       (B) The public health councildirector, subject to Chapter 37845
119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules of uniform application 37846
throughout the state governing the review of plans and issuance of 37847
licenses for and the layout, sanitation, safety, and operation of 37848
temporary park-camps. The rules shall not apply to the 37849
construction, erection, or manufacture of any building to which 37850
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable.37851

       Sec. 3729.03.  (A) No person shall cause development to occur 37852
within any portion of a recreational vehicle park, recreation 37853
camp, or combined park-camp until the plans for the development 37854
have been submitted to and reviewed and approved by the director 37855
of health. This division does not require that plans be submitted 37856
to the director for approval for the replacement of recreational 37857
vehicles or portable camping units on previously approved sites in 37858
a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined 37859
park-camp when no development is to occur in connection with the 37860
replacement. Within thirty days after receipt of the plans, all 37861
supporting documents and materials required to complete the 37862
review, and the applicable plan review fee established under 37863
division (D) of this section, the director shall approve or 37864
disapprove the plans.37865

       (B) Any person aggrieved by the director's disapproval of a 37866
set of plans under division (A) of this section may request a 37867
hearing on the matter within thirty days after receipt of the 37868
director's notice of the disapproval. The hearing shall be held in 37869
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Thereafter, the 37870
disapproval may be appealed in the manner provided in section 37871
119.12 of the Revised Code.37872

       (C) The director shall establish a system by which 37873
development occurring within a recreational vehicle park, 37874
recreation camp, or combined park-camp is inspected or verified in 37875
accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of section 37876
3729.02 of the Revised Code to ensure that the development 37877
complies with the plans approved under division (A) of this 37878
section.37879

       (D) The public health councildirector shall establish fees 37880
for reviewing plans under division (A) of this section and 37881
conducting inspections under division (C) of this section.37882

       (E) The director shall charge the appropriate fees 37883
established under division (D) of this section for reviewing plans 37884
under division (A) of this section and conducting inspections 37885
under division (C) of this section. All such plan review and 37886
inspection fees received by the director shall be transmitted to 37887
the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the general 37888
operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. 37889
Moneys so credited to the fund shall be used only for the purpose 37890
of administering and enforcing this chapter and rules adopted 37891
under it.37892

       (F) Plan approvals issued under this section do not 37893
constitute an exemption from the land use and building 37894
requirements of the political subdivision in which the 37895
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, or combined park-camp 37896
is or is to be located.37897

       Sec. 3729.04.  (A) No person shall cause development to occur 37898
within any portion of a recreational vehicle park, recreation 37899
camp, combined park-camp, or temporary park-camp that is located 37900
within a one-hundred-year flood plain in a municipal corporation 37901
unless the person first obtains a permit therefor from the 37902
municipal corporation in accordance with the flood plain 37903
management ordinance of the municipal corporation.37904

       (B) No person shall cause development to occur within any 37905
portion of a recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined 37906
park-camp, or temporary park-camp that is located within a 37907
one-hundred-year flood plain in an unincorporated area unless the 37908
person first obtains a permit therefor from the board of county 37909
commissioners of the county in which the development is to occur 37910
in accordance with the flood plain management resolution of the 37911
county adopted under section 307.37 of the Revised Code.37912

       (C) If development for which a permit is required under 37913
division (A) or (B) of this section is to occur on a site where a 37914
recreational vehicle or portable camping unit is or is to be 37915
located, the owner of the recreational vehicle or portable camping 37916
unit and the operator of the recreational vehicle park, recreation 37917
camp, or combined park-camp shall jointly obtain the permit. Each 37918
of the persons to whom a permit is jointly issued is responsible 37919
for compliance with the provisions of the approved permit that are 37920
applicable to that person.37921

       If development for which a permit is required under division 37922
(A) or (B) of this section is to occur within a temporary 37923
park-camp on a site where a recreational vehicle or portable 37924
camping unit is or is to be located, the owner of the temporary 37925
park-camp shall obtain the permit.37926

       (D) Fees established by a municipal corporation or county for 37927
the issuance of permits under division (A) or (B) of this section 37928
are not subject to regulation by the publicdirector of health37929
council.37930

       Sec. 3729.07.  The licensor of a recreational vehicle park, 37931
recreation camp, or combined park-camp may charge a fee for an 37932
annual license to operate such a park, camp, or park-camp. In the 37933
case of a temporary park-camp, the licensor may charge a fee for a 37934
license to operate the temporary park-camp for the period 37935
specified in division (A) of section 3729.05 of the Revised Code. 37936
The fees for both types of licenses shall be determined in 37937
accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code and shall 37938
include the cost of licensing and all inspections.37939

       Except for the fee for a temporary park-camp license, the fee 37940
also shall include any additional amount determined by rule of the 37941
publicdirector of health council, which shall be collected and 37942
transmitted by the board of health to the director of health37943
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code and used only for 37944
the purpose of administering and enforcing this chapter and rules 37945
adopted under it. The portion of any fee retained by the board of 37946
health shall be paid into a special fund and used only for the 37947
purpose of administering and enforcing this chapter and rules 37948
adopted under it.37949

       Sec. 3729.08.  The licensor of the health district in which a 37950
recreational vehicle park, recreation camp, combined park-camp, or 37951
temporary park-camp is or is to be located, in accordance with 37952
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may refuse to grant, may 37953
suspend, or may revoke any license granted to any person for 37954
failure to comply with this chapter or with any rule adopted by 37955
the publicdirector of health council under section 3729.02 of the 37956
Revised Code.37957

       Sec. 3730.10.  (A) Not later than ninety days after the 37958
effective date of this section, the publicThe director of health 37959
council shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 37960
Revised Code as necessary for the implementation and enforcement 37961
of this chapter. The rules shall include all of the following:37962

       (1) Safety and sanitation standards and procedures to be 37963
followed to prevent the transmission of infectious diseases during 37964
the performance of tattooing and body piercing procedures;37965

       (2) Standards and procedures to be followed for appropriate 37966
disinfection and sterilization of all invasive equipment or parts 37967
of equipment used in tattooing procedures, body piercing 37968
procedures, and ear piercing procedures performed with an ear 37969
piercing gun;37970

       (3) Procedures for suspending and revoking approvals under 37971
section 3730.05 of the Revised Code.37972

       (B) The rules adopted under division (A)(1) of this section 37973
shall establish universal blood and body fluid precautions to be 37974
used by any individual who performs tattooing or body piercing 37975
procedures. The precautions shall include all of the following:37976

       (1) The appropriate use of hand washing;37977

       (2) The handling and disposal of all needles and other sharp 37978
instruments used in tattooing or body piercing procedures;37979

       (3) The wearing and disposal of gloves and other protective 37980
garments and devices.37981

       (C) The rules adopted under division (A) of this section may 37982
include standards and procedures to be followed by a business that 37983
offers tattooing or body piercing services to ensure that the 37984
individuals who perform tattooing or body piercing procedures for 37985
the business are adequately trained to perform the procedures 37986
properly.37987

       Sec. 3733.41.  As used in sections 3733.41 to 3733.49 of the 37988
Revised Code:37989

       (A) "Agricultural labor camp" means one or more buildings or 37990
structures, trailers, tents, or vehicles, together with any land 37991
appertaining thereto, established, operated, or used as temporary 37992
living quarters for two or more families or five or more persons 37993
intending to engage in or engaged in agriculture or related food 37994
processing, whether occupancy is by rent, lease, or mutual 37995
agreement. "Agricultural labor camp" does not include a hotel or 37996
motel, or a manufactured home park regulated pursuant to section 37997
3733.01sections 4781.26 to 4781.52 of the Revised Code, and rules 37998
adopted thereunder.37999

       (B) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 38000
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 38001
board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of 38002
the Revised Code or an authorized representative of the board of 38003
health.38004

       (C) "Director" means the director of the department of health 38005
or the authorized representative of the director of health.38006

       (D) "Licensor" means the director of health.38007

       (E) "Person" means the state, any political subdivision, 38008
public or private corporation, partnership, association, trust, 38009
individual, or other entity.38010

       (F) "Public health council" means the public health council 38011
as created by section 3701.33 of the Revised Code.38012

       Sec. 3733.42.  The publicdirector of health council, subject 38013
to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code, shall adopt 38014
rules having a uniform application throughout the state, governing 38015
the issuance of licenses, location, layout, construction, approval 38016
of plans, sanitation, safety, operation, use, and maintenance of 38017
agricultural labor camps. The rules shall establish minimum 38018
standards of habitability with which a licensee shall comply in 38019
operating an agricultural labor camp. The rules shall establish, 38020
beyond minimum standards of habitability, additional standards of 38021
habitability for those camps and shall establish priorities for 38022
those additional standards with which a licensee may voluntary38023
voluntarily comply.38024

       In addition to meeting the requirements of section 119.03 of 38025
the Revised Code, the director of health shall mail a notice of 38026
the date, time, and place of any hearing on the adoption, 38027
amendment, or rescission of such rules and the full text of the 38028
proposed rule, amendment, or rule to be rescinded, at least thirty 38029
days prior to the hearing date, to all persons currently 38030
authorized or licensed to operate camps by the department of 38031
health, or authorized or licensed to operate camps in the previous 38032
calendar year.38033

       Sec. 3734.01.  As used in this chapter:38034

       (A) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 38035
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 38036
board of health in any city as authorized by section 3709.05 of 38037
the Revised Code.38038

       (B) "Director" means the director of environmental 38039
protection.38040

       (C) "Health district" means a city or general health district 38041
as created by or under authority of Chapter 3709. of the Revised 38042
Code.38043

       (D) "Agency" means the environmental protection agency.38044

       (E) "Solid wastes" means such unwanted residual solid or 38045
semisolid material as results from industrial, commercial, 38046
agricultural, and community operations, excluding earth or 38047
material from construction, mining, or demolition operations, or 38048
other waste materials of the type that normally would be included 38049
in demolition debris, nontoxic fly ash and bottom ash, including 38050
at least ash that results from the combustion of coal and ash that 38051
results from the combustion of coal in combination with scrap 38052
tires where scrap tires comprise not more than fifty per cent of 38053
heat input in any month, spent nontoxic foundry sand, and slag and 38054
other substances that are not harmful or inimical to public 38055
health, and includes, but is not limited to, garbage, scrap tires, 38056
combustible and noncombustible material, street dirt, and debris. 38057
"Solid wastes" does not include any material that is an infectious 38058
waste or a hazardous waste.38059

       (F) "Disposal" means the discharge, deposit, injection, 38060
dumping, spilling, leaking, emitting, or placing of any solid 38061
wastes or hazardous waste into or on any land or ground or surface 38062
water or into the air, except if the disposition or placement 38063
constitutes storage or treatment or, if the solid wastes consist 38064
of scrap tires, the disposition or placement constitutes a 38065
beneficial use or occurs at a scrap tire recovery facility 38066
licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code.38067

       (G) "Person" includes the state, any political subdivision 38068
and other state or local body, the United States and any agency or 38069
instrumentality thereof, and any legal entity defined as a person 38070
under section 1.59 of the Revised Code.38071

       (H) "Open burning" means the burning of solid wastes in an 38072
open area or burning of solid wastes in a type of chamber or 38073
vessel that is not approved or authorized in rules adopted by the 38074
director under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code or, if the 38075
solid wastes consist of scrap tires, in rules adopted under 38076
division (V) of this section or section 3734.73 of the Revised 38077
Code, or the burning of treated or untreated infectious wastes in 38078
an open area or in a type of chamber or vessel that is not 38079
approved in rules adopted by the director under section 3734.021 38080
of the Revised Code.38081

       (I) "Open dumping" means the depositing of solid wastes into 38082
a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the ground at a 38083
site that is not licensed as a solid waste facility under section 38084
3734.05 of the Revised Code or, if the solid wastes consist of 38085
scrap tires, as a scrap tire collection, storage, monocell, 38086
monofill, or recovery facility under section 3734.81 of the 38087
Revised Code; the depositing of solid wastes that consist of scrap 38088
tires onto the surface of the ground at a site or in a manner not 38089
specifically identified in divisions (C)(2) to (5), (7), or (10) 38090
of section 3734.85 of the Revised Code; the depositing of 38091
untreated infectious wastes into a body or stream of water or onto 38092
the surface of the ground; or the depositing of treated infectious 38093
wastes into a body or stream of water or onto the surface of the 38094
ground at a site that is not licensed as a solid waste facility 38095
under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.38096

       (J) "Hazardous waste" means any waste or combination of 38097
wastes in solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous form that 38098
in the determination of the director, because of its quantity, 38099
concentration, or physical or chemical characteristics, may do 38100
either of the following:38101

       (1) Cause or significantly contribute to an increase in 38102
mortality or an increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating 38103
reversible illness;38104

       (2) Pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human 38105
health or safety or to the environment when improperly stored, 38106
treated, transported, disposed of, or otherwise managed.38107

       "Hazardous waste" includes any substance identified by 38108
regulation as hazardous waste under the "Resource Conservation and 38109
Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as 38110
amended, and does not include any substance that is subject to the 38111
"Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as 38112
amended.38113

       (K) "Treat" or "treatment," when used in connection with 38114
hazardous waste, means any method, technique, or process designed 38115
to change the physical, chemical, or biological characteristics or 38116
composition of any hazardous waste; to neutralize the waste; to 38117
recover energy or material resources from the waste; to render the 38118
waste nonhazardous or less hazardous, safer to transport, store, 38119
or dispose of, or amenable for recovery, storage, further 38120
treatment, or disposal; or to reduce the volume of the waste. When 38121
used in connection with infectious wastes, "treat" or "treatment" 38122
means any method, technique, or process designed to render the 38123
wastes noninfectious, including, without limitation, steam 38124
sterilization and incineration, or, in the instance of wastes 38125
identified in division (R)(7) of this section, to substantially 38126
reduce or eliminate the potential for the wastes to cause 38127
lacerations or puncture wounds.38128

       (L) "Manifest" means the form used for identifying the 38129
quantity, composition, origin, routing, and destination of 38130
hazardous waste during its transportation from the point of 38131
generation to the point of disposal, treatment, or storage.38132

       (M) "Storage," when used in connection with hazardous waste, 38133
means the holding of hazardous waste for a temporary period in 38134
such a manner that it remains retrievable and substantially 38135
unchanged physically and chemically and, at the end of the period, 38136
is treated; disposed of; stored elsewhere; or reused, recycled, or 38137
reclaimed in a beneficial manner. When used in connection with 38138
solid wastes that consist of scrap tires, "storage" means the 38139
holding of scrap tires for a temporary period in such a manner 38140
that they remain retrievable and, at the end of that period, are 38141
beneficially used; stored elsewhere; placed in a scrap tire 38142
monocell or monofill facility licensed under section 3734.81 of 38143
the Revised Code; processed at a scrap tire recovery facility 38144
licensed under that section or a solid waste incineration or 38145
energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; 38146
or transported to a scrap tire monocell, monofill, or recovery 38147
facility, any other solid waste facility authorized to dispose of 38148
scrap tires, or a facility that will beneficially use the scrap 38149
tires, that is located in another state and is operating in 38150
compliance with the laws of the state in which the facility is 38151
located.38152

       (N) "Facility" means any site, location, tract of land, 38153
installation, or building used for incineration, composting, 38154
sanitary landfilling, or other methods of disposal of solid wastes 38155
or, if the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, for the 38156
collection, storage, or processing of the solid wastes; for the 38157
transfer of solid wastes; for the treatment of infectious wastes; 38158
or for the storage, treatment, or disposal of hazardous waste.38159

       (O) "Closure" means the time at which a hazardous waste 38160
facility will no longer accept hazardous waste for treatment, 38161
storage, or disposal, the time at which a solid waste facility 38162
will no longer accept solid wastes for transfer or disposal or, if 38163
the solid wastes consist of scrap tires, for storage or 38164
processing, or the effective date of an order revoking the permit 38165
for a hazardous waste facility or the registration certificate, 38166
permit, or license for a solid waste facility, as applicable. 38167
"Closure" includes measures performed to protect public health or 38168
safety, to prevent air or water pollution, or to make the facility 38169
suitable for other uses, if any, including, but not limited to, 38170
the removal of processing residues resulting from solid wastes 38171
that consist of scrap tires; the establishment and maintenance of 38172
a suitable cover of soil and vegetation over cells in which 38173
hazardous waste or solid wastes are buried; minimization of 38174
erosion, the infiltration of surface water into such cells, the 38175
production of leachate, and the accumulation and runoff of 38176
contaminated surface water; the final construction of facilities 38177
for the collection and treatment of leachate and contaminated 38178
surface water runoff, except as otherwise provided in this 38179
division; the final construction of air and water quality 38180
monitoring facilities, except as otherwise provided in this 38181
division; the final construction of methane gas extraction and 38182
treatment systems; or the removal and proper disposal of hazardous 38183
waste or solid wastes from a facility when necessary to protect 38184
public health or safety or to abate or prevent air or water 38185
pollution. With regard to a solid waste facility that is a scrap 38186
tire facility, "closure" includes the final construction of 38187
facilities for the collection and treatment of leachate and 38188
contaminated surface water runoff and the final construction of 38189
air and water quality monitoring facilities only if those actions 38190
are determined to be necessary.38191

       (P) "Premises" means either of the following:38192

       (1) Geographically contiguous property owned by a generator;38193

       (2) Noncontiguous property that is owned by a generator and 38194
connected by a right-of-way that the generator controls and to 38195
which the public does not have access. Two or more pieces of 38196
property that are geographically contiguous and divided by public 38197
or private right-of-way or rights-of-way are a single premises.38198

       (Q) "Post-closure" means that period of time following 38199
closure during which a hazardous waste facility is required to be 38200
monitored and maintained under this chapter and rules adopted 38201
under it, including, without limitation, operation and maintenance 38202
of methane gas extraction and treatment systems, or the period of 38203
time after closure during which a scrap tire monocell or monofill 38204
facility licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code is 38205
required to be monitored and maintained under this chapter and 38206
rules adopted under it.38207

       (R) "Infectious wastes" includes all of the following 38208
substances or categories of substances:38209

       (1) Cultures and stocks of infectious agents and associated 38210
biologicals, including, without limitation, specimen cultures, 38211
cultures and stocks of infectious agents, wastes from production 38212
of biologicals, and discarded live and attenuated vaccines;38213

       (2) Laboratory wastes that were, or are likely to have been, 38214
in contact with infectious agents that may present a substantial 38215
threat to public health if improperly managed;38216

       (3) Pathological wastes, including, without limitation, human 38217
and animal tissues, organs, and body parts, and body fluids and 38218
excreta that are contaminated with or are likely to be 38219
contaminated with infectious agents, removed or obtained during 38220
surgery or autopsy or for diagnostic evaluation, provided that, 38221
with regard to pathological wastes from animals, the animals have 38222
or are likely to have been exposed to a zoonotic or infectious 38223
agent;38224

       (4) Waste materials from the rooms of humans, or the 38225
enclosures of animals, that have been isolated because of 38226
diagnosed communicable disease that are likely to transmit 38227
infectious agents. Such waste materials from the rooms of humans 38228
do not include any wastes of patients who have been placed on 38229
blood and body fluid precautions under the universal precaution 38230
system established by the centers for disease control in the 38231
public health service of the United States department of health 38232
and human services, except to the extent specific wastes generated 38233
under the universal precautions system have been identified as 38234
infectious wastes by rules adopted under division (R)(8) of this 38235
section.38236

       (5) Human and animal blood specimens and blood products that 38237
are being disposed of, provided that, with regard to blood 38238
specimens and blood products from animals, the animals were or are 38239
likely to have been exposed to a zoonotic or infectious agent. 38240
"Blood products" does not include patient care waste such as 38241
bandages or disposable gowns that are lightly soiled with blood or 38242
other body fluids unless those wastes are soiled to the extent 38243
that the generator of the wastes determines that they should be 38244
managed as infectious wastes.38245

       (6) Contaminated carcasses, body parts, and bedding of 38246
animals that were intentionally exposed to infectious agents from 38247
zoonotic or human diseases during research, production of 38248
biologicals, or testing of pharmaceuticals, and carcasses and 38249
bedding of animals otherwise infected by zoonotic or infectious 38250
agents that may present a substantial threat to public health if 38251
improperly managed;38252

       (7) Sharp wastes used in the treatment, diagnosis, or 38253
inoculation of human beings or animals or that have, or are likely 38254
to have, come in contact with infectious agents in medical, 38255
research, or industrial laboratories, including, without 38256
limitation, hypodermic needles and syringes, scalpel blades, and 38257
glass articles that have been broken;38258

       (8) Any other waste materials generated in the diagnosis, 38259
treatment, or immunization of human beings or animals, in research 38260
pertaining thereto, or in the production or testing of 38261
biologicals, that the publicdirector of health council created in 38262
section 3701.33 of the Revised Code, by rules adopted in 38263
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, identifies as 38264
infectious wastes after determining that the wastes present a 38265
substantial threat to human health when improperly managed because 38266
they are contaminated with, or are likely to be contaminated with, 38267
infectious agents.38268

       (S) "Infectious agent" means a type of microorganism, 38269
helminth, or virus that causes, or significantly contributes to 38270
the cause of, increased morbidity or mortality of human beings.38271

       (T) "Zoonotic agent" means a type of microorganism, helminth, 38272
or virus that causes disease in vertebrate animals and that is 38273
transmissible to human beings and causes or significantly 38274
contributes to the cause of increased morbidity or mortality of 38275
human beings.38276

       (U) "Solid waste transfer facility" means any site, location, 38277
tract of land, installation, or building that is used or intended 38278
to be used primarily for the purpose of transferring solid wastes 38279
that were generated off the premises of the facility from vehicles 38280
or containers into other vehicles for transportation to a solid 38281
waste disposal facility. "Solid waste transfer facility" does not 38282
include any facility that consists solely of portable containers 38283
that have an aggregate volume of fifty cubic yards or less nor any 38284
facility where legitimate recycling activities are conducted.38285

       (V) "Beneficially use" means to use a scrap tire in a manner 38286
that results in a commodity for sale or exchange or in any other 38287
manner authorized as a beneficial use in rules adopted by the 38288
director in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.38289

       (W) "Commercial car," "commercial tractor," "farm machinery," 38290
"motor bus," "vehicles," "motor vehicle," and "semitrailer" have 38291
the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.38292

       (X) "Construction equipment" means road rollers, traction 38293
engines, power shovels, power cranes, and other equipment used in 38294
construction work, or in mining or producing or processing 38295
aggregates, and not designed for or used in general highway 38296
transportation.38297

       (Y) "Motor vehicle salvage dealer" has the same meaning as in 38298
section 4738.01 of the Revised Code.38299

       (Z) "Scrap tire" means an unwanted or discarded tire.38300

       (AA) "Scrap tire collection facility" means any facility that 38301
meets all of the following qualifications:38302

       (1) The facility is used for the receipt and storage of whole 38303
scrap tires from the public prior to their transportation to a 38304
scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or recovery facility 38305
licensed under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; a solid waste 38306
incineration or energy recovery facility subject to regulation 38307
under this chapter; a premises within the state where the scrap 38308
tires will be beneficially used; or a scrap tire storage, 38309
monocell, monofill, or recovery facility, any other solid waste 38310
disposal facility authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a 38311
facility that will beneficially use the scrap tires, that is 38312
located in another state, and that is operating in compliance with 38313
the laws of the state in which the facility is located.38314

       (2) The facility exclusively stores scrap tires in portable 38315
containers.38316

       (3) The aggregate storage of the portable containers in which 38317
the scrap tires are stored does not exceed five thousand cubic 38318
feet.38319

       (BB) "Scrap tire monocell facility" means an individual site 38320
within a solid waste landfill that is used exclusively for the 38321
environmentally sound storage or disposal of whole scrap tires or 38322
scrap tires that have been shredded, chipped, or otherwise 38323
mechanically processed.38324

       (CC) "Scrap tire monofill facility" means an engineered 38325
facility used or intended to be used exclusively for the storage 38326
or disposal of scrap tires, including at least facilities for the 38327
submergence of whole scrap tires in a body of water.38328

       (DD) "Scrap tire recovery facility" means any facility, or 38329
portion thereof, for the processing of scrap tires for the purpose 38330
of extracting or producing usable products, materials, or energy 38331
from the scrap tires through a controlled combustion process, 38332
mechanical process, or chemical process. "Scrap tire recovery 38333
facility" includes any facility that uses the controlled 38334
combustion of scrap tires in a manufacturing process to produce 38335
process heat or steam or any facility that produces usable heat or 38336
electric power through the controlled combustion of scrap tires in 38337
combination with another fuel, but does not include any solid 38338
waste incineration or energy recovery facility that is designed, 38339
constructed, and used for the primary purpose of incinerating 38340
mixed municipal solid wastes and that burns scrap tires in 38341
conjunction with mixed municipal solid wastes, or any tire 38342
retreading business, tire manufacturing finishing center, or tire 38343
adjustment center having on the premises of the business a single, 38344
covered scrap tire storage area at which not more than four 38345
thousand scrap tires are stored.38346

       (EE) "Scrap tire storage facility" means any facility where 38347
whole scrap tires are stored prior to their transportation to a 38348
scrap tire monocell, monofill, or recovery facility licensed under 38349
section 3734.81 of the Revised Code; a solid waste incineration or 38350
energy recovery facility subject to regulation under this chapter; 38351
a premises within the state where the scrap tires will be 38352
beneficially used; or a scrap tire storage, monocell, monofill, or 38353
recovery facility, any other solid waste disposal facility 38354
authorized to dispose of scrap tires, or a facility that will 38355
beneficially use the scrap tires, that is located in another 38356
state, and that is operating in compliance with the laws of the 38357
state in which the facility is located.38358

       (FF) "Used oil" means any oil that has been refined from 38359
crude oil, or any synthetic oil, that has been used and, as a 38360
result of that use, is contaminated by physical or chemical 38361
impurities. "Used oil" includes only those substances identified 38362
as used oil by the United States environmental protection agency 38363
under the "Used Oil Recycling Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2055, 42 38364
U.S.C.A. 6901a, as amended.38365

       (GG) "Accumulated speculatively" has the same meaning as in 38366
rules adopted by the director under section 3734.12 of the Revised 38367
Code.38368

       Sec. 3734.131.  (A)(1) Except as provided in divisions (D)(1) 38369
and (2) of this section, no person shall transport any solid 38370
wastes from outside this state to a solid waste facility in this 38371
state unless that person has first irrevocably consented in 38372
writing to the jurisdiction of the courts of this state and 38373
service of process in this state, including, without limitation, 38374
summonses and subpoenas, for any civil or criminal proceeding 38375
arising out of or relating to the wastes that are shipped to a 38376
facility in this state.38377

       (2) The original of the consent-to-jurisdiction document 38378
shall be legible and shall be filed with the director of 38379
environmental protection on a form provided by the director. A 38380
legible copy of the completed document shall be filed with the 38381
owner or operator of each solid waste facility to which the wastes 38382
are transported. A consent-to-jurisdiction document applies only 38383
to shipments into this state of wastes described in division 38384
(A)(1) of this section.38385

       (3) All consent-to-jurisdiction documents required under 38386
division (A)(1) or (3) of this section shall be refiled during the 38387
month of December, 1995, and during the month of December of every 38388
fourth year thereafter. Except as provided in division (D)(1) of 38389
this section, after December 31, 1995, or after the thirty-first 38390
day of December of every fourth year thereafter, whichever is 38391
applicable, no person shall continue to transport any solid wastes 38392
from outside this state to a solid waste facility in this state 38393
unless the person refiles with the director and the owner or 38394
operator of each facility to which the wastes are transported 38395
consent-to-jurisdiction documents, in the manner prescribed in 38396
division (A)(2) of this section, during the month of December next 38397
preceding the period for which the refiled document is required.38398

       (4) If the address of a person changes from that listed on 38399
the current consent-to-jurisdiction document filed under division 38400
(A)(1) or (3) of this section, the person shall file amended 38401
consent-to-jurisdiction documents containing the new address with 38402
the director and the owner or operator of each facility to which 38403
the wastes are transported.38404

       (5)(a) Except as provided in division (D)(1) of this section, 38405
no person identified in divisions (D)(2)(a) to (d) of this section 38406
shall transport any solid wastes from outside this state to a 38407
solid waste facility in this state unless the person has first 38408
filed a notification and authorization document naming the 38409
person's agent who is authorized to accept service of process in 38410
this state, including, without limitation, summonses and 38411
subpoenas, for any civil or criminal proceeding arising out of or 38412
relating to the wastes that are shipped to a facility in this 38413
state.38414

       The original of the notification and authorization document 38415
shall be legible and shall be filed with the director on a form 38416
provided by the director. A legible copy of the completed document 38417
shall be filed with the owner or operator of each solid waste 38418
facility to which the wastes are transported.38419

       (b) All notification and authorization documents required 38420
under division (A)(5) of this section shall be refiled during the 38421
month of December, 1995, and during the month of December of every 38422
fourth year thereafter. Except as provided in division (D)(1) of 38423
this section, after December 31, 1995, or after the thirty-first 38424
day of December of every fourth year thereafter, whichever is 38425
applicable, no person identified in divisions (D)(2)(a) to (d) of 38426
this section shall continue to transport any solid wastes from 38427
outside this state to a solid waste facility in this state unless 38428
the person refiles with the director and the owner or operator of 38429
each facility to which the wastes are transported notification and 38430
authorization documents, in the manner prescribed in division 38431
(A)(5)(a) of this section, during the month of December next 38432
preceding the period for which the refiled document is required.38433

       (c) If a person's agent or the address of a person's agent 38434
changes from that listed on the current notification and 38435
authorization document filed under division (A)(5)(a) or (b) of 38436
this section, the person shall file amended notification and 38437
authorization documents containing the name and address of the new 38438
agent or the agent's new address with the director and the owner 38439
or operator of each facility to which the wastes are transported.38440

       (B) A person who enters this state pursuant to a summons, 38441
subpoena, or other form of process authorized by this section is 38442
not subject to arrest or the service of process, whether civil or 38443
criminal, in connection with other matters that arose before his 38444
entrance into this state pursuant to the summons, subpoena, or 38445
other form of process authorized by this section.38446

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(1) of this section, 38447
no owner, operator, or employee of a solid waste facility shall 38448
accept for treatment, transfer, storage, or disposal at the 38449
facility any solid wastes from outside the boundaries of this 38450
state unless the facility has received a copy of the 38451
consent-to-jurisdiction document or notification and authorization 38452
document required under this section and applicable to the wastes.38453

       (2) The owner or operator of a solid waste facility shall 38454
keep the consent-to-jurisdiction documents and the notification 38455
and authorization documents filed with him under this section at 38456
the facility in such a location and manner that they are readily 38457
accessible to the director or his authorized representative, and 38458
the board of health having jurisdiction over the facility and its 38459
authorized representative, for the purposes of sections 3734.07 38460
and 3734.10 of the Revised Code.38461

       (D)(1) Divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section do not 38462
apply to the transportation, transfer, or disposal of solid wastes 38463
from residential premises located less than ten miles outside the 38464
boundaries of this state.38465

       (2) Divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section do not apply to 38466
any of the following:38467

       (a) A corporation incorporated under the laws of this state 38468
that has appointed a statutory agent pursuant to section 1701.07 38469
of the Revised Code;38470

       (b) A foreign corporation licensed to transact business in 38471
this state that has appointed a designated agent pursuant to 38472
section 1703.041 of the Revised Code;38473

       (c) A nonresident motor carrier that has designated an agent 38474
pursuant to, as defined in section 4919.774923.01 of the Revised 38475
Code, that is a nonresident;38476

       (d) Any other person who is a resident of this state.38477

       Sec. 3734.15.  (A) No person shall transport hazardous waste 38478
anywhere in this state unless hethe person has first registered 38479
with and obtained a uniform permit from the public utilities 38480
commission in accordance with section 4905.80Chapter 4921. of the 38481
Revised Code.38482

       For the purposes of this section, "registered transporter" 38483
means any person who is registered with and has received a uniform 38484
permit from the public utilities commission pursuant to section 38485
4905.80Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code.38486

       (B) A registered transporter of hazardous waste shall be 38487
responsible for the safe delivery of any hazardous waste that he38488
the registered transporter transports from such time as hethe 38489
registered transporter obtains the waste until hethe registered 38490
transporter delivers it to a treatment, storage, or disposal 38491
facility specified in division (F) of section 3734.02 of the 38492
Revised Code, as recorded on the manifest required in division (B) 38493
of section 3734.12 of the Revised Code. Any registered transporter 38494
who violates this chapter or any rule adopted under the chapter 38495
while transporting hazardous waste shall be liable for any damage 38496
or injury caused by the violation and for the costs of rectifying 38497
the violation and conditions caused by the violation.38498

       (C) No person who generates hazardous waste shall cause the 38499
waste to be transported by any person who is not a registered 38500
transporter. No person shall accept for treatment, storage, or 38501
disposal any hazardous waste from an unregistered transporter. Any 38502
person who is requested to accept such waste for treatment, 38503
storage, or disposal shall notify the director, the board of 38504
health in histhe person's location, and the public utilities 38505
commission of the request.38506

       If a generator causes an unregistered transporter to 38507
transport the hazardous waste, the generator of the waste, the 38508
transporter, and any person who accepts the waste for treatment, 38509
storage, or disposal shall be jointly and severally liable for any 38510
damage or injury caused by the handling of the waste and for the 38511
costs of rectifying their violation and conditions caused by their 38512
violation.38513

       Sec. 3734.51.  There is hereby created within the 38514
environmental protection agency the solid waste management 38515
advisory council consisting of the directors of environmental 38516
protection,and development, and natural resources, or their 38517
designees, as members ex officio, one member of the senate to be 38518
appointed by the president of the senate, one member of the house 38519
of representatives to be appointed by the speaker of the house of 38520
representatives, and fourteen members to be appointed by the 38521
governor with the advice and consent of the senate. Of the 38522
appointed members, one shall be an employee of a health district 38523
whose duties include enforcement of the solid waste provisions of 38524
this chapter, two shall represent the interests of counties, two 38525
shall represent the interests of municipal corporations, two shall 38526
represent the interests of townships, one shall represent the 38527
interests of county solid waste management districts, one shall 38528
represent the interests of joint solid waste management districts, 38529
one shall represent the interests of industrial generators of 38530
solid wastes, one shall be from the private recycling industry, 38531
one shall be from the private solid waste management industry, one 38532
shall be from a statewide environmental advocacy organization, and 38533
one shall represent the public. Within ninety days after June 24, 38534
1988, the governor shall make the initial appointments to the 38535
advisory council. Of those initial appointments, six shall be for 38536
a term ending June 24, 1989, and six shall be for a term ending 38537
June 24, 1990. The governor shall make the initial appointments to 38538
the advisory council of the members representing county and joint 38539
solid waste management districts within ninety days after the 38540
effective date of this amendment. Of the initial appointments of 38541
the members representing solid waste management districts, one 38542
shall be for a term ending June 24, 1993, and one shall be for a 38543
term ending June 24, 1994. Thereafter, termsTerms of office shall 38544
be for two years with each term ending on the same day of the same 38545
month as did the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold 38546
office from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 38547
for which hethe member was appointed. Members may be reappointed. 38548
Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for original 38549
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 38550
prior to the expiration of the term for which histhe member's38551
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 38552
that term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 38553
expiration of histhe member's term or until a period of sixty 38554
days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.38555

       The advisory council shall hold at least four regular 38556
quarterly meetings each year. Special meetings may be held at the 38557
behest of the chairmanchairperson or a majority of the members. 38558
The director of environmental protection shall serve as chairman38559
chairperson of the advisory council. The advisory council annually 38560
shall select from among its members a vice-chairmanchairperson38561
and a secretary to keep a record of its proceedings. A majority 38562
vote of the members of the advisory council is necessary to take 38563
action on any matter.38564

       Serving as an appointed member of the advisory council does 38565
not constitute holding a public office or position of employment 38566
under the laws of this state and does not constitute grounds for 38567
removal of public officers or employees from their offices or 38568
positions of employment. The governor may remove an appointed 38569
member of the advisory council at any time for misfeasance, 38570
nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.38571

       Appointed members of the advisory council shall serve without 38572
compensation for attending council meetings. Members of the 38573
advisory council shall be reimbursed for their actual and 38574
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their duties as 38575
members of the council from moneys appropriated to the 38576
environmental protection agency for administration and enforcement 38577
of the solid waste provisions of this chapter.38578

       The advisory council shall do all of the following:38579

       (A) Advise and assist the director of environmental 38580
protection with preparation of the state solid waste management 38581
plan and periodic revisions to the plan under section 3734.50 of 38582
the Revised Code;38583

       (B) Approve or disapprove the draft state solid waste 38584
management plan and periodic revisions prior to adoption of the 38585
plan under section 3734.50 of the Revised Code;38586

       (C) Annually review implementation of the state solid waste 38587
management plan and the solid waste management plans of county and 38588
joint solid waste management districts approved or ordered to be 38589
implemented under section 3734.521 or 3734.55 of the Revised Code 38590
or amendments to those plans approved or ordered to be implemented 38591
under section 3734.521 or 3734.56 of the Revised Code, and report 38592
its findings to the director.38593

       Sec. 3734.55.  (A) Upon completion of its draft solid waste 38594
management plan under section 3734.54 of the Revised Code, the 38595
solid waste management policy committee of a county or joint solid 38596
waste management district shall send a copy of the draft plan to 38597
the director of environmental protection for preliminary review 38598
and comment. Within forty-five days after receiving the draft 38599
plan, the director shall provide the committee with a written, 38600
nonbinding advisory opinion regarding the draft plan and any 38601
recommended changes to it that the director considers necessary to 38602
effect its approval. After receipt of the director's written 38603
opinion, the committee may make such revisions to the draft plan 38604
based on the director's opinion as it considers appropriate. Upon 38605
receipt of the director's opinion and after making any such 38606
revisions to the draft plan, the committee shall prepare and 38607
publish in at least one newspaper of general circulation within 38608
the county or joint district a public notice that describes the 38609
draft plan, specifies the location where it is available for 38610
review, and establishes a period of thirty days for comments 38611
concerning the draft plan. The committee shall send written notice 38612
of the draft plan to adjacent county and joint districts and shall 38613
make it available for review by those districts, by the board of 38614
county commissioners of each county forming the district, by all 38615
municipal corporations and townships within the county or joint 38616
district, and by the public. The committee also shall send written 38617
notice of the plan to the director and to the fifty industrial, 38618
commercial, or institutional generators of solid wastes within the 38619
district that generate the largest quantities of solid wastes, as 38620
determined by the board, and their local trade associations. The 38621
board shall make good faith efforts to identify those generators 38622
within the district and their local trade associations, but the 38623
nonprovision of notice under this division to a particular 38624
industrial, commercial, or institutional generator or local trade 38625
association does not invalidate the proceedings under this 38626
section. All such written notices shall include the date, time, 38627
and location of the public hearing; the dates when the comment 38628
period begins and ends; and a description of the plan that 38629
includes, without limitation, the proposed amount of the fees to 38630
be levied under the plan pursuant to division (B) of section 38631
3734.57 or division (A) of section 3734.573 of the Revised Code, 38632
if any, and an indication as to whether the provision required to 38633
be included in the plan under division (E)(1) of section 3734.53 38634
of the Revised Code authorizes the board of county commissioners 38635
or directors of the district to establish, or precludes the board 38636
from establishing, facility designations under section 343.014 of 38637
the Revised Code. Within fifteen days after expiration of the 38638
comment period, the committee shall conduct a public hearing 38639
concerning the draft plan and, at least fifteen days before the 38640
hearing, shall publish in at least one newspaper of general 38641
circulation within the county or joint district a notice 38642
containing the time and place of the hearing and the location 38643
where the draft plan is available for review.38644

       (B) After the public hearing, the committee may modify the 38645
draft plan based upon the public's comments and shall adopt or 38646
reject it by a majority vote. Within thirty days after adoption of 38647
the draft plan, the committee shall deliver a copy of it to the 38648
board of county commissioners of each county forming the district 38649
and to the legislative authority of each municipal corporation and 38650
township under the jurisdiction of the district. Within ninety 38651
days after receiving a copy of the draft plan adopted by the 38652
committee, each such board and legislative authority shall approve 38653
or disapprove the draft plan, by ordinance or resolution, and 38654
deliver a copy of the ordinance or resolution to the committee.38655

       The solid waste management policy committee of a county 38656
district or a joint district formed by two or three counties shall 38657
declare the draft plan to be ratified as the solid waste 38658
management plan of the district upon determining that the board of 38659
county commissioners of each county forming the district has 38660
approved the draft plan and that the legislative authorities of a 38661
combination of municipal corporations and townships with a 38662
combined population within the county or joint district comprising 38663
at least sixty per cent of the total population of the district 38664
have approved the draft plan, provided that in the case of a 38665
county district, that combination shall include the municipal 38666
corporation having the largest population within the boundaries of 38667
the district, and provided further that in the case of a joint 38668
district formed by two or three counties, that combination shall 38669
include for each county forming the joint district the municipal 38670
corporation having the largest population within the boundaries of 38671
both the county in which the municipal corporation is located and 38672
the joint district. The solid waste management policy committee of 38673
a joint district formed by four or more counties shall declare the 38674
draft plan to be ratified as the solid waste management plan of 38675
the joint district upon determining that the boards of county 38676
commissioners of a majority of the counties forming the district 38677
have approved the draft plan; that, in each of a majority of the 38678
counties forming the joint district, the draft plan has been 38679
approved by the municipal corporation having the largest 38680
population within the county and the joint district; and that the 38681
legislative authorities of a combination of municipal corporations 38682
and townships with a combined population within the joint district 38683
comprising at least sixty per cent of the total population of the 38684
joint district have approved the draft plan.38685

       For the purposes of this division and division (C)(2) of this 38686
section, only the population of the unincorporated area of a 38687
township shall be considered. For the purpose of determining the 38688
largest municipal corporation within each county under this 38689
division and division (C)(2) of this section, a municipal 38690
corporation that is located in more than one solid waste 38691
management district, but that is under the jurisdiction of one 38692
county or joint solid waste management district in accordance with 38693
division (A) of section 3734.52 of the Revised Code shall be 38694
considered to be within the boundaries of the county in which a 38695
majority of the population of the municipal corporation resides.38696

       (C)(1) Upon ratification of the draft plan under division (B) 38697
of this section, the committee shall submit it to the director for 38698
review and approval for compliance with the requirements of 38699
divisions (A), (B), (D), and (E)(1) of section 3734.53 of the 38700
Revised Code. The director, by order, shall approve or disapprove 38701
the plan within ninety days after its submission. The director 38702
shall include with an order disapproving a plan a statement 38703
outlining the deficiencies in the plan and directing the committee 38704
to submit, within ninety days after issuance of the order, a 38705
revised plan that remedies those deficiencies, except that if the 38706
committee, by resolution, requests an extension of the time for 38707
submission of a revised plan, the director, for good cause shown, 38708
may grant one such extension for a period of not more than sixty 38709
additional days.38710

       (2) Within sixty days after issuance of the order 38711
disapproving its plan, the committee shall prepare a draft revised 38712
plan, adopt a draft revised plan by a majority vote, and deliver a 38713
copy of the draft revised plan to the board of county 38714
commissioners of each county forming the district and to the 38715
legislative authority of each municipal corporation and township 38716
under the jurisdiction of the district. Within twenty-one days 38717
after the delivery of the draft revised plan, each such board and 38718
legislative authority shall approve or disapprove the draft 38719
revised plan, by ordinance or resolution, and deliver a copy of 38720
the ordinance or resolution to the committee. In the case of a 38721
county district or a joint district formed by two or three 38722
counties, the committee shall declare the draft revised plan to be 38723
ratified as the solid waste management plan of the county or joint 38724
district upon determining that the board of county commissioners 38725
of each county forming the district has approved the draft revised 38726
plan and that the legislative authorities of a combination of 38727
municipal corporations and townships with a combined population 38728
within the district comprising at least sixty per cent of the 38729
total population of the district have approved the draft revised 38730
plan, provided that in the case of a county district, that 38731
combination shall include the municipal corporation having the 38732
largest population within the boundaries of the district, and 38733
provided further that in the case of a joint district formed by 38734
two or three counties, that combination shall include for each 38735
county forming the joint district the municipal corporation having 38736
the largest population within the boundaries of both the county in 38737
which the municipal corporation is located and the joint district. 38738
In the case of a joint district formed by four or more counties, 38739
the committee shall declare the draft revised plan to be ratified 38740
as the solid waste management plan of the joint district upon 38741
determining that the boards of county commissioners of a majority 38742
of the counties forming the district have approved the draft 38743
revised plan; that, in each of a majority of the counties forming 38744
the joint district, the draft revised plan has been approved by 38745
the municipal corporation having the largest population within the 38746
county and the joint district; and that the legislative 38747
authorities of a combination of municipal corporations and 38748
townships with a combined population within the joint district 38749
comprising at least sixty per cent of the total population of the 38750
joint district have approved the draft revised plan. Upon 38751
ratification of the draft revised plan, the committee shall submit 38752
it to the director for approval in accordance with division (C)(1) 38753
of this section. The director, by order, shall approve or 38754
disapprove the draft revised plan within thirty days after 38755
receiving it.38756

       (3) Notwithstanding section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the 38757
director may approve or disapprove a plan or revised plan 38758
submitted under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section by issuance 38759
of a final order that is effective upon issuance, without the 38760
necessity to hold any adjudication hearing in connection with the 38761
order and without issuance of a proposed action under section 38762
3745.07 of the Revised Code. In any appeal taken under section 38763
3745.04 of the Revised Code pertaining to the director's 38764
disapproval of the solid waste management plan or revised plan of 38765
a county or joint district, the solid waste management policy 38766
committee of the county or joint district and the director shall 38767
be the parties. Upon a showing by the policy committee that there 38768
is a substantial likelihood that it will prevail on the merits, 38769
the environmental review appeals commission, within thirty days 38770
after filing of the notice of appeal under that section and 38771
pending final determination of the appeal, may grant temporary 38772
relief from the director's order disapproving the district's plan, 38773
including the issuance of appropriate orders to the director to 38774
refrain from acting under division (D) of this section.38775

       (4) After approval of the plan or revised plan by the 38776
director, the board of county commissioners of a county district 38777
or board of directors of a joint district shall implement the plan 38778
in compliance with the implementation schedule contained in the 38779
approved plan.38780

       The committee annually shall review implementation of the 38781
plan approved under this section or section 3734.521 of the 38782
Revised Code and subsequent amended plans approved under section 38783
3734.521 or 3734.56 of the Revised Code and report its findings 38784
and recommendations regarding implementation of the plan to the 38785
board of county commissioners or board of directors of the 38786
district.38787

       (D) If the director finds that a county or joint solid waste 38788
management district has failed to obtain approval of its solid 38789
waste management plan within eighteen months after the applicable 38790
date prescribed for submission of its plan under division (A) of 38791
section 3734.54 of the Revised Code or within twenty-four months 38792
after that date if the date for submission was extended under that 38793
division, the director shall prepare a solid waste management plan 38794
for the county or joint district that complies with divisions (A) 38795
and (D) of section 3734.53 of the Revised Code. The plan shall not 38796
contain any of the provisions required or authorized to be 38797
included in plans submitted by districts under division (B), (C), 38798
or (E) of that section. Upon completion of the plan, the director 38799
shall issue an order in accordance with Chapter 3745. of the 38800
Revised Code directing the board of county commissioners or board 38801
of directors of the district to implement the plan in compliance 38802
with the implementation schedule contained in it.38803

       Within thirty days after the effective date of the order to 38804
implement the plan, the board of county commissioners or board of 38805
directors of the district shall determine whether the solid waste 38806
management policy committee of the district should continue to 38807
exist to monitor implementation of the plan or for the purposes of 38808
division (B) of section 3734.57 or section 3734.574 of the Revised 38809
Code. The board, by resolution, may abolish the committee if it 38810
determines that the committee is not necessary for any of those 38811
purposes. If the board of county commissioners or directors of a 38812
district that has so abolished the policy committee of the 38813
district finds that it is necessary or appropriate for the 38814
district to consider levying fees under section 3734.574 of the 38815
Revised Code, the board shall reestablish and convene the policy 38816
committee to initiate proceedings to levy the fees. If the fees 38817
are levied, the policy committee shall continue to exist for as 38818
long as the district is levying the fees. If, after a policy 38819
committee is convened to initiate proceedings to levy those fees, 38820
the fees are not levied or are abolished under section 3734.574 of 38821
the Revised Code, the board, by resolution, may abolish the 38822
committee if it determines that the committee is not necessary to 38823
monitor implementation of the plan.38824

       (E) If the director finds that the board of county 38825
commissioners or the board of directors of a district has 38826
materially failed to implement the district's plan or amended plan 38827
approved under division (C) of this section or section 3734.521 or 38828
3734.56 of the Revised Code, or prepared and ordered to be 38829
implemented under division (D) of this section or section 3734.521 38830
or 3734.56 of the Revised Code, in compliance with the 38831
implementation schedule contained in the plan or amended plan, the 38832
director shall issue an enforcement order under division (A) of 38833
section 3734.13 of the Revised Code directing the board to comply 38834
with the implementation schedule in the plan or amended plan 38835
within a specified, reasonable time. If the director finds that 38836
the board of county commissioners or directors of a district for 38837
which the provision included in the district's initial or amended 38838
plan approved under section 3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the 38839
Revised Code pursuant to division (E)(1) or (2)(b) or (c) of 38840
section 3734.53 of the Revised Code, or an amendment to the 38841
district's approved initial or amended plan adopted and ratified 38842
under division (F) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code, 38843
precludes the board from establishing facility designations under 38844
section 343.014 of the Revised Code has initiated proceedings to 38845
establish facility designations in violation of that section and 38846
the district's initial or amended plan, the director shall issue 38847
an enforcement order under division (A) of section 3734.13 of the 38848
Revised Code directing the board, at the board's discretion, to 38849
either abandon the proceedings or suspend them until after the 38850
board has adopted and obtained ratification of an amendment to the 38851
district's initial or amended plan under division (F) of section 38852
3734.56 of the Revised Code that authorizes the board to establish 38853
facility designations under section 343.014 of the Revised Code. 38854
If the director finds that a board of county commissioners or 38855
directors of a district for which the provision included in the 38856
district's initial or amended plan approved under section 38857
3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the Revised Code pursuant to 38858
division (E)(1) or (2)(b) or (c) of section 3734.53 of the Revised 38859
Code, or an amendment to the district's approved initial or 38860
amended plan adopted and ratified under division (F) of section 38861
3734.56 of the Revised Code, authorizes the board to establish 38862
facility designations under section 343.014 of the Revised Code 38863
has established facility designations under section 343.014 of the 38864
Revised Code or continued facility designations under section 38865
343.015 of the Revised Code and subsequently has initiated 38866
proceedings to terminate any such facility designations in 38867
violation of section 343.014 of the Revised Code and the 38868
district's initial or amended plan, the director shall issue an 38869
enforcement order under division (A) of section 3734.13 of the 38870
Revised Code directing the board, at the board's discretion, to 38871
either abandon the proceedings or adopt and obtain ratification of 38872
an amendment to the district's initial or amended plan under 38873
division (F) of section 3734.56 of the Revised Code that precludes 38874
the board from establishing facility designations under section 38875
343.014 of the Revised Code.38876

       (F) The director shall maintain a record of the county and 38877
joint solid waste management district solid waste management plans 38878
and amended plans that the director has approved or ordered to be 38879
implemented under this section, section 3734.521, and section 38880
3734.56 of the Revised Code. Upon determining that each county 38881
within the state is subject to such a plan or amended plan, the 38882
director shall notify the chief of recycling and litter prevention 38883
in the department of natural resources of that fact.38884

       (G)(1) As used in divisions (C)(4), (D)(1) and (2), and (E) 38885
of this section and section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, any 38886
reference to a board of county commissioners of a county or a 38887
board of directors of a joint solid waste management district is 38888
deemed to include the board of trustees of a regional solid waste 38889
management authority formed under section 343.011 of the Revised 38890
Code.38891

       (2) As used in this section and sections 3734.521 and 3734.57 38892
of the Revised Code, "deliver" includes mailing as well as 38893
delivery by a means other than mailing.38894

       Sec. 3734.79.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 38895
section, each application for a permit submitted under sections 38896
3734.76 to 3734.78 of the Revised Code shall be accompanied by a 38897
nonrefundable application fee of four hundred dollars that shall 38898
be credited to the scrap tire management fund created in section 38899
3734.82 of the Revised Code. If a permit is issued, the amount of 38900
the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the 38901
applicable permit fee due under division (G)(R) of section 3745.11 38902
of the Revised Code.38903

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to an 38904
application for a permit for a scrap tire storage facility 38905
submitted under section 3734.76 of the Revised Code if the owner 38906
or operator of the facility or proposed facility is a motor 38907
vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised 38908
Code.38909

       Sec. 3734.82.  (A) The annual fee for a scrap tire recovery 38910
facility license issued under section 3734.81 of the Revised Code 38911
shall be in accordance with the following schedule:38912

Daily Design Annual 38913
Input Capacity License 38914
(Tons) Fee 38915

1 or less $  100 38916
2 to 25 500 38917
26 to 50 1,000 38918
51 to 100 1,500 38919
101 to 200 2,500 38920
201 to 500 3,500 38921
501 or more 5,500 38922

       For the purpose of determining the applicable license fee 38923
under this division, the daily design input capacity shall be the 38924
quantity of scrap tires the facility is designed to process daily 38925
as set forth in the registration certificate or permit for the 38926
facility, and any modifications to the permit, if applicable, 38927
issued under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code.38928

       (B) The annual fee for a scrap tire monocell or monofill 38929
facility license shall be in accordance with the following 38930
schedule:38931

Authorized Maximum Annual 38932
Daily Waste Receipt License 38933
(Tons) Fee 38934
100 or less $ 5,000 38935
101 to 200  12,500 38936
201 to 500  30,000 38937
501 or more  60,000 38938

       For the purpose of determining the applicable license fee 38939
under this division, the authorized maximum daily waste receipt 38940
shall be the maximum amount of scrap tires the facility is 38941
authorized to receive daily that is established in the permit for 38942
the facility, and any modification to that permit, issued under 38943
section 3734.77 of the Revised Code.38944

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of 38945
this section, the annual fee for a scrap tire storage facility 38946
license shall equal one thousand dollars times the number of acres 38947
on which scrap tires are to be stored at the facility during the 38948
license year, as set forth on the application for the annual 38949
license, except that the total annual license fee for any such 38950
facility shall not exceed three thousand dollars.38951

       (2) The annual fee for a scrap tire storage facility license 38952
for a storage facility that is owned or operated by a motor 38953
vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised 38954
Code is one hundred dollars.38955

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 38956
this section, the annual fee for a scrap tire collection facility 38957
license is two hundred dollars.38958

       (2) The annual fee for a scrap tire collection facility 38959
license for a collection facility that is owned or operated by a 38960
motor vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the 38961
Revised Code is fifty dollars.38962

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (C)(2) and 38963
(D)(2) of this section, the same fees apply to private operators 38964
and to the state and its political subdivisions and shall be paid 38965
within thirty days after the issuance of a license. The fees 38966
include the cost of licensing, all inspections, and other costs 38967
associated with the administration of the scrap tire provisions of 38968
this chapter and rules adopted under them. Each license shall 38969
specify that it is conditioned upon payment of the applicable fee 38970
to the board of health or the director of environmental 38971
protection, as appropriate, within thirty days after the issuance 38972
of the license.38973

       (F) The board of health shall retain fifteen thousand dollars 38974
of each license fee collected by the board under division (B) of 38975
this section, or the entire amount of any such fee that is less 38976
than fifteen thousand dollars, and the entire amount of each 38977
license fee collected by the board under divisions (A), (C), and 38978
(D) of this section. The moneys retained shall be paid into a 38979
special fund, which is hereby created in each health district, and 38980
used solely to administer and enforce the scrap tire provisions of 38981
this chapter and rules adopted under them. The remainder, if any, 38982
of each license fee collected by the board under division (B) of 38983
this section shall be transmitted to the director within 38984
forty-five days after receipt of the fee.38985

       (G) The director shall transmit the moneys received by the 38986
director from license fees collected under division (B) of this 38987
section to the treasurer of state to be credited to the scrap tire 38988
management fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. 38989
The fund shall consist of all federal moneys received by the 38990
environmental protection agency for the scrap tire management 38991
program; all grants, gifts, and contributions made to the director 38992
for that program; and all other moneys that may be provided by law 38993
for that program. The director shall use moneys in the fund as 38994
follows:38995

       (1) Expend amounts determined necessary by the director to 38996
implement, administer, and enforce the scrap tire provisions of 38997
this chapter and rules adopted under them;38998

       (2) During each fiscal year, request the director of budget 38999
and management to, and the director of budget and management 39000
shall, transfer one million dollars to the scrap tire grant fund 39001
created in section 1502.123734.822 of the Revised Code for 39002
supporting market development activities for scrap tires and 39003
synthetic rubber from tire manufacturing processes and tire 39004
recycling processes. In addition, during a fiscal year, the 39005
director of environmental protection may request the director of 39006
budget and management to, and the director of budget and 39007
management shall, transfer up to an additional five hundred 39008
thousand dollars to the scrap tire grant fund for scrap tire 39009
amnesty events and scrap tire cleanup events.39010

       (3) After the expenditures and transfers are made under 39011
divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section, expend the balance of 39012
the money in the scrap tire management fund remaining in each 39013
fiscal year to conduct removal actions under section 3734.85 of 39014
the Revised Code and to provide grants to boards of health under 39015
section 3734.042 of the Revised Code.39016

       Sec. 1502.12.        Sec. 3734.822. (A) There is hereby created in the 39017
state treasury the scrap tire grant fund, consisting of moneys 39018
transferred to the fund under section 3734.82 of the Revised Code. 39019
The chief of the division of recycling and litter prevention, with 39020
the approval of the director of natural resources,environmental 39021
protection may make grants from the fund for the following 39022
purposes:39023

       (1) Supporting market development activities for scrap tires 39024
and synthetic rubber from tire manufacturing processes and tire 39025
recycling processes;39026

       (2) Supporting scrap tire amnesty and cleanup events 39027
sponsored by solid waste management districts. 39028

       Grants awarded under division (A)(1) of this section may be 39029
awarded to individuals, businesses, and entities certified under 39030
division (A) of section 1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code.39031

       (B) Projects and activities that are eligible for grants 39032
under division (A)(1) of this section shall be evaluated for 39033
funding using, at a minimum, the following criteria:39034

       (1) The degree to which a proposed project contributes to the 39035
increased use of scrap tires generated in this state;39036

       (2) The degree of local financial support for a proposed 39037
project;39038

       (3) The technical merit and quality of a proposed project.39039

       Sec. 3735.37.  A metropolitan housing authority shall keep an 39040
accurate account of all its activities and of all receipts and 39041
expenditures and make an annual report thereof to the director of 39042
developmentof these publicly available. All moneys received in 39043
excess of operating expenditures shall be devoted to the payment 39044
of interest and sinking fund charges for the retirement of 39045
indebtedness, whether secured by mortgage or otherwise, and from 39046
the excess there shall be set aside such fund as the authority 39047
deems proper for the purpose of covering repairs, depreciation, 39048
and reserves. Whatever balance then remains shall be applied to 39049
the reduction of rentals thereafter falling due.39050

       Sec. 1502.01.        Sec. 3736.01.  As used in this chapter:39051

       (A) "Litter" means garbage, trash, waste, rubbish, ashes, 39052
cans, bottles, wire, paper, cartons, boxes, automobile parts, 39053
furniture, glass, or anything else of an unsightly or unsanitary 39054
nature thrown, dropped, discarded, placed, or deposited by a 39055
person on public property, on private property not owned by the 39056
person, or in or on waters of the state unless one of the 39057
following applies:39058

       (1) The person has been directed to do so by a public 39059
official as part of a litter collection drive.39060

       (2) The person has thrown, dropped, discarded, placed, or 39061
deposited the material in a receptacle in a manner that prevented 39062
its being carried away by the elements.39063

       (3) The person has been issued a permit or license covering 39064
the material pursuant to Chapter 3734. or 6111. of the Revised 39065
Code.39066

       (B) "Recycling" means the process of collecting, sorting, 39067
cleansing, treating, and reconstituting waste or other discarded 39068
materials for the purpose of recovering and reusing the materials.39069

       (C) "Agency of the state" includes, but is not limited to, an 39070
"agency" subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and a "state 39071
university or college" as defined in section 3345.12 of the 39072
Revised Code.39073

       (D) "Source reduction" means activities that decrease the 39074
initial production of waste materials at their point of origin.39075

       (E) "Enterprise" means a business with its principal place of 39076
business in this state and that proposes to engage in research and 39077
development or recycling in this state.39078

       (F) "Research and development" means inquiry, 39079
experimentation, or demonstration to advance basic scientific or 39080
technical knowledge or the application, adaptation, or use of 39081
existing or newly discovered scientific or technical knowledge 39082
regarding recycling, source reduction, or litter prevention.39083

       (G) "Recyclables" means waste materials that are collected, 39084
separated, or processed and used as raw materials or products.39085

       (H) "Recycling market development" means activities that 39086
stimulate the demand for recycled products, provide for a 39087
consistent supply of recyclables to meet the needs of recycling 39088
industries, or both.39089

       (I) "Solid waste management districts" means solid waste 39090
management districts established under Chapter 343. of the Revised 39091
Code.39092

       (J) "Synthetic rubber" means produced or extended rubber and 39093
products made from a synthetic rubber base material originating 39094
from petrochemical feedstocks, including scrap tires, tire molds, 39095
automobile engine belts, brake pads and hoses, weather stripping, 39096
fittings, electrical insulation, and other molded objects and 39097
parts.39098

       Sec. 1502.03.        Sec. 3736.02.  (A) The chiefdirector of the division 39099
of recycling and litter preventionenvironmental protection shall 39100
establish and implement statewide source reduction, recycling, 39101
recycling market development, and litter prevention programs that 39102
are consistent with the state solid waste management plan adopted 39103
under section 3734.50 of the Revised Code. The programs shall39104
include all of the following:39105

       (1) The assessment of waste generation within the state and 39106
implementation of source reduction practices;39107

       (2) The implementation of recycling and recycling market 39108
development activities and projects, including all of the 39109
following:39110

       (a) Collection of recyclables;39111

       (b) Separation of recyclables;39112

       (c) Processing of recyclables;39113

       (d) Facilitation and encouragement of the use of recyclables 39114
and products made with recyclables;39115

       (e) Education and training concerning recycling and products 39116
manufactured with recyclables;39117

       (f) Public awareness campaigns to promote recycling;39118

       (g) Other activities and projects that promote recycling and 39119
recycling market development.39120

       (3) Litter prevention assistance to enforce antilitter laws, 39121
educate the public, and stimulate collection and containment of 39122
litter;39123

       (4) Research and development regarding source reduction, 39124
recycling, and litter prevention, including, without limitation, 39125
research and development regarding materials or products 39126
manufactured with recyclables.39127

       (B) The chief, with the approval of the director of natural 39128
resources, may enter into contracts or other agreements and may 39129
execute any instruments necessary or incidental to the discharge 39130
of the chief'sdirector's responsibilities under this chapter.39131

       Sec. 1502.02.        Sec. 3736.03.  (A) There is hereby created in the 39132
department of natural resources the division of recycling and 39133
litter prevention to be headed by the chief of recycling and 39134
litter prevention.39135

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 39136
recycling and litter prevention fund, consisting of moneys 39137
distributed to it from fees, including the fee levied under 39138
division (A)(2) of section 3714.073 of the Revised Code, gifts, 39139
donations, grants, reimbursements, and other sources, including 39140
investment earnings.39141

       (C)(B) The chiefdirector of recycling and litter prevention39142
environmental protection shall do all of the following:39143

       (1) Use moneys credited to the fund exclusively for the 39144
purposes set forth in sections 1502.033736.02, 1502.043736.04, 39145
3736.05, and 1502.053745.014 of the Revised Code, with particular 39146
emphasis on programs relating to recycling;39147

       (2) Expend for administration of the division not more than 39148
ten per cent of any fiscal year's appropriation to the division, 39149
excluding the amount assessed to the division for direct and 39150
indirect central support charges;39151

       (3) Require recipients of grants under section 1502.0539152
3736.05 of the Revised Code, as a condition of receiving and 39153
retaining them, to do all of the following:39154

       (a) Create a separate account for the grants and any cash 39155
donations received that qualify for the donor credit allowed by 39156
section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;39157

       (b) Make expenditures from the account exclusively for the 39158
purposes for which the grants were received;39159

       (c) Use any auditing and accounting practices the chief39160
director considers necessary regarding the account;39161

       (d) Report to the chiefdirector information regarding the 39162
amount and donor of cash donations received as described by 39163
section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;39164

       (e) Use grants received to supplement and not to replace any 39165
existing funding for such purposes.39166

       (4)(3) Report to the tax commissioner information the chief39167
director receives pursuant to division (C)(3)(B)(2)(d) of this 39168
section.39169

       Sec. 1502.04.        Sec. 3736.04.  There is hereby created within the 39170
division of recycling and litter preventionenvironmental 39171
protection agency the recycling and litter prevention advisory 39172
council consisting of thirteen members. The speaker of the house 39173
of representatives shall appoint one member of the house of 39174
representatives to the council, and the president of the senate 39175
shall appoint one member of the senate to the council. If the 39176
president of the senate belongs to the same political party as the 39177
speaker of the house of representatives, the president shall 39178
appoint a member of the senate who belongs to a different 39179
political party as recommended by the minority leader of the 39180
senate. The speaker of the house of representatives and the 39181
president of the senate shall make their initial appointments to 39182
the council within sixty days after July 20, 1994. Each member 39183
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives or the 39184
president of the senate shall serve for a term of office of three 39185
years. The appropriate appointing authority may fill any vacancy 39186
occurring during the term of any member whom the appointing 39187
authority has appointed to the advisory council.39188

       The remaining eleven members shall be appointed by the 39189
governor with the advice and consent of the senate and shall be 39190
persons with knowledge of or experience in recycling or litter 39191
prevention programs. The council shall have broad-based 39192
representation of interests including agriculture, labor, the 39193
environment, manufacturing, wholesale and retail industry, and the 39194
public. One of the business members shall be from the commercial 39195
recycling industry, and another shall be from an industry required 39196
to pay taxes under section 5733.065 of the Revised Code. The 39197
director of natural resourcesenvironmental protection shall not 39198
be a member of the council. The governor shall make initial 39199
appointments to the council within thirty days after October 20, 39200
1987. Of the governor's initial appointments to the council, five 39201
shall be for a term of one year, and six shall be for a term of 39202
two years. Thereafter, termsTerms of office shall be for three 39203
years. Each member appointed by the governor shall hold office 39204
from the date of the member's appointment until the end of the 39205
term for which the member was appointed. In the event of death, 39206
removal, resignation, or incapacity of a member of the council 39207
appointed by the governor, the governor, with the advice and 39208
consent of the senate, shall appoint a successor who shall hold 39209
office for the remainder of the term for which the successor's 39210
predecessor was appointed. A member shall continue in office 39211
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 39212
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 39213
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. The governor at any time may 39214
remove any of the governor's appointees from the council for 39215
misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office.39216

       Members of the council may be reappointed.39217

       The council shall hold at least four regular quarterly 39218
meetings each year. Special meetings may be held at the behest of 39219
the chairperson or a majority of the members. The council annually 39220
shall select from among its members a chairperson, a 39221
vice-chairperson, and a secretary to keep a record of its 39222
proceedings.39223

       A majority vote of the members of the council is necessary to 39224
take action inon any matter.39225

       A member of the council shall serve without compensation for 39226
attending council meetings, but shall be reimbursed for all 39227
traveling, hotel, and other ordinary and necessary expenses 39228
incurred in the performance of the member's work as a member of 39229
the council.39230

       Membership on the council does not constitute holding a 39231
public office or position of employment under the laws of this 39232
state and does not constitute grounds for removal of public 39233
officers or employees from their offices or positions of 39234
employment.39235

       The council shall do all of the following:39236

       (A) In conjunction with the chief of recycling and litter 39237
prevention and withWith the approval of the director of natural 39238
resourcesenvironmental protection, establish criteria by which to 39239
certify, and certify, agencies of the state, municipal 39240
corporations with a population of more than fifty thousand, 39241
counties, and solid waste management districts as eligible to 39242
receive grants under section 1502.053736.05 of the Revised Code;39243

       (B) In conjunction with the chief and withWith the approval 39244
of the director, establish criteria by which to certify, and 39245
certify, political subdivisions for receipt of special grants for 39246
activities or projects that are intended to accomplish the 39247
purposes of any of the programs established under section 1502.0339248
3736.02 of the Revised Code;39249

       (C) Advise the chiefdirector in carrying out the chief's39250
director's duties under this chapter.39251

       Sec. 1502.05.        Sec. 3736.05.  (A) The chiefdirector of recycling 39252
and litter preventionenvironmental protection, pursuant to 39253
division (A) of section 1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code and 39254
with the approval of the director of natural resources, may make 39255
grants from the recycling and litter prevention fund created in 39256
section 1502.023736.03 of the Revised Code to accomplish the 39257
purposes of the programs established under section 1502.033736.0239258
of the Revised Code.39259

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 39260
chief, with the approval of the director, may require any eligible 39261
applicant certified by the recycling and litter prevention 39262
advisory council under division (A) of section 1502.043736.04 of 39263
the Revised Code that applies for a grant for an activity or 39264
project that is intended to further the purposes of any program 39265
established under division (A)(1), (2), or (4) of section 1502.0339266
3736.02 of the Revised Code to provide a matching contribution of 39267
not more than fifty per cent of the grant.39268

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, any grant 39269
awarded under division (A) of this section to foster cooperative 39270
research and development regarding recycling or the cooperative 39271
establishment or expansion of private recycling facilities or 39272
programs shall be made in conjunction with a contribution to the 39273
project by a cooperating enterprise that maintains or proposes to 39274
maintain a relevant research and development or recycling facility 39275
or program in this state or by an agency of the state, provided 39276
that funding provided by a state agency shall not be provided from 39277
general revenue funds appropriated by the general assembly. No 39278
grant made under division (A) of this section for the purposes 39279
described in this division shall exceed the contribution made by 39280
the cooperating enterprise or state agency. The chiefdirector may 39281
consider cooperating contributions in the form of state of the art 39282
new equipment or in other forms if the chiefdirector determines 39283
that the contribution is essential to the successful 39284
implementation of the project.39285

       Grants made under division (A) of this section for the 39286
purposes described in this division shall be made in such form and 39287
conditioned on such terms as the chiefdirector considers to be 39288
appropriate.39289

       (D)(1) The chief, with the approval of the director, may 39290
require any eligible applicant certified by the recycling and 39291
litter prevention advisory council under division (A) of section 39292
1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code that applies for a grant that 39293
is intended to further the purposes of the program established 39294
under division (A)(3) of section 1502.033736.02 of the Revised 39295
Code, except any eligible applicant that is or is located in a 39296
county that has a per capita income equal to or below ninety per 39297
cent of the median county per capita income of the state as 39298
determined by the chiefdirector using the most recently available 39299
figures from the United States census bureau, to provide a 39300
matching contribution as follows:39301

       (a) Up to ten per cent of the grant from any eligible 39302
applicant that is or is located in a county that has a per capita 39303
income above ninety per cent of the median county per capita 39304
income of the state, but equal to or below one hundred per cent of 39305
the median county per capita income of the state;39306

       (b) Up to twenty per cent of the grant from any eligible 39307
applicant that is or is located in a county that has a per capita 39308
income above the median county per capita income of the state.39309

       (2) If the eligible applicant is a joint solid waste 39310
management district or is filing a joint application on behalf of 39311
two or more counties, the matching contribution required under 39312
division (D)(1) of this section shall be the average of the 39313
matching contributions of all of the counties covered by the 39314
application as determined in accordance with that division. The 39315
matching contribution of a county that has a per capita income 39316
equal to or below ninety per cent of the median county per capita 39317
income of the state shall be included as zero in calculating the 39318
average matching contribution.39319

       (E) After receiving notice from theThe director of 39320
environmental protection that each county within the state is 39321
subject to the solid waste management plan of a solid waste 39322
management district, the chief shall ensure that not less than 39323
fifty per cent of the moneys distributed as grants under this 39324
section shall be expended for the purposes of recycling and 39325
recycling market development.39326

       (F) No information that is submitted to, acquired by, or 39327
exchanged with employees of the environmental protection agency 39328
who administer or provide services under this section and that is 39329
submitted, acquired, or exchanged in order to obtain a grant 39330
pursuant to division (A) of this section shall be used in any 39331
manner for the purpose of the enforcement of any requirement 39332
established in an environmental law or used as evidence in any 39333
judicial or administrative enforcement proceeding unless that 39334
information reveals a clear and immediate danger to the 39335
environment or to the health, safety, or welfare of the public.39336

       (G) Nothing in this section confers immunity on persons from 39337
enforcement that is based on information that is obtained by the 39338
director or the director's authorized representatives who are not 39339
employees of the agency who administer or provide services under 39340
this section.39341

       (H) As used in this section, "environmental law" means a law 39342
that is administered by the environmental protection agency.39343

       Sec. 1502.06.        Sec. 3736.06.  (A) Agencies of the state certified 39344
pursuant to section 1502.043736.04 of the Revised Code as 39345
eligible to receive a grant shall designate an employee as the 39346
liaison with the chiefdirector of recycling and litter prevention39347
environmental protection to cooperate with himthe director in 39348
carrying out histhe director's duties under this chapter.39349

       (B) The executive and legislative authorities of municipal 39350
corporations, counties, and townships and the boards of park 39351
commissioners of township park districts created under section 39352
511.18 of the Revised Code, boards of park commissioners of park 39353
districts created under section 1545.04 of the Revised Code, and 39354
boards of education of city, exempted village, local, and joint 39355
vocational school districts may participate in the programs 39356
established under section 1502.033736.02 of the Revised Code.39357

       Sec. 1502.07.        Sec. 3736.07.  No person, agency of the state, 39358
municipal corporation, county, or township shall sell or offer for 39359
sale any beer or mixed beverages as defined in section 4301.01 of 39360
the Revised Code, or any soft drink as defined in section 913.22 39361
of the Revised Code, in a metal container that is so designed that 39362
it may be opened by removing from the container a part of the 39363
container without using a separate opener. However, nothing in 39364
this section prohibits the sale or offering for sale of a 39365
container the only detachable part of which is a piece of tape or 39366
other similar adhesive material.39367

       Sec. 1502.99.        Sec. 3736.99.  Whoever violates section 1502.0739368
3736.07 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. Each 39369
day of violation constitutes a separate offense.39370

       Sec. 3737.83.  The fire marshal shall, as part of the state 39371
fire code, adopt rules to:39372

       (A) Establish minimum standards of performance for fire 39373
protection equipment and fire fighting equipment;39374

       (B) Establish minimum standards of training, fix minimum 39375
qualifications, and require certificates for all persons who 39376
engage in the business for profit of installing, testing, 39377
repairing, or maintaining fire protection equipment;39378

       (C) Provide for the issuance of certificates required under 39379
division (B) of this section and establish the fees to be charged 39380
for such certificates. A certificate shall be granted, renewed, or 39381
revoked according to rules the fire marshal shall adopt.39382

       (D) Establish minimum standards of flammability for consumer 39383
goods in any case where the federal government or any department 39384
or agency thereof has established, or may from time to time 39385
establish standards of flammability for consumer goods. The 39386
standards established by the fire marshal shall be identical to 39387
the minimum federal standards.39388

       In any case where the federal government or any department or 39389
agency thereof, establishes standards of flammability for consumer 39390
goods subsequent to the adoption of a flammability standard by the 39391
fire marshal, standards previously adopted by the fire marshal 39392
shall not continue in effect to the extent such standards are not 39393
identical to the minimum federal standards.39394

       With respect to the adoption of minimum standards of 39395
flammability, this division shall supersede any authority granted 39396
a political subdivision by any other section of the Revised Code.39397

       (E) Establish minimum standards pursuant to section 5104.05 39398
of the Revised Code for fire prevention and fire safety in child 39399
day-care centers and in type A family day-care homes, as defined 39400
in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.39401

       (F) Establish minimum standards for fire prevention and 39402
safety an adult group home seeking licensure as an adult carein a 39403
residential facility must meetlicensed under section 5119.7139404
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 39405
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 39406
unrelated adults. The fire marshal shall adopt the rules under 39407
this division in consultation with the directorsdirector of 39408
mental health and aging and interested parties designated by the 39409
directorsdirector of mental health and aging.39410

       Sec. 3737.841.  As used in this section and section 3737.842 39411
of the Revised Code:39412

       (A) "Public occupancy" means all of the following:39413

       (1) Any state correctional institution as defined in section 39414
2967.01 of the Revised Code and any county, multicounty, 39415
municipal, or municipal-county jail or workhouse;39416

       (2) Any hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised 39417
Code, any hospital licensed by the department of mental health 39418
under section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, and any institution, 39419
hospital, or other place established, controlled, or supervised by 39420
the department of mental health under Chapter 5119. of the Revised 39421
Code;39422

       (3) Any nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 39423
the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code and 39424
any adult careresidential facility as defined inlicensed under39425
section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 39426
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 39427
to sixteen unrelated adults;39428

       (4) Any child day-care center and any type A family day-care 39429
home as defined in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code;39430

       (5) Any public auditorium or stadium;39431

       (6) Public assembly areas of hotels and motels containing 39432
more than ten articles of seating furniture.39433

       (B) "Sell" includes sell, offer or expose for sale, barter, 39434
trade, deliver, give away, rent, consign, lease, possess for sale, 39435
or dispose of in any other commercial manner.39436

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, 39437
"seating furniture" means any article of furniture, including 39438
children's furniture, that can be used as a support for an 39439
individual, or an individual's limbs or feet, when sitting or 39440
resting in an upright or reclining position and that either:39441

       (1) Is made with loose or attached cushions or pillows;39442

       (2) Is stuffed or filled in whole or in part with any filling 39443
material;39444

       (3) Is or can be stuffed or filled in whole or in part with 39445
any substance or material, concealed by fabric or any other 39446
covering.39447

       "Seating furniture" includes the cushions or pillows 39448
belonging to or forming a part of the furniture, the structural 39449
unit, and the filling material and its container or covering.39450

       (D) "Seating furniture" does not include, except if intended 39451
for use by children or in facilities designed for the care or 39452
treatment of humans, any of the following:39453

       (1) Cushions or pads intended solely for outdoor use;39454

       (2) Any article with a smooth surface that contains no more 39455
than one-half inch of filling material, if that article does not 39456
have an upholstered horizontal surface meeting an upholstered 39457
vertical surface;39458

       (3) Any article manufactured solely for recreational use or 39459
physical fitness purposes, including weight-lifting benches, 39460
gymnasium mats or pads, and sidehorses.39461

       (E) "Filling material" means cotton, wool, kapok, feathers, 39462
down, hair, liquid, or any other natural or artificial material or 39463
substance that is used or can be used as stuffing in seating 39464
furniture.39465

       Sec. 3742.01.  As used in this chapter:39466

       (A) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 39467
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 39468
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code.39469

       (B) "Child care facility" means each area of any of the 39470
following in which child care, as defined in section 5104.01 of 39471
the Revised Code, is provided to children under six years of age:39472

       (1) A child day-care center, type A family day-care home, or 39473
type B family day-care home as defined in section 5104.01 of the 39474
Revised Code;39475

        (2) A type C family day-care home authorized to provide child 39476
care by Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st general assembly, as amended by 39477
Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st general assembly and Sub. H.B. 407 39478
of the 123rd general assembly;39479

       (3) A preschool program or school child program as defined in 39480
section 3301.52 of the Revised Code.39481

       (C) "Clearance examination" means an examination to determine 39482
whether the lead hazards in a residential unit, child care 39483
facility, or school have been sufficiently controlled. A clearance 39484
examination includes a visual assessment, collection, and analysis 39485
of environmental samples.39486

       (D) "Clearance technician" means a person, other than a 39487
licensed lead inspector or licensed lead risk assessor, who 39488
performs a clearance examination.39489

       (E) "Clinical laboratory" means a facility for the 39490
biological, microbiological, serological, chemical, 39491
immunohematological, hematological, biophysical, cytological, 39492
pathological, or other examination of substances derived from the 39493
human body for the purpose of providing information for the 39494
diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of any disease, or in the 39495
assessment or impairment of the health of human beings. "Clinical 39496
laboratory" does not include a facility that only collects or 39497
prepares specimens, or serves as a mailing service, and does not 39498
perform testing.39499

       (F) "Encapsulation" means the coating and sealing of surfaces 39500
with durable surface coating specifically formulated to be 39501
elastic, able to withstand sharp and blunt impacts, long-lasting, 39502
and resilient, while also resistant to cracking, peeling, algae, 39503
fungus, and ultraviolet light, so as to prevent any part of 39504
lead-containing paint from becoming part of house dust or 39505
otherwise accessible to children.39506

       (G) "Enclosure" means the resurfacing or covering of surfaces 39507
with durable materials such as wallboard or paneling, and the 39508
sealing or caulking of edges and joints, so as to prevent or 39509
control chalking, flaking, peeling, scaling, or loose 39510
lead-containing substances from becoming part of house dust or 39511
otherwise accessible to children.39512

       (H) "Environmental lead analytical laboratory" means a 39513
facility that analyzes air, dust, soil, water, paint, film, or 39514
other substances, other than substances derived from the human 39515
body, for the presence and concentration of lead.39516

       (I) "HEPA" means the designation given to a product, device, 39517
or system that has been equipped with a high-efficiency 39518
particulate air filter, which is a filter capable of removing 39519
particles of 0.3 microns or larger from air at 99.97 per cent or 39520
greater efficiency.39521

       (J) "Interim controls" means a set of measures designed to 39522
reduce temporarily human exposure or likely human exposure to lead 39523
hazards. Interim controls include specialized cleaning, repairs, 39524
painting, temporary containment, ongoing lead hazard maintenance 39525
activities, and the establishment and operation of management and 39526
resident education programs.39527

       (K)(1) "Lead abatement" means a measure or set of measures 39528
designed for the single purpose of permanently eliminating lead 39529
hazards. "Lead abatement" includes all of the following:39530

       (a) Removal of lead-based paint and lead-contaminated dust;39531

       (b) Permanent enclosure or encapsulation of lead-based paint;39532

       (c) Replacement of surfaces or fixtures painted with 39533
lead-based paint;39534

       (d) Removal or permanent covering of lead-contaminated soil;39535

       (e) Preparation, cleanup, and disposal activities associated 39536
with lead abatement.39537

       (2) "Lead abatement" does not include any of the following:39538

       (a) Preventive treatments performed pursuant to section 39539
3742.41 of the Revised Code;39540

        (b) Implementation of interim controls;39541

        (c) Activities performed by a property owner on a residential 39542
unit to which both of the following apply:39543

       (i) It is a freestanding single-family home used as the 39544
property owner's private residence.39545

       (ii) No child under six years of age who has lead poisoning 39546
resides in the unit.39547

       (L) "Lead abatement contractor" means any individual who 39548
engages in or intends to engage in lead abatement and employs or 39549
supervises one or more lead abatement workers, including on-site 39550
supervision of lead abatement projects, or prepares 39551
specifications, plans, or documents for a lead abatement project.39552

       (M) "Lead abatement project" means one or more lead abatement 39553
activities that are conducted by a lead abatement contractor and 39554
are reasonably related to each other.39555

       (N) "Lead abatement project designer" means a person who is 39556
responsible for designing lead abatement projects and preparing a 39557
pre-abatement plan for all designed projects.39558

       (O) "Lead abatement worker" means an individual who is 39559
responsible in a nonsupervisory capacity for the performance of 39560
lead abatement.39561

       (P) "Lead-based paint" means any paint or other similar 39562
surface-coating substance containing lead at or in excess of the 39563
level that is hazardous to human health, as that level is39564
established by rule of the public health councilin rules adopted39565
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code.39566

       (Q) "Lead-contaminated dust" means dust that contains an area 39567
or mass concentration of lead at or in excess of the level that is 39568
hazardous to human health, as that level is established by rule of 39569
the public health councilin rules adopted under section 3742.50 39570
of the Revised Code.39571

       (R) "Lead-contaminated soil" means soil that contains lead at 39572
or in excess of the level that is hazardous to human health, as 39573
that level is established by rule of the public health councilin 39574
rules adopted under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code.39575

       (S) "Lead hazard" means material that is likely to cause lead 39576
exposure and endanger an individual's health as determined by the 39577
publicdirector of health council in rules adopted under section 39578
3742.50 of the Revised Code. "Lead hazard" includes lead-based 39579
paint, lead-contaminated dust, lead-contaminated soil, and 39580
lead-contaminated water pipes.39581

       (T) "Lead inspection" means a surface-by-surface 39582
investigation to determine the presence of lead-based paint. The 39583
inspection shall use a sampling or testing technique approved by 39584
the public health councildirector in rules adopted by the council39585
under section 3742.03 of the Revised Code. A licensed lead 39586
inspector or laboratory approved under section 3742.09 of the 39587
Revised Code shall certify in writing the precise results of the 39588
inspection.39589

       (U) "Lead inspector" means any individual who conducts a lead 39590
inspection, provides professional advice regarding a lead 39591
inspection, or prepares a report explaining the results of a lead 39592
inspection.39593

       (V) "Lead poisoning" means the level of lead in human blood 39594
that is hazardous to human health, as specified in rules adopted 39595
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code.39596

       (W) "Lead risk assessment" means an on-site investigation to 39597
determine and report the existence, nature, severity, and location 39598
of lead hazards in a residential unit, child care facility, or 39599
school, including information gathering from the unit, facility, 39600
or school's current owner's knowledge regarding the age and 39601
painting history of the unit, facility, or school and occupancy by 39602
children under six years of age, visual inspection, limited wipe 39603
sampling or other environmental sampling techniques, and any other 39604
activity as may be appropriate.39605

       (X) "Lead risk assessor" means a person who is responsible 39606
for developing a written inspection, risk assessment, and analysis 39607
plan; conducting inspections for lead hazards in a residential 39608
unit, child care facility, or school; interpreting results of 39609
inspections and risk assessments; identifying hazard control 39610
strategies to reduce or eliminate lead exposures; and completing a 39611
risk assessment report.39612

       (Y) "Lead-safe renovation" means the supervision or 39613
performance of services for the general improvement of all or part 39614
of an existing structure, including a residential unit, child care 39615
facility, or school, when the services are supervised or performed 39616
by a lead-safe renovator.39617

        (Z) "Lead-safe renovator" means a person who has successfully 39618
completed a training program in lead-safe renovation approved 39619
under section 3742.47 of the Revised Code.39620

       (AA) "Manager" means a person, who may be the same person as 39621
the owner, responsible for the daily operation of a residential 39622
unit, child care facility, or school.39623

       (BB) "Permanent" means an expected design life of at least 39624
twenty years.39625

       (CC) "Replacement" means an activity that entails removing 39626
components such as windows, doors, and trim that have lead hazards 39627
on their surfaces and installing components free of lead hazards.39628

        (DD) "Residential unit" means a dwelling or any part of a 39629
building being used as an individual's private residence.39630

       (EE) "School" means a public or nonpublic school in which 39631
children under six years of age receive education.39632

       Sec. 3742.02.  (A) No person shall do any of the following:39633

       (1) Violate any provision of this chapter or the rules 39634
adopted pursuant to it;39635

       (2) Apply or cause to be applied any lead-based paint on or 39636
inside a residential unit, child care facility, or school, unless 39637
the publicdirector of health council has determined by rule under 39638
section 3742.50 of the Revised Code that no suitable substitute 39639
exists;39640

       (3) Interfere with an investigation conducted by the director 39641
of health or a board of health in accordance with section 3742.35 39642
of the Revised Code.39643

       (B) No person shall knowingly authorize or employ an 39644
individual to perform lead abatement on a residential unit, child 39645
care facility, or school unless the individual who will perform 39646
the lead abatement holds a valid license issued under section 39647
3742.05 of the Revised Code.39648

       (C) No person shall do any of the following when a 39649
residential unit, child care facility, or school is involved:39650

       (1) Perform a lead inspection without a valid lead inspector 39651
license issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code;39652

       (2) Perform a lead risk assessment or provide professional 39653
advice regarding lead abatement without a valid lead risk assessor 39654
license issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code;39655

       (3) Act as a lead abatement contractor without a valid lead 39656
abatement contractor's license issued under section 3742.05 of the 39657
Revised Code;39658

       (4) Act as a lead abatement project designer without a valid 39659
lead abatement project designer license issued under section 39660
3742.05 of the Revised Code;39661

       (5) Perform lead abatement without a valid lead abatement 39662
worker license issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code;39663

       (6) Effective one year after April 7, 2003, perform a 39664
clearance examination without a valid clearance technician license 39665
issued under section 3742.05 of the Revised Code, unless the 39666
person holds a valid lead inspector license or valid lead risk 39667
assessor license issued under that section;39668

        (7) Perform lead training for the licensing purposes of this 39669
chapter without a valid approval from the director of health under 39670
section 3742.08 of the Revised Code;39671

       (8) Perform interim controls without complying with 24 C.F.R. 39672
Part 35.39673

       Sec. 3742.03.  The publicdirector of health council shall 39674
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 39675
for the administration and enforcement of sections 3742.01 to 39676
3742.19 and 3742.99 of the Revised Code. The rules shall specify 39677
all of the following:39678

       (A) Procedures to be followed by a lead abatement contractor, 39679
lead abatement project designer, lead abatement worker, lead 39680
inspector, or lead risk assessor licensed under section 3742.05 of 39681
the Revised Code for undertaking lead abatement activities and 39682
procedures to be followed by a clearance technician, lead 39683
inspector, or lead risk assessor in performing a clearance 39684
examination;39685

       (B)(1) Requirements for training and licensure, in addition 39686
to those established under section 3742.08 of the Revised Code, to 39687
include levels of training and periodic refresher training for 39688
each class of worker, and to be used for licensure under section 39689
3742.05 of the Revised Code. Except in the case of clearance 39690
technicians, these requirements shall include at least twenty-four 39691
classroom hours of training based on the Occupational Safety and 39692
Health Act training program for lead set forth in 29 C.F.R. 39693
1926.62. For clearance technicians, the training requirements to 39694
obtain an initial license shall not exceed six hours and the 39695
requirements for refresher training shall not exceed two hours 39696
every four years. In establishing the training and licensure 39697
requirements, the public health councildirector shall consider 39698
the core of information that is needed by all licensed persons, 39699
and establish the training requirements so that persons who would 39700
seek licenses in more than one area would not have to take 39701
duplicative course work.39702

       (2) Persons certified by the American board of industrial 39703
hygiene as a certified industrial hygienist or as an industrial 39704
hygienist-in-training, and persons registered as a sanitarian or 39705
sanitarian-in-training under Chapter 4736. of the Revised Code, 39706
shall be exempt from any training requirements for initial 39707
licensure established under this chapter, but shall be required to 39708
take any examinations for licensure required under section 3742.05 39709
of the Revised Code.39710

       (C) Fees for licenses issued under section 3742.05 of the 39711
Revised Code and for their renewal;39712

       (D) Procedures to be followed by lead inspectors, lead 39713
abatement contractors, environmental lead analytical laboratories, 39714
lead risk assessors, lead abatement project designers, and lead 39715
abatement workers to prevent public exposure to lead hazards and 39716
ensure worker protection during lead abatement projects;39717

       (E)(1) Record-keeping and reporting requirements for clinical 39718
laboratories, environmental lead analytical laboratories, lead 39719
inspectors, lead abatement contractors, lead risk assessors, lead 39720
abatement project designers, and lead abatement workers for lead 39721
abatement projects and record-keeping and reporting requirements 39722
for clinical laboratories, environmental lead analytical 39723
laboratories, and clearance technicians for clearance 39724
examinations;39725

       (2) Record-keeping and reporting requirements regarding lead 39726
poisoning for physicians, in addition to the requirements of 39727
section 3701.25 of the Revised Code;39728

       (3) Information that is required to be reported under rules 39729
based on divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section and that is a 39730
medical record is not a public record under section 149.43 of the 39731
Revised Code and shall not be released, except in aggregate 39732
statistical form.39733

       (F) Environmental sampling techniques for use in collecting 39734
samples of air, water, dust, paint, and other materials;39735

       (G) Requirements for a respiratory protection plan prepared 39736
in accordance with section 3742.07 of the Revised Code;39737

       (H) Requirements under which a manufacturer of encapsulants 39738
must demonstrate evidence of the safety and durability of its 39739
encapsulants by providing results of testing from an independent 39740
laboratory indicating that the encapsulants meet the standards 39741
developed by the "E06.23.30 task group on encapsulants," which is 39742
the task group of the lead hazards associated with buildings 39743
subcommittee of the performance of buildings committee of the 39744
American society for testing and materials.39745

       Sec. 3742.04.  (A) The director of health shall do all of the 39746
following:39747

       (1) Administer and enforce the requirements of sections 39748
3742.01 to 3742.19 and 3742.99 of the Revised Code and the rules 39749
adopted pursuant to those sections;39750

       (2) Examine records and reports submitted by lead inspectors, 39751
lead abatement contractors, lead risk assessors, lead abatement 39752
project designers, lead abatement workers, and clearance 39753
technicians in accordance with section 3742.05 of the Revised Code 39754
to determine whether the requirements of this chapter are being 39755
met;39756

       (3) Examine records and reports submitted by physicians, 39757
clinical laboratories, and environmental lead analytical 39758
laboratories under section 3701.25 or 3742.09 of the Revised Code;39759

       (4) Issue approval to manufacturers of encapsulants that have 39760
done all of the following:39761

       (a) Submitted an application for approval to the director on 39762
a form prescribed by the director;39763

       (b) Paid the application fee established by the director;39764

       (c) Submitted results from an independent laboratory 39765
indicating that the manufacturer's encapsulants satisfy the 39766
requirements established in rules adopted under division (H) of 39767
section 3742.03 of the Revised Code;39768

       (d) Complied with rules adopted by the public health council39769
director regarding durability and safety to workers and residents.39770

       (5) Establish liaisons and cooperate with the directors or 39771
agencies in states having lead abatement, licensing, 39772
accreditation, certification, and approval programs to promote 39773
consistency between the requirements of this chapter and those of 39774
other states in order to facilitate reciprocity of the programs 39775
among states;39776

       (6) Establish a program to monitor and audit the quality of 39777
work of lead inspectors, lead risk assessors, lead abatement 39778
project designers, lead abatement contractors, lead abatement 39779
workers, and clearance technicians. The director may refer 39780
improper work discovered through the program to the attorney 39781
general for appropriate action.39782

       (B) In addition to any other authority granted by this 39783
chapter, the director of health may do any of the following:39784

       (1) Employ persons who have received training from a program 39785
the director has determined provides the necessary background. The 39786
appropriate training may be obtained in a state that has an 39787
ongoing lead abatement program under which it conducts educational 39788
programs.39789

       (2) Cooperate with the United States environmental protection 39790
agency in any joint oversight procedures the agency may propose 39791
for laboratories that offer lead analysis services and are 39792
accredited under the agency's laboratory accreditation program;39793

       (3) Advise, consult, cooperate with, or enter into contracts 39794
or cooperative agreements with any person, government entity, 39795
interstate agency, or the federal government as the director 39796
considers necessary to fulfill the requirements of this chapter 39797
and the rules adopted under it.39798

       Sec. 3742.05.  (A)(1) The director of health shall issue lead 39799
inspector, lead abatement contractor, lead risk assessor, lead 39800
abatement project designer, lead abatement worker, and clearance 39801
technician licenses. The director shall issue a license to an 39802
applicant who meets all of the following requirements:39803

       (a) Submits an application to the director on a form 39804
prescribed by the director;39805

       (b) Meets the licensing and training requirements established 39806
by the public health councilin rules adopted under section 39807
3742.03 of the Revised Code;39808

       (c) Successfully completes the licensing examination for the 39809
applicant's area of expertise administered under section 3742.08 39810
of the Revised Code and any training required by the director 39811
under that section;39812

       (d) Pays the license fee established by the public health 39813
councilin rules adopted under section 3742.03 of the Revised 39814
Code;39815

       (e) Provides the applicant's social security number and any 39816
information the director may require to demonstrate the 39817
applicant's compliance with this chapter and the rules adopted 39818
under it.39819

       (2) An individual may hold more than one license issued under 39820
this section, but a separate application is required for each 39821
license.39822

       (B) A license issued under this section expires two years 39823
after the date of issuance. The director shall renew a license in 39824
accordance with the standard renewal procedure set forth in 39825
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code, if the licensee does all of the 39826
following:39827

       (1) Continues to meet the requirements of division (A) of 39828
this section;39829

       (2) Demonstrates compliance with procedures to prevent public 39830
exposure to lead hazards and for worker protection during lead 39831
abatement projects established by rulein rules adopted by the 39832
public health council under section 3742.03 of the Revised Code;39833

       (3) Meets the record-keeping and reporting requirements for 39834
lead abatement projects or clearance examinations established by 39835
rulein rules adopted by the public health council under section 39836
3742.03 of the Revised Code;39837

       (4) Pays the license renewal fee established by rulein rules39838
adopted by the public health council under section 3742.03 of the 39839
Revised Code.39840

       (C) An individual licensed, certified, or otherwise approved 39841
under the law of another state to perform functions substantially 39842
similar to those of a lead inspector, lead abatement contractor, 39843
lead risk assessor, lead abatement project designer, lead 39844
abatement worker, or clearance technician may apply to the 39845
director of health for licensure in accordance with the procedures 39846
set forth in division (A) of this section. The director shall 39847
license an individual under this division on a determination that 39848
the standards for licensure, certification, or approval in that 39849
state are at least substantially equivalent to those established 39850
by this chapter and the rules adopted under it. The director may 39851
require an examination for licensure under this division.39852

       Sec. 3742.30. Each child at risk of lead poisoning shall 39853
undergo a blood lead screening test to determine whether the child 39854
has lead poisoning. The at-risk children shall undergo the test at 39855
times determined by rules the publicdirector of health council39856
shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 39857
that are consistent with the guidelines established by the centers 39858
for disease control and prevention in the public health service of 39859
the United States department of health and human services. The 39860
rules shall specify which children are at risk of lead poisoning.39861

       Neither this section nor the rules adopted under it affect 39862
the coverage of blood lead screening tests by any publicly funded 39863
health program, including the medicaid program established by 39864
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. Neither this section nor the 39865
rules adopted under it apply to a child if a parent of the child 39866
objects to the test on the grounds that the test conflicts with 39867
the parent's religious tenets and practices.39868

       Sec. 3742.31.  (A) The director of health shall establish, 39869
promote, and maintain a child lead poisoning prevention program. 39870
The program shall provide statewide coordination of screening, 39871
diagnosis, and treatment services for children under age six, 39872
including both of the following:39873

       (1) Collecting the social security numbers of all children 39874
screened, diagnosed, or treated as part of the program's case 39875
management system;39876

       (2) Disclosing to the office of Ohio health plansmedical 39877
assistance in the department of job and family services on at 39878
least an annual basis the identity and lead screening test results 39879
of each child screened pursuant to section 3742.30 of the Revised 39880
Code. The director shall collect and disseminate information 39881
relating to child lead poisoning and controlling lead hazards.39882

       (B) The director of health shall operate the child lead 39883
poisoning prevention program in accordance with rules adopted 39884
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code. The director may enter 39885
into an interagency agreement with one or more other state 39886
agencies to perform one or more of the program's duties. The 39887
director shall supervise and direct an agency's performance of 39888
such a duty.39889

       Sec. 3742.32. (A) The director of health shall appoint an 39890
advisory council to assist in the ongoing development and 39891
implementation of the child lead poisoning prevention program 39892
created under section 3742.31 of the Revised Code. The advisory 39893
council shall consist of the following members:39894

       (1) A representative of the office of Ohio health plans39895
medical assistance in the department of job and family services;39896

       (2) A representative of the bureau of child care in the 39897
department of job and family services;39898

       (3) A representative of the department of environmental 39899
protection;39900

       (4) A representative of the department of education;39901

       (5) A representative of the department of development;39902

       (6) A representative of the Ohio apartment owner's 39903
association;39904

       (7) A representative of the Ohio help end lead poisoning 39905
coalition;39906

       (8) A representative of the Ohio environmental health 39907
association;39908

        (9) An Ohio representative of the national paint and coatings 39909
association.39910

       (B) The advisory council shall do both of the following:39911

       (1) Provide the director with advice regarding the policies 39912
the child lead poisoning prevention program should emphasize, 39913
preferred methods of financing the program, and any other matter 39914
relevant to the program's operation;39915

       (2) Submit a report of the state's activities to the 39916
governor, president of the senate, and speaker of the house of 39917
representatives on or before the first day of March each year.39918

       (C) The advisory council is not subject to sections 101.82 to 39919
101.87 of the Revised Code.39920

       Sec. 3742.47.  (A) A person seeking approval of a training 39921
program in either essential maintenance practices or lead-safe 39922
renovation shall apply for approval to the director of health. The 39923
application shall be made on a form prescribed by the director and 39924
shall include the fee established under division (B) of this 39925
section. The director shall issue approval to the applicant if the 39926
applicant demonstrates to the satisfaction of the director that 39927
the training program will meet the following requirements and any 39928
other training program requirements established by rules adopted 39929
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code:39930

       (1) Conducts the training program in a period of time that 39931
does not exceed six hours;39932

        (2) Administers an examination established by rule of the39933
public health councildirector at the end of the training program 39934
to each person who completes the training;39935

       (3) Grades each examination not later than one week after its 39936
completion and determines whether the person who took the 39937
examination received a passing score;39938

       (4) Not later than one week after the examination is 39939
completed provides written proof of training program completion to 39940
each person who completes the program and passes the examination.39941

       (B) The director of health shall establish an application fee 39942
for approving training programs under this section. The fee shall 39943
be reasonable and shall not exceed the expenses incurred in 39944
conducting the approval of training programs. An application fee 39945
submitted under division (A) of this section is nonrefundable.39946

       Sec. 3742.50.  (A) The publicdirector of health council39947
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 39948
Code establishing all of the following:39949

       (1) Procedures necessary for the development and operation of 39950
the child lead poisoning prevention program established under 39951
section 3742.31 of the Revised Code;39952

       (2) Standards and procedures for conducting investigations 39953
and risk assessments under sections 3742.35 and 3742.36 of the 39954
Revised Code;39955

       (3) Standards and procedures for issuing lead hazard control 39956
orders under section 3742.37 of the Revised Code, including 39957
standards and procedures for determining appropriate deadlines for 39958
complying with lead hazard control orders;39959

       (4) The level of lead in human blood that is hazardous to 39960
human health, consistent with the guidelines issued by the centers 39961
for disease control and prevention in the public health service of 39962
the United States department of health and human services;39963

       (5) The level of lead in paint, dust, and soil that is 39964
hazardous to human health;39965

       (6) Standards and procedures to be followed when implementing 39966
preventive treatments for the control of lead hazards pursuant to 39967
section 3742.41 of the Revised Code that are based on information 39968
from the United States environmental protection agency, department 39969
of housing and urban development, occupational safety and health 39970
administration, or other agencies with recommendations or 39971
guidelines regarding implementation of preventive treatments;39972

       (7) Standards that must be met to pass a clearance 39973
examination;39974

       (8) Procedures for approving under section 3742.47 of the 39975
Revised Code training programs in essential maintenance practices 39976
and lead-safe renovation and requirements, in addition to those 39977
specified in section 3742.47 of the Revised Code, that a program 39978
must meet to receive approval;39979

       (9) The examination to be administered by a training program 39980
approved under section 3742.47 of the Revised Code and the 39981
examination's passing score.39982

       (B) The public health councildirector shall establish 39983
procedures for revising its rules to ensure that the child lead 39984
poisoning prevention activities conducted under this chapter 39985
continue to meet the requirements necessary to obtain any federal 39986
funding available for those activities, including requirements 39987
established by the United States environmental protection agency, 39988
United States department of housing and urban development, or any 39989
other federal agency with jurisdiction over activities pertaining 39990
to child lead poisoning prevention.39991

       Sec. 3743.04.  (A) The license of a manufacturer of fireworks 39992
is effective for one year beginning on the first day of December. 39993
The state fire marshal shall issue or renew a license only on that 39994
date and at no other time. If a manufacturer of fireworks wishes 39995
to continue manufacturing fireworks at the designated fireworks 39996
plant after its then effective license expires, it shall apply no 39997
later than the first day of October for a new license pursuant to 39998
section 3743.02 of the Revised Code. The state fire marshal shall 39999
send a written notice of the expiration of its license to a 40000
licensed manufacturer at least three months before the expiration 40001
date.40002

       (B) If, during the effective period of its licensure, a 40003
licensed manufacturer of fireworks wishes to construct, locate, or 40004
relocate any buildings or other structures on the premises of its 40005
fireworks plant, to make any structural change or renovation in 40006
any building or other structure on the premises of its fireworks 40007
plant, or to change the nature of its manufacturing of fireworks 40008
so as to include the processing of fireworks, the manufacturer 40009
shall notify the state fire marshal in writing. The state fire 40010
marshal may require a licensed manufacturer also to submit 40011
documentation, including, but not limited to, plans covering the 40012
proposed construction, location, relocation, structural change or 40013
renovation, or change in manufacturing of fireworks, if the state 40014
fire marshal determines the documentation is necessary for 40015
evaluation purposes in light of the proposed construction, 40016
location, relocation, structural change or renovation, or change 40017
in manufacturing of fireworks.40018

       Upon receipt of the notification and additional documentation 40019
required by the state fire marshal, the state fire marshal shall 40020
inspect the premises of the fireworks plant to determine if the 40021
proposed construction, location, relocation, structural change or 40022
renovation, or change in manufacturing of fireworks conforms to 40023
sections 3743.02 to 3743.08 of the Revised Code and the rules 40024
adopted by the state fire marshal pursuant to section 3743.05 of 40025
the Revised Code. The state fire marshal shall issue a written 40026
authorization to the manufacturer for the construction, location, 40027
relocation, structural change or renovation, or change in 40028
manufacturing of fireworks if the state fire marshal determines, 40029
upon the inspection and a review of submitted documentation, that 40030
the construction, location, relocation, structural change or 40031
renovation, or change in manufacturing of fireworks conforms to 40032
those sections and rules. Upon authorizing a change in 40033
manufacturing of fireworks to include the processing of fireworks, 40034
the state fire marshal shall make notations on the manufacturer's 40035
license and in the list of licensed manufacturers in accordance 40036
with section 3743.03 of the Revised Code.40037

       On or before June 1, 1998, a licensed manufacturer shall 40038
install, in every licensed building in which fireworks are 40039
manufactured, stored, or displayed and to which the public has 40040
access, interlinked fire detection, smoke exhaust, and smoke 40041
evacuation systems that are approved by the superintendent of 40042
laborindustrial compliance, and shall comply with floor plans 40043
showing occupancy load limits and internal circulation and egress 40044
patterns that are approved by the state fire marshal and 40045
superintendent, and that are submitted under seal as required by 40046
section 3791.04 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding section 40047
3743.59 of the Revised Code, the construction and safety 40048
requirements established in this division are not subject to any 40049
variance, waiver, or exclusion.40050

       (C) The license of a manufacturer of fireworks authorizes the 40051
manufacturer to engage only in the following activities:40052

       (1) The manufacturing of fireworks on the premises of the 40053
fireworks plant as described in the application for licensure or 40054
in the notification submitted under division (B) of this section, 40055
except that a licensed manufacturer shall not engage in the 40056
processing of fireworks unless authorized to do so by its license.40057

       (2) To possess for sale at wholesale and sell at wholesale 40058
the fireworks manufactured by the manufacturer, to persons who are 40059
licensed wholesalers of fireworks, to out-of-state residents in 40060
accordance with section 3743.44 of the Revised Code, to residents 40061
of this state in accordance with section 3743.45 of the Revised 40062
Code, or to persons located in another state provided the 40063
fireworks are shipped directly out of this state to them by the 40064
manufacturer. A person who is licensed as a manufacturer of 40065
fireworks on June 14, 1988, also may possess for sale and sell 40066
pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section fireworks other than 40067
those the person manufactures. The possession for sale shall be on 40068
the premises of the fireworks plant described in the application 40069
for licensure or in the notification submitted under division (B) 40070
of this section, and the sale shall be from the inside of a 40071
licensed building and from no other structure or device outside a 40072
licensed building. At no time shall a licensed manufacturer sell 40073
any class of fireworks outside a licensed building.40074

       (3) Possess for sale at retail and sell at retail the 40075
fireworks manufactured by the manufacturer, other than 1.4G 40076
fireworks as designated by the state fire marshal in rules adopted 40077
pursuant to division (A) of section 3743.05 of the Revised Code, 40078
to licensed exhibitors in accordance with sections 3743.50 to 40079
3743.55 of the Revised Code, and possess for sale at retail and 40080
sell at retail the fireworks manufactured by the manufacturer, 40081
including 1.4G fireworks, to out-of-state residents in accordance 40082
with section 3743.44 of the Revised Code, to residents of this 40083
state in accordance with section 3743.45 of the Revised Code, or 40084
to persons located in another state provided the fireworks are 40085
shipped directly out of this state to them by the manufacturer. A 40086
person who is licensed as a manufacturer of fireworks on June 14, 40087
1988, may also possess for sale and sell pursuant to division 40088
(C)(3) of this section fireworks other than those the person 40089
manufactures. The possession for sale shall be on the premises of 40090
the fireworks plant described in the application for licensure or 40091
in the notification submitted under division (B) of this section, 40092
and the sale shall be from the inside of a licensed building and 40093
from no other structure or device outside a licensed building. At 40094
no time shall a licensed manufacturer sell any class of fireworks 40095
outside a licensed building.40096

       A licensed manufacturer of fireworks shall sell under 40097
division (C) of this section only fireworks that meet the 40098
standards set by the consumer product safety commission or by the 40099
American fireworks standard laboratories or that have received an 40100
EX number from the United States department of transportation.40101

       (D) The license of a manufacturer of fireworks shall be 40102
protected under glass and posted in a conspicuous place on the 40103
premises of the fireworks plant. Except as otherwise provided in 40104
this division, the license is not transferable or assignable. A 40105
license may be transferred to another person for the same 40106
fireworks plant for which the license was issued if the assets of 40107
the plant are transferred to that person by inheritance or by a 40108
sale approved by the state fire marshal. The license is subject to 40109
revocation in accordance with section 3743.08 of the Revised Code.40110

       (E) The state fire marshal shall not place the license of a 40111
manufacturer of fireworks in a temporarily inactive status while 40112
the holder of the license is attempting to qualify to retain the 40113
license.40114

       (F) Each licensed manufacturer of fireworks that possesses 40115
fireworks for sale and sells fireworks under division (C) of 40116
section 3743.04 of the Revised Code, or a designee of the 40117
manufacturer, whose identity is provided to the state fire marshal 40118
by the manufacturer, annually shall attend a continuing education 40119
program. The state fire marshal shall develop the program and the 40120
state fire marshal or a person or public agency approved by the 40121
state fire marshal shall conduct it. A licensed manufacturer or 40122
the manufacturer's designee who attends a program as required 40123
under this division, within one year after attending the program, 40124
shall conduct in-service training as approved by the state fire 40125
marshal for other employees of the licensed manufacturer regarding 40126
the information obtained in the program. A licensed manufacturer 40127
shall provide the state fire marshal with notice of the date, 40128
time, and place of all in-service training. For any program 40129
conducted under this division, the state fire marshal shall, in 40130
accordance with rules adopted by the state fire marshal under 40131
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish the subjects to be 40132
taught, the length of classes, the standards for approval, and 40133
time periods for notification by the licensee to the state fire 40134
marshal of any in-service training.40135

       (G) A licensed manufacturer shall maintain comprehensive 40136
general liability insurance coverage in the amount and type 40137
specified under division (B)(2) of section 3743.02 of the Revised 40138
Code at all times. Each policy of insurance required under this 40139
division shall contain a provision requiring the insurer to give 40140
not less than fifteen days' prior written notice to the state fire 40141
marshal before termination, lapse, or cancellation of the policy, 40142
or any change in the policy that reduces the coverage below the 40143
minimum required under this division. Prior to canceling or 40144
reducing the amount of coverage of any comprehensive general 40145
liability insurance coverage required under this division, a 40146
licensed manufacturer shall secure supplemental insurance in an 40147
amount and type that satisfies the requirements of this division 40148
so that no lapse in coverage occurs at any time. A licensed 40149
manufacturer who secures supplemental insurance shall file 40150
evidence of the supplemental insurance with the state fire marshal 40151
prior to canceling or reducing the amount of coverage of any 40152
comprehensive general liability insurance coverage required under 40153
this division.40154

       (H) The state fire marshal shall adopt rules for the 40155
expansion or contraction of a licensed premises and for approval 40156
of such expansions or contractions. The boundaries of a licensed 40157
premises, including any geographic expansion or contraction of 40158
those boundaries, shall be approved by the state fire marshal in 40159
accordance with rules the state fire marshal adopts. If the 40160
licensed premises consists of more than one parcel of real estate, 40161
those parcels shall be contiguous unless an exception is allowed 40162
pursuant to division (I) of this section.40163

       (I)(1) A licensed manufacturer may expand its licensed 40164
premises within this state to include not more than two storage 40165
locations that are located upon one or more real estate parcels 40166
that are noncontiguous to the licensed premises as that licensed 40167
premises exists on the date a licensee submits an application as 40168
described below, if all of the following apply:40169

       (a) The licensee submits an application to the state fire 40170
marshal and an application fee of one hundred dollars per storage 40171
location for which the licensee is requesting approval.40172

       (b) The identity of the holder of the license remains the 40173
same at the storage location.40174

       (c) The storage location has received a valid certificate of 40175
zoning compliance as applicable and a valid certificate of 40176
occupancy for each building or structure at the storage location 40177
issued by the authority having jurisdiction to issue the 40178
certificate for the storage location, and those certificates 40179
permit the distribution and storage of fireworks regulated under 40180
this chapter at the storage location and in the buildings or 40181
structures. The storage location shall be in compliance with all 40182
other applicable federal, state, and local laws and regulations.40183

       (d) Every building or structure located upon the storage 40184
location is separated from occupied residential and nonresidential 40185
buildings or structures, railroads, highways, or any other 40186
buildings or structures on the licensed premises in accordance 40187
with the distances specified in the rules adopted by the state 40188
fire marshal pursuant to section 3743.05 of the Revised Code.40189

       (e) Neither the licensee nor any person holding, owning, or 40190
controlling a five per cent or greater beneficial or equity 40191
interest in the licensee has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 40192
to a felony under the laws of this state, any other state, or the 40193
United States, after September 29, 2005.40194

       (f) The state fire marshal approves the application for 40195
expansion.40196

       (2) The state fire marshal shall approve an application for 40197
expansion requested under division (I)(1) of this section if the 40198
state fire marshal receives the application fee and proof that the 40199
requirements of divisions (I)(1)(b) to (e) of this section are 40200
satisfied. The storage location shall be considered part of the 40201
original licensed premises and shall use the same distinct number 40202
assigned to the original licensed premises with any additional 40203
designations as the state fire marshal deems necessary in 40204
accordance with section 3743.03 of the Revised Code.40205

       (J)(1) A licensee who obtains approval for the use of a 40206
storage location in accordance with division (I) of this section 40207
shall use the storage location exclusively for the following 40208
activities, in accordance with division (C) of this section:40209

       (a) The packaging, assembling, or storing of fireworks, which 40210
shall only occur in buildings or structures approved for such 40211
hazardous uses by the building code official having jurisdiction 40212
for the storage location or, for 1.4G fireworks, in containers or 40213
trailers approved for such hazardous uses by the state fire 40214
marshal if such containers or trailers are not subject to 40215
regulation by the building code adopted in accordance with Chapter 40216
3781. of the Revised Code. All such storage shall be in accordance 40217
with the rules adopted by the state fire marshal under division 40218
(G) of section 3743.05 of the Revised Code for the packaging, 40219
assembling, and storage of fireworks.40220

       (b) Distributing fireworks to other parcels of real estate 40221
located on the manufacturer's licensed premises, to licensed 40222
wholesalers or other licensed manufacturers in this state or to 40223
similarly licensed persons located in another state or country;40224

       (c) Distributing fireworks to a licensed exhibitor of 40225
fireworks pursuant to a properly issued permit in accordance with 40226
section 3743.54 of the Revised Code.40227

       (2) A licensed manufacturer shall not engage in any sales 40228
activity, including the retail sale of fireworks otherwise 40229
permitted under division (C)(2) or (C)(3) of this section, or 40230
pursuant to section 3743.44 or 3743.45 of the Revised Code, at the 40231
storage location approved under this section.40232

       (3) A storage location may not be relocated for a minimum 40233
period of five years after the storage location is approved by the 40234
state fire marshal in accordance with division (I) of this 40235
section.40236

       (K) The licensee shall prohibit public access to the storage 40237
location. The state fire marshal shall adopt rules to describe the 40238
acceptable measures a manufacturer shall use to prohibit access to 40239
the storage site.40240

       Sec. 3743.06.  In addition to conforming to the rules of the 40241
fire marshal adopted pursuant to section 3743.05 of the Revised 40242
Code, licensed manufacturers of fireworks shall operate their 40243
fireworks plants in accordance with the following:40244

       (A) Signs indicating that smoking is generally forbidden and 40245
trespassing is prohibited on the premises of a fireworks plant 40246
shall be posted on the premises in a manner determined by the fire 40247
marshal.40248

       (B) Reasonable precautions shall be taken to protect the 40249
premises of a fireworks plant from trespass, loss, theft, or 40250
destruction. Only persons employed by the manufacturer, authorized 40251
governmental personnel, and persons who have obtained permission 40252
from a member of the manufacturer's office to be on the premises, 40253
are to be allowed to enter and remain on the premises.40254

       (C) Smoking or the carrying of pipes, cigarettes, or cigars, 40255
matches, lighters, other flame-producing items, or open flame on, 40256
or the carrying of a concealed source of ignition into, the 40257
premises of a fireworks plant is prohibited, except that a 40258
manufacturer may permit smoking in specified lunchrooms or 40259
restrooms in buildings or other structures in which no 40260
manufacturing, handling, sales, or storage of fireworks takes 40261
place. "NO SMOKING" signs shall be posted on the premises as 40262
required by the fire marshal.40263

       (D) Fire and explosion prevention and other reasonable safety 40264
measures and precautions shall be implemented by a manufacturer.40265

       (E) Persons shall not be permitted to have in their 40266
possession or under their control, while they are on the premises 40267
of the fireworks plant, any intoxicating liquor, beer, or 40268
controlled substance, and they shall not be permitted to enter or 40269
remain on the premises if they are found to be under the influence 40270
of any intoxicating liquor, beer, or controlled substance.40271

       (F) A manufacturer shall conform to all building, safety, and 40272
zoning statutes, ordinances, rules, or other enactments that apply 40273
to the premises of its fireworks plant.40274

       (G) Each fireworks plant shall have at least one class 1 40275
magazine that is approved by the bureau of alcohol, tobacco, and 40276
firearms of the United States department of the treasury and that 40277
is otherwise in conformity with federal law. This division does 40278
not apply to fireworks plants existing on or before August 3, 40279
1931.40280

       (H) Awnings, tents, and canopies shall not be used as 40281
facilities for the sale or storage of fireworks. This division 40282
does not prohibit the use of an awning or canopy attached to a 40283
public access showroom for storing nonflammable shopping 40284
convenience items such as shopping carts or baskets or providing a 40285
shaded area for patrons waiting to enter the public sales area.40286

       (I) Fireworks may be stored in trailers if the trailers are 40287
properly enclosed, secured, and grounded and are separated from 40288
any structure to which the public is admitted by a distance that 40289
will, in the fire marshal's judgment, allow fire-fighting 40290
equipment to have full access to the structures on the licensed 40291
premises. Such trailers may be moved into closer proximity to any 40292
structure only to accept or discharge cargo for a period not to 40293
exceed forty-eight hours. Only two such trailers may be placed in 40294
such closer proximity at any one time. At no time may trailers be 40295
used for conducting sales of any class of fireworks, nor may 40296
members of the public have access to the trailers.40297

       Storage areas for fireworks that are in the same building 40298
where fireworks are displayed and sold to the public shall be 40299
separated from the areas to which the public has access by an 40300
appropriately rated fire wall.40301

       (J) A fire suppression system as defined in section 3781.108 40302
of the Revised Code may be turned off only for repair, drainage of 40303
the system to prevent damage by freezing during the period of 40304
time, approved by the fire marshal, that the facility is closed to 40305
all public access during winter months, or maintenance of the 40306
system. If any repair or maintenance is necessary during times 40307
when the facility is open for public access and business as 40308
approved by the fire marshal, the licensed manufacturer shall 40309
notify in advance the appropriate insurance company and fire chief 40310
or fire prevention officer regarding the nature of the maintenance 40311
or repair and the time when it will be performed.40312

       (K) If any fireworks item is removed from its original 40313
package or is manufactured with any fuse other than a safety fuse 40314
approved by the consumer product safety commission, then the item 40315
shall be covered completely by repackaging or bagging or it shall 40316
otherwise be covered so as to prevent ignition prior to sale.40317

       (L) A safety officer shall be present during regular business 40318
hours at a building open to the public during the period 40319
commencing fourteen days before, and ending two days after, each 40320
fourth day of July. The officer shall be highly visible, enforce 40321
this chapter and any applicable building codes to the extent the 40322
officer is authorized by law, and be one of the following:40323

       (1) A deputy sheriff;40324

       (2) A law enforcement officer of a municipal corporation, 40325
township, or township or joint police district;40326

       (3) A private uniformed security guard registered under 40327
section 4749.06 of the Revised Code.40328

       (M) All doors of all buildings on the licensed premises shall 40329
swing outward.40330

       (N) All wholesale and commercial sales of fireworks shall be 40331
packaged, shipped, placarded, and transported in accordance with 40332
United States department of transportation regulations applicable 40333
to the transportation, and the offering for transportation, of 40334
hazardous materials. For purposes of this division, "wholesale and 40335
commercial sales" includes all sales for resale and any nonretail 40336
sale made in furtherance of a commercial enterprise. For purposes 40337
of enforcement of these regulations under section 4905.834923.9940338
of the Revised Code, any sales transaction exceeding one thousand 40339
pounds shall be rebuttably presumed to be a wholesale or 40340
commercial sale.40341

       Sec. 3743.19.  In addition to conforming to the rules of the 40342
fire marshal adopted pursuant to section 3743.18 of the Revised 40343
Code, licensed wholesalers of fireworks shall conduct their 40344
business operations in accordance with the following:40345

       (A) A wholesaler shall conduct its business operations from 40346
the location described in its application for licensure or in a 40347
notification submitted under division (B) of section 3743.17 of 40348
the Revised Code.40349

       (B) Signs indicating that smoking is generally forbidden and 40350
trespassing is prohibited on the premises of a wholesaler shall be 40351
posted on the premises as determined by the fire marshal.40352

       (C) Reasonable precautions shall be taken to protect the 40353
premises of a wholesaler from trespass, loss, theft, or 40354
destruction.40355

       (D) Smoking or the carrying of pipes, cigarettes, or cigars, 40356
matches, lighters, other flame-producing items, or open flame on, 40357
or the carrying of a concealed source of ignition into, the 40358
premises of a wholesaler is prohibited, except that a wholesaler 40359
may permit smoking in specified lunchrooms or restrooms in 40360
buildings or other structures in which no sales, handling, or 40361
storage of fireworks takes place. "NO SMOKING" signs shall be 40362
posted on the premises as required by the fire marshal.40363

       (E) Fire and explosion prevention and other reasonable safety 40364
measures and precautions shall be implemented by a wholesaler.40365

       (F) Persons shall not be permitted to have in their 40366
possession or under their control, while they are on the premises 40367
of a wholesaler, any intoxicating liquor, beer, or controlled 40368
substance, and they shall not be permitted to enter or remain on 40369
the premises if they are found to be under the influence of any 40370
intoxicating liquor, beer, or controlled substance.40371

       (G) A wholesaler shall conform to all building, safety, and 40372
zoning statutes, ordinances, rules, or other enactments that apply 40373
to its premises.40374

       (H) Each building used in the sale of fireworks shall be kept 40375
open to the public for at least four hours each day between the 40376
hours of eight a.m. and five p.m., five days of each week, every 40377
week of the year. Upon application from a licensed wholesaler, the 40378
fire marshal may waive any of the requirements of this division.40379

       (I) Awnings, tents, or canopies shall not be used as 40380
facilities for the storage or sale of fireworks. This division 40381
does not prohibit the use of an awning or canopy attached to a 40382
public access showroom for storing nonflammable shopping 40383
convenience items such as shopping carts or baskets or providing a 40384
shaded area for patrons waiting to enter the public sales area.40385

       (J) 1.4G fireworks may be stored in trailers if the trailers 40386
are properly enclosed, secured, and grounded and are separated 40387
from any structure to which the public is admitted by a distance 40388
that will, in the fire marshal's judgment, allow fire-fighting 40389
equipment to have full access to the structures on the licensed 40390
premises. Such trailers may be moved into closer proximity to any 40391
structure only to accept or discharge cargo for a period not to 40392
exceed forty-eight hours. Only two such trailers may be placed in 40393
such closer proximity at any one time. At no time may trailers be 40394
used for conducting sales of any class of fireworks nor may 40395
members of the public have access to the trailers.40396

       Storage areas for fireworks that are in the same building 40397
where fireworks are displayed and sold to the public shall be 40398
separated from the areas to which the public has access by an 40399
appropriately rated fire wall. If the licensee installs and 40400
properly maintains an early suppression fast response sprinkler 40401
system or equivalent fire suppression system as described in the 40402
fire code adopted by the fire marshal in accordance with section 40403
3737.82 of the Revised Code throughout the structure, a fire 40404
barrier wall may be substituted for a fire wall between the areas 40405
to which the public has access and the storage portions of the 40406
structure.40407

       (K) A fire suppression system as defined in section 3781.108 40408
of the Revised Code may be turned off only for repair, drainage of 40409
the system to prevent damage by freezing during the period of 40410
time, approved by the fire marshal under division (I) of this 40411
section, that the facility is closed to public access during 40412
winter months, or maintenance of the system. If any repair or 40413
maintenance is necessary during times when the facility is open 40414
for public access and business, the licensed wholesaler shall 40415
notify in advance the appropriate insurance company and fire chief 40416
or fire prevention officer regarding the nature of the maintenance 40417
or repair and the time when it will be performed.40418

       (L) If any fireworks item is removed from its original 40419
package or is manufactured with any fuse other than a fuse 40420
approved by the consumer product safety commission, then the item 40421
shall be covered completely by repackaging or bagging or it shall 40422
otherwise be covered so as to prevent ignition prior to sale.40423

       (M) A safety officer shall be present during regular business 40424
hours at a building open to the public during the period 40425
commencing fourteen days before, and ending two days after, each 40426
fourth day of July. The officer shall be highly visible, enforce 40427
this chapter and any applicable building codes to the extent the 40428
officer is authorized by law, and be one of the following:40429

       (1) A deputy sheriff;40430

       (2) A law enforcement officer of a municipal corporation, 40431
township, or township or joint police district;40432

       (3) A private uniformed security guard registered under 40433
section 4749.06 of the Revised Code.40434

       (N) All doors of all buildings on the licensed premises shall 40435
swing outward.40436

       (O) All wholesale and commercial sales of fireworks shall be 40437
packaged, shipped, placarded, and transported in accordance with 40438
United States department of transportation regulations applicable 40439
to the transportation, and the offering for transportation, of 40440
hazardous materials. For purposes of this division, "wholesale and 40441
commercial sales" includes all sales for resale and any nonretail 40442
sale made in furtherance of a commercial enterprise. For purposes 40443
of enforcement of these regulations under section 4905.834923.9940444
of the Revised Code, any sales transaction exceeding one thousand 40445
pounds shall be rebuttably presumed to be a wholesale or 40446
commercial sale.40447

       Sec. 3743.25.  (A)(1) Except as described in division (A)(2) 40448
of this section, all retail sales of 1.4G fireworks by a licensed 40449
manufacturer or wholesaler shall only occur from an approved 40450
retail sales showroom on a licensed premises or from a 40451
representative sample showroom as described in this section on a 40452
licensed premises. For the purposes of this section, a retail sale 40453
includes the transfer of the possession of the 1.4G fireworks from 40454
the licensed manufacturer or wholesaler to the purchaser of the 40455
fireworks.40456

       (2) Sales of 1.4G fireworks to a licensed exhibitor for a 40457
properly permitted exhibition shall occur in accordance with the 40458
provisions of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the state fire 40459
marshal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Such rules shall 40460
specify, at a minimum, that the licensed exhibitor holds a license 40461
under section 3743.51 of the Revised Code, that the exhibitor 40462
possesses a valid exhibition permit issued in accordance with 40463
section 3743.54 of the Revised Code, and that the fireworks 40464
shipped are to be used at the specifically permitted exhibition.40465

       (B) All wholesale sales of fireworks by a licensed 40466
manufacturer or wholesaler shall only occur from a licensed 40467
premises to persons who intend to resell the fireworks purchased 40468
at wholesale. A wholesale sale by a licensed manufacturer or 40469
wholesaler may occur as follows:40470

       (1) The direct sale and shipment of fireworks to a person 40471
outside of this state;40472

       (2) From an approved retail sales showroom as described in 40473
this section;40474

       (3) From a representative sample showroom as described in 40475
this section;40476

       (4) By delivery of wholesale fireworks to a purchaser at a 40477
licensed premises outside of a structure or building on that 40478
premises. All other portions of the wholesale sales transaction 40479
may occur at any location on a licensed premises.40480

       (5) Any other method as described in rules adopted by the 40481
state fire marshal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.40482

       (C) A licensed manufacturer or wholesaler shall only sell 40483
1.4G fireworks from a representative sample showroom or a retail 40484
sales showroom. Each licensed premises shall only contain one 40485
sales structure.40486

       A representative sample showroom shall consist of a structure 40487
constructed and maintained in accordance with the nonresidential 40488
building code adopted under Chapter 3781. of the Revised Code and 40489
the fire code adopted under section 3737.82 of the Revised Code 40490
for a use and occupancy group that permits mercantile sales. A 40491
representative sample showroom shall not contain any pyrotechnics, 40492
pyrotechnic materials, fireworks, explosives, explosive materials, 40493
or any similar hazardous materials or substances. A representative 40494
sample showroom shall be used only for the public viewing of 40495
fireworks product representations, including paper materials, 40496
packaging materials, catalogs, photographs, or other similar 40497
product depictions. The delivery of product to a purchaser of 40498
fireworks at a licensed premises that has a representative sample 40499
structure shall not occur inside any structure on a licensed 40500
premises. Such product delivery shall occur on the licensed 40501
premises in a manner prescribed by rules adopted by the state fire 40502
marshal pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 40503

       If a manufacturer or wholesaler elects to conduct sales from 40504
a retail sales showroom, the showroom structures, to which the 40505
public may have any access and in which employees are required to 40506
work, on all licensed premises, shall comply with the following 40507
safety requirements:40508

       (1) A fireworks showroom that is constructed or upon which 40509
expansion is undertaken on and after June 30, 1997, shall be 40510
equipped with interlinked fire detection, fire suppression, smoke 40511
exhaust, and smoke evacuation systems that are approved by the 40512
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 40513
commerce.40514

       (2) A fireworks showroom that first begins to operate on or 40515
after June 30, 1997, and to which the public has access for retail 40516
purposes shall not exceed five thousand square feet in floor area.40517

       (3) A newly constructed or an existing fireworks showroom 40518
structure that exists on September 23, 2008, but that, on or after 40519
September 23, 2008, is altered or added to in a manner requiring 40520
the submission of plans, drawings, specifications, or data 40521
pursuant to section 3791.04 of the Revised Code, shall comply with 40522
a graphic floor plan layout that is approved by the state fire 40523
marshal and superintendent showing width of aisles, parallel 40524
arrangement of aisles to exits, number of exits per wall, maximum 40525
occupancy load, evacuation plan for occupants, height of storage 40526
or display of merchandise, and other information as may be 40527
required by the state fire marshal and superintendent.40528

       (4) A fireworks showroom structure that exists on June 30, 40529
1997, shall be in compliance on or after June 30, 1997, with floor 40530
plans showing occupancy load limits and internal circulation and 40531
egress patterns that are approved by the state fire marshal and 40532
superintendent, and that are submitted under seal as required by 40533
section 3791.04 of the Revised Code.40534

       (D) The safety requirements established in division (C) of 40535
this section are not subject to any variance, waiver, or exclusion 40536
pursuant to this chapter or any applicable building code.40537

       Sec. 3745.01.  There is hereby created the environmental 40538
protection agency, headed by the director of environmental 40539
protection. The agency, under the supervision of the director, 40540
shall administer the laws pertaining to chemical emergency 40541
planning, community right-to-know, and toxic chemical release 40542
reporting; the cessation of chemical handling operations; the 40543
prevention, control, and abatement of air and water pollution; 40544
public water supply; comprehensive water resource management 40545
planning; products that contain mercury as defined in section 40546
3734.61 of the Revised Code; and the disposal and treatment of 40547
solid wastes, infectious wastes, construction and demolition 40548
debris, hazardous waste, sewage, industrial waste, and other 40549
wastes. The director may do all of the following:40550

       (A) Provide such methods of administration, appoint such 40551
personnel, make such reports, and take such other action as may be 40552
necessary to comply with the requirements of the federal laws and 40553
regulations pertaining to chemical emergency planning, community 40554
right-to-know, and toxic chemical release reporting; air and water 40555
pollution control; public water supply; water resource planning; 40556
and waste disposal and treatment;40557

       (B) Procure by contract the temporary or intermittent 40558
services of experts or consultants, or organizations thereof, when 40559
those services are to be performed on a part-time or 40560
fee-for-service basis and do not involve the performance of 40561
administrative duties;40562

       (C) Advise, consult, cooperate, and enter into contracts or 40563
agreements, including consensual administrative order agreements,40564
with any other agencies of the state, the federal government, 40565
other states, and interstate agencies, and persons and with 40566
affected groups, political subdivisions, and industries in 40567
furtherance of the purposes of this chapter and Chapters 3704., 40568
3714., 3734., 3751., 3752., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code;40569

       (D) Establish advisory boards in accordance with section 40570
121.13 of the Revised Code;40571

       (E) Accept on behalf of the state any grant, gift, or 40572
contribution made for toxic chemical release reporting, air or 40573
water pollution control, public water supply, water resource 40574
planning, waste disposal or treatment, or related purposes, and 40575
expend it for those purposes;40576

       (F) Make an annual report to the governor and the general 40577
assembly on activities and expenditures as well as recommendations 40578
for such additional legislation as the director considers 40579
appropriate to carry out the director's duties or accomplish the 40580
purposes of this section;40581

       (G) Enter into environmental covenants in accordance with 40582
sections 5301.80 to 5301.92 of the Revised Code, and grant or 40583
accept easements or sell real property pursuant to section 40584
3734.22, 3734.24, 3734.25, or 3734.26 of the Revised Code, as 40585
applicable.40586

       The agency shall utilize the laboratory facilities of the 40587
department of health and other state institutions and agencies to 40588
the maximum extent that the utilization is practicable, 40589
economical, and technically satisfactory.40590

       The director shall maintain and keep available for public 40591
inspection, at the director's principal office, a current register 40592
of all applications filed for permits, leases, licenses, 40593
variances, certificates, and approval of plans and specifications 40594
and of publicly owned treatment works pretreatment programs under 40595
the director's jurisdiction, hearings pending, the director's 40596
final action thereon, and the dates on which the filings, 40597
hearings, and final actions occur. The director shall maintain and 40598
keep available for public inspection at the director's principal 40599
office all plans, reports, and other documents required to be 40600
filed with the emergency response commission under Chapter 3750. 40601
of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it, and all reports 40602
and other documents required to be filed with the director under 40603
Chapter 3751. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it, 40604
subject to the requirements of those chapters and rules adopted 40605
under them for the protection of trade secrets and confidential 40606
business information from disclosure to persons not authorized 40607
under those laws to receive trade secret or confidential business 40608
information.40609

       Sec. 3745.11.  (A) Applicants for and holders of permits, 40610
licenses, variances, plan approvals, and certifications issued by 40611
the director of environmental protection pursuant to Chapters 40612
3704., 3734., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 40613
to the environmental protection agency for each such issuance and 40614
each application for an issuance as provided by this section. No 40615
fee shall be charged for any issuance for which no application has 40616
been submitted to the director.40617

       (B) Each person who is issued a permit to install prior to 40618
July 1, 2003, pursuant to rules adopted under division (F) of 40619
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees specified 40620
in the following schedules:40621

       (1) Fuel-burning equipment (boilers)40622

Input capacity (maximum)   40623
(million British thermal units per hour) Permit to install 40624

Greater than 0, but less than 10 $ 200 40625
10 or more, but less than 100     400 40626
100 or more, but less than 300     800 40627
300 or more, but less than 500    1500 40628
500 or more, but less than 1000    2500 40629
1000 or more, but less than 5000  4000 40630
5000 or more  6000 40631

       Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, 40632
or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half of the applicable 40633
amount established in division (F)(1) of this section.40634

       (2) Incinerators40635

Input capacity (pounds per hour) Permit to install 40636

0 to 100 $ 100 40637
101 to 500     400 40638
501 to 2000     750 40639
2001 to 20,000    1000 40640
more than 20,000    2500 40641

       (3)(a) Process40642

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 40643

0 to 1000 $ 200 40644
1001 to 5000     400 40645
5001 to 10,000     600 40646
10,001 to 50,000     800 40647
more than 50,000    1000 40648

       In any process where process weight rate cannot be 40649
ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed.40650

       (b) Notwithstanding division (B)(3)(a) of this section, any 40651
person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 40652
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the 40653
fees established in division (B)(3)(c) of this section for a 40654
process used in any of the following industries, as identified by 40655
the applicable four-digit standard industrial classification code 40656
according to the Standard Industrial Classification Manual 40657
published by the United States office of management and budget in 40658
the executive office of the president, 1972, as revised:40659

       1211 Bituminous coal and lignite mining;40660

       1213 Bituminous coal and lignite mining services;40661

       1411 Dimension stone;40662

       1422 Crushed and broken limestone;40663

       1427 Crushed and broken stone, not elsewhere classified;40664

       1442 Construction sand and gravel;40665

       1446 Industrial sand;40666

       3281 Cut stone and stone products;40667

       3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated.40668

       (c) The fees established in the following schedule apply to 40669
the issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted 40670
under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a 40671
process listed in division (B)(3)(b) of this section:40672

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 40673

0 to 1000 $ 200 40674
10,001 to 50,000   300 40675
50,001 to 100,000   400 40676
100,001 to 200,000   500 40677
200,001 to 400,000   600 40678
400,001 or more   700 40679

       (4) Storage tanks40680

Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit to install 40681

0 to 20,000 $ 100 40682
20,001 to 40,000   150 40683
40,001 to 100,000   200 40684
100,001 to 250,000   250 40685
250,001 to 500,000   350 40686
500,001 to 1,000,000     500 40687
1,000,001 or greater     750 40688

       (5) Gasoline/fuel dispensing facilities40689

For each gasoline/fuel dispensing Permit to install 40690
facility $ 100 40691

       (6) Dry cleaning facilities40692

For each dry cleaning facility Permit to install 40693
(includes all units at the facility) $ 100 40694

       (7) Registration status40695

For each source covered Permit to install 40696
by registration status $  75 40697

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of 40698
this section, beginning July 1, 1994, each person who owns or 40699
operates an air contaminant source and who is required to apply 40700
for and obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the 40701
Revised Code shall pay the fees set forth in this division (C)(1) 40702
of this section. For the purposes of thatthis division, total 40703
emissions of air contaminants may be calculated using engineering 40704
calculations, emissions factors, material balance calculations, or 40705
performance testing procedures, as authorized by the director.40706

       The following fees shall be assessed on the total actual 40707
emissions from a source in tons per year of the regulated 40708
pollutants particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, 40709
organic compounds, and lead:40710

       (a)(1) Fifteen dollars per ton on the total actual emissions 40711
of each such regulated pollutant during the period July through 40712
December 1993, to be collected no sooner than July 1, 1994;40713

       (b)(2) Twenty dollars per ton on the total actual emissions 40714
of each such regulated pollutant during calendar year 1994, to be 40715
collected no sooner than April 15, 1995;40716

       (c)(3) Twenty-five dollars per ton on the total actual 40717
emissions of each such regulated pollutant in calendar year 1995, 40718
and each subsequent calendar year, to be collected no sooner than 40719
the fifteenth day of April of the year next succeeding the 40720
calendar year in which the emissions occurred.40721

       The fees levied under this division (C)(1) of this section do 40722
not apply to that portion of the emissions of a regulated 40723
pollutant at a facility that exceed four thousand tons during a 40724
calendar year.40725

       (2)(C)(1) The fees assessed under division (C)(1)(B) of this 40726
section are for the purpose of providing funding for the Title V 40727
permit program.40728

       (3)(2) The fees assessed under division (C)(1)(B) of this 40729
section do not apply to emissions from any electric generating 40730
unit designated as a Phase I unit under Title IV of the federal 40731
Clean Air Act prior to calendar year 2000. Those fees shall be 40732
assessed on the emissions from such a generating unit commencing 40733
in calendar year 2001 based upon the total actual emissions from 40734
the generating unit during calendar year 2000 and shall continue 40735
to be assessed each subsequent calendar year based on the total 40736
actual emissions from the generating unit during the preceding 40737
calendar year.40738

       (4)(3) The director shall issue invoices to owners or 40739
operators of air contaminant sources who are required to pay a fee 40740
assessed under division (C)(B) or (D) of this section. Any such 40741
invoice shall be issued no sooner than the applicable date when 40742
the fee first may be collected in a year under the applicable 40743
division, shall identify the nature and amount of the fee 40744
assessed, and shall indicate that the fee is required to be paid 40745
within thirty days after the issuance of the invoice.40746

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 40747
from January 1, 1994, through December 31, 2003, each person who 40748
owns or operates an air contaminant source; who is required to 40749
apply for a permit to operate pursuant to rules adopted under 40750
division (G), or a variance pursuant to division (H), of section 40751
3704.03 of the Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for 40752
and obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised 40753
Code shall pay a single fee based upon the sum of the actual 40754
annual emissions from the facility of the regulated pollutants 40755
particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic 40756
compounds, and lead in accordance with the following schedule:40757

Total tons per year 40758
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 40759
emitted per facility 40760
More than 0, but less than 50    $ 75 40761
50 or more, but less than 100     300 40762
100 or more     700 40763

       (2) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 40764
beginning January 1, 2004, each person who owns or operates an air 40765
contaminant source; who is required to apply for a permit to 40766
operate pursuant to rules adopted under division (G), or a 40767
variance pursuant to division (H), of section 3704.03 of the 40768
Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for and obtain a 40769
Title V permit under section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay 40770
a single fee based upon the sum of the actual annual emissions 40771
from the facility of the regulated pollutants particulate matter, 40772
sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic compounds, and lead in 40773
accordance with the following schedule:40774

Total tons per year 40775
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 40776
emitted per facility 40777
More than 0, but less than 10    $ 100 40778
10 or more, but less than 50      200 40779
50 or more, but less than 100      300 40780
100 or more      700 40781

       (3)(a) As used in division (D) of this section, "synthetic 40782
minor facility" means a facility for which one or more permits to 40783
install or permits to operate have been issued for the air 40784
contaminant sources at the facility that include terms and 40785
conditions that lower the facility's potential to emit air 40786
contaminants below the major source thresholds established in 40787
rules adopted under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code.40788

       (b) Beginning January 1, 2000, through June 30, 2014, each 40789
person who owns or operates a synthetic minor facility shall pay 40790
an annual fee based on the sum of the actual annual emissions from 40791
the facility of particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen 40792
dioxide, organic compounds, and lead in accordance with the 40793
following schedule:40794

Combined total tons 40795
per year of all regulated Annual fee 40796
pollutants emitted per facility 40797

Less than 10 $ 170 40798
10 or more, but less than 20   340 40799
20 or more, but less than 30   670 40800
30 or more, but less than 40 1,010 40801
40 or more, but less than 50 1,340 40802
50 or more, but less than 60 1,680 40803
60 or more, but less than 70 2,010 40804
70 or more, but less than 80 2,350 40805
80 or more, but less than 90 2,680 40806
90 or more, but less than 100 3,020 40807
100 or more 3,350 40808

       (4) The fees assessed under division (D)(1) of this section 40809
shall be collected annually no sooner than the fifteenth day of 40810
April, commencing in 1995. The fees assessed under division (D)(2) 40811
of this section shall be collected annually no sooner than the 40812
fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2005. The fees assessed 40813
under division (D)(3) of this section shall be collected no sooner 40814
than the fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2000. The fees 40815
assessed under division (D) of this section in a calendar year 40816
shall be based upon the sum of the actual emissions of those 40817
regulated pollutants during the preceding calendar year. For the 40818
purpose of division (D) of this section, emissions of air 40819
contaminants may be calculated using engineering calculations, 40820
emission factors, material balance calculations, or performance 40821
testing procedures, as authorized by the director. The director, 40822
by rule, may require persons who are required to pay the fees 40823
assessed under division (D) of this section to pay those fees 40824
biennially rather than annually.40825

       (E)(1) Consistent with the need to cover the reasonable costs 40826
of the Title V permit program, the director annually shall 40827
increase the fees prescribed in division (C)(1)(B) of this section 40828
by the percentage, if any, by which the consumer price index for 40829
the most recent calendar year ending before the beginning of a 40830
year exceeds the consumer price index for calendar year 1989. Upon 40831
calculating an increase in fees authorized by division (E)(1) of 40832
this section, the director shall compile revised fee schedules for 40833
the purposes of division (C)(1)(B) of this section and shall make 40834
the revised schedules available to persons required to pay the 40835
fees assessed under that division and to the public.40836

       (2) For the purposes of division (E)(1) of this section:40837

       (a) The consumer price index for any year is the average of 40838
the consumer price index for all urban consumers published by the 40839
United States department of labor as of the close of the 40840
twelve-month period ending on the thirty-first day of August of 40841
that year.40842

       (b) If the 1989 consumer price index is revised, the director 40843
shall use the revision of the consumer price index that is most 40844
consistent with that for calendar year 1989.40845

       (F) Each person who is issued a permit to install pursuant to 40846
rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised 40847
Code on or after July 1, 2003, shall pay the fees specified in the 40848
following schedules:40849

       (1) Fuel-burning equipment (boilers, furnaces, or process 40850
heaters used in the process of burning fuel for the primary 40851
purpose of producing heat or power by indirect heat transfer)40852

Input capacity (maximum) 40853
(million British thermal units per hour) Permit to install 40854
Greater than 0, but less than 10    $ 200 40855
10 or more, but less than 100      400 40856
100 or more, but less than 300     1000 40857
300 or more, but less than 500     2250 40858
500 or more, but less than 1000     3750 40859
1000 or more, but less than 5000     6000 40860
5000 or more     9000 40861

       Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, 40862
or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half the applicable 40863
amount shown in division (F)(1) of this section.40864

       (2) Combustion turbines and stationary internal combustion 40865
engines designed to generate electricity40866

Generating capacity (mega watts) Permit to install 40867
0 or more, but less than 10    $  25 40868
10 or more, but less than 25      150 40869
25 or more, but less than 50      300 40870
50 or more, but less than 100      500 40871
100 or more, but less than 250     1000 40872
250 or more     2000 40873

       (3) Incinerators40874

Input capacity (pounds per hour) Permit to install 40875
0 to 100    $ 100 40876
101 to 500      500 40877
501 to 2000     1000 40878
2001 to 20,000     1500 40879
more than 20,000     3750 40880

       (4)(a) Process40881

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 40882
0 to 1000    $ 200 40883
1001 to 5000      500 40884
5001 to 10,000      750 40885
10,001 to 50,000     1000 40886
more than 50,000     1250 40887

       In any process where process weight rate cannot be 40888
ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed. A boiler, furnace, 40889
combustion turbine, stationary internal combustion engine, or 40890
process heater designed to provide direct heat or power to a 40891
process not designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a 40892
fee established in division (F)(4)(a) of this section. A 40893
combustion turbine or stationary internal combustion engine 40894
designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a fee 40895
established in division (F)(2) of this section.40896

       (b) Notwithstanding division (F)(4)(a) of this section, any 40897
person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 40898
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the 40899
fees set forth in division (F)(4)(c) of this section for a process 40900
used in any of the following industries, as identified by the 40901
applicable two-digit, three-digit, or four-digit standard 40902
industrial classification code according to the Standard 40903
Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States 40904
office of management and budget in the executive office of the 40905
president, 1987, as revised:40906

        Major group 10, metal mining;40907

       Major group 12, coal mining;40908

       Major group 14, mining and quarrying of nonmetallic minerals;40909

       Industry group 204, grain mill products;40910

       2873 Nitrogen fertilizers;40911

       2874 Phosphatic fertilizers;40912

       3281 Cut stone and stone products;40913

       3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated;40914

       4221 Grain elevators (storage only);40915

       5159 Farm related raw materials;40916

       5261 Retail nurseries and lawn and garden supply stores.40917

       (c) The fees set forth in the following schedule apply to the 40918
issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 40919
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a process 40920
identified in division (F)(4)(b) of this section:40921

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 40922
0 to 10,000   $  200 40923
10,001 to 50,000      400 40924
50,001 to 100,000      500 40925
100,001 to 200,000      600 40926
200,001 to 400,000      750 40927
400,001 or more      900 40928

       (5) Storage tanks40929

Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit to install 40930
0 to 20,000   $  100 40931
20,001 to 40,000      150 40932
40,001 to 100,000      250 40933
100,001 to 500,000      400 40934
500,001 or greater      750 40935

       (6) Gasoline/fuel dispensing facilities40936

For each gasoline/fuel 40937
dispensing facility (includes all Permit to install 40938
units at the facility)     $ 100 40939

       (7) Dry cleaning facilities40940

For each dry cleaning 40941
facility (includes all units Permit to install 40942
at the facility)     $ 100 40943

       (8) Registration status40944

For each source covered Permit to install 40945
by registration status     $  75 40946

       (G) An owner or operator who is responsible for an asbestos 40947
demolition or renovation project pursuant to rules adopted under 40948
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees set forth 40949
in the following schedule:40950

Action Fee 40951
Each notification $75 40952
Asbestos removal $3/unit 40953
Asbestos cleanup $4/cubic yard 40954

For purposes of this division, "unit" means any combination of 40955
linear feet or square feet equal to fifty.40956

       (H) A person who is issued an extension of time for a permit 40957
to install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted 40958
under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall 40959
pay a fee equal to one-half the fee originally assessed for the 40960
permit to install under this section, except that the fee for such 40961
an extension shall not exceed two hundred dollars.40962

       (I) A person who is issued a modification to a permit to 40963
install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted under 40964
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee equal to 40965
one-half of the fee that would be assessed under this section to 40966
obtain a permit to install the source. The fee assessed by this 40967
division only applies to modifications that are initiated by the 40968
owner or operator of the source and shall not exceed two thousand 40969
dollars.40970

       (J) Notwithstanding division (B) or (F) of this section, a 40971
person who applies for or obtains a permit to install pursuant to 40972
rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised 40973
Code after the date actual construction of the source began shall 40974
pay a fee for the permit to install that is equal to twice the fee 40975
that otherwise would be assessed under the applicable division 40976
unless the applicant received authorization to begin construction 40977
under division (W) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code. This 40978
division only applies to sources for which actual construction of 40979
the source begins on or after July 1, 1993. The imposition or 40980
payment of the fee established in this division does not preclude 40981
the director from taking any administrative or judicial 40982
enforcement action under this chapter, Chapter 3704., 3714., 40983
3734., or 6111. of the Revised Code, or a rule adopted under any 40984
of them, in connection with a violation of rules adopted under 40985
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code.40986

       As used in this division, "actual construction of the source" 40987
means the initiation of physical on-site construction activities 40988
in connection with improvements to the source that are permanent 40989
in nature, including, without limitation, the installation of 40990
building supports and foundations and the laying of underground 40991
pipework.40992

       (K) Fifty(1) Money received under division (B) of this 40993
section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of 40994
the Title V clean air fund created in section 3704.035 of the 40995
Revised Code. Annually, fifty cents per ton of each fee assessed 40996
under division (C)(B) of this section on actual emissions from a 40997
source and received by the environmental protection agency 40998
pursuant to that division shall be deposited intotransferred 40999
using an interstate transfer voucher to the state treasury to the 41000
credit of the small business assistance fund created in section 41001
3706.19 of the Revised Code. The remainder of the moneysIn 41002
addition, annually, the amount of money necessary for the 41003
operation of the office of ombudsperson as determined under 41004
division (B) of that section shall be transferred to the state 41005
treasury to the credit of the small business ombudsperson fund 41006
created by that section.41007

       (2) Money received by the division pursuant to that division 41008
and moneys received by the agency pursuant to divisions (D), (F), 41009
(G), (H), (I), and (J) of this section shall be deposited in the 41010
state treasury to the credit of the non-Title V clean air fund 41011
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code.41012

       (L)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (L)(1)(b) 41013
or (c) of this section, a person issued a water discharge permit 41014
or renewal of a water discharge permit pursuant to Chapter 6111. 41015
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee based on each point source to 41016
which the issuance is applicable in accordance with the following 41017
schedule:41018

Design flow discharge (gallons per day) Fee  41019
0 to 1000 $  0 41020
1,001 to 5000 100 41021
5,001 to 50,000 200 41022
50,001 to 100,000 300 41023
100,001 to 300,000 525 41024
over 300,000 750 41025

       (b) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 41026
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 41027
that is applicable to coal mining operations regulated under 41028
Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code shall be two hundred fifty 41029
dollars per mine.41030

       (c) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 41031
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 41032
for a public discharger identified by I in the third character of 41033
the permittee's NPDES permit number shall not exceed seven hundred 41034
fifty dollars.41035

       (2) A person applying for a plan approval for a wastewater 41036
treatment works pursuant to section 6111.44, 6111.45, or 6111.46 41037
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars plus 41038
sixty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project 41039
cost through June 30, 2014, and one hundred dollars plus 41040
two-tenths of one per cent of the estimated project cost on and 41041
after July 1, 2014, except that the total fee shall not exceed 41042
fifteen thousand dollars through June 30, 2014, and five thousand 41043
dollars on and after July 1, 2014. The fee shall be paid at the 41044
time the application is submitted.41045

       (3) A person issued a modification of a water discharge 41046
permit shall pay a fee equal to one-half the fee that otherwise 41047
would be charged for a water discharge permit, except that the fee 41048
for the modification shall not exceed four hundred dollars.41049

       (4) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 41050
director under section 6111.14 of the Revised Code shall pay an 41051
administrative service fee for each plan submitted under that 41052
section for approval that shall not exceed the minimum amount 41053
necessary to pay administrative costs directly attributable to 41054
processing plan approvals. The director annually shall calculate 41055
the fee and shall notify all persons who have entered into 41056
agreements under that section, or who have applied for agreements, 41057
of the amount of the fee.41058

       (5)(a)(i) Not later than January 30, 2012, and January 30, 41059
2013, a person holding an NPDES discharge permit issued pursuant 41060
to Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code with an average daily 41061
discharge flow of five thousand gallons or more shall pay a 41062
nonrefundable annual discharge fee. Any person who fails to pay 41063
the fee at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 41064
ten per cent of the required annual discharge fee.41065

       (ii) The billing year for the annual discharge fee 41066
established in division (L)(5)(a)(i) of this section shall consist 41067
of a twelve-month period beginning on the first day of January of 41068
the year preceding the date when the annual discharge fee is due. 41069
In the case of an existing source that permanently ceases to 41070
discharge during a billing year, the director shall reduce the 41071
annual discharge fee, including the surcharge applicable to 41072
certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 41073
this section, by one-twelfth for each full month during the 41074
billing year that the source was not discharging, but only if the 41075
person holding the NPDES discharge permit for the source notifies 41076
the director in writing, not later than the first day of October 41077
of the billing year, of the circumstances causing the cessation of 41078
discharge.41079

       (iii) The annual discharge fee established in division 41080
(L)(5)(a)(i) of this section, except for the surcharge applicable 41081
to certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 41082
this section, shall be based upon the average daily discharge flow 41083
in gallons per day calculated using first day of May through 41084
thirty-first day of October flow data for the period two years 41085
prior to the date on which the fee is due. In the case of NPDES 41086
discharge permits for new sources, the fee shall be calculated 41087
using the average daily design flow of the facility until actual 41088
average daily discharge flow values are available for the time 41089
period specified in division (L)(5)(a)(iii) of this section. The 41090
annual discharge fee may be prorated for a new source as described 41091
in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section.41092

       (b) An NPDES permit holder that is a public discharger shall 41093
pay the fee specified in the following schedule:41094

Average daily Fee due by 41095
discharge flow January 30, 41096
2012, and 41097
January 30, 2013 41098

5,000 to 49,999 $ 200 41099
50,000 to 100,000 500 41100
100,001 to 250,000 1,050 41101
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,600 41102
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,200 41103
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 10,350 41104
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 15,550 41105
20,000,001 to 50,000,000 25,900 41106
50,000,001 to 100,000,000 41,400 41107
100,000,001 or more 62,100 41108

       Public dischargers owning or operating two or more publicly 41109
owned treatment works serving the same political subdivision, as 41110
"treatment works" is defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised 41111
Code, and that serve exclusively political subdivisions having a 41112
population of fewer than one hundred thousand shall pay an annual 41113
discharge fee under division (L)(5)(b) of this section that is 41114
based on the combined average daily discharge flow of the 41115
treatment works.41116

       (c) An NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger, 41117
other than a coal mining operator identified by P in the third 41118
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number, shall pay the 41119
fee specified in the following schedule:41120

Average daily Fee due by 41121
discharge flow January 30, 41122
2012, and 41123
January 30, 2013 41124

5,000 to 49,999 $ 250 41125
50,000 to 250,000 1,200 41126
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,950 41127
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,850 41128
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 8,800 41129
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 11,700 41130
20,000,001 to 100,000,000 14,050 41131
100,000,001 to 250,000,000 16,400 41132
250,000,001 or more 18,700 41133

       In addition to the fee specified in the above schedule, an 41134
NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger classified as 41135
a major discharger during all or part of the annual discharge fee 41136
billing year specified in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section 41137
shall pay a nonrefundable annual surcharge of seven thousand five 41138
hundred dollars not later than January 30, 2012, and not later 41139
than January 30, 2013. Any person who fails to pay the surcharge 41140
at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per 41141
cent of the amount of the surcharge.41142

       (d) Notwithstanding divisions (L)(5)(b) and (c) of this 41143
section, a public discharger identified by I in the third 41144
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number and an industrial 41145
discharger identified by I, J, L, V, W, X, Y, or Z in the third 41146
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number shall pay a 41147
nonrefundable annual discharge fee of one hundred eighty dollars 41148
not later than January 30, 2012, and not later than January 30, 41149
2013. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time shall pay 41150
an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the required fee.41151

       (6) Each person obtaining a national pollutant discharge 41152
elimination system general or individual permit for municipal 41153
storm water discharge shall pay a nonrefundable storm water 41154
discharge fee of one hundred dollars per square mile of area 41155
permitted. The fee shall not exceed ten thousand dollars and shall 41156
be payable on or before January 30, 2004, and the thirtieth day of 41157
January of each year thereafter. Any person who fails to pay the 41158
fee on the date specified in division (L)(6) of this section shall 41159
pay an additional amount per year equal to ten per cent of the 41160
annual fee that is unpaid.41161

       (7) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 41162
division (L) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 41163
into the state treasury to the credit of the surface water 41164
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.41165

       (8) As used in division (L) of this section:41166

       (a) "NPDES" means the federally approved national pollutant 41167
discharge elimination system program for issuing, modifying, 41168
revoking, reissuing, terminating, monitoring, and enforcing 41169
permits and imposing and enforcing pretreatment requirements under 41170
Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.41171

       (b) "Public discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 41172
identified by P in the second character of the NPDES permit number 41173
assigned by the director.41174

       (c) "Industrial discharger" means any holder of an NPDES 41175
permit identified by I in the second character of the NPDES permit 41176
number assigned by the director.41177

       (d) "Major discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 41178
classified as major by the regional administrator of the United 41179
States environmental protection agency in conjunction with the 41180
director.41181

       (M) Through June 30, 2014, a person applying for a license or 41182
license renewal to operate a public water system under section 41183
6109.21 of the Revised Code shall pay the appropriate fee 41184
established under this division at the time of application to the 41185
director. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time shall 41186
pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the required 41187
fee. The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 41188
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 41189
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 41190
Code.41191

        Except as provided in division (M)(4) of this section, fees 41192
required under this division shall be calculated and paid in 41193
accordance with the following schedule:41194

       (1) For the initial license required under division (A)(1) of41195
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code for any public water system 41196
that is a community water system as defined in section 6109.01 of 41197
the Revised Code, and for each license renewal required for such a 41198
system prior to January 31, 2014, the fee is:41199

Number of service connections Fee amount 41200
Not more than 49    $ 112 41201
50 to 99      176 41202

Number of service connections Average cost per connection 41203
100 to 2,499 $ 1.92 41204
2,500 to 4,999   1.48 41205
5,000 to 7,499   1.42 41206
7,500 to 9,999   1.34 41207
10,000 to 14,999   1.16 41208
15,000 to 24,999   1.10 41209
25,000 to 49,999   1.04 41210
50,000 to 99,999   .92 41211
100,000 to 149,999   .86 41212
150,000 to 199,999   .80 41213
200,000 or more   .76 41214

       A public water system may determine how it will pay the total 41215
amount of the fee calculated under division (M)(1) of this 41216
section, including the assessment of additional user fees that may 41217
be assessed on a volumetric basis.41218

       As used in division (M)(1) of this section, "service 41219
connection" means the number of active or inactive pipes, 41220
goosenecks, pigtails, and any other fittings connecting a water 41221
main to any building outlet.41222

       (2) For the initial license required under division (A)(2) of41223
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code for any public water system 41224
that is not a community water system and serves a nontransient 41225
population, and for each license renewal required for such a 41226
system prior to January 31, 2014, the fee is:41227

Population served Fee amount 41228
Fewer than 150 $    112 41229
150 to 299      176 41230
300 to 749      384 41231
750 to 1,499      628 41232
1,500 to 2,999    1,268 41233
3,000 to 7,499    2,816 41234
7,500 to 14,999    5,510 41235
15,000 to 22,499    9,048 41236
22,500 to 29,999   12,430 41237
30,000 or more   16,820 41238

       As used in division (M)(2) of this section, "population 41239
served" means the total number of individuals having access to the 41240
water supply during a twenty-four-hour period for at least sixty 41241
days during any calendar year. In the absence of a specific 41242
population count, that number shall be calculated at the rate of 41243
three individuals per service connection.41244

       (3) For the initial license required under division (A)(3) of41245
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code for any public water system 41246
that is not a community water system and serves a transient 41247
population, and for each license renewal required for such a 41248
system prior to January 31, 2014, the fee is:41249

  Number of wells or sources, other than surface water, supplying system Fee amount 41250
1 $112 41251
2  112 41252
3  176 41253
4  278 41254
5  568 41255
System designated as using a 41256
surface water source  792 41257

       As used in division (M)(3) of this section, "number of wells 41258
or sources, other than surface water, supplying system" means 41259
those wells or sources that are physically connected to the 41260
plumbing system serving the public water system.41261

       (4) A public water system designated as using a surface water 41262
source shall pay a fee of seven hundred ninety-two dollars or the 41263
amount calculated under division (M)(1) or (2) of this section, 41264
whichever is greater.41265

       (N)(1) A person applying for a plan approval for a public 41266
water supply system under section 6109.07 of the Revised Code 41267
shall pay a fee of one hundred fifty dollars plus thirty-five 41268
hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project cost, except 41269
that the total fee shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars 41270
through June 30, 2014, and fifteen thousand dollars on and after 41271
July 1, 2014. The fee shall be paid at the time the application is 41272
submitted.41273

       (2) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 41274
director under division (A)(2) of section 6109.07 of the Revised 41275
Code shall pay an administrative service fee for each plan 41276
submitted under that section for approval that shall not exceed 41277
the minimum amount necessary to pay administrative costs directly 41278
attributable to processing plan approvals. The director annually 41279
shall calculate the fee and shall notify all persons that have 41280
entered into agreements under that division, or who have applied 41281
for agreements, of the amount of the fee.41282

       (3) Through June 30, 2014, the following fee, on a per survey 41283
basis, shall be charged any person for services rendered by the 41284
state in the evaluation of laboratories and laboratory personnel 41285
for compliance with accepted analytical techniques and procedures 41286
established pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the Revised Code for 41287
determining the qualitative characteristics of water:41288

microbiological 41289
MMO-MUG $2,000 41290
MF 2,100 41291
MMO-MUG and MF 2,550 41292
organic chemical 5,400 41293
trace metals 5,400 41294
standard chemistry 2,800 41295
limited chemistry 1,550 41296

       On and after July 1, 2014, the following fee, on a per survey 41297
basis, shall be charged any such person:41298

microbiological $ 1,650 41299
organic chemicals 3,500 41300
trace metals 3,500 41301
standard chemistry 1,800 41302
limited chemistry 1,000 41303

The fee for those services shall be paid at the time the request 41304
for the survey is made. Through June 30, 2014, an individual 41305
laboratory shall not be assessed a fee under this division more 41306
than once in any three-year period unless the person requests the 41307
addition of analytical methods or analysts, in which case the 41308
person shall pay eighteen hundred dollars for each additional 41309
survey requested.41310

       As used in division (N)(3) of this section:41311

        (a) "MF" means microfiltration.41312

        (b) "MMO" means minimal medium ONPG.41313

        (c) "MUG" means 4-methylumbelliferyl-beta-D-glucuronide.41314

        (d) "ONPG" means o-nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside.41315

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 41316
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 41317
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 41318
Code.41319

        (O) Any person applying to the director forto take an41320
examination for certification as an operator of a water supply 41321
system or wastewater system under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of the 41322
Revised Code that is administered by the director, at the time the 41323
application is submitted, shall pay an application fee of 41324
forty-five dollars through November 30, 2014, and twenty-five 41325
dollars on and after December 1, 2014. Upon approval from the 41326
director that the applicant is eligible to take the examination 41327
therefor, the applicant shall pay a fee in accordance with the 41328
following schedule through November 30, 2014:41329

Class A operator $35 80 41330
Class I operator  60 105 41331
Class II operator  75 120 41332
Class III operator  85 130 41333
Class IV operator  100 145 41334

       On and after December 1, 2014, the applicant shall pay a fee 41335
in accordance with the following schedule:41336

Class A operator $25 50 41337
Class I operator $45 70 41338
Class II operator  55 80 41339
Class III operator  65 90 41340
Class IV operator  75 100 41341

       Any person applying to the director for certification as an 41342
operator of a water supply system or wastewater system who has 41343
passed an examination administered by an examination provider 41344
approved by the director shall pay a certification fee of 41345
forty-five dollars.41346

       A person shall pay a biennial certification renewal fee for 41347
each applicable class of certification in accordance with the 41348
following schedule:41349

Class A operator $25 41350
Class I operator  35 41351
Class II operator  45 41352
Class III operator  55 41353
Class IV operator  65 41354

        If a certification renewal fee is received by the director 41355
more than thirty days, but not more than one year after the 41356
expiration date of the certification, the person shall pay a 41357
certification renewal fee in accordance with the following 41358
schedule:41359

Class A operator $45 41360
Class I operator  55 41361
Class II operator  65 41362
Class III operator  75 41363
Class IV operator  85 41364

       A person who requests a replacement certificate shall pay a 41365
fee of twenty-five dollars at the time the request is made.41366

       Any person applying to be a water supply system or wastewater 41367
treatment system examination provider shall pay an application fee 41368
of five hundred dollars. Any person approved by the director as a 41369
water supply system or wastewater treatment system examination 41370
provider shall pay an annual fee that is equal to ten per cent of 41371
the fees that the provider assesses and collects for administering 41372
water supply system or wastewater treatment system certification 41373
examinations in this state for the calendar year. The fee shall be 41374
paid not later than forty-five days after the end of a calendar 41375
year.41376

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 41377
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 41378
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 41379
Code.41380

       (P) Any person submitting an application for an industrial 41381
water pollution control certificate under section 6111.31 of the 41382
Revised Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 95 41383
of the 125th general assembly, shall pay a nonrefundable fee of 41384
five hundred dollars at the time the application is submitted. The 41385
director shall transmit all moneys collected under this division 41386
to the treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water 41387
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code. A 41388
person paying a certificate fee under this division shall not pay 41389
an application fee under division (S)(1) of this section. On and 41390
after June 26, 2003, persons shall file such applications and pay 41391
the fee as required under sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of the 41392
Revised Code, and proceeds from the fee shall be credited as 41393
provided in section 5709.212 of the Revised Code.41394

       (Q) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 41395
section, a person issued a permit by the director for a new solid 41396
waste disposal facility other than an incineration or composting 41397
facility, a new infectious waste treatment facility other than an 41398
incineration facility, or a modification of such an existing 41399
facility that includes an increase in the total disposal or 41400
treatment capacity of the facility pursuant to Chapter 3734. of 41401
the Revised Code shall pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic 41402
yards of disposal or treatment capacity, or one thousand dollars, 41403
whichever is greater, except that the total fee for any such 41404
permit shall not exceed eighty thousand dollars. A person issued a 41405
modification of a permit for a solid waste disposal facility or an 41406
infectious waste treatment facility that does not involve an 41407
increase in the total disposal or treatment capacity of the 41408
facility shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. A person issued 41409
a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, solid waste 41410
transfer facility under that chapter shall pay a fee of two 41411
thousand five hundred dollars. A person issued a permit to install 41412
a new or to modify an existing solid waste incineration or 41413
composting facility, or an existing infectious waste treatment 41414
facility using incineration as its principal method of treatment, 41415
under that chapter shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. The 41416
increases in the permit fees under this division resulting from 41417
the amendments made by Amended Substitute House Bill 592 of the 41418
117th general assembly do not apply to any person who submitted an 41419
application for a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, 41420
solid waste disposal facility under that chapter prior to 41421
September 1, 1987; any such person shall pay the permit fee 41422
established in this division as it existed prior to June 24, 1988. 41423
In addition to the applicable permit fee under this division, a 41424
person issued a permit to install or modify a solid waste facility 41425
or an infectious waste treatment facility under that chapter who 41426
fails to pay the permit fee to the director in compliance with 41427
division (V) of this section shall pay an additional ten per cent 41428
of the amount of the fee for each week that the permit fee is 41429
late.41430

       Permit and late payment fees paid to the director under this 41431
division shall be credited to the general revenue fund.41432

       (R)(1) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 41433
tire collection facility under section 3734.75 of the Revised Code 41434
shall pay a fee of two hundred dollars, except that if the 41435
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 41436
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 41437
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.41438

       (2) A person issued a registration certificate for a new 41439
scrap tire storage facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised 41440
Code shall pay a fee of three hundred dollars, except that if the 41441
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 41442
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 41443
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.41444

       (3) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire storage 41445
facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 41446
of one thousand dollars, except that if the facility is owned or 41447
operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 41448
4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall pay a fee of fifty 41449
dollars.41450

       (4) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire monocell or 41451
monofill facility under section 3734.77 of the Revised Code shall 41452
pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic yards of disposal 41453
capacity or one thousand dollars, whichever is greater, except 41454
that the total fee for any such permit shall not exceed eighty 41455
thousand dollars.41456

       (5) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 41457
tire recovery facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code 41458
shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars.41459

       (6) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire recovery 41460
facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 41461
of one thousand dollars.41462

       (7) In addition to the applicable registration certificate or 41463
permit fee under divisions (R)(1) to (6) of this section, a person 41464
issued a registration certificate or permit for any such scrap 41465
tire facility who fails to pay the registration certificate or 41466
permit fee to the director in compliance with division (V) of this 41467
section shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the 41468
fee for each week that the fee is late.41469

       (8) The registration certificate, permit, and late payment 41470
fees paid to the director under divisions (R)(1) to (7) of this 41471
section shall be credited to the scrap tire management fund 41472
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code.41473

       (S)(1) Except as provided by divisions (L), (M), (N), (O), 41474
(P), and (S)(2) of this section, division (A)(2) of section 41475
3734.05 of the Revised Code, section 3734.79 of the Revised Code, 41476
and rules adopted under division (T)(1) of this section, any 41477
person applying for a registration certificate under section 41478
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code or a permit, 41479
variance, or plan approval under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code 41480
shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time the 41481
application is submitted.41482

       Except as otherwise provided, any person applying for a 41483
permit, variance, or plan approval under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of 41484
the Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of one hundred 41485
dollars at the time the application is submitted through June 30, 41486
2014, and a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time the 41487
application is submitted on and after July 1, 2014. Except as 41488
provided in division (S)(3) of this section, through June 30, 41489
2014, any person applying for a national pollutant discharge 41490
elimination system permit under Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code 41491
shall pay a nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars at the time 41492
of application for the permit. On and after July 1, 2014, such a 41493
person shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the 41494
time of application.41495

       In addition to the application fee established under division 41496
(S)(1) of this section, any person applying for a national 41497
pollutant discharge elimination system general storm water 41498
construction permit shall pay a nonrefundable fee of twenty 41499
dollars per acre for each acre that is permitted above five acres 41500
at the time the application is submitted. However, the per acreage 41501
fee shall not exceed three hundred dollars. In addition, any 41502
person applying for a national pollutant discharge elimination 41503
system general storm water industrial permit shall pay a 41504
nonrefundable fee of one hundred fifty dollars at the time the 41505
application is submitted.41506

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 41507
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the 41508
Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit into the 41509
drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the 41510
Revised Code.41511

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 41512
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the 41513
Revised Code and under division (S)(3) of this section to the 41514
treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water protection 41515
fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.41516

       If a registration certificate is issued under section 41517
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code, the amount of 41518
the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the 41519
registration certificate fee due under division (R)(1), (2), or 41520
(5) of this section, as applicable.41521

       If a person submits an electronic application for a 41522
registration certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for 41523
which an application fee is established under division (S)(1) of 41524
this section, the person shall pay the applicable application fee 41525
as expeditiously as possible after the submission of the 41526
electronic application. An application for a registration 41527
certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for which an 41528
application fee is established under division (S)(1) of this 41529
section shall not be reviewed or processed until the applicable 41530
application fee, and any other fees established under this 41531
division, are paid.41532

       (2) Division (S)(1) of this section does not apply to an 41533
application for a registration certificate for a scrap tire 41534
collection or storage facility submitted under section 3734.75 or 41535
3734.76 of the Revised Code, as applicable, if the owner or 41536
operator of the facility or proposed facility is a motor vehicle 41537
salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code.41538

       (3) A person applying for coverage under a national pollutant 41539
discharge elimination system general discharge permit for 41540
household sewage treatment systems shall pay the following fees:41541

       (a) A nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars at the time of 41542
application for initial permit coverage;41543

       (b) A nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars at the time of 41544
application for a renewal of permit coverage.41545

       (T) The director may adopt, amend, and rescind rules in 41546
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do all of 41547
the following:41548

       (1) Prescribe fees to be paid by applicants for and holders 41549
of any license, permit, variance, plan approval, or certification 41550
required or authorized by Chapter 3704., 3734., 6109., or 6111. of 41551
the Revised Code that are not specifically established in this 41552
section. The fees shall be designed to defray the cost of 41553
processing, issuing, revoking, modifying, denying, and enforcing 41554
the licenses, permits, variances, plan approvals, and 41555
certifications.41556

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 41557
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 41558
6109. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 41559
into the drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 41560
of the Revised Code.41561

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 41562
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 41563
6111. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 41564
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 41565
of the Revised Code.41566

       (2) Exempt the state and political subdivisions thereof, 41567
including education facilities or medical facilities owned by the 41568
state or a political subdivision, or any person exempted from 41569
taxation by section 5709.07 or 5709.12 of the Revised Code, from 41570
any fee required by this section;41571

       (3) Provide for the waiver of any fee, or any part thereof, 41572
otherwise required by this section whenever the director 41573
determines that the imposition of the fee would constitute an 41574
unreasonable cost of doing business for any applicant, class of 41575
applicants, or other person subject to the fee;41576

       (4) Prescribe measures that the director considers necessary 41577
to carry out this section.41578

       (U) When the director reasonably demonstrates that the direct 41579
cost to the state associated with the issuance of a permit to 41580
install, license, variance, plan approval, or certification 41581
exceeds the fee for the issuance or review specified by this 41582
section, the director may condition the issuance or review on the 41583
payment by the person receiving the issuance or review of, in 41584
addition to the fee specified by this section, the amount, or any 41585
portion thereof, in excess of the fee specified under this 41586
section. The director shall not so condition issuances for which 41587
fees area fee is prescribed in divisions (B)(7) anddivision41588
(L)(1)(b) of this section.41589

       (V) Except as provided in divisions (L), (M), and (P) of this 41590
section or unless otherwise prescribed by a rule of the director 41591
adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, all fees 41592
required by this section are payable within thirty days after the 41593
issuance of an invoice for the fee by the director or the 41594
effective date of the issuance of the license, permit, variance, 41595
plan approval, or certification. If payment is late, the person 41596
responsible for payment of the fee shall pay an additional ten per 41597
cent of the amount due for each month that it is late.41598

       (W) As used in this section, "fuel-burning equipment," 41599
"fuel-burning equipment input capacity," "incinerator," 41600
"incinerator input capacity," "process," "process weight rate," 41601
"storage tank," "gasoline dispensing facility," "dry cleaning 41602
facility," "design flow discharge," and "new source treatment 41603
works" have the meanings ascribed to those terms by applicable 41604
rules or standards adopted by the director under Chapter 3704. or 41605
6111. of the Revised Code.41606

       (X) As used in divisions (B), (C), (D), (E), (F), (H), (I), 41607
and (J) of this section, and in any other provision of this 41608
section pertaining to fees paid pursuant to Chapter 3704. of the 41609
Revised Code:41610

       (1) "Facility," "federal Clean Air Act," "person," and "Title 41611
V permit" have the same meanings as in section 3704.01 of the 41612
Revised Code.41613

       (2) "Title V permit program" means the following activities 41614
as necessary to meet the requirements of Title V of the federal 41615
Clean Air Act and 40 C.F.R. part 70, including at least:41616

       (a) Preparing and adopting, if applicable, generally 41617
applicable rules or guidance regarding the permit program or its 41618
implementation or enforcement;41619

       (b) Reviewing and acting on any application for a Title V 41620
permit, permit revision, or permit renewal, including the 41621
development of an applicable requirement as part of the processing 41622
of a permit, permit revision, or permit renewal;41623

       (c) Administering the permit program, including the 41624
supporting and tracking of permit applications, compliance 41625
certification, and related data entry;41626

       (d) Determining which sources are subject to the program and 41627
implementing and enforcing the terms of any Title V permit, not 41628
including any court actions or other formal enforcement actions;41629

       (e) Emission and ambient monitoring;41630

       (f) Modeling, analyses, or demonstrations;41631

       (g) Preparing inventories and tracking emissions;41632

       (h) Providing direct and indirect support to small business 41633
stationary sources to determine and meet their obligations under 41634
the federal Clean Air Act pursuant to the small business 41635
stationary source technical and environmental compliance 41636
assistance program required by section 507 of that act and 41637
established in sections 3704.18, 3704.19, and 3706.19 of the 41638
Revised Code.41639

       (Y)(1) Except as provided in divisions (Y)(2), (3), and (4) 41640
of this section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a 41641
nonrefundable annual sludge fee equal to three dollars and fifty 41642
cents per dry ton of sewage sludge, including the dry tons of 41643
sewage sludge in materials derived from sewage sludge, that the 41644
sewage sludge facility treats or disposes of in this state. The 41645
annual volume of sewage sludge treated or disposed of by a sewage 41646
sludge facility shall be calculated using the first day of January 41647
through the thirty-first day of December of the calendar year 41648
preceding the date on which payment of the fee is due.41649

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this 41650
section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a minimum annual 41651
sewage sludge fee of one hundred dollars.41652

       (b) The annual sludge fee required to be paid by a sewage 41653
sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional quality 41654
sludge in this state shall be thirty-five per cent less per dry 41655
ton of exceptional quality sludge than the fee assessed under 41656
division (Y)(1) of this section, subject to the following 41657
exceptions:41658

       (i) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this section, 41659
a sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional 41660
quality sludge shall pay a minimum annual sewage sludge fee of one 41661
hundred dollars.41662

       (ii) A sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of 41663
exceptional quality sludge shall not be required to pay the annual 41664
sludge fee for treatment or disposal in this state of exceptional 41665
quality sludge generated outside of this state and contained in 41666
bags or other containers not greater than one hundred pounds in 41667
capacity.41668

       A thirty-five per cent reduction for exceptional quality 41669
sludge applies to the maximum annual fees established under 41670
division (Y)(3) of this section.41671

       (c) A sewage sludge facility that transfers sewage sludge to 41672
another sewage sludge facility in this state for further treatment 41673
prior to disposal in this state shall not be required to pay the 41674
annual sludge fee for the tons of sewage sludge that have been 41675
transferred. In such a case, the sewage sludge facility that 41676
disposes of the sewage sludge shall pay the annual sludge fee. 41677
However, the facility transferring the sewage sludge shall pay the 41678
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 41679
of this section.41680

       In the case of a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage 41681
sludge in this state and transfers it out of this state to another 41682
entity for disposal, the sewage sludge facility in this state 41683
shall be required to pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 41684
sewage sludge that have been transferred.41685

       (d) A sewage sludge facility that generates sewage sludge 41686
resulting from an average daily discharge flow of less than five 41687
thousand gallons per day is not subject to the fees assessed under 41688
division (Y) of this section.41689

       (3) No sewage sludge facility required to pay the annual 41690
sludge fee shall be required to pay more than the maximum annual 41691
fee for each disposal method that the sewage sludge facility uses. 41692
The maximum annual fee does not include the additional amount that 41693
may be charged under division (Y)(5) of this section for late 41694
payment of the annual sludge fee. The maximum annual fee for the 41695
following methods of disposal of sewage sludge is as follows:41696

       (a) Incineration: five thousand dollars;41697

       (b) Preexisting land reclamation project or disposal in a 41698
landfill: five thousand dollars;41699

       (c) Land application, land reclamation, surface disposal, or 41700
any other disposal method not specified in division (Y)(3)(a) or 41701
(b) of this section: twenty thousand dollars.41702

       (4)(a) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge 41703
or a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage sludge and 41704
transfers the sewage sludge to an incineration facility for 41705
disposal, the incineration facility, and not the entity generating 41706
the sewage sludge or the sewage sludge facility treating the 41707
sewage sludge, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 41708
sewage sludge that are transferred. However, the entity or 41709
facility generating or treating the sewage sludge shall pay the 41710
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 41711
of this section.41712

       (b) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge and 41713
transfers the sewage sludge to a landfill for disposal or to a 41714
sewage sludge facility for land reclamation or surface disposal, 41715
the entity generating the sewage sludge, and not the landfill or 41716
sewage sludge facility, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the 41717
tons of sewage sludge that are transferred.41718

       (5) Not later than the first day of April of the calendar 41719
year following March 17, 2000, and each first day of April 41720
thereafter, the director shall issue invoices to persons who are 41721
required to pay the annual sludge fee. The invoice shall identify 41722
the nature and amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and state 41723
the first day of May as the deadline for receipt by the director 41724
of objections regarding the amount of the fee and the first day of 41725
July as the deadline for payment of the fee.41726

       Not later than the first day of May following receipt of an 41727
invoice, a person required to pay the annual sludge fee may submit 41728
objections to the director concerning the accuracy of information 41729
regarding the number of dry tons of sewage sludge used to 41730
calculate the amount of the annual sludge fee or regarding whether 41731
the sewage sludge qualifies for the exceptional quality sludge 41732
discount established in division (Y)(2)(b) of this section. The 41733
director may consider the objections and adjust the amount of the 41734
fee to ensure that it is accurate.41735

       If the director does not adjust the amount of the annual 41736
sludge fee in response to a person's objections, the person may 41737
appeal the director's determination in accordance with Chapter 41738
119. of the Revised Code.41739

       Not later than the first day of June, the director shall 41740
notify the objecting person regarding whether the director has 41741
found the objections to be valid and the reasons for the finding. 41742
If the director finds the objections to be valid and adjusts the 41743
amount of the annual sludge fee accordingly, the director shall 41744
issue with the notification a new invoice to the person 41745
identifying the amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and 41746
stating the first day of July as the deadline for payment.41747

       Not later than the first day of July, any person who is 41748
required to do so shall pay the annual sludge fee. Any person who 41749
is required to pay the fee, but who fails to do so on or before 41750
that date shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent 41751
of the required annual sludge fee.41752

       (6) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 41753
division (Y) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 41754
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 41755
of the Revised Code. The moneys shall be used to defray the costs 41756
of administering and enforcing provisions in Chapter 6111. of the 41757
Revised Code and rules adopted under it that govern the use, 41758
storage, treatment, or disposal of sewage sludge.41759

       (7) Beginning in fiscal year 2001, and every two years 41760
thereafter, the director shall review the total amount of moneys 41761
generated by the annual sludge fees to determine if that amount 41762
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either of the two 41763
preceding fiscal years. If the total amount of moneys in the fund 41764
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either fiscal year, the 41765
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 41766
affected persons, shall issue an order reducing the amount of the 41767
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 41768
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will not exceed 41769
six hundred thousand dollars in any fiscal year.41770

       If, upon review of the fees under division (Y)(7) of this 41771
section and after the fees have been reduced, the director 41772
determines that the total amount of moneys collected and 41773
accumulated is less than six hundred thousand dollars, the 41774
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 41775
affected persons, may issue an order increasing the amount of the 41776
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 41777
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will be 41778
approximately six hundred thousand dollars. Fees shall never be 41779
increased to an amount exceeding the amount specified in division 41780
(Y)(7) of this section.41781

       Notwithstanding section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the 41782
director may issue an order under division (Y)(7) of this section 41783
without the necessity to hold an adjudicatory hearing in 41784
connection with the order. The issuance of an order under this 41785
division is not an act or action for purposes of section 3745.04 41786
of the Revised Code.41787

       (8) As used in division (Y) of this section:41788

       (a) "Sewage sludge facility" means an entity that performs 41789
treatment on or is responsible for the disposal of sewage sludge.41790

       (b) "Sewage sludge" means a solid, semi-solid, or liquid 41791
residue generated during the treatment of domestic sewage in a 41792
treatment works as defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code. 41793
"Sewage sludge" includes, but is not limited to, scum or solids 41794
removed in primary, secondary, or advanced wastewater treatment 41795
processes. "Sewage sludge" does not include ash generated during 41796
the firing of sewage sludge in a sewage sludge incinerator, grit 41797
and screenings generated during preliminary treatment of domestic 41798
sewage in a treatment works, animal manure, residue generated 41799
during treatment of animal manure, or domestic septage.41800

       (c) "Exceptional quality sludge" means sewage sludge that 41801
meets all of the following qualifications:41802

       (i) Satisfies the class A pathogen standards in 40 C.F.R. 41803
503.32(a);41804

       (ii) Satisfies one of the vector attraction reduction 41805
requirements in 40 C.F.R. 503.33(b)(1) to (b)(8);41806

       (iii) Does not exceed the ceiling concentration limitations 41807
for metals listed in table one of 40 C.F.R. 503.13;41808

       (iv) Does not exceed the concentration limitations for metals 41809
listed in table three of 40 C.F.R. 503.13.41810

       (d) "Treatment" means the preparation of sewage sludge for 41811
final use or disposal and includes, but is not limited to, 41812
thickening, stabilization, and dewatering of sewage sludge.41813

       (e) "Disposal" means the final use of sewage sludge, 41814
including, but not limited to, land application, land reclamation, 41815
surface disposal, or disposal in a landfill or an incinerator.41816

       (f) "Land application" means the spraying or spreading of 41817
sewage sludge onto the land surface, the injection of sewage 41818
sludge below the land surface, or the incorporation of sewage 41819
sludge into the soil for the purposes of conditioning the soil or 41820
fertilizing crops or vegetation grown in the soil.41821

       (g) "Land reclamation" means the returning of disturbed land 41822
to productive use.41823

       (h) "Surface disposal" means the placement of sludge on an 41824
area of land for disposal, including, but not limited to, 41825
monofills, surface impoundments, lagoons, waste piles, or 41826
dedicated disposal sites.41827

       (i) "Incinerator" means an entity that disposes of sewage 41828
sludge through the combustion of organic matter and inorganic 41829
matter in sewage sludge by high temperatures in an enclosed 41830
device.41831

       (j) "Incineration facility" includes all incinerators owned 41832
or operated by the same entity and located on a contiguous tract 41833
of land. Areas of land are considered to be contiguous even if 41834
they are separated by a public road or highway.41835

       (k) "Annual sludge fee" means the fee assessed under division 41836
(Y)(1) of this section.41837

       (l) "Landfill" means a sanitary landfill facility, as defined 41838
in rules adopted under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, that 41839
is licensed under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.41840

       (m) "Preexisting land reclamation project" means a 41841
property-specific land reclamation project that has been in 41842
continuous operation for not less than five years pursuant to 41843
approval of the activity by the director and includes the 41844
implementation of a community outreach program concerning the 41845
activity.41846

       Sec. 3745.112.  During the month of August 1997, and 41847
biennially thereafter, the director of environmental protection 41848
shall enter into a contract for the performance of an independent 41849
evaluation of the Title V permit program to be conducted under the 41850
supervision of an independent certified public accountant. The 41851
evaluation shall review the finances, operations, revenues, costs, 41852
and expenditures of the Title V permit program under section 41853
3704.036 of the Revised Code and the Title V clean air fund 41854
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code. The findings of 41855
each such evaluation shall be set forth in a written report that 41856
shall include, without limitation, all of the following:41857

       (A) A review and analysis of all expenditures from the Title 41858
V clean air fund for the Title V permit program;41859

       (B) A review and analysis of all costs incurred by the 41860
environmental protection agency designated by the director to be 41861
costs of the Title V permit program;41862

       (C) A review and analysis of all expenditures from the Title 41863
V clean air fund for costs not designated by the director as costs 41864
of the Title V permit program;41865

       (D) A review and analysis of the adequacy of the fees 41866
assessed under division (C)(B) of section 3745.11 for meeting the 41867
costs of the Title V permit program during the period reviewed by 41868
the evaluation.41869

       Upon completion of the written report of each evaluation 41870
required by this section, the director shall provide copies of the 41871
report to the governor and the general assembly and shall make 41872
copies of it available to the public.41873

       The reasonable and necessary expenses for conducting an 41874
evaluation required under this section are hereby deemed to be 41875
reasonable costs to administer the Title V permit program and 41876
shall be paid from moneys credited to the Title V clean air fund 41877
arising from the fees assessed under division (C)(B) of section 41878
3745.11 of the Revised Code.41879

       Sec. 3748.04.  The publicdirector of health council, in 41880
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt and 41881
may amend or rescind rules doing all of the following:41882

       (A) Listing types of radioactive material for which licensure 41883
by its handler is required and types of radiation-generating 41884
equipment for which registration by its handler is required, and 41885
establishing requirements governing them. Rules adopted under 41886
division (A) of this section shall be compatible with applicable 41887
federal regulations and shall establish all of the following, 41888
without limitation:41889

       (1) Requirements governing both of the following:41890

       (a) The licensing and inspection of handlers of radioactive 41891
material. Standards established in rules adopted under division 41892
(A)(1)(a) of this section regarding byproduct material or any 41893
activity that results in the production of that material, to the 41894
extent practicable, shall be equivalent to or more stringent than 41895
applicable standards established by the United States nuclear 41896
regulatory commission.41897

       (b) The registration and inspection of handlers of 41898
radiation-generating equipment. Standards established in rules 41899
adopted under division (A)(1)(b) of this section, to the extent 41900
practicable, shall be equivalent to applicable standards 41901
established by the food and drug administration in the United 41902
States department of health and human services.41903

       (2) Identification of and requirements governing possession 41904
and use of specifically licensed and generally licensed quantities 41905
of radioactive material as either sealed sources or unsealed 41906
sources;41907

       (3) A procedure for the issuance of and the frequency of 41908
renewal of the licenses of handlers of radioactive material, other 41909
than a license for a facility for the disposal of low-level 41910
radioactive waste, and of the certificates of registration of 41911
handlers of radiation-generating equipment;41912

       (4) Procedures for suspending and revoking the licenses of 41913
handlers of radioactive material and the certificates of 41914
registration of handlers of radiation-generating equipment;41915

       (5) Criteria to be used by the director of health in amending 41916
the license of a handler of radioactive material or the 41917
certificate of registration of a handler of radiation-generating 41918
equipment subsequent to its issuance;41919

       (6) Criteria for achieving and maintaining compliance with 41920
this chapter and rules adopted under it by licensees and 41921
registrants;41922

       (7) Criteria governing environmental monitoring of licensed 41923
and registered activities to assess compliance with this chapter 41924
and rules adopted under it;41925

       (8) Fees for both of the following:41926

       (a) The licensing of handlers, other than facilities for the 41927
disposal of low-level radioactive waste, of radioactive material;41928

       (b) The registration of handlers, other than facilities that 41929
are, or are operated by, medical practitioners or 41930
medical-practitioner groups, of radiation-generating equipment.41931

       (9) A fee schedule for both of the following that includes 41932
fees for reviews, conducted during an inspection, of shielding 41933
plans or the adequacy of shielding: 41934

       (a) The inspection of handlers of radioactive material; 41935

       (b) The inspection of handlers, other than facilities that 41936
are, or are operated by, medical practitioners or 41937
medical-practitioner groups, of radiation-generating equipment.41938

       (B)(1) Identifying sources of radiation, circumstances of 41939
possession, use, or disposal of sources of radiation, and levels 41940
of radiation that constitute an unreasonable or unnecessary risk 41941
to human health or the environment;41942

       (2) Establishing requirements for the achievement and 41943
maintenance of compliance with standards for the receipt, 41944
possession, use, storage, installation, transfer, servicing, and 41945
disposal of sources of radiation to prevent levels of radiation 41946
that constitute an unreasonable or unnecessary risk to human 41947
health or the environment;41948

       (3) Requiring the maintenance of records on the receipt, use, 41949
storage, transfer, and disposal of radioactive material and on the 41950
radiological safety aspects of the use and maintenance of 41951
radiation-generating equipment.41952

       In adopting rules under divisions (A) and (B) of this 41953
section, the councildirector shall use standards no less 41954
stringent than the "suggested state regulations for control of 41955
radiation" prepared by the conference of radiation control program 41956
directors, inc., and regulations adopted by the United States 41957
nuclear regulatory commission, the United States environmental 41958
protection agency, and the United States department of health and 41959
human services and shall consider reports of the national council 41960
on radiation protection and measurement and the relevant standards 41961
of the American national standards institute.41962

       (C) Establishing fees, procedures, and requirements for 41963
certification as a radiation expert, including all of the 41964
following, without limitation:41965

       (1) Minimum training and experience requirements;41966

       (2) Procedures for applying for certification;41967

       (3) Procedures for review of applications and issuance of 41968
certificates;41969

       (4) Procedures for suspending and revoking certification.41970

       (D) Establishing a schedule for inspection of sources of 41971
radiation and their shielding and surroundings;41972

       (E) Establishing the responsibilities of a radiation expert;41973

       (F) Establishing criteria for quality assurance programs for 41974
licensees of radioactive material and registrants of 41975
radiation-generating equipment;41976

       (G) Establishing fees to be paid by any facility that, on 41977
September 8, 1995, holds a license from the United States nuclear 41978
regulatory commission in order to provide moneys necessary for the 41979
transfer of licensing and other regulatory authority from the 41980
commission to the state pursuant to section 3748.03 of the Revised 41981
Code. Rules adopted under this division shall stipulate that fees 41982
so established do not apply to any functions dealing specifically 41983
with a facility for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste. 41984
Fees collected under this division shall be deposited into the 41985
state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 41986
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be 41987
used solely to administer and enforce this chapter and rules 41988
adopted under it.41989

       (H) Establishing fees to be collected annually from 41990
generators of low-level radioactive waste, which shall be based 41991
upon the volume and radioactivity of the waste generated and the 41992
costs of administering low-level radioactive waste management 41993
activities under this chapter and rules adopted under it. All fees 41994
collected under this division shall be deposited into the state 41995
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in 41996
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be used solely 41997
to administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it. 41998
Any fee required under this division that has not been paid within 41999
ninety daysremains unpaid on the ninety-first day after the 42000
original invoice date shall be assessed at two timesan additional 42001
amount equal to ten per cent of the original invoiced fee. Any fee 42002
that has not been paid within one hundred eighty days after the 42003
invoice date shall be assessed at five times the original invoiced 42004
fee.42005

       (I) Establishing requirements governing closure, 42006
decontamination, decommissioning, reclamation, and long-term 42007
surveillance and care of a facility licensed under this chapter 42008
and rules adopted under it. Rules adopted under division (I) of 42009
this section shall include, without limitation, all of the 42010
following:42011

       (1) Standards and procedures to ensure that a licensee 42012
prepares a decommissioning funding plan that provides an adequate 42013
financial guaranty to permit the completion of all requirements 42014
governing the closure, decontamination, decommissioning, and 42015
reclamation of sites, structures, and equipment used in 42016
conjunction with a licensed activity;42017

       (2) For licensed activities where radioactive material that 42018
will require surveillance or care is likely to remain at the site 42019
after the licensed activities cease, as indicated in the 42020
application for the license submitted under section 3748.07 of the 42021
Revised Code, standards and procedures to ensure that the licensee 42022
prepares an additional decommissioning funding plan for long-term 42023
surveillance and care, before termination of the license, that 42024
provides an additional adequate financial guaranty as necessary to 42025
provide for that surveillance and care;42026

       (3) For the purposes of the decommissioning funding plans 42027
required in rules adopted under divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this 42028
section, the types of acceptable financial guaranties, which shall 42029
include bonds issued by fidelity or surety companies authorized to 42030
do business in the state, certificates of deposit, deposits of 42031
government securities, irrevocable letters or lines of credit, 42032
trust funds, escrow accounts, or other similar types of 42033
arrangements, but shall not include any arrangement that 42034
constitutes self-insurance;42035

       (4) A requirement that the decommissioning funding plans 42036
required in rules adopted under divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this 42037
section contain financial guaranties in amounts sufficient to 42038
ensure compliance with any standards established by the United 42039
States nuclear regulatory commission, or by the state if it has 42040
become an agreement state pursuant to section 3748.03 of the 42041
Revised Code, pertaining to closure, decontamination, 42042
decommissioning, reclamation, and long-term surveillance and care 42043
of licensed activities and sites of licensees.42044

       Standards established in rules adopted under division (I) of 42045
this section regarding any activity that resulted in the 42046
production of byproduct material, as defined in division (A)(2) of 42047
section 3748.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent practicable, 42048
shall be equivalent to or more stringent than standards 42049
established by the United States nuclear regulatory commission for 42050
sites at which ores were processed primarily for their source 42051
material content and at which byproduct material, as defined in 42052
division (A)(2) of section 3748.01 of the Revised Code, is 42053
deposited.42054

       (J) Establishing criteria governing inspections of a facility 42055
for the disposal of low-level radioactive waste, including, 42056
without limitation, the establishment of a resident inspector 42057
program at such a facility;42058

       (K) Establishing requirements and procedures governing the 42059
filing of complaints under section 3748.16 of the Revised Code, 42060
including, without limitation, those governing intervention in a 42061
hearing held under division (B)(3) of that section.42062

       Sec. 3748.05.  (A) The director of health shall do all of the 42063
following:42064

       (1) Administer and enforce this chapter and the rules adopted 42065
under it;42066

       (2) Collect and make available information relating to 42067
sources of radiation;42068

       (3) Ensure the review of plans and specifications, submitted 42069
in accordance with rules adopted by the public health council42070
director, for the control of radiation that constitutes an 42071
unreasonable or unnecessary risk to human health or the 42072
environment;42073

       (4) Review reports of quality assurance audits performed by 42074
certified radiation experts under this chapter and the rules 42075
adopted under it;42076

       (5) Ensure that programs for the control of sources of 42077
radiation are developed with due regard for compatibility with 42078
federal programs for the regulation of byproduct, source, and 42079
special nuclear materials;42080

       (6) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 42081
adopt, and subsequently may amend and rescind, rules providing for 42082
the administrative assessment and collection of monetary penalties 42083
for failure by any facility licensed under this chapter and rules 42084
adopted under it to comply with this chapter and those rules. The 42085
director may require the submission of compliance schedules and 42086
other related information. Any orders issued or payments or other 42087
requirements imposed pursuant to rules adopted under division 42088
(A)(6) of this section shall not affect any civil or criminal 42089
enforcement proceeding brought under this chapter or any other 42090
provision of state or local law. Moneys collected as 42091
administrative penalties imposed pursuant to rules adopted under 42092
division (A)(6) of this section shall be deposited in the state 42093
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created in 42094
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The moneys shall be used 42095
solely to administer and enforce this chapter and the rules 42096
adopted under it.42097

       (7) Maintain files of both of the following:42098

       (a) All license and registration applications, issuances, 42099
denials, amendments, renewals, suspensions, and revocations and 42100
any administrative or judicial action pertaining to them;42101

       (b) All rules adopted under this chapter, or proposed to be 42102
adopted, relating to the regulation of sources of radiation and 42103
proceedings on them.42104

       (B) The director may do any or all of the following:42105

       (1) Advise, consult, and cooperate with other agencies of the 42106
state, the federal government, other states, interstate agencies, 42107
political subdivisions, industries, and other affected groups in 42108
furtherance of the purposes of this chapter and the rules adopted 42109
under it;42110

       (2) Accept and administer grants from the federal government 42111
and from other sources, public or private, for carrying out any of 42112
the director's functions under this chapter and the rules adopted 42113
under it;42114

       (3) Encourage, participate in, or conduct studies, 42115
investigations, training, research, and demonstrations relating to 42116
the detection and control of radiation that constitutes an 42117
unreasonable or unnecessary risk to human health or the 42118
environment, the measurement of radiation, the evaluation of 42119
potential effects on health of cumulative or acute exposure to 42120
radiation, the development and improvement of methods to limit and 42121
reduce the generation of radioactive waste, and related problems 42122
as the director considers necessary or advisable;42123

       (4) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 42124
adopt rules establishing criteria under which other agencies of 42125
the state or private entities may perform inspections of x-ray 42126
equipment at registered dental facilities at the request of the 42127
facility or pursuant to contract with the department;42128

       (5) Exercise all incidental powers necessary to carry out the 42129
purposes of this chapter and the rules adopted under it, 42130
including, without limitation, the issuance of orders.42131

       Sec. 3748.07.  (A) Every facility that proposes to handle 42132
radioactive material or radiation-generating equipment for which 42133
licensure or registration, respectively, by its handler is 42134
required shall apply in writing to the director of health on forms 42135
prescribed and provided by the director for licensure or 42136
registration. Terms and conditions of licenses and certificates of 42137
registration may be amended in accordance with rules adopted under 42138
section 3748.04 of the Revised Code or orders issued by the 42139
director pursuant to section 3748.05 of the Revised Code.42140

       (B)(1) An applicant proposing to handle radioactive material 42141
shall pay for a license or renewal of a license the appropriate 42142
fee specified in rules adopted under section 3748.04 of the 42143
Revised Code and listed on an invoice provided by the director. 42144
The applicant shall pay the fee on receipt of the invoice.42145

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this 42146
section, until fees are established in rules adopted under 42147
division (A)(8)(b) of section 3748.04 of the Revised Code, an 42148
applicant proposing to handle radiation-generating equipment shall 42149
pay for a certificate of registration or renewal of a certificate 42150
a biennial registration fee of two hundred sixty-two dollars.42151

       Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, on 42152
and after the effective date of the rules in which fees are 42153
established under division (A)(8)(b) of section 3748.04 of the 42154
Revised Code, an applicant proposing to handle 42155
radiation-generating equipment shall pay for a certificate of 42156
registration or renewal of a certificate the appropriate fee 42157
established in those rules.42158

       The applicant shall pay the fees described in division 42159
(B)(2)(a) of this section at the time of applying for a 42160
certificate of registration or renewal of a certificate.42161

       (b) An applicant that is, or is operated by, a medical 42162
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and proposes to handle 42163
radiation-generating equipment shall pay for a certificate of 42164
registration or renewal of a certificate a biennial registration 42165
fee of two hundred sixty-two dollars. The applicant shall pay the 42166
fee at the time of applying for a certificate of registration or 42167
renewal of the certificate.42168

       (C) All fees collected under this section shall be deposited 42169
in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 42170
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be 42171
used solely to administer and enforce this chapter and rules 42172
adopted under it.42173

       (D) Any fee required under this section that has not been 42174
paid within ninety daysremains unpaid on the ninety-first day42175
after the original invoice date shall be assessed at two timesan 42176
additional amount equal to ten per cent of the original invoiced42177
fee. Any fee that has not been paid within one hundred eighty days 42178
after the invoice date shall be assessed at five times the 42179
original invoiced fee.42180

       (E) The director shall grant a license or registration to any 42181
applicant who has paid the required fee and is in compliance with 42182
this chapter and rules adopted under it.42183

        (F) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 42184
licenses and certificates of registration shall be effective for 42185
the applicable period established in rules adopted under section 42186
3748.04 of the Revised Code. Licenses and certificates of 42187
registration shall be renewed in accordance with the renewal 42188
procedure established in rules adopted under section 3748.04 of 42189
the Revised Code.42190

       Sec. 3748.10.  (A) As used in this section, "person" means 42191
any legal entity defined as a person under section 1.59 of the 42192
Revised Code, the state or any agency of the state, any political 42193
subdivision or agency of a political subdivision, and the United 42194
States or any agency or instrumentality of the United States other 42195
than the United States department of energy or the United States 42196
nuclear regulatory commission where state regulation of the 42197
treatment, recycling, storage, or disposal of low-level 42198
radioactive waste by either of those agencies is prohibited by 42199
federal law.42200

       (B) No person shall treat, recycle, store, or dispose of any 42201
low-level radioactive waste except at a facility that is licensed 42202
for treatment, recycling, storage, or disposal of that waste by 42203
the director of health under this chapter and rules adopted under 42204
it or, until the state becomes an agreement state pursuant to 42205
section 3748.03 of the Revised Code, by the United States nuclear 42206
regulatory commission under the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 42207
Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended, and regulations adopted 42208
under it regardless of whether the waste has been reclassified as 42209
"below regulatory concern" by the United States nuclear regulatory 42210
commission pursuant to any rule or standard adopted after January 42211
1, 1990.42212

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply to either of 42213
the following:42214

       (1) Any low-level radioactive waste that on or before January 42215
1, 1990, was authorized under the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 42216
Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended, and regulations adopted 42217
under it to be treated, recycled, stored, or disposed of at a 42218
facility that has not been licensed under that act and regulations 42219
adopted under it;42220

       (2) Any low-level radioactive waste that has received an 42221
exemption from the director of health under division (C)(2) of 42222
this section. If the United States nuclear regulatory commission 42223
declares its intent to institute a policy regarding the 42224
reclassification of waste as "below regulatory concern," the 42225
public health councildirector, in consultation with the 42226
environmental protection agency, shall adopt rules in accordance 42227
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that govern the granting of 42228
such exemptions and that do at least all of the following:42229

       (a) Establish an application procedure to be followed by the 42230
generator of a low-level radioactive waste who wishes to obtain an 42231
exemption for that waste under division (C)(2) of this section;42232

       (b) Require that in order to receive an exemption, a 42233
low-level radioactive waste shall have been reclassified as "below 42234
regulatory concern" by the United States nuclear regulatory 42235
commission after August 19, 1992. The rules adopted under division 42236
(C)(2)(b) of this section shall stipulate that such a 42237
reclassification does not automatically qualify a low-level 42238
radioactive waste for an exemption under division (C)(2) of this 42239
section.42240

       (c) Require an applicant to demonstrate with clear and 42241
convincing evidence that the low-level radioactive waste that is 42242
the subject of the application does not present a higher 42243
radioactive hazard than any low-level radioactive waste to which 42244
division (C)(1) of this section applies and that treatment, 42245
recycling, storage, or disposal of the waste at a facility that 42246
has not been licensed by the director under this chapter and rules 42247
adopted under it or, until the state becomes an agreement state 42248
pursuant to section 3748.03 of the Revised Code, by the United 42249
States nuclear regulatory commission under the "Atomic Energy Act 42250
of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended, and 42251
regulations adopted under it, will not harm public health or 42252
safety or the environment;42253

       (d) Establish public notification procedures to be followed 42254
by the director for any public hearing held by him under division 42255
(C)(2) of this section.42256

       The director shall review an application submitted to him42257
under division (C)(2) of this section and shall hold a public 42258
hearing concerning the application before granting or denying the 42259
exemption requested. The director may grant an exemption to the 42260
low-level radioactive waste that is the subject of the application 42261
if he determinesafter determining that the generator has complied 42262
with the rules adopted under division (C)(2)(a) of this section 42263
and that the waste satisfies the requirements established in the 42264
rules adopted under divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of this section. 42265
The director shall maintain a list of all low-level radioactive 42266
wastes to which hethe director has granted such an exemption.42267

       Division (C)(2) of this section does not apply to any 42268
low-level radioactive waste generated at a nuclear power station.42269

       Sec. 3748.12.  The director of health shall certify radiation 42270
experts pursuant to rules adopted under division (C) of section 42271
3748.04 of the Revised Code. The director shall issue a 42272
certificate to each person certified under this section. An 42273
individual certified by the director is qualified to develop, 42274
provide periodic review of, and conduct audits of the quality 42275
assurance program for sources of radiation for which such a 42276
program is required under division (A) of section 3748.13 of the 42277
Revised Code.42278

       The public health councildirector shall establish an 42279
application fee for applying for certification and a biennial 42280
certification renewal fee in rules adopted under division (C) of 42281
section 3748.04 of the Revised Code. A certificate issued under 42282
this section shall expire two years after the date of its 42283
issuance. To maintain certification, a radiation expert shall 42284
apply to the director for renewal of certification in accordance 42285
with the standard renewal procedures established in Chapter 4745. 42286
of the Revised Code. The certification renewal fee is not required 42287
for initial certification, but shall be paid for every renewal of 42288
certification. Fees collected under this section shall be 42289
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the general 42290
operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. 42291
The fees shall be used solely to administer and enforce this 42292
chapter and rules adopted under it. Any fee required under this 42293
section that has not been paid within ninety daysremains unpaid 42294
on the ninety-first day after the original invoice date shall be 42295
assessed at two timesan additional amount equal to ten per cent 42296
of the original invoiced fee. Any fee that has not been paid 42297
within one hundred eighty days after the invoice date shall be 42298
assessed at five times the original invoiced fee.42299

       Sec. 3748.13.  (A) The director of health shall inspect 42300
sources of radiation for which licensure or registration by the 42301
handler is required, and the sources' shielding and surroundings, 42302
according to the schedule established in rules adopted under 42303
division (D) of section 3748.04 of the Revised Code. In accordance 42304
with rules adopted under section 3748.04 of the Revised Code, the 42305
director shall inspect all records and operating procedures of 42306
handlers that install or service sources of radiation and all 42307
sources of radiation for which licensure of radioactive material 42308
or registration of radiation-generating equipment by the handler 42309
is required. The director may make other inspections upon 42310
receiving complaints or other evidence of a violation of this 42311
chapter or rules adopted under it.42312

       The director shall require any hospital registered under 42313
division (A) of section 3701.07 of the Revised Code to develop and 42314
maintain a quality assurance program for all sources of 42315
radiation-generating equipment. A certified radiation expert shall 42316
conduct oversight and maintenance of the program and shall file a 42317
report of audits of the program with the director on forms 42318
prescribed by the director. The audit reports shall become part of 42319
the inspection record.42320

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 42321
a facility shall pay inspection fees for radioactive material and 42322
radiation-generating equipment according to the schedule and 42323
categories established in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 42324
section 3748.04 of the Revised Code.42325

       (2) A facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 42326
practitioner or medical-practitioner group shall pay inspection 42327
fees for radiation-generating equipment according to the following 42328
schedule and categories:42329

First dental x-ray tube $ 155.00 42330
Each additional dental x-ray tube at the same location $ 77.00 42331
First medical x-ray tube $ 307.00 42332
Each additional medical x-ray tube at the same location $ 163.00 42333
Each unit of ionizing radiation-generating equipment capable of operating at or above 250 kilovoltage peak $ 610.00 42334
First nonionizing radiation-generating equipment of any kind $ 307.00 42335
Each additional nonionizing radiation-generating equipment of any kind at the same location $ 163.00 42336

        (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 42337
the fee for the inspection of a facility that proposes to handle 42338
radioactive material or radiation-generating equipment and is not 42339
licensed or registered, and for which no license or registration 42340
application is pending at the time of inspection, is four hundred 42341
seventy-four dollars plus the applicable fee specified in rules 42342
adopted under division (A)(9) of section 3748.04 of the Revised 42343
Code.42344

       (2) For a facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 42345
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and proposes to handle 42346
radiation-generating equipment, the fee for an inspection if the 42347
facility is not licensed or registered, and no license or 42348
registration is pending at the time of inspection, is four hundred 42349
seventy-four dollars plus the fee applicable under the schedule in 42350
division (B)(2) of this section.42351

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 42352
for a facility that handles radioactive material or 42353
radiation-generating equipment, the fee for an inspection to 42354
determine whether violations cited in a previous inspection have 42355
been corrected is the amount specified in rules adopted under 42356
division (A)(9) of section 3748.04 of the Revised Code.42357

       (2) For a facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 42358
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and handles 42359
radiation-generating equipment, the fee for an inspection to 42360
determine whether violations cited in a previous inspection have 42361
been corrected is fifty per cent of the applicable fee under the 42362
schedule in division (B)(2) of this section.42363

       (E) The director may conduct a review of shielding plans or 42364
the adequacy of shielding on the request of a licensee or 42365
registrant or an applicant for licensure or registration or during 42366
an inspection when the director considers a review to be 42367
necessary.42368

       (1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 42369
the fee for the review is the applicable amount specified in rules 42370
adopted under division (A)(9) of section 3748.04 of the Revised 42371
Code.42372

       (2) For a facility that is, or is operated by, a medical 42373
practitioner or medical-practitioner group and handles or proposes 42374
to handle radiation-generating equipment, the fee for the review 42375
is seven hundred sixty-two dollars for each room where a source of 42376
radiation is used and is in addition to any other fee applicable 42377
under the schedule in division (B)(2) of this section.42378

       (F) All fees shall be paid to the department of health no 42379
later than thirty days after the invoice for the fee is mailed. 42380
Fees shall be deposited in the general operations fund created in 42381
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be used solely 42382
to administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it.42383

       (G) Any fee required under this section that has not been 42384
paid within ninety daysremains unpaid on the ninety-first day42385
after the original invoice date shall be assessed at two timesan 42386
additional amount equal to ten per cent of the original invoiced42387
fee. Any fee that has not been paid within one hundred eighty days 42388
after the invoice date shall be assessed at five times the 42389
original invoiced fee.42390

       (H) If the director determines that a board of health of a 42391
city or general health district is qualified to conduct 42392
inspections of radiation-generating equipment, the director may 42393
delegate to the board, by contract, the authority to conduct such 42394
inspections. In making a determination of the qualifications of a 42395
board of health to conduct those inspections, the director shall 42396
evaluate the credentials of the individuals who are to conduct the 42397
inspections of radiation-generating equipment and the radiation 42398
detection and measuring equipment available to them for that 42399
purpose. If a contract is entered into, the board shall have the 42400
same authority to make inspections of radiation-generating 42401
equipment as the director has under this chapter and rules adopted 42402
under it. The contract shall stipulate that only individuals 42403
approved by the director as qualified shall be permitted to 42404
inspect radiation-generating equipment under the contract's 42405
provisions. The contract shall provide for such compensation for 42406
services as is agreed to by the director and the board of health 42407
of the contracting health district. The director may reevaluate 42408
the credentials of the inspection personnel and their radiation 42409
detecting and measuring equipment as often as the director 42410
considers necessary and may terminate any contract with the board 42411
of health of any health district that, in the director's opinion, 42412
is not satisfactorily performing the terms of the contract.42413

       (I) The director may enter at all reasonable times upon any 42414
public or private property to determine compliance with this 42415
chapter and rules adopted under it.42416

       Sec. 3748.15.  No facility shall violate or fail to comply 42417
with any duty imposed by this chapter, fail to pay any 42418
administrative penalty assessed in accordance with rules adopted 42419
under division (A)(6) of section 3748.05 of the Revised Code, or 42420
violate or fail to comply with any valid order ofissued or rule 42421
adopted by the director of health issued or rule of the public 42422
health council adopted under this chapter. Each day a violation 42423
continues is a separate offense.42424

       Sec. 3748.20.  (A) The governor, with the advice and consent 42425
of the senate, shall appoint a radiation advisory council, which 42426
shall consist of the following members:42427

       (1) One individual who has recognized ability and credentials 42428
in the field of medical radiation physics;42429

       (2) One individual who has recognized ability and credentials 42430
in the field of health physics;42431

       (3) One individual holding the degree of doctor of medicine 42432
or doctor of osteopathy and licensed to practice medicine or 42433
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery, as applicable, under 42434
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code who has recognized ability and 42435
credentials in the practice of radiology;42436

       (4) One individual who is licensed to practice dentistry 42437
under Chapter 4715. of the Revised Code;42438

       (5) One individual holding the degree of doctor of medicine 42439
and licensed to practice medicine or surgery under Chapter 4731. 42440
of the Revised Code who has recognized ability and credentials in 42441
the field of nuclear medicine;42442

       (6) One individual who has recognized ability and credentials 42443
in the field of public health or environmental science;42444

       (7) One individual licensed as a podiatrist under Chapter 42445
4731. of the Revised Code;42446

       (8) One individual licensed as a chiropractor under Chapter 42447
4734. of the Revised Code;42448

       (9) One individual who is a qualified radiation safety 42449
officer or radiation protection manager from a facility in this 42450
state that is licensed for the use of radiation materials;42451

       (10) One individual who has recognized ability and 42452
credentials in the field of radon measurement, mitigation, or 42453
health risk management;42454

       (11) One individual who is a member of a statewide consumer 42455
or environmental advocacy organization;42456

       (12) One individual representing the public;42457

       (13) One individual who has recognized ability and experience 42458
in the administration and enforcement of federal radiation 42459
protection regulations, who shall be a nonvoting member.42460

       The governor shall make the initial appointments to the 42461
council not later than December 7, 1995. Of the initial 42462
appointments, four shall be for a term of office of three years, 42463
four shall be for a term of office of four years, and four shall 42464
be for a term of office of five years. Thereafter, terms of office 42465
for the members of the council shall be five years with each term 42466
ending on the same day of the same month as did the term that it 42467
succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the date of the 42468
member's appointment until the end of the term for which the 42469
member was appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall 42470
be filled in the manner provided for original appointment. Any 42471
member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 42472
expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was 42473
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of that term. A 42474
member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration of 42475
the member's term or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 42476
whichever occurs first.42477

       The council shall hold four regular quarterly meetings each 42478
year. Special meetings may be held at the request of the 42479
chairperson of the council or the director of health. The 42480
chairperson shall be selected annually by members of the council 42481
during the first meeting of the calendar year. Following each 42482
meeting, the chairperson shall submit a report to the director 42483
summarizing the activities, discussion, and recommendations of the 42484
council. Seven voting members of the council constitute a quorum.42485

       Members of the radiation advisory council shall receive a per 42486
diem compensation in an amount approved by the director and also 42487
shall be reimbursed for actual expenses incurred in the 42488
performance of their official duties.42489

       The department of health shall provide the council the 42490
administrative support necessary to execute its duties.42491

       (B) The radiation advisory council shall do all of the 42492
following:42493

       (1) Advise and consult with the public health council42494
director in the development of rules proposed for adoptionto be 42495
adopted under section 3748.04 of the Revised Code;42496

       (2) Advise and consult with the director concerning the 42497
administration, implementation, and enforcement of this chapter, 42498
including the implementation of the specific responsibilities 42499
delineated in section 3748.05 of the Revised Code;42500

       (3) Advise and consult with the director in the development 42501
of inspection criteria, procedures, and guidelines to be used in 42502
the radiation control program established under this chapter and 42503
rules adopted under it;42504

       (4) Prepare and submit to the director an annual report 42505
evaluating the department's administration of the radiation 42506
control program.42507

       (C) The council shall establish committees to focus on 42508
specific components of the radiation control program established 42509
under this chapter and rules adopted under it. Chairpersons of the 42510
committees shall be appointed by the chairperson of the council 42511
and shall be members of the council. Other members of the 42512
committees shall be appointed by the chairperson of the council 42513
and may include individuals who are not members of the council.42514

       The membership and responsibilities of each committee 42515
established under this division shall be subject to the approval 42516
of the director. Members of the committees shall be reimbursed for 42517
actual expenses incurred in the performance of their official 42518
duties.42519

       Committee reports shall be presented to the council at each 42520
regular meeting of the council.42521

       Sec. 3749.02.  The publicdirector of health council shall, 42522
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, adopt rules of 42523
general application throughout the state governing the issuance of 42524
licenses, approval of plans, layout, construction, sanitation, 42525
safety, and operation of public swimming pools, public spas, and 42526
special use pools. Such rules shall not be applied to the 42527
construction, erection, or manufacture of any building to which 42528
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable when the 42529
building or structure is either integral to or appurtenant to a 42530
public swimming pool, a public spa, or a special use pool.42531

       Sec. 3749.03.  (A) No person shall construct or install, or 42532
renovate or otherwise substantially alter, a public swimming pool, 42533
public spa, or special-usespecial use pool after September 10, 42534
1987, until the plans for the pool or spa have been submitted to 42535
and approved by the director of health. Within thirty days of 42536
receipt of the plans, the director shall approve or disapprove 42537
them. The plans and approval required under this division do not 42538
apply to repairs or ordinary maintenance that does not 42539
substantially affect the manner of water recirculation or basic 42540
design of the public swimming pool, public spa, or special-use42541
special use pool.42542

       Any person aggrieved by the director's disapproval of plans 42543
under this division may, within thirty days following receipt of 42544
the director's notice of disapproval, request a hearing on the 42545
matter. The hearing shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. 42546
of the Revised Code and may be appealed in the manner provided in 42547
that chapter.42548

       (B) Prior to the issuance of a license to operate a newly 42549
constructed or altered public swimming pool, public spa, or42550
special-usespecial use pool, the director or a licensor 42551
authorized by the director shall verify that the construction or 42552
alterations are consistent with the plans submitted and approved 42553
under division (A) of this section. The director or licensor 42554
authorized by the director shall have two working days from the 42555
time notification is received that a public swimming pool, public 42556
spa, or special-usespecial use pool is ready for an inspection to 42557
verify the construction or alterations.42558

       (C) The(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this 42559
section, the fees for the approval of plans are as follows:42560

       (1)(a) Five per cent of the total cost of the equipment and 42561
installation not to exceed two hundred seventy-five dollars for a 42562
public swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial use pool, 42563
or a combination thereof, that has less than two thousand square 42564
feet of surface area;42565

       (2)(b) Five per cent of the total cost of the equipment and 42566
installation not to exceed five hundred fifty dollars for a public 42567
swimming pool, public spa, special-usespecial use pool, or a 42568
combination thereof, that has two thousand or more square feet of 42569
surface area.42570

       After December 31, 1992, the public health council(2) The 42571
director may, by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 42572
the Revised Code, increase the fees established by this section.42573

       (D) All plan approval fees shall be paid into the state 42574
treasury to the credit of the general operations fund created by 42575
section 3701.83 of the Revised Code. The fees shall be 42576
administered by the director and shall be used solely for the 42577
administration and enforcement of this chapter and the rules 42578
adopted thereunder.42579

       (E) Plan approvals issued under this section shall not 42580
constitute an exemption from the land use and building 42581
requirements of the political subdivision in which the public 42582
swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial use pool is or 42583
is to be located.42584

       Sec. 3749.04.  (A) No person shall operate or maintain a 42585
public swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial use pool 42586
without a license issued by the licensor having jurisdiction.42587

       (B) Every person who intends to operate or maintain an 42588
existing public swimming pool, public spa, or special-usespecial 42589
use pool shall, during the month of April of each year, apply to 42590
the licensor having jurisdiction for a license to operate the pool 42591
or spa. Any person proposing to operate or maintain a new or 42592
otherwise unlicensed public swimming pool, public spa, or42593
special-usespecial use pool shall apply to the licensor having 42594
jurisdiction at least thirty days prior to the intended start of 42595
operation of the pool or spa. Within thirty days of receipt of an 42596
application for licensure of a public swimming pool, public spa, 42597
or special-usespecial use pool, the licensor shall process the 42598
application and either issue a license or otherwise respond to the 42599
applicant regarding the application.42600

       (C) Each license issued shall be effective from the date of 42601
issuance until the last day of May of the following year.42602

       (D) Each licensor administering and enforcing sections 42603
3749.01 to 3749.09 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 42604
thereunder may establish licensing and inspection fees in 42605
accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code, which shall 42606
not exceed the cost of licensing and inspecting public swimming 42607
pools, public spas, and special-usespecial use pools.42608

       (E) Except as provided in division (F) of this section and in 42609
division (B) of section 3749.07 of the Revised Code, all license 42610
fees collected by a licensor shall be deposited into a swimming 42611
pool fund, which is hereby created in each health district. The 42612
fees shall be used by the licensor solely for the purpose of 42613
administering and enforcing this chapter and the rules adopted 42614
under this chapter.42615

       (F) An annual license fee established under division (D) of 42616
this section shall include any additional amount determined by 42617
rule of the publicdirector of health council, which the board of 42618
health shall collect and transmit to the director of health42619
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code. The amounts 42620
collected under this division shall be administered by the 42621
director of health and shall be used solely for the administration 42622
and enforcement of this chapter and the rules adopted under this 42623
chapter.42624

       Sec. 3752.06.  (A) Unless the owner or operator of a 42625
reporting facility has submitted to the director of environmental 42626
protection in connection with the facility a notice of the 42627
temporary discontinuation of all regulated operations at the 42628
facility in compliance with division (A)(1) of section 3752.09 of 42629
the Revised Code, has submitted an application for a waiver in 42630
compliance with or been issued a waiver under division (A) of 42631
section 3752.10 of the Revised Code, or, pursuant to division (B) 42632
of this section, has been granted an extension of time for 42633
compliance with divisions (A)(4) to (6) of this section, and 42634
except as provided in division (C) of this section, the owner or 42635
operator, not later than ninety days after the cessation of all 42636
regulated operations at the facility, shall do all of the 42637
following:42638

       (1) Submit to the director a copy of the most recent 42639
emergency and hazardous chemical inventory form for the facility 42640
submitted to the emergency response commission in accordance with 42641
section 3750.08 of the Revised Code accompanied by a statement 42642
indicating whether any asbestos-containing materials are present 42643
at the facility;42644

       (2) Submit to the director a copy of the current hazardous 42645
chemical list, or of each of the material safety data sheets, that 42646
the owner or operator is required to have on file with the 42647
commission under section 3750.07 of the Revised Code in connection 42648
with the facility;42649

       (3) Submit to the director a list of every stationary tank, 42650
vat, electrical transformer, and vessel of any type that contains 42651
or is contaminated with regulated substances and that is to remain 42652
at the facility; a precise description of the location of each; 42653
and an identification of the regulated substances that are in or 42654
contaminate each;42655

       (4) Drain or remove all regulated substances from each 42656
stationary vat, tank, electrical transformer, and vessel, and from 42657
all piping, that is to remain at the facility and do any or a 42658
combination of the following:42659

       (a) Transfer the regulated substances to another facility 42660
owned or operated by the owner or operator. If any regulated 42661
substances are transferred to another facility of the owner or 42662
operator located within this state, they shall be transferred to a 42663
facility that is operating. If any regulated substances are 42664
transferred to another facility of the owner or operator located 42665
outside this state, they shall be transferred in compliance with 42666
the applicable laws governing the receiving facility of the state 42667
in which the receiving facility is located.42668

       (b) Lawfully transfer ownership of the regulated substances 42669
to another person through sale or otherwise;42670

       (c) Cause the regulated substances to be transported off the 42671
premises of the facility and managed in compliance with the 42672
applicable provisions of Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code and 42673
rules adopted under that chapter; the "Toxic Substances Control 42674
Act," 90 Stat. 2003 (1976), 15 U.S.C.A. 2601, as amended, and 42675
regulations adopted under it; or the "Resource Conservation and 42676
Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 6921, as 42677
amended, and regulations adopted under it; or, if transported out 42678
of state, to be managed in compliance with the waste management 42679
laws of the state to which the regulated substances are 42680
transported.42681

       In the case of any regulated substance that also is a 42682
hazardous material identified or listed in regulations adopted 42683
under the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 Stat. 2156 42684
(1975), 49 U.S.C.A. 1801, as amended, and that is to be 42685
transported off the premises of the facility, the owner or 42686
operator of the facility shall transport the regulated substance, 42687
or cause it to be transported, in compliance with the applicable 42688
rules adopted under division (A) of section 4919.85, division (E) 42689
of section 4921.04, division (C) of section 4923.03, or division 42690
(C) of section 4923.20Chapters 4905., 4921., and 4923. of the 42691
Revised Code.42692

       (5) Remove from the facility all debris, nonstationary 42693
equipment and furnishings, nonstationary containers, and motor 42694
vehicles and rolling stock that contain or are contaminated with a 42695
regulated substance and do any or a combination of the following:42696

       (a) Transfer the debris, equipment, furnishings, containers, 42697
and motor vehicles and rolling stock to another facility owned or 42698
operated by the owner or operator. If any such debris, equipment, 42699
furnishings, containers, or motor vehicles and rolling stock is 42700
transferred to another facility of the owner or operator located 42701
in this state, it shall be transferred to a facility that is 42702
operating. If any such debris, equipment, furnishings, containers, 42703
or motor vehicles and rolling stock is transferred to another 42704
facility of the owner or operator located outside this state, it 42705
only shall be transferred in compliance with the applicable laws 42706
governing the receiving facility of the state in which the 42707
receiving facility is located.42708

       (b) Lawfully transfer ownership of the debris, equipment, 42709
furnishings, containers, and motor vehicles and rolling stock to 42710
another person through sale or otherwise;42711

       (c) Cause the debris, equipment, furnishings, and containers 42712
to be transported off the premises of the facility and managed in 42713
compliance with the applicable provisions of Chapter 3734. of the 42714
Revised Code and rules adopted under that chapter; the "Toxic 42715
Substances Control Act," 90 Stat. 2003 (1976), 15 U.S.C.A. 2601, 42716
as amended, and regulations adopted under it; or the "Resource 42717
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2806, 42 U.S.C.A. 42718
6921, as amended, and regulations adopted under it; or, if 42719
transported out of state, to be managed in compliance with the 42720
waste management laws of the state to which the debris, equipment, 42721
furnishings, and containers are transported.42722

       (6) Make a written certification to the director that the 42723
actions required by divisions (A)(4) and (5) of this section have 42724
been completed in compliance with those divisions and any 42725
applicable rules adopted under section 3752.03 of the Revised 42726
Code. The certification shall be made on a form prescribed by the 42727
director and, in addition to the information required in division 42728
(A) of this section, shall include, without limitation, the 42729
owner's or operator's name and the address of the owner's or 42730
operator's principal office.42731

       (B) Upon the written request of the owner or operator of a 42732
facility who is subject to division (A) of this section, the 42733
director, at histhe director's discretion, may extend the length 42734
of time required for compliance with divisions (A)(4) to (6) of 42735
this section for any period of time the director considers 42736
reasonable and necessary if the director finds from the request 42737
that either of the following applies:42738

       (1) The inability of the owner or operator to complete the 42739
required actions within the time prescribed in that division is 42740
due to circumstances that are temporary in nature and are beyond 42741
the control of the owner or operator;42742

       (2) The owner or operator, exercising reasonable diligence, 42743
is unable to complete the required actions within the time 42744
prescribed in that division due to facility size, operational 42745
complexity, or other such relevant factors.42746

       Upon making a decision on a request submitted under division 42747
(B) of this section, the director shall mail notice of histhe42748
decision to the owner or operator by certified mail, return 42749
receipt requested, and, if the request was approved, notice of the 42750
length of the extension.42751

       (C) An owner or operator of a reporting facility who is 42752
subject to this section is not required to perform the removal 42753
actions required by it or to make the certification required by 42754
division (A)(6) of this section with respect to hazardous waste 42755
stored, treated, or disposed of at the facility, or portion of the 42756
facility, for which the owner holds a valid hazardous waste 42757
facility installation and operation permit or renewal permit 42758
issued under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code or has obtained a 42759
generator identification number pursuant to rules adopted under 42760
section 3734.12 of the Revised Code. Instead, the owner shall 42761
comply with the applicable closure and post-closure care 42762
requirements established in rules adopted under section 3734.12 of 42763
the Revised Code.42764

       (D) No person shall fail to comply with any provision of 42765
division (A) of this section within the time required by that 42766
division and any extension of that time granted under division (B) 42767
of this section, as appropriate.42768

       Sec. 3770.06.  (A) There is hereby created the state lottery 42769
gross revenue fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 42770
of state but shall not be part of the state treasury. All gross 42771
revenues received from sales of lottery tickets, fines, fees, and 42772
related proceeds in connection with the statewide lottery and all 42773
gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games shall be 42774
deposited into the fund. The treasurer of state shall invest any 42775
portion of the fund not needed for immediate use in the same 42776
manner as, and subject to all provisions of law with respect to 42777
the investment of, state funds. The treasurer of state shall 42778
disburse money from the fund on order of the director of the state 42779
lottery commission or the director's designee.42780

       Except for gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games, 42781
all revenues of the state lottery gross revenue fund that are not 42782
paid to holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required 42783
to meet short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to 42784
lottery sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 42785
reimbursements, that are not paid to financial institutions to 42786
reimburse those institutions for sales agent nonsufficient funds, 42787
and that are collected from sales agents for remittance to 42788
insurers under contract to provide sales agent bonding services 42789
shall be transferred to the state lottery fund, which is hereby 42790
created in the state treasury. In addition, all revenues of the 42791
state lottery gross revenue fund that represent the gross proceeds 42792
from the statewide joint lottery games and that are not paid to 42793
holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required to meet 42794
short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to lottery 42795
sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 42796
reimbursements, and that are not necessary to cover operating 42797
expenses associated with those games or to otherwise comply with 42798
the agreements signed by the governor that the director enters 42799
into under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code or 42800
the rules the commission adopts under division (B)(5) of section 42801
3770.03 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the state 42802
lottery fund. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 42803
credited to the fund. Moneys shall be disbursed from the fund 42804
pursuant to vouchers approved by the director. Total disbursements 42805
for monetary prize awards to holders of winning lottery tickets in 42806
connection with the statewide lottery and purchases of goods and 42807
services awarded as prizes to holders of winning lottery tickets 42808
shall be of an amount equal to at least fifty per cent of the 42809
total revenue accruing from the sale of lottery tickets.42810

       (B) Pursuant to Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, 42811
there is hereby established in the state treasury the lottery 42812
profits education fund. Whenever, in the judgment of the director 42813
of budget and managementthe state lottery commission, the amount 42814
to the credit of the state lottery fund that does not represent 42815
proceeds from statewide joint lottery games is in excess of that 42816
needed to meet the maturing obligations of the commission and as 42817
working capital for its further operations, the director of the 42818
state lottery commission shall recommend the amount of the excess 42819
to be transferred to the lottery profits education fund, and the 42820
director of budget and management may transfer the excess to the 42821
lottery profits education fund in connection with the statewide 42822
lottery. In addition, whenever, in the judgment of the director of 42823
budget and managementthe state lottery commission, the amount to 42824
the credit of the state lottery fund that represents proceeds from 42825
statewide joint lottery games equals the entire net proceeds of 42826
those games as described in division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of 42827
the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that division, the 42828
director of the state lottery commission shall recommend the 42829
amount of the proceeds to be transferred to the lottery profits 42830
education fund, and the director of budget and management may42831
transfer those proceeds to the lottery profits education fund. 42832
There shall also be credited to the fund any repayments of moneys 42833
loaned from the educational excellence investment fund. Investment 42834
earnings of the lottery profits education fund shall be credited 42835
to the fund.42836

       The lottery profits education fund shall be used solely for 42837
the support of elementary, secondary, vocational, and special 42838
education programs as determined in appropriations made by the 42839
general assembly, or as provided in applicable bond proceedings 42840
for the payment of debt service on obligations issued to pay costs 42841
of capital facilities, including those for a system of common 42842
schools throughout the state pursuant to section 2n of Article 42843
VIII, Ohio Constitution. When determining the availability of 42844
money in the lottery profits education fund, the director of 42845
budget and management may consider all balances and estimated 42846
revenues of the fund.42847

        (C) There is hereby established in the state treasury the 42848
deferred prizes trust fund. With the approval of the director of 42849
budget and management, an amount sufficient to fund annuity prizes 42850
shall be transferred from the state lottery fund and credited to 42851
the trust fund. The treasurer of state shall credit all earnings 42852
arising from investments purchased under this division to the 42853
trust fund. Within sixty days after the end of each fiscal year, 42854
the treasurer of state shall certify to the director of budget and 42855
management whether the actuarial amount of the trust fund is 42856
sufficient over the fund's life for continued funding of all 42857
remaining deferred prize liabilities as of the last day of the 42858
fiscal year just ended. Also, within that sixty days, the director 42859
of budget and management shall certify the amount of investment 42860
earnings necessary to have been credited to the trust fund during 42861
the fiscal year just ending to provide for such continued funding 42862
of deferred prizes. Any earnings credited in excess of the latter 42863
certified amount shall be transferred to the lottery profits 42864
education fund.42865

       To provide all or a part of the amounts necessary to fund 42866
deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with the 42867
statewide lottery, the treasurer of state, in consultation with 42868
the commission, may invest moneys contained in the deferred prizes 42869
trust fund which represents proceeds from the statewide lottery in 42870
obligations of the type permitted for the investment of state 42871
funds but whose maturities are thirty years or less. 42872
Notwithstanding the requirements of any other section of the 42873
Revised Code, to provide all or part of the amounts necessary to 42874
fund deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with 42875
statewide joint lottery games, the treasurer of state, in 42876
consultation with the commission, may invest moneys in the trust 42877
fund which represent proceeds derived from the statewide joint 42878
lottery games in accordance with the rules the commission adopts 42879
under division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised Code. 42880
Investments of the trust fund are not subject to the provisions of 42881
division (A)(10) of section 135.143 of the Revised Code limiting 42882
to twenty-five per cent the amount of the state's total average 42883
portfolio that may be invested in debt interests and limiting to 42884
one-half of one per cent the amount that may be invested in debt 42885
interests of a single issuer.42886

       All purchases made under this division shall be effected on a 42887
delivery versus payment method and shall be in the custody of the 42888
treasurer of state.42889

       The treasurer of state may retain an investment advisor, if 42890
necessary. The commission shall pay any costs incurred by the 42891
treasurer of state in retaining an investment advisor.42892

       (D) The auditor of state shall conduct annual audits of all 42893
funds and any other audits as the auditor of state or the general 42894
assembly considers necessary. The auditor of state may examine all 42895
records, files, and other documents of the commission, and records 42896
of lottery sales agents that pertain to their activities as 42897
agents, for purposes of conducting authorized audits.42898

       The state lottery commission shall establish an internal 42899
audit program before the beginning of each fiscal year, subject to 42900
the approval of the auditor of state. At the end of each fiscal 42901
year, the commission shall prepare and submit an annual report to 42902
the auditor of state for the auditor of state's review and 42903
approval, specifying the internal audit work completed by the end 42904
of that fiscal year and reporting on compliance with the annual 42905
internal audit program. The form and content of the report shall 42906
be prescribed by the auditor of state under division (C) of 42907
section 117.20 of the Revised Code.42908

       (E) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget and 42909
management, an amount of net state lottery proceeds is necessary 42910
to be applied to the payment of debt service on obligations, all 42911
as defined in sections 151.01 and 151.03 of the Revised Code, the 42912
director shall transfer that amount directly from the state 42913
lottery fund or from the lottery profits education fund to the 42914
bond service fund defined in those sections. The provisions of 42915
this division are subject to any prior pledges or obligation of 42916
those amounts to the payment of bond service charges as defined in 42917
division (C) of section 3318.21 of the Revised Code, as referred 42918
to in division (B) of this section.42919

       Sec. 3781.03. (A) The state fire marshal, the fire chief of a 42920
municipal corporation that has a fire department, or the fire 42921
chief of a township that has a fire department shall enforce the 42922
provisions of this chapter and Chapter 3791. of the Revised Code 42923
that relate to fire prevention.42924

       (B) The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, or the 42925
building inspector or commissioner of buildings in a municipal 42926
corporation, county, or township in which the building department 42927
is certified by the board of building standards under section 42928
3781.10 of the Revised Code shall enforce in the jurisdiction of 42929
each entity all the provisions in this chapter and Chapter 3791. 42930
of the Revised Code and any rules adopted pursuant to those 42931
chapters that relate to the construction, arrangement, and 42932
erection of all buildings or parts of buildings, as defined in 42933
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, including the sanitary 42934
condition of those buildings in relation to heating and 42935
ventilation.42936

       (C) The division of laborindustrial compliance in the 42937
department of commerce, boards of health of health districts, 42938
certified departments of building inspection of municipal 42939
corporations, and county building departments that have authority 42940
to perform inspections pursuant to a contract under division 42941
(C)(1) of section 3703.01 of the Revised Code, subject to Chapter 42942
3703. of the Revised Code, shall enforce this chapter and Chapter 42943
3791. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted pursuant to those 42944
chapters that relate to plumbing. Building drains are considered 42945
plumbing for the purposes of enforcement of those chapters.42946

       (D)(1) In accordance with Chapter 3703. of the Revised Code, 42947
the department of the city engineer, in cities having such 42948
departments, the boards of health of health districts, or the 42949
sewer purveyor, as appropriate, shall have complete authority to 42950
supervise and regulate the entire sewerage and drainage system in 42951
the jurisdiction in which it is exercising the authority described 42952
in this division, including the building sewer and all laterals 42953
draining into the street sewers.42954

       (2) In accordance with Chapter 3703. of the Revised Code, the 42955
department of the city engineer, the boards of health of health 42956
districts, or the sewer purveyor, as appropriate, shall control 42957
and supervise the installation and construction of all drains and 42958
sewers that become a part of the sewerage system and shall issue 42959
all the necessary permits and licenses for the construction and 42960
installation of all building sewers and of all other lateral 42961
drains that empty into the main sewers. The department of the city 42962
engineer, the boards of health of health districts, and the sewer 42963
purveyor, as appropriate, shall keep a permanent record of the 42964
installation and location of every drain and sewer of the drainage 42965
and sewerage system of the jurisdiction in which it has exercised 42966
the authority described in this division.42967

       (E) This section does not exempt any officer or department 42968
from the obligation to enforce this chapter and Chapter 3791. of 42969
the Revised Code.42970

       Sec. 3781.06.  (A)(1) Any building that may be used as a 42971
place of resort, assembly, education, entertainment, lodging, 42972
dwelling, trade, manufacture, repair, storage, traffic, or 42973
occupancy by the public, any residential building, and all other 42974
buildings or parts and appurtenances of those buildings erected 42975
within this state, shall be so constructed, erected, equipped, and 42976
maintained that they shall be safe and sanitary for their intended 42977
use and occupancy.42978

       (2) Nothing in sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 and 3791.04 of the 42979
Revised Code shall be construed to limit the power of the public 42980
health councilmanufactured homes commission to adopt rules of 42981
uniform application governing manufactured home parks pursuant to 42982
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code.42983

       (B) Sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 and 3791.04 of the Revised 42984
Code do not apply to either of the following:42985

       (1) Buildings or structures that are incident to the use for 42986
agricultural purposes of the land on which the buildings or 42987
structures are located, provided those buildings or structures are 42988
not used in the business of retail trade. For purposes of this 42989
division, a building or structure is not considered used in the 42990
business of retail trade if fifty per cent or more of the gross 42991
income received from sales of products in the building or 42992
structure by the owner or operator is from sales of products 42993
produced or raised in a normal crop year on farms owned or 42994
operated by the seller.42995

       (2) Existing single-family, two-family, and three-family 42996
detached dwelling houses for which applications have been 42997
submitted to the director of job and family services pursuant to 42998
section 5104.03 of the Revised Code for the purposes of operating 42999
type A family day-care homes as defined in section 5104.01 of the 43000
Revised Code.43001

       (C) As used in sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 and 3791.04 of the 43002
Revised Code:43003

       (1) "Agricultural purposes" include agriculture, farming, 43004
dairying, pasturage, apiculture, horticulture, floriculture, 43005
viticulture, ornamental horticulture, olericulture, pomiculture, 43006
and animal and poultry husbandry.43007

       (2) "Building" means any structure consisting of foundations, 43008
walls, columns, girders, beams, floors, and roof, or a combination 43009
of any number of these parts, with or without other parts or 43010
appurtenances.43011

       (3) "Industrialized unit" means a building unit or assembly 43012
of closed construction fabricated in an off-site facility, that is 43013
substantially self-sufficient as a unit or as part of a greater 43014
structure, and that requires transportation to the site of 43015
intended use. "Industrialized unit" includes units installed on 43016
the site as independent units, as part of a group of units, or 43017
incorporated with standard construction methods to form a 43018
completed structural entity. "Industrialized unit" does not 43019
include a manufactured home as defined by division (C)(4) of this 43020
section or a mobile home as defined by division (O) of section 43021
4501.01 of the Revised Code.43022

       (4) "Manufactured home" means a building unit or assembly of 43023
closed construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility and 43024
constructed in conformance with the federal construction and 43025
safety standards established by the secretary of housing and urban 43026
development pursuant to the "Manufactured Housing Construction and 43027
Safety Standards Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 700, 42 U.S.C.A. 5401, 43028
5403, and that has a permanent label or tag affixed to it, as 43029
specified in 42 U.S.C.A. 5415, certifying compliance with all 43030
applicable federal construction and safety standards.43031

       (5) "Permanent foundation" means permanent masonry, concrete, 43032
or a footing or foundation approved by the manufactured homes 43033
commission pursuant to Chapter 4781. of the Revised Code, to which 43034
a manufactured or mobile home may be affixed.43035

       (6) "Permanently sited manufactured home" means a 43036
manufactured home that meets all of the following criteria:43037

       (a) The structure is affixed to a permanent foundation and is 43038
connected to appropriate facilities;43039

       (b) The structure, excluding any addition, has a width of at 43040
least twenty-two feet at one point, a length of at least 43041
twenty-two feet at one point, and a total living area, excluding 43042
garages, porches, or attachments, of at least nine hundred square 43043
feet;43044

       (c) The structure has a minimum 3:12 residential roof pitch, 43045
conventional residential siding, and a six-inch minimum eave 43046
overhang, including appropriate guttering;43047

       (d) The structure was manufactured after January 1, 1995;43048

       (e) The structure is not located in a manufactured home park 43049
as defined by section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code.43050

       (7) "Safe," with respect to a building, means it is free from 43051
danger or hazard to the life, safety, health, or welfare of 43052
persons occupying or frequenting it, or of the public and from 43053
danger of settlement, movement, disintegration, or collapse, 43054
whether such danger arises from the methods or materials of its 43055
construction or from equipment installed therein, for the purpose 43056
of lighting, heating, the transmission or utilization of electric 43057
current, or from its location or otherwise.43058

       (8) "Sanitary," with respect to a building, means it is free 43059
from danger or hazard to the health of persons occupying or 43060
frequenting it or to that of the public, if such danger arises 43061
from the method or materials of its construction or from any 43062
equipment installed therein, for the purpose of lighting, heating, 43063
ventilating, or plumbing.43064

       (9) "Residential building" means a one-family, two-family, or 43065
three-family dwelling house, and any accessory structure 43066
incidental to that dwelling house. "Residential building" includes 43067
a one-family, two-family, or three-family dwelling house that is 43068
used as a model to promote the sale of a similar dwelling house. 43069
"Residential building" does not include an industrialized unit as 43070
defined by division (C)(3) of this section, a manufactured home as 43071
defined by division (C)(4) of this section, or a mobile home as 43072
defined by division (O) of section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.43073

        (10) "Nonresidential building" means any building that is not 43074
a residential building or a manufactured or mobile home.43075

       (11) "Accessory structure" means a structure that is attached 43076
to a residential building and serves the principal use of the 43077
residential building. "Accessory structure" includes, but is not 43078
limited to, a garage, porch, or screened-in patio.43079

       Sec. 3781.102.  (A) Any county or municipal building 43080
department certified pursuant to division (E) of section 3781.10 43081
of the Revised Code as of September 14, 1970, and that, as of that 43082
date, was inspecting single-family, two-family, and three-family 43083
residences, and any township building department certified 43084
pursuant to division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code, 43085
is hereby declared to be certified to inspect single-family, 43086
two-family, and three-family residences containing industrialized 43087
units, and shall inspect the buildings or classes of buildings 43088
subject to division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code.43089

       (B) Each board of county commissioners may adopt, by 43090
resolution, rules establishing standards and providing for the 43091
licensing of electrical and heating, ventilating, and air 43092
conditioning contractors who are not required to hold a valid and 43093
unexpired license pursuant to Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code.43094

       Rules adopted by a board of county commissioners pursuant to 43095
this division may be enforced within the unincorporated areas of 43096
the county and within any municipal corporation where the 43097
legislative authority of the municipal corporation has contracted 43098
with the board for the enforcement of the county rules within the 43099
municipal corporation pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 43100
Code. The rules shall not conflict with rules adopted by the board 43101
of building standards pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised 43102
Code or by the department of commerce pursuant to Chapter 3703. of 43103
the Revised Code. This division does not impair or restrict the 43104
power of municipal corporations under Section 3 of Article XVIII, 43105
Ohio Constitution, to adopt rules concerning the erection, 43106
construction, repair, alteration, and maintenance of buildings and 43107
structures or of establishing standards and providing for the 43108
licensing of specialty contractors pursuant to section 715.27 of 43109
the Revised Code.43110

       A board of county commissioners, pursuant to this division, 43111
may require all electrical contractors and heating, ventilating, 43112
and air conditioning contractors, other than those who hold a 43113
valid and unexpired license issued pursuant to Chapter 4740. of 43114
the Revised Code, to successfully complete an examination, test, 43115
or demonstration of technical skills, and may impose a fee and 43116
additional requirements for a license to engage in their 43117
respective occupations within the jurisdiction of the board's 43118
rules under this division.43119

       (C) No board of county commissioners shall require any 43120
specialty contractor who holds a valid and unexpired license 43121
issued pursuant to Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code to 43122
successfully complete an examination, test, or demonstration of 43123
technical skills in order to engage in the type of contracting for 43124
which the license is held, within the unincorporated areas of the 43125
county and within any municipal corporation whose legislative 43126
authority has contracted with the board for the enforcement of 43127
county regulations within the municipal corporation, pursuant to 43128
section 307.15 of the Revised Code.43129

       (D) A board may impose a fee for registration of a specialty 43130
contractor who holds a valid and unexpired license issued pursuant 43131
to Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code before that specialty 43132
contractor may engage in the type of contracting for which the 43133
license is held within the unincorporated areas of the county and 43134
within any municipal corporation whose legislative authority has 43135
contracted with the board for the enforcement of county 43136
regulations within the municipal corporation, pursuant to section 43137
307.15 of the Revised Code, provided that the fee is the same for 43138
all specialty contractors who wish to engage in that type of 43139
contracting. If a board imposes such a fee, the board immediately 43140
shall permit a specialty contractor who presents proof of holding 43141
a valid and unexpired license and pays the required fee to engage 43142
in the type of contracting for which the license is held within 43143
the unincorporated areas of the county and within any municipal 43144
corporation whose legislative authority has contracted with the 43145
board for the enforcement of county regulations within the 43146
municipal corporation, pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 43147
Code.43148

       (E) The political subdivision associated with each municipal, 43149
township, and county building department the board of building 43150
standards certifies pursuant to division (E) of section 3781.10 of 43151
the Revised Code may prescribe fees to be paid by persons, 43152
political subdivisions, or any department, agency, board, 43153
commission, or institution of the state, for the acceptance and 43154
approval of plans and specifications, and for the making of 43155
inspections, pursuant to sections 3781.03 and 3791.04 of the 43156
Revised Code.43157

       (F) Each political subdivision that prescribes fees pursuant 43158
to division (E) of this section shall collect, on behalf of the 43159
board of building standards, fees equal to the following:43160

       (1) Three per cent of the fees the political subdivision 43161
collects in connection with nonresidential buildings;43162

       (2) One per cent of the fees the political subdivision 43163
collects in connection with residential buildings.43164

        (G)(1) The board shall adopt rules, in accordance with 43165
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, specifying the manner in which 43166
the fee assessed pursuant to division (F) of this section shall be 43167
collected and remitted monthly to the board. The board shall pay 43168
the fees into the state treasury to the credit of the labor43169
industrial compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of 43170
the Revised Code.43171

       (2) All money credited to the laborindustrial compliance43172
operating fund under this division shall be used exclusively for 43173
the following:43174

       (a) Operating costs of the board;43175

       (b) Providing services, including educational programs, for 43176
the building departments that are certified by the board pursuant 43177
to division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code;43178

       (c) Paying the expenses of the residential construction 43179
advisory committee, including the expenses of committee members as 43180
provided in section 4740.14 of the Revised Code.43181

       (H) A board of county commissioners that adopts rules 43182
providing for the licensing of electrical and heating, 43183
ventilating, and air conditioning contractors, pursuant to 43184
division (B) of this section, may accept, for purposes of 43185
satisfying the requirements of rules adopted under that division, 43186
a valid and unexpired license issued pursuant to Chapter 4740. of 43187
the Revised Code that is held by an electrical or heating, 43188
ventilating, and air conditioning contractor, for the 43189
construction, replacement, maintenance, or repair of one-family, 43190
two-family, or three-family dwelling houses or accessory 43191
structures incidental to those dwelling houses.43192

       (I) A board of county commissioners shall not register a 43193
specialty contractor who is required to hold a license under 43194
Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code but does not hold a valid 43195
license issued under that chapter.43196

       (J) As used in this section, "specialty contractor" means a 43197
heating, ventilating, and air conditioning contractor, 43198
refrigeration contractor, electrical contractor, plumbing 43199
contractor, or hydronics contractor, as those contractors are 43200
described in Chapter 4740. of the Revised Code.43201

       Sec. 3781.11.  (A) The rules of the board of building 43202
standards shall:43203

       (1) For nonresidential buildings, provide uniform minimum 43204
standards and requirements, and for residential buildings, provide 43205
standards and requirements that are uniform throughout the state, 43206
for construction and construction materials, including 43207
construction of industrialized units, to make residential and 43208
nonresidential buildings safe and sanitary as defined in section 43209
3781.06 of the Revised Code;43210

       (2) Formulate such standards and requirements, so far as may 43211
be practicable, in terms of performance objectives, so as to make 43212
adequate performance for the use intended the test of 43213
acceptability;43214

       (3) Permit, to the fullest extent feasible, the use of 43215
materials and technical methods, devices, and improvements, 43216
including the use of industrialized units which tend to reduce the 43217
cost of construction and erection without affecting minimum 43218
requirements for the health, safety, and security of the occupants 43219
or users of buildings or industrialized units and without 43220
preferential treatment of types or classes of materials or 43221
products or methods of construction;43222

       (4) Encourage, so far as may be practicable, the 43223
standardization of construction practices, methods, equipment, 43224
material, and techniques, including methods employed to produce 43225
industrialized units;43226

       (5) Not require any alteration or repair of any part of a 43227
school building owned by a chartered nonpublic school or a city, 43228
local, exempted village, or joint vocational school district and 43229
operated in conjunction with any primary or secondary school 43230
program that is not being altered or repaired if all of the 43231
following apply:43232

       (a) The school building meets all of the applicable building 43233
code requirements in existence at the time of the construction of 43234
the building.43235

       (b) The school building otherwise satisfies the requirements 43236
of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.43237

       (c) The part of the school building altered or repaired 43238
conforms to all rules of the board existing on the date of the 43239
repair or alteration.43240

       (6) Not require any alteration or repair to any part of a 43241
workshop or factory that is not otherwise being altered, repaired, 43242
or added to if all of the following apply:43243

       (a) The workshop or factory otherwise satisfies the 43244
requirements of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.43245

       (b) The part of the workshop or factory altered, repaired, or 43246
added conforms to all rules of the board existing on the date of 43247
plan approval of the repair, alteration, or addition.43248

       (B) The rules of the board shall supersede and govern any 43249
order, standard, or rule of the division of laborindustrial 43250
compliance in the department of commerce, division of the state 43251
fire marshal, the department of health, and of counties and 43252
townships, in all cases where such orders, standards, or rules are 43253
in conflict with the rules of the board, except that rules adopted 43254
and orders issued by the state fire marshal pursuant to Chapter 43255
3743. of the Revised Code prevail in the event of a conflict.43256

       (C) The construction, alteration, erection, and repair of 43257
buildings including industrialized units, and the materials and 43258
devices of any kind used in connection with them and the heating 43259
and ventilating of them and the plumbing and electric wiring in 43260
them shall conform to the statutes of this state or the rules 43261
adopted and promulgated by the board, and to provisions of local 43262
ordinances not inconsistent therewith. Any building, structure, or 43263
part thereof, constructed, erected, altered, manufactured, or 43264
repaired not in accordance with the statutes of this state or with 43265
the rules of the board, and any building, structure, or part 43266
thereof in which there is installed, altered, or repaired any 43267
fixture, device, and material, or plumbing, heating, or 43268
ventilating system, or electric wiring not in accordance with such 43269
statutes or rules is a public nuisance.43270

       (D) As used in this section:43271

       (1) "Nonpublic school" means a chartered school for which 43272
minimum standards are prescribed by the state board of education 43273
pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.43274

       (2) "Workshop or factory" includes manufacturing, mechanical, 43275
electrical, mercantile, art, and laundering establishments, 43276
printing, telegraph, and telephone offices, railroad depots, and 43277
memorial buildings, but does not include hotels and tenement and 43278
apartment houses.43279

       Sec. 3781.112. (A) As used in this section, "secured 43280
facility" means any of the following:43281

        (1) A maternity boardinghouse or lying-in hospitalunit, 43282
newborn care nursery, or maternity home licensed under section 43283
3711.02Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code;43284

        (2) A pediatric intensive care unit subject to rules adopted 43285
by the director of health pursuant to section 3702.11 of the 43286
Revised Code;43287

        (3) A children's hospital, as defined in section 3702.5143288
3727.01 of the Revised Code;43289

        (4) A hospital that is licensed under section 5119.20 of the 43290
Revised Code to receive mentally ill persons;43291

       (5) The portion of a nursing home licensed under section 43292
3721.02 of the Revised Code or in accordance with section 3721.09 43293
of the Revised Code in which specialized care is provided to 43294
residents of the nursing home who have physical or mental 43295
conditions that require a resident to be restricted in the 43296
resident's freedom of movement for the health and safety of the 43297
resident, the staff attending the resident, or the general public.43298

        (B) A secured facility may take reasonable steps in 43299
accordance with rules the board of building standards adopts under 43300
division (A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in 43301
accordance with the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under 43302
section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, to deny egress to confine and 43303
protect patients or residents of the secured facility who are not 43304
capable of self-preservation. A secured facility that wishes to 43305
deny egress to those patients or residents may use delayed-egress 43306
doors and electronically coded doors to deny egress, on the 43307
condition that those doors are installed and used in accordance 43308
with rules the board of building standards adopts under division 43309
(A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in accordance with 43310
the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 43311
of the Revised Code. A secured facility also may install 43312
controlled-egress locks, in compliance with rules the board of 43313
building standards adopts under division (A) section 3781.10 of 43314
the Revised Code and in compliance with the state fire code the 43315
fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, in 43316
areas of the secured facility where patients or residents who have 43317
physical or mental conditions that would endanger the patients or 43318
residents, the staff attending the patients or residents, or the 43319
general public if those patients or residents are not restricted 43320
in their freedom of movement. A secured facility that uses 43321
delayed-egress doors and electronically coded doors, 43322
controlled-egress locks, or both, shall do both of the following:43323

        (1) Provide continuous, twenty-four-hour custodial care to 43324
the patients or residents of the facility;43325

        (2) Establish a system to evacuate patients or residents in 43326
the event of fire or other emergency.43327

       Sec. 3783.05.  The board of building standards, in accordance 43328
with Chapters 119., 3781., and 3791. of the Revised Code, shall 43329
adopt, amend, or repeal such rules as may be reasonably necessary 43330
to administer this chapter. All fees collected by the board 43331
pursuant to this chapter shall be paid into the state treasury to 43332
the credit of the laborindustrial compliance operating fund 43333
created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.43334

       Sec. 3791.02.  No owner, or person having the control as an 43335
officer or member of a board or committee or otherwise of any 43336
opera house, hall, theater, church, schoolhouse, college, academy, 43337
seminary, infirmary, sanitarium, children's home, hospital, 43338
medical institute, asylum, memorial building, armory, assembly 43339
hall, or other building for the assemblage or betterment of people 43340
shall fail to obey any order of the state fire marshal, boards of 43341
health of city and general health districts, the building 43342
inspector or commissioner in cities having a building inspection 43343
department, or the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance43344
in the department of commerce under Chapters 3781. and 3791. of 43345
the Revised Code or rules or regulations adopted pursuant thereto.43346

       Whoever violates this section shall be fined not more than 43347
one thousand dollars.43348

       Sec. 3791.04.  (A)(1) Before beginning the construction, 43349
erection, or manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 43350
of the Revised Code applies, including all industrialized units, 43351
the owner of that building, in addition to any other submission 43352
required by law, shall submit plans or drawings, specifications, 43353
and data prepared for the construction, erection, equipment, 43354
alteration, or addition that indicate the portions that have been 43355
approved pursuant to section 3781.12 of the Revised Code and for 43356
which no further approval is required, to the municipal, township, 43357
or county building department having jurisdiction unless one of 43358
the following applies:43359

       (a) If no municipal, township, or county building department 43360
certified for nonresidential buildings pursuant to division (E) of 43361
section 3781.10 of the Revised Code has jurisdiction, the owner 43362
shall make the submissions described in division (A)(1) of this 43363
section to the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance.43364

       (b) If no certified municipal, township, or county building 43365
department certified for residential buildings pursuant to 43366
division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code has 43367
jurisdiction, the owner is not required to make the submissions 43368
described in division (A)(1) of this section.43369

       (2)(a) The seal of an architect registered under Chapter 43370
4703. of the Revised Code or an engineer registered under Chapter 43371
4733. of the Revised Code is required for any plans, drawings, 43372
specifications, or data submitted for approval, unless the plans, 43373
drawings, specifications, or data are permitted to be prepared by 43374
persons other than registered architects pursuant to division (C) 43375
or (D) of section 4703.18 of the Revised Code, or by persons other 43376
than registered engineers pursuant to division (C) or (D) of 43377
section 4733.18 of the Revised Code.43378

       (b) No seal is required for any plans, drawings, 43379
specifications, or data submitted for approval for any residential 43380
buildings, as defined in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code, or 43381
erected as industrialized one-, two-, or three-family units or 43382
structures within the meaning of "industrialized unit" as defined 43383
in section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.43384

       (c) No seal is required for approval of the installation of 43385
replacement equipment or systems that are similar in type or 43386
capacity to the equipment or systems being replaced. No seal is 43387
required for approval for any new construction, improvement, 43388
alteration, repair, painting, decorating, or other modification of 43389
any buildings or structures subject to sections 3781.06 to 3781.18 43390
and 3791.04 of the Revised Code if the proposed work does not 43391
involve technical design analysis, as defined by rule adopted by 43392
the board of building standards.43393

       (B) No owner shall proceed with the construction, erection, 43394
alteration, or equipment of any building until the plans or 43395
drawings, specifications, and data have been approved as this 43396
section requires, or the industrialized unit inspected at the 43397
point of origin. No plans or specifications shall be approved or 43398
inspection approval given unless the building represented would, 43399
if constructed, repaired, erected, or equipped, comply with 43400
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and any rule made 43401
under those chapters.43402

       (C) The approval of plans or drawings and specifications or 43403
data pursuant to this section is invalid if construction, 43404
erection, alteration, or other work upon the building has not 43405
commenced within twelve months of the approval of the plans or 43406
drawings and specifications. One extension shall be granted for an 43407
additional twelve-month period if the owner requests at least ten 43408
days in advance of the expiration of the permit and upon payment 43409
of a fee not to exceed one hundred dollars. If in the course of 43410
construction, work is delayed or suspended for more than six 43411
months, the approval of plans or drawings and specifications or 43412
data is invalid. Two extensions shall be granted for six months 43413
each if the owner requests at least ten days in advance of the 43414
expiration of the permit and upon payment of a fee for each 43415
extension of not more than one hundred dollars. Before any work 43416
may continue on the construction, erection, alteration, or 43417
equipment of any building for which the approval is invalid, the 43418
owner of the building shall resubmit the plans or drawings and 43419
specifications for approval pursuant to this section.43420

       (D) Subject to section 3791.042 of the Revised Code, the 43421
board of building standards or the legislative authority of a 43422
municipal corporation, township, or county, by rule, may regulate 43423
the requirements for the submission of plans and specifications to 43424
the respective enforcing departments and for processing by those 43425
departments. The board of building standards or the legislative 43426
authority of a municipal corporation, township, or county may 43427
adopt rules to provide for the approval, subject to section 43428
3791.042 of the Revised Code, by the department having 43429
jurisdiction of the plans for construction of a foundation or any 43430
other part of a building or structure before the complete plans 43431
and specifications for the entire building or structure are 43432
submitted. When any plans are approved by the department having 43433
jurisdiction, the structure and every particular represented by 43434
and disclosed in those plans shall, in the absence of fraud or a 43435
serious safety or sanitation hazard, be conclusively presumed to 43436
comply with Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and any 43437
rule issued pursuant to those chapters, if constructed, altered, 43438
or repaired in accordance with those plans and any rule in effect 43439
at the time of approval.43440

       (E) The approval of plans and specifications, including 43441
inspection of industrialized units, under this section is a 43442
"license" and the failure to approve plans or specifications as 43443
submitted or to inspect the unit at the point of origin within 43444
thirty days after the plans or specifications are filed or the 43445
request to inspect the industrialized unit is made, the 43446
disapproval of plans and specifications, or the refusal to approve 43447
an industrialized unit following inspection at the point of origin 43448
is "an adjudication order denying the issuance of a license" 43449
requiring an "adjudication hearing" as provided by sections 119.07 43450
to 119.13 of the Revised Code and as modified by sections 3781.031 43451
and 3781.19 of the Revised Code. An adjudication order denying the 43452
issuance of a license shall specify the reasons for that denial.43453

       (F) The board of building standards shall not require the 43454
submission of site preparation plans or plot plans to the division 43455
of laborindustrial compliance when industrialized units are used 43456
exclusively as one-, two-, or three-family dwellings.43457

       (G) Notwithstanding any procedures the board establishes, if 43458
the agency having jurisdiction objects to any portion of the plans 43459
or specifications, the owner or the owner's representative may 43460
request the agency to issue conditional approval to proceed with 43461
construction up to the point of the objection. Approval shall be 43462
issued only when the objection results from conflicting 43463
interpretations of the rules of the board of building standards 43464
rather than the application of specific technical requirements of 43465
the rules. Approval shall not be issued where the correction of 43466
the objection would cause extensive changes in the building design 43467
or construction. The giving of conditional approval is a 43468
"conditional license" to proceed with construction up to the point 43469
where the construction or materials objected to by the agency are 43470
to be incorporated into the building. No construction shall 43471
proceed beyond that point without the prior approval of the agency 43472
or another agency that conducts an adjudication hearing relative 43473
to the objection. The agency having jurisdiction shall specify its 43474
objections to the plans or specifications, which is an 43475
"adjudication order denying the issuance of a license" and may be 43476
appealed pursuant to sections 119.07 to 119.13 of the Revised Code 43477
and as modified by sections 3781.031 and 3781.19 of the Revised 43478
Code.43479

       (H) A certified municipal, township, or county building 43480
department having jurisdiction, or the superintendent, as 43481
appropriate, shall review any plans, drawings, specifications, or 43482
data described in this section that are submitted to it or to the 43483
superintendent.43484

       (I) No owner or persons having control as an officer, or as a 43485
member of a board or committee, or otherwise, of a building to 43486
which section 3781.06 of the Revised Code is applicable, and no 43487
architect, designer, engineer, builder, contractor, subcontractor, 43488
or any officer or employee of a municipal, township, or county 43489
building department shall violate this section.43490

       (J) Whoever violates this section shall be fined not more 43491
than five hundred dollars.43492

       Sec. 3791.05.  No owner, lessee, agent, factor, architect, or 43493
contractor engaged in and having supervision or charge of the 43494
building, erection, or construction of a block, building, or 43495
structure, shall neglect or refuse to place or have placed upon 43496
the joists of each story thereof, as soon as joists are in 43497
position, counter floors of such quality and strength as to render 43498
perfectly safe the going to and from thereon of all mechanics, 43499
laborers, and other persons engaged upon the work of construction 43500
or supervision, or in placing materials for such construction.43501

       Whoever violates this section shall be fined not less than 43502
twenty-five nor more than two hundred dollars.43503

       Each day that such person neglects or refuses to have such 43504
counter floors so placed, after notice is given by a building 43505
inspector, a chief inspector, or deputy inspector of the city 43506
building inspection department in cities where such department is 43507
organized, or by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance43508
of the state, in cities where such departments are not organized, 43509
or from a person whose life or personal safety may be endangered 43510
by such neglect or refusal, is a separate offense.43511

       Sec. 3791.07.  (A) The board of building standards may 43512
establish such reasonable inspection fee schedules as it 43513
determines necessary or desirable relating to the inspection of 43514
all plans and specifications submitted for approval to the 43515
division of laborindustrial compliance, and all industrialized 43516
units inspected at the point of origin and at the construction 43517
site of the building. The inspection fee schedule established 43518
shall bear some reasonable relationship to the cost of 43519
administering and enforcing the provisions of Chapters 3781. and 43520
3791. of the Revised Code.43521

       (B) In addition to the fee assessed in division (A) of this 43522
section, the board shall assess a fee of not more than five 43523
dollars for each application for acceptance and approval of plans 43524
and specifications and for making inspections pursuant to section 43525
3791.04 of the Revised Code. The board shall adopt rules, in 43526
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, specifying the 43527
manner by which the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance43528
shall collect and remit to the board the fees assessed under this 43529
division and requiring that remittance of the fees be made at 43530
least quarterly.43531

       (C) Any person who fails to pay an inspection fee required 43532
for any inspection conducted by the department of commerce 43533
pursuant to Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code, except 43534
for fees charged for the inspection of plans and specifications, 43535
within forty-five days after the inspection is conducted, shall 43536
pay a late payment fee equal to twenty-five per cent of the 43537
inspection fee.43538

       (D) The board shall pay the fees assessed under this section 43539
into the state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial 43540
compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of the 43541
Revised Code.43542

       Sec. 3791.11.  (A) As used in this section and sections 43543
3791.12 and 3791.13 of the Revised Code:43544

       (1) "Service station" means any facility designed and 43545
constructed primarily for use in the retail sale of gasoline, 43546
other petroleum products, and related accessories; except that 43547
"service station" does not include any such facility that has been 43548
converted for use for another bona fide business purpose, on and 43549
after the date of commencement of such other use.43550

       (2) "Abandoned service station" means any service station 43551
that has not been used for the retail sale of gasoline, other 43552
petroleum products, and related accessories for a continuous 43553
period of six months, whenever failure to reasonably secure 43554
station buildings from ready access by unauthorized persons and to 43555
reasonably maintain the station's premises has resulted in 43556
conditions that endanger the public health, welfare, safety, or 43557
morals; provided, that such conditions include, but are not 43558
limited to, the presence of defective or deteriorated electrical 43559
wiring, heating apparatus, and gas connections, or of unprotected 43560
gasoline storage tanks, piping, and valves, or any combination of 43561
the foregoing; and provided further that the casual and 43562
intermittent use of a service station for the retail sale of any 43563
item described in division (A)(1) of this section during such 43564
six-month period shall not be held to prevent the station from 43565
being determined an abandoned service station if it meets the 43566
other qualifications of this division.43567

       (B) No person shall construct, renew operation of, or 43568
continue operation of a service station unless, prior to the 43569
commencement of construction or renewed operation and during the 43570
period of continued operation, a valid bond is on file as provided 43571
in division (C) or (D) of this section. The bond shall be obtained 43572
by the owner of the property if hethe owner is also the owner of 43573
the service station. If the owner of the property is not the owner 43574
of the service station, then the bond shall be obtained by the 43575
lessee of the property; except that such lessee shall be other 43576
than any person who leases and operates the service station 43577
pursuant to a contract with a supplier of gasoline and petroleum 43578
products. The bond shall identify and list the name and address of 43579
the property owner and any lessee other than a person who leases 43580
and operates the service station pursuant to a contract with a 43581
supplier of gasoline and petroleum products.43582

       (C) The bond required by division (B) of this section shall 43583
be filed annually with the executive authority of the municipal 43584
corporation in which the service station is, or is to be, located,43585
or with the clerk of the board of county commissioners if the 43586
service station is not, or is not to be, located within a 43587
municipal corporation. The bond shall either be a cash bond or 43588
have sufficient sureties approved by the executive authority or 43589
clerk with whom it is filed. The bond shall be for a term of one 43590
year and shall be renewed annually. The bond shall be in the 43591
amount of three thousand dollars for each service station to 43592
provide for the repair or removal of the service station and its 43593
appurtenances and restoration of the property. The bond shall be 43594
conditioned upon the repair or removal of the service station and 43595
restoration of the property if the service station is determined 43596
to be an abandoned service station as provided in section 3791.12 43597
of the Revised Code. If the service station is determined to be an 43598
abandoned service station, and division (D) or (F) of section 43599
3791.12 of the Revised Code applies, the bond shall be forfeited 43600
and the proceeds applied to the costs of repair or removal and 43601
restoration as provided in section 3791.13 of the Revised Code. If 43602
the amount of the bond exceeds the costs of repair or removal and 43603
restoration, the excess shall be returned to the depositor.43604

       (D) Whenever a property owner or lessee, other than a person 43605
leasing and operating a service station pursuant to a contract 43606
with a supplier of gasoline and other petroleum products, owns, 43607
leases, or is constructing two or more service stations in this 43608
state, such owner or lessee may deposit with the treasurer of 43609
state, in lieu of the bond required by division (C) of this 43610
section, money or a surety bond approved by the treasurer in the 43611
amount of one hundred fifty thousand dollars, or bonds of the 43612
United States, this state, or of a political subdivision of this 43613
state, having a market value, as determined by the treasurer, of 43614
one hundred fifty thousand dollars. The bond or deposit shall 43615
cover all service stations owned in the state, being constructed, 43616
leased, or operated by the depositor and shall be conditioned upon 43617
the repair or removal of any such station and its appurtenances 43618
and restoration of the property, if the station is determined to 43619
be an abandoned service station as provided in section 3791.12 of 43620
the Revised Code. If any such service station is determined to be 43621
an abandoned service station, and division (D) or (F) of section 43622
3791.12 of the Revised Code applies, the portion of the bond or 43623
deposit required to pay the costs of repair or removal and 43624
restoration shall be forfeited and paid to the executive authority 43625
of the municipal corporation or to the board of county 43626
commissioners of the county, upon request therefor. If the surety 43627
refuses to pay the costs of repair or removal and restoration to 43628
the treasurer, the treasurer shall forthwith file an action on the 43629
bond in the amount certified by the executive authority or board 43630
as the costs of repair or removal and restoration, and shall pay 43631
to the executive authority or board the proceeds of any judgment. 43632
A bond or deposit shall remain valid as long as it is sufficient 43633
to cover one hundred thousand dollars of liability. If the bond or 43634
deposit is reduced to a lesser amount, it shall be invalid unless 43635
sufficient additional bond or deposit is provided to restore the 43636
amount of liability covered to one hundred fifty thousand dollars.43637

       Sec. 3791.12.  (A) The executive authority of each municipal 43638
corporation and the board of county commissioners of each county 43639
shall designate a suitable person to make inspections, within 43640
their respective territorial jurisdictions, of any service 43641
stations that are, or appear to be, no longer in use for the 43642
purposes described in division (A)(1) of section 3791.11 of the 43643
Revised Code, or for any other bona fide business purpose. 43644
Inspections of service stations under this section shall be made 43645
at the order of the executive authority or board, or upon the 43646
complaint of any person claiming to be adversely affected by the 43647
condition of a service station. Any inspector designated under 43648
this section shall have the right to enter upon and inspect any 43649
service station that is, or appears to be, no longer in use as 43650
described in this section. No inspector, while in the lawful 43651
pursuit of hisofficial duties for such purpose, shall be subject 43652
to arrest for trespass while so engaged or for such cause 43653
thereafter.43654

       (B) Whenever an inspector, upon inspecting a service station 43655
as provided in this section, has reasonable cause to believe that 43656
it qualifies as an abandoned service station, hethe inspector43657
shall prepare a written report of the condition of the station's 43658
buildings and premises. The report shall be filed immediately with 43659
the executive authority or board. Upon receipt of the report, the 43660
executive authority or board shall fix a place and time, not less 43661
than thirty days nor more than sixty days after receipt of the 43662
report, for a hearing to determine whether the service station is 43663
an abandoned service station. The executive authority or board 43664
shall send written notice of the place and date of the hearing, 43665
together with a copy of the inspector's report and information 43666
that the service station may be ordered repaired or removed if 43667
determined to be abandoned, to all persons listed in the bond 43668
filed under division (C) or (D) of section 3791.11 of the Revised 43669
Code, and to all persons listed in the records of the county 43670
recorder or county clerk of courts as holding a lien on the 43671
affected property. Such notice shall be sent by certified mail to 43672
the address shown on such records.43673

       (C) In hearing the matter and deciding the issue, the 43674
executive authority or board shall consider the testimony of any 43675
persons appearing pursuant to the notice, or their authorized 43676
representatives, the testimony of any witnesses appearing on 43677
behalf of such persons, the inspector's report or testimony, or 43678
both, and any other evidence pertinent to the matter. If the 43679
executive authority or board thereupon determines that the service 43680
station is an abandoned service station in such condition as to 43681
constitute a danger to the public health, welfare, safety, or 43682
morals, it shall order the satisfactory repair, or removal, of the 43683
service station and its appurtenances, and restoration of the 43684
property, within such period of time, not less than thirty days, 43685
as the executive authority or board thereupon determines 43686
reasonable. Notice of the findings and order shall be sent to all 43687
persons required to be notified by division (B) of this section in 43688
the same manner as provided in that division.43689

       (D) If an abandoned service station is not satisfactorily 43690
repaired or removed within the period of time provided in an order 43691
made under division (C) of this section, the municipal corporation 43692
or county may enter the land and complete the repair, if repair 43693
was ordered, or remove the service station and its appurtenances, 43694
if removal was ordered, and restore the property.43695

       (E) Any person aggrieved by an order of an executive 43696
authority or board made under division (C) of this section, may 43697
appeal as provided in Chapter 2506. of the Revised Code within 43698
thirty days of the mailing of notice of the order.43699

       (F) In the event that no persons notified as provided in 43700
division (B) of this section, or their authorized representatives, 43701
appear at the hearing, respond to an order of the executive 43702
authority or board, or appeal within thirty days of the mailing of 43703
notice of the order as provided in division (E) of this section, 43704
the municipal corporation or county may proceed as provided in 43705
division (D) of this section.43706

       Sec. 3793.04.  The department of alcohol and drug addiction 43707
services shall develop, administer, and revise as necessary a 43708
comprehensive statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan 43709
for the implementation of this chapter. The plan shall emphasize 43710
abstinence from the use of alcohol and drugs of abuse as the 43711
primary goal of alcohol and drug addiction services. The council 43712
on alcohol and, drug, and gambling addiction services shall advise 43713
the department in the development and implementation of the plan.43714

       The plan shall provide for the allocation and distribution of 43715
funds appropriated to the department by the general assembly for 43716
services furnished by alcohol and drug addiction programs under 43717
contract with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 43718
services. The department shall exclude from the allocation and 43719
distribution any funds that are transferred to the department of 43720
job and family services to pay the nonfederal share of alcohol and 43721
drug addiction services covered by the medicaid program.43722

        The plan shall specify the methodology that the department 43723
will use for determining how the funds will be allocated and 43724
distributed. A portion of the funds shall be allocated on the 43725
basis of the ratio of the population of each alcohol, drug 43726
addiction, and mental health service district to the total 43727
population of the state as determined from the most recent federal 43728
census or the most recent official estimate made by the United 43729
States census bureau.43730

       The plan shall ensure that alcohol and drug addiction 43731
services of a high quality are accessible to, and responsive to 43732
the needs of, all persons, especially those who are members of 43733
underserved groups, including, but not limited to, African 43734
Americans, Hispanics, native Americans, Asians, juvenile and adult 43735
offenders, women, veterans, and persons with special services 43736
needs due to age or disability. The plan shall include a program 43737
to promote and protect the rights of those who receive services.43738

       To aid in formulating the plan and in evaluating the 43739
effectiveness and results of alcohol and drug addiction services, 43740
the department, in consultation with the department of mental 43741
health, shall establish and maintain an information system or 43742
systems. The department of alcohol and drug addiction services 43743
shall specify the information that must be provided by boards of 43744
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and by alcohol 43745
and drug addiction programs for inclusion in the system. The 43746
department shall not collect any personal information from the 43747
boards except as required or permitted by state or federal law for 43748
purposes related to payment, health care operations, program and 43749
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 43750
administration, and oversight.43751

       In consultation with boards, programs, and persons receiving 43752
services, the department shall establish guidelines for the use of 43753
funds allocated and distributed under this section and for the 43754
boards' development of plans for services required by sections 43755
340.033 and 3793.05 of the Revised Code.43756

       In any fiscal year, the department shall spend, or allocate 43757
to boards, for methadone maintenance programs or any similar 43758
programs not more than eight per cent of the total amount 43759
appropriated to the department for the fiscal year.43760

       Sec. 3793.041.  The department of alcohol and drug addiction 43761
services shall develop, administer, and revise as necessary a 43762
comprehensive statewide gambling addiction services plan. The 43763
council on alcohol, drug, and gambling addiction services shall 43764
advise the department in the development and implementation of the 43765
plan.43766

       The plan shall provide for allocation and distribution of 43767
funds from the problem casino gambling and addictions fund 43768
described in Section 6(C)(3)(g) of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, 43769
and any funding to be distributed by the department for problem 43770
gambling.43771

        The plan shall specify the methodology that the department 43772
will use for determining how the funds will be allocated and 43773
distributed. A portion of the funds shall be allocated on the 43774
basis of the ratio of the population of each alcohol, drug 43775
addiction, and mental health service district to the total 43776
population of the state as determined from the most recent federal 43777
census or the most recent official estimate made by the United 43778
States census bureau.43779

       The plan shall ensure that gambling addiction services of a 43780
high quality are accessible to, and responsive to the needs of, 43781
all persons, especially those who are members of underserved 43782
groups, including, but not limited to, African Americans, 43783
Hispanics, native Americans, Asians, juvenile and adult offenders, 43784
women, veterans, and persons with special services needs due to 43785
age or disability. The plan shall include a program to promote and 43786
protect the rights of those who receive services.43787

       To aid in formulating the plan and in evaluating the 43788
effectiveness and results of gambling addiction services, the 43789
department, in consultation with the department of mental health, 43790
shall establish and maintain an information system or systems. The 43791
department of alcohol and drug addiction services shall specify 43792
the information that must be provided by boards of alcohol, drug 43793
addiction, and mental health services and by gambling addiction 43794
programs for inclusion in the system. The department shall not 43795
collect any personal information from the boards except as 43796
required or permitted by state or federal law for purposes related 43797
to payment, health care operations, program and service 43798
evaluation, reporting activities, research, system administration, 43799
and oversight.43800

       In consultation with boards, programs, and persons receiving 43801
services, the department shall establish guidelines for the use of 43802
funds allocated and distributed under this section.43803

       Sec. 3793.09.  (A) There is hereby created the council on 43804
alcohol and, drug, and gambling addiction services which shall 43805
consist of the public officials specified in division (B) of this 43806
section, or their designees, and thirteenfourteen members 43807
appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 43808
senate. The members appointed by the governor shall be 43809
representatives of the following: boards of alcohol, drug 43810
addiction, and mental health services; the criminal and juvenile 43811
justice systems; and alcohol and drug addiction programs; and 43812
gambling addiction programs. At least four of the appointed 43813
members shall be persons who have received or are receiving 43814
alcohol or drug addiction services or are parents or other 43815
relatives of such persons; of these at least two shall be women 43816
and at least one shall be a member of a minority group.43817

       The governor shall make initial appointments to the council 43818
not later than thirty days after October 10, 1989. Of the initial 43819
appointments, six shall be for terms ending July 31, 1991, and 43820
seven shall be for terms ending July 31, 1992. Thereafter, terms43821
group. At least one appointed member shall be an individual who 43822
has received or is receiving gambling addiction services.43823

       Terms of office shall be two years, with each term ending on 43824
the same day of the same month as the term it succeeds. Each 43825
member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment 43826
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. 43827
Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the same 43828
manner as original appointments. Any member appointed to fill a 43829
vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which 43830
the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office as a 43831
member for the remainder of the term. A member shall continue in 43832
office subsequent to the expiration of the member's term until the 43833
member's successor takes office or until a period of sixty days 43834
has elapsed, whichever occurs first.43835

       (B) The directors of health, public safety, mental health, 43836
rehabilitation and correction, and youth services; the 43837
superintendents of public instruction and liquor control; the 43838
attorney general; the adjutant general; and the executive director 43839
of the division of criminal justice services in the department of 43840
public safety; the executive director of the casino control 43841
commission; the executive director of the lottery commission; and 43842
the executive director of the state racing commission shall be 43843
voting members of the council, except that any of these officials 43844
may designate an individual to serve in the official's place as a 43845
voting member of the council. The director of alcohol and drug 43846
addiction services shall serve as a nonvoting member of the 43847
council.43848

       (C) The governor shall annually appoint a chairperson from 43849
among the members of the council. The council shall meet quarterly 43850
and at other times the chairperson considers necessary. In 43851
addition to other duties specified in this chapter, the council 43852
shall review the development of the comprehensive statewide plan 43853
for alcohol and drug addiction services, the comprehensive 43854
statewide plan for gambling addiction services, revisions of the 43855
planthose plans, and other actions taken to implement the 43856
purposes of this chapter by the department of alcohol and drug 43857
addiction services and shall act as an advisory council to the 43858
director of alcohol and drug addiction services.43859

       (D) Members of the council shall serve without compensation, 43860
but shall be paid actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 43861
performance of their duties.43862

       Sec.  3798.01. As used in this chapter:43863

       (A) "Approved health information exchange" means a health 43864
information exchange that has been approved or reapproved by the 43865
director of job and family services pursuant to the approval or 43866
reapproval process, as applicable, the director establishes in 43867
rules adopted under division (A) of section 3798.15 of the Revised 43868
Code or that has been certified by the office of the national 43869
coordinator for health information technology in the United States 43870
department of health and human services.43871

       (B) "Covered entity," "disclosure," "health care provider," 43872
"health information," "individually identifiable health 43873
information," "protected health information," and "use" have the 43874
same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.43875

       (C) "Designated record set" has the same meaning as in 45 43876
C.F.R. 164.501.43877

       (D) "Direct exchange" means the activity of electronic 43878
transmission of health information through a direct connection 43879
between the electronic record systems of health care providers 43880
without the use of a health information exchange. 43881

       (E) "Health care component" and "hybrid entity" have the same 43882
meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 164.103.43883

       (F) "Health information exchange" means any person or 43884
governmental entity that provides in this state a technical 43885
infrastructure to connect computer systems or other electronic 43886
devices used by covered entities to facilitate the secure 43887
transmission of health information. "Health information exchange" 43888
excludes health care providers engaged in direct exchange, 43889
including direct exchange through the use of a health information 43890
service provider.43891

       (G) "HIPAA privacy rule" means the standards for privacy of 43892
individually identifiable health information in 45 C.F.R. part 160 43893
and in 45 C.F.R. part 164, subparts A and E.43894

       (H) "Interoperability" means the capacity of two or more 43895
information systems to exchange information in an accurate, 43896
effective, secure, and consistent manner.43897

       (I) "Minor" means an unemancipated person under eighteen 43898
years of age or a mentally or physically disabled person under 43899
twenty-one years of age who meets criteria specified in rules 43900
adopted by the director of job and family services under section 43901
3798.13 of the Revised Code.43902

       (J) "More stringent" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 43903
160.202.43904

        (K) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 43905
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K or a 43906
successor governmental entity responsible for health system 43907
oversight in this state.43908

       (L) "Personal representative" means a person who has 43909
authority under applicable law to make decisions related to health 43910
care on behalf of an adult or emancipated minor, or the parent, 43911
legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis who is 43912
authorized under law to make health care decisions on behalf of an 43913
unemancipated minor. "Personal representative" does not include 43914
the parent or legal guardian of, or another person acting in loco 43915
parentis to, a minor who consents to the minor's own receipt of 43916
health care or a minor who makes medical decisions on the minor's 43917
own behalf pursuant to law, court approval, or because the minor's 43918
parent, legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis 43919
has assented to an agreement of confidentiality between the 43920
provider and the minor.43921

       (M) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 43922
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 43923
politic responsible for governmental activities in a geographic 43924
area smaller than that of the state.43925

       (N) "State agency" means any one or more of the following:43926

       (1) The department of aging;43927

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;43928

       (3) The department of developmental disabilities;43929

       (4) The department of education;43930

       (5) The department of health;43931

       (6) The department of insurance;43932

       (7) The department of job and family services;43933

       (8) The department of mental health;43934

       (9) The department of rehabilitation and correction;43935

       (10) The department of youth services;43936

       (11) The bureau of workers' compensation;43937

       (12) The rehabilitation services commission;43938

       (13) The office of the attorney general;43939

       (14) A health care licensing board created under Title XLVII 43940
of the Revised Code that possesses individually identifiable 43941
health information.43942

       Sec.  3798.02. It is the intent of the general assembly in 43943
enacting this chapter to make the laws of this state governing the 43944
use and disclosure of protected health information by covered 43945
entities consistent with, but generally not more stringent than, 43946
the HIPAA privacy rule for the purpose of eliminating barriers to 43947
the adoption and use of electronic health records and health 43948
information exchanges. Therefore, it is also the general 43949
assembly's intent in enacting this chapter to supersede any 43950
judicial or administrative ruling issued in this state that is 43951
inconsistent with the provisions of this chapter.43952

       Sec. 3798.03. (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, a 43953
covered entity shall do both of the following:43954

       (1) If an individual's protected health information is 43955
maintained by the covered entity in a designated record set, 43956
provide the individual or the individual's personal representative 43957
with access to that information in a manner consistent with 45 43958
C.F.R. 164.524;43959

       (2) Implement and maintain appropriate administrative, 43960
technical, and physical safeguards to protect the privacy of 43961
protected health information in a manner consistent with 45 C.F.R. 43962
164.530(c).43963

       (B) If a covered entity is a hybrid entity, this section 43964
applies only to the health care component of the covered entity.43965

       Sec.  3798.04.  A covered entity shall not do either of the 43966
following:43967

       (A) Use or disclose protected health information without an 43968
authorization that is valid under 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, if 43969
applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2, except when the use or disclosure is 43970
required or permitted without such authorization by Subchapter C 43971
of Subtitle A of Title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations and, 43972
if applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2;43973

       (B) Use or disclose protected health information in a manner 43974
that is not consistent with 45 C.F.R. 164.502.43975

       Sec.  3798.06.  Except in the circumstances described in 43976
division (A) of section 3798.04 of the Revised Code when a covered 43977
entity is permitted to disclose protected health information 43978
without an authorization that is valid under 45 C.F.R. 164.508, a 43979
covered entity shall not disclose protected health information to 43980
a health information exchange without an authorization described 43981
in division (A) of section 3798.04 of the Revised Code unless all 43982
of the following are true:43983

       (A) The disclosure is to an approved health information 43984
exchange.43985

        (B) The covered entity is a party to a valid participation 43986
agreement with the approved health information exchange that meets 43987
the requirements of rules adopted under section 3798.16 of the 43988
Revised Code.43989

       (C) The disclosure is consistent with all procedures 43990
established by the approved health information exchange.43991

       (D) Prior to the disclosure, the covered entity furnishes to 43992
the individual or individual's personal representative a written 43993
notice that complies with rules adopted under division (A)(3) of 43994
section 3798.16 of the Revised Code.43995

       Sec. 3798.07. (A) In addition to being subject to the general 43996
prohibition in section 3798.06 of the Revised Code on disclosure 43997
of protected health information to a health information exchange 43998
without a valid authorization, a covered entity shall also be 43999
subject to the following conditions when it discloses protected 44000
health information to a health information exchange:44001

       (1) The covered entity shall restrict disclosure consistent 44002
with all applicable federal laws governing the disclosure;44003

       (2) If the protected health information concerns a minor, the 44004
covered entity shall restrict disclosure in a manner that complies 44005
with laws of this state pertaining to the circumstances under 44006
which a minor may consent to the minor's own receipt of health 44007
care or make medical decisions on the minor's own behalf, 44008
including sections 2907.29, 3709.241, 3719.012, 5120.172, 5122.04, 44009
and 5126.043 of the Revised Code unless the minor authorizes the 44010
disclosure. 44011

       (3) The covered entity shall restrict disclosure in a manner 44012
that is consistent with a written request from the individual or 44013
the individual's personal representative to restrict disclosure of 44014
all of the individual's protected health information.44015

       (4) The covered entity shall restrict disclosure in a manner 44016
that is consistent with a written request from the individual or 44017
the individual's personal representative concerning specific 44018
categories of protected health information to the extent that 44019
rules adopted pursuant to section 3798.16 of the Revised Code 44020
require the covered entity to comply with such a request.44021

       (B) The conditions in division (A) of this section on a 44022
covered entity's disclosure of protected health information to a 44023
health information exchange do not render unenforceable or 44024
restrict in any manner any of the following:44025

       (1) A provision of the Revised Code that on the effective 44026
date of this section requires a person or governmental entity to 44027
disclose protected health information to a state agency, political 44028
subdivision, or other governmental entity;44029

       (2) The confidential status of proceedings and records within 44030
the scope of a peer review committee of a health care entity as 44031
described in section 2305.252 of the Revised Code;44032

       (3) The confidential status of quality assurance program 44033
activities and quality assurance records as described in section 44034
5122.32 of the Revised Code;44035

       (4) The testimonial privilege established by division (B) of 44036
section 2317.02 of the Revised Code;44037

       (5) Any of the following items that govern the 44038
confidentiality, privacy, security, or privileged status of 44039
protected health information in the possession or custody of an 44040
agency; govern the process for obtaining from a patient consent to 44041
the provision of health care or consent for participation in 44042
medical or other scientific research; govern the process for 44043
determining whether an adult has a physical or mental impairment 44044
or an adult's capacity to make health care decisions for purposes 44045
of Chapter 5126. of the Revised Code; or govern the process for 44046
determining whether a minor has been emancipated:44047

       (a) A section of the Revised Code that is not in this 44048
chapter;44049

       (b) A rule as defined in section 119.01 of the Revised Code; 44050

       (c) An internal management rule as defined in section 111.15 44051
of the Revised Code;44052

       (d) Guidance issued by an agency; 44053

       (e) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a city 44054
health district made under section 3709.20 of the Revised Code;44055

       (f) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a general 44056
health district made under section 3709.21 of the Revised Code;44057

       (g) An ordinance or resolution adopted by a political 44058
subdivision;44059

       (h) A professional code of ethics;44060

       (i) When a minor is authorized to consent to the minor's own 44061
receipt of health care or make medical decisions on the minor's 44062
own behalf, including the circumstances described in sections 44063
2907.29, 3709.241, 3719.012, 5120.172, 5122.04, and 5126.043 of 44064
the Revised Code.44065

       Sec. 3798.08.  (A) A covered entity that uses or discloses 44066
protected health information in a manner that complies with 44067
sections 3798.03 and 3798.07 of the Revised Code and is not in 44068
violation of section 3798.04 or 3798.06 of the Revised Code is not 44069
liable in a civil action and is not subject to criminal 44070
prosecution or professional disciplinary action arising out of or 44071
relating to the access or disclosure.44072

       (B) An approved health information exchange is not liable in 44073
a civil action and not subject to criminal prosecution arising out 44074
of or relating to a covered entity's disclosure of protected 44075
health information to the approved health information exchange, or 44076
use of protected health information accessed from the approved 44077
health information exchange, if the disclosure or use complies 44078
with sections 3798.03 and 3798.07 of the Revised Code and is not 44079
in violation of section 3798.04 or 3798.06 of the Revised Code.44080

       Sec. 3798.10.  (A) Not later than six months after the 44081
effective date of this section, the director of job and family 44082
services, in consultation with the office of health 44083
transformation, shall prescribe by rules adopted in accordance 44084
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code a standard authorization 44085
form for the use and disclosure of protected health information by 44086
covered entities in this state. The form shall meet all 44087
requirements specified in 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, where applicable, 44088
42 C.F.R. part 2. 44089

       (B) If a form the director prescribes under division (A) of 44090
this section is properly executed by an individual or the 44091
individual's personal representative, it shall be accepted by any 44092
person or governmental entity in this state as valid authorization 44093
for the use or disclosure of the individual's protected health 44094
information to the persons or governmental entities specified in 44095
the form.44096

       (C) This section does not preclude a person or governmental 44097
entity from accepting as valid authorization for the use or 44098
disclosure of protected health information a form other than the 44099
form prescribed under division (A) of this section if the other 44100
form meets all requirements specified in 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, if 44101
applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2.44102

       Sec. 3798.12.  As used in this section, "agency" has the same 44103
meaning as in section 111.15 of the Revised Code.44104

       (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, any 44105
of the following pertaining to the confidentiality, privacy, 44106
security, or privileged status of protected health information 44107
transacted, maintained in, or accessed through a health 44108
information exchange is unenforceable if it conflicts with this 44109
chapter: 44110

       (1) A section of the Revised Code that is not in this 44111
chapter;44112

       (2) A rule as defined in section 119.01 of the Revised Code;44113

       (3) An internal management rule as defined in section 111.15 44114
of the Revised Code;44115

       (4) Guidance issued by an agency;44116

       (5) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a city 44117
health district made under section 3709.20 of the Revised Code;44118

       (6) Orders or regulations of a board of health of a general 44119
health district made under section 3709.21 of the Revised Code;44120

       (7) An ordinance or resolution adopted by a political 44121
subdivision;44122

        (8) A professional code of ethics.44123

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not render 44124
unenforceable or restrict in any manner any of the following:44125

       (1) A provision of the Revised Code that on the effective 44126
date of this section requires a person or governmental entity to 44127
disclose protected health information to a state agency, political 44128
subdivision, or other governmental entity;44129

        (2) The confidential status of proceedings and records within 44130
the scope of a peer review committee of a health care entity as 44131
described in section 2305.252 of the Revised Code;44132

       (3) The confidential status of quality assurance program 44133
activities and quality assurance records as described in section 44134
5122.32 of the Revised Code;44135

        (4) The testimonial privilege established by division (B) of 44136
section 2317.02 of the Revised Code;44137

       (5) An item described in divisions (A)(1) to (8) of this 44138
section that governs any of the following:44139

       (a) The confidentiality, privacy, security, or privileged 44140
status of protected health information in the possession or 44141
custody of an agency;44142

       (b) The process for obtaining from a patient consent to the 44143
provision of health care or consent for participation in medical 44144
or other scientific research;44145

       (c) The process for determining whether an adult has a 44146
physical or mental impairment or an adult's capacity to make 44147
health care decisions for purposes of Chapter 5126. of the Revised 44148
Code;44149

       (d) The process for determining whether a minor has been 44150
emancipated.44151

       (6) When a minor is authorized to consent to the minor's own 44152
receipt of health care or make medical decisions on the minor's 44153
own behalf, including the circumstances described in sections 44154
2907.29, 3709.241, 3719.012, 5120.172, 5122.04, and 5126.043 of 44155
the Revised Code.44156

       Sec. 3798.13. The director of job and family services shall 44157
adopt rules for purposes of specifying the criteria a person who 44158
is mentally or physically disabled and who is under twenty-one 44159
years of age must meet to be considered a minor for purposes of 44160
sections 3798.07 and 3798.12 of the Revised Code.44161

       Sec.  3798.14. (A) The director of job and family services, in 44162
consultation with the office of health transformation, shall adopt 44163
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 44164
purpose of establishing standards the director must use to approve 44165
health information exchanges operating in this state. The rules 44166
shall not be adopted until the earlier of sixty days following the 44167
adoption of a federal certification process for health information 44168
exchanges by the office of the national coordinator for health 44169
information technology in the United States department of health 44170
and human services or January 1, 2013. Subject to division (B) of 44171
this section, the rules may include standards and procedures to be 44172
followed by a health information exchange regarding the following:44173

       (1) Access to and use and disclosure of protected health 44174
information maintained by or on an approved health information 44175
exchange;44176

       (2) Demonstration of adequate financial resources to sustain 44177
continued operations in compliance with the rules adopted under 44178
this section;44179

       (3) Participation in outreach activities for individuals and 44180
covered entities;44181

       (4) Conduct of operations in a transparent manner to promote 44182
consumer confidence;44183

       (5) Implementation of security breach notification 44184
procedures.44185

       (B) The rules the director adopts pursuant to division (A) of 44186
this section shall be consistent with certification standards for 44187
health information exchanges established in federal statutes and 44188
regulations, including nationally recognized standards for 44189
interoperability.44190

       Sec.  3798.15.  (A) The director of job and family services, 44191
in consultation with the office of health transformation, shall 44192
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 44193
for the purpose of establishing processes for all of the 44194
following:44195

       (1) A health information exchange to obtain approval to 44196
operate as an approved health information exchange in this state 44197
and, at times specified by the director, obtain reapproval of such 44198
status;44199

       (2) The director to investigate and resolve concerns and 44200
complaints submitted to the director regarding an approved health 44201
information exchange;44202

       (3) A health information exchange to apply for 44203
reconsideration of a decision the director makes under a process 44204
established under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section;44205

       (4) Covered entities and approved health information 44206
exchanges to enter into participation agreements and enforce the 44207
terms of such agreements.44208

       (B) Any decision the director makes in relation to a request 44209
for reconsideration made in accordance with rules adopted under 44210
division (A)(3) of this section is not subject to appeal under 44211
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.44212

       Sec. 3798.16.  (A) The director of job and family services, 44213
in consultation with the office of health transformation, shall 44214
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 44215
for the purpose of specifying the content of agreements governing 44216
covered entities' participation in approved health information 44217
exchanges. At a minimum, the rules shall require the content of 44218
such participation agreements to include all of the following: 44219

       (1) Procedures for a covered entity to disclose an 44220
individual's protected health information to an approved health 44221
information exchange;44222

       (2) Procedures for a covered entity to access an individual's 44223
protected health information from an approved health information 44224
exchange;44225

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, a written notice 44226
to be provided by a covered entity to an individual or the 44227
individual's personal representative prior to the covered entity's 44228
disclosure of the individual's protected health information to an 44229
approved health information exchange; 44230

       (4) Documentation the covered entity must use to verify that 44231
a notice described in division (A)(3) of this section has been 44232
provided by the covered entity to an individual or the 44233
individual's personal representative prior to the disclosure of 44234
the individual's protected health information to an approved 44235
health information exchange;44236

       (5) Procedures, which must take into consideration the 44237
technical capabilities of software available to health information 44238
exchanges, for an individual or the individual's personal 44239
representative to submit to the covered entity a written request 44240
to place restrictions on the covered entity's disclosure of 44241
protected health information to the approved health information 44242
exchange;44243

       (6) The standards a covered entity must use to determine 44244
whether, and to what extent, to comply with a written request 44245
described in division (A)(5) of this section;44246

       (7) The purposes for which a covered entity may access and 44247
use protected health information from the approved health 44248
information exchange.44249

       (B) With respect to the written notice described in division 44250
(A)(3) of this section, the rules may specify that the notice can 44251
be incorporated into the covered entity's notice of privacy 44252
practices required by 45 C.F.R. 164.520 and shall specify that the 44253
notice include the following statements:44254

       (1) The individual's protected health information will be 44255
disclosed to the approved health information exchange to 44256
facilitate the provision of health care to the individual.44257

       (2) The approved health information exchange maintains 44258
appropriate safeguards to protect the privacy and security of 44259
protected health information.44260

       (3) Only authorized individuals may access and use protected 44261
health information from the approved health information exchange.44262

       (4) The individual or the individual's personal 44263
representative has the right to request in writing that the 44264
covered entity do either or both of the following:44265

       (a) Not disclose any of the individual's protected health 44266
information to the approved health information exchange;44267

       (b) Not disclose specific categories of the individual's 44268
protected health information to the approved health information 44269
exchange.44270

       (5) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 44271
information an individual requests as described in either division 44272
(B)(4)(a) or (b) of this section may result in a health care 44273
provider not having access to information that is necessary for 44274
the provider to render appropriate care to the individual.44275

       (6) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 44276
information an individual requests as described in division 44277
(B)(4)(a) of this section must be honored by the covered entity.44278

       (7) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 44279
information an individual requests as described in division 44280
(B)(4)(b) of this section must be honored if the restriction is 44281
consistent with rules adopted under this chapter.44282

       Sec. 3905.36.  (A) Every insured association, company, 44283
corporation, or other person that enters, directly or indirectly, 44284
into any independent procurement or direct placement agreement 44285
with any insurance company, association, individual, firm, 44286
underwriter, or Lloyd's, not authorized to do business in this 44287
state, whereby the insured shall procure, continue, or renew 44288
contracts of insurance with such unauthorized insurance company, 44289
association, individual, firm, underwriter, or Lloyd's, for which 44290
insurance there is a gross premium, shall file the details of the 44291
transaction annually, on or before the thirty-first day of March, 44292
and shall at the same time pay to the treasurer of state, or to 44293
the superintendent of insurance upon the mutual agreement of the 44294
superintendent and the treasurer, a tax of five per cent of such 44295
gross premium, after a deduction for return premium, if any, as 44296
calculated in the prescribed format or in compliance with any 44297
requirements of the compact entered into by the superintendent 44298
pursuant to division (D) of section 3905.33 of the Revised Code. 44299
An insurer may submit the required details of the transaction and 44300
remit the tax payment on behalf of an insured.44301

       All taxes collected under this section shall be paid into the 44302
general revenue fund. If the tax is not paid when due, the tax 44303
shall be increased by a penalty of twenty-five per cent. An 44304
interest charge computed as set forth in section 5725.221 of the 44305
Revised Code shall be made on the entire sum of the tax plus 44306
penalty, which interest shall be computed from the date the tax is 44307
due until it is paid. For purposes of this section, payment is 44308
considered made when it is received by the treasurer or the 44309
superintendent, irrespective of any United States postal service 44310
marking or other stamp or mark indicating the date on which the 44311
payment may have been mailed.44312

       The superintendent of insurance, in the superintendent's sole 44313
discretion, may waive the twenty-five per cent penalty and 44314
interest charge thereon for a first-time, inadvertent nonpayment 44315
of the tax when due if the nonpayment is reported immediately upon 44316
discovery and the outstanding tax is thereafter immediately paid 44317
to the superintendent.44318

       (B) Each person licensed under section 3905.30 of the Revised 44319
Code shall pay to the treasurer of state, or to the superintendent 44320
of insurance upon the mutual agreement of the superintendent and 44321
the treasurer, on or before the thirty-first day of March of each 44322
year, five per cent of the balance of the gross premiums charged 44323
for insurance placed or procured under the license after a 44324
deduction for return premiums in the prescribed format or in 44325
compliance with any requirements of the compact entered into by 44326
the superintendent pursuant to division (D) of section 3905.33 of 44327
the Revised Code. The tax shall be collected from the insured by 44328
the surplus lines broker who placed or procured the policy of 44329
insurance at the time the policy is delivered to the insured. No 44330
license issued under section 3905.30 of the Revised Code shall be 44331
renewed until payment is made. If the tax is not paid when due, 44332
the tax shall be increased by a penalty of twenty-five per cent. 44333
An interest charge computed as set forth in section 5725.221 of 44334
the Revised Code shall be made on the entire sum of the tax plus 44335
penalty, which interest shall be computed from the date the tax is 44336
due until it is paid. For purposes of this section, payment is 44337
considered made when it is received by the treasurer or the 44338
superintendent, irrespective of any United States postal service 44339
marking or other stamp or mark indicating the date on which the 44340
payment may have been mailed.44341

       The superintendent, in the superintendent's sole discretion, 44342
may waive the twenty-five per cent penalty and interest charge 44343
thereon for a first-time, inadvertent nonpayment of the tax when 44344
due if the nonpayment is reported immediately upon discovery and 44345
the outstanding tax is thereafter immediately paid to the 44346
superintendent.44347

       (C) This section does not apply to:44348

       (1) An insured otherwise exempt from the payment of premium 44349
or franchise taxes under state or federal law;44350

       (2) Attorneys-at-law acting on behalf of their clients in the 44351
adjustment of claims or losses;44352

       (3) Transactions involving policies issued by a captive 44353
insurer. For this purpose, a "captive insurer" means any of the 44354
following:44355

        (a) An insurer owned by one or more individuals or 44356
organizations, whose exclusive purpose is to insure risks of one 44357
or more of the parent organizations or individual owners and risks 44358
of one or more affiliates of the parent organizations or 44359
individual owners;44360

        (b) In the case of groups and associations, insurers owned by 44361
the group or association whose exclusive purpose is to insure 44362
risks of members of the group or association and affiliates of the 44363
members;44364

        (c) Other types of insurers, licensed and operated in 44365
accordance with the captive insurance laws of their jurisdictions 44366
of domicile and operated in a manner so as to self-insure risks of 44367
their owners and insureds.44368

       (4) Professional or medical liability insurance procured by a 44369
hospital organized under Chapter 3701. of the Revised Code;44370

       (5) Insurance with an initial policy period of more than 44371
three years and that is procured to cover known events related to 44372
environmental remediation that occurred prior to the effective 44373
date of that insurance;44374

       (6) Insurance procured on behalf of an entity that 44375
manufactures, packages, and sells, as more than fifty per cent of 44376
the entity's business, pharmaceutical products for human use where 44377
the production, packaging, and sale of such products are subject 44378
to regulation by an agency of the United States;44379

       (7) A political subdivision or any combination or consortium 44380
of two or more political subdivisions.44381

       (D) As used in this section:44382

       (1) "Political subdivision" means any county; municipal 44383
corporation; township; township police district; township fire 44384
district; joint fire district; joint ambulance district; joint 44385
emergency medical services district; fire and ambulance district; 44386
joint recreation district; township waste disposal district; 44387
township road district; community college district; technical 44388
college district; detention facility district; a district 44389
organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code; a combined 44390
district organized under sections 2151.65 and 2152.41 of the 44391
Revised Code; a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 44392
health service district; a drainage improvement district created 44393
under section 6131.52 of the Revised Code; a union cemetery 44394
district; a county school financing district; a city, local, 44395
exempted village, cooperative education, or joint vocational 44396
school district; or a regional student education district created 44397
under section 3313.83 of the Revised Code, any public division, 44398
district, commission, authority, department, board, officer, or 44399
institution of any one or more of those political subdivisions, 44400
that is entirely or substantially supported by public tax moneys.44401

       (2) "Municipal corporation" means all municipal corporations, 44402
including those that have adopted a charter under Article XVIII, 44403
Ohio Constitution.44404

       Sec. 4104.01.  As used in sections 4104.01 to 4104.20 and 44405
section 4104.99 of the Revised Code:44406

       (A) "Board of building standards" or "board" means the board 44407
established by section 3781.07 of the Revised Code.44408

       (B) "Superintendent" means the superintendent of labor44409
industrial compliance created by section 121.04 of the Revised 44410
Code.44411

       (C) "Boiler" means a closed vessel in which water is heated, 44412
steam is generated, steam is superheated, or any combination 44413
thereof, under pressure or vacuum for use externally to itself by 44414
the direct application of heat from the combustion of fuels, or 44415
from electricity or nuclear energy. "Boiler" includes fired units 44416
for heating or vaporizing liquids other than water where these 44417
units are separate from processing systems and are complete within 44418
themselves.44419

       (D) "Power boiler" means a boiler in which steam or other 44420
vapor (to be used externally to itself) is generated at a pressure 44421
of more than fifteen psig.44422

       (E) "High pressure, high temperature water boiler" means a 44423
water heating boiler operating at pressures exceeding one hundred 44424
sixty psig or temperatures exceeding two hundred fifty degrees 44425
Fahrenheit.44426

       (F) "Low pressure boiler" means a steam boiler operating at 44427
pressures not exceeding fifteen psig, or a hot water heating 44428
boiler operating at pressures not exceeding one hundred sixty psig 44429
or temperatures not exceeding two hundred fifty degrees 44430
Fahrenheit.44431

       (G) "Pressure vessel" means a container for the containment 44432
of pressure, either internal or external. This pressure may be 44433
obtained from an external source or by the application of heat 44434
from a direct or indirect source or any combination thereof.44435

       (H) "Process boiler" means a boiler to which all of the 44436
following apply:44437

       (1) The steam in the boiler is either generated or 44438
superheated, or both, under pressure or vacuum for use external to 44439
itself.44440

       (2) The source of heat for the boiler is in part or in whole 44441
from a process other than the boiler itself.44442

       (3) The boiler is part of a continuous processing unit, such 44443
as used in chemical manufacture or petroleum refining, other than 44444
a steam-generated process unit.44445

       (I) "Stationary steam engine" means an engine or turbine in 44446
which the mechanical force arising from the elasticity and 44447
expansion action of steam or from its property of rapid 44448
condensation or from a combination of the two is made available as 44449
a motive power.44450

       Sec. 4104.02.  The board of building standards shall:44451

       (A) Formulate rules for the construction, installation, 44452
repair, conservation of energy, and operation of boilers and the 44453
construction and repair of pressure vessels and for ascertaining 44454
the safe working pressures to be carried on such boilers and 44455
pressure vessels and the qualification of inspectors of boilers 44456
and pressure vessels;44457

       (B) Prescribe tests, if it is considered necessary, to 44458
ascertain the qualities of materials used in the construction of 44459
boilers and pressure vessels;44460

       (C) Adopt rules regulating the construction and sizes of 44461
safety valves for boilers and pressure vessels of different sizes 44462
and pressures, for the construction, use, and location of fusible 44463
plugs, appliances for indicating the pressure of steam and level 44464
of water in the boiler or pressure vessels, and such other 44465
appliances as the board considers necessary to safety in operating 44466
boilers;44467

       (D) Establish reasonable fees for the performance of reviews, 44468
surveys, or audits of manufacturer's facilities by the division of 44469
laborindustrial compliance for certification by the American 44470
society of mechanical engineers and the national board of boiler 44471
and pressure vessel inspectors;44472

       (E) The definitions and rules adopted by the board for the 44473
construction, installation, repair, conservation of energy, and 44474
operation of boilers and the construction and repair of pressure 44475
vessels and for ascertaining the safe working pressures to be used 44476
on such boilers and pressure vessels shall be based upon and 44477
follow generally accepted engineering standards, formulae, and 44478
practices established and pertaining to boilers and pressure 44479
vessel construction, operation, and safety, and the board may, for 44480
this purpose, adopt existing published standards as well as 44481
amendments thereto subsequently published by the same authority.44482

       When a person desires to manufacture a special type of boiler 44483
or pressure vessel, the design of which is not covered by the 44484
rules of the board, the person shall submit drawings and 44485
specifications of such boiler or pressure vessel to the board for 44486
investigation, after which the board may permit its installation.44487

       The provisions of sections 119.03 and 119.11 of the Revised 44488
Code in particular, and the applicable provisions of Chapter 119. 44489
of the Revised Code in general, shall govern the proceedings of 44490
the board of building standards in adopting, amending, or 44491
rescinding rules pursuant to this section.44492

       Sec. 4104.06.  (A) The inspection of boilers and their 44493
appurtenances and pressure vessels shall be made by the inspectors 44494
mentioned in sections 4104.07 to 4104.20 of the Revised Code. The 44495
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall administer and 44496
enforce such sections and rules adopted by the board of building 44497
standards pursuant to section 4104.02 of the Revised Code.44498

       (B) The superintendent shall adopt, amend, and repeal rules 44499
exclusively for the issuance, renewal, suspension, and revocation 44500
of certificates of competency and certificates of operation, for 44501
conducting hearings in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 44502
Code related to these actions, and for the inspection of boilers 44503
and their appurtenances, and pressure vessels.44504

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, the 44505
superintendent shall not adopt rules relating to construction, 44506
maintenance, or repair of boilers and their appurtenances, or 44507
repair of pressure vessels.44508

       (D) The superintendent and each general inspector may enter 44509
any premises and any building or room at all reasonable hours to 44510
perform an examination or inspection.44511

       Sec. 4104.07.  (A) An application for examination as an 44512
inspector of boilers and pressure vessels shall be in writing, 44513
accompanied by a fee of one hundred fifty dollars, upon a blank to 44514
be furnished by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance. 44515
Any moneys collected under this section shall be paid into the 44516
state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance44517
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.44518

       (B) The superintendent shall determine if an applicant meets 44519
all the requirements for examination in accordance with rules 44520
adopted by the board of building standards under section 4104.02 44521
of the Revised Code. An application shall be rejected which 44522
contains any willful falsification, or untruthful statements.44523

       (C) An applicant shall be examined by the superintendent, by 44524
a written examination, prescribed by the board, dealing with the 44525
construction, installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of 44526
boilers and pressure vessels and their appurtenances, and the 44527
applicant shall be accepted or rejected on the merits of the 44528
applicant's application and examination.44529

       (D) Upon a favorable report by the superintendent of the 44530
result of an examination, the superintendent shall immediately 44531
issue to the successful applicant a certificate of competency to 44532
that effect.44533

       Sec. 4104.08.  (A) The director of commerce may appoint from 44534
the holders of certificates of competency provided for in section 44535
4104.07 of the Revised Code, general inspectors of boilers and 44536
pressure vessels.44537

       (B) Any company authorized to insure boilers and pressure 44538
vessels against explosion in this state may designate from holders 44539
of certificates of competency issued by the superintendent of 44540
laborindustrial compliance, or holders of certificates of 44541
competency or commissions issued by other states or nations whose 44542
examinations for certificates or commissions have been approved by 44543
the board of building standards, persons to inspect and stamp 44544
boilers and pressure vessels covered by the company's policies, 44545
and the superintendent shall issue to such persons commissions 44546
authorizing them to act as special inspectors. Special inspectors 44547
shall be compensated by the company designating them.44548

       (C) The director shall establish an annual fee to be charged 44549
by the superintendent for each certificate of competency or 44550
commission the superintendent issues.44551

       (D) The superintendent shall issue to each general or special 44552
inspector a commission to the effect that the holder thereof is 44553
authorized to inspect boilers and pressure vessels in this state.44554

       (E) No person shall be authorized to act as a general 44555
inspector or a special inspector who is directly or indirectly 44556
interested in the manufacture or sale of boilers or pressure 44557
vessels.44558

       Sec. 4104.09.  The certificate of competency issued under 44559
section 4104.07 of the Revised Code or the commission provided for 44560
in section 4104.08 of the Revised Code may be revoked by the 44561
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance for the 44562
incompetence or untrustworthiness of the holder thereof, or for 44563
willful falsification of any matter or statement contained in the 44564
holder's application or in a report of any inspection in 44565
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If a certificate 44566
or commission is lost or destroyed, a new certificate or 44567
commission shall be issued in its place without another 44568
examination.44569

       Sec. 4104.10.  All unfired pressure vessels, except unfired 44570
pressure vessels exempt under section 4104.04 of the Revised Code, 44571
shall be thoroughly inspected during fabrication and upon 44572
completion and shall not be operated until a copy of the 44573
manufacturers' data report, properly executed and signed by the 44574
inspector is filed in the office of the superintendent of labor44575
industrial compliance. All unfired pressure vessels shall conform 44576
in every detail with applicable rules adopted by the board of 44577
building standards pursuant to section 4104.02 of the Revised 44578
Code.44579

       Sec. 4104.101.  (A) No person shall install or make major 44580
repairs or modifications to any boiler without first registering 44581
to do so with the division of laborindustrial compliance.44582

       (B) No person shall make any installation or major repair or 44583
modification of any boiler without first obtaining a permit to do 44584
so from the division. The permit application form shall provide 44585
the name and address of the owner, location of the boiler, and 44586
type of repair or modification that will be made. The application 44587
permit fee shall be one hundred dollars.44588

       (C) The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 44589
require annual registration of all contractors who install, make 44590
major repairs to, or modify any boiler. The board of building 44591
standards shall establish a reasonable fee to cover the cost of 44592
processing registrations.44593

       Sec. 4104.12.  All boilers, except boilers mentioned in 44594
section 4104.04 of the Revised Code, shall be inspected when 44595
installed and shall not be operated until an appropriate 44596
certificate of operation has been issued by the superintendent of 44597
laborindustrial compliance. The certificate of operation required 44598
by this section shall not be issued for any boiler which has not 44599
been thoroughly inspected during construction and upon completion, 44600
by either a general or special inspector, and which does not 44601
conform in every detail with the rules adopted by the board of 44602
building standards and unless, upon completion, such boiler is 44603
distinctly stamped under such rules by such inspector.44604

       Sec. 4104.15.  (A) All certificates of inspection for 44605
boilers, issued prior to October 15, 1965, are valid and effective 44606
for the period set forth in such certificates unless sooner 44607
withdrawn by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance. 44608
The owner or user of any such boiler shall obtain an appropriate 44609
certificate of operation for such boiler, and shall not operate 44610
such boiler, or permit it to be operated unless a certificate of 44611
operation has been obtained in accordance with section 4104.17 of 44612
the Revised Code.44613

       (B) If, upon making the internal and external inspection 44614
required under sections 4104.11, 4104.12, and 4104.13 of the 44615
Revised Code, the inspector finds the boiler to be in safe working 44616
order, with the fittings necessary to safety, and properly set up, 44617
upon the inspector's report to the superintendent, the 44618
superintendent shall issue to the owner or user thereof, or renew, 44619
upon application and upon compliance with sections 4104.17 and 44620
4104.18 of the Revised Code, a certificate of operation which 44621
shall state the maximum pressure at which the boiler may be 44622
operated, as ascertained by the rules of the board of building 44623
standards. Such certificates shall also state the name of the 44624
owner or user, the location, size, and number of each boiler, and 44625
the date of issuance, and shall be so placed as to be easily read 44626
in the engine room or boiler room of the plant where the boiler is 44627
located, except that the certificate of operation for a portable 44628
boiler shall be kept on the premises and shall be accessible at 44629
all times.44630

       (C) If an inspector at any inspection finds that the boiler 44631
or pressure vessel is not in safe working condition, or is not 44632
provided with the fittings necessary to safety, or if the fittings 44633
are improperly arranged, the inspector shall immediately notify 44634
the owner or user and person in charge of the boiler and shall 44635
report the same to the superintendent who may revoke, suspend, or 44636
deny the certificate of operation and not renew the same until the 44637
boiler or pressure vessel and its fittings are put in condition to 44638
insure safety of operation, and the owner or user shall not 44639
operate the boiler or pressure vessel, or permit it to be operated 44640
until such certificate has been granted or restored.44641

       (D) If the superintendent or a general boiler inspector finds 44642
that a pressure vessel or boiler or a part thereof poses an 44643
explosion hazard that reasonably can be regarded as posing an 44644
imminent danger of death or serious physical harm to persons, the 44645
superintendent or the general boiler inspector shall seal the 44646
pressure vessel or boiler and order, in writing, the operator or 44647
owner of the pressure vessel or boiler to immediately cease the 44648
pressure vessel's or boiler's operation. The order shall be 44649
effective until the nonconformities are eliminated, corrected, or 44650
otherwise remedied, or for a period of seventy-two hours from the 44651
time of issuance, whichever occurs first. During the 44652
seventy-two-hour period, the superintendent may request that the 44653
prosecuting attorney or city attorney of Franklin county or of the 44654
county in which the pressure vessel or boiler is located obtain an 44655
injunction restraining the operator or owner of the pressure 44656
vessel or boiler from continuing its operation after the 44657
seventy-two-hour period expires until the nonconformities are 44658
eliminated, corrected, or otherwise remedied.44659

       (E) Each boiler which has been inspected shall be assigned a 44660
number by the superintendent, which number shall be stamped on a 44661
nonferrous metal tag affixed to the boiler or its fittings by seal 44662
or otherwise. No person except an inspector shall deface or remove 44663
any such number or tag.44664

       (F) If the owner or user of any pressure vessel or boiler 44665
disagrees with the inspector as to the necessity for shutting down 44666
a pressure vessel or boiler or for making repairs or alterations 44667
in it, or taking any other measures for safety that are requested 44668
by an inspector, the owner or user may appeal from the decision of 44669
the inspector to the superintendent, who may, after such other 44670
inspection by a general inspector or special inspector as the 44671
superintendent deems necessary, decide the issue.44672

       (G) Neither sections 4104.01 to 4104.20 of the Revised Code, 44673
nor an inspection or report by any inspector, shall relieve the 44674
owner or user of a pressure vessel or boiler of the duty of using 44675
due care in the inspection, operation, and repair of the pressure 44676
vessel or boiler or of any liability for damages for failure to 44677
inspect, repair, or operate the pressure vessel or boiler safely.44678

       Sec. 4104.16.  The owner or user of any boiler required by 44679
sections 4104.01 to 4104.20 of the Revised Code, to be inspected, 44680
shall immediately notify the superintendent of laborindustrial 44681
compliance in case a defect affecting the safety of the boiler is 44682
discovered.44683

       The owner or user of any stationary boiler required by such 44684
sections to be inspected, who moves the same, shall report to the 44685
superintendent the new location of the boiler. Such boiler shall 44686
be inspected before it is again operated.44687

       Sec. 4104.17.  Certificates of operation issued for boilers 44688
subject to inspection under Chapter 4104. of the Revised Code 44689
shall be issued and renewed in accordance with and at dates 44690
prescribed by rules and regulations adopted by the superintendent 44691
of laborindustrial compliance.44692

       Sec. 4104.18.  (A) The owner or user of a boiler required 44693
under section 4104.12 of the Revised Code to be inspected upon 44694
installation, and the owner or user of a boiler for which a 44695
certificate of inspection has been issued which is replaced with 44696
an appropriate certificate of operation, shall pay to the 44697
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance a fee in the amount 44698
of fifty dollars for boilers subject to annual inspections under 44699
section 4104.11 of the Revised Code, one hundred dollars for 44700
boilers subject to biennial inspection under section 4104.13 of 44701
the Revised Code, one hundred fifty dollars for boilers subject to 44702
triennial inspection under section 4104.11 of the Revised Code, or 44703
two hundred fifty dollars for boilers subject to quinquennial 44704
inspection under section 4104.13 of the Revised Code.44705

       (B) The fee for complete inspection during construction by a 44706
general inspector on boilers and pressure vessels manufactured 44707
within the state shall be thirty-five dollars per hour. Boiler and 44708
pressure vessel manufacturers other than those located in the 44709
state may secure inspection by a general inspector on work during 44710
construction, upon application to the superintendent, and upon 44711
payment of a fee of thirty-five dollars per hour, plus the 44712
necessary traveling and hotel expenses incurred by the inspector.44713

       (C) The application fee for applicants for steam engineer, 44714
high pressure boiler operator, or low pressure boiler operator 44715
licenses is seventy-five dollars. The fee for each original or 44716
renewal steam engineer, high pressure boiler operator, or low 44717
pressure boiler operator license is fifty dollars.44718

       (D) The director of commerce, subject to the approval of the 44719
controlling board, may establish fees in excess of the fees 44720
provided in divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section. Any 44721
moneys collected under this section shall be paid into the state 44722
treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance44723
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.44724

       (E) Any person who fails to pay an invoiced renewal fee or an 44725
invoiced inspection fee required for any inspection conducted by 44726
the division of laborindustrial compliance pursuant to this 44727
chapter within forty-five days of the invoice date shall pay a 44728
late payment fee equal to twenty-five per cent of the invoiced 44729
fee.44730

       (F) In addition to the fees assessed in divisions (A) and (B) 44731
of this section, the board of building standards shall assess the 44732
owner or user a fee of three dollars and twenty-five cents for 44733
each certificate of operation or renewal thereof issued under 44734
division (A) of this section and for each inspection conducted 44735
under division (B) of this section. The board shall adopt rules, 44736
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, specifying 44737
the manner by which the superintendent shall collect and remit to 44738
the board the fees assessed under this division and requiring that 44739
remittance of the fees be made at least quarterly.44740

       Sec. 4104.19. (A) Any person seeking a license to operate as 44741
a steam engineer, high pressure boiler operator, or low pressure 44742
boiler operator shall file a written application with the 44743
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance on a form prescribed 44744
by the superintendent with the appropriate application fee as set 44745
forth in section 4104.18 of the Revised Code. The application 44746
shall contain information satisfactory to the superintendent to 44747
demonstrate that the applicant meets the requirements of division 44748
(B) of this section. The application shall be filed with the 44749
superintendent not more than sixty days and not less than thirty 44750
days before the license examination is offered.44751

       (B) To qualify to take the examination required to obtain a 44752
steam engineer, high pressure boiler operator, or low pressure 44753
boiler operator license, a person shall meet both of the following 44754
requirements:44755

       (1) Be at least eighteen years of age;44756

       (2) Have one year of experience in the operation of steam 44757
engines, high pressure boilers, or low pressure boilers as 44758
applicable to the type of license being sought, or a combination 44759
of experience and education for the type of license sought as 44760
determined to be acceptable by the superintendent.44761

       (C) No applicant shall qualify to take an examination or to 44762
renew a license if the applicant has violated this chapter or if 44763
the applicant has obtained or renewed a license issued under this 44764
chapter by fraud, misrepresentation, or deception.44765

       (D) The superintendent shall issue a license to each 44766
applicant who receives a passing score on the examination, as 44767
determined by the superintendent, for the license for which the 44768
applicant applied.44769

       (E) The superintendent may select and contract with one or 44770
more persons to do all of the following relative to the 44771
examinations for a license to operate as a steam engineer, high 44772
pressure boiler operator, or low pressure boiler operator:44773

       (1) Prepare, administer, score, and maintain the 44774
confidentiality of the examination;44775

       (2) Maintain responsibility for all expenses required to 44776
fulfill division (E)(1) of this section;44777

       (3) Charge each applicant a fee for administering the 44778
examination, in an amount authorized by the superintendent;44779

       (4) Design the examination for each type of license to 44780
determine an applicant's competence to operate the equipment for 44781
which the applicant is seeking licensure.44782

       (F) Each license issued under this chapter expires one year 44783
after the date of issue. Each person holding a valid, unexpired 44784
license may renew the license, without reexamination, by applying 44785
to the superintendent not more than ninety days before the 44786
expiration of the license, and submitting with the application the 44787
renewal fee established in section 4104.18 of the Revised Code. 44788
Upon receipt of the renewal information and fee, the 44789
superintendent shall issue the licensee a certificate of renewal.44790

       (G) The superintendent, in accordance with Chapter 119. of 44791
the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke any license, or may refuse 44792
to issue a license under this chapter upon finding that a licensee 44793
or an applicant for a license has violated or is violating the 44794
requirements of this chapter.44795

       Sec. 4104.21.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 44796
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the superintendent of labor44797
industrial compliance shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 44798
3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under 44799
section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a certificate 44800
or license issued pursuant to this chapter.44801

       Sec. 4104.33. There is hereby created the historical boilers 44802
licensing board consisting of seven members, three of whom shall 44803
be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 44804
senate. The governor shall make initial appointments to the board 44805
within ninety days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members 44806
appointed by the governor, one shall be for a term ending three 44807
years after October 24, 2002, one shall be for a term ending four 44808
years after October 24, 2002, and one shall be for a term ending 44809
five years after October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office 44810
shall be for five years, each term ending on the same day of the 44811
same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the 44812
three members the governor appoints, one member shall be an 44813
employee of the division of boiler inspection in the department of 44814
commerce; one member shall be an independent mechanical engineer 44815
who is not involved in selling or inspecting historical boilers; 44816
and one shall be an active member of an association that 44817
represents managers of fairs or festivals.44818

       Two members of the board shall be appointed by the president 44819
of the senate and two members of the board shall be appointed by 44820
the speaker of the house of representatives. The president and 44821
speaker shall make initial appointments to the board within ninety 44822
days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by 44823
the president, one shall be for a term ending four years after 44824
October 24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years 44825
after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by the 44826
speaker, one shall be for a term ending three years after October 44827
24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years after 44828
October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for five 44829
years, each term ending on the same day of the same month of the 44830
year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the four members 44831
appointed by the president and speaker, each shall own a 44832
historical boiler and also have at least ten years of experience 44833
in the operation of historical boilers, and each of these four 44834
members shall reside in a different region of the state.44835

       Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's 44836
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 44837
appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled 44838
in the manner provided for initial appointments. Any member 44839
appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date 44840
of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall 44841
hold office as a member for the remainder of that term. A member 44842
shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the 44843
member's term until the successor takes office or until a period 44844
of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.44845

       The members of the board, annually, shall elect, by majority 44846
vote, a chairperson from among their members. The board shall meet 44847
at least once annually and at other times at the call of the 44848
chairperson. Board members shall receive their actual and 44849
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their duties as 44850
board members.44851

       The superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall 44852
furnish office space, staff, and supplies to the board as the 44853
superintendent determines are necessary for the board to carry out 44854
its official duties under sections 4104.33 to 4104.37 of the 44855
Revised Code.44856

       Sec. 4104.42. (A) The owner of any power piping or process 44857
piping system shall ensure that all of the following are performed 44858
in compliance with applicable sections of the B31 standards 44859
contained in the code for pressure piping, published by the 44860
American society of mechanical engineers:44861

       (1) The design, fabrication, assembly, installation, testing, 44862
examination, and inspection of power and process piping systems;44863

       (2) Qualification of personnel and qualification of welding 44864
and brazing procedures;44865

       (3) The implementation of an inspection program.44866

       (B) The owner of a power piping or process piping system 44867
shall do both of the following:44868

       (1) Maintain for five years complete records documenting the 44869
design, examination, and testing of the piping system that include 44870
all of the following:44871

       (a) The specific edition of the code for pressure piping used 44872
in the design;44873

       (b) The design assumptions;44874

       (c) The calculations, piping material specifications, and 44875
construction documents for the piping;44876

       (d) The records of piping alterations;44877

       (e) The piping examination and inspection records.44878

       (2) Disclose the types and quantities of flammable, 44879
combustible, or hazardous materials proposed to be used in the 44880
facility to the building and fire code enforcement authorities who 44881
have inspection authority to enable those authorities to determine 44882
compliance with the rules the board of building standards adopts 44883
pursuant to section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and the rules the 44884
state fire marshal adopts pursuant to section 3737.82 of the 44885
Revised Code.44886

       (C) No person or state agency shall require that the records 44887
described in division (B)(1) of this section be submitted to the 44888
division of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 44889
commerce or to a certified building department for approval.44890

       (D) Nothing in this section limits the application of 44891
Chapters 4703. and 4733. of the Revised Code.44892

       Sec. 4104.43. (A)(1) The board of building standards shall 44893
adopt rules establishing requirements for the design, 44894
installation, inspection of and design review procedure for 44895
building services piping.44896

       (2) The board of building standards shall adopt rules 44897
establishing requirements for the design, installation, inspection 44898
of and design review procedure for nonflammable medical gas, 44899
medical oxygen, and medical vacuum piping systems.44900

       (B) A municipal, township, or county building department 44901
certified under division (E) of section 3781.10 of the Revised 44902
Code shall enforce the rules the board adopts pursuant to division 44903
(A)(2) of this section if that building department requests and 44904
obtains special certification to enforce those rules.44905

        (C) In a health district where no municipal, township, or 44906
county building department is specially certified under division 44907
(B) of this section, an employee of the health district shall 44908
enforce the rules adopted pursuant to division (A)(2) of this 44909
section if both of the following conditions are satisfied:44910

       (1) The health district employee requests and obtains special 44911
certification by the board to enforce those rules.44912

       (2) The health district notifies the superintendent of the 44913
division of laborindustrial compliance in the department of 44914
commerce that the health district's specially certified employee 44915
shall enforce those rules.44916

       (D) In a jurisdiction where enforcement authority as 44917
described in divisions (B) and (C) of this section does not exist, 44918
the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance shall enforce 44919
the rules the board adopts pursuant to division (A)(2) of this 44920
section.44921

       Sec. 4104.44. All welding and brazing of metallic piping 44922
systems shall be performed in accordance with section IX of the 44923
boiler and pressure vessel code, published by the American society 44924
of mechanical engineers. The owner shall maintain, at the job 44925
site, the certified performance qualification records of all 44926
welders and brazers employed at the facility. The owner shall 44927
submit copies of all certified welding and brazing procedure 44928
specifications, procedure qualification records, and performance 44929
qualification records for building services piping for review to 44930
the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance in the 44931
department of commerce in accordance with rules the superintendent 44932
adopts. The submission shall be accompanied by the fee the 44933
superintendent establishes.44934

       Sec. 4104.48.  (A) No person shall violate sections 4104.41 44935
to 4104.48 of the Revised Code, fail to perform any duty lawfully 44936
enjoined in connection with those sections, or fail to comply with 44937
any order issued by the superintendent of laborindustrial 44938
compliance or any judgment or decree issued by any court in 44939
connection with the enforcement of sections 4104.41 to 4104.48 of 44940
the Revised Code.44941

       (B) Every day during which a person violates sections 4104.41 44942
to 4104.48 of the Revised Code, fails to perform any duty lawfully 44943
enjoined in connection with those sections, or fails to comply 44944
with any order issued by the superintendent or any judgment or 44945
decree issued by any court in connection with the enforcement of 44946
sections 4104.41 to 4104.48 of the Revised Code constitutes a 44947
separate offense.44948

       Sec. 4105.01.  As used in this chapter:44949

       (A) "Elevator" means a hoisting and lowering apparatus 44950
equipped with a car, cage, or platform which moves on or between 44951
permanent rails or guides and serves two or more fixed landings in 44952
a building or structure to which section 3781.06 of the Revised 44953
Code applies. "Elevator" includes dumb-waiters other than 44954
hand-powered dumb-waiters, escalators, peopleliftsmanlifts, 44955
moving walks, of the endless belt type, other lifting or lowering 44956
apparatus permanently installed on or between rails or guides, and 44957
all equipment, machinery, and construction related to any 44958
elevator; but does not include construction hoists and other 44959
similar temporary lifting or lowering apparatuses, ski lifts, 44960
traveling, portable amusement rides or devices that are not 44961
affixed to a permanent foundation, or nonportable amusement rides 44962
or devices that are affixed to a permanent foundation.44963

       (B) "Passenger elevator" means an elevator that is designed 44964
to carry persons to its contract capacity.44965

       (C) "Freight elevator" means an elevator normally used for 44966
carrying freight and on which only the operator and employees in 44967
the pursuit of their duties, by the permission of the employer, 44968
are allowed to ride.44969

       (D) "Gravity elevator" means an elevator utilizing gravity to 44970
move.44971

       (E) "General inspector" means a state inspector examined and 44972
hired to inspect elevators and lifting apparatus for that state.44973

       (F) "Special inspector" means an inspector examined and 44974
commissioned by the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance44975
to inspect elevators and lifting apparatus in the state.44976

       (G) "Inspector" means either a general or special inspector.44977

       Sec. 4105.02.  No person may act, either as a general 44978
inspector or as a special inspector, of elevators, unless the 44979
person holds a certificate of competency from the division of 44980
laborindustrial compliance.44981

       Application for examination as an inspector of elevators 44982
shall be in writing, accompanied by a fee to be established as 44983
provided in section 4105.17 of the Revised Code, and upon a blank 44984
to be furnished by the division, stating the school education of 44985
the applicant, a list of the applicant's employers, the 44986
applicant's period of employment, and the position held with each. 44987
An applicant shall also submit a letter from one or more of the 44988
applicant's previous employers certifying as to the applicant's 44989
character and experience.44990

       Applications shall be rejected which contain any willful 44991
falsification or untruthful statements. An applicant, if the 44992
division considers the applicant's history and experience 44993
sufficient, shall be examined by the superintendent of labor44994
industrial compliance by a written examination dealing with the 44995
construction, installation, operation, maintenance, and repair of 44996
elevators and their appurtenances, and the applicant shall be 44997
accepted or rejected on the merits of the applicant's application 44998
and examination.44999

       The superintendent shall issue a certificate of competency in 45000
the inspection of elevators to any applicant found competent upon 45001
examination. A rejected applicant shall be entitled, after the 45002
expiration of ninety days and upon payment of an examination fee 45003
to be established as provided in section 4105.17 of the Revised 45004
Code, to another examination. Should an applicant fail to pass the 45005
prescribed examination on second trial, the applicant will not be 45006
permitted to be an applicant for another examination for a period 45007
of one year after the second examination.45008

       Sec. 4105.03.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 45009
compliance, with the consent of the director of commerce, shall 45010
hire an assistant who has at least ten years of experience in the 45011
construction, installation, maintenance, and repair of elevators 45012
and their appurtenances.45013

       The superintendent, with the consent of the director, and in 45014
compliance with Chapter 124. of the Revised Code, may appoint and 45015
hire general inspectors of elevators from the holders of 45016
certificates of competency.45017

       Sec. 4105.04.  From the holders of certificates of competency 45018
in the inspection of elevators, any company that is authorized to 45019
insure elevators in the state, may designate persons to inspect 45020
elevators covered by such company's policies, and the department 45021
of public safety of any city and the clerk of any village may 45022
designate persons to inspect elevators in such city or village. 45023
Such persons shall, upon the payment of a fee to be established as 45024
provided in section 4105.17 of the Revised Code, have issued to 45025
them annually by the division of laborindustrial compliance, 45026
commissions to serve as special inspectors of elevators in the 45027
state.45028

       Sec. 4105.05.  A commission to serve as a special inspector 45029
may be suspended or revoked by the superintendent of labor45030
industrial compliance, for the incompetence or untrustworthiness 45031
of the holder thereof, or for the falsification of any matter or 45032
statement contained in the holder's application or in a report of 45033
any inspection.45034

       Sec. 4105.06.  If a certificate or commission issued under 45035
sections 4105.02 and 4105.04 of the Revised Code is lost or 45036
destroyed a new one shall be issued in its place by the division 45037
of laborindustrial compliance without another examination, upon 45038
the payment of a fee to be established as provided in section 45039
4105.07 of the Revised Code.45040

       Sec. 4105.09.  The owner or user of any elevator shall 45041
register, with the division of laborindustrial compliance, every 45042
elevator operated by the owner or user, giving the type, capacity, 45043
and description, name of manufacturer, and purpose for which each 45044
is used. Such registration shall be made on a form to be furnished 45045
by the division.45046

       Sec. 4105.11.  The inspection of elevators shall be made by 45047
the inspectors authorized in sections 4105.03 and 4105.04 of the 45048
Revised Code, under the supervision of the superintendent of 45049
laborindustrial compliance, and the superintendent shall enforce 45050
this chapter and any rules adopted pursuant thereto.45051

       Every inspector shall forward to the superintendent a full 45052
and complete report of each inspection made of any elevator and 45053
shall, on the day the inspection is completed, leave a copy of 45054
such report with the owner or operator of the elevator, or the 45055
owner's or operator's agent or representative. Such report shall 45056
indicate the exact condition of the elevator and shall list any 45057
and all of the provisions of this chapter and any rules adopted 45058
pursuant thereto, with which the elevator does not comply. Before 45059
attempting to enforce, by any remedy, civil or criminal, the 45060
provisions with which the inspected elevator does not comply, the 45061
chief shall issue an adjudication order within the meaning of 45062
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.45063

       The approval of construction plans, or an application of 45064
specifications under section 4105.16 of the Revised Code is a 45065
license, and the failure to approve such plans or specifications 45066
by the chief within sixty days after they are filed is an 45067
adjudication order denying the issuance of a license.45068

       Every adjudication order shall specify what appliances, site 45069
preparations, additions, repairs, or alterations to any elevators, 45070
plans, materials, assemblages, or procedures are necessary for the 45071
same to comply with this chapter, or any rules adopted pursuant 45072
thereto. Such adjudication order shall be issued pursuant to 45073
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and shall be effective without 45074
prior hearing, within thirty days after the receipt of such order, 45075
the owner of the elevator specified therein may appeal to the 45076
board of building appeals under section 3781.19 of the Revised 45077
Code.45078

       Notwithstanding the provisions of Chapter 119. of the Revised 45079
Code relating to adjudication hearings, a stenographic or 45080
mechanical record of the testimony and other evidence submitted 45081
before the board of building appeals shall be taken at the expense 45082
of the agency. A party adversely affected by an order issued 45083
following such adjudication hearing may appeal to the court of 45084
common pleas of the county in which the party is a resident or in 45085
which the elevator affected by such order is located. The court in 45086
such case shall not be confined to the record as certified to it 45087
by the agency, but any party may produce additional evidence and 45088
the court shall hear the matter upon such record and such 45089
additional evidence as is introduced by any party. The court shall 45090
not affirm the order of the agency unless the preponderance of the 45091
evidence before it supports the reasonableness and lawfulness of 45092
such order, and of any rules upon which the order of the agency is 45093
based in its application to the facts involved in the appeal.45094

       Failure to comply with the requirements of any order issued 45095
pursuant to this section or the continued operation of any 45096
elevator after it has been sealed pursuant to section 4105.21 of 45097
the Revised Code is hereby declared a public nuisance.45098

       Sec. 4105.12.  (A) The superintendent of laborindustrial 45099
compliance shall adopt, amend, and repeal rules exclusively for 45100
the issuance, renewal, suspension, and revocation of certificates 45101
of competency and certificates of operation, for the conduct of 45102
hearings related to these actions, and for the inspection of 45103
elevators.45104

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, the 45105
superintendent shall not adopt rules relating to construction, 45106
maintenance, and repair of elevators.45107

       Sec. 4105.13.  Every elevator shall be constructed, equipped, 45108
maintained, and operated, with respect to the supporting members, 45109
elevator car, shaftways, guides, cables, doors, and gates, safety 45110
stops and mechanism, electrical apparatus and wiring, mechanical 45111
apparatus, counterweights, and all other appurtenances, in 45112
accordance with state laws and rules as are authorized in respect 45113
thereto. Where reasonable safety is obtained without complying to 45114
the literal requirements of such rules as in cases of practical 45115
difficulty or unnecessary hardship, the literal requirements of 45116
such rules shall not be required. The superintendent of labor45117
industrial compliance may permit the installation of vertical 45118
wheelchair lifts in public buildings to provide for handicapped 45119
accessibility where such lifts do not meet the literal 45120
requirements of the rules adopted by the board of building 45121
standards pursuant to section 4105.011 of the Revised Code, 45122
provided that reasonable safety may be obtained.45123

       Sec. 4105.15.  No certificate of operation for any elevator 45124
shall be issued by the director of commerce until such elevator 45125
has been inspected as required by this chapter. Certificates of 45126
operation shall be renewed by the owner or user of the elevator in 45127
accordance with rules adopted by the superintendent of labor45128
industrial compliance pursuant to section 4105.12 of the Revised 45129
Code.45130

       Sec. 4105.16.  Before any new installation of an elevator of 45131
permanent nature is erected or before any existing elevator is 45132
removed to and installed in a different location, an application 45133
of specifications in duplicate shall be submitted to the division 45134
of laborindustrial compliance giving such information concerning 45135
the construction, installation, and operation of said elevator as 45136
the division may require on forms to be furnished by the division, 45137
together with complete construction plans in duplicate. In all 45138
cases where any changes or repairs are made which alter its 45139
construction of classification, grade or rated lifting capacity, 45140
except when made pursuant to a report of an inspector, an 45141
application of specifications in duplicate shall be submitted to 45142
the division, containing such information, or approval, except in 45143
those municipal corporations which maintain their own elevator 45144
inspection departments, in which event such specifications shall 45145
be submitted to the elevator department of the municipal 45146
corporation for its approval, and if approved, a permit for the 45147
erection or repair of such elevator shall be issued by the 45148
municipal corporation. Upon approval of such application and 45149
construction plans, the superintendent of laborindustrial 45150
compliance shall issue a permit for the erection or repair of such 45151
elevator. No new elevator shall be operated until completion in 45152
accordance with the approved plans and specifications, unless a 45153
temporary permit is granted by the division.45154

       The final inspection, before operation, of a permanent, new 45155
or repaired elevator shall be made by a general inspector or a 45156
special inspector designated by the superintendent.45157

       Sec. 4105.17.  (A) The fee for each inspection, or attempted 45158
inspection that, due to no fault of a general inspector or the 45159
division of laborindustrial compliance, is not successfully 45160
completed, by a general inspector before the operation of a 45161
permanent new elevator prior to the issuance of a certificate of 45162
operation, before operation of an elevator being put back into 45163
service after a repair or after an adjudication under section 45164
4105.11 of the Revised Code, or as a result of the operation of 45165
section 4105.08 of the Revised Code and is an elevator required to 45166
be inspected under this chapter is one hundred twenty dollars plus 45167
ten dollars for each floor where the elevator stops. The 45168
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance may assess an 45169
additional fee of one hundred twenty dollars plus ten dollars for 45170
each floor where an elevator stops for the reinspection of an 45171
elevator when a previous attempt to inspect that elevator has been 45172
unsuccessful through no fault of a general inspector or the 45173
division of laborindustrial compliance.45174

       (B) The fee for each inspection, or attempted inspection, 45175
that due to no fault of the general inspector or the division, is 45176
not successfully completed by a general inspector before operation 45177
of a permanent new escalator or moving walk prior to the issuance 45178
of a certificate of operation, before operation of an escalator or 45179
moving walk being put back in service after a repair, or as a 45180
result of the operation of section 4105.08 of the Revised Code is 45181
three hundred dollars. The superintendent may assess an additional 45182
fee of one hundred fifty dollars for the reinspection of an 45183
escalator or moving walk when a previous attempt to inspect that 45184
escalator or moving walk has been unsuccessful through no fault of 45185
the general inspector or the division.45186

       (C) The fee for issuing or renewing a certificate of 45187
operation under section 4105.15 of the Revised Code for an 45188
elevator that is inspected every six months in accordance with 45189
division (A) of section 4105.10 of the Revised Code is two hundred 45190
twenty dollars plus twelve dollars for each floor where the 45191
elevator stops, except where the elevator has been inspected by a 45192
special inspector in accordance with section 4105.07 of the 45193
Revised Code.45194

       (D) The fee for issuing or renewing a certificate of 45195
operation under section 4105.05 of the Revised Code for an 45196
elevator that is inspected every twelve months in accordance with 45197
division (A) of section 4105.10 of the Revised Code is fifty-five 45198
dollars plus ten dollars for each floor where the elevator stops, 45199
except where the elevator has been inspected by a special 45200
inspector in accordance with section 4105.07 of the Revised Code.45201

       (E) The fee for issuing or renewing a certificate of 45202
operation under section 4105.15 of the Revised Code for an 45203
escalator or moving walk is three hundred dollars, except where 45204
the escalator or moving walk has been inspected by a special 45205
inspector in accordance section 4105.07 of the Revised Code.45206

       (F) All other fees to be charged for any examination given or 45207
other service performed by the division pursuant to this chapter 45208
shall be prescribed by the director of commerce. The fees shall be 45209
reasonably related to the costs of such examination or other 45210
service.45211

       (G) The director of commerce, subject to the approval of the 45212
controlling board, may establish fees in excess of the fees 45213
provided in divisions (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) of this section. 45214
Any moneys collected under this section shall be paid into the 45215
state treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance45216
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.45217

       (H) Any person who fails to pay an inspection fee required 45218
for any inspection conducted by the division pursuant to this 45219
chapter within forty-five days after the inspection is conducted 45220
shall pay a late payment fee equal to twenty-five per cent of the 45221
inspection fee.45222

       (I) In addition to the fees assessed in divisions (A), (B), 45223
(C), (D), and (E) of this section, the board of building standards 45224
shall assess a fee of three dollars and twenty-five cents for each 45225
certificate of operation or renewal thereof issued under divisions 45226
(A), (B), (C), (D), or (E) of this section and for each permit 45227
issued under section 4105.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall 45228
adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 45229
specifying the manner by which the superintendent shall collect 45230
and remit to the board the fees assessed under this division and 45231
requiring that remittance of the fees be made at least quarterly.45232

       (J) For purposes of this section:45233

       (1) "Escalator" means a power driven, inclined, continuous 45234
stairway used for raising or lowering passengers.45235

       (2) "Moving walk" means a passenger carrying device on which 45236
passengers stand or walk, with a passenger carrying surface that 45237
is uninterrupted and remains parallel to its direction of motion.45238

       Sec. 4105.191.  Any person owning or operating any elevator 45239
subject to this chapter shall file a written report with the 45240
superintendent of laborindustrial compliance within seventy-two 45241
hours after the occurrence of any accident involving such elevator 45242
which results in death or bodily injury to any person.45243

       Sec. 4105.20.  No person shall violate any law relative to 45244
the operation, construction, maintenance, and repair of elevators. 45245
All fines collected for violation of this section shall be 45246
forwarded to the superintendent of laborindustrial compliance, 45247
who shall pay them into the state treasury to the credit of the 45248
laborindustrial compliance operating fund created in section 45249
121.084 of the Revised Code.45250

       Sec. 4105.21.  The superintendent of laborindustrial 45251
compliance shall enforce this chapter. If the superintendent or a 45252
general inspector of elevators finds that an elevator or a part 45253
thereof does not afford reasonable safety as required by section 45254
4105.13 of the Revised Code, the superintendent or the general 45255
inspector may seal such elevator and post a notice thereon 45256
prohibiting further use of the elevator until the changes or 45257
alterations set forth in the notice have been made to the 45258
satisfaction of the superintendent or the inspector. The notice 45259
shall contain a statement that operators or passengers are subject 45260
to injury by its continued use, a description of the alteration or 45261
other change necessary to be made in order to secure safety of 45262
operation, date of such notice, name and signature of the 45263
superintendent or inspector issuing the notice.45264

       Sec. 4115.10.  (A) No person, firm, corporation, or public 45265
authority that constructs a public improvement with its own 45266
forces, the total overall project cost of which is fairly 45267
estimated to be more than the amounts set forth in division (B) of 45268
section 4115.03 of the Revised Code, adjusted biennially by the 45269
director of commerce pursuant to section 4115.034 of the Revised 45270
Code, as appropriate, shall violate the wage provisions of 45271
sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code, or suffer, 45272
permit, or require any employee to work for less than the rate of 45273
wages so fixed, or violate the provisions of section 4115.07 of 45274
the Revised Code. Any employee upon any public improvement, except 45275
an employee to whom or on behalf of whom restitution is made 45276
pursuant to division (C) of section 4115.13 of the Revised Code, 45277
who is paid less than the fixed rate of wages applicable thereto 45278
may recover from such person, firm, corporation, or public 45279
authority that constructs a public improvement with its own forces 45280
the difference between the fixed rate of wages and the amount paid 45281
to the employee and in addition thereto a sum equal to twenty-five 45282
per cent of that difference. The person, firm, corporation, or 45283
public authority who fails to pay the rate of wages so fixed also 45284
shall pay a penalty to the director of seventy-five per cent of 45285
the difference between the fixed rate of wages and the amount paid 45286
to the employees on the public improvement. The director shall 45287
deposit all moneys received from penalties paid to the director 45288
pursuant to this section into the laborindustrial compliance45289
operating fund. The director shall use the fund for the 45290
enforcement of sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code. 45291
The employee may file suit for recovery within ninety days of the 45292
director's determination of a violation of sections 4115.03 to 45293
4115.16 of the Revised Code or is barred from further action under 45294
this division. Where the employee prevails in a suit, the employer 45295
shall pay the costs and reasonable attorney's fees allowed by the 45296
court.45297

       (B) Any employee upon any public improvement who is paid less 45298
than the prevailing rate of wages applicable thereto may file a 45299
complaint in writing with the director upon a form furnished by 45300
the director. The complaint shall include documented evidence to 45301
demonstrate that the employee was paid less than the prevailing 45302
wage in violation of this chapter. Upon receipt of a properly 45303
completed written complaint of any employee paid less than the 45304
prevailing rate of wages applicable, the director shall take an 45305
assignment of a claim in trust for the assigning employee and 45306
bring any legal action necessary to collect the claim. The 45307
employer shall pay the costs and reasonable attorney's fees 45308
allowed by the court if the employer is found in violation of 45309
sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code.45310

       (C) If after investigation pursuant to section 4115.13 of the 45311
Revised Code, the director determines there is a violation of 45312
sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code and a period of 45313
sixty days has elapsed from the date of the determination, and if:45314

       (1) No employee has brought suit pursuant to division (A) of 45315
this section;45316

       (2) No employee has requested that the director take an 45317
assignment of a wage claim pursuant to division (B) of this 45318
section.45319

       The director shall bring any legal action necessary to 45320
collect any amounts owed to employees and the director. The 45321
director shall pay over to the affected employees the amounts 45322
collected to which the affected employees are entitled under 45323
division (A) of this section. In any action in which the director 45324
prevails, the employer shall pay the costs and reasonable 45325
attorney's fees allowed by the court.45326

       (D) Where persons are employed and their rate of wages has 45327
been determined as provided in section 4115.04 of the Revised 45328
Code, no person, either for self or any other person, shall 45329
request, demand, or receive, either before or after the person is 45330
engaged, that the person so engaged pay back, return, donate, 45331
contribute, or give any part or all of the person's wages, salary, 45332
or thing of value, to any person, upon the statement, 45333
representation, or understanding that failure to comply with such 45334
request or demand will prevent the procuring or retaining of 45335
employment, and no person shall, directly or indirectly, aid, 45336
request, or authorize any other person to violate this section. 45337
This division does not apply to any agent or representative of a 45338
duly constituted labor organization acting in the collection of 45339
dues or assessments of such organization.45340

       (E) The director shall enforce sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of 45341
the Revised Code.45342

       (F) For the purpose of supplementing existing resources and 45343
to assist in enforcing division (E) of this section, the director 45344
may contract with a person registered as a public accountant under 45345
Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code to conduct an audit of a person, 45346
firm, corporation, or public authority.45347

       (G) No contractor or subcontractor shall be responsible for 45348
the payment of the penalties provided in division (A) of this 45349
section resulting from a violation of sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 45350
of the Revised Code by its subcontractor, provided that the 45351
contractor or subcontractor has made a good faith effort to ensure 45352
that its subcontractor complied with the requirements of sections 45353
4115.03 to 4115.16 of the Revised Code.45354

       Sec. 4115.101.  There is hereby created the prevailing wage 45355
custodial fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 45356
state but shall not be part of the state treasury. The director of 45357
commerce shall deposit to the fund all money paid by employers to 45358
the director that are held in trust for employees to whom 45359
prevailing wages are due and owing. The director shall make 45360
disbursements from the fund in accordance with this chapter to 45361
employees affected by violations of this chapter. If the director 45362
determines that any funds in the prevailing wage custodial fund 45363
are not returnable to employees as required under this section, 45364
then the director shall certify to the treasurer of state the 45365
amount of the funds that are not returnable. Upon the receipt of a 45366
certification from the director in accordance with this section, 45367
the treasurer of state shall transfer the certified amount of the 45368
funds from the prevailing wage custodial fund to the labor45369
industrial compliance operating fund.45370

       Sec. 4121.04.  (A) There is hereby created the industrial 45371
commission nominating council consisting of five employer 45372
representatives, four labor representatives, one representative 45373
from the Ohio association for justice, and two members of the 45374
public, each of a different political party, who are appointed by 45375
the governor. The nominating council shall make recommendations to 45376
the governor for the appointment of members to the industrial 45377
commission as provided in section 4121.02 of the Revised Code.45378

       (B) In making the appointments, the governor shall select the 45379
members representing employees from a list of eight names 45380
submitted by the Ohio federation of labor, the member representing 45381
the Ohio association for justice from a list of two names 45382
submitted by the Ohio association of justice, and the members 45383
representing employers from a list of ten names submitted jointly 45384
by the Ohio industry organizations. The governor shall appoint at 45385
least one member from each of the Ohio industry organizations. Of 45386
the list submitted by the Ohio industry organizations, two 45387
individuals from each of the Ohio industry organizations shall be 45388
included in the list. Terms of office of employer and employee 45389
representatives are for four years, each term ending on the same 45390
day as the date of their original appointment. The Ohio federation 45391
of labor for a vacancy of an employee representative on the 45392
council, and the Ohio industry organizations, for a vacancy of an 45393
employer representative on the council, shall submit to the 45394
governor a list containing two names for appointment and the 45395
governor shall appoint an individual from the list to fill the 45396
vacancy provided that the list submitted to fill an industry 45397
representative vacancy shall contain the names of individuals who 45398
represent the organizations for which a vacancy has occurred. One 45399
public member shall represent the interests of small business. 45400
Public members shall serve for a term of two years, each term 45401
ending on the same day as the date of their original appointment. 45402
The governor shall fill a vacancy occurring on the nominating 45403
council for a public member in the same manner as for the original 45404
appointment but only for the unexpired part of the term. As used 45405
in this division, "small business" means any manufacturing 45406
establishment employing five hundred or fewer employees or any 45407
retail, or other service establishment employing one hundred or 45408
fewer employees. The representative from the Ohio association for 45409
justice shall serve for a term of four years, each term ending on 45410
the twentieth day of October of the appropriate year. The governor 45411
shall fill a vacancy occurring on the nominating council for the 45412
representative from the Ohio association for justice in the same 45413
manner as the original appointment. In the event that an 45414
appointment to the council does not conform to this division, such 45415
organizations may challenge the appointment pursuant to division 45416
(E) of this section, provided that the industry organizations only 45417
may challenge the appointment of an industry representative, and 45418
further provided that the labor organization only may challenge 45419
the appointment of a labor representative.45420

       (C) The nominating council annually shall meet and elect such 45421
officers as it determines appropriate and shall meet at such other 45422
times as it determines appropriate in order to make 45423
recommendations to the governor for the appointment of industrial 45424
commission members pursuant to section 4121.02 of the Revised 45425
Code. The nominating council may conduct a meeting by interactive 45426
video teleconference if provisions are made for public attendance 45427
at any location involved in the teleconference. Notwithstanding 45428
division (C) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code, all members of 45429
the nominating council, whether attending a meeting of the 45430
nominating council in person or by teleconference, are entitled to 45431
full and complete voting privileges on all nominating council 45432
matters.45433

       (D) Members of the nominating council shall be paid fifty 45434
dollars per day and their actual and necessary expenses while 45435
engaged in the performance of their duties as members of the 45436
nominating council, which the industrial commission shall pay from 45437
funds which the industrial commission uses to pay its operating 45438
expenses.45439

       (E) An association generally recognized as representing the 45440
interests of labor or industry may file, within fifteen days after 45441
the governor's appointment of a member, a challenge in the common 45442
pleas court of Franklin county asserting that a representative 45443
named to represent its interests is not representative of the 45444
interests the appointee has been appointed to represent. An 45445
appointee whose appointment has been challenged shall not receive 45446
any pay nor serve on the nominating council until the court, 45447
acting without a jury and following the expedited timetable 45448
provided for hearing on restraining orders in Civil Rule 65, makes 45449
a determination that the appointee is a true and qualified 45450
representative of the group for which the appointee is selected 45451
and possesses all of the qualifications.45452

       A challenged appointee may request the attorney general to 45453
represent the appointee in an action brought under this division 45454
and the attorney general shall provide the appointee with 45455
competent representation without charge.45456

       (F) As used in this section, "Ohio industry organizations" 45457
means all of the following organizations:45458

       (1) The Ohio self-insurers' association;45459

       (2) The Ohio manufacturers' association;45460

       (3) The Ohio council of retail merchants;45461

       (4) The Ohio chamber of commerce;45462

       (5) The national federation of independent business.45463

       Sec. 4121.123.  (A) There is hereby created the workers' 45464
compensation board of directors nominating committee consisting of 45465
the following:45466

       (1) Three individuals who are members of affiliated employee 45467
organizations of the Ohio chapter of the American federation of 45468
labor-congress of industrial organizations, who are selected by 45469
the Ohio chapter of the American federation of labor-congress of 45470
industrial organizations and who, on account of their previous 45471
vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as 45472
representative of employees who are members of an employee 45473
organization. Terms of office shall be for one year, with each 45474
term ending on the same day of the same month as did the term that 45475
it succeeds.45476

       (2) Two individuals who, on account of their previous 45477
vocation, employment, or affiliations, can be classed as 45478
representative of employees, one of whom shall be an injured 45479
worker with a valid, open, and active workers' compensation claim 45480
and at least one of these two representatives also shall represent 45481
employees who are not members of an employee organization. The 45482
president of the senate and the speaker of the house of 45483
representatives each shall appoint annually one of these members. 45484
The member who is an injured worker shall serve for a full term 45485
even if the member's workers' compensation claim is invalidated, 45486
closed, or inactivated during the member's term.45487

       (3) The chief executive officer, or the equivalent of the 45488
chief executive officer, of the Ohio chamber of commerce, the Ohio 45489
manufacturers' association, the Ohio self-insurers' association, 45490
the Ohio council of retail merchants, the national federation of 45491
independent business, and the Ohio farm bureau;45492

       (4) The director of development;45493

       (5) The president of the Ohio township association and the 45494
president of the Ohio county commissioners association, or, inif 45495
any of the following circumstances apply:45496

       (a) In the event of a vacancy in theeither presidency, a 45497
designee appointed by the governing body authorized to appoint the 45498
president. A designee so appointed shall serve on the nominating 45499
committee only until the vacancy in the presidency is filled.45500

       (b) In the event that the president of the Ohio township 45501
association is unavailable, a designee selected by the president;45502

       (c) In the event that the president of the Ohio county 45503
commissioners association is unavailable, a designee selected by 45504
the president.45505

       (B) Each member appointed under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 45506
this section shall hold office from the date of the member's 45507
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 45508
appointed. Such members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be 45509
filled in the manner provided for original appointments. Any such 45510
member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 45511
expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor was 45512
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 45513
term. Such a member shall continue in office subsequent to the 45514
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 45515
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 45516
whichever occurs first.45517

       (C) The nominating committee shall meet at the request of the 45518
governor or as the nominating committee determines appropriate in 45519
order to make recommendations to the governor for the appointment 45520
of members of the bureau of workers' compensation board of 45521
directors under section 4121.12 of the Revised Code.45522

       (D) The director of development shall serve as chairperson of 45523
the nominating committee and have no voting rights on matters 45524
coming before the nominating committee, except that the director 45525
may vote in the event of a tie vote of the nominating committee. 45526
Annually, the nominating committee shall select a secretary from 45527
among its members. The nominating committee may adopt by-laws 45528
governing its proceedings.45529

       (E) Members of the nominating committee shall be paid their 45530
reasonable and necessary expenses pursuant to section 126.31 of 45531
the Revised Code while engaged in the performance of their duties 45532
as members of the nominating committee.45533

       (F) The nominating committee shall:45534

       (1) Review and evaluate possible appointees for the board. In 45535
reviewing and evaluating possible appointees for the board, the 45536
nominating committee may accept comments from, cooperate with, and 45537
request information from any person.45538

       (2) Make recommendations to the governor for the appointment 45539
of members to the board as provided in division (C) of section 45540
4121.12 of the Revised Code.45541

       (G) The nominating committee may make recommendations to the 45542
general assembly concerning changes in legislation that will 45543
assist the nominating committee in the performance of its duties.45544

       Sec. 4121.30.  (A) All rules governing the operating 45545
procedure of the bureau of workers' compensation and the 45546
industrial commission shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 45547
119. of the Revised Code, except that determinations of the 45548
bureau, district hearing officers, staff hearing officers, and the 45549
commission, with respect to an individual employee's claim to 45550
participate in the state insurance fund are governed only by 45551
Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.45552

       The administrator of workers' compensation and commission 45553
shall proceed jointly, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 45554
Revised Code, including a joint hearing, to adopt joint rules 45555
governing the operating procedures of the bureau and commission.45556
The bureau shall publish the joint rules in a single publication.45557

       (B) Upon submission to the bureau or the commission of a 45558
petition containing not less than fifteen hundred signatures of 45559
adult residents of the state, any individual may propose a rule 45560
for adoption, amendment, or rescission by the bureau or the 45561
commission. If, upon investigation, the bureau or commission is 45562
satisfied that the signatures upon the petition are valid, it 45563
shall proceed, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 45564
Code, to consider adoption, amendment, or rescission of the rule.45565

       (C) The administrator shall publishmake available 45566
electronically all rules adopted by the bureau and the commission 45567
in a single publication and shall make available in a timely 45568
manner and at cost copies of all rules adopted by the bureau and 45569
the commission that are currently in force. For that purpose, the 45570
administrator shall maintain a mailing list of all persons 45571
requesting copies of the rules.45572

       (D) The rule-making authority granted to the administrator 45573
under this section does not limit the commission's rule-making 45574
authority relative to its overall adjudicatory policy-making and 45575
management duties under this chapter and Chapters 4123., 4127., 45576
and 4131. of the Revised Code. The administrator shall not 45577
disregard any rule adopted by the commission, provided that the 45578
rule is within the commission's rule-making authority.45579

       Sec. 4123.20.  The administrator of workers' compensation 45580
shall cause to be printed, in proper form for distributionmake 45581
available electronically to the public, its classifications, 45582
rates, rules, and rules of procedure, and shall furnish the same 45583
to any person upon application therefor, and the fact that the 45584
classifications, rates, rules, and rules of procedure are printed 45585
ready for distribution to all who apply for the same is a 45586
sufficient publication of the same as required by this chapter45587
request.45588

       Sec. 4123.35.  (A) Except as provided in this section, every 45589
employer mentioned in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 of the 45590
Revised Code, and every publicly owned utility shall pay 45591
semiannually in the months of January and July into the state 45592
insurance fund the amount of annual premium the administrator of 45593
workers' compensation fixes for the employment or occupation of 45594
the employer, the amount of which premium to be paid by each 45595
employer to be determined by the classifications, rules, and rates 45596
made and published by the administrator. The employer shall pay 45597
semiannually a further sum of money into the state insurance fund 45598
as may be ascertained to be due from the employer by applying the 45599
rules of the administrator, and a receipt or certificate 45600
certifying that payment has been made, along with a written notice 45601
as is required in section 4123.54 of the Revised Code, shall be 45602
mailed immediately to the employer by the bureau of workers' 45603
compensation. The receipt or certificate is prima-facie evidence 45604
of the payment of the premium, and the proper posting of the 45605
notice constitutes the employer's compliance with the notice 45606
requirement mandated in section 4123.54 of the Revised Code.45607

       The bureau of workers' compensation shall verify with the 45608
secretary of state the existence of all corporations and 45609
organizations making application for workers' compensation 45610
coverage and shall require every such application to include the 45611
employer's federal identification number.45612

       An employer as defined in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 45613
of the Revised Code who has contracted with a subcontractor is 45614
liable for the unpaid premium due from any subcontractor with 45615
respect to that part of the payroll of the subcontractor that is 45616
for work performed pursuant to the contract with the employer.45617

       Division (A) of this section providing for the payment of 45618
premiums semiannually does not apply to any employer who was a 45619
subscriber to the state insurance fund prior to January 1, 1914, 45620
or who may first become a subscriber to the fund in any month 45621
other than January or July. Instead, the semiannual premiums shall 45622
be paid by those employers from time to time upon the expiration 45623
of the respective periods for which payments into the fund have 45624
been made by them.45625

       The administrator shall adopt rules to permit employers to 45626
make periodic payments of the semiannual premium due under this 45627
division. The rules shall include provisions for the assessment of 45628
interest charges, where appropriate, and for the assessment of 45629
penalties when an employer fails to make timely premium payments. 45630
An employer who timely pays the amounts due under this division is 45631
entitled to all of the benefits and protections of this chapter. 45632
Upon receipt of payment, the bureau immediately shall mail a 45633
receipt or certificate to the employer certifying that payment has 45634
been made, which receipt is prima-facie evidence of payment. 45635
Workers' compensation coverage under this chapter continues 45636
uninterrupted upon timely receipt of payment under this division.45637

       Every public employer, except public employers that are 45638
self-insuring employers under this section, shall comply with 45639
sections 4123.38 to 4123.41, and 4123.48 of the Revised Code in 45640
regard to the contribution of moneys to the public insurance fund.45641

       (B) Employers who will abide by the rules of the 45642
administrator and who may be of sufficient financial ability to 45643
render certain the payment of compensation to injured employees or 45644
the dependents of killed employees, and the furnishing of medical, 45645
surgical, nursing, and hospital attention and services and 45646
medicines, and funeral expenses, equal to or greater than is 45647
provided for in sections 4123.52, 4123.55 to 4123.62, and 4123.64 45648
to 4123.67 of the Revised Code, and who do not desire to insure 45649
the payment thereof or indemnify themselves against loss sustained 45650
by the direct payment thereof, upon a finding of such facts by the 45651
administrator, may be granted the privilege to pay individually 45652
compensation, and furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and hospital 45653
services and attention and funeral expenses directly to injured 45654
employees or the dependents of killed employees, thereby being 45655
granted status as a self-insuring employer. The administrator may 45656
charge employers who apply for the status as a self-insuring 45657
employer a reasonable application fee to cover the bureau's costs 45658
in connection with processing and making a determination with 45659
respect to an application.45660

       All employers granted status as self-insuring employers shall 45661
demonstrate sufficient financial and administrative ability to 45662
assure that all obligations under this section are promptly met. 45663
The administrator shall deny the privilege where the employer is 45664
unable to demonstrate the employer's ability to promptly meet all 45665
the obligations imposed on the employer by this section.45666

       (1) The administrator shall consider, but is not limited to, 45667
the following factors, where applicable, in determining the 45668
employer's ability to meet all of the obligations imposed on the 45669
employer by this section:45670

       (a) The employer employs a minimum of five hundred employees 45671
in this state;45672

       (b) The employer has operated in this state for a minimum of 45673
two years, provided that an employer who has purchased, acquired, 45674
or otherwise succeeded to the operation of a business, or any part 45675
thereof, situated in this state that has operated for at least two 45676
years in this state, also shall qualify;45677

       (c) Where the employer previously contributed to the state 45678
insurance fund or is a successor employer as defined by bureau 45679
rules, the amount of the buyout, as defined by bureau rules;45680

       (d) The sufficiency of the employer's assets located in this 45681
state to insure the employer's solvency in paying compensation 45682
directly;45683

       (e) The financial records, documents, and data, certified by 45684
a certified public accountant, necessary to provide the employer's 45685
full financial disclosure. The records, documents, and data 45686
include, but are not limited to, balance sheets and profit and 45687
loss history for the current year and previous four years.45688

       (f) The employer's organizational plan for the administration 45689
of the workers' compensation law;45690

       (g) The employer's proposed plan to inform employees of the 45691
change from a state fund insurer to a self-insuring employer, the 45692
procedures the employer will follow as a self-insuring employer, 45693
and the employees' rights to compensation and benefits; and45694

       (h) The employer has either an account in a financial 45695
institution in this state, or if the employer maintains an account 45696
with a financial institution outside this state, ensures that 45697
workers' compensation checks are drawn from the same account as 45698
payroll checks or the employer clearly indicates that payment will 45699
be honored by a financial institution in this state.45700

       The administrator may waive the requirements of divisions 45701
(B)(1)(a) and (b) of this section and the requirement of division 45702
(B)(1)(e) of this section that the financial records, documents, 45703
and data be certified by a certified public accountant. The 45704
administrator shall adopt rules establishing the criteria that an 45705
employer shall meet in order for the administrator to waive the 45706
requirement of division (B)(1)(e) of this section. Such rules may 45707
require additional security of that employer pursuant to division 45708
(E) of section 4123.351 of the Revised Code.45709

       The administrator shall not grant the status of self-insuring 45710
employer to the state, except that the administrator may grant the 45711
status of self-insuring employer to a state institution of higher 45712
education, excludingincluding its hospitals, that meets the 45713
requirements of division (B)(2) of this section.45714

       (2) When considering the application of a public employer, 45715
except for a board of county commissioners described in division 45716
(G) of section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, a board of a county 45717
hospital, or a publicly owned utility, the administrator shall 45718
verify that the public employer satisfies all of the following 45719
requirements as the requirements apply to that public employer:45720

       (a) For the two-year period preceding application under this 45721
section, the public employer has maintained an unvoted debt 45722
capacity equal to at least two times the amount of the current 45723
annual premium established by the administrator under this chapter 45724
for that public employer for the year immediately preceding the 45725
year in which the public employer makes application under this 45726
section.45727

       (b) For each of the two fiscal years preceding application 45728
under this section, the unreserved and undesignated year-end fund 45729
balance in the public employer's general fund is equal to at least 45730
five per cent of the public employer's general fund revenues for 45731
the fiscal year computed in accordance with generally accepted 45732
accounting principles.45733

       (c) For the five-year period preceding application under this 45734
section, the public employer, to the extent applicable, has 45735
complied fully with the continuing disclosure requirements 45736
established in rules adopted by the United States securities and 45737
exchange commission under 17 C.F.R. 240.15c 2-12.45738

       (d) For the five-year period preceding application under this 45739
section, the public employer has not had its local government fund 45740
distribution withheld on account of the public employer being 45741
indebted or otherwise obligated to the state.45742

       (e) For the five-year period preceding application under this 45743
section, the public employer has not been under a fiscal watch or 45744
fiscal emergency pursuant to section 118.023, 118.04, or 3316.03 45745
of the Revised Code.45746

       (f) For the public employer's fiscal year preceding 45747
application under this section, the public employer has obtained 45748
an annual financial audit as required under section 117.10 of the 45749
Revised Code, which has been released by the auditor of state 45750
within seven months after the end of the public employer's fiscal 45751
year.45752

       (g) On the date of application, the public employer holds a 45753
debt rating of Aa3 or higher according to Moody's investors 45754
service, inc., or a comparable rating by an independent rating 45755
agency similar to Moody's investors service, inc.45756

       (h) The public employer agrees to generate an annual 45757
accumulating book reserve in its financial statements reflecting 45758
an actuarially generated reserve adequate to pay projected claims 45759
under this chapter for the applicable period of time, as 45760
determined by the administrator.45761

       (i) For a public employer that is a hospital, the public 45762
employer shall submit audited financial statements showing the 45763
hospital's overall liquidity characteristics, and the 45764
administrator shall determine, on an individual basis, whether the 45765
public employer satisfies liquidity standards equivalent to the 45766
liquidity standards of other public employers.45767

       (j) Any additional criteria that the administrator adopts by 45768
rule pursuant to division (E) of this section.45769

       The administrator may adopt rules establishing the criteria 45770
that a public employer shall satisfy in order for the 45771
administrator to waive any of the requirements listed in divisions 45772
(B)(2)(a) to (j) of this section. The rules may require additional 45773
security from that employer pursuant to division (E) of section 45774
4123.351 of the Revised Code. The administrator shall not waive 45775
any of the requirements listed in divisions (B)(2)(a) to (j) of 45776
this section for a public employer who does not satisfy the 45777
criteria established in the rules the administrator adopts.45778

       (C) A board of county commissioners described in division (G) 45779
of section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, as an employer, that will 45780
abide by the rules of the administrator and that may be of 45781
sufficient financial ability to render certain the payment of 45782
compensation to injured employees or the dependents of killed 45783
employees, and the furnishing of medical, surgical, nursing, and 45784
hospital attention and services and medicines, and funeral 45785
expenses, equal to or greater than is provided for in sections 45786
4123.52, 4123.55 to 4123.62, and 4123.64 to 4123.67 of the Revised 45787
Code, and that does not desire to insure the payment thereof or 45788
indemnify itself against loss sustained by the direct payment 45789
thereof, upon a finding of such facts by the administrator, may be 45790
granted the privilege to pay individually compensation, and 45791
furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and hospital services and 45792
attention and funeral expenses directly to injured employees or 45793
the dependents of killed employees, thereby being granted status 45794
as a self-insuring employer. The administrator may charge a board 45795
of county commissioners described in division (G) of section 45796
4123.01 of the Revised Code that applies for the status as a 45797
self-insuring employer a reasonable application fee to cover the 45798
bureau's costs in connection with processing and making a 45799
determination with respect to an application. All employers 45800
granted such status shall demonstrate sufficient financial and 45801
administrative ability to assure that all obligations under this 45802
section are promptly met. The administrator shall deny the 45803
privilege where the employer is unable to demonstrate the 45804
employer's ability to promptly meet all the obligations imposed on 45805
the employer by this section. The administrator shall consider, 45806
but is not limited to, the following factors, where applicable, in 45807
determining the employer's ability to meet all of the obligations 45808
imposed on the board as an employer by this section:45809

       (1) The board as an employer employs a minimum of five 45810
hundred employees in this state;45811

       (2) The board has operated in this state for a minimum of two 45812
years;45813

       (3) Where the board previously contributed to the state 45814
insurance fund or is a successor employer as defined by bureau 45815
rules, the amount of the buyout, as defined by bureau rules;45816

       (4) The sufficiency of the board's assets located in this 45817
state to insure the board's solvency in paying compensation 45818
directly;45819

       (5) The financial records, documents, and data, certified by 45820
a certified public accountant, necessary to provide the board's 45821
full financial disclosure. The records, documents, and data 45822
include, but are not limited to, balance sheets and profit and 45823
loss history for the current year and previous four years.45824

       (6) The board's organizational plan for the administration of 45825
the workers' compensation law;45826

       (7) The board's proposed plan to inform employees of the 45827
proposed self-insurance, the procedures the board will follow as a 45828
self-insuring employer, and the employees' rights to compensation 45829
and benefits;45830

       (8) The board has either an account in a financial 45831
institution in this state, or if the board maintains an account 45832
with a financial institution outside this state, ensures that 45833
workers' compensation checks are drawn from the same account as 45834
payroll checks or the board clearly indicates that payment will be 45835
honored by a financial institution in this state;45836

       (9) The board shall provide the administrator a surety bond 45837
in an amount equal to one hundred twenty-five per cent of the 45838
projected losses as determined by the administrator.45839

       (D) The administrator shall require a surety bond from all 45840
self-insuring employers, issued pursuant to section 4123.351 of 45841
the Revised Code, that is sufficient to compel, or secure to 45842
injured employees, or to the dependents of employees killed, the 45843
payment of compensation and expenses, which shall in no event be 45844
less than that paid or furnished out of the state insurance fund 45845
in similar cases to injured employees or to dependents of killed 45846
employees whose employers contribute to the fund, except when an 45847
employee of the employer, who has suffered the loss of a hand, 45848
arm, foot, leg, or eye prior to the injury for which compensation 45849
is to be paid, and thereafter suffers the loss of any other of the 45850
members as the result of any injury sustained in the course of and 45851
arising out of the employee's employment, the compensation to be 45852
paid by the self-insuring employer is limited to the disability 45853
suffered in the subsequent injury, additional compensation, if 45854
any, to be paid by the bureau out of the surplus created by 45855
section 4123.34 of the Revised Code.45856

       (E) In addition to the requirements of this section, the 45857
administrator shall make and publish rules governing the manner of 45858
making application and the nature and extent of the proof required 45859
to justify a finding of fact by the administrator as to granting 45860
the status of a self-insuring employer, which rules shall be 45861
general in their application, one of which rules shall provide 45862
that all self-insuring employers shall pay into the state 45863
insurance fund such amounts as are required to be credited to the 45864
surplus fund in division (B) of section 4123.34 of the Revised 45865
Code. The administrator may adopt rules establishing requirements 45866
in addition to the requirements described in division (B)(2) of 45867
this section that a public employer shall meet in order to qualify 45868
for self-insuring status.45869

       Employers shall secure directly from the bureau central 45870
offices application forms upon which the bureau shall stamp a 45871
designating number. Prior to submission of an application, an 45872
employer shall make available to the bureau, and the bureau shall 45873
review, the information described in division (B)(1) of this 45874
section, and public employers shall make available, and the bureau 45875
shall review, the information necessary to verify whether the 45876
public employer meets the requirements listed in division (B)(2) 45877
of this section. An employer shall file the completed application 45878
forms with an application fee, which shall cover the costs of 45879
processing the application, as established by the administrator, 45880
by rule, with the bureau at least ninety days prior to the 45881
effective date of the employer's new status as a self-insuring 45882
employer. The application form is not deemed complete until all 45883
the required information is attached thereto. The bureau shall 45884
only accept applications that contain the required information.45885

       (F) The bureau shall review completed applications within a 45886
reasonable time. If the bureau determines to grant an employer the 45887
status as a self-insuring employer, the bureau shall issue a 45888
statement, containing its findings of fact, that is prepared by 45889
the bureau and signed by the administrator. If the bureau 45890
determines not to grant the status as a self-insuring employer, 45891
the bureau shall notify the employer of the determination and 45892
require the employer to continue to pay its full premium into the 45893
state insurance fund. The administrator also shall adopt rules 45894
establishing a minimum level of performance as a criterion for 45895
granting and maintaining the status as a self-insuring employer 45896
and fixing time limits beyond which failure of the self-insuring 45897
employer to provide for the necessary medical examinations and 45898
evaluations may not delay a decision on a claim.45899

       (G) The administrator shall adopt rules setting forth 45900
procedures for auditing the program of self-insuring employers. 45901
The bureau shall conduct the audit upon a random basis or whenever 45902
the bureau has grounds for believing that a self-insuring employer 45903
is not in full compliance with bureau rules or this chapter.45904

       The administrator shall monitor the programs conducted by 45905
self-insuring employers, to ensure compliance with bureau 45906
requirements and for that purpose, shall develop and issue to 45907
self-insuring employers standardized forms for use by the 45908
self-insuring employer in all aspects of the self-insuring 45909
employers' direct compensation program and for reporting of 45910
information to the bureau.45911

       The bureau shall receive and transmit to the self-insuring 45912
employer all complaints concerning any self-insuring employer. In 45913
the case of a complaint against a self-insuring employer, the 45914
administrator shall handle the complaint through the 45915
self-insurance division of the bureau. The bureau shall maintain a 45916
file by employer of all complaints received that relate to the 45917
employer. The bureau shall evaluate each complaint and take 45918
appropriate action.45919

       The administrator shall adopt as a rule a prohibition against 45920
any self-insuring employer from harassing, dismissing, or 45921
otherwise disciplining any employee making a complaint, which rule 45922
shall provide for a financial penalty to be levied by the 45923
administrator payable by the offending self-insuring employer.45924

       (H) For the purpose of making determinations as to whether to 45925
grant status as a self-insuring employer, the administrator may 45926
subscribe to and pay for a credit reporting service that offers 45927
financial and other business information about individual 45928
employers. The costs in connection with the bureau's subscription 45929
or individual reports from the service about an applicant may be 45930
included in the application fee charged employers under this 45931
section.45932

       (I) The administrator, notwithstanding other provisions of 45933
this chapter, may permit a self-insuring employer to resume 45934
payment of premiums to the state insurance fund with appropriate 45935
credit modifications to the employer's basic premium rate as such 45936
rate is determined pursuant to section 4123.29 of the Revised 45937
Code.45938

       (J) On the first day of July of each year, the administrator 45939
shall calculate separately each self-insuring employer's 45940
assessments for the safety and hygiene fund, administrative costs 45941
pursuant to section 4123.342 of the Revised Code, and for the 45942
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 45943
of the Revised Code that is not used for handicapped 45944
reimbursement, on the basis of the paid compensation attributable 45945
to the individual self-insuring employer according to the 45946
following calculation:45947

       (1) The total assessment against all self-insuring employers 45948
as a class for each fund and for the administrative costs for the 45949
year that the assessment is being made, as determined by the 45950
administrator, divided by the total amount of paid compensation 45951
for the previous calendar year attributable to all amenable 45952
self-insuring employers;45953

       (2) Multiply the quotient in division (J)(1) of this section 45954
by the total amount of paid compensation for the previous calendar 45955
year that is attributable to the individual self-insuring employer 45956
for whom the assessment is being determined. Each self-insuring 45957
employer shall pay the assessment that results from this 45958
calculation, unless the assessment resulting from this calculation 45959
falls below a minimum assessment, which minimum assessment the 45960
administrator shall determine on the first day of July of each 45961
year with the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' 45962
compensation board of directors, in which event, the self-insuring 45963
employer shall pay the minimum assessment.45964

       In determining the total amount due for the total assessment 45965
against all self-insuring employers as a class for each fund and 45966
the administrative assessment, the administrator shall reduce 45967
proportionately the total for each fund and assessment by the 45968
amount of money in the self-insurance assessment fund as of the 45969
date of the computation of the assessment.45970

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 45971
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 45972
of the Revised Code that is used for handicapped reimbursement in 45973
the same manner as set forth in divisions (J)(1) and (2) of this 45974
section except that the administrator shall calculate the total 45975
assessment for this portion of the surplus fund only on the basis 45976
of those self-insuring employers that retain participation in the 45977
handicapped reimbursement program and the individual self-insuring 45978
employer's proportion of paid compensation shall be calculated 45979
only for those self-insuring employers who retain participation in 45980
the handicapped reimbursement program. The administrator, as the 45981
administrator determines appropriate, may determine the total 45982
assessment for the handicapped portion of the surplus fund in 45983
accordance with sound actuarial principles.45984

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 45985
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 45986
of the Revised Code that under division (D) of section 4121.66 of 45987
the Revised Code is used for rehabilitation costs in the same 45988
manner as set forth in divisions (J)(1) and (2) of this section, 45989
except that the administrator shall calculate the total assessment 45990
for this portion of the surplus fund only on the basis of those 45991
self-insuring employers who have not made the election to make 45992
payments directly under division (D) of section 4121.66 of the 45993
Revised Code and an individual self-insuring employer's proportion 45994
of paid compensation only for those self-insuring employers who 45995
have not made that election.45996

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 45997
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 45998
of the Revised Code that is used for reimbursement to a 45999
self-insuring employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of 46000
the Revised Code in the same manner as set forth in divisions 46001
(J)(1) and (2) of this section except that the administrator shall 46002
calculate the total assessment for this portion of the surplus 46003
fund only on the basis of those self-insuring employers that 46004
retain participation in reimbursement to the self-insuring 46005
employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of the Revised 46006
Code and the individual self-insuring employer's proportion of 46007
paid compensation shall be calculated only for those self-insuring 46008
employers who retain participation in reimbursement to the 46009
self-insuring employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of 46010
the Revised Code.46011

       An employer who no longer is a self-insuring employer in this 46012
state or who no longer is operating in this state, shall continue 46013
to pay assessments for administrative costs and for the portion of 46014
the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 of the 46015
Revised Code that is not used for handicapped reimbursement, based 46016
upon paid compensation attributable to claims that occurred while 46017
the employer was a self-insuring employer within this state.46018

       (K) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 46019
self-insurance assessment fund. All investment earnings of the 46020
fund shall be deposited in the fund. The administrator shall use 46021
the money in the self-insurance assessment fund only for 46022
administrative costs as specified in section 4123.341 of the 46023
Revised Code.46024

       (L) Every self-insuring employer shall certify, in affidavit 46025
form subject to the penalty for perjury, to the bureau the amount 46026
of the self-insuring employer's paid compensation for the previous 46027
calendar year. In reporting paid compensation paid for the 46028
previous year, a self-insuring employer shall exclude from the 46029
total amount of paid compensation any reimbursement the 46030
self-insuring employer receives in the previous calendar year from 46031
the surplus fund pursuant to section 4123.512 of the Revised Code 46032
for any paid compensation. The self-insuring employer also shall 46033
exclude from the paid compensation reported any amount recovered 46034
under section 4123.931 of the Revised Code and any amount that is 46035
determined not to have been payable to or on behalf of a claimant 46036
in any final administrative or judicial proceeding. The 46037
self-insuring employer shall exclude such amounts from the paid 46038
compensation reported in the reporting period subsequent to the 46039
date the determination is made. The administrator shall adopt 46040
rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that 46041
provide for all of the following:46042

       (1) Establishing the date by which self-insuring employers 46043
must submit such information and the amount of the assessments 46044
provided for in division (J) of this section for employers who 46045
have been granted self-insuring status within the last calendar 46046
year;46047

       (2) If an employer fails to pay the assessment when due, the 46048
administrator may add a late fee penalty of not more than five 46049
hundred dollars to the assessment plus an additional penalty 46050
amount as follows:46051

       (a) For an assessment from sixty-one to ninety days past due, 46052
the prime interest rate, multiplied by the assessment due;46053

       (b) For an assessment from ninety-one to one hundred twenty 46054
days past due, the prime interest rate plus two per cent, 46055
multiplied by the assessment due;46056

       (c) For an assessment from one hundred twenty-one to one 46057
hundred fifty days past due, the prime interest rate plus four per 46058
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;46059

       (d) For an assessment from one hundred fifty-one to one 46060
hundred eighty days past due, the prime interest rate plus six per 46061
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;46062

       (e) For an assessment from one hundred eighty-one to two 46063
hundred ten days past due, the prime interest rate plus eight per 46064
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;46065

       (f) For each additional thirty-day period or portion thereof 46066
that an assessment remains past due after it has remained past due 46067
for more than two hundred ten days, the prime interest rate plus 46068
eight per cent, multiplied by the assessment due.46069

        (3) An employer may appeal a late fee penalty and penalty 46070
assessment to the administrator.46071

        For purposes of division (L)(2) of this section, "prime 46072
interest rate" means the average bank prime rate, and the 46073
administrator shall determine the prime interest rate in the same 46074
manner as a county auditor determines the average bank prime rate 46075
under section 929.02 of the Revised Code.46076

       The administrator shall include any assessment and penalties 46077
that remain unpaid for previous assessment periods in the 46078
calculation and collection of any assessments due under this 46079
division or division (J) of this section.46080

       (M) As used in this section, "paid compensation" means all 46081
amounts paid by a self-insuring employer for living maintenance 46082
benefits, all amounts for compensation paid pursuant to sections 46083
4121.63, 4121.67, 4123.56, 4123.57, 4123.58, 4123.59, 4123.60, and 46084
4123.64 of the Revised Code, all amounts paid as wages in lieu of 46085
such compensation, all amounts paid in lieu of such compensation 46086
under a nonoccupational accident and sickness program fully funded 46087
by the self-insuring employer, and all amounts paid by a 46088
self-insuring employer for a violation of a specific safety 46089
standard pursuant to Section 35 of Article II, Ohio Constitution 46090
and section 4121.47 of the Revised Code.46091

       (N) Should any section of this chapter or Chapter 4121. of 46092
the Revised Code providing for self-insuring employers' 46093
assessments based upon compensation paid be declared 46094
unconstitutional by a final decision of any court, then that 46095
section of the Revised Code declared unconstitutional shall revert 46096
back to the section in existence prior to November 3, 1989, 46097
providing for assessments based upon payroll.46098

       (O) The administrator may grant a self-insuring employer the 46099
privilege to self-insure a construction project entered into by 46100
the self-insuring employer that is scheduled for completion within 46101
six years after the date the project begins, and the total cost of 46102
which is estimated to exceed one hundred million dollars or, for 46103
employers described in division (R) of this section, if the 46104
construction project is estimated to exceed twenty-five million 46105
dollars. The administrator may waive such cost and time criteria 46106
and grant a self-insuring employer the privilege to self-insure a 46107
construction project regardless of the time needed to complete the 46108
construction project and provided that the cost of the 46109
construction project is estimated to exceed fifty million dollars. 46110
A self-insuring employer who desires to self-insure a construction 46111
project shall submit to the administrator an application listing 46112
the dates the construction project is scheduled to begin and end, 46113
the estimated cost of the construction project, the contractors 46114
and subcontractors whose employees are to be self-insured by the 46115
self-insuring employer, the provisions of a safety program that is 46116
specifically designed for the construction project, and a 46117
statement as to whether a collective bargaining agreement 46118
governing the rights, duties, and obligations of each of the 46119
parties to the agreement with respect to the construction project 46120
exists between the self-insuring employer and a labor 46121
organization.46122

       A self-insuring employer may apply to self-insure the 46123
employees of either of the following:46124

       (1) All contractors and subcontractors who perform labor or 46125
work or provide materials for the construction project;46126

       (2) All contractors and, at the administrator's discretion, a 46127
substantial number of all the subcontractors who perform labor or 46128
work or provide materials for the construction project.46129

       Upon approval of the application, the administrator shall 46130
mail a certificate granting the privilege to self-insure the 46131
construction project to the self-insuring employer. The 46132
certificate shall contain the name of the self-insuring employer 46133
and the name, address, and telephone number of the self-insuring 46134
employer's representatives who are responsible for administering 46135
workers' compensation claims for the construction project. The 46136
self-insuring employer shall post the certificate in a conspicuous 46137
place at the site of the construction project.46138

       The administrator shall maintain a record of the contractors 46139
and subcontractors whose employees are covered under the 46140
certificate issued to the self-insured employer. A self-insuring 46141
employer immediately shall notify the administrator when any 46142
contractor or subcontractor is added or eliminated from inclusion 46143
under the certificate.46144

       Upon approval of the application, the self-insuring employer 46145
is responsible for the administration and payment of all claims 46146
under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code for the 46147
employees of the contractor and subcontractors covered under the 46148
certificate who receive injuries or are killed in the course of 46149
and arising out of employment on the construction project, or who 46150
contract an occupational disease in the course of employment on 46151
the construction project. For purposes of this chapter and Chapter 46152
4121. of the Revised Code, a claim that is administered and paid 46153
in accordance with this division is considered a claim against the 46154
self-insuring employer listed in the certificate. A contractor or 46155
subcontractor included under the certificate shall report to the 46156
self-insuring employer listed in the certificate, all claims that 46157
arise under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code in 46158
connection with the construction project for which the certificate 46159
is issued.46160

       A self-insuring employer who complies with this division is 46161
entitled to the protections provided under this chapter and 46162
Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code with respect to the employees of 46163
the contractors and subcontractors covered under a certificate 46164
issued under this division for death or injuries that arise out 46165
of, or death, injuries, or occupational diseases that arise in the 46166
course of, those employees' employment on that construction 46167
project, as if the employees were employees of the self-insuring 46168
employer, provided that the self-insuring employer also complies 46169
with this section. No employee of the contractors and 46170
subcontractors covered under a certificate issued under this 46171
division shall be considered the employee of the self-insuring 46172
employer listed in that certificate for any purposes other than 46173
this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code. Nothing in 46174
this division gives a self-insuring employer authority to control 46175
the means, manner, or method of employment of the employees of the 46176
contractors and subcontractors covered under a certificate issued 46177
under this division.46178

       The contractors and subcontractors included under a 46179
certificate issued under this division are entitled to the 46180
protections provided under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 46181
Revised Code with respect to the contractor's or subcontractor's 46182
employees who are employed on the construction project which is 46183
the subject of the certificate, for death or injuries that arise 46184
out of, or death, injuries, or occupational diseases that arise in 46185
the course of, those employees' employment on that construction 46186
project.46187

       The contractors and subcontractors included under a 46188
certificate issued under this division shall identify in their 46189
payroll records the employees who are considered the employees of 46190
the self-insuring employer listed in that certificate for purposes 46191
of this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code, and the 46192
amount that those employees earned for employment on the 46193
construction project that is the subject of that certificate. 46194
Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary under this chapter 46195
and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code, the administrator shall 46196
exclude the payroll that is reported for employees who are 46197
considered the employees of the self-insuring employer listed in 46198
that certificate, and that the employees earned for employment on 46199
the construction project that is the subject of that certificate, 46200
when determining those contractors' or subcontractors' premiums or 46201
assessments required under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 46202
Revised Code. A self-insuring employer issued a certificate under 46203
this division shall include in the amount of paid compensation it 46204
reports pursuant to division (L) of this section, the amount of 46205
paid compensation the self-insuring employer paid pursuant to this 46206
division for the previous calendar year.46207

       Nothing in this division shall be construed as altering the 46208
rights of employees under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 46209
Revised Code as those rights existed prior to September 17, 1996. 46210
Nothing in this division shall be construed as altering the rights 46211
devolved under sections 2305.31 and 4123.82 of the Revised Code as 46212
those rights existed prior to September 17, 1996.46213

       As used in this division, "privilege to self-insure a 46214
construction project" means privilege to pay individually 46215
compensation, and to furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and 46216
hospital services and attention and funeral expenses directly to 46217
injured employees or the dependents of killed employees.46218

       (P) A self-insuring employer whose application is granted 46219
under division (O) of this section shall designate a safety 46220
professional to be responsible for the administration and 46221
enforcement of the safety program that is specifically designed 46222
for the construction project that is the subject of the 46223
application.46224

       A self-insuring employer whose application is granted under 46225
division (O) of this section shall employ an ombudsperson for the 46226
construction project that is the subject of the application. The 46227
ombudsperson shall have experience in workers' compensation or the 46228
construction industry, or both. The ombudsperson shall perform all 46229
of the following duties:46230

       (1) Communicate with and provide information to employees who 46231
are injured in the course of, or whose injury arises out of 46232
employment on the construction project, or who contract an 46233
occupational disease in the course of employment on the 46234
construction project;46235

       (2) Investigate the status of a claim upon the request of an 46236
employee to do so;46237

       (3) Provide information to claimants, third party 46238
administrators, employers, and other persons to assist those 46239
persons in protecting their rights under this chapter and Chapter 46240
4121. of the Revised Code.46241

       A self-insuring employer whose application is granted under 46242
division (O) of this section shall post the name of the safety 46243
professional and the ombudsperson and instructions for contacting 46244
the safety professional and the ombudsperson in a conspicuous 46245
place at the site of the construction project.46246

       (Q) The administrator may consider all of the following when 46247
deciding whether to grant a self-insuring employer the privilege 46248
to self-insure a construction project as provided under division 46249
(O) of this section:46250

       (1) Whether the self-insuring employer has an organizational 46251
plan for the administration of the workers' compensation law;46252

       (2) Whether the safety program that is specifically designed 46253
for the construction project provides for the safety of employees 46254
employed on the construction project, is applicable to all 46255
contractors and subcontractors who perform labor or work or 46256
provide materials for the construction project, and has as a 46257
component, a safety training program that complies with standards 46258
adopted pursuant to the "Occupational Safety and Health Act of 46259
1970," 84 Stat. 1590, 29 U.S.C.A. 651, and provides for continuing 46260
management and employee involvement;46261

       (3) Whether granting the privilege to self-insure the 46262
construction project will reduce the costs of the construction 46263
project;46264

       (4) Whether the self-insuring employer has employed an 46265
ombudsperson as required under division (P) of this section;46266

       (5) Whether the self-insuring employer has sufficient surety 46267
to secure the payment of claims for which the self-insuring 46268
employer would be responsible pursuant to the granting of the 46269
privilege to self-insure a construction project under division (O) 46270
of this section.46271

       (R) As used in divisions (O), (P), and (Q), "self-insuring 46272
employer" includes the following employers, whether or not they 46273
have been granted the status of being a self-insuring employer 46274
under division (B) of this section:46275

        (1) A state institution of higher education;46276

        (2) A school district;46277

        (3) A county school financing district;46278

        (4) An educational service center;46279

        (5) A community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 46280
Revised Code;46281

       (6) A municipal power agency as defined in section 3734.058 46282
of the Revised Code.46283

        (S) As used in this section:46284

       (1) "Unvoted debt capacity" means the amount of money that a 46285
public employer may borrow without voter approval of a tax levy;46286

       (2) "State institution of higher education" means the state 46287
universities listed in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 46288
community colleges created pursuant to Chapter 3354. of the 46289
Revised Code, university branches created pursuant to Chapter 46290
3355. of the Revised Code, technical colleges created pursuant to 46291
Chapter 3357. of the Revised Code, and state community colleges 46292
created pursuant to Chapter 3358. of the Revised Code.46293

       Sec. 4123.54.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division46294
divisions (I) and (K) of this section, every employee, who is 46295
injured or who contracts an occupational disease, and the 46296
dependents of each employee who is killed, or dies as the result 46297
of an occupational disease contracted in the course of employment, 46298
wherever such injury has occurred or occupational disease has been 46299
contracted, provided the same were not:46300

       (1) Purposely self-inflicted; or46301

       (2) Caused by the employee being intoxicated or under the 46302
influence of a controlled substance not prescribed by a physician 46303
where the intoxication or being under the influence of the 46304
controlled substance not prescribed by a physician was the 46305
proximate cause of the injury, is entitled to receive, either 46306
directly from the employee's self-insuring employer as provided in 46307
section 4123.35 of the Revised Code, or from the state insurance 46308
fund, the compensation for loss sustained on account of the 46309
injury, occupational disease, or death, and the medical, nurse, 46310
and hospital services and medicines, and the amount of funeral 46311
expenses in case of death, as are provided by this chapter.46312

       (B) For the purpose of this section, provided that an 46313
employer has posted written notice to employees that the results 46314
of, or the employee's refusal to submit to, any chemical test 46315
described under this division may affect the employee's 46316
eligibility for compensation and benefits pursuant to this chapter 46317
and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code, there is a rebuttable 46318
presumption that an employee is intoxicated or under the influence 46319
of a controlled substance not prescribed by the employee's 46320
physician and that being intoxicated or under the influence of a 46321
controlled substance not prescribed by the employee's physician is 46322
the proximate cause of an injury under either of the following 46323
conditions:46324

       (1) When any one or more of the following is true:46325

       (a) The employee, through a qualifying chemical test 46326
administered within eight hours of an injury, is determined to 46327
have an alcohol concentration level equal to or in excess of the 46328
levels established in divisions (A)(1)(b) to (i) of section 46329
4511.19 of the Revised Code;46330

       (b) The employee, through a qualifying chemical test 46331
administered within thirty-two hours of an injury, is determined 46332
to have one of the following controlled substances not prescribed 46333
by the employee's physician in the employee's system that tests 46334
above the following levels in an enzyme multiplied immunoassay 46335
technique screening test and above the levels established in 46336
division (B)(1)(c) of this section in a gas chromatography mass 46337
spectrometry test:46338

       (i) For amphetamines, one thousand nanograms per milliliter 46339
of urine;46340

       (ii) For cannabinoids, fifty nanograms per milliliter of 46341
urine;46342

       (iii) For cocaine, including crack cocaine, three hundred 46343
nanograms per milliliter of urine;46344

       (iv) For opiates, two thousand nanograms per milliliter of 46345
urine;46346

       (v) For phencyclidine, twenty-five nanograms per milliliter 46347
of urine.46348

       (c) The employee, through a qualifying chemical test 46349
administered within thirty-two hours of an injury, is determined 46350
to have one of the following controlled substances not prescribed 46351
by the employee's physician in the employee's system that tests 46352
above the following levels by a gas chromatography mass 46353
spectrometry test:46354

       (i) For amphetamines, five hundred nanograms per milliliter 46355
of urine;46356

       (ii) For cannabinoids, fifteen nanograms per milliliter of 46357
urine;46358

       (iii) For cocaine, including crack cocaine, one hundred fifty 46359
nanograms per milliliter of urine;46360

       (iv) For opiates, two thousand nanograms per milliliter of 46361
urine;46362

       (v) For phencyclidine, twenty-five nanograms per milliliter 46363
of urine.46364

       (d) The employee, through a qualifying chemical test 46365
administered within thirty-two hours of an injury, is determined 46366
to have barbiturates, benzodiazepines, methadone, or propoxyphene 46367
in the employee's system that tests above levels established by 46368
laboratories certified by the United States department of health 46369
and human services.46370

        (2) When the employee refuses to submit to a requested 46371
chemical test, on the condition that that employee is or was given 46372
notice that the refusal to submit to any chemical test described 46373
in division (B)(1) of this section may affect the employee's 46374
eligibility for compensation and benefits under this chapter and 46375
Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code.46376

       (C)(1) For purposes of division (B) of this section, a 46377
chemical test is a qualifying chemical test if it is administered 46378
to an employee after an injury under at least one of the following 46379
conditions:46380

       (a) When the employee's employer had reasonable cause to 46381
suspect that the employee may be intoxicated or under the 46382
influence of a controlled substance not prescribed by the 46383
employee's physician;46384

       (b) At the request of a police officer pursuant to section 46385
4511.191 of the Revised Code, and not at the request of the 46386
employee's employer;46387

       (c) At the request of a licensed physician who is not 46388
employed by the employee's employer, and not at the request of the 46389
employee's employer.46390

       (2) As used in division (C)(1)(a) of this section, 46391
"reasonable cause" means, but is not limited to, evidence that an 46392
employee is or was using alcohol or a controlled substance drawn 46393
from specific, objective facts and reasonable inferences drawn 46394
from these facts in light of experience and training. These facts 46395
and inferences may be based on, but are not limited to, any of the 46396
following:46397

       (a) Observable phenomena, such as direct observation of use, 46398
possession, or distribution of alcohol or a controlled substance, 46399
or of the physical symptoms of being under the influence of 46400
alcohol or a controlled substance, such as but not limited to 46401
slurred speech, dilated pupils, odor of alcohol or a controlled 46402
substance, changes in affect, or dynamic mood swings;46403

       (b) A pattern of abnormal conduct, erratic or aberrant 46404
behavior, or deteriorating work performance such as frequent 46405
absenteeism, excessive tardiness, or recurrent accidents, that 46406
appears to be related to the use of alcohol or a controlled 46407
substance, and does not appear to be attributable to other 46408
factors;46409

       (c) The identification of an employee as the focus of a 46410
criminal investigation into unauthorized possession, use, or 46411
trafficking of a controlled substance;46412

       (d) A report of use of alcohol or a controlled substance 46413
provided by a reliable and credible source;46414

       (e) Repeated or flagrant violations of the safety or work 46415
rules of the employee's employer, that are determined by the 46416
employee's supervisor to pose a substantial risk of physical 46417
injury or property damage and that appear to be related to the use 46418
of alcohol or a controlled substance and that do not appear 46419
attributable to other factors.46420

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed to affect the 46421
rights of an employer to test employees for alcohol or controlled 46422
substance abuse.46423

       (E) For the purpose of this section, laboratories certified 46424
by the United States department of health and human services or 46425
laboratories that meet or exceed the standards of that department 46426
for laboratory certification shall be used for processing the test 46427
results of a qualifying chemical test.46428

       (F) The written notice required by division (B) of this 46429
section shall be the same size or larger thenthan the certificate 46430
of premium payment notice furnished by the bureau of workers' 46431
compensation and shall be posted by the employer in the same 46432
location as the certificate of premium payment notice or the 46433
certificate of self-insurance.46434

       (G) If a condition that pre-existed an injury is 46435
substantially aggravated by the injury, and that substantial 46436
aggravation is documented by objective diagnostic findings, 46437
objective clinical findings, or objective test results, no 46438
compensation or benefits are payable because of the pre-existing 46439
condition once that condition has returned to a level that would 46440
have existed without the injury.46441

       (H)(1) Whenever, with respect to an employee of an employer 46442
who is subject to and has complied with this chapter, there is 46443
possibility of conflict with respect to the application of 46444
workers' compensation laws because the contract of employment is 46445
entered into and all or some portion of the work is or is to be 46446
performed in a state or states other than Ohio, the employer and 46447
the employee may agree to be bound by the laws of this state or by 46448
the laws of some other state in which all or some portion of the 46449
work of the employee is to be performed. The agreement shall be in 46450
writing and shall be filed with the bureau of workers' 46451
compensation within ten days after it is executed and shall remain 46452
in force until terminated or modified by agreement of the parties 46453
similarly filed. If the agreement is to be bound by the laws of 46454
this state and the employer has complied with this chapter, then 46455
the employee is entitled to compensation and benefits regardless 46456
of where the injury occurs or the disease is contracted and the 46457
rights of the employee and the employee's dependents under the 46458
laws of this state are the exclusive remedy against the employer 46459
on account of injury, disease, or death in the course of and 46460
arising out of the employee's employment. If the agreement is to 46461
be bound by the laws of another state and the employer has 46462
complied with the laws of that state, the rights of the employee 46463
and the employee's dependents under the laws of that state are the 46464
exclusive remedy against the employer on account of injury, 46465
disease, or death in the course of and arising out of the 46466
employee's employment without regard to the place where the injury 46467
was sustained or the disease contracted. If an employer and an 46468
employee enter into an agreement under this division, the fact 46469
that the employer and the employee entered into that agreement 46470
shall not be construed to change the status of an employee whose 46471
continued employment is subject to the will of the employer or the 46472
employee, unless the agreement contains a provision that expressly 46473
changes that status.46474

       (2) If any employee or the employee's dependents pursue 46475
workers' compensation benefits or recover damages from the 46476
employer under the laws of another state, the amount awarded or 46477
recovered, whether paid or to be paid in future installments, 46478
shall be credited on the amount of any award of compensation or 46479
benefits made to the employee or the employee's dependents by the 46480
bureau. If an employee or the employee's dependents pursue or 46481
receive an award of compensation or benefits under this chapter or 46482
Chapter 4121., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code for the same 46483
injury, occupational disease, or death for which the employee or 46484
the employee's dependents pursued workers' compensation benefits 46485
and received a decision on the merits as defined in section 46486
4123.542 of the Revised Code under the laws of another state or 46487
recovered damages under the laws of another state, the 46488
administrator or any employer, by any lawful means, may collect 46489
the amount of compensation or benefits paid to or on behalf of the 46490
employee or the employee's dependents by the administrator or a 46491
self-insuring employer pursuant to this chapter or Chapter 4121., 46492
4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code for that award. The 46493
administrator or any employer also may collect from the employee 46494
or the employee's dependents any costs and attorney's fees the 46495
administrator or the employer incurs in collecting that payment 46496
and any attorney's fees, penalties, interest, awards, and costs 46497
incurred by an employer in contesting or responding to any claim 46498
filed by the employee or the employee's dependents for the same 46499
injury, occupational disease, or death that was filed after the 46500
original claim for which the employee or the employee's dependents 46501
received a decision on the merits as described in section 4123.542 46502
of the Revised Code. If the employee's employer pays premiums into 46503
the state insurance fund, the administrator shall not charge the 46504
amount of compensation or benefits the administrator collects 46505
pursuant to this division to the employer's experience. If the 46506
administrator collects any costs, penalties, interest, awards, or 46507
attorney's fees incurred by a state fund employer, the 46508
administrator shall forward the amount of such costs, penalties, 46509
interest, awards, and attorney's fees the administrator collects 46510
to that employer. If the employee's employer is a self-insuring 46511
employer, the self-insuring employer shall deduct the amount of 46512
compensation or benefits the self-insuring employer collects 46513
pursuant to this division from the paid compensation the 46514
self-insuring employer reports to the administrator under division 46515
(L) of section 4123.35 of the Revised Code.46516

        (3) Except as otherwise stipulated in division (H)(4) of this 46517
section, if an employee is a resident of a state other than this 46518
state and is insured under the workers' compensation law or 46519
similar laws of a state other than this state, the employee and 46520
the employee's dependents are not entitled to receive compensation 46521
or benefits under this chapter, on account of injury, disease, or 46522
death arising out of or in the course of employment while 46523
temporarily within this state, and the rights of the employee and 46524
the employee's dependents under the laws of the other state are 46525
the exclusive remedy against the employer on account of the 46526
injury, disease, or death.46527

       (4) Division (H)(3) of this section does not apply to an 46528
employee described in that division, or the employee's dependents, 46529
unless both of the following apply:46530

       (a) The laws of the other state limit the ability of an 46531
employee who is a resident of this state and is covered by this 46532
chapter and Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, or the employee's 46533
dependents, to receive compensation or benefits under the other 46534
state's workers' compensation law on account of injury, disease, 46535
or death incurred by the employee that arises out of or in the 46536
course of the employee's employment while temporarily within that 46537
state in the same manner as specified in division (H)(3) of this 46538
section for an employee who is a resident of a state other than 46539
this state, or the employee's dependents;46540

       (b) The laws of the other state limit the liability of the 46541
employer of the employee who is a resident of this state and who 46542
is described in division (H)(4)(a) of this section for that 46543
injury, disease, or death, in the same manner specified in 46544
division (H)(3) of this section for the employer of an employee 46545
who is a resident of the other state.46546

       (5) An employee, or the dependent of an employee, who elects 46547
to receive compensation and benefits under this chapter or Chapter 46548
4121., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code for a claim may not 46549
receive compensation and benefits under the workers' compensation 46550
laws of any state other than this state for that same claim. For 46551
each claim submitted by or on behalf of an employee, the 46552
administrator or, if the employee is employed by a self-insuring 46553
employer, the self-insuring employer shall request the employee or 46554
the employee's dependent to sign an election that affirms the 46555
employee's or employee's dependent's acceptance of electing to 46556
receive compensation and benefits under this chapter or Chapter 46557
4121., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code for that claim that 46558
also affirmatively waives and releases the employee's or the 46559
employee's dependent's right to file for and receive compensation 46560
and benefits under the laws of any state other than this state for 46561
that claim. The employee or employee's dependent shall sign the 46562
election form within twenty-eight days after the administrator or 46563
self-insuring employer submits the request or the administrator or 46564
self-insuring employer shall suspend that claim until the 46565
administrator or self-insuring employer receives the signed 46566
election form.46567

       (I) If an employee who is covered under the federal 46568
"Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act," 98 Stat. 1639, 46569
33 U.S.C. 901 et seq., is injured or contracts an occupational 46570
disease or dies as a result of an injury or occupational disease, 46571
and if that employee's or that employee's dependents' claim for 46572
compensation or benefits for that injury, occupational disease, or 46573
death is subject to the jurisdiction of that act, the employee or 46574
the employee's dependents are not entitled to apply for and shall 46575
not receive compensation or benefits under this chapter and 46576
Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code. The rights of such an employee 46577
and the employee's dependents under the federal "Longshore and 46578
Harbor Workers' Compensation Act," 98 Stat. 1639, 33 U.S.C. 901 et 46579
seq., are the exclusive remedy against the employer for that 46580
injury, occupational disease, or death.46581

       (J) Compensation or benefits are not payable to a claimant 46582
during the period of confinement of the claimant in any state or 46583
federal correctional institution, or in any county jail in lieu of 46584
incarceration in a state or federal correctional institution, 46585
whether in this or any other state for conviction of violation of 46586
any state or federal criminal law.46587

       (K) An employer, upon the approval of the administrator, may 46588
provide for workers' compensation coverage for the employer's 46589
employees who are professional athletes and coaches by submitting 46590
to the administrator proof of coverage under a league policy 46591
issued under the laws of another state under either of the 46592
following circumstances:46593

       (1) The employer administers the payroll and workers' 46594
compensation insurance for a professional sports team subject to a 46595
collective bargaining agreement, and the collective bargaining 46596
agreement provides for the uniform administration of workers' 46597
compensation benefits and compensation for professional athletes.46598

       (2) The employer is a professional sports league, or is a 46599
member team of a professional sports league, and all of the 46600
following apply:46601

       (a) The professional sports league operates as a single 46602
entity, whereby all of the players and coaches of the sports 46603
league are employees of the sports league and not of the 46604
individual member teams.46605

       (b) The professional sports league at all times maintains 46606
workers' compensation insurance that provides coverage for the 46607
players and coaches of the sports league.46608

       (c) Each individual member team of the professional sports 46609
league, pursuant to the organizational or operating documents of 46610
the sports league, is obligated to the sports league to pay to the 46611
sports league any workers' compensation claims that are not 46612
covered by the workers' compensation insurance maintained by the 46613
sports league.46614

       If the administrator approves the employer's proof of 46615
coverage submitted under division (K) of this section, a 46616
professional athlete or coach who is an employee of the employer 46617
and the dependents of the professional athlete or coach are not 46618
entitled to apply for and shall not receive compensation or 46619
benefits under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code. 46620
The rights of such an athlete or coach and the dependents of such 46621
an athlete or coach under the laws of the state where the policy 46622
was issued are the exclusive remedy against the employer for the 46623
athlete or coach if the athlete or coach suffers an injury or 46624
contracts an occupational disease in the course of employment, or 46625
for the dependents of the athlete or the coach if the athlete or 46626
coach is killed as a result of an injury or dies as a result of an 46627
occupational disease, regardless of the location where the injury 46628
was suffered or the occupational disease was contracted.46629

       Sec. 4123.57.  Partial disability compensation shall be paid 46630
as follows.46631

       Except as provided in this section, not earlier than 46632
twenty-six weeks after the date of termination of the latest 46633
period of payments under section 4123.56 of the Revised Code, or 46634
not earlier than twenty-six weeks after the date of the injury or 46635
contraction of an occupational disease in the absence of payments 46636
under section 4123.56 of the Revised Code, the employee may file 46637
an application with the bureau of workers' compensation for the 46638
determination of the percentage of the employee's permanent 46639
partial disability resulting from an injury or occupational 46640
disease.46641

       Whenever the application is filed, the bureau shall send a 46642
copy of the application to the employee's employer or the 46643
employer's representative and shall schedule the employee for a 46644
medical examination by the bureau medical section. The bureau 46645
shall send a copy of the report of the medical examination to the 46646
employee, the employer, and their representatives. Thereafter, the 46647
administrator of workers' compensation shall review the employee's 46648
claim file and make a tentative order as the evidence before the 46649
administrator at the time of the making of the order warrants. If 46650
the administrator determines that there is a conflict of evidence, 46651
the administrator shall send the application, along with the 46652
claimant's file, to the district hearing officer who shall set the 46653
application for a hearing.46654

       The administrator shall notify the employee, the employer, 46655
and their representatives, in writing, of the tentative order and 46656
of the parties' right to request a hearing. Unless the employee, 46657
the employer, or their representative notifies the administrator, 46658
in writing, of an objection to the tentative order within twenty 46659
days after receipt of the notice thereof, the tentative order 46660
shall go into effect and the employee shall receive the 46661
compensation provided in the order. In no event shall there be a 46662
reconsideration of a tentative order issued under this division.46663

       If the employee, the employer, or their representatives 46664
timely notify the administrator of an objection to the tentative 46665
order, the matter shall be referred to a district hearing officer 46666
who shall set the application for hearing with written notices to 46667
all interested persons. Upon referral to a district hearing 46668
officer, the employer may obtain a medical examination of the 46669
employee, pursuant to rules of the industrial commission.46670

       (A) The district hearing officer, upon the application, shall 46671
determine the percentage of the employee's permanent disability, 46672
except as is subject to division (B) of this section, based upon 46673
that condition of the employee resulting from the injury or 46674
occupational disease and causing permanent impairment evidenced by 46675
medical or clinical findings reasonably demonstrable. The employee 46676
shall receive sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of the employee's 46677
average weekly wage, but not more than a maximum of thirty-three 46678
and one-third per cent of the statewide average weekly wage as 46679
defined in division (C) of section 4123.62 of the Revised Code, 46680
per week regardless of the average weekly wage, for the number of 46681
weeks which equals the percentage of two hundred weeks. Except on 46682
application for reconsideration, review, or modification, which is 46683
filed within ten days after the date of receipt of the decision of 46684
the district hearing officer, in no instance shall the former 46685
award be modified unless it is found from medical or clinical 46686
findings that the condition of the claimant resulting from the 46687
injury has so progressed as to have increased the percentage of 46688
permanent partial disability. A staff hearing officer shall hear 46689
an application for reconsideration filed and the staff hearing 46690
officer's decision is final. An employee may file an application 46691
for a subsequent determination of the percentage of the employee's 46692
permanent disability. If such an application is filed, the bureau 46693
shall send a copy of the application to the employer or the 46694
employer's representative. No sooner than sixty days from the date 46695
of the mailing of the application to the employer or the 46696
employer's representative, the administrator shall review the 46697
application. The administrator may require a medical examination 46698
or medical review of the employee. The administrator shall issue a 46699
tentative order based upon the evidence before the administrator, 46700
provided that if the administrator requires a medical examination 46701
or medical review, the administrator shall not issue the tentative 46702
order until the completion of the examination or review.46703

       The employer may obtain a medical examination of the employee 46704
and may submit medical evidence at any stage of the process up to 46705
a hearing before the district hearing officer, pursuant to rules 46706
of the commission. The administrator shall notify the employee, 46707
the employer, and their representatives, in writing, of the nature 46708
and amount of any tentative order issued on an application 46709
requesting a subsequent determination of the percentage of an 46710
employee's permanent disability. An employee, employer, or their 46711
representatives may object to the tentative order within twenty 46712
days after the receipt of the notice thereof. If no timely 46713
objection is made, the tentative order shall go into effect. In no 46714
event shall there be a reconsideration of a tentative order issued 46715
under this division. If an objection is timely made, the 46716
application for a subsequent determination shall be referred to a 46717
district hearing officer who shall set the application for a 46718
hearing with written notice to all interested persons. No 46719
application for subsequent percentage determinations on the same 46720
claim for injury or occupational disease shall be accepted for 46721
review by the district hearing officer unless supported by 46722
substantial evidence of new and changed circumstances developing 46723
since the time of the hearing on the original or last 46724
determination.46725

       No award shall be made under this division based upon a 46726
percentage of disability which, when taken with all other 46727
percentages of permanent disability, exceeds one hundred per cent. 46728
If the percentage of the permanent disability of the employee 46729
equals or exceeds ninety per cent, compensation for permanent 46730
partial disability shall be paid for two hundred weeks.46731

       Compensation payable under this division accrues and is 46732
payable to the employee from the date of last payment of 46733
compensation, or, in cases where no previous compensation has been 46734
paid, from the date of the injury or the date of the diagnosis of 46735
the occupational disease.46736

       When an award under this division has been made prior to the 46737
death of an employee, all unpaid installments accrued or to accrue 46738
under the provisions of the award are payable to the surviving 46739
spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to the dependent 46740
children of the employee, and if there are no children surviving, 46741
then to other dependents as the administrator determines.46742

       (B) InFor purposes of this division, "payable per week" 46743
means the seven consecutive day period in which compensation is 46744
paid in installments according to the schedule associated with the 46745
applicable injury as set forth in this division.46746

       Compensation paid in weekly installments according to the 46747
schedule described in this division may only be commuted to one or 46748
more lump-sum payments pursuant to the procedure set forth in 46749
section 4123.64 of the Revised Code.46750

       In cases included in the following schedule the compensation 46751
payable per week to the employee is the statewide average weekly 46752
wage as defined in division (C) of section 4123.62 of the Revised 46753
Code per week and shall continue during the periods provided inbe 46754
paid in installments according to the following schedule:46755

       For the loss of a first finger, commonly known as a thumb, 46756
sixty weeks.46757

       For the loss of a second finger, commonly called index 46758
finger, thirty-five weeks.46759

       For the loss of a third finger, thirty weeks.46760

       For the loss of a fourth finger, twenty weeks.46761

       For the loss of a fifth finger, commonly known as the little 46762
finger, fifteen weeks.46763

       The loss of a second, or distal, phalange of the thumb is 46764
considered equal to the loss of one half of such thumb; the loss 46765
of more than one half of such thumb is considered equal to the 46766
loss of the whole thumb.46767

       The loss of the third, or distal, phalange of any finger is 46768
considered equal to the loss of one-third of the finger.46769

       The loss of the middle, or second, phalange of any finger is 46770
considered equal to the loss of two-thirds of the finger.46771

       The loss of more than the middle and distal phalanges of any 46772
finger is considered equal to the loss of the whole finger. In no 46773
case shall the amount received for more than one finger exceed the 46774
amount provided in this schedule for the loss of a hand.46775

       For the loss of the metacarpal bone (bones of the palm) for 46776
the corresponding thumb, or fingers, add ten weeks to the number 46777
of weeks under this division.46778

       For ankylosis (total stiffness of) or contractures (due to 46779
scars or injuries) which makes any of the fingers, thumbs, or 46780
parts of either useless, the same number of weeks apply to the 46781
members or parts thereof as given for the loss thereof.46782

       If the claimant has suffered the loss of two or more fingers 46783
by amputation or ankylosis and the nature of the claimant's 46784
employment in the course of which the claimant was working at the 46785
time of the injury or occupational disease is such that the 46786
handicap or disability resulting from the loss of fingers, or loss 46787
of use of fingers, exceeds the normal handicap or disability 46788
resulting from the loss of fingers, or loss of use of fingers, the 46789
administrator may take that fact into consideration and increase 46790
the award of compensation accordingly, but the award made shall 46791
not exceed the amount of compensation for loss of a hand.46792

       For the loss of a hand, one hundred seventy-five weeks.46793

       For the loss of an arm, two hundred twenty-five weeks.46794

       For the loss of a great toe, thirty weeks.46795

       For the loss of one of the toes other than the great toe, ten 46796
weeks.46797

       The loss of more than two-thirds of any toe is considered 46798
equal to the loss of the whole toe.46799

       The loss of less than two-thirds of any toe is considered no 46800
loss, except as to the great toe; the loss of the great toe up to 46801
the interphalangeal joint is co-equal to the loss of one-half of 46802
the great toe; the loss of the great toe beyond the 46803
interphalangeal joint is considered equal to the loss of the whole 46804
great toe.46805

       For the loss of a foot, one hundred fifty weeks.46806

       For the loss of a leg, two hundred weeks.46807

       For the loss of the sight of an eye, one hundred twenty-five 46808
weeks.46809

       For the permanent partial loss of sight of an eye, the 46810
portion of one hundred twenty-five weeks as the administrator in 46811
each case determines, based upon the percentage of vision actually 46812
lost as a result of the injury or occupational disease, but, in no 46813
case shall an award of compensation be made for less than 46814
twenty-five per cent loss of uncorrected vision. "Loss of 46815
uncorrected vision" means the percentage of vision actually lost 46816
as the result of the injury or occupational disease.46817

       For the permanent and total loss of hearing of one ear, 46818
twenty-five weeks; but in no case shall an award of compensation 46819
be made for less than permanent and total loss of hearing of one 46820
ear.46821

       For the permanent and total loss of hearing, one hundred 46822
twenty-five weeks; but, except pursuant to the next preceding 46823
paragraph, in no case shall an award of compensation be made for 46824
less than permanent and total loss of hearing.46825

       In case an injury or occupational disease results in serious 46826
facial or head disfigurement which either impairs or may in the 46827
future impair the opportunities to secure or retain employment, 46828
the administrator shall make an award of compensation as it deems 46829
proper and equitable, in view of the nature of the disfigurement, 46830
and not to exceed the sum of ten thousand dollars. For the purpose 46831
of making the award, it is not material whether the employee is 46832
gainfully employed in any occupation or trade at the time of the 46833
administrator's determination.46834

       When an award under this division has been made prior to the 46835
death of an employee all unpaid installments accrued or to accrue 46836
under the provisions of the award shall be payable to the 46837
surviving spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to the 46838
dependent children of the employee and if there are no such 46839
children, then to such dependents as the administrator determines.46840

       When an employee has sustained the loss of a member by 46841
severance, but no award has been made on account thereof prior to 46842
the employee's death, the administrator shall make an award in 46843
accordance with this division for the loss which shall be payable 46844
to the surviving spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to 46845
the dependent children of the employee and if there are no such 46846
children, then to such dependents as the administrator determines.46847

       (C) Compensation for partial impairment under divisions (A) 46848
and (B) of this section is in addition to the compensation paid 46849
the employee pursuant to section 4123.56 of the Revised Code. A 46850
claimant may receive compensation under divisions (A) and (B) of 46851
this section.46852

       In all cases arising under division (B) of this section, if 46853
it is determined by any one of the following: (1) the amputee 46854
clinic at University hospital, Ohio state university; (2) the 46855
rehabilitation services commission; (3) an amputee clinic or 46856
prescribing physician approved by the administrator or the 46857
administrator's designee, that an injured or disabled employee is 46858
in need of an artificial appliance, or in need of a repair 46859
thereof, regardless of whether the appliance or its repair will be 46860
serviceable in the vocational rehabilitation of the injured 46861
employee, and regardless of whether the employee has returned to 46862
or can ever again return to any gainful employment, the bureau 46863
shall pay the cost of the artificial appliance or its repair out 46864
of the surplus created by division (B) of section 4123.34 of the 46865
Revised Code.46866

       In those cases where a rehabilitation services commission 46867
recommendation that an injured or disabled employee is in need of 46868
an artificial appliance would conflict with their state plan, 46869
adopted pursuant to the "Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 Stat. 46870
355, 29 U.S.C.A. 701, the administrator or the administrator's 46871
designee or the bureau may obtain a recommendation from an amputee 46872
clinic or prescribing physician that they determine appropriate.46873

       (D) If an employee of a state fund employer makes application 46874
for a finding and the administrator finds that the employee has 46875
contracted silicosis as defined in division (X), or coal miners' 46876
pneumoconiosis as defined in division (Y), or asbestosis as 46877
defined in division (AA) of section 4123.68 of the Revised Code, 46878
and that a change of such employee's occupation is medically 46879
advisable in order to decrease substantially further exposure to 46880
silica dust, asbestos, or coal dust and if the employee, after the 46881
finding, has changed or shall change the employee's occupation to 46882
an occupation in which the exposure to silica dust, asbestos, or 46883
coal dust is substantially decreased, the administrator shall 46884
allow to the employee an amount equal to fifty per cent of the 46885
statewide average weekly wage per week for a period of thirty 46886
weeks, commencing as of the date of the discontinuance or change, 46887
and for a period of one hundred weeks immediately following the 46888
expiration of the period of thirty weeks, the employee shall 46889
receive sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of the loss of wages 46890
resulting directly and solely from the change of occupation but 46891
not to exceed a maximum of an amount equal to fifty per cent of 46892
the statewide average weekly wage per week. No such employee is 46893
entitled to receive more than one allowance on account of 46894
discontinuance of employment or change of occupation and benefits 46895
shall cease for any period during which the employee is employed 46896
in an occupation in which the exposure to silica dust, asbestos, 46897
or coal dust is not substantially less than the exposure in the 46898
occupation in which the employee was formerly employed or for any 46899
period during which the employee may be entitled to receive 46900
compensation or benefits under section 4123.68 of the Revised Code 46901
on account of disability from silicosis, asbestosis, or coal 46902
miners' pneumoconiosis. An award for change of occupation for a 46903
coal miner who has contracted coal miners' pneumoconiosis may be 46904
granted under this division even though the coal miner continues 46905
employment with the same employer, so long as the coal miner's 46906
employment subsequent to the change is such that the coal miner's 46907
exposure to coal dust is substantially decreased and a change of 46908
occupation is certified by the claimant as permanent. The 46909
administrator may accord to the employee medical and other 46910
benefits in accordance with section 4123.66 of the Revised Code.46911

       (E) If a firefighter or police officer makes application for 46912
a finding and the administrator finds that the firefighter or 46913
police officer has contracted a cardiovascular and pulmonary 46914
disease as defined in division (W) of section 4123.68 of the 46915
Revised Code, and that a change of the firefighter's or police 46916
officer's occupation is medically advisable in order to decrease 46917
substantially further exposure to smoke, toxic gases, chemical 46918
fumes, and other toxic vapors, and if the firefighter, or police 46919
officer, after the finding, has changed or changes occupation to 46920
an occupation in which the exposure to smoke, toxic gases, 46921
chemical fumes, and other toxic vapors is substantially decreased, 46922
the administrator shall allow to the firefighter or police officer 46923
an amount equal to fifty per cent of the statewide average weekly 46924
wage per week for a period of thirty weeks, commencing as of the 46925
date of the discontinuance or change, and for a period of 46926
seventy-five weeks immediately following the expiration of the 46927
period of thirty weeks the administrator shall allow the 46928
firefighter or police officer sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of 46929
the loss of wages resulting directly and solely from the change of 46930
occupation but not to exceed a maximum of an amount equal to fifty 46931
per cent of the statewide average weekly wage per week. No such 46932
firefighter or police officer is entitled to receive more than one 46933
allowance on account of discontinuance of employment or change of 46934
occupation and benefits shall cease for any period during which 46935
the firefighter or police officer is employed in an occupation in 46936
which the exposure to smoke, toxic gases, chemical fumes, and 46937
other toxic vapors is not substantially less than the exposure in 46938
the occupation in which the firefighter or police officer was 46939
formerly employed or for any period during which the firefighter 46940
or police officer may be entitled to receive compensation or 46941
benefits under section 4123.68 of the Revised Code on account of 46942
disability from a cardiovascular and pulmonary disease. The 46943
administrator may accord to the firefighter or police officer 46944
medical and other benefits in accordance with section 4123.66 of 46945
the Revised Code.46946

       (F) An order issued under this section is appealable pursuant 46947
to section 4123.511 of the Revised Code but is not appealable to 46948
court under section 4123.512 of the Revised Code.46949

       Sec. 4141.35.  (A) If the director of job and family services 46950
finds that any fraudulent misrepresentation has been made by an 46951
applicant for or a recipient of benefits with the object of 46952
obtaining benefits to which the applicant or recipient was not 46953
entitled, and in addition to any other penalty or forfeiture under 46954
this chapter, then the director:46955

       (1) Shall within four years after the end of the benefit year 46956
in which the fraudulent misrepresentation was made reject or 46957
cancel such person's entire weekly claim for benefits that was 46958
fraudulently claimed, or the person's entire benefit rights if the 46959
misrepresentation was in connection with the filing of the 46960
claimant's application for determination of benefit rights;46961

       (2) Shall by order declare that, for each application for 46962
benefit rights and for each weekly claim canceled, such person 46963
shall be ineligible for two otherwise valid weekly claims for 46964
benefits, claimed within six years subsequent to the discovery of 46965
such misrepresentation;46966

       (3) By order shall require that the total amount of benefits 46967
rejected or canceled under division (A)(1) of this section be 46968
repaid to the director before such person may become eligible for 46969
further benefits, and shall withhold such unpaid sums from future 46970
benefit payments accruing and otherwise payable to such claimant. 46971
Effective with orders issued on or after January 1, 1993, if such 46972
benefits are not repaid within thirty days after the director's 46973
order becomes final, interest on the amount remaining unpaid shall 46974
be charged to the person at a rate and calculated in the same 46975
manner as provided under section 4141.23 of the Revised Code. When 46976
a person ordered to repay benefits has repaid all overpaid 46977
benefits according to a plan approved by the director, the 46978
director may cancel the amount of interest that accrued during the 46979
period of the repayment plan. The director may take action in the 46980
courtsany court of this statecompetent jurisdiction to collect 46981
benefits and interest as provided in sections 4141.23 and 4141.27 46982
of the Revised Code, in regard to the collection of unpaid 46983
contributions, using the final repayment order as the basis for 46984
such action. NoExcept as otherwise provided in this division, no46985
administrative or legal proceedings for the collection of such 46986
benefits or interest due shall be initiated after the expiration 46987
of six years from the date on which the director's order requiring 46988
repayment became final and the amount of any benefits or interest 46989
not recovered at that time, and any liens thereon, shall be 46990
canceled as uncollectible. The time limit for instituting 46991
proceedings shall be extended by the period of any stay to the 46992
collection or by any other time period to which the parties 46993
mutually agree.46994

       (4) May take action to collect benefits fraudulently obtained 46995
under the unemployment compensation law of any other state or the 46996
United States or Canada. Such action may be initiated in the 46997
courts of this state in the same manner as provided for unpaid 46998
contributions in section 4141.41 of the Revised Code.46999

       (5) May take action to collect benefits that have been 47000
fraudulently obtained from the director, interest pursuant to 47001
division (A)(3) of this section, and court costs, through 47002
attachment proceedings under Chapter 2715. of the Revised Code and 47003
garnishment proceedings under Chapter 2716. of the Revised Code.47004

       (B) If the director finds that an applicant for benefits has 47005
been credited with a waiting period or paid benefits to which the 47006
applicant was not entitled for reasons other than fraudulent 47007
misrepresentation, the director shall:47008

       (1)(a) Within six months after the determination under which 47009
the claimant was credited with that waiting period or paid 47010
benefits becomes final pursuant to section 4141.28 of the Revised 47011
Code, or within three years after the end of the benefit year in 47012
which such benefits were claimed, whichever is later, by order 47013
cancel such waiting period and require that such benefits be 47014
repaid to the director or be withheld from any benefits to which 47015
such applicant is or may become entitled before any additional 47016
benefits are paid, provided that the repayment or withholding 47017
shall not be required where the overpayment is the result of the 47018
director's correcting a prior decision due to a typographical or 47019
clerical error in the director's prior decision, or an error in an 47020
employer's report under division (G) of section 4141.28 of the 47021
Revised Code.47022

       (b) The limitation specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this 47023
section shall not apply to cases involving the retroactive payment 47024
of remuneration covering periods for which benefits were 47025
previously paid to the claimant. However, in such cases, the 47026
director's order requiring repayment shall not be issued unless 47027
the director is notified of such retroactive payment within six 47028
months from the date the retroactive payment was made to the 47029
claimant.47030

       (2) The director may, by reciprocal agreement with the United 47031
States secretary of labor or another state, recover overpayment 47032
amounts from unemployment benefits otherwise payable to an 47033
individual under Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code. Any 47034
overpayments made to the individual that have not previously been 47035
recovered under an unemployment benefit program of the United 47036
States may be recovered in accordance with section 303(g) of the 47037
"Social Security Act" and sections 3304(a)(4) and 3306(f) of the 47038
"Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 47039
3301 to 3311.47040

       (3) If the amounts required to be repaid under division (B) 47041
of this section are not recovered within three years from the date 47042
the director's order requiring payment became final, initiate no 47043
further action to collect such benefits and the amount of any 47044
benefits not recovered at that time shall be canceled as 47045
uncollectible, provided that the time limit for collection shall 47046
be extended by the period of any stay to the collection or by any 47047
other time period to which the parties mutually agree.47048

       (C) The appeal provisions of sections 4141.281 and 4141.282 47049
of the Revised Code shall apply to all orders and determinations 47050
issued under this section, except that an individual's right of 47051
appeal under division (B)(2) of this section shall be limited to 47052
this state's authority to recover overpayment of benefits.47053

       (D) If an individual makes a full repayment or a repayment 47054
that is less than the full amount required by this section, the 47055
director shall apply the repayment to the mutualized account under 47056
division (B) of section 4141.25 of the Revised Code, except that 47057
the director shall credit the repayment to the accounts of the 47058
individual's base period employers that previously have not been 47059
credited for the amount of improperly paid benefits charged 47060
against their accounts based on the proportion of benefits charged 47061
against the accounts as determined pursuant to division (D) of 47062
section 4141.24 of the Revised Code.47063

       The director shall deposit any repayment collected under this 47064
section that the director determines to be payment of interest or 47065
court costs into the unemployment compensation special 47066
administrative fund established pursuant to section 4141.11 of the 47067
Revised Code.47068

       Sec. 4163.07.  (A)(1) Prior to transporting any high-level 47069
radioactive waste, spent nuclear fuel, transuranic waste, or any 47070
quantity of special nuclear material or by-product material that 47071
meets or exceeds the highway route controlled quantity, within, 47072
into, or through the state, the shipper of the material shall 47073
notify the executive director of the emergency management agency 47074
established under section 5502.22 of the Revised Code of the 47075
shipment. The notice shall be in writing and be sent by certified 47076
mail and shall include the name of the shipper; the name of the 47077
carrier; the type and quantity of the material; the transportation 47078
mode of the shipment; the proposed date and time of shipment of 47079
the material within, into, or through the state; and the starting 47080
point, termination or exit point, scheduled route, and each 47081
alternate route, if any, of the shipment. In order to constitute 47082
effective notification under division (A)(1) of this section, 47083
notification shall be received by the executive director at least 47084
four days prior to shipment within, into, or through the state.47085

       (2) The carrier or shipper of any shipment subject to 47086
division (A)(1) of this section shall immediately notify the 47087
executive director of any change in the date and time of the 47088
shipment or in the route of the shipment within, into, or through 47089
the state.47090

       (B) Upon receipt of a notice of any shipment of material that 47091
is subject to division (A)(1) of this section within, into, or 47092
through the state, the executive director of the emergency 47093
management agency shall immediately notify the director of public 47094
safety, the director of environmental protection, the director of 47095
health, the chairperson of the public utilities commission, and 47096
the county emergency management agency and sheriff of each county 47097
along the proposed route, or any alternate route, of the shipment.47098

       (C) The executive director of the emergency management agency 47099
shall not disclose to any person other than those persons 47100
enumerated in division (B) of this section any information 47101
pertaining to any shipment of special nuclear material or 47102
by-product material prior to the time that the shipment is 47103
completed.47104

       (D) This section does not apply to radioactive materials, 47105
other than by-products, shipped by or for the United States 47106
department of defense and United States department of energy for 47107
military or national defense purposes. Nothing in this section 47108
requires the disclosure of any defense information or restricted 47109
data as defined in the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 68 Stat. 919, 47110
42 U.S.C. 2011, as amended.47111

       (E) No person shall transport or cause to be transported 47112
within, into, or through the state any material that is subject to 47113
division (A)(1) of this section without first providing the notice 47114
required in that division.47115

       (F) Whoever violates division (E) of this section, in 47116
addition to any penalty imposed under section 4163.99 of the 47117
Revised Code, is liable for a civil penalty in an amount not to 47118
exceed the following, as applicable:47119

       (1) Twenty-five thousand dollars for a motor carrier, as 47120
defined in section 4923.01 of the Revised Code;47121

       (2) Forty-five thousand dollars for the first cask designated 47122
for transport by rail and thirty thousand dollars for each 47123
additional cask designated for transport by rail that is shipped 47124
by the same person or entity in the same shipment.47125

       The attorney general, upon the request of the executive 47126
director of the emergency management agency, shall bring a civil 47127
action to collect the penalty. Fines collected pursuant to this 47128
section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit 47129
of the radioactive wastepublic utilities transportation safety47130
fund created in section 4905.8014921.21 of the Revised Code.47131

       Sec. 4169.02.  (A) For the purposes of regulating the 47132
construction, maintenance, mechanical operation, and inspection of 47133
passenger tramways that are associated with ski areas and of 47134
registering operators of passenger tramways in this state, there 47135
is hereby established in the division of laborindustrial 47136
compliance in the department of commerce a ski tramway board to be 47137
appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the 47138
senate. The board shall consist of three members, one of whom 47139
shall be a public member who is an experienced skier and familiar 47140
with ski areas in this state, one of whom shall be a ski area 47141
operator actively engaged in the business of recreational skiing 47142
in this state, and one of whom shall be a professional engineer 47143
who is knowledgeable in the design or operation of passenger 47144
tramways.47145

       Of the initial appointments, one member shall be appointed 47146
for a term of one year, one for a term of two years, and one for a 47147
term of three years. The member appointed to the term beginning on 47148
July 1, 1996, shall be appointed to a term ending on June 30, 47149
1997; the member appointed to a term beginning on July 1, 1997, 47150
shall be appointed to a term ending on June 30, 1999; and the 47151
member appointed to a term beginning on July 1, 1998, shall be 47152
appointed to a term ending on June 30, 2001. Thereafter, each of 47153
the members shall be appointed for a term of six years. Each 47154
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 47155
end of the term for which the member was appointed. In the event 47156
of a vacancy, the governor, with the advice and consent of the 47157
senate, shall appoint a successor who shall hold office for the 47158
remainder of the term for which the successor's predecessor was 47159
appointed. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 47160
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 47161
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 47162
whichever occurs first. The board shall elect a chairperson from 47163
its members.47164

       The governor may remove any member of the board at any time 47165
for misfeasance, nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office after 47166
giving the member a copy of the charges against the member and an 47167
opportunity to be heard publicly in person or by counsel in the 47168
member's defense. Any such act of removal by the governor is 47169
final. A statement of the findings of the governor, the reason for 47170
the governor's action, and the answer, if any, of the member shall 47171
be filed by the governor with the secretary of state and shall be 47172
open to public inspection.47173

       Members of the board shall be paid two hundred fifty dollars 47174
for each meeting that the member attends, except that no member 47175
shall be paid or receive more than seven hundred fifty dollars for 47176
attending meetings during any calendar year. Each member shall be 47177
reimbursed for the member's actual and necessary expenses incurred 47178
in the performance of official board duties. The chairperson shall 47179
be paid two hundred fifty dollars annually in addition to any 47180
compensation the chairperson receives under this division for 47181
attending meetings and any other compensation the chairperson 47182
receives for serving on the board.47183

       The division shall provide the board with such offices and 47184
such clerical, professional, and other assistance as may be 47185
reasonably necessary for the board to carry on its work. The 47186
division shall maintain accurate copies of the board's rules as 47187
promulgated in accordance with division (B) of this section and 47188
shall keep all of the board's records, including business records, 47189
and inspection reports as well as its own records and reports. The 47190
cost of administering the board and conducting inspections shall 47191
be included in the budget of the division based on revenues 47192
generated by the registration fees established under section 47193
4169.03 of the Revised Code.47194

       (B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 47195
board shall adopt and may amend or rescind rules relating to 47196
public safety in the construction, maintenance, mechanical 47197
operation, and inspection of passenger tramways. The rules shall 47198
be in accordance with established standards in the business of ski 47199
area operation, if any, and shall not discriminate in their 47200
application to ski area operators.47201

       No person shall violate the rules of the board.47202

       (C) The authority of the board shall not extend to any matter 47203
relative to the operation of a ski area other than the 47204
construction, maintenance, mechanical operation, and inspection of 47205
passenger tramways.47206

       (D) A majority of the board constitutes a quorum and may 47207
perform and exercise all the duties and powers devolving upon the 47208
board.47209

       Sec. 4169.03.  (A) Before a passenger tramway operator may 47210
operate any passenger tramway in the state, the operator shall 47211
apply to the ski tramway board, on forms prepared by it, for 47212
registration by the board. The application shall contain an 47213
inventory of the passenger tramways that the applicant intends to 47214
operate and other information as the board may reasonably require 47215
and shall be accompanied by the following annual fees:47216

       (1) Each aerial passenger tramway, five hundred dollars;47217

       (2) Each skimobile, two hundred dollars;47218

       (3) Each chair lift, two hundred dollars;47219

       (4) Each J bar, T bar, or platter pull, one hundred dollars;47220

       (5) Each rope tow, fifty dollars;47221

       (6) Each wire rope tow, seventy-five dollars;47222

        (7) Each conveyor, one hundred dollars.47223

       When an operator operates an aerial passenger tramway, a 47224
skimobile, or a chair lift during both a winter and summer season, 47225
the annual fee shall be one and one-half the above amount for the 47226
respective passenger tramway.47227

       (B) Upon payment of the appropriate annual fees in accordance 47228
with division (A) of this section, the board shall issue a 47229
registration certificate to the operator. Each certificate shall 47230
remain in force until the thirtieth day of September next ensuing. 47231
The board shall renew an operator's certificate in accordance with 47232
the standard renewal procedure in Chapter 4745. of the Revised 47233
Code upon payment of the appropriate annual fees.47234

       (C) Money received from the registration fees and from the 47235
fines collected pursuant to section 4169.99 of the Revised Code 47236
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the labor47237
industrial compliance operating fund created in section 121.084 of 47238
the Revised Code.47239

       (D) No person shall operate a passenger tramway in this state 47240
unless the person has been registered by the board.47241

       Sec. 4169.04.  (A) The division of laborindustrial 47242
compliance in the department of commerce shall make such 47243
inspection of the construction, maintenance, and mechanical 47244
operation of passenger tramways as the ski tramway board may 47245
reasonably require. The division may contract with other qualified 47246
engineers to make such inspection or may accept the inspection 47247
report by any qualified inspector of an insurance company 47248
authorized to insure passenger tramways in this state.47249

       (B) If, as the result of an inspection, an employee of the 47250
division or other agent with whom the division has contracted 47251
finds that a violation of the board's rules exists or a condition 47252
in passenger tramway construction, maintenance, or mechanical 47253
operation exists that endangers public safety, the employee or 47254
agent shall make an immediate report to the board for appropriate 47255
investigation and order.47256

       Sec. 4171.04.  (A) Before a person may operate any roller 47257
skating rink in the state, the person shall:47258

       (1) Apply to the superintendent of laborindustrial 47259
compliance in the department of commerce on forms designated by 47260
the superintendent for a certificate of registration;47261

       (2) Provide an inventory of all the roller skating rinks that 47262
the applicant intends to operate, and any other information the 47263
superintendent may reasonably require on the application;47264

       (3) Include with the application a registration fee of 47265
twenty-five dollars for each roller skating rink to be operated by 47266
the applicant.47267

       (B) Upon compliance with division (A) of this section, the 47268
superintendent shall issue a certificate of registration to the 47269
operator for each roller skating rink to be operated by the 47270
applicant. Each certificate shall remain in force as follows:47271

       (1) Until the thirty-first day of December next ensuing; or47272

       (2) For sixty days after the dissolution of a partnership.47273

       (C) In case of the dissolution of a partnership by death, the 47274
surviving partner or partners may operate a roller skating rink 47275
pursuant to the certificate of registration obtained by the 47276
partnership in accordance with this chapter for a period of sixty 47277
days following dissolution. The heirs or representatives of 47278
deceased persons and receivers or trustees in bankruptcy appointed 47279
by any competent authority may operate under the certificate of 47280
registration of the person succeeded in possession.47281

       (D) The superintendent shall renew an operator's certificate 47282
of registration in accordance with the standard license renewal 47283
procedure set forth in Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code upon 47284
payment of a renewal fee of twenty-five dollars for each roller 47285
skating rink to be operated by the applicant.47286

       (E) Money received from the registration and renewal fees 47287
collected pursuant to this chapter shall be paid into the state 47288
treasury to the credit of the laborindustrial compliance47289
operating fund created in section 121.084 of the Revised Code.47290

       Sec. 4301.30. (A) All fees collected by the division of 47291
liquor control shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 47292
credit of the undivided liquor permit fund, which is hereby 47293
created, at the time prescribed under section 4301.12 of the 47294
Revised Code. Each payment shall be accompanied by a statement 47295
showing separately the amount collected for each class of permits 47296
in each municipal corporation and in each township outside the 47297
limits of any municipal corporation in such township. An47298

       (B)(1) An amount equal to forty-five per cent of the fund 47299
shall be paid from the fund into the state liquor regulatory fund, 47300
which is hereby created in the state treasury. The state liquor 47301
regulatory fund shall be used to pay the operating expenses of the 47302
division of liquor control in administering and enforcing Title 47303
XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating expenses of the liquor 47304
control commission. Investment earnings of the fund shall be 47305
credited to the fund.47306

       (2) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget and 47307
management, the amount of money that is in the state liquor 47308
regulatory fund is in excess of the amount that is needed to pay 47309
the operating expenses of the division in administering and 47310
enforcing Title XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating 47311
expenses of the commission, the director shall credit the excess 47312
amount to the general revenue fund.47313

       (C) Twenty per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund shall 47314
be paid into the statewide treatment and prevention fund, which is 47315
hereby created in the state treasury. This amount shall be 47316
appropriated by the general assembly, together with an amount 47317
equal to one and one-half per cent of the gross profit of the 47318
division of liquor control derived under division (B)(4) of 47319
section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, to the department of alcohol 47320
and drug addiction services. In planning for the allocation of and 47321
in allocating these amounts for the purposes of Chapter 3793. of 47322
the Revised Code, the department of alcohol and drug addiction 47323
services shall comply with the nondiscrimination provisions of 47324
Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, and any rules adopted 47325
under that act.47326

       (D) Thirty-five per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund 47327
shall be distributed by the superintendent of liquor control at 47328
quarterly calendar periods as follows:47329

       (A)(1) To each municipal corporation, the aggregate amount 47330
shown by the statements to have been collected from permits in the 47331
municipal corporation, for the use of the general fund of the 47332
municipal corporation;47333

       (B)(2) To each township, the aggregate amount shown by the 47334
statements to have been collected from permits in its territory, 47335
outside the limits of any municipal corporation located in the 47336
township, for the use of the general fund of the township, or for 47337
fire protection purposes, including buildings and equipment in the 47338
township or in an established fire district within the township, 47339
to the extent that the funds are derived from liquor permits 47340
within the territory comprising such fire district.47341

       (E) For the purpose of the distribution required by this 47342
section, E, H, and D permits covering boats or vessels are deemed 47343
to have been issued in the municipal corporation or township 47344
wherein the owner or operator of the vehicle, boat, vessel, or 47345
dining car equipment to which the permit relates has the owner's 47346
or operator's principal office or place of business within the 47347
state.47348

       (F) If the liquor control commission determines that the 47349
police or other officers of any municipal corporation or township 47350
entitled to share in such distributions under this section are 47351
refusing or culpably neglecting to enforce this chapter and 47352
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, or the penal laws of this state 47353
relating to the manufacture, importation, transportation, 47354
distribution, and sale of beer and intoxicating liquors, or if the 47355
prosecuting officer of a municipal corporation or a municipal 47356
court fails to comply with the request of the commission 47357
authorized by division (A)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised 47358
Code, the commission, by certified mail, may notify the chief 47359
executive officer of the municipal corporation or the board of 47360
township trustees of the township of the failure and require the 47361
immediate cooperation of the responsible officers of the municipal 47362
corporation or township with the division of liquor control in the 47363
enforcement of those chapters and penal laws. Within thirty days 47364
after the notice is served, the commission shall determine whether 47365
the requirement has been complied with. If the commission 47366
determines that the requirement has not been complied with, it may 47367
issue an order to the superintendent to withhold the distributive 47368
share of the municipal corporation or township until further order 47369
of the commission. This action of the commission is reviewable 47370
within thirty days thereafter in the court of common pleas of 47371
Franklin county.47372

       (G) All fees collected by the division of liquor control from 47373
the issuance or renewal of B-2a and S permits, and paid by B-2a 47374
and S permit holders who do not also hold A-2 permits, shall be 47375
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the state liquor 47376
controlregulatory fund. Once during each fiscal year, an amount 47377
equal to fifty per cent of the fees collected shall be paid from 47378
the state liquor controlregulatory fund into the general revenue 47379
fund.47380

       Sec. 4303.181.  (A) Permit D-5a may be issued either to the 47381
owner or operator of a hotel or motel that is required to be 47382
licensed under section 3731.03 of the Revised Code, that contains 47383
at least fifty rooms for registered transient guests or is owned 47384
by a state institution of higher education as defined in section 47385
3345.011 of the Revised Code or a private college or university, 47386
and that qualifies under the other requirements of this section, 47387
or to the owner or operator of a restaurant specified under this 47388
section, to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only 47389
by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for 47390
consumption on the premises where sold, and to registered guests 47391
in their rooms, which may be sold by means of a controlled access 47392
alcohol and beverage cabinet in accordance with division (B) of 47393
section 4301.21 of the Revised Code; and to sell the same products 47394
in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises 47395
as may be sold by holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The premises of 47396
the hotel or motel shall include a retail food establishment or a 47397
food service operation licensed pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the 47398
Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this 47399
chapter and that is affiliated with the hotel or motel and within 47400
or contiguous to the hotel or motel, and that serves food within 47401
the hotel or motel, but the principal business of the owner or 47402
operator of the hotel or motel shall be the accommodation of 47403
transient guests. In addition to the privileges authorized in this 47404
division, the holder of a D-5a permit may exercise the same 47405
privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.47406

       The owner or operator of a hotel, motel, or restaurant who 47407
qualified for and held a D-5a permit on August 4, 1976, may, if 47408
the owner or operator held another permit before holding a D-5a 47409
permit, either retain a D-5a permit or apply for the permit 47410
formerly held, and the division of liquor control shall issue the 47411
permit for which the owner or operator applies and formerly held, 47412
notwithstanding any quota.47413

       A D-5a permit shall not be transferred to another location. 47414
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of D-5a permits 47415
that may be issued.47416

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 47417
forty-four dollars.47418

       (B) Permit D-5b may be issued to the owner, operator, tenant, 47419
lessee, or occupant of an enclosed shopping center to sell beer 47420
and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 47421
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 47422
where sold; and to sell the same products in the same manner and 47423
amount not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by 47424
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 47425
authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5b permit may 47426
exercise the same privileges as a holder of a D-5 permit.47427

       A D-5b permit shall not be transferred to another location.47428

       One D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 47429
containing at least two hundred twenty-five thousand, but less 47430
than four hundred thousand, square feet of floor area.47431

       Two D-5b permits may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 47432
containing at least four hundred thousand square feet of floor 47433
area. No more than one D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed 47434
shopping center for each additional two hundred thousand square 47435
feet of floor area or fraction of that floor area, up to a maximum 47436
of five D-5b permits for each enclosed shopping center. The number 47437
of D-5b permits that may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 47438
shall be determined by subtracting the number of D-3 and D-5 47439
permits issued in the enclosed shopping center from the number of 47440
D-5b permits that otherwise may be issued at the enclosed shopping 47441
center under the formulas provided in this division. Except as 47442
provided in this section, no quota shall be placed on the number 47443
of D-5b permits that may be issued. Notwithstanding any quota 47444
provided in this section, the holder of any D-5b permit first 47445
issued in accordance with this section is entitled to its renewal 47446
in accordance with section 4303.271 of the Revised Code.47447

       The holder of a D-5b permit issued before April 4, 1984, 47448
whose tenancy is terminated for a cause other than nonpayment of 47449
rent, may return the D-5b permit to the division of liquor 47450
control, and the division shall cancel that permit. Upon 47451
cancellation of that permit and upon the permit holder's payment 47452
of taxes, contributions, premiums, assessments, and other debts 47453
owing or accrued upon the date of cancellation to this state and 47454
its political subdivisions and a filing with the division of a 47455
certification of that payment, the division shall issue to that 47456
person either a D-5 permit, or a D-1, a D-2, and a D-3 permit, as 47457
that person requests. The division shall issue the D-5 permit, or 47458
the D-1, D-2, and D-3 permits, even if the number of D-1, D-2, 47459
D-3, or D-5 permits currently issued in the municipal corporation 47460
or in the unincorporated area of the township where that person's 47461
proposed premises is located equals or exceeds the maximum number 47462
of such permits that can be issued in that municipal corporation 47463
or in the unincorporated area of that township under the 47464
population quota restrictions contained in section 4303.29 of the 47465
Revised Code. Any D-1, D-2, D-3, or D-5 permit so issued shall not 47466
be transferred to another location. If a D-5b permit is canceled 47467
under the provisions of this paragraph, the number of D-5b permits 47468
that may be issued at the enclosed shopping center for which the 47469
D-5b permit was issued, under the formula provided in this 47470
division, shall be reduced by one if the enclosed shopping center 47471
was entitled to more than one D-5b permit under the formula.47472

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 47473
forty-four dollars.47474

       (C) Permit D-5c may be issued to the owner or operator of a 47475
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 47476
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 47477
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that qualifies under 47478
the other requirements of this section to sell beer and any 47479
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 47480
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 47481
where sold, and to sell the same products in the same manner and 47482
amounts not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by 47483
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 47484
authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5c permit may 47485
exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.47486

       To qualify for a D-5c permit, the owner or operator of a 47487
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 47488
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 47489
restaurant for purposes of this chapter, shall have operated the 47490
restaurant at the proposed premises for not less than twenty-four 47491
consecutive months immediately preceding the filing of the 47492
application for the permit, have applied for a D-5 permit no later 47493
than December 31, 1988, and appear on the division's quota waiting 47494
list for not less than six months immediately preceding the filing 47495
of the application for the permit. In addition to these 47496
requirements, the proposed D-5c permit premises shall be located 47497
within a municipal corporation and further within an election 47498
precinct that, at the time of the application, has no more than 47499
twenty-five per cent of its total land area zoned for residential 47500
use.47501

       A D-5c permit shall not be transferred to another location. 47502
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits 47503
that may be issued.47504

       Any person who has held a D-5c permit for at least two years 47505
may apply for a D-5 permit, and the division of liquor control 47506
shall issue the D-5 permit notwithstanding the quota restrictions 47507
contained in section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of 47508
the liquor control commission.47509

       The fee for this permit is one thousand five hundred 47510
sixty-three dollars.47511

       (D) Permit D-5d may be issued to the owner or operator of a 47512
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 47513
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 47514
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located at an 47515
airport operated by a board of county commissioners pursuant to 47516
section 307.20 of the Revised Code, at an airport operated by a 47517
port authority pursuant to Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, or 47518
at an airport operated by a regional airport authority pursuant to 47519
Chapter 308. of the Revised Code. The holder of a D-5d permit may 47520
sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the 47521
individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption 47522
on the premises where sold, and may sell the same products in the 47523
same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where 47524
sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In 47525
addition to the privileges authorized in this division, the holder 47526
of a D-5d permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of 47527
a D-5 permit.47528

       A D-5d permit shall not be transferred to another location. 47529
No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of such 47530
permits that may be issued.47531

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 47532
forty-four dollars.47533

       (E) Permit D-5e may be issued to any nonprofit organization 47534
that is exempt from federal income taxation under the "Internal 47535
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(c)(3), as 47536
amended, or that is a charitable organization under any chapter of 47537
the Revised Code, and that owns or operates a riverboat that meets 47538
all of the following:47539

       (1) Is permanently docked at one location;47540

       (2) Is designated as an historical riverboat by the Ohio 47541
historical society;47542

       (3) Contains not less than fifteen hundred square feet of 47543
floor area;47544

       (4) Has a seating capacity of fifty or more persons.47545

       The holder of a D-5e permit may sell beer and intoxicating 47546
liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from 47547
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.47548

       A D-5e permit shall not be transferred to another location. 47549
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits 47550
that may be issued. The population quota restrictions contained in 47551
section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of the liquor 47552
control commission shall not apply to this division, and the 47553
division shall issue a D-5e permit to any applicant who meets the 47554
requirements of this division. However, the division shall not 47555
issue a D-5e permit if the permit premises or proposed permit 47556
premises are located within an area in which the sale of 47557
spirituous liquor by the glass is prohibited.47558

       The fee for this permit is one thousand two hundred nineteen 47559
dollars.47560

       (F) Permit D-5f may be issued to the owner or operator of a 47561
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 47562
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 47563
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the 47564
following:47565

       (1) It contains not less than twenty-five hundred square feet 47566
of floor area.47567

       (2) It is located on or in, or immediately adjacent to, the 47568
shoreline of, a navigable river.47569

       (3) It provides docking space for twenty-five boats.47570

       (4) It provides entertainment and recreation, provided that 47571
not less than fifty per cent of the business on the permit 47572
premises shall be preparing and serving meals for a consideration.47573

       In addition, each application for a D-5f permit shall be 47574
accompanied by a certification from the local legislative 47575
authority that the issuance of the D-5f permit is not inconsistent 47576
with that political subdivision's comprehensive development plan 47577
or other economic development goal as officially established by 47578
the local legislative authority.47579

       The holder of a D-5f permit may sell beer and intoxicating 47580
liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from 47581
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.47582

       A D-5f permit shall not be transferred to another location.47583

       The division of liquor control shall not issue a D-5f permit 47584
if the permit premises or proposed permit premises are located 47585
within an area in which the sale of spirituous liquor by the glass 47586
is prohibited.47587

       A fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 47588
forty-four dollars.47589

       As used in this division, "navigable river" means a river 47590
that is also a "navigable water" as defined in the "Federal Power 47591
Act," 94 Stat. 770 (1980), 16 U.S.C. 796.47592

       (G) Permit D-5g may be issued to a nonprofit corporation that 47593
is either the owner or the operator of a national professional 47594
sports museum. The holder of a D-5g permit may sell beer and any 47595
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 47596
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 47597
where sold. The holder of a D-5g permit shall sell no beer or 47598
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 47599
after onetwo-thirty a.m. A D-5g permit shall not be transferred 47600
to another location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the 47601
number of D-5g permits that may be issued. The fee for this permit 47602
is one thousand eight hundred seventy-five dollars.47603

       (H)(1) Permit D-5h may be issued to any nonprofit 47604
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the 47605
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 47606
501(c)(3), as amended, that owns or operates any of the following:47607

       (a) A fine arts museum, provided that the nonprofit 47608
organization has no less than one thousand five hundred bona fide 47609
members possessing full membership privileges;47610

       (b) A community arts center. As used in division (H)(1)(b) of 47611
this section, "community arts center" means a facility that 47612
provides arts programming to the community in more than one arts 47613
discipline, including, but not limited to, exhibits of works of 47614
art and performances by both professional and amateur artists.47615

       (c) A community theater, provided that the nonprofit 47616
organization is a member of the Ohio arts council and the American 47617
community theatre association and has been in existence for not 47618
less than ten years. As used in division (H)(1)(c) of this 47619
section, "community theater" means a facility that contains at 47620
least one hundred fifty seats and has a primary function of 47621
presenting live theatrical performances and providing recreational 47622
opportunities to the community.47623

        (2) The holder of a D-5h permit may sell beer and any 47624
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 47625
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 47626
where sold. The holder of a D-5h permit shall sell no beer or 47627
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 47628
after one a.m. A D-5h permit shall not be transferred to another 47629
location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 47630
D-5h permits that may be issued.47631

       (3) The fee for a D-5h permit is one thousand eight hundred 47632
seventy-five dollars.47633

       (I) Permit D-5i may be issued to the owner or operator of a 47634
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 47635
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 47636
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the 47637
following requirements:47638

       (1) It is located in a municipal corporation or a township 47639
with a population of one hundred thousand or less.47640

       (2) It has inside seating capacity for at least one hundred 47641
forty persons.47642

       (3) It has at least four thousand square feet of floor area.47643

       (4) It offers full-course meals, appetizers, and sandwiches.47644

       (5) Its receipts from beer and liquor sales, excluding wine 47645
sales, do not exceed twenty-five per cent of its total gross 47646
receipts.47647

       (6) It has at least one of the following characteristics:47648

       (a) The value of its real and personal property exceeds seven 47649
hundred twenty-five thousand dollars.47650

       (b) It is located on property that is owned or leased by the 47651
state or a state agency, and its owner or operator has 47652
authorization from the state or the state agency that owns or 47653
leases the property to obtain a D-5i permit.47654

       The holder of a D-5i permit may sell beer and any 47655
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 47656
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 47657
where sold, and may sell the same products in the same manner and 47658
amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be 47659
sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder of a D-5i 47660
permit shall sell no beer or intoxicating liquor for consumption 47661
on the premises where sold after two-thirty a.m. In addition to 47662
the privileges authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5i 47663
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 47664
permit.47665

       A D-5i permit shall not be transferred to another location. 47666
The division of liquor control shall not renew a D-5i permit 47667
unless the retail food establishment or food service operation for 47668
which it is issued continues to meet the requirements described in 47669
divisions (I)(1) to (6) of this section. No quota restrictions 47670
shall be placed on the number of D-5i permits that may be issued. 47671
The fee for the D-5i permit is two thousand three hundred 47672
forty-four dollars.47673

       (J) Permit D-5j may be issued to the owner or the operator of 47674
a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 47675
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell beer and 47676
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 47677
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 47678
where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in the same 47679
manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold 47680
as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder 47681
of a D-5j permit may exercise the same privileges, and shall 47682
observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 47683
permit.47684

        The D-5j permit shall be issued only within a community 47685
entertainment district that is designated under section 4301.80 of 47686
the Revised Code and that meets one of the following 47687
qualifications:47688

       (1) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 47689
population of at least one hundred thousand.47690

       (2) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 47691
population of at least twenty thousand, and either of the 47692
following applies:47693

       (a) It contains an amusement park the rides of which have 47694
been issued a permit by the department of agriculture under 47695
Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code.47696

       (b) Not less than fifty million dollars will be invested in 47697
development and construction in the community entertainment 47698
district's area located in the municipal corporation.47699

       (3) It is located in a township with a population of at least 47700
forty thousand.47701

       (4) It is located in a township with a population of at least 47702
twenty thousand, and not less than seventy million dollars will be 47703
invested in development and construction in the community 47704
entertainment district's area located in the township.47705

       (5) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 47706
population between ten thousand and twenty thousand, and both of 47707
the following apply:47708

       (a) The municipal corporation was incorporated as a village 47709
prior to calendar year 1840 and currently has a historic downtown 47710
business district.47711

       (b) The municipal corporation is located in the same county 47712
as another municipal corporation with at least one community 47713
entertainment district.47714

       (6) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 47715
population of at least ten thousand, and not less than seventy 47716
million dollars will be invested in development and construction 47717
in the community entertainment district's area located in the 47718
municipal corporation.47719

       (7) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 47720
population of at least five thousand, and not less than one 47721
hundred million dollars will be invested in development and 47722
construction in the community entertainment district's area 47723
located in the municipal corporation.47724

        The location of a D-5j permit may be transferred only within 47725
the geographic boundaries of the community entertainment district 47726
in which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the 47727
geographic boundaries of that district.47728

        Not more than one D-5j permit shall be issued within each 47729
community entertainment district for each five acres of land 47730
located within the district. Not more than fifteen D-5j permits 47731
may be issued within a single community entertainment district. 47732
Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(4) of this section, 47733
no quota restrictions shall be placed upon the number of D-5j 47734
permits that may be issued.47735

        The fee for a D-5j permit is two thousand three hundred 47736
forty-four dollars.47737

       (K)(1) Permit D-5k may be issued to any nonprofit 47738
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the 47739
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 47740
501(c)(3), as amended, that is the owner or operator of a 47741
botanical garden recognized by the American association of 47742
botanical gardens and arboreta, and that has not less than 47743
twenty-five hundred bona fide members.47744

       (2) The holder of a D-5k permit may sell beer and any 47745
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 47746
glass and from the container, on the premises where sold.47747

       (3) The holder of a D-5k permit shall sell no beer or 47748
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 47749
after one a.m.47750

       (4) A D-5k permit shall not be transferred to another 47751
location.47752

       (5) No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 47753
D-5k permits that may be issued.47754

       (6) The fee for the D-5k permit is one thousand eight hundred 47755
seventy-five dollars.47756

       (L)(1) Permit D-5l may be issued to the owner or the operator 47757
of a businessretail food establishment or a food service 47758
operation licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell 47759
beer and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual 47760
drink in glass and from the container, for consumption on the 47761
premises where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in 47762
the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises 47763
where sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. 47764
The holder of a D-5l permit may exercise the same privileges, and 47765
shall observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 47766
permit.47767

       (2) The D-5l permit shall be issued only to a premises that 47768
has gross annual receipts from the sale of food and meals that 47769
constitute not less than seventy-five per cent of its total gross 47770
annual receipts, that is located within a revitalization district 47771
that is designated under section 4301.81 of the Revised Code, that 47772
is located in a municipal corporation or township in which the 47773
number of D-5 permits issued equals or exceeds the number of those 47774
permits that may be issued in that municipal corporation or 47775
township under section 4303.29 of the Revised Code, and that is 47776
located in a county with a population of one hundred twenty-five 47777
thousand or less according to the population estimates certified 47778
by the department of development for calendar year 2006.47779

       (3) The location of a D-5l permit may be transferred only 47780
within the geographic boundaries of the revitalization district in 47781
which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the 47782
geographic boundaries of that district.47783

       (4) Not more than one D-5l permit shall be issued within each 47784
revitalization district for each five acres of land located within 47785
the district. Not more than fifteen D-5l permits may be issued 47786
within a single revitalization district. Except as otherwise 47787
provided in division (L)(4) of this section, no quota restrictions 47788
shall be placed upon the number of D-5l permits that may be 47789
issued.47790

       (5) No D-5l permit shall be issued to an adult entertainment 47791
establishment as defined in section 2907.39 of the Revised Code.47792

       (6) The fee for a D-5l permit is two thousand three hundred 47793
forty-four dollars.47794

       (M) Permit D-5m may be issued to either the owner or the 47795
operator of a retail food establishment or food service operation 47796
licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as 47797
a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located in, 47798
or affiliated with, a center for the preservation of wild animals 47799
as defined in section 4301.404 of the Revised Code, to sell beer 47800
and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the glass and from 47801
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and to 47802
sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for 47803
consumption on the premises as may be sold by the holders of D-1 47804
and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized by this 47805
division, the holder of a D-5m permit may exercise the same 47806
privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.47807

       A D-5m permit shall not be transferred to another location. 47808
No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of D-5m 47809
permits that may be issued. The fee for a permit D-5m is two 47810
thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.47811

       (N) Permit D-5n shall be issued to either a casino operator 47812
or a casino management company licensed under Chapter 3772. of the 47813
Revised Code that operates a casino facility under that chapter, 47814
to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the 47815
individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption 47816
on the premises where sold, and to sell the same products in the 47817
same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises as may 47818
be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the 47819
privileges authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5n 47820
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 47821
permit. A D-5n permit shall not be transferred to another 47822
location. Only one D-5n permit may be issued per casino facility 47823
and not more than four D-5n permits shall be issued in this state. 47824
The fee for a permit D-5n shall be twenty thousand dollars. The 47825
holder of a D-5n permit may conduct casino gaming on the permit 47826
premises notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code or 47827
Administrative Code.47828

       (O) Permit D-5o may be issued to the owner or operator of a 47829
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 47830
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 47831
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located within 47832
a casino facility for which a D-5n permit has been issued. The 47833
holder of a D-5o permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor 47834
at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the 47835
container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and may 47836
sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for 47837
consumption on the premises where sold as may be sold by the 47838
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 47839
authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5o permit may 47840
exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit. A D-5o 47841
permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota 47842
restrictions shall be placed on the number of such permits that 47843
may be issued. The fee for this permit is two thousand three 47844
hundred forty-four dollars.47845

       Sec. 4303.22.  Permit H may be issued for a fee of three 47846
hundred dollars to a for-hire motor carrier by motor vehicle who 47847
also holds a license issued by the public utilities commission to 47848
transport beer, intoxicating liquor, and alcohol, or any of them, 47849
in this state for delivery or use in this state. This section does 47850
not prevent the division of liquor control from contracting with47851
common or contractfor-hire motor carriers for the delivery or 47852
transportation of liquor for the division, and any contract or 47853
commonfor-hire motor carrier so contracting with the division is 47854
eligible for an H permit. Manufacturers or wholesale distributors 47855
of beer or intoxicating liquor other than spirituous liquor who 47856
transport or deliver their own products to or from their premises 47857
licensed under this chapter and Chapter 4301. of the Revised Code 47858
by their own trucks as an incident to the purchase or sale of such 47859
beverages need not obtain an H permit. Carriers by rail shall 47860
receive an H permit upon application for it.47861

       This section does not prevent the division from issuing, upon 47862
the payment of the permit fee, an H permit to any person, 47863
partnership, firm, or corporation licensed by any other state to 47864
engage in the business of manufacturing and brewing or producing 47865
beer, wine, and mixed beverages or any person, partnership, firm, 47866
or corporation licensed by the United States or any other state to 47867
engage in the business of importing beer, wine, and mixed 47868
beverages manufactured outside the United States. The 47869
manufacturer, brewer, or importer of products manufactured outside 47870
the United States, upon the issuance of an H permit, may 47871
transport, ship, and deliver only its own products to holders of 47872
B-1 or B-5 permits in Ohio in motor trucks and equipment owned and 47873
operated by such class H permit holder. No H permit shall be 47874
issued by the division to such applicant until the applicant files 47875
with the division a liability insurance certificate or policy 47876
satisfactory to the division, in a sum of not less than one 47877
thousand nor more than five thousand dollars for property damage 47878
and for not less than five thousand nor more than fifty thousand 47879
dollars for loss sustained by reason of injury or death and with 47880
such other terms as the division considers necessary to adequately 47881
protect the interest of the public, having due regard for the 47882
number of persons and amount of property affected. The certificate 47883
or policy shall insure the manufacturer, brewer, or importer of 47884
products manufactured outside the United States against loss 47885
sustained by reason of the death of or injury to persons, and for 47886
loss of or damage to property, from the negligence of such class H 47887
permit holder in the operation of its motor vehicles or equipment 47888
in this state.47889

       Sec. 4313.02. (A) The state may transfer to JobsOhio, and 47890
JobsOhio may accept the transfer of, all or a portion of the 47891
enterprise acquisition project for a transfer price payable by 47892
JobsOhio to the state. Any such transfer shall be treated as an 47893
absolute conveyance and true sale of the interest in the 47894
enterprise acquisition project purported to be conveyed for all 47895
purposes, and not as a pledge or other security interest. The 47896
characterization of any such transfer as a true sale and absolute 47897
conveyance shall not be negated or adversely affected by the 47898
acquisition or retention by the state of a residual or 47899
reversionary interest in the enterprise acquisition project, the 47900
participation of any state officer or employee as a member or 47901
officer of, or contracting for staff support to, JobsOhio or any 47902
subsidiary of JobsOhio, any regulatory responsibility of an 47903
officer or employee of the state, including the authority to 47904
collect amounts to be received in connection therewith, the 47905
retention of the state of any legal title to or interest in any 47906
portion of the enterprise acquisition project for the purpose of 47907
regulatory activities, or any characterization of JobsOhio or 47908
obligations of JobsOhio under accounting, taxation, or securities 47909
regulations, or any other reason whatsoever. An absolute 47910
conveyance and true sale or lease shall exist under this section 47911
regardless of whether JobsOhio has any recourse against the state 47912
or the treatment or characterization of the transfer as a 47913
financing for any purpose. Upon and following the transfer, the 47914
state shall not have any right, title, or interest in the 47915
enterprise acquisition project so transferred other than any 47916
residual interest that may be described in the transfer agreement 47917
pursuant to the following paragraph and division (D) of this 47918
section. Any determination of the fair market value of the 47919
enterprise acquisition project reflected in the transfer agreement 47920
shall be conclusive and binding on the state and JobsOhio.47921

       Any transfer of the enterprise acquisition project that is a 47922
lease or grant of a franchise shall be for a term not to exceed 47923
twenty-five years. Any transfer of the enterprise acquisition 47924
project that is an assignment and sale, conveyance, or other 47925
transfer shall contain a provision that the state shall have the 47926
option to have conveyed or transferred back to it, at no cost, the 47927
enterprise acquisition project, as it then exists, no later than 47928
twenty-five years after the original transfer authorized in the 47929
transfer agreement on such other terms as shall be provided in the 47930
transfer agreement.47931

       The exercise of the powers granted by this section will be 47932
for the benefit of the people of the state. All or any portion of 47933
the enterprise acquisition project transferred pursuant to the 47934
transfer agreement that would be exempt from real property taxes 47935
or assessments or real property taxes or assessments in the 47936
absence of such transfer shall, as it may from time to time exist 47937
thereafter, remain exempt from real property taxes or assessments 47938
levied by the state and its subdivisions to the same extent as if 47939
not transferred. The gross receipts and income of JobsOhio derived 47940
from the enterprise acquisition project shall be exempt from 47941
taxation levied by the state and its subdivisions, including, but 47942
not limited to, the taxes levied pursuant to Chapters 718., 5739., 47943
5741., 5747., and 5751. of the Revised Code. Any transfer from the 47944
state to JobsOhio of the enterprise acquisition project, or item 47945
included or to be included in the project, shall be exempt from 47946
the taxes levied pursuant to Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the 47947
Revised Code.47948

       (B) The proceeds of any transfer under division (A) of this 47949
section may be expended as provided in the transfer agreement for 47950
any one or more of the following purposes:47951

       (1) Funding, payment, or defeasance of outstanding bonds 47952
issued pursuant to Chapters 151. and 166. of the Revised Code and 47953
secured by pledged liquor profits as defined in section 151.40 of 47954
the Revised Code;47955

       (2) Deposit into the general revenue fund;47956

       (3) Deposit into the clean Ohio revitalization fund created 47957
pursuant to section 122.658 of the Revised Code, the innovation 47958
Ohio loan fund created pursuant to section 166.16 of the Revised 47959
Code, the research and development loan fund created pursuant to 47960
section 166.20 of the Revised Code, the logistics and distribution 47961
infrastructure fund created pursuant to section 166.26 of the 47962
Revised Code, the advanced energy research and development fund 47963
created pursuant to section 3706.27 of the Revised Code, and the 47964
advanced energy research and development taxable fund created 47965
pursuant to section 3706.27 of the Revised Code; 47966

       (4) Conveyance to JobsOhio for the purposes for which it was 47967
created.47968

       (C)(1) The state may covenant, pledge, and agree in the 47969
transfer agreement, with and for the benefit of JobsOhio, that it 47970
shall maintain statutory authority for the enterprise acquisition 47971
project and the revenues of the enterprise acquisition project and 47972
not otherwise materially impair any obligations supported by a 47973
pledge of revenues of the enterprise acquisition project. The 47974
transfer agreement may provide or authorize the manner for 47975
determining material impairment of the security for any such 47976
outstanding obligations, including by assessing and evaluating the 47977
revenues of the enterprise acquisition project.47978

       (2) The director of budget and management, in consultation 47979
with the director of commerce, may, without need for any other 47980
approval, negotiate terms of any documents, including the transfer 47981
agreement, necessary to effect the transfer and the acceptance of 47982
the transfer of the enterprise acquisition project. The director 47983
of budget and management and the director of commerce shall 47984
execute the transfer agreement on behalf of the state. The 47985
director of budget and management may also, without need for any 47986
other approval, retain or contract for the services of commercial 47987
appraisers, underwriters, investment bankers, and financial 47988
advisers, as are necessary in the judgment of the director of 47989
budget and management to effect the transfer agreement. Any 47990
transfer agreement may contain terms and conditions established by 47991
the state to carry out and effectuate the purposes of this 47992
section, including, without limitation, covenants binding the 47993
state in favor of JobsOhio. Any such transfer agreement shall be 47994
sufficient to effectuate the transfer without regard to any other 47995
laws governing other property sales or financial transactions by 47996
the state. The director of budget and management may create any 47997
funds or accounts, within or without the state treasury, as are 47998
needed for the transactions and activities authorized by this 47999
section.48000

       (3) The transfer agreement may authorize JobsOhio, in the 48001
ordinary course of doing business, to convey, lease, release, or 48002
otherwise dispose of any regular inventory or tangible personal 48003
property. Ownership of the interest in the enterprise acquisition 48004
project that is transferred to JobsOhio under this section and the 48005
transfer agreement shall be maintained in JobsOhio or a nonprofit 48006
entity the sole member of which is JobsOhio until the enterprise 48007
acquisition project is transferred back to the state pursuant to 48008
the second paragraph of division (A) and division (D) of this 48009
section.48010

       (D) The transfer agreement may authorize JobsOhio to fix, 48011
alter, and collect rentals and other charges for the use and 48012
occupancy of all or any portion of the enterprise acquisition 48013
project and to lease any portion of the enterprise acquisition 48014
project to the state, and shall include a contract with, or the 48015
granting of an option to, the state to have the enterprise 48016
acquisition project, as it then exists, transferred back to it 48017
without charge in accordance with the terms of the transfer 48018
agreement after retirement or redemption, or provision therefor, 48019
of all obligations supported by a pledge of spirituous liquor 48020
profits.48021

       (E) JobsOhio, the director of budget and management, and the 48022
director of commerce shall, subject to approval by the controlling 48023
board, enter into a contract, which may be part of the transfer 48024
agreement, for the continuing operation by the division of liquor 48025
control of spirituous liquor distribution and merchandising 48026
subject to standards for performance provided in that contract 48027
that may relate to or support division (C)(1) of this section. The 48028
contract shall establish other terms and conditions for the 48029
assignment of duties to, and the provision of advice, services, 48030
and other assistance by, the division of liquor control, including 48031
providing for the necessary staffing and payment by JobsOhio of 48032
appropriate compensation to the division for the performance of 48033
such duties and the provision of such advice, services, and other 48034
assistance. The division of liquor control shall manage and 48035
actively supervise the activities required or authorized under 48036
sections 4301.10 and 4301.17 of the Revised Code as those sections 48037
exist on the effective date of this sectionSeptember 29, 2011, 48038
including, but not limited to, controlling the traffic in 48039
intoxicating liquor in this state and fixing the wholesale and 48040
retail prices at which the various classes, varieties, and brands 48041
of spirituous liquor are sold.48042

       (F) The transfer agreement shall require JobsOhio to pay for 48043
the operations of the division of liquor control with regard to 48044
the spirituous liquor merchandising operations of the division. 48045
The payments from JobsOhio shall be deposited into the state 48046
treasury to the credit of the liquor controloperating services48047
fund created in section 4301.12 of the Revised Code, which is 48048
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall be used to 48049
pay for the operations of the division specified in this division.48050

       (G) The transaction and transfer provided for under this 48051
section shall comply with all applicable provisions of the Ohio 48052
Constitution.48053

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 48054
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 48055
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:48056

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 48057
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 48058
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 48059
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 48060
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 48061
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 48062
a department in the discharge of its functions.48063

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 48064
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 48065
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 48066
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 48067
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, motorized 48068
bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power 48069
cranes, and other equipment used in construction work and not 48070
designed for or employed in general highway transportation, 48071
well-drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, 48072
and trailers that are designed and used exclusively to transport a 48073
boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a 48074
marina, when drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a 48075
distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five 48076
miles per hour or less.48077

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 48078
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 48079
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 48080
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 48081
principally for agricultural purposes.48082

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 48083
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 48084
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 48085
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 48086
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.48087

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 48088
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 48089
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 48090
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.48091

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 48092
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 48093
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 48094
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 48095
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 48096
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 48097
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 48098
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 48099
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 48100
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 48101
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 48102
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 48103
of other states.48104

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 48105
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 48106
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 48107
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 48108
general transportation.48109

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 48110
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 48111
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 48112
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 48113
than engaging in business for profit.48114

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 48115
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 48116
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 48117
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.48118

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 48119
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 48120
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.48121

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a tricycle that 48122
is designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 48123
propelled solely by human power upon which any person may ride, 48124
and that has two tandem wheels, or one wheel in front and two 48125
wheels in the rear, or two wheels in the front and one wheel in 48126
the rear, any of which is more than fourteen inches in diameter.48127

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" means any vehicle that either has two 48128
tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the 48129
rear, that is capable of being pedaled, and that is equipped with 48130
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 48131
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 48132
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 48133
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.48134

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 48135
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 48136
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 48137
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 48138
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 48139
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 48140
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 48141
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 48142
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 48143
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 48144
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 48145
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 48146
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 48147
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 48148
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.48149

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 48150
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 48151
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 48152
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 48153
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 48154
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 48155
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 48156
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 48157
purposes.48158

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 48159
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 48160
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 48161
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 48162
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 48163
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 48164
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 48165
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 48166
Code.48167

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 48168
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 48169
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 48170
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 48171
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 48172
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 48173
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 48174
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 48175
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 48176
a trailer.48177

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 48178
structure that meets all of the following conditions:48179

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 48180
travel.48181

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 48182
for profit.48183

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 48184
commerce.48185

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 48186
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.48187

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 48188
pursuant to Chapter 49194905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised 48189
Code.48190

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:48191

       (a) "Travel trailer" means a nonself-propelled recreational 48192
vehicle that does not exceed an overall length of thirty-five 48193
feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or coupling, and contains 48194
less than three hundred twenty square feet of space when erected 48195
on site. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 48196
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.48197

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 48198
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 48199
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 48200
food, and for sleeping.48201

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 48202
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 48203
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 48204
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 48205
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 48206
a dwelling.48207

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 48208
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 48209
that has a gross trailer area of four hundred square feet or less, 48210
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 48211
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 48212
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 48213
of a truck.48214

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 48215
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 48216
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 48217
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 48218
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 48219
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 48220
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.48221

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 48222
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.48223

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 48224
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 48225
the load.48226

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 48227
with two or more solid tires.48228

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 48229
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 48230
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 48231
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 48232
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 48233
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 48234
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 48235
and vegetable products.48236

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 48237
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 48238
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 48239
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.48240

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 48241
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 48242
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 48243
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 48244
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 48245
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 48246
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 48247
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 48248
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 48249
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 48250
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 48251
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 48252
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 48253
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 48254
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 48255
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 48256
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 48257
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 48258
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 48259
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 48260
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 48261
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 48262
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 48263
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 48264
vehicles.48265

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 48266
motor vehicle upon the public highways.48267

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 48268
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 48269
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 48270
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 48271
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 48272
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 48273
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 48274
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 48275
compensation, or profit.48276

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 48277
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.48278

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 48279
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.48280

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 48281
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 48282
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.48283

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 48284
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 48285
vehicle.48286

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 48287
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 48288
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 48289
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 48290
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 48291
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 48292
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 48293
licensed dealership.48294

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 48295
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 48296
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 48297
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.48298

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 48299
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 48300
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 48301
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 48302
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 48303
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:48304

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 48305
of twenty-six thousand pounds;48306

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 48307
the gross vehicle weight;48308

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 48309
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.48310

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 48311
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 48312
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 48313
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 48314
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.48315

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 48316
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 48317
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 48318
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 48319
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 48320
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 48321
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 48322
left the place of origin.48323

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 48324
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 48325
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 48326
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 48327
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 48328
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 48329
jurisdictions.48330

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 48331
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 48332
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 48333
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.48334

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 48335
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 48336
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 48337
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 48338
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.48339

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 48340
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 48341
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 48342
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 48343
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 48344
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.48345

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 48346
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 48347
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 48348
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 48349
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 48350
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 48351
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 48352
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 48353
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 48354
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 48355
directing.48356

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 48357
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.48358

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 48359
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 48360
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 48361
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 48362
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 48363
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.48364

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 48365
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 48366
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.48367

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 48368
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 48369
an information system or for transmission from one information 48370
system to another.48371

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 48372
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 48373
record.48374

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 48375
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.48376

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 48377
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 48378
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 48379
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 48380
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 48381
vehicle dealer under that section.48382

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 48383
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 48384
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 48385
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 48386
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 48387
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.48388

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 48389
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 48390
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 48391
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 48392
been suspended.48393

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 48394
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 48395
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 48396
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 48397
handling, or similar activities. "Utility vehicle" includes a 48398
vehicle with a maximum attainable speed of twenty miles per hour 48399
or less that is used exclusively within the boundaries of state 48400
parks by state park employees or volunteers for the operation or 48401
maintenance of state park facilities.48402

       Sec. 4501.06.  The taxes, fees, and fines levied, charged, or 48403
referred to in division (O) of section 4503.04, division (E) of 48404
section 4503.042, division (B) of section 4503.07, division (C)(1) 48405
of section 4503.10, division (D) of section 4503.182, division (A) 48406
of section 4503.19, division (D)(2) of section 4507.24, division 48407
(A) of section 4508.06, and sections 4503.40, 4503.42, 4505.11, 48408
4505.111, 4506.08, 4506.09, 4507.23, 4508.05, 4923.12, and 5502.12 48409
of the Revised Code, and the taxes charged in section 4503.65 that 48410
are distributed in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 48411
4501.044 of the Revised Code unless otherwise designated by law, 48412
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 48413
state highway safety fund, which is hereby created, and shall, 48414
after receipt of certifications from the commissioners of the 48415
sinking fund certifying that there are sufficient moneys to the 48416
credit of the highway obligations bond retirement fund created by 48417
section 5528.32 of the Revised Code to meet in full all payments 48418
of interest, principal, and charges for the retirement of highway 48419
obligations issued pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 48420
Constitution, and sections 5528.30 and 5528.31 of the Revised Code 48421
due and payable during the current calendar year, be used for the 48422
purpose of enforcing and paying the expenses of administering the 48423
law relative to the registration and operation of motor vehicles 48424
on the public roads or highways. Amounts credited to the fund may 48425
also be used to pay the expenses of administering and enforcing 48426
the laws under which such fees were collected. All investment 48427
earnings of the state highway safety fund shall be credited to the 48428
fund.48429

       Sec. 4501.271.  (A)(1) A peace officer, correctional 48430
employee, or youth services employee may file a written request 48431
with the bureau of motor vehicles to do either or both of the 48432
following:48433

       (a) Prohibit disclosure of the officer's or employee's 48434
residence address as contained in motor vehicle records of the 48435
bureau;48436

       (b) Provide a business address to be displayed on the 48437
officer's or employee's driver's license or certificate of 48438
registration, or both.48439

       (2) The officer or employee shall file the request described 48440
in division (A)(1) of this section on a form provided by the 48441
registrar of motor vehicles and shall provide any documentary 48442
evidence verifying the person's status as a peace officer, 48443
correctional employee, or youth services employee and the 48444
officer's or employee's business address that the registrar 48445
requires pursuant to division (G) of this section.48446

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, if 48447
a peace officer, correctional employee, or youth services employee 48448
has filed a request under division (A) of this section, neither 48449
the registrar nor an employee or contractor of the bureau of motor 48450
vehicles shall knowingly disclose the residence address of the 48451
officer or employee that the bureau obtained in connection with a 48452
motor vehicle record.48453

       (2) In accordance with section 149.43 of the Revised Code, 48454
the registrar or an employee or contractor of the bureau shall 48455
make available for inspection or copying a motor vehicle record of 48456
a peace officer, correctional employee, or youth services employee 48457
who has filed a request under division (A) of this section if the 48458
record is a public record under that section, but shall obliterate 48459
the residence address of the officer or employee from the record 48460
before making the record available for inspection or copying. The 48461
business address of the officer or employee may be made available 48462
in response to a valid request under section 149.43 of the Revised 48463
Code.48464

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B)(2) of section 4501.27 of the 48465
Revised Code, the registrar or an employee or contractor of the 48466
bureau may disclose the residence address of a peace officer, 48467
correctional employee, or youth services employee who files a 48468
request under division (A) of this section only in accordance with 48469
division (B)(1) of section 4501.27 of the Revised Code or pursuant 48470
to a court order.48471

       (D) If a peace officer, correctional employee, or youth 48472
services employee files a request under division (A)(1)(b) of this 48473
section, the officer shall still provide a residence address in 48474
any application for a driver's license or license renewal and in 48475
any application for a motor vehicle registration or registration 48476
renewal. In accordance with sections 4503.101 and 4507.09 of the 48477
Revised Code, an officer or employee shall notify the registrar of 48478
any change in the officer's or employee's residence within ten 48479
days after the change occurs.48480

       (E) A certificate of registration issued to a peace officer, 48481
correctional employee, or youth services employee who files a 48482
request under division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall display the 48483
business address of the officer. Notwithstanding section 4507.13 48484
of the Revised Code, a driver's license issued to an officer or 48485
employee who files a request under division (A)(1)(b) of this 48486
section shall display the business address of the officer or 48487
employee.48488

       (F) The registrar may utilize the residence address of a 48489
peace officer, correctional employee, or youth services employee 48490
who files a request under division (A)(1)(b) of this section in 48491
carrying out the functions of the bureau of motor vehicles, 48492
including determining the district of registration for any 48493
applicable motor vehicle tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the 48494
Revised Code, determining whether tailpipe emissions inspections 48495
are required, and financial responsibility verification.48496

       (G) The registrar shall adopt rules governing a request for 48497
confidentiality of a peace officer's, correctional employee's, or 48498
youth services employee's residence address or use of a business 48499
address, including the documentary evidence required to verify the 48500
person's status as a peace officer, correctional employee, or 48501
youth services employee, the length of time that the request will 48502
be valid, procedures for ensuring that the bureau of motor 48503
vehicles receives notice of any change in a person's status as a 48504
peace officer, correctional employee, or youth services employee, 48505
and any other procedures the registrar considers necessary. The 48506
rules of the registrar may require an officer or employee to 48507
surrender any certificate of registration and any driver's license 48508
bearing the business address of the officer or employee and, upon 48509
payment of any applicable fees, to receive a certificate of 48510
registration and license bearing the officer's or employee's 48511
residence address, whenever the officer or employee no longer is 48512
associated with that business address.48513

       (H) As used in this section:48514

       (1) "Motor vehicle record" has the same meaning as in section 48515
4501.27 of the Revised Code.48516

       (2) "Peace officer" means those persons described in division 48517
(A)(1), (2), (4), (5), (6), (9), (10), (12), (13), or (15) of 48518
section 109.71 of the Revised Code, an officer, agent, or employee 48519
of the state or any of its agencies, instrumentalities, or 48520
political subdivisions, upon whom, by statute, a duty to conserve 48521
the peace or to enforce all or certain laws is imposed and the 48522
authority to arrest violators is conferred, within the limits of 48523
that statutory duty and authority, an investigator of the bureau 48524
of criminal identification and investigation as defined in section 48525
2903.11 of the Revised Code, the house sergeant at arms appointed 48526
under division (B)(1) of section 101.311 of the Revised Code, and48527
any assistant sergeant at arms appointed under division (C)(1) of 48528
section 101.311 of the Revised Code, the senate sergeant at arms, 48529
and an assistant senate sergeant at arms. "Peace officer" includes 48530
state highway patrol troopers but does not include the sheriff of 48531
a county or a supervisory employee who, in the absence of the 48532
sheriff, is authorized to stand in for, exercise the authority of, 48533
and perform the duties of the sheriff.48534

       (3) "Correctional employee" and "youth services employee" 48535
have the same meanings as in section 149.43 of the Revised Code.48536

       Sec. 4503.031.  (A)(1) If the registrar of motor vehicles48537
determines that space is available at a deputy registrar's office, 48538
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the county where the 48539
deputy is located shall be given the opportunity to use the space 48540
for the purpose of carrying out the clerk's duties related to the 48541
titling of motor vehicles. Each clerk of the court of common pleas 48542
using space in a deputy registrar's office shall remit to the 48543
deputy a rental fee equal to the percentage of space occupied by 48544
the clerk in the deputy's office multiplied by the rental fee or 48545
mortgage cost paid for the entire deputy registrar's office plus a 48546
pro rata share of all utility costs.48547

       (2) If the clerk of the court of common pleas determines that 48548
space is available at any location at which the clerk has an 48549
office, the clerk shall inform the registrar of that fact and 48550
shall provide the registrar with all pertinent information about 48551
the available space. After giving due consideration to the 48552
locations of deputy registrar offices existing in the county in 48553
which the clerk of the court of common pleas is located, the 48554
registrar shall inform the appropriate deputy registrars, if any, 48555
of the available space of the clerk of the court of common pleas. 48556
Each such deputy registrar shall be given the opportunity to use 48557
the space for the purpose of carrying out the deputy registrar's 48558
duties. Each deputy registrar using space in the office of the 48559
clerk of a court of common pleas shall remit to the clerk a rental 48560
fee equal to the percentage of space occupied by the deputy 48561
registrar in the clerk's office multiplied by the rental fee or 48562
mortgage cost, if any, paid for the entire clerk's office plus a 48563
pro rata share of all utility costs.48564

       If no current deputy registrar elects to utilize the 48565
available space of the clerk of the court of common pleas, the 48566
registrar shall inform all persons who express an interest to the 48567
registrar in becoming a deputy registrar in that county of the 48568
available space of the clerk if the space in fact continues to be 48569
available.48570

        (3) A clerk of the court of common pleas and a deputy 48571
registrar may elect to occupy a location at which neither the 48572
clerk nor the deputy currently is an occupant. Any such 48573
arrangement is subject to the approval of the registrar, who shall 48574
give due consideration to all issues and aspects of the proposed 48575
arrangement, including security at the location and service to the 48576
public.48577

       (B) TheWhen possible, as determined by the director of 48578
public safety and the registrar and the superintendent of the 48579
state highway patrol shall cooperate to the fullest extent 48580
possible in locating, a driver's license examination station shall 48581
be located at or near a deputy registrar's office. For each 48582
driver's license examination station located at a deputy 48583
registrar's office, the superintendent of the state highway patrol48584
director shall remit to the deputy a rental fee equal to the 48585
percentage of space occupied for the driver's license examination 48586
station multiplied by the rental fee or mortgage cost paid for the 48587
entire deputy registrar's office plus a pro rata share of all 48588
utility costs.48589

       (C) During the regular business hours of deputy registrars, 48590
the registrar shall keep the central office open and sufficiently 48591
staffed to be able to respond to the technical needs of the 48592
deputies.48593

       (D) The registrar shall adopt rules to promote public 48594
information regarding motor vehicle registration. The rules shall 48595
include:48596

       (1) The operation by the registrar, during the regular 48597
business hours of deputy registrars, of a toll-free telephone 48598
number to give information and receive complaints;48599

       (2) The listing by the registrar, of each deputy registrar, 48600
together with the toll-free telephone number required under 48601
division (D)(1) of this section, in the local business and 48602
advertising telephone directory for the area served by the deputy, 48603
under the heading of the bureau of motor vehicles.48604

       Sec. 4503.061.  (A) All manufactured and mobile homes shall 48605
be listed on either the real property tax list or the manufactured 48606
home tax list of the county in which the home has situs. Each 48607
owner shall follow the procedures in this section to identify the 48608
home to the county auditor of the county containing the taxing 48609
district in which the home has situs so that the auditor may place 48610
the home on the appropriate tax list.48611

       (B) When a manufactured or mobile home first acquires situs 48612
in this state and is subject to real property taxation pursuant to 48613
division (B)(1) or (2) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, the 48614
owner shall present to the auditor of the county containing the 48615
taxing district in which the home has its situs the certificate of 48616
title for the home, together with proof that all taxes due have 48617
been paid and proof that a relocation notice was obtained for the 48618
home if required under this section. Upon receiving the 48619
certificate of title and the required proofs, the auditor shall 48620
place the home on the real property tax list and proceed to treat 48621
the home as other properties on that list. After the auditor has 48622
placed the home on the tax list of real and public utility 48623
property, the auditor shall deliver the certificate of title to 48624
the clerk of the court of common pleas that issued it pursuant to 48625
section 4505.11 of the Revised Code, and the clerk shall 48626
inactivate the certificate of title.48627

       (C)(1) When a manufactured or mobile home subject to a 48628
manufactured home tax is relocated to or first acquires situs in 48629
any county that has adopted a permanent manufactured home 48630
registration system, as provided in division (F) of this section, 48631
the owner, within thirty days after the home is relocated or first 48632
acquires situs under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, shall 48633
register the home with the county auditor of the county containing 48634
the taxing district in which the home has its situs. For the first 48635
registration in each county of situs, the owner or vendee in 48636
possession shall present to the county auditor an Ohio certificate 48637
of title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or 48638
memorandum certificate of title as such are required by law, and 48639
proof, as required by the county auditor, that the home, if it has 48640
previously been occupied and is being relocated, has been 48641
previously registered, that all taxes due and required to be paid 48642
under division (H)(1) of this section before a relocation notice 48643
may be issued have been paid, and that a relocation notice was 48644
obtained for the home if required by division (H) of this section. 48645
If the owner or vendee does not possess the Ohio certificate of 48646
title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or memorandum 48647
certificate of title at the time the owner or vendee first 48648
registers the home in a county, the county auditor shall register 48649
the home without presentation of the document, but the owner or 48650
vendee shall present the certificate of title, certified copy of 48651
the certificate of title, or memorandum certificate of title to 48652
the county auditor within fourteen days after the owner or vendee 48653
obtains possession of the document.48654

       (2) When a manufactured or mobile home is registered for the 48655
first time in a county and when the total tax due has been paid as 48656
required by division (F) of section 4503.06 of the Revised Code or 48657
divisions (E) and (H) of this section, the county treasurer shall 48658
note by writing or by a stamp on the certificate of title, 48659
certified copy of certificate of title, or memorandum certificate 48660
of title that the home has been registered and that the taxes due, 48661
if any, have been paid for the preceding five years and for the 48662
current year. The treasurer shall then issue a certificate 48663
evidencing registration and a decal to be displayed on the street 48664
side of the home. The certificate is valid in any county in this 48665
state during the year for which it is issued.48666

       (3) For each year thereafter, the county treasurer shall 48667
issue a tax bill stating the amount of tax due under section 48668
4503.06 of the Revised Code, as provided in division (D)(6) of 48669
that section. When the total tax due has been paid as required by 48670
division (F) of that section, the county treasurer shall issue a 48671
certificate evidencing registration that shall be valid in any 48672
county in this state during the year for which the certificate is 48673
issued.48674

       (4) The permanent decal issued under this division is valid 48675
during the period of ownership, except that when a manufactured 48676
home is relocated in another county the owner shall apply for a 48677
new registration as required by this section and section 4503.06 48678
of the Revised Code.48679

       (D)(1) All owners of manufactured or mobile homes subject to 48680
the manufactured home tax being relocated to or having situs in a 48681
county that has not adopted a permanent registration system, as 48682
provided in division (F) of this section, shall register the home 48683
within thirty days after the home is relocated or first acquires 48684
situs under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code and thereafter 48685
shall annually register the home with the county auditor of the 48686
county containing the taxing district in which the home has its 48687
situs.48688

       (2) Upon the annual registration, the county treasurer shall 48689
issue a tax bill stating the amount of annual manufactured home 48690
tax due under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, as provided in 48691
division (D)(6) of that section. When a manufactured or mobile 48692
home is registered and when the tax for the current one-half year 48693
has been paid as required by division (F) of that section, the 48694
county treasurer shall issue a certificate evidencing registration 48695
and a decal. The certificate and decal are valid in any county in 48696
this state during the year for which they are issued. The decal 48697
shall be displayed on the street side of the home.48698

       (3) For the first annual registration in each county of 48699
situs, the county auditor shall require the owner or vendee to 48700
present an Ohio certificate of title, certified copy of the 48701
certificate of title, or memorandum certificate of title as such 48702
are required by law, and proof, as required by the county auditor, 48703
that the manufactured or mobile home has been previously 48704
registered, if such registration was required, that all taxes due 48705
and required to be paid under division (H)(1) of this section 48706
before a relocation notice may be issued have been paid, and that 48707
a relocation notice was obtained for the home if required by 48708
division (H) of this section. If the owner or vendee does not 48709
possess the Ohio certificate of title, certified copy of the 48710
certificate of title, or memorandum certificate of title at the 48711
time the owner or vendee first registers the home in a county, the 48712
county auditor shall register the home without presentation of the 48713
document, but the owner or vendee shall present the certificate of 48714
title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or memorandum 48715
certificate of title to the county auditor within fourteen days 48716
after the owner or vendee obtains possession of the document. When 48717
the county treasurer receives the tax payment, the county 48718
treasurer shall note by writing or by a stamp on the certificate 48719
of title, certified copy of the certificate of title, or 48720
memorandum certificate of title that the home has been registered 48721
for the current year and that the manufactured home taxes due, if 48722
any, have been paid for the preceding five years and for the 48723
current year.48724

       (4) For subsequent annual registrations, the auditor may 48725
require the owner or vendee in possession to present an Ohio 48726
certificate of title, certified copy of the certificate of title, 48727
or memorandum certificate of title to the county treasurer upon 48728
payment of the manufactured home tax that is due.48729

       (E)(1) Upon the application to transfer ownership of a 48730
manufactured or mobile home for which manufactured home taxes are 48731
paid pursuant to division (C) of section 4503.06 of the Revised 48732
Code the clerk of the court of common pleas shall not issue any 48733
certificate of title that does not contain or have attached both 48734
of the following:48735

       (a) An endorsement of the county treasurer stating that the 48736
home has been registered for each year of ownership and that all 48737
manufactured home taxes imposed pursuant to section 4503.06 of the 48738
Revised Code have been paid or that no tax is due;48739

       (b) An endorsement of the county auditor that the 48740
manufactured home transfer tax imposed pursuant to section 322.06 48741
of the Revised Code and any fees imposed under division (G) of 48742
section 319.54 of the Revised Code have been paid.48743

       (2) If all the taxes have not been paid, the clerk shall 48744
notify the vendee to contact the county treasurer of the county 48745
containing the taxing district in which the home has its situs at 48746
the time of the proposed transfer. The county treasurer shall then 48747
collect all the taxes that are due for the year of the transfer 48748
and all previous years not exceeding a total of five years. The 48749
county treasurer shall distribute that part of the collection owed 48750
to the county treasurer of other counties if the home had its 48751
situs in another county during a particular year when the unpaid 48752
tax became due and payable. The burden to prove the situs of the 48753
home in the years that the taxes were not paid is on the 48754
transferor of the home. Upon payment of the taxes, the county 48755
auditor shall remove all remaining taxes from the manufactured 48756
home tax list and the delinquent manufactured home tax list, and 48757
the county treasurer shall release all liens for such taxes. The 48758
clerk of courts shall issue a certificate of title, free and clear 48759
of all liens for manufactured home taxes, to the transferee of the 48760
home.48761

       (3) Once the transfer is complete and the certificate of 48762
title has been issued, the transferee shall register the 48763
manufactured or mobile home pursuant to division (C) or (D) of 48764
this section with the county auditor of the county containing the 48765
taxing district in which the home remains after the transfer or, 48766
if the home is relocated to another county, with the county 48767
auditor of the county to which the home is relocated. The 48768
transferee need not pay the annual tax for the year of acquisition 48769
if the original owner has already paid the annual tax for that 48770
year.48771

       (F) The county auditor may adopt a permanent registration 48772
system and issue a permanent decal with the first registration as 48773
prescribed by the tax commissioner.48774

       (G) When any manufactured or mobile home required to be 48775
registered by this section is not registered, the county auditor 48776
shall impose a penalty of one hundred dollars upon the owner and 48777
deposit the amount to the credit of the county real estate 48778
assessment fund to be used to pay the costs of administering this 48779
section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code. If unpaid, the 48780
penalty shall constitute a lien on the home and shall be added by 48781
the county auditor to the manufactured home tax list for 48782
collection.48783

       (H)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, before 48784
moving a manufactured or mobile home on public roads from one 48785
address within this state to another address within or outside 48786
this state, the owner of the home shall obtain a relocation 48787
notice, as provided by this section, from the auditor of the 48788
county in which the home is located if the home is currently 48789
subject to taxation pursuant to section 4503.06 of the Revised 48790
Code. The auditor shall charge five dollars for the notice, and 48791
deposit the amount to the credit of the county real estate 48792
assessment fund to be used to pay the costs of administering this 48793
section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code. The auditor shall 48794
not issue a relocation notice unless all taxes owed on the home 48795
under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code that were first charged 48796
to the home during the period of ownership of the owner seeking 48797
the relocation notice have been paid. If the home is being moved 48798
by a new owner of the home or by a party taking repossession of 48799
the home, the auditor shall not issue a relocation notice unless 48800
all of the taxes due for the preceding five years and for the 48801
current year have been paid. A relocation notice issued by a 48802
county auditor is valid until the last day of December of the year 48803
in which it was issued.48804

       If the home is being moved by a sheriff, police officer, 48805
constable, bailiff, or manufactured home park operator, as defined 48806
in section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code, or any agent of 48807
any of these persons, for purposes of removal from a manufactured 48808
home park and storage, sale, or destruction under section 1923.14 48809
of the Revised Code, the auditor shall issue a relocation notice 48810
without requiring payment of any taxes owed on the home under 48811
section 4503.06 of the Revised Code.48812

       (2) If a manufactured or mobile home is not yet subject to 48813
taxation under section 4503.06 of the Revised Code, the owner of 48814
the home shall obtain a relocation notice from the dealer of the 48815
home. Within thirty days after the manufactured or mobile home is 48816
purchased, the dealer of the home shall provide the auditor of the 48817
county in which the home is to be located written notice of the 48818
name of the purchaser of the home, the registration number or 48819
vehicle identification number of the home, and the address or 48820
location to which the home is to be moved. The county auditor 48821
shall provide to each manufactured and mobile home dealer, without 48822
charge, a supply of relocation notices to be distributed to 48823
purchasers pursuant to this section.48824

       (3) The notice shall be in the form of a one-foot square 48825
yellow sign with the words "manufactured home relocation notice" 48826
printed prominently on it. The name of the owner of the home, the 48827
home's registration number or vehicle identification number, the 48828
county and the address or location to which the home is being 48829
moved, and the county in which the notice is issued shall also be 48830
entered on the notice.48831

       (4) The relocation notice must be attached to the rear of the 48832
home when the home is being moved on a public road. Except as 48833
provided in divisions (H)(1) and (5) of this section, no person 48834
shall drive a motor vehicle moving a manufactured or mobile home 48835
on a public road from one address to another address within this 48836
state unless a relocation notice is attached to the rear of the 48837
home.48838

       (5) If the county auditor determines that a manufactured or 48839
mobile home has been moved without a relocation notice as required 48840
under this division, the auditor shall impose a penalty of one 48841
hundred dollars upon the owner of the home and upon the person who 48842
moved the home and deposit the amount to the credit of the county 48843
real estate assessment fund to pay the costs of administering this 48844
section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code. If the home was 48845
relocated from one county in this state to another county in this 48846
state and the county auditor of the county to which the home was 48847
relocated imposes the penalty, that county auditor, upon 48848
collection of the penalty, shall cause an amount equal to the 48849
penalty to be transmitted from the county real estate assessment 48850
fund to the county auditor of the county from which the home was 48851
relocated, who shall deposit the amount to the credit of the 48852
county real estate assessment fund. If the penalty on the owner is 48853
unpaid, the penalty shall constitute a lien on the home and the 48854
auditor shall add the penalty to the manufactured home tax list 48855
for collection. If the county auditor determines that a dealer 48856
that has sold a manufactured or mobile home has failed to timely 48857
provide the information required under this division, the auditor 48858
shall impose a penalty upon the dealer in the amount of one 48859
hundred dollars. The penalty shall be credited to the county real 48860
estate assessment fund and used to pay the costs of administering 48861
this section and section 4503.06 of the Revised Code.48862

       (I) Whoever violates division (H)(4) of this section is 48863
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.48864

       Sec. 4503.062. (A) Every operator of a manufactured home 48865
court, or manufactured home park, as defined in section 3733.0148866
4781.01 of the Revised Code, or when there is no operator, every 48867
owner of property used for such purposes on which three or more 48868
manufactured or mobile homes are located, shall keep a register of 48869
all manufactured and mobile homes that make use of the court, 48870
park, or property. The register shall contain all of the 48871
following:48872

       (1) The name of the owner and all inhabitants of each home;48873

       (2) The ages of all inhabitants of each home;48874

       (3) The permanent and temporary post office addresses of all 48875
inhabitants of each home;48876

       (4) The license number of each home;48877

       (5) The state issuing each such license;48878

       (6) The date of arrival and of departure of each home;48879

       (7) The make and model of each home, if known and if either 48880
of the following applies:48881

       (a) The home enters the court, park, or property on or after 48882
January 1, 2003.48883

       (b) Ownership of the home in the court or park, or on the 48884
property, is transferred on or after January 1, 2003.48885

       (B) The register shall be open to inspection by the county 48886
auditor, the county treasurer, agents of the auditor or treasurer, 48887
and all law enforcement agencies at all times.48888

       (C) Any person who fails to comply with this section shall be 48889
fined not less than twenty-five nor more than one hundred dollars.48890

       Sec. 4503.49.  (A) As used in this section, "ambulance," 48891
"ambulette," "emergency medical service organization," 48892
"nonemergency medical service organization," and "nontransport 48893
vehicle" have the same meanings as in section 4766.01 of the 48894
Revised Code.48895

       (B) Each private emergency medical service organization and 48896
each private nonemergency medical service organization shall apply 48897
to the registrar of motor vehicles for the registration of any 48898
ambulance, ambulette, or nontransport vehicle it owns or leases. 48899
The application shall be accompanied by a copy of the certificate 48900
of licensure issued to the organization by the Ohiostate board of 48901
emergency medical, fire, and transportation boardservices and the 48902
following fees:48903

       (1) The regular license tax as prescribed under section 48904
4503.04 of the Revised Code;48905

       (2) Any local license tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the 48906
Revised Code;48907

       (3) An additional fee of seven dollars and fifty cents. The 48908
additional fee shall be for the purpose of compensating the bureau 48909
of motor vehicles for additional services required to be performed 48910
under this section and shall be transmitted by the registrar to 48911
the treasurer of state for deposit in the state bureau of motor 48912
vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.48913

       (C) On receipt of a complete application, the registrar shall 48914
issue to the applicant the appropriate certificate of registration 48915
for the vehicle and do one of the following:48916

       (1) Issue a set of license plates with a validation sticker 48917
and a set of stickers to be attached to the plates as an 48918
identification of the vehicle's classification as an ambulance, 48919
ambulette, or nontransport vehicle;48920

       (2) Issue a validation sticker alone when so required by 48921
section 4503.191 of the Revised Code.48922

       Sec. 4503.81.  As used in the bus taxation proration and 48923
reciprocity agreement authorized by section 4503.80 of the Revised 48924
Code, with reference to Ohio, "administrator" means the registrar 48925
of motor vehicles.48926

       The registrar may make such exemptions from the coverage of 48927
the agreement as may be appropriate and may make such changes in 48928
methods for the reporting of any information required to be 48929
furnished to this state pursuant to the agreement as, in histhe 48930
registrar's judgment, are suitable; provided that any such 48931
exemptions or changes shall not be contrary to the purposes set 48932
forth in article I of the agreement and shall be made in order to 48933
permit the continuance of uniformity of practice among the 48934
contracting states with respect to buses. Any such exemption or 48935
change shall be made by rule adopted under Chapter 119. of the 48936
Revised Code. Unless otherwise provided in any statute withdrawing 48937
this state from participation in the agreement, the governor shall 48938
be the officer to give notice of withdrawal therefrom.48939

       The fees referred to in article IV (a) of the agreement shall 48940
include the fees provided in section 4503.04 of the Revised Code 48941
and the annual tax provided in section 4921.184921.19 of the 48942
Revised Code. As to the state of Ohio, article V (d) shall mean 48943
that all fleets not subject to this compact shall continue to 48944
enjoy that reciprocity and those privileges extended by virtue of 48945
other provisions of the Revised Code.48946

       Nothing contained herein shall be construed so as to permit a 48947
fleet which is prorating under the laws of another state to avoid 48948
proration under this compact.48949

       The registrar of motor vehicles shall collect a fee of two 48950
dollars per bus for every bus registered under the provisions of 48951
article IV (a) for administration of the agreement, in addition to 48952
the fees provided in article IV (a).48953

       The registrar of motor vehicles shall assess the operator of 48954
buses registered under the provisions of article IV (a) the actual 48955
cost of histhe registrar's auditing the accuracy of the fees paid 48956
by the operator in accordance with article IV (a).48957

       The registrar of motor vehicles may renounce the 48958
participation of this state in the bus taxation proration and 48959
reciprocity agreement under article VI of section 4503.80 of the 48960
Revised Code, if he findsafter finding that further participation 48961
in the compact is not in the best interests of the state. The 48962
registrar shall set forth histhe registrar's reasons in writing 48963
and serve notice of intention to renounce the compact upon the 48964
owner of each registered fleet. HeThe registrar shall then 48965
certify the renunciation to the governor.48966

       Sec. 4506.01.  As used in this chapter:48967

       (A) "Alcohol concentration" means the concentration of 48968
alcohol in a person's blood, breath, or urine. When expressed as a 48969
percentage, it means grams of alcohol per the following:48970

       (1) One hundred milliliters of whole blood, blood serum, or 48971
blood plasma;48972

       (2) Two hundred ten liters of breath;48973

       (3) One hundred milliliters of urine.48974

       (B) "Commercial driver's license" means a license issued in 48975
accordance with this chapter that authorizes an individual to 48976
drive a commercial motor vehicle.48977

       (C) "Commercial driver's license information system" means 48978
the information system established pursuant to the requirements of 48979
the "Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 48980
3207-171, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 2701.48981

       (D) Except when used in section 4506.25 of the Revised Code, 48982
"commercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle designed or 48983
used to transport persons or property that meets any of the 48984
following qualifications:48985

       (1) Any combination of vehicles with a combined gross vehicle 48986
weight rating of twenty-six thousand one pounds or more, provided 48987
the gross vehicle weight rating of the vehicle or vehicles being 48988
towed is in excess of ten thousand pounds;48989

       (2) Any single vehicle with a gross vehicle weight rating of 48990
twenty-six thousand one pounds or more, or any such vehicle towing 48991
a vehicle having a gross vehicle weight rating that is not in 48992
excess of ten thousand pounds;48993

       (3) Any single vehicle or combination of vehicles that is not 48994
a class A or class B vehicle, but is designed to transport sixteen 48995
or more passengers including the driver;48996

       (4) Any school bus with a gross vehicle weight rating of less 48997
than twenty-six thousand one pounds that is designed to transport 48998
fewer than sixteen passengers including the driver;48999

       (5) Is transporting hazardous materials for which placarding 49000
is required under subpart F of 49 C.F.R. part 172, as amended;49001

       (6) Any single vehicle or combination of vehicles that is 49002
designed to be operated and to travel on a public street or 49003
highway and is considered by the federal motor carrier safety 49004
administration to be a commercial motor vehicle, including, but 49005
not limited to, a motorized crane, a vehicle whose function is to 49006
pump cement, a rig for drilling wells, and a portable crane.49007

       (E) "Controlled substance" means all of the following:49008

       (1) Any substance classified as a controlled substance under 49009
the "Controlled Substances Act," 80 Stat. 1242 (1970), 21 U.S.C.A. 49010
802(6), as amended;49011

       (2) Any substance included in schedules I through V of 21 49012
C.F.R. part 1308, as amended;49013

       (3) Any drug of abuse.49014

       (F) "Conviction" means an unvacated adjudication of guilt or 49015
a determination that a person has violated or failed to comply 49016
with the law in a court of original jurisdiction or an authorized 49017
administrative tribunal, an unvacated forfeiture of bail or 49018
collateral deposited to secure the person's appearance in court, a 49019
plea of guilty or nolo contendere accepted by the court, the 49020
payment of a fine or court cost, or violation of a condition of 49021
release without bail, regardless of whether or not the penalty is 49022
rebated, suspended, or probated.49023

       (G) "Disqualification" means any of the following:49024

       (1) The suspension, revocation, or cancellation of a person's 49025
privileges to operate a commercial motor vehicle;49026

       (2) Any withdrawal of a person's privileges to operate a 49027
commercial motor vehicle as the result of a violation of state or 49028
local law relating to motor vehicle traffic control other than 49029
parking, vehicle weight, or vehicle defect violations;49030

       (3) A determination by the federal motor carrier safety 49031
administration that a person is not qualified to operate a 49032
commercial motor vehicle under 49 C.F.R. 391.49033

       (H) "Downgrade" means any of the following, as applicable:49034

       (1) A change in the commercial driver's license holder's 49035
self-certified status as described in division (A)(2) of section 49036
4506.10 of the Revised Code;49037

       (2) A change to a lesser class of vehicle;49038

       (3) Removal of commercial driver's license privileges from 49039
the individual's driver's license.49040

       (I) "Drive" means to drive, operate, or be in physical 49041
control of a motor vehicle.49042

       (J) "Driver" means any person who drives, operates, or is in 49043
physical control of a commercial motor vehicle or is required to 49044
have a commercial driver's license.49045

       (K) "Driver's license" means a license issued by the bureau 49046
of motor vehicles that authorizes an individual to drive.49047

       (L) "Drug of abuse" means any controlled substance, dangerous 49048
drug as defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, or 49049
over-the-counter medication that, when taken in quantities 49050
exceeding the recommended dosage, can result in impairment of 49051
judgment or reflexes.49052

       (M) "Electronic device" includes a cellular telephone, a 49053
personal digital assistant, a pager, a computer, and any other 49054
device used to input, write, send, receive, or read text.49055

       (N) "Eligible unit of local government" means a village, 49056
township, or county that has a population of not more than three 49057
thousand persons according to the most recent federal census.49058

       (O) "Employer" means any person, including the federal 49059
government, any state, and a political subdivision of any state, 49060
that owns or leases a commercial motor vehicle or assigns a person 49061
to drive such a motor vehicle.49062

       (P) "Endorsement" means an authorization on a person's 49063
commercial driver's license that is required to permit the person 49064
to operate a specified type of commercial motor vehicle.49065

       (Q) "Farm truck" means a truck controlled and operated by a 49066
farmer for use in the transportation to or from a farm, for a 49067
distance of not more than one hundred fifty miles, of products of 49068
the farm, including livestock and its products, poultry and its 49069
products, floricultural and horticultural products, and in the 49070
transportation to the farm, from a distance of not more than one 49071
hundred fifty miles, of supplies for the farm, including tile, 49072
fence, and every other thing or commodity used in agricultural, 49073
floricultural, horticultural, livestock, and poultry production, 49074
and livestock, poultry, and other animals and things used for 49075
breeding, feeding, or other purposes connected with the operation 49076
of the farm, when the truck is operated in accordance with this 49077
division and is not used in the operations of a motor 49078
transportation company or private motor carrier, as defined in 49079
section 4923.01 of the Revised Code.49080

       (R) "Fatality" means the death of a person as the result of a 49081
motor vehicle accident occurring not more than three hundred 49082
sixty-five days prior to the date of death.49083

       (S) "Felony" means any offense under federal or state law 49084
that is punishable by death or specifically classified as a felony 49085
under the law of this state, regardless of the penalty that may be 49086
imposed.49087

       (T) "Foreign jurisdiction" means any jurisdiction other than 49088
a state.49089

       (U) "Gross vehicle weight rating" means the value specified 49090
by the manufacturer as the maximum loaded weight of a single or a 49091
combination vehicle. The gross vehicle weight rating of a 49092
combination vehicle is the gross vehicle weight rating of the 49093
power unit plus the gross vehicle weight rating of each towed 49094
unit.49095

       (V) "Hazardous materials" means any material that has been 49096
designated as hazardous under 49 U.S.C. 5103 and is required to be 49097
placarded under subpart F of 49 C.F.R. part 172 or any quantity of 49098
a material listed as a select agent or toxin in 42 C.F.R. part 73, 49099
as amended.49100

       (W) "Imminent hazard" means the existence of a condition that 49101
presents a substantial likelihood that death, serious illness, 49102
severe personal injury, or a substantial endangerment to health, 49103
property, or the environment may occur before the reasonably 49104
foreseeable completion date of a formal proceeding begun to lessen 49105
the risk of that death, illness, injury, or endangerment.49106

       (X) "Medical variance" means one of the following received by 49107
a driver from the federal motor carrier safety administration that 49108
allows the driver to be issued a medical certificate:49109

       (1) An exemption letter permitting operation of a commercial 49110
motor vehicle under 49 C.F.R. 381, subpart C or 49 C.F.R. 391.64;49111

       (2) A skill performance evaluation certificate permitting 49112
operation of a commercial motor vehicle pursuant to 49 C.F.R. 49113
391.49.49114

       (Y) "Motor vehicle" means a vehicle, machine, tractor, 49115
trailer, or semitrailer propelled or drawn by mechanical power 49116
used on highways, except that such term does not include a 49117
vehicle, machine, tractor, trailer, or semitrailer operated 49118
exclusively on a rail.49119

       (Z) "Out-of-service order" means a declaration by an 49120
authorized enforcement officer of a federal, state, local, 49121
Canadian, or Mexican jurisdiction declaring that a driver, 49122
commercial motor vehicle, or commercial motor carrier operation is 49123
out of service as defined in 49 C.F.R. 390.5.49124

       (AA) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 49125
2935.01 of the Revised Code.49126

       (BB) "Portable tank" means a liquid or gaseous packaging 49127
designed primarily to be loaded onto or temporarily attached to a 49128
vehicle and equipped with skids, mountings, or accessories to 49129
facilitate handling of the tank by mechanical means.49130

       (CC) "Public safety vehicle" has the same meaning as in 49131
divisions (E)(1) and (3) of section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.49132

       (DD) "Recreational vehicle" includes every vehicle that is 49133
defined as a recreational vehicle in section 4501.01 of the 49134
Revised Code and is used exclusively for purposes other than 49135
engaging in business for profit.49136

       (EE) "Residence" means any person's residence determined in 49137
accordance with standards prescribed in rules adopted by the 49138
registrar.49139

       (FF) "School bus" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 49140
of the Revised Code.49141

       (GG) "Serious traffic violation" means any of the following:49142

       (1) A conviction arising from a single charge of operating a 49143
commercial motor vehicle in violation of any provision of section 49144
4506.03 of the Revised Code;49145

       (2) A violation while operating a commercial motor vehicle of 49146
a law of this state, or any municipal ordinance or county or 49147
township resolution prohibiting texting while driving, or any 49148
other substantially similar law of another state or political 49149
subdivision of another state;49150

       (3) A conviction arising from the operation of any motor 49151
vehicle that involves any of the following:49152

       (a) A single charge of any speed in excess of the posted 49153
speed limit by fifteen miles per hour or more;49154

       (b) Violation of section 4511.20 or 4511.201 of the Revised 49155
Code or any similar ordinance or resolution, or of any similar law 49156
of another state or political subdivision of another state;49157

       (c) Violation of a law of this state or an ordinance or 49158
resolution relating to traffic control, other than a parking 49159
violation, or of any similar law of another state or political 49160
subdivision of another state, that results in a fatal accident;49161

       (d) Violation of section 4506.03 of the Revised Code or a 49162
substantially similar municipal ordinance or county or township 49163
resolution, or of any similar law of another state or political 49164
subdivision of another state, that involves the operation of a 49165
commercial motor vehicle without a valid commercial driver's 49166
license with the proper class or endorsement for the specific 49167
vehicle group being operated or for the passengers or type of 49168
cargo being transported;49169

       (e) Violation of section 4506.03 of the Revised Code or a 49170
substantially similar municipal ordinance or county or township 49171
resolution, or of any similar law of another state or political 49172
subdivision of another state, that involves the operation of a 49173
commercial motor vehicle without a valid commercial driver's 49174
license being in the person's possession;49175

       (f) Violation of section 4511.33 or 4511.34 of the Revised 49176
Code, or any municipal ordinance or county or township resolution 49177
substantially similar to either of those sections, or any 49178
substantially similar law of another state or political 49179
subdivision of another state;49180

       (g) Violation of any other law of this state or an ordinance 49181
or resolution relating to traffic control, other than a parking 49182
violation, that is determined to be a serious traffic violation by 49183
the United States secretary of transportation and the director 49184
designates as such by rule.49185

       (HH) "State" means a state of the United States and includes 49186
the District of Columbia.49187

       (II) "Tank vehicle" means any commercial motor vehicle that 49188
is designed to transport any liquid and has a maximum capacity 49189
greater than one hundred nineteen gallons or is designed to 49190
transport gaseous materials and has a water capacity greater than 49191
one thousand pounds within a tank that is either permanently or 49192
temporarily attached to the vehicle or its chassis. "Tank vehicle" 49193
does not include any of the following:49194

       (1) Any portable tank having a rated capacity of less than 49195
one thousand gallons;49196

       (2) Tanks used exclusively as a fuel tank for the motor 49197
vehicle to which it is attached;49198

        (3) An empty storage container tank that is not designed for 49199
transportation and that is readily distinguishable from a 49200
transportation tank;49201

        (4) Ready-mix concrete mixers.49202

       (JJ) "Tester" means a person or entity acting pursuant to a 49203
valid agreement entered into pursuant to division (B) of section 49204
4506.09 of the Revised Code.49205

       (KK) "Texting" means manually entering alphanumeric text 49206
into, or reading text from, an electronic device. Texting includes 49207
short message service, e-mail, instant messaging, a command or 49208
request to access a world wide web page, or engaging in any other 49209
form of electronic text retrieval or entry, for present or future 49210
communication. Texting does not include the following:49211

       (1) Reading, selecting, or entering a telephone number, an 49212
extension number, or voicemail retrieval codes and commands into 49213
an electronic device for the purpose of initiating or receiving a 49214
telephone call or using voice commands to initiate or receive a 49215
telephone call;49216

       (2) Inputting, selecting, or reading information on a global 49217
positioning system or navigation system.49218

       (LL) "Texting while driving" means texting while operating a 49219
commercial motor vehicle, with the motor running, including while 49220
temporarily stationary because of traffic, a traffic control 49221
device, or other momentary delays, but does not include operating 49222
a commercial motor vehicle with or without the motor running when 49223
the driver has moved the vehicle to the side of, or off, a highway 49224
and is stopped in a location where the vehicle can safely remain 49225
stationary.49226

        (MM) "United States" means the fifty states and the District 49227
of Columbia.49228

       (NN) "Upgrade" means a change in the class of vehicles, 49229
endorsements, or self-certified status as described in division 49230
(A)(2) of section 4506.10 of the Revised Code, that expands the 49231
ability of a current commercial driver's license holder to operate 49232
commercial motor vehicles under this chapter;49233

       (OO) "Vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 of 49234
the Revised Code.49235

       Sec. 4506.03.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 49236
(C) of this section, the following shall apply:49237

       (1) No person shall drive a commercial motor vehicle on a 49238
highway in this state unless the person holds, and has in the 49239
person's possession, a valid commercial driver's license with 49240
proper endorsements for the motor vehicle being driven, issued by 49241
the registrar of motor vehicles, a valid examiner's commercial 49242
driving permit issued under section 4506.13 of the Revised Code, a 49243
valid restricted commercial driver's license and waiver for 49244
farm-related service industries issued under section 4506.24 of 49245
the Revised Code, or a valid commercial driver's license temporary 49246
instruction permit issued by the registrar and is accompanied by 49247
an authorized state driver's license examiner or tester or a 49248
person who has been issued and has in the person's immediate 49249
possession a current, valid commercial driver's license with 49250
proper endorsements for the motor vehicle being driven.49251

       (2) No person shall be issued a commercial driver's license 49252
until the person surrenders to the registrar of motor vehicles all 49253
valid licenses issued to the person by another jurisdiction 49254
recognized by this state. The registrar shall report the surrender 49255
of a license to the issuing authority, together with information 49256
that a license is now issued in this state. The registrar shall 49257
destroy any such license that is not returned to the issuing 49258
authority.49259

       (3) No person who has been a resident of this state for 49260
thirty days or longer shall drive a commercial motor vehicle under 49261
the authority of a commercial driver's license issued by another 49262
jurisdiction.49263

       (B) Nothing in division (A) of this section applies to any 49264
qualified person when engaged in the operation of any of the 49265
following:49266

       (1) A farm truck;49267

       (2) Fire equipment for a fire department, volunteer or 49268
nonvolunteer fire company, fire district, or joint fire district;49269

       (3) A public safety vehicle used to provide transportation or 49270
emergency medical service for ill or injured persons;49271

       (4) A recreational vehicle;49272

       (5) A commercial motor vehicle within the boundaries of an 49273
eligible unit of local government, if the person is employed by 49274
the eligible unit of local government and is operating the 49275
commercial motor vehicle for the purpose of removing snow or ice 49276
from a roadway by plowing, sanding, or salting, but only if either 49277
the employee who holds a commercial driver's license issued under 49278
this chapter and ordinarily operates a commercial motor vehicle 49279
for these purposes is unable to operate the vehicle, or the 49280
employing eligible unit of local government determines that a snow 49281
or ice emergency exists that requires additional assistance;49282

       (6) A vehicle operated for military purposes by any member or 49283
uniformed employee of the armed forces of the United States or 49284
their reserve components, including the Ohio national guard. This 49285
exception does not apply to United States reserve technicians.49286

       (7) A commercial motor vehicle that is operated for 49287
nonbusiness purposes. "Operated for nonbusiness purposes" means 49288
that the commercial motor vehicle is not used in commerce as 49289
"commerce" is defined in 49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended, and is not 49290
regulated by the public utilities commission pursuant to Chapter49291
49194905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.49292

       (8) A motor vehicle that is designed primarily for the 49293
transportation of goods and not persons, while that motor vehicle 49294
is being used for the occasional transportation of personal 49295
property by individuals not for compensation and not in the 49296
furtherance of a commercial enterprise;49297

       (9) A police SWAT team vehicle;49298

       (10) A police vehicle used to transport prisoners.49299

       (C) Nothing contained in division (B)(5) of this section 49300
shall be construed as preempting or superseding any law, rule, or 49301
regulation of this state concerning the safe operation of 49302
commercial motor vehicles.49303

       (D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor 49304
of the first degree.49305

       Sec. 4506.22.  (A) The director of public safety and the 49306
registrar of motor vehicles, subject to approval by the director, 49307
may, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, adopt 49308
any rules necessary to carry out this chapter.49309

       (B) The department of public safety may do all of the 49310
following:49311

       (1) Enter into or make any agreements, arrangements, or 49312
declarations necessary to carry out this chapter;49313

       (2) Charge a fee for all publications that is equal to the 49314
cost of printing the publications.49315

       (C) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to restrict 49316
the authority of the public utilities commission specified in 49317
Chapters 4905., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code regarding 49318
safety rules applicable to motor carriers.49319

       Sec. 4506.25.  (A) As used in this section, "commercial motor 49320
vehicle" means any self-propelled or towed vehicle used on public 49321
highways in intrastate or interstate commerce to transport 49322
passengers or property that meets any of the following 49323
specifications:49324

       (1) The vehicle has a gross vehicle weight rating or gross 49325
combination weight rating of ten thousand one pounds or more.49326

       (2) The vehicle is designed to transport sixteen or more 49327
passengers, including the driver.49328

       (3) The vehicle is used in the transportation of hazardous 49329
materials in a quantity requiring placarding under the regulations 49330
issued by the United States secretary of transportation under the 49331
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 Stat. 2156 (1975), 49 49332
U.S.C.A. 1801, as amended.49333

       (B) The registrar of motor vehicles shall disqualify any 49334
person from operating a commercial motor vehicle who receives a 49335
notice of a conviction for violation of an out-of-service order 49336
issued under rules of the public utilities commission adopted 49337
pursuant to section 4919.79, 4921.04Chapter 4905., 4921., or 49338
4923.204923. of the Revised Code, or a conviction for a violation 49339
of the same or similar laws of another state or jurisdiction 49340
applicable to vehicles in regulated commerce.49341

       Sec. 4507.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "motor vehicle," 49342
"motorized bicycle," "state," "owner," "operator," "chauffeur," 49343
and "highways" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the 49344
Revised Code.49345

       "Driver's license" means a class D license issued to any 49346
person to operate a motor vehicle or motor-driven cycle, other 49347
than a commercial motor vehicle, and includes "probationary 49348
license," "restricted license," and any operator's or chauffeur's 49349
license issued before January 1, 1990.49350

       "Probationary license" means the license issued to any person 49351
between sixteen and eighteen years of age to operate a motor 49352
vehicle.49353

       "Restricted license" means the license issued to any person 49354
to operate a motor vehicle subject to conditions or restrictions 49355
imposed by the registrar of motor vehicles.49356

       "Commercial driver's license" means the license issued to a 49357
person under Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code to operate a 49358
commercial motor vehicle.49359

       "Commercial motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 49360
4506.01 of the Revised Code.49361

       "Motorized bicycle license" means the license issued under 49362
section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person to operate a 49363
motorized bicycle including a "probationary motorized bicycle 49364
license."49365

       "Probationary motorized bicycle license" means the license 49366
issued under section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person 49367
between fourteen and sixteen years of age to operate a motorized 49368
bicycle.49369

       "Identification card" means a card issued under sections 49370
4507.50 and 4507.51 of the Revised Code.49371

       "Resident" means a person who, in accordance with standards 49372
prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in this 49373
state on a permanent basis.49374

       "Temporary resident" means a person who, in accordance with 49375
standards prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in 49376
this state on a temporary basis.49377

       (B) In the administration of this chapter and Chapter 4506. 49378
of the Revised Code, the registrar has the same authority as is 49379
conferred on the registrar by section 4501.02 of the Revised Code. 49380
Any act of an authorized deputy registrar of motor vehicles under 49381
direction of the registrar is deemed the act of the registrar.49382

       To carry out this chapter, the registrar shall appoint such 49383
deputy registrars in each county as are necessary.49384

       The registrar also shall provide at each place where an 49385
application for a driver's or commercial driver's license or 49386
identification card may be made the necessary equipment to take a 49387
color photograph of the applicant for such license or card as 49388
required under section 4506.11 or 4507.06 of the Revised Code, and 49389
to conduct the vision screenings required by section 4507.12 of 49390
the Revised Code, and equipment to laminate licenses, motorized 49391
bicycle licenses, and identification cards as required by sections 49392
4507.13, 4507.52, and 4511.521 of the Revised Code.49393

       The registrar shall assign one or more deputy registrars to 49394
any driver's license examining station operated under the 49395
supervision of the state highway patroldirector of public safety, 49396
whenever the registrar considers such assignment possible. Space 49397
shall be provided in the driver's license examining station for 49398
any such deputy registrar so assigned. The deputy registrars shall 49399
not exercise the powers conferred by such sections upon the 49400
registrar, unless they are specifically authorized to exercise 49401
such powers by such sections.49402

       (C) No agent for any insurance company, writing automobile 49403
insurance, shall be appointed deputy registrar, and any such 49404
appointment is void. No deputy registrar shall in any manner 49405
solicit any form of automobile insurance, nor in any manner 49406
advise, suggest, or influence any licensee or applicant for 49407
license for or against any kind or type of automobile insurance, 49408
insurance company, or agent, nor have the deputy registrar's 49409
office directly connected with the office of any automobile 49410
insurance agent, nor impart any information furnished by any 49411
applicant for a license or identification card to any person, 49412
except the registrar. This division shall not apply to any 49413
nonprofit corporation appointed deputy registrar.49414

       (D) The registrar shall immediately remove a deputy registrar 49415
who violates the requirements of this chapter.49416

       (E) The registrar shall periodically solicit bids and enter 49417
into a contract for the provision of laminating equipment and 49418
laminating materials to the registrar and all deputy registrars. 49419
The registrar shall not consider any bid that does not provide for 49420
the supplying of both laminating equipment and laminating 49421
materials. The laminating materials selected shall contain a 49422
security feature so that any tampering with the laminating 49423
material covering a license or identification card is readily 49424
apparent. In soliciting bids and entering into a contract for the 49425
provision of laminating equipment and laminating materials, the 49426
registrar shall observe all procedures required by law.49427

       Sec. 4507.011.  (A) Each deputy registrar assigned to a 49428
driver's license examining station by the registrar of motor 49429
vehicles as provided in section 4507.01 of the Revised Code shall 49430
remit to the superintendentdirector of the state highway patrol49431
public safety a rental fee equal to the percentage of space 49432
occupied by the deputy registrar in the driver's license examining 49433
station multiplied by the rental fee paid for the entire driver's 49434
license examining station plus a pro rata share of all utility 49435
costs. All such moneys received by the superintendentdirector49436
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 49437
registrar rental fund, which is hereby created. The moneys in the 49438
fund shall be used by the state highway patroldepartment of 49439
public safety only to pay the rent and expenses of the driver's 49440
license examining stations. All investment earnings of the fund 49441
shall be credited to the fund.49442

       (B) Each deputy registrar assigned to a bureau of motor 49443
vehicles' location shall reimburse the registrar a monthly 49444
building rental fee, including applicable utility charges. All 49445
such moneys received by the registrar shall be deposited into the 49446
state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of 49447
the Revised Code. 49448

       Sec. 4507.12.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of 49449
section 4507.10 of the Revised Code, each person applying for the 49450
renewal of a driver's license shall submit to a screening of the 49451
person's vision before the license may be renewed. The vision 49452
screening shall be conducted at the office of the deputy registrar 49453
receiving the application for license renewal.49454

       (B) When the results of a vision screening given under 49455
division (A) of this section indicate that the vision of the 49456
person examined meets the standards required for licensing, the 49457
deputy registrar may renew the person's driver's license at that 49458
time.49459

       (C) When the results of a vision screening given under 49460
division (A) of this section indicate that the vision of the 49461
person screened may not meet the standards required for licensing, 49462
the deputy registrar shall not renew the person's driver's license 49463
at that time but shall refer the person to a driver's license 49464
examiner appointed by the superintendentdirector of the state 49465
highway patrolpublic safety under section 5503.215502.05 of the 49466
Revised Code for a further examination of the person's vision. 49467
When a person referred to a driver's license examiner by a deputy 49468
registrar does not meet the vision standards required for 49469
licensing, the driver's license examiner shall retain the person's 49470
operator's or chauffeur's license and shall immediately notify the 49471
registrar of motor vehicles of that fact. No driver's license 49472
shall be issued to any such person, until the person's vision is 49473
corrected to meet the standards required for licensing and the 49474
person passes the vision screening required by this section. Any 49475
person who operates a motor vehicle on a highway, or on any public 49476
or private property used by the public for purposes of vehicular 49477
travel or parking, during the time the person's driver's license 49478
is held by a driver's license examiner under this division, shall 49479
be deemed to be operating a motor vehicle in violation of division 49480
(A) of section 4510.12 of the Revised Code.49481

       (D) The registrar shall adopt rules and shall provide any 49482
forms necessary to properly conduct vision screenings at the 49483
office of a deputy registrar.49484

       (E) No person conducting vision screenings under this section 49485
shall be personally liable for damages for injury or loss to 49486
persons or property and for death caused by the operation of a 49487
motor vehicle by any person whose driver's license was renewed by 49488
the deputy registrar under division (B) of this section.49489

       Sec. 4507.51.  (A)(1) Every application for an identification 49490
card or duplicate shall be made on a form furnished by the 49491
registrar of motor vehicles, shall be signed by the applicant, and 49492
by the applicant's parent or guardian if the applicant is under 49493
eighteen years of age, and shall contain the following information 49494
pertaining to the applicant: name, date of birth, sex, general 49495
description including the applicant's height, weight, hair color, 49496
and eye color, address, and social security number. The 49497
application also shall state whether an applicant wishes to 49498
certify willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 49499
2108.05 of the Revised Code and shall include information about 49500
the requirements of sections 2108.01 to 2108.29 of the Revised 49501
Code that apply to persons who are less than eighteen years of 49502
age. The statement regarding willingness to make such a donation 49503
shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether to 49504
issue an identification card. Each applicant shall be photographed 49505
in color at the time of making application. 49506

       (2)(a) The application also shall state whether the applicant 49507
has executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 49508
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 49509
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 49510
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 49511
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 49512
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 49513
applicant wishes the identification card issued to indicate that 49514
the applicant has executed the instrument. 49515

       (b) On and after October 7, 2009, the application also shall 49516
state whether the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or 49517
reservist of the armed forces of the United States and, if the 49518
applicant is such, whether the applicant wishes the identification 49519
card issued to indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active 49520
duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the United States by a 49521
military designation on the identification card. 49522

       (3) The registrar or deputy registrar, in accordance with 49523
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 49524
any person who applies for an identification card or duplicate if 49525
the applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an 49526
elector. The decision of an applicant whether to register as an 49527
elector shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether 49528
to issue the applicant an identification card or duplicate. 49529

       (B) The application for an identification card or duplicate 49530
shall be filed in the office of the registrar or deputy registrar. 49531
Each applicant shall present documentary evidence as required by 49532
the registrar of the applicant's age and identity, and the 49533
applicant shall swear that all information given is true. An 49534
identification card issued by the department of rehabilitation and 49535
correction under section 5120.59 of the Revised Code or an 49536
identification card issued by the department of youth services 49537
under section 5139.511 of the Revised Code shall be sufficient 49538
documentary evidence under this division upon verification of the 49539
applicant's social security number by the registrar or a deputy 49540
registrar. Upon issuing an identification card under this section 49541
for a person who has been issued an identification card under 49542
section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the Revised Code, the 49543
registrar or deputy registrar shall destroy the identification 49544
card issued under section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the 49545
Revised Code. 49546

       All applications for an identification card or duplicate 49547
shall be filed in duplicate, and if submitted to a deputy 49548
registrar, a copy shall be forwarded to the registrar. The 49549
registrar shall prescribe rules for the manner in which a deputy 49550
registrar is to file and maintain applications and other records. 49551
The registrar shall maintain a suitable, indexed record of all 49552
applications denied and cards issued or canceled. 49553

       (C) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 49554
after the date that is fifteen months after the effective date of 49555
this amendmentApril 7, 2009, the form furnished by the registrar 49556
of motor vehicles for an application for an identification card or 49557
duplicate shall inform applicants that the applicant must present 49558
a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in 49559
order to qualify to have the card or duplicate indicate that the 49560
applicant is an honorably discharged veteran of the armed forces 49561
of the United States based on a request made pursuant to division 49562
(A)(2)(b) of this section. 49563

       Sec. 4508.02.  (A)(1) The director of public safety, subject 49564
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt and prescribe 49565
such rules concerning the administration and enforcement of this 49566
chapter as are necessary to protect the public. The director shall 49567
inspect the school facilities and equipment of applicants and 49568
licensees and examine applicants for instructor's licenses.49569

       (2) The director shall adopt rules governing online driver 49570
education courses that may be completed via the internet to 49571
satisfy the classroom instruction under division (C) of this 49572
section. The rules shall do all of the following:49573

       (a) Establish standards that an online driver training 49574
enterprise must satisfy to be licensed to offer an online driver 49575
education course via the internet, including, at a minimum, proven 49576
expertise in providing driver education and an acceptable 49577
infrastructure capable of providing secure online driver education 49578
in accord with advances in internet technology. The rules shall 49579
allow an online driver training enterprise to be affiliated with a 49580
licensed driver training school offering in-person classroom 49581
instruction, but shall not require such an affiliation.49582

        (b) Establish content requirements that an online driver 49583
education course must satisfy to be approved as equivalent to 49584
twenty-four hours of in-person classroom instruction;49585

        (c) Establish attendance standards, including a maximum 49586
number of course hours that may be completed in a twenty-four-hour 49587
period;49588

       (d) Allow an enrolled applicant to begin the required eight 49589
hours of actual behind-the-wheel instruction upon completing at 49590
least two hours of course instruction and being issued a 49591
certificate of enrollment by a licensed online driver training 49592
enterprise;49593

        (e) Establish any other requirements necessary to regulate 49594
online driver education.49595

       (B) The director shall administer and enforce this chapter.49596

       (C) The rules shall require twenty-four hours of in-person49597
classroom instruction or completion of an approved, equivalent 49598
online driver education course offered via the internet by a 49599
licensed online driver training enterprise, and eight hours of 49600
actual behind-the-wheel instruction conducted on public streets 49601
and highways of this state for all beginning drivers of 49602
noncommercial motor vehicles who are under age eighteen.49603

       (D) The rules shall state the minimum hours for classroom and 49604
behind-the-wheel instruction required for beginning drivers of 49605
commercial trucks, commercial cars, buses, and commercial 49606
tractors, trailers, and semi-trailerssemitrailers.49607

       (E)(1) The department of public safety may charge a fee to 49608
each online driver training enterprise in an amount sufficient to 49609
pay the actual expenses the department incurs in the regulation of 49610
online driver education courses.49611

        (2) The department shall supply to each licensed online 49612
driver training enterprise certificates to be used for certifying 49613
an applicant's enrollment in an approved online driver education 49614
course and a separate certificate to be issued upon successful 49615
completion of an approved online driver education course. The 49616
certificates shall be numbered serially. The department may charge 49617
a fee to each online driver training enterprise per certificate 49618
supplied to pay the actual expenses the department incurs in 49619
supplying the certificates.49620

       Sec. 4510.037.  (A) When the registrar of motor vehicles 49621
determines that the total points charged against any person under 49622
section 4510.036 of the Revised Code exceed five, the registrar 49623
shall send a warning letter to the person at the person's last 49624
known address by regular mail. The warning letter shall list the 49625
reported violations that are the basis of the points charged, list 49626
the number of points charged for each violation, and outline the 49627
suspension provisions of this section.49628

       (B) When the registrar determines that the total points 49629
charged against any person under section 4510.036 of the Revised 49630
Code within any two-year period beginning on the date of the first 49631
conviction within the two-year period is equal to twelve or more, 49632
the registrar shall send a written notice to the person at the 49633
person's last known address by regular mail. The notice shall list 49634
the reported violations that are the basis of the points charged, 49635
list the number of points charged for each violation, and state 49636
that, because the total number of points charged against the 49637
person within the applicable two-year period is equal to twelve or 49638
more, the registrar is imposing a class D suspension of the 49639
person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 49640
nonresident operating privileges for the period of time specified 49641
in division (B)(4) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The 49642
notice also shall state that the suspension is effective on the 49643
twentieth day after the mailing of the notice, unless the person 49644
files a petition appealing the determination and suspension in the 49645
municipal court, county court, or, if the person is under the age 49646
of eighteen, the juvenile division of the court of common pleas in 49647
whose jurisdiction the person resides or, if the person is not a 49648
resident of this state, in the Franklin county municipal court or 49649
juvenile division of the Franklin county court of common pleas. By 49650
filing the appeal of the determination and suspension, the person 49651
agrees to pay the cost of the proceedings in the appeal of the 49652
determination and suspension and alleges that the person can show 49653
cause why the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 49654
permit or nonresident operating privileges should not be 49655
suspended.49656

       (C)(1) Any person against whom at least two but less than 49657
twelve points have been charged under section 4510.036 of the 49658
Revised Code may enroll in a course of remedial driving 49659
instruction that is approved by the director of public safety. 49660
Upon the person's completion of an approved course of remedial 49661
driving instruction, the person may apply to the registrar on a 49662
form prescribed by the registrar for a credit of two points on the 49663
person's driving record. Upon receipt of the application and proof 49664
of completion of the approved remedial driving course, the 49665
registrar shall approve the two-point credit. The registrar shall 49666
not approve any credits for a person who completes an approved 49667
course of remedial driving instruction pursuant to a judge's order 49668
under section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.49669

       (2) In any three-year period, the registrar shall approve 49670
only one two-point credit on a person's driving record under 49671
division (C)(1) of this section. The registrar shall approve not 49672
more than five two-point credits on a person's driving record 49673
under division (C)(1) of this section during that person's 49674
lifetime.49675

       (D) When a judge of a court of record suspends a person's 49676
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident 49677
operating privilege and charges points against the person under 49678
section 4510.036 of the Revised Code for the offense that resulted 49679
in the suspension, the registrar shall credit that period of 49680
suspension against the time of any subsequent suspension imposed 49681
under this section for which those points were used to impose the 49682
subsequent suspension. When a United States district court that 49683
has jurisdiction within this state suspends a person's driver's or 49684
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 49685
privileges pursuant to the "Assimilative Crimes Act," 102 Stat. 49686
4381 (1988), 18 U.S.C.A. 13, as amended, the district court 49687
prepares an abstract pursuant to section 4510.031 of the Revised 49688
Code, and the district court charges points against the person 49689
under section 4510.036 of the Revised Code for the offense that 49690
resulted in the suspension, the registrar shall credit the period 49691
of suspension imposed by the district court against the time of 49692
any subsequent suspension imposed under this section for which the 49693
points were used to impose the subsequent suspension.49694

       (E) The registrar, upon the written request of a licensee who 49695
files a petition under division (B) of this section, shall furnish 49696
the licensee a certified copy of the registrar's record of the 49697
convictions and bond forfeitures of the person. This record shall 49698
include the name, address, and date of birth of the licensee; the 49699
name of the court in which each conviction or bail forfeiture took 49700
place; the nature of the offense that was the basis of the 49701
conviction or bond forfeiture; and any other information that the 49702
registrar considers necessary. If the record indicates that twelve 49703
points or more have been charged against the person within a 49704
two-year period, it is prima-facie evidence that the person is a 49705
repeat traffic offender, and the registrar shall suspend the 49706
person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 49707
nonresident operating privilege pursuant to division (B) of this 49708
section.49709

       In hearing the petition and determining whether the person 49710
filing the petition has shown cause why the person's driver's or 49711
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 49712
privilege should not be suspended, the court shall decide the 49713
issue on the record certified by the registrar and any additional 49714
relevant, competent, and material evidence that either the 49715
registrar or the person whose license is sought to be suspended 49716
submits.49717

       (F) If a petition is filed under division (B) of this section 49718
in a county court, the prosecuting attorney of the county in which 49719
the case is pending shall represent the registrar in the 49720
proceedings, except that, if the petitioner resides in a municipal 49721
corporation within the jurisdiction of the county court, the city 49722
director of law, village solicitor, or other chief legal officer 49723
of the municipal corporation shall represent the registrar in the 49724
proceedings. If a petition is filed under division (B) of this 49725
section in a municipal court, the registrar shall be represented 49726
in the resulting proceedings as provided in section 1901.34 of the 49727
Revised Code.49728

       (G) If the court determines from the evidence submitted that 49729
a person who filed a petition under division (B) of this section 49730
has failed to show cause why the person's driver's or commercial 49731
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privileges 49732
should not be suspended, the court shall assess against the person 49733
the cost of the proceedings in the appeal of the determination and 49734
suspension and shall impose the applicable suspension under this 49735
section or suspend all or a portion of the suspension and impose 49736
any conditions upon the person that the court considers proper or 49737
impose upon the person a community control sanction pursuant to 49738
section 2929.15 or 2929.25 of the Revised Code. If the court 49739
determines from the evidence submitted that a person who filed a 49740
petition under division (B) of this section has shown cause why 49741
the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 49742
nonresident operating privileges should not be suspended, the 49743
costs of the appeal proceeding shall be paid out of the county 49744
treasury of the county in which the proceedings were held.49745

       (H) Any person whose driver's or commercial driver's license 49746
or permit or nonresident operating privileges are suspended under 49747
this section is not entitled to apply for or receive a new 49748
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or to request or 49749
be granted nonresident operating privileges during the effective 49750
period of the suspension.49751

       (I) Upon the termination of any suspension or other penalty 49752
imposed under this section involving the surrender of license or 49753
permit and upon the request of the person whose license or permit 49754
was suspended or surrendered, the registrar shall return the 49755
license or permit to the person upon determining that the person 49756
has complied with all provisions of section 4510.038 of the 49757
Revised Code or, if the registrar destroyed the license or permit 49758
pursuant to section 4510.52 of the Revised Code, shall reissue the 49759
person's license or permit.49760

       (J) Any person whose driver's or commercial driver's license 49761
or permit or nonresident operating privileges are suspended as a 49762
repeat traffic offender under this section and who, during the 49763
suspension, operates any motor vehicle upon any public roads and 49764
highways is guilty of driving under a twelve-point suspension, a 49765
misdemeanor of the first degree. The court shall sentence the 49766
offender to a minimum term of three days in jail. No court shall 49767
suspend the first three days of jail time imposed pursuant to this 49768
division.49769

       (K) The registrar, in accordance with specific statutory 49770
authority, may suspend the privilege of driving a motor vehicle on 49771
the public roads and highways of this state that is granted to 49772
nonresidents by section 4507.04 of the Revised Code.49773

       (L) Any(1) Except as provided in division (L)(2) of this 49774
section, any course of remedial driving instruction the director 49775
of public safety approves under this section shall require its 49776
students to attend at least fifty per cent of the course in 49777
person. Theand the director shall not approve any course of 49778
remedial driving instruction that permits its students to take 49779
more than fifty per cent of the course in any other manner, 49780
including via video teleconferencing or the internet.49781

       (2) The director may approve a course of remedial instruction 49782
that permits students to take the entire course via video 49783
teleconferencing or the internet. In accordance with division (C) 49784
of this section, upon receiving an application with a certificate 49785
or other proof of completion of a course approved under this 49786
division, the registrar shall approve the two-point reduction.49787

       Sec. 4510.038. (A) Any person whose driver's or commercial 49788
driver's license or permit is suspended or who is granted limited 49789
driving privileges under section 4510.037, under division (H) of 49790
section 4511.19, or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 49791
a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially 49792
equivalent to division (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 49793
is not eligible to retain the license, or to have the driving 49794
privileges reinstated, until each of the following has occurred:49795

       (1) The person successfully completes a course of remedial 49796
driving instruction approved by the director of public safety. A 49797
minimum of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of 49798
instruction included in the course shall be devoted to instruction 49799
on driver attitude.49800

       The course also shall devote a number of hours to instruction 49801
in the area of alcohol and drugs and the operation of vehicles. 49802
The instruction shall include, but not be limited to, a review of 49803
the laws governing the operation of a vehicle while under the 49804
influence of alcohol, drugs, or a combination of them, the dangers 49805
of operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, 49806
drugs, or a combination of them, and other information relating to 49807
the operation of vehicles and the consumption of alcoholic 49808
beverages and use of drugs. The director, in consultation with the 49809
director of alcohol and drug addiction services, shall prescribe 49810
the content of the instruction. The number of hours devoted to the 49811
area of alcohol and drugs and the operation of vehicles shall 49812
comprise a minimum of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours 49813
of instruction included in the course.49814

       (2) The person is examined in the manner provided for in 49815
section 4507.20 of the Revised Code, and found by the registrar of 49816
motor vehicles to be qualified to operate a motor vehicle;49817

       (3) The person gives and maintains proof of financial 49818
responsibility, in accordance with section 4509.45 of the Revised 49819
Code.49820

       (B) Any(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this 49821
section, any course of remedial driving instruction the director 49822
of public safety approves under this section shall require its 49823
students to attend at least fifty per cent of the course in 49824
person. Theand the director shall not approve any course of 49825
remedial driving instruction that permits its students to take 49826
more than fifty per cent of the course in any other manner, 49827
including via video teleconferencing or the internet.49828

       (2) The director may approve a course of remedial instruction 49829
that permits students to take the entire course via video 49830
teleconferencing or the internet.49831

       Sec. 4511.191.  (A)(1) As used in this section:49832

        (a) "Physical control" has the same meaning as in section 49833
4511.194 of the Revised Code.49834

       (b) "Alcohol monitoring device" means any device that 49835
provides for continuous alcohol monitoring, any ignition interlock 49836
device, any immobilizing or disabling device other than an 49837
ignition interlock device that is constantly available to monitor 49838
the concentration of alcohol in a person's system, or any other 49839
device that provides for the automatic testing and periodic 49840
reporting of alcohol consumption by a person and that a court 49841
orders a person to use as a sanction imposed as a result of the 49842
person's conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense.49843

       (2) Any person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or 49844
trackless trolley upon a highway or any public or private property 49845
used by the public for vehicular travel or parking within this 49846
state or who is in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 49847
trackless trolley shall be deemed to have given consent to a 49848
chemical test or tests of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 49849
plasma, breath, or urine to determine the alcohol, drug of abuse, 49850
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 49851
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 49852
plasma, breath, or urine if arrested for a violation of division 49853
(A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 49854
4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent 49855
municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance.49856

       (3) The chemical test or tests under division (A)(2) of this 49857
section shall be administered at the request of a law enforcement 49858
officer having reasonable grounds to believe the person was 49859
operating or in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 49860
trackless trolley in violation of a division, section, or 49861
ordinance identified in division (A)(2) of this section. The law 49862
enforcement agency by which the officer is employed shall 49863
designate which of the tests shall be administered.49864

       (4) Any person who is dead or unconscious, or who otherwise 49865
is in a condition rendering the person incapable of refusal, shall 49866
be deemed to have consented as provided in division (A)(2) of this 49867
section, and the test or tests may be administered, subject to 49868
sections 313.12 to 313.16 of the Revised Code.49869

       (5)(a) If a law enforcement officer arrests a person for a 49870
violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 49871
Code, section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially 49872
equivalent municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance and 49873
if the person if convicted would be required to be sentenced under 49874
division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 49875
Code, the law enforcement officer shall request the person to 49876
submit, and the person shall submit, to a chemical test or tests 49877
of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or 49878
urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug of abuse, 49879
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 49880
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 49881
plasma, breath, or urine. A law enforcement officer who makes a 49882
request pursuant to this division that a person submit to a 49883
chemical test or tests is not required to advise the person of the 49884
consequences of submitting to, or refusing to submit to, the test 49885
or tests and is not required to give the person the form described 49886
in division (B) of section 4511.192 of the Revised Code, but the 49887
officer shall advise the person at the time of the arrest that if 49888
the person refuses to take a chemical test the officer may employ 49889
whatever reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person 49890
submits to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood 49891
serum or plasma. The officer shall also advise the person at the 49892
time of the arrest that the person may have an independent 49893
chemical test taken at the person's own expense. Divisions (A)(3) 49894
and (4) of this section apply to the administration of a chemical 49895
test or tests pursuant to this division.49896

       (b) If a person refuses to submit to a chemical test upon a 49897
request made pursuant to division (A)(5)(a) of this section, the 49898
law enforcement officer who made the request may employ whatever 49899
reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person submits 49900
to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood serum or 49901
plasma. A law enforcement officer who acts pursuant to this 49902
division to ensure that a person submits to a chemical test of the 49903
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma is immune from 49904
criminal and civil liability based upon a claim for assault and 49905
battery or any other claim for the acts, unless the officer so 49906
acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or 49907
reckless manner.49908

       (B)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement 49909
officer who arrested a person for a violation of division (A) or 49910
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 4511.194 of 49911
the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 49912
ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and 49913
sent to the registrar of motor vehicles and a court pursuant to 49914
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code in regard to a person who 49915
refused to take the designated chemical test, the registrar shall 49916
enter into the registrar's records the fact that the person's 49917
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident 49918
operating privilege was suspended by the arresting officer under 49919
this division and that section and the period of the suspension, 49920
as determined under this section. The suspension shall be subject 49921
to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the Revised Code. The 49922
suspension shall be for whichever of the following periods 49923
applies:49924

       (a) Except when division (B)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 49925
section applies and specifies a different class or length of 49926
suspension, the suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 49927
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 49928
the Revised Code.49929

       (b) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 49930
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 49931
test, had refused one previous request to consent to a chemical 49932
test or had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation 49933
of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 49934
one other equivalent offense, the suspension shall be a class B 49935
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 49936
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.49937

       (c) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 49938
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 49939
test, had refused two previous requests to consent to a chemical 49940
test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of 49941
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 49942
other equivalent offenses, or had refused one previous request to 49943
consent to a chemical test and also had been convicted of or 49944
pleaded guilty to one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 49945
4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, which 49946
violation or offense arose from an incident other than the 49947
incident that led to the refusal, the suspension shall be a class 49948
A suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 49949
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.49950

       (d) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 49951
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 49952
test, had refused three or more previous requests to consent to a 49953
chemical test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 49954
more violations of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 49955
Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, or had refused a number 49956
of previous requests to consent to a chemical test and also had 49957
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a number of violations of 49958
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 49959
other equivalent offenses that cumulatively total three or more 49960
such refusals, convictions, and guilty pleas, the suspension shall 49961
be for five years.49962

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 49963
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 49964
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 49965
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 49966
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 49967
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 49968
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 49969
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 49970
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 49971
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 49972
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.49973

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 49974
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 49975
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 49976
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 49977
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 49978
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 49979
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.49980

       (C)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of the law 49981
enforcement officer who arrested a person for a violation of 49982
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 49983
municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and sent to the 49984
registrar and a court pursuant to section 4511.192 of the Revised 49985
Code in regard to a person whose test results indicate that the 49986
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine 49987
contained at least the concentration of alcohol specified in 49988
division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the 49989
Revised Code or at least the concentration of a listed controlled 49990
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance 49991
specified in division (A)(1)(j) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 49992
Code, the registrar shall enter into the registrar's records the 49993
fact that the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 49994
permit or nonresident operating privilege was suspended by the 49995
arresting officer under this division and section 4511.192 of the 49996
Revised Code and the period of the suspension, as determined under 49997
divisions (C)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. The suspension shall 49998
be subject to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the 49999
Revised Code. The suspension described in this division does not 50000
apply to, and shall not be imposed upon, a person arrested for a 50001
violation of section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a 50002
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance who submits to a 50003
designated chemical test. The suspension shall be for whichever of 50004
the following periods applies:50005

       (a) Except when division (C)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 50006
section applies and specifies a different period, the suspension 50007
shall be a class E suspension imposed for the period of time 50008
specified in division (B)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised 50009
Code.50010

       (b) The suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 50011
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 50012
the Revised Code if the person has been convicted of or pleaded 50013
guilty to, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 50014
one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 50015
Revised Code or one other equivalent offense.50016

       (c) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 50017
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 50018
violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 50019
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class B 50020
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 50021
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.50022

       (d) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 50023
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than 50024
two violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 50025
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class A 50026
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 50027
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.50028

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 50029
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 50030
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 50031
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 50032
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 50033
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 50034
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 50035
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 50036
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 50037
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 50038
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.50039

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 50040
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 50041
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 50042
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 50043
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 50044
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 50045
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section.50046

       (D)(1) A suspension of a person's driver's or commercial 50047
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege 50048
under this section for the time described in division (B) or (C) 50049
of this section is effective immediately from the time at which 50050
the arresting officer serves the notice of suspension upon the 50051
arrested person. Any subsequent finding that the person is not 50052
guilty of the charge that resulted in the person being requested 50053
to take the chemical test or tests under division (A) of this 50054
section does not affect the suspension.50055

       (2) If a person is arrested for operating a vehicle, 50056
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of division (A) or 50057
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal OVI 50058
ordinance, or for being in physical control of a vehicle, 50059
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of section 4511.194 50060
of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 50061
ordinance, regardless of whether the person's driver's or 50062
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 50063
privilege is or is not suspended under division (B) or (C) of this 50064
section or Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, the person's initial 50065
appearance on the charge resulting from the arrest shall be held 50066
within five days of the person's arrest or the issuance of the 50067
citation to the person, subject to any continuance granted by the 50068
court pursuant to section 4511.197 of the Revised Code regarding 50069
the issues specified in that division.50070

       (E) When it finally has been determined under the procedures 50071
of this section and sections 4511.192 to 4511.197 of the Revised 50072
Code that a nonresident's privilege to operate a vehicle within 50073
this state has been suspended, the registrar shall give 50074
information in writing of the action taken to the motor vehicle 50075
administrator of the state of the person's residence and of any 50076
state in which the person has a license.50077

       (F) At the end of a suspension period under this section, 50078
under section 4511.194, section 4511.196, or division (G) of 50079
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, or under section 4510.07 of 50080
the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance and 50081
upon the request of the person whose driver's or commercial 50082
driver's license or permit was suspended and who is not otherwise 50083
subject to suspension, cancellation, or disqualification, the 50084
registrar shall return the driver's or commercial driver's license 50085
or permit to the person upon the occurrence of all of the 50086
conditions specified in divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section:50087

       (1) A showing that the person has proof of financial 50088
responsibility, a policy of liability insurance in effect that 50089
meets the minimum standards set forth in section 4509.51 of the 50090
Revised Code, or proof, to the satisfaction of the registrar, that 50091
the person is able to respond in damages in an amount at least 50092
equal to the minimum amounts specified in section 4509.51 of the 50093
Revised Code.50094

       (2) Subject to the limitation contained in division (F)(3) of 50095
this section, payment by the person to the registrar or an 50096
eligible deputy registrar of a license reinstatement fee of four 50097
hundred seventy-five dollars, which fee shall be deposited in the 50098
state treasury and credited as follows:50099

       (a) One hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents shall be 50100
credited to the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 50101
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund 50102
under this section shall be used for purposes identified in the 50103
comprehensive statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan 50104
developed under section 3793.04 of the Revised Code. 50105

       (b) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the reparations 50106
fund created by section 2743.191 of the Revised Code.50107

       (c) Thirty-seven dollars and fifty cents shall be credited to 50108
the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, which is hereby 50109
established in the state treasury. Except as otherwise provided in 50110
division (F)(2)(c) of this section, moneys in the fund shall be 50111
distributed by the department of alcohol and drug addiction 50112
services to the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, 50113
the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, and 50114
the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds that are 50115
required to be established by counties and municipal corporations 50116
pursuant to division (H) of this section, and shall be used only 50117
to pay the cost of an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program 50118
attended by an offender or juvenile traffic offender who is 50119
ordered to attend an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program 50120
by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and who is 50121
determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court judge not 50122
to have the means to pay for the person's attendance at the 50123
program or to pay the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this 50124
section in accordance with that division. In addition, a county, 50125
juvenile, or municipal court judge may use moneys in the county 50126
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent 50127
drivers alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers 50128
alcohol treatment fund to pay for the cost of the continued use of 50129
an alcohol monitoring device as described in divisions (H)(3) and 50130
(4) of this section. Moneys in the fund that are not distributed 50131
to a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county 50132
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal 50133
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under division (H) of this 50134
section because the director of alcohol and drug addiction 50135
services does not have the information necessary to identify the 50136
county or municipal corporation where the offender or juvenile 50137
offender was arrested may be transferred by the director of budget 50138
and management to the statewide treatment and prevention fund 50139
created by section 4301.30 of the Revised Code, upon certification 50140
of the amount by the director of alcohol and drug addiction 50141
services.50142

       (d) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the Ohio 50143
rehabilitation services commission established by section 3304.12 50144
of the Revised Code, to the services for rehabilitation fund, 50145
which is hereby established. The fund shall be used to match 50146
available federal matching funds where appropriate, and for any 50147
other purpose or program of the commission to rehabilitate people 50148
with disabilities to help them become employed and independent.50149

       (e) Seventy-five dollars shall be deposited into the state 50150
treasury and credited to the drug abuse resistance education 50151
programs fund, which is hereby established, to be used by the 50152
attorney general for the purposes specified in division (F)(4) of 50153
this section.50154

       (f) Thirty dollars shall be credited to the state bureau of 50155
motor vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised 50156
Code.50157

       (g) Twenty dollars shall be credited to the trauma and 50158
emergency medical services grants fund created by section 4513.263 50159
of the Revised Code.50160

       (h) Fifty dollars shall be credited to the indigent drivers 50161
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, which is hereby established 50162
in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall be distributed by 50163
the department of public safety to the county indigent drivers 50164
interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, the county juvenile 50165
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, and the 50166
municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds 50167
that are required to be established by counties and municipal 50168
corporations pursuant to this section, and shall be used only to 50169
pay the cost of an immobilizing or disabling device, including a 50170
certified ignition interlock device, or an alcohol monitoring 50171
device used by an offender or juvenile offender who is ordered to 50172
use the device by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and 50173
who is determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court 50174
judge not to have the means to pay for the person's use of the 50175
device.50176

       (3) If a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 50177
permit is suspended under this section, under section 4511.196 or 50178
division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, under section 50179
4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI 50180
ordinance or under any combination of the suspensions described in 50181
division (F)(3) of this section, and if the suspensions arise from 50182
a single incident or a single set of facts and circumstances, the 50183
person is liable for payment of, and shall be required to pay to 50184
the registrar or an eligible deputy registrar, only one 50185
reinstatement fee of four hundred seventy-five dollars. The 50186
reinstatement fee shall be distributed by the bureau in accordance 50187
with division (F)(2) of this section.50188

       (4) The attorney general shall use amounts in the drug abuse 50189
resistance education programs fund to award grants to law 50190
enforcement agencies to establish and implement drug abuse 50191
resistance education programs in public schools. Grants awarded to 50192
a law enforcement agency under this section shall be used by the 50193
agency to pay for not more than fifty per cent of the amount of 50194
the salaries of law enforcement officers who conduct drug abuse 50195
resistance education programs in public schools. The attorney 50196
general shall not use more than six per cent of the amounts the 50197
attorney general's office receives under division (F)(2)(e) of 50198
this section to pay the costs it incurs in administering the grant 50199
program established by division (F)(2)(e) of this section and in 50200
providing training and materials relating to drug abuse resistance 50201
education programs.50202

       The attorney general shall report to the governor and the 50203
general assembly each fiscal year on the progress made in 50204
establishing and implementing drug abuse resistance education 50205
programs. These reports shall include an evaluation of the 50206
effectiveness of these programs.50207

       (5) In addition to the reinstatement fee under this section, 50208
if the person pays the reinstatement fee to a deputy registrar, 50209
the deputy registrar shall collect a service fee of ten dollars to 50210
compensate the deputy registrar for services performed under this 50211
section. The deputy registrar shall retain eight dollars of the 50212
service fee and shall transmit the reinstatement fee, plus two 50213
dollars of the service fee, to the registrar in the manner the 50214
registrar shall determine.50215

       (G) Suspension of a commercial driver's license under 50216
division (B) or (C) of this section shall be concurrent with any 50217
period of disqualification under section 3123.611 or 4506.16 of 50218
the Revised Code or any period of suspension under section 3123.58 50219
of the Revised Code. No person who is disqualified for life from 50220
holding a commercial driver's license under section 4506.16 of the 50221
Revised Code shall be issued a driver's license under Chapter 50222
4507. of the Revised Code during the period for which the 50223
commercial driver's license was suspended under division (B) or 50224
(C) of this section. No person whose commercial driver's license 50225
is suspended under division (B) or (C) of this section shall be 50226
issued a driver's license under Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code 50227
during the period of the suspension.50228

       (H)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 50229
alcohol treatment fund, each county shall establish a juvenile 50230
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 50231
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 50232
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. All revenue that the 50233
general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers alcohol 50234
treatment fund for transfer to a county indigent drivers alcohol 50235
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 50236
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 50237
fund, all portions of fees that are paid under division (F) of 50238
this section and that are credited under that division to the 50239
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the state treasury for 50240
a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county 50241
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal 50242
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, all portions of 50243
additional costs imposed under section 2949.094 of the Revised 50244
Code that are specified for deposit into a county, county 50245
juvenile, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund by 50246
that section, and all portions of fines that are specified for 50247
deposit into a county or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 50248
treatment fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code shall be 50249
deposited into that county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 50250
fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or 50251
municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. The portions of 50252
the fees paid under division (F) of this section that are to be so 50253
deposited shall be determined in accordance with division (H)(2) 50254
of this section. Additionally, all portions of fines that are paid 50255
for a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or of any 50256
prohibition contained in Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, and 50257
that are required under section 4511.19 or any provision of 50258
Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code to be deposited into a county 50259
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund or municipal indigent 50260
drivers alcohol treatment fund shall be deposited into the 50261
appropriate fund in accordance with the applicable division of the 50262
section or provision.50263

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 50264
paid under division (F) of this section and that is credited under 50265
that division to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund shall 50266
be deposited into a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 50267
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, 50268
or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund as follows:50269

       (a) Regarding a suspension imposed under this section, that 50270
portion of the fee shall be deposited as follows:50271

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 50272
county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or 50273
in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 50274
deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund 50275
under the control of that court;50276

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 50277
juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 50278
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 50279
deposited into the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 50280
treatment fund established in the county served by the court;50281

       (iii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 50282
municipal court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 50283
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 50284
deposited into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 50285
fund under the control of that court.50286

       (b) Regarding a suspension imposed under section 4511.19 of 50287
the Revised Code or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 50288
a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, that portion of the fee 50289
shall be deposited as follows:50290

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 50291
was suspended by a county court, the portion shall be deposited 50292
into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the 50293
control of that court;50294

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 50295
was suspended by a municipal court, the portion shall be deposited 50296
into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under 50297
the control of that court.50298

       (3) Expenditures from a county indigent drivers alcohol 50299
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 50300
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 50301
fund shall be made only upon the order of a county, juvenile, or 50302
municipal court judge and only for payment of the cost of an 50303
assessment or the cost of the attendance at an alcohol and drug 50304
addiction treatment program of a person who is convicted of, or 50305
found to be a juvenile traffic offender by reason of, a violation 50306
of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 50307
substantially similar municipal ordinance, who is ordered by the 50308
court to attend the alcohol and drug addiction treatment program, 50309
and who is determined by the court to be unable to pay the cost of 50310
the assessment or the cost of attendance at the treatment program 50311
or for payment of the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this 50312
section in accordance with that division. The alcohol and drug 50313
addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 50314
and mental health services established pursuant to section 340.02 50315
or 340.021 of the Revised Code and serving the alcohol, drug 50316
addiction, and mental health service district in which the court 50317
is located shall administer the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 50318
program of the court. When a court orders an offender or juvenile 50319
traffic offender to obtain an assessment or attend an alcohol and 50320
drug addiction treatment program, the board shall determine which 50321
program is suitable to meet the needs of the offender or juvenile 50322
traffic offender, and when a suitable program is located and space 50323
is available at the program, the offender or juvenile traffic 50324
offender shall attend the program designated by the board. A 50325
reasonable amount not to exceed five per cent of the amounts 50326
credited to and deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol 50327
treatment fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 50328
treatment fund, or the municipal indigent drivers alcohol 50329
treatment fund serving every court whose program is administered 50330
by that board shall be paid to the board to cover the costs it 50331
incurs in administering those indigent drivers alcohol treatment 50332
programs.50333

       In addition, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent 50334
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an 50335
alcohol monitoring device, a county, juvenile, or municipal court 50336
judge may use moneys in the county indigent drivers alcohol 50337
treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment 50338
fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the 50339
following manners:50340

       (a) If the source of the moneys was an appropriation of the 50341
general assembly, a portion of a fee that was paid under division 50342
(F) of this section, a portion of a fine that was specified for 50343
deposit into the fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code, or 50344
a portion of a fine that was paid for a violation of section 50345
4511.19 of the Revised Code or of a provision contained in Chapter 50346
4510. of the Revised Code that was required to be deposited into 50347
the fund, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol monitoring 50348
device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender, in conjunction 50349
with a treatment program approved by the department of alcohol and 50350
drug addiction services, when such use is determined clinically 50351
necessary by the treatment program and when the court determines 50352
that the offender or juvenile traffic offender is unable to pay 50353
all or part of the daily monitoring or cost of the device;50354

       (b) If the source of the moneys was a portion of an 50355
additional court cost imposed under section 2949.094 of the 50356
Revised Code, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol 50357
monitoring device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender when 50358
the court determines that the offender or juvenile traffic 50359
offender is unable to pay all or part of the daily monitoring or 50360
cost of the device. The moneys may be used for a device as 50361
described in this division if the use of the device is in 50362
conjunction with a treatment program approved by the department of 50363
alcohol and drug addiction services, when the use of the device is 50364
determined clinically necessary by the treatment program, but the 50365
use of a device is not required to be in conjunction with a 50366
treatment program approved by the department in order for the 50367
moneys to be used for the device as described in this division.50368

       (4) If a county, juvenile, or municipal court determines, in 50369
consultation with the alcohol and drug addiction services board or 50370
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 50371
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 50372
Code and serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 50373
district in which the court is located, that the funds in the 50374
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the county 50375
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or the municipal 50376
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of the 50377
court are more than sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which 50378
the fund was established, as specified in divisions (H)(1) to (3) 50379
of this section, the court may declare a surplus in the fund. If 50380
the court declares a surplus in the fund, the court may expend the 50381
amount of the surplus in the fund for:50382

       (a) Alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment of 50383
persons who are charged in the court with committing a criminal 50384
offense or with being a delinquent child or juvenile traffic 50385
offender and in relation to whom both of the following apply:50386

       (i) The court determines that substance abuse was a 50387
contributing factor leading to the criminal or delinquent activity 50388
or the juvenile traffic offense with which the person is charged.50389

       (ii) The court determines that the person is unable to pay 50390
the cost of the alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment 50391
for which the surplus money will be used.50392

       (b) All or part of the cost of purchasing alcohol monitoring 50393
devices to be used in conjunction with division (H)(3) of this 50394
section, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent drivers 50395
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an alcohol 50396
monitoring device.50397

       (5) For the purpose of determining as described in division 50398
(F)(2)(c) of this section whether an offender does not have the 50399
means to pay for the offender's attendance at an alcohol and drug 50400
addiction treatment program or whether an alleged offender or 50401
delinquent child is unable to pay the costs specified in division 50402
(H)(4) of this section, the court shall use the indigent client 50403
eligibility guidelines and the standards of indigency established 50404
by the state public defender to make the determination.50405

       (6) The court shall identify and refer any alcohol and drug 50406
addiction program that is not certified under section 3793.06 of 50407
the Revised Code and that is interested in receiving amounts from 50408
the surplus in the fund declared under division (H)(4) of this 50409
section to the department of alcohol and drug addiction services 50410
in order for the program to become a certified alcohol and drug 50411
addiction program. The department shall keep a record of applicant 50412
referrals received pursuant to this division and shall submit a 50413
report on the referrals each year to the general assembly. If a 50414
program interested in becoming certified makes an application to 50415
become certified pursuant to section 3793.06 of the Revised Code, 50416
the program is eligible to receive surplus funds as long as the 50417
application is pending with the department. The department of 50418
alcohol and drug addiction services must offer technical 50419
assistance to the applicant. If the interested program withdraws 50420
the certification application, the department must notify the 50421
court, and the court shall not provide the interested program with 50422
any further surplus funds.50423

       (7)(a) Each alcohol and drug addiction services board and 50424
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 50425
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 50426
Code shall submit to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 50427
services an annual report for each indigent drivers alcohol 50428
treatment fund in that board's area. 50429

       (b) The report, which shall be submitted not later than sixty 50430
days after the end of the state fiscal year, shall provide the 50431
total payment that was made from the fund, including the number of 50432
indigent consumers that received treatment services and the number 50433
of indigent consumers that received an alcohol monitoring device. 50434
The report shall identify the treatment program and expenditure 50435
for an alcohol monitoring device for which that payment was made. 50436
The report shall include the fiscal year balance of each indigent 50437
drivers alcohol treatment fund located in that board's area. In 50438
the event that a surplus is declared in the fund pursuant to 50439
division (H)(4) of this section, the report also shall provide the 50440
total payment that was made from the surplus moneys and identify 50441
the treatment program and expenditure for an alcohol monitoring 50442
device for which that payment was made. The department may require 50443
additional information necessary to complete the comprehensive 50444
statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan as required by 50445
section 3793.04 of the Revised Code.50446

       (c) If a board is unable to obtain adequate information to 50447
develop the report to submit to the department for a particular 50448
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the board shall submit a 50449
report detailing the effort made in obtaining the information.50450

       (I)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 50451
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund and a juvenile indigent 50452
drivers interlock and alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 50453
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 50454
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund. All 50455
revenue that the general assembly appropriates to the indigent 50456
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for transfer to a 50457
county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, a 50458
county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 50459
fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 50460
monitoring fund, all portions of license reinstatement fees that 50461
are paid under division (F)(2) of this section and that are 50462
credited under that division to the indigent drivers interlock and 50463
alcohol monitoring fund in the state treasury, and all portions of 50464
fines that are paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the 50465
Revised Code and that are credited by division (G)(5)(e) of that 50466
section to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 50467
fund in the state treasury shall be deposited in the appropriate 50468
fund in accordance with division (I)(2) of this section.50469

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 50470
paid under division (F) of this section and that portion of the 50471
fine paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 50472
Code and that is credited under either division to the indigent 50473
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund shall be deposited 50474
into a county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 50475
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 50476
monitoring fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and 50477
alcohol monitoring fund as follows:50478

       (a) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 50479
a county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 50480
or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county indigent 50481
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the control of 50482
that court.50483

       (b) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 50484
a juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the 50485
suspension or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county 50486
juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund 50487
established in the county served by the court.50488

       (c) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 50489
a municipal court with the violation that resulted in the 50490
suspension, the portion shall be deposited into the municipal 50491
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the 50492
control of that court.50493

       Sec. 4511.78.  (A) As used in this section:50494

       (1) "Mass transit system" means any county transit system, 50495
regional transit authority, regional transit commission, 50496
municipally owned transportation system, mass transit company 50497
operating exclusively within the territorial limits of a municipal 50498
corporation, or within such limits and the territorial limits of 50499
municipal corporations immediately contiguous to such municipal 50500
corporation, and any common passenger carrier certified by the 50501
public utilities commission, that provides transportation for 50502
children to or from a school session or a school function.50503

       (2) "Bus" means every motor vehicle designed for carrying 50504
more than nine passengers and used for the transportation of 50505
persons, but does not mean any school bus as defined in section 50506
4511.01 of the Revised Code.50507

       (B) Whenever a mass transit system transports children to or 50508
from a school session or school function, the mass transit system 50509
shall provide for:50510

       (1) Periodic safety inspections of all buses used to provide 50511
transportation service. The inspections shall be based on rules 50512
adopted by the public utilities commission under Chapters 4921. 50513
and 4923. of the Revised Code to ensure the safety of operation of50514
motor transportation companies and private motor carriers.50515

       (2) The safety training of all drivers operating buses used 50516
to provide transportation service;50517

       (3) The equipping of every bus with outside rear-view mirrors 50518
meeting the motor carrier regulations for bus equipment adopted by 50519
the federal highway administration. No exclusions from this 50520
requirement granted under the federal regulations shall be 50521
considered exclusions for the purposes of this division.50522

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever 50523
violates this section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. If, within 50524
one year of the offense, the offender previously has been 50525
convicted of or pleaded guilty to one predicate motor vehicle or 50526
traffic offense, whoever violates this section is guilty of a 50527
misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If, within one year of the 50528
offense, the offender previously has been convicted of two or more 50529
predicate motor vehicle or traffic offenses, whoever violates this 50530
section is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.50531

       Sec. 4511.98. The director of transportation may establish 50532
speed limits within construction zones that vary based on the type 50533
of work being conducted, the time of day, or any other criteria 50534
the director may consider appropriate. The director, board of 50535
county commissioners, or board of township trustees shall cause 50536
signs to be erected advising motorists that increased penalties 50537
apply for certain traffic violations occurring on streets or 50538
highways in a construction zone. The increased penalties shall be 50539
effective only when signs are erected in accordance with the 50540
guidelines and design specifications established by the director 50541
under section 5501.27 of the Revised Code, and when a violation 50542
occurs during hours of actual work within the construction zone.50543

       Sec. 4513.18.  (A) The director of transportation shall adopt 50544
standards and specifications applicable to headlights, clearance 50545
lights, identification, and other lights, on snow removal 50546
equipment when operated on the highways, and on vehicles operating 50547
under special permits pursuant to section 4513.34 of the Revised 50548
Code, in lieu of the lights otherwise required on motor vehicles. 50549
Such standards and specifications may permit the use of flashing 50550
colored lights, other than blue or red in color, for purposes of 50551
identification on snow removal equipment, and oversize vehicles 50552
when in service upon the highways. The standards and 50553
specifications for lights referred to in this section shall 50554
correlate with and, so far as possible, conform with those 50555
approved by the American association of state highway officials.50556

       It is unlawful to operate snow removal equipment on a highway 50557
unless the lights thereon comply with and are lighted when and as 50558
required by the standards and specifications adopted as provided 50559
in this section.50560

       (B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a minor 50561
misdemeanor.50562

       Sec. 4513.263.  (A) As used in this section and in section 50563
4513.99 of the Revised Code:50564

       (1) "Automobile" means any commercial tractor, passenger car, 50565
commercial car, or truck that is required to be factory-equipped 50566
with an occupant restraining device for the operator or any 50567
passenger by regulations adopted by the United States secretary of 50568
transportation pursuant to the "National Traffic and Motor Vehicle 50569
Safety Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 719, 15 U.S.C.A. 1392.50570

       (2) "Occupant restraining device" means a seat safety belt, 50571
shoulder belt, harness, or other safety device for restraining a 50572
person who is an operator of or passenger in an automobile and 50573
that satisfies the minimum federal vehicle safety standards 50574
established by the United States department of transportation.50575

       (3) "Passenger" means any person in an automobile, other than 50576
its operator, who is occupying a seating position for which an 50577
occupant restraining device is provided.50578

       (4) "Commercial tractor," "passenger car," and "commercial 50579
car" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the Revised 50580
Code.50581

       (5) "Vehicle" and "motor vehicle," as used in the definitions 50582
of the terms set forth in division (A)(4) of this section, have 50583
the same meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.50584

       (6) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 50585
injury, death, or loss to person or property. "Tort action" 50586
includes a product liability claim, as defined in section 2307.71 50587
of the Revised Code, and an asbestos claim, as defined in section 50588
2307.91 of the Revised Code, but does not include a civil action 50589
for damages for breach of contract or another agreement between 50590
persons.50591

       (B) No person shall do any of the following:50592

       (1) Operate an automobile on any street or highway unless 50593
that person is wearing all of the available elements of a properly 50594
adjusted occupant restraining device, or operate a school bus that 50595
has an occupant restraining device installed for use in its 50596
operator's seat unless that person is wearing all of the available 50597
elements of the device, as properly adjusted;50598

       (2) Operate an automobile on any street or highway unless 50599
each passenger in the automobile who is subject to the requirement 50600
set forth in division (B)(3) of this section is wearing all of the 50601
available elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining 50602
device;50603

       (3) Occupy, as a passenger, a seating position on the front 50604
seat of an automobile being operated on any street or highway 50605
unless that person is wearing all of the available elements of a 50606
properly adjusted occupant restraining device;50607

       (4) Operate a taxicab on any street or highway unless all 50608
factory-equipped occupant restraining devices in the taxicab are 50609
maintained in usable form.50610

       (C) Division (B)(3) of this section does not apply to a 50611
person who is required by section 4511.81 of the Revised Code to 50612
be secured in a child restraint device or booster seat. Division 50613
(B)(1) of this section does not apply to a person who is an 50614
employee of the United States postal service or of a newspaper 50615
home delivery service, during any period in which the person is 50616
engaged in the operation of an automobile to deliver mail or 50617
newspapers to addressees. Divisions (B)(1) and (3) of this section 50618
do not apply to a person who has an affidavit signed by a 50619
physician licensed to practice in this state under Chapter 4731. 50620
of the Revised Code or a chiropractor licensed to practice in this 50621
state under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code that states that the 50622
person has a physical impairment that makes use of an occupant 50623
restraining device impossible or impractical.50624

       (D) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, no 50625
law enforcement officer shall cause an operator of an automobile 50626
being operated on any street or highway to stop the automobile for 50627
the sole purpose of determining whether a violation of division 50628
(B) of this section has been or is being committed or for the sole 50629
purpose of issuing a ticket, citation, or summons for a violation 50630
of that nature or causing the arrest of or commencing a 50631
prosecution of a person for a violation of that nature, and no law 50632
enforcement officer shall view the interior or visually inspect 50633
any automobile being operated on any street or highway for the 50634
sole purpose of determining whether a violation of that nature has 50635
been or is being committed.50636

       (E) All fines collected for violations of division (B) of 50637
this section, or for violations of any ordinance or resolution of 50638
a political subdivision that is substantively comparable to that 50639
division, shall be forwarded to the treasurer of state for deposit 50640
as follows:50641

       (1) Eight per cent shall be deposited into the elementary 50642
school program fund, which is hereby created in the state 50643
treasury, and shall be used by the department of public safety to 50644
establish and administer elementary school programs that encourage 50645
seat safety belt use.50646

       (2) Two per cent shall be deposited into the occupational 50647
licensing and regulatory fund created by section 4743.05 of the 50648
Revised Code.50649

       (3) Thirty-six per cent, plusinto the state treasury to the 50650
credit of the trauma and emergency medical services fund, which is 50651
hereby created. In addition, sixty cents of each fee collected 50652
under sections 4501.34, 4503.26, 4505.14, 4506.08, and 4509.05, 50653
plus on and after October 1, 2009, sixty cents of each fee 50654
collected under sections 4505.14 and 4519.63 of the Revised Code 50655
as specified in those sections, plus the portion of the driver's 50656
license reinstatement fee described in division (F)(2)(g) of 50657
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code, plus all fees collected 50658
under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, plus all fines imposed 50659
under section 4765.55 of the Revised Code, plus the fees and other 50660
moneys specified in section 4766.05 of the Revised Code, and plus 50661
five per cent of fines and moneys arising from bail forfeitures as 50662
directed by section 5503.04 of the Revised Code, also shall be 50663
deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund, 50664
which is hereby created in the state treasury, and. All money 50665
deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund50666
shall be used by the department of public safety for the 50667
administration and operation of the division of emergency medical 50668
services and the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 50669
transportation services, except that theand by the state board 50670
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services to make 50671
grants, in accordance with section 4765.07 of the Revised Code and 50672
rules the board adopts under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. 50673
The director of budget and management may transfer excess money 50674
from the trauma and emergency medical services fund to the state 50675
highway safety fund if the director of public safety determines 50676
that the amount of money in the trauma and emergency medical 50677
services fund exceeds the amount required to cover such costs 50678
incurred by the emergency medical services agency and the grants 50679
made by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 50680
transportation services and requests the director of budget and 50681
management to make the transfer.50682

       (4) Fifty-four per cent shall be deposited into the trauma 50683
and emergency medical services grants fund, which is hereby 50684
created in the state treasury, and shall be used by the state 50685
board of emergency medical services to make grants, in accordance 50686
with section 4765.07 of the Revised Code and rules the board 50687
adopts under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.50688

       (F)(1) Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, the 50689
failure of a person to wear all of the available elements of a 50690
properly adjusted occupant restraining device in violation of 50691
division (B)(1) or (3) of this section or the failure of a person 50692
to ensure that each minor who is a passenger of an automobile 50693
being operated by that person is wearing all of the available 50694
elements of a properly adjusted occupant restraining device in 50695
violation of division (B)(2) of this section shall not be 50696
considered or used by the trier of fact in a tort action as 50697
evidence of negligence or contributory negligence. But, the trier 50698
of fact may determine based on evidence admitted consistent with 50699
the Ohio Rules of Evidence that the failure contributed to the 50700
harm alleged in the tort action and may diminish a recovery of 50701
compensatory damages that represents noneconomic loss, as defined 50702
in section 2307.011 of the Revised Code, in a tort action that 50703
could have been recovered but for the plaintiff's failure to wear 50704
all of the available elements of a properly adjusted occupant 50705
restraining device. Evidence of that failure shall not be used as 50706
a basis for a criminal prosecution of the person other than a 50707
prosecution for a violation of this section; and shall not be 50708
admissible as evidence in a criminal action involving the person 50709
other than a prosecution for a violation of this section.50710

       (2) If, at the time of an accident involving a passenger car 50711
equipped with occupant restraining devices, any occupant of the 50712
passenger car who sustained injury or death was not wearing an 50713
available occupant restraining device, was not wearing all of the 50714
available elements of such a device, or was not wearing such a 50715
device as properly adjusted, then, consistent with the Rules of 50716
Evidence, the fact that the occupant was not wearing the available 50717
occupant restraining device, was not wearing all of the available 50718
elements of such a device, or was not wearing such a device as 50719
properly adjusted is admissible in evidence in relation to any 50720
claim for relief in a tort action to the extent that the claim for 50721
relief satisfies all of the following:50722

       (a) It seeks to recover damages for injury or death to the 50723
occupant.50724

       (b) The defendant in question is the manufacturer, designer, 50725
distributor, or seller of the passenger car.50726

       (c) The claim for relief against the defendant in question is 50727
that the injury or death sustained by the occupant was enhanced or 50728
aggravated by some design defect in the passenger car or that the 50729
passenger car was not crashworthy.50730

       (G)(1) Whoever violates division (B)(1) of this section shall 50731
be fined thirty dollars.50732

       (2) Whoever violates division (B)(3) of this section shall be 50733
fined twenty dollars.50734

       (3) Except as otherwise provided in this division, whoever 50735
violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a minor 50736
misdemeanor. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 50737
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B)(4) of this section, 50738
whoever violates division (B)(4) of this section is guilty of a 50739
misdemeanor of the third degree.50740

       Sec. 4513.50.  As used in sections 4513.50 to 4513.53 of the 50741
Revised Code:50742

       (A)(1) "Bus" means any vehicle used for the transportation of 50743
passengers that meets at least one of the following:50744

       (a) Was originally designed by the manufacturer to transport 50745
more than fifteen passengers, including the driver;50746

       (b) Either the gross vehicle weight rating or the gross 50747
vehicle weight exceeds ten thousand pounds.50748

       (2) "Bus" does not include a church bus as defined in section 50749
4503.07 of the Revised Code or a school bus unless the church bus 50750
or school bus is used in the transportation of passengers for hire50751
by a motor transportation company or a common carrier by motor 50752
vehicle or by a private motor carrier or contract carrier by motor 50753
vehicle.50754

       (3) "Bus" also does not include any of the following:50755

       (a) Any vehicle operated exclusively on a rail or rails;50756

       (b) A trolley bus operated by electric power derived from a 50757
fixed overhead wire furnishing local passenger transportation 50758
similar to street-railway service;50759

       (c) Vehicles owned or leased by government agencies or 50760
political subdivisions.50761

       (B)(1) "Motor transportation company" and "common carrier by 50762
motor vehicle" havehas the same meaningsmeaning as in section 50763
4921.024923.01 of the Revised Code.50764

       (2) "Private motor carrier" and "contract carrier by motor 50765
vehicle" have the same meanings as in section 4923.02 of the 50766
Revised Code.50767

       Sec. 4712.01.  As used in sections 4712.01 to 4712.14 of the 50768
Revised Code:50769

       (A) "Buyer" means an individual who is solicited to purchase 50770
or who purchases the services of a credit services organization 50771
for purposes other than obtaining a business loan as described in 50772
division (B)(6) of section 1343.01 of the Revised Code.50773

       (B) "Consumer reporting agency" has the same meaning as in 50774
the "Fair Credit Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1128, 15 U.S.C.A. 1681a, 50775
as amended.50776

       (C)(1) "Credit services organization" means any person that, 50777
in return for the payment of money or other valuable consideration 50778
readily convertible into money for the following services, sells, 50779
provides, or performs, or represents that the person can or will 50780
sell, provide, or perform, one or more of the following services:50781

       (a) Improving a buyer's credit record, history, or rating;50782

       (b) Obtaining an extension of credit by others for a buyer;50783

       (c) Providing advice or assistance to a buyer in connection 50784
with division (C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section;50785

       (d) Removing adverse credit information that is accurate and 50786
not obsolete from the buyer's credit record, history, or rating;50787

       (e) Altering the buyer's identification to prevent the 50788
display of the buyer's credit record, history, or rating.50789

       (2) "Credit services organization" does not include any of 50790
the following:50791

       (a) A person that makes or collects loans, to the extent 50792
these activities are subject to licensure or registration by this 50793
state;50794

       (b) A mortgage broker, as defined in section 1322.01 of the 50795
Revised Code, that holds a valid certificate of registration under 50796
sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the Revised Code;50797

       (c) A lender approved by the United States secretary of 50798
housing and urban development for participation in a mortgage 50799
insurance program under the "National Housing Act," 48 Stat. 1246 50800
(1934), 12 U.S.C.A. 1701, as amended;50801

       (d) A bank, savings bank, or savings and loan association, or 50802
a subsidiary or an affiliate of a bank, savings bank, or savings 50803
and loan association. For purposes of division (C)(2)(d) of this 50804
section, "affiliate" has the same meaning as in division (A) of 50805
section 1101.01 of the Revised Code and "bank," as used in 50806
division (A) of section 1101.01 of the Revised Code, is deemed to 50807
include a savings bank or savings and loan association.50808

       (e) A credit union organized and qualified under Chapter 50809
1733. of the Revised Code or the "Federal Credit Union Act," 84 50810
Stat. 994 (1970), 12 U.S.C.A. 1751, as amended;50811

       (f) A budget and debt counseling service, as defined in 50812
division (D) of section 2716.03 of the Revised Code, provided that 50813
the service is a nonprofit organization exempt from taxation under 50814
section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 50815
Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 501, as amended, and that the service is 50816
in compliance with Chapter 4710. of the Revised Code;50817

       (g) A consumer reporting agency that is in substantial 50818
compliance with the "Fair Credit Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1128, 15 50819
U.S.C.A. 1681a, as amended.50820

       (h) A mortgage banker;50821

       (i) Any political subdivision, or any governmental or other 50822
public entity, corporation, or agency, in or of the United States 50823
or any state of the United States;50824

       (j) A college or university, or controlled entity of a 50825
college or university, as defined in section 1713.05 of the 50826
Revised Code;50827

       (k) A motor vehicle dealer licensed pursuant to Chapter 4517. 50828
of the Revised Code acting within the scope and authority of that 50829
license or a motor vehicle auction owner licensed pursuant to 50830
Chapters 4517. and 4707. of the Revised Code acting within the 50831
scope and authority of that license;50832

       (l) An attorney at law admitted to the practice of law in 50833
this state who offers, provides, or performs a legal service that 50834
is privileged by reason of the attorney-client relationship, 50835
provided that the service is not a service described in division 50836
(C)(1)(b) or (e) of this section.50837

       (D) "Extension of credit" means the right to defer payment of 50838
debt, or to incur debt and defer its payment, offered or granted 50839
primarily for personal, family, or household purposes. "Extension 50840
of credit" does not include a mortgage.50841

       (E) "Mortgage" means any indebtedness secured by a deed of 50842
trust, security deed, or other lien on real property.50843

       (F) "Mortgage banker" means any person that makes, services, 50844
or buys and sells mortgage loans and is approved by the United 50845
States department of housing and urban development, the United 50846
States department of veterans affairs, the federal national 50847
mortgage association, or the federal home loan mortgage 50848
corporation.50849

       (G) "Superintendent of financial institutions" includes the 50850
deputy superintendent for consumer finance as provided in section 50851
1181.21 of the Revised Code.50852

       Sec. 4723.481.  This section establishes standards and 50853
conditions regarding the authority of a clinical nurse specialist, 50854
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to 50855
prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices under a certificate to 50856
prescribe issued under section 4723.481 of the Revised Code.50857

       (A) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 50858
certified nurse practitioner shall not prescribe any drug or 50859
therapeutic device that is not included in the types of drugs and 50860
devices listed on the formulary established in rules adopted under 50861
section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.50862

       (B) The prescriptive authority of a clinical nurse 50863
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 50864
practitioner shall not exceed the prescriptive authority of the 50865
collaborating physician or podiatrist, including the collaborating 50866
physician's authority to treat chronic pain with controlled 50867
substances and products containing tramadol as described in 50868
section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.50869

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) or (3) of this 50870
section, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 50871
certified nurse practitioner may prescribe to a patient a schedule 50872
II controlled substance only if all of the following are the case: 50873

       (a) The patient has a terminal condition, as defined in 50874
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.50875

       (b) The collaborating physician of the clinical nurse 50876
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 50877
practitioner initially prescribed the substance for the patient.50878

       (c) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 50879
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 50880
twenty-four hour period. 50881

       (2) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 50882
(C)(1) of this section do not apply if a clinical nurse 50883
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 50884
practitioner issues the prescription to the patient from any of 50885
the following locations:50886

        (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 50887
Revised Code;50888

       (b) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 50889
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 50890
part, one or more hospitals;50891

        (c) A health care facility operated by the department of 50892
mental health or the department of developmental disabilities;50893

        (d) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 50894
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 50895
3721.09 of the Revised Code;50896

       (e) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 50897
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 50898
medicaid program;50899

        (f) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 50900
the Revised Code;50901

       (g) A community mental health agency, as defined in section 50902
5122.01 of the Revised Code;50903

        (h) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 50904
3702.30 of the Revised Code;50905

       (i) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 50906
3702.51 of the Revised Code;50907

       (j) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 50908
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;50909

       (k) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 50910
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;50911

        (l) A health care office or facility operated by the board of 50912
health of a city or general health district or the authority 50913
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 50914
the Revised Code;50915

       (m) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 50916
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 50917
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 50918
direct patient care; and the clinical nurse specialist, certified 50919
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner providing services 50920
at the site has a standard care arrangement and collaborates with 50921
at least one of the physician owners who practices primarily at 50922
that site.50923

       (3) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 50924
certified nurse practitioner shall not issue to a patient a 50925
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 50926
convenience care clinic even if the clinic is owned or operated by 50927
an entity specified in division (C)(2) of this section.50928

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 50929
prescription issued by a clinical nurse specialist, certified 50930
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner under division 50931
(C)(2) of this section is not liable for or subject to any of the 50932
following for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil 50933
action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 50934
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 50935
4729. of the Revised Code.50936

       (E) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 50937
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 50938
sample of any drug or therapeutic device included in the types of 50939
drugs and devices listed on the formulary, except that all of the 50940
following conditions apply:50941

       (1) The amount of the sample furnished shall not exceed a 50942
seventy-two-hour supply, except when the minimum available 50943
quantity of the sample is packaged in an amount that is greater 50944
than a seventy-two-hour supply, in which case the packaged amount 50945
may be furnished.50946

       (2) No charge may be imposed for the sample or for furnishing 50947
it.50948

       (3) Samples of controlled substances may not be personally 50949
furnished.50950

        (F) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 50951
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 50952
complete or partial supply of a drug or therapeutic device 50953
included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the 50954
formulary, except that all of the following conditions apply:50955

       (1) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 50956
or certified nurse practitioner shall personally furnish only 50957
antibiotics, antifungals, scabicides, contraceptives, prenatal 50958
vitamins, antihypertensives, drugs and devices used in the 50959
treatment of diabetes, drugs and devices used in the treatment of 50960
asthma, and drugs used in the treatment of dyslipidemia.50961

       (2) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 50962
or certified nurse practitioner shall not furnish the drugs and 50963
devices in locations other than a health department operated by 50964
the board of health of a city or general health district or the 50965
authority having the duties of a board of health under section 50966
3709.05 of the Revised Code, a federally funded comprehensive 50967
primary care clinic, or a nonprofit health care clinic or program.50968

       (3) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 50969
or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with all safety 50970
standards for personally furnishing supplies of drugs and devices, 50971
as established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the 50972
Revised Code.50973

       Sec. 4730.42.  (A) In granting physician-delegated 50974
prescriptive authority to a particular physician assistant who 50975
holds a certificate to prescribe issued under this chapter, the 50976
supervising physician is subject to all of the following:50977

       (1) The supervising physician shall not grant 50978
physician-delegated prescriptive authority for any drug or 50979
therapeutic device that is not listed on the formulary established 50980
in rules adopted under section 4730.39 of the Revised Code as a 50981
drug or therapeutic device that may be included in the 50982
physician-delegated prescriptive authority granted to a physician 50983
assistant.50984

       (2) The supervising physician shall not grant 50985
physician-delegated prescriptive authority for any drug or device 50986
that may be used to perform or induce an abortion.50987

       (3) The supervising physician shall not grant 50988
physician-delegated prescriptive authority in a manner that 50989
exceeds the supervising physician's prescriptive authority, 50990
including the physician's authority to treat chronic pain with 50991
controlled substances and products containing tramadol as 50992
described in section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.50993

       (4) The supervising physician shall supervise the physician 50994
assistant in accordance with all of the following:50995

       (a) The supervision requirements specified in section 4730.21 50996
of the Revised Code and, in the case of supervision provided 50997
during a provisional period of physician-delegated prescriptive 50998
authority, the supervision requirements specified in section 50999
4730.45 of the Revised Code;51000

       (b) The physician supervisory plan approved for the 51001
supervising physician or the policies of the health care facility 51002
in which the physician and physician assistant are practicing;51003

       (c) The supervision agreement approved under section 4730.19 51004
of the Revised Code that applies to the supervising physician and 51005
the physician assistant.51006

       (B)(1) The supervising physician of a physician assistant may 51007
place conditions on the physician-delegated prescriptive authority 51008
granted to the physician assistant. If conditions are placed on 51009
that authority, the supervising physician shall maintain a written 51010
record of the conditions and make the record available to the 51011
state medical board on request.51012

       (2) The conditions that a supervising physician may place on 51013
the physician-delegated prescriptive authority granted to a 51014
physician assistant include the following:51015

       (a) Identification by class and specific generic nomenclature 51016
of drugs and therapeutic devices that the physician chooses not to 51017
permit the physician assistant to prescribe;51018

       (b) Limitations on the dosage units or refills that the 51019
physician assistant is authorized to prescribe;51020

       (c) Specification of circumstances under which the physician 51021
assistant is required to refer patients to the supervising 51022
physician or another physician when exercising physician-delegated 51023
prescriptive authority;51024

       (d) Responsibilities to be fulfilled by the physician in 51025
supervising the physician assistant that are not otherwise 51026
specified in the physician supervisory plan or otherwise required 51027
by this chapter.51028

       Sec. 4731.052.  (A) As used in this section:51029

       (1) "Dangerous drug" has the same meaning as in section 51030
4729.01 of the Revised Code.51031

       (2) "Chronic pain" means pain that has persisted after 51032
reasonable medical efforts have been made to relieve the pain or 51033
cure its cause and that has continued, either continuously or 51034
episodically, for longer than three continuous months. "Chronic 51035
pain" does not include pain associated with a terminal condition 51036
or with a progressive disease that, in the normal course of 51037
progression, may reasonably be expected to result in a terminal 51038
condition.51039

       (2) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 51040
3719.01 of the Revised Code.51041

       (3) "Physician" means an individual authorized under this 51042
chapter to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine 51043
and surgery.51044

       (B) The state medical board shall adopt rules in accordance 51045
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish standards and 51046
procedures to be followed by physicians in the diagnosis and 51047
treatment of chronic pain, including standards for a physician's 51048
consultation with one or more other physicians who specialize in 51049
the treatment of the area, system, or organ of the body perceived 51050
as the source of pain and managing chronic pain by prescribing, 51051
personally furnishing, or administering dangerous drugs in amounts 51052
or combinations that may not be appropriate when treating other 51053
medical conditions. In developing the rules, the board shall 51054
consult with and permit review by physicians who are experienced 51055
in the diagnosis and treatment of chronic paincontrolled 51056
substances or products containing tramadol.51057

       (C) When a physician diagnoses an individuala patient as 51058
having chronic pain, the physician may, subject to division (D) of 51059
this section, treat the pain by managing it with dangerous drugs 51060
in amounts or combinations that may not be appropriate when 51061
treating other medical conditionscontrolled substances and 51062
products containing tramadol. The physician's diagnosis and 51063
treatment decisions shall be made after having the individual51064
according to accepted and prevailing standards for medical care. 51065
For the purpose of assisting with the diagnosis of chronic pain, 51066
the physician shall obtain and review all available medical 51067
records or detailed written summaries of the patient's treatment 51068
for chronic pain or the condition causing the chronic pain. It is 51069
recommended that the physician also consider having the patient51070
evaluated by one or more other physicians who specialize in the 51071
treatment of the area, system, or organ of the body perceived as 51072
the source of the pain. The physician's diagnosis and treatment 51073
decisions shall be made according to accepted and prevailing 51074
standards for medical care. The51075

       (D) For each patient a physician diagnoses as having chronic 51076
pain, the physician shall maintain a written record of all of the 51077
following:51078

       (1) Medical history and physical examination of the 51079
individualpatient;51080

       (2) The diagnosis of chronic pain, including signs, symptoms, 51081
and causes;51082

       (3) The plan of treatment proposed, the patient's response to 51083
treatment, and any modification to the plan of treatment;, 51084
including all of the following:51085

        (a) Documentation that other medically reasonable treatments 51086
for relief of the patient's chronic pain have been offered or 51087
attempted without adequate or reasonable success;51088

        (b) Periodic assessment and documentation of the patient's 51089
functional status, including the ability to engage in work or 51090
other purposeful activities, the pain intensity and its 51091
interference with activities of daily living, quality of family 51092
life and social activities, and physical activity of the patient;51093

        (c) Periodic assessment and documentation of the patient's 51094
progress toward treatment objectives, including the intended role 51095
of controlled substances or products containing tramadol within 51096
the overall plan of treatment;51097

        (d) Periodic assessment and documentation for indicators of 51098
possible addiction, drug abuse, or drug diversion;51099

        (e) Notation of any adverse drug effects.51100

       (4) The dates on which dangerous drugscontrolled substances 51101
or products containing tramadol were prescribed, furnished, or 51102
administered, the name and address of the individualpatient to or 51103
for whom the dangerous drugscontrolled substances or products 51104
containing tramadol were prescribed, dispensedfurnished, or 51105
administered, and the amounts and dosage forms for the dangerous 51106
drugscontrolled substances or products containing tramadol51107
prescribed, furnished, or administered;51108

       (5) A copy of theany record or report made by theanother51109
physician or the physician to whom referral for evaluation was 51110
made under this divisionthat was used or consulted for the 51111
purpose of diagnosing the patient's chronic pain or treating the 51112
patient for chronic pain.51113

       (E) A physician shall not prescribe, personally furnish, or 51114
administer to a patient a controlled substance or product 51115
containing tramadol without taking into account the potential for 51116
abuse of the controlled substance or product, the possibility the 51117
controlled substance or product may lead to dependence, the 51118
possibility the patient will obtain the controlled substance or 51119
product for a nontherapeutic use or distribute it to other 51120
persons, and the potential existence of an illicit market for the 51121
controlled substance or product. In addition, the physician shall 51122
address with the patient the risks associated with protracted 51123
treatment with controlled substances or products containing 51124
tramadol, including informing the patient of the potential for 51125
dependence, tolerance, and addiction and the clinical or 51126
monitoring tools the physician may use if signs of addiction, drug 51127
abuse, or drug diversion are present.51128

       (D)(F) A physician who treats chronic pain by managing it 51129
with dangerous drugscontrolled substances or products containing 51130
tramadol is not subject to disciplinary action by the board under 51131
section 4731.22 of the Revised Code solely because the physician 51132
treated the chronic pain with dangerous drugscontrolled 51133
substances or products containing tramadol.51134

       Sec. 4731.22.  (A) The state medical board, by an affirmative 51135
vote of not fewer than six of its members, may revoke or may 51136
refuse to grant a certificate to a person found by the board to 51137
have committed fraud during the administration of the examination 51138
for a certificate to practice or to have committed fraud, 51139
misrepresentation, or deception in applying for or securing any 51140
certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by 51141
the board.51142

       (B) The board, by an affirmative vote of not fewer than six 51143
members, shall, to the extent permitted by law, limit, revoke, or 51144
suspend an individual's certificate to practice, refuse to 51145
register an individual, refuse to reinstate a certificate, or 51146
reprimand or place on probation the holder of a certificate for 51147
one or more of the following reasons:51148

       (1) Permitting one's name or one's certificate to practice or 51149
certificate of registration to be used by a person, group, or 51150
corporation when the individual concerned is not actually 51151
directing the treatment given;51152

       (2) Failure to maintain minimal standards applicable to the 51153
selection or administration of drugs, or failure to employ 51154
acceptable scientific methods in the selection of drugs or other 51155
modalities for treatment of disease;51156

       (3) Selling, giving away, personally furnishing, prescribing, 51157
or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate 51158
therapeutic purposes or a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of 51159
guilt of, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in 51160
lieu of conviction of, a violation of any federal or state law 51161
regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug;51162

       (4) Willfully betraying a professional confidence.51163

       For purposes of this division, "willfully betraying a 51164
professional confidence" does not include providing any 51165
information, documents, or reports to a child fatality review 51166
board under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of the Revised Code and 51167
does not include the making of a report of an employee's use of a 51168
drug of abuse, or a report of a condition of an employee other 51169
than one involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of 51170
the employee as described in division (B) of section 2305.33 of 51171
the Revised Code. Nothing in this division affects the immunity 51172
from civil liability conferred by that section upon a physician 51173
who makes either type of report in accordance with division (B) of 51174
that section. As used in this division, "employee," "employer," 51175
and "physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of 51176
the Revised Code.51177

       (5) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading 51178
statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients; in 51179
relation to the practice of medicine and surgery, osteopathic 51180
medicine and surgery, podiatric medicine and surgery, or a limited 51181
branch of medicine; or in securing or attempting to secure any 51182
certificate to practice or certificate of registration issued by 51183
the board.51184

       As used in this division, "false, fraudulent, deceptive, or 51185
misleading statement" means a statement that includes a 51186
misrepresentation of fact, is likely to mislead or deceive because 51187
of a failure to disclose material facts, is intended or is likely 51188
to create false or unjustified expectations of favorable results, 51189
or includes representations or implications that in reasonable 51190
probability will cause an ordinarily prudent person to 51191
misunderstand or be deceived.51192

       (6) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal 51193
standards of care of similar practitioners under the same or 51194
similar circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient 51195
is established;51196

       (7) Representing, with the purpose of obtaining compensation 51197
or other advantage as personal gain or for any other person, that 51198
an incurable disease or injury, or other incurable condition, can 51199
be permanently cured;51200

       (8) The obtaining of, or attempting to obtain, money or 51201
anything of value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course 51202
of practice;51203

       (9) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or a 51204
judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 51205
conviction for, a felony;51206

       (10) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this 51207
state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was 51208
committed;51209

       (11) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or 51210
a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 51211
conviction for, a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;51212

       (12) Commission of an act in the course of practice that 51213
constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the 51214
jurisdiction in which the act was committed;51215

       (13) A plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, or 51216
a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 51217
conviction for, a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;51218

       (14) Commission of an act involving moral turpitude that 51219
constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the 51220
jurisdiction in which the act was committed;51221

       (15) Violation of the conditions of limitation placed by the 51222
board upon a certificate to practice;51223

       (16) Failure to pay license renewal fees specified in this 51224
chapter;51225

       (17) Except as authorized in section 4731.31 of the Revised 51226
Code, engaging in the division of fees for referral of patients, 51227
or the receiving of a thing of value in return for a specific 51228
referral of a patient to utilize a particular service or business;51229

       (18) Subject to section 4731.226 of the Revised Code, 51230
violation of any provision of a code of ethics of the American 51231
medical association, the American osteopathic association, the 51232
American podiatric medical association, or any other national 51233
professional organizations that the board specifies by rule. The 51234
state medical board shall obtain and keep on file current copies 51235
of the codes of ethics of the various national professional 51236
organizations. The individual whose certificate is being suspended 51237
or revoked shall not be found to have violated any provision of a 51238
code of ethics of an organization not appropriate to the 51239
individual's profession.51240

       For purposes of this division, a "provision of a code of 51241
ethics of a national professional organization" does not include 51242
any provision that would preclude the making of a report by a 51243
physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a 51244
condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a 51245
drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in 51246
division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 51247
this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred 51248
by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report 51249
in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this 51250
division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same 51251
meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.51252

       (19) Inability to practice according to acceptable and 51253
prevailing standards of care by reason of mental illness or 51254
physical illness, including, but not limited to, physical 51255
deterioration that adversely affects cognitive, motor, or 51256
perceptive skills.51257

       In enforcing this division, the board, upon a showing of a 51258
possible violation, may compel any individual authorized to 51259
practice by this chapter or who has submitted an application 51260
pursuant to this chapter to submit to a mental examination, 51261
physical examination, including an HIV test, or both a mental and 51262
a physical examination. The expense of the examination is the 51263
responsibility of the individual compelled to be examined. Failure 51264
to submit to a mental or physical examination or consent to an HIV 51265
test ordered by the board constitutes an admission of the 51266
allegations against the individual unless the failure is due to 51267
circumstances beyond the individual's control, and a default and 51268
final order may be entered without the taking of testimony or 51269
presentation of evidence. If the board finds an individual unable 51270
to practice because of the reasons set forth in this division, the 51271
board shall require the individual to submit to care, counseling, 51272
or treatment by physicians approved or designated by the board, as 51273
a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, or renewed 51274
authority to practice. An individual affected under this division 51275
shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the board the 51276
ability to resume practice in compliance with acceptable and 51277
prevailing standards under the provisions of the individual's 51278
certificate. For the purpose of this division, any individual who 51279
applies for or receives a certificate to practice under this 51280
chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in this state and, by 51281
so doing, shall be deemed to have given consent to submit to a 51282
mental or physical examination when directed to do so in writing 51283
by the board, and to have waived all objections to the 51284
admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute 51285
a privileged communication.51286

       (20) Except when civil penalties are imposed under section 51287
4731.225 or 4731.281 of the Revised Code, and subject to section 51288
4731.226 of the Revised Code, violating or attempting to violate, 51289
directly or indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation 51290
of, or conspiring to violate, any provisions of this chapter or 51291
any rule promulgated by the board.51292

       This division does not apply to a violation or attempted 51293
violation of, assisting in or abetting the violation of, or a 51294
conspiracy to violate, any provision of this chapter or any rule 51295
adopted by the board that would preclude the making of a report by 51296
a physician of an employee's use of a drug of abuse, or of a 51297
condition of an employee other than one involving the use of a 51298
drug of abuse, to the employer of the employee as described in 51299
division (B) of section 2305.33 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 51300
this division affects the immunity from civil liability conferred 51301
by that section upon a physician who makes either type of report 51302
in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used in this 51303
division, "employee," "employer," and "physician" have the same 51304
meanings as in section 2305.33 of the Revised Code.51305

       (21) The violation of section 3701.79 of the Revised Code or 51306
of any abortion rule adopted by the publicdirector of health 51307
council pursuant to section 3701.341 of the Revised Code;51308

       (22) Any of the following actions taken by an agency 51309
responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an 51310
individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health 51311
care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any 51312
reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, 51313
revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; 51314
acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a 51315
license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of 51316
probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;51317

       (23) The violation of section 2919.12 of the Revised Code or 51318
the performance or inducement of an abortion upon a pregnant woman 51319
with actual knowledge that the conditions specified in division 51320
(B) of section 2317.56 of the Revised Code have not been satisfied 51321
or with a heedless indifference as to whether those conditions 51322
have been satisfied, unless an affirmative defense as specified in 51323
division (H)(2) of that section would apply in a civil action 51324
authorized by division (H)(1) of that section;51325

       (24) The revocation, suspension, restriction, reduction, or 51326
termination of clinical privileges by the United States department 51327
of defense or department of veterans affairs or the termination or 51328
suspension of a certificate of registration to prescribe drugs by 51329
the drug enforcement administration of the United States 51330
department of justice;51331

       (25) Termination or suspension from participation in the 51332
medicare or medicaid programs by the department of health and 51333
human services or other responsible agency for any act or acts 51334
that also would constitute a violation of division (B)(2), (3), 51335
(6), (8), or (19) of this section;51336

       (26) Impairment of ability to practice according to 51337
acceptable and prevailing standards of care because of habitual or 51338
excessive use or abuse of drugs, alcohol, or other substances that 51339
impair ability to practice.51340

       For the purposes of this division, any individual authorized 51341
to practice by this chapter accepts the privilege of practicing in 51342
this state subject to supervision by the board. By filing an 51343
application for or holding a certificate to practice under this 51344
chapter, an individual shall be deemed to have given consent to 51345
submit to a mental or physical examination when ordered to do so 51346
by the board in writing, and to have waived all objections to the 51347
admissibility of testimony or examination reports that constitute 51348
privileged communications.51349

       If it has reason to believe that any individual authorized to 51350
practice by this chapter or any applicant for certification to 51351
practice suffers such impairment, the board may compel the 51352
individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, or both. 51353
The expense of the examination is the responsibility of the 51354
individual compelled to be examined. Any mental or physical 51355
examination required under this division shall be undertaken by a 51356
treatment provider or physician who is qualified to conduct the 51357
examination and who is chosen by the board.51358

       Failure to submit to a mental or physical examination ordered 51359
by the board constitutes an admission of the allegations against 51360
the individual unless the failure is due to circumstances beyond 51361
the individual's control, and a default and final order may be 51362
entered without the taking of testimony or presentation of 51363
evidence. If the board determines that the individual's ability to 51364
practice is impaired, the board shall suspend the individual's 51365
certificate or deny the individual's application and shall require 51366
the individual, as a condition for initial, continued, reinstated, 51367
or renewed certification to practice, to submit to treatment.51368

       Before being eligible to apply for reinstatement of a 51369
certificate suspended under this division, the impaired 51370
practitioner shall demonstrate to the board the ability to resume 51371
practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards of 51372
care under the provisions of the practitioner's certificate. The 51373
demonstration shall include, but shall not be limited to, the 51374
following:51375

       (a) Certification from a treatment provider approved under 51376
section 4731.25 of the Revised Code that the individual has 51377
successfully completed any required inpatient treatment;51378

       (b) Evidence of continuing full compliance with an aftercare 51379
contract or consent agreement;51380

       (c) Two written reports indicating that the individual's 51381
ability to practice has been assessed and that the individual has 51382
been found capable of practicing according to acceptable and 51383
prevailing standards of care. The reports shall be made by 51384
individuals or providers approved by the board for making the 51385
assessments and shall describe the basis for their determination.51386

       The board may reinstate a certificate suspended under this 51387
division after that demonstration and after the individual has 51388
entered into a written consent agreement.51389

       When the impaired practitioner resumes practice, the board 51390
shall require continued monitoring of the individual. The 51391
monitoring shall include, but not be limited to, compliance with 51392
the written consent agreement entered into before reinstatement or 51393
with conditions imposed by board order after a hearing, and, upon 51394
termination of the consent agreement, submission to the board for 51395
at least two years of annual written progress reports made under 51396
penalty of perjury stating whether the individual has maintained 51397
sobriety.51398

       (27) A second or subsequent violation of section 4731.66 or 51399
4731.69 of the Revised Code;51400

       (28) Except as provided in division (N) of this section:51401

       (a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or 51402
copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health 51403
care policy, contract, or plan that covers the individual's 51404
services, otherwise would be required to pay if the waiver is used 51405
as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive 51406
health care services from that individual;51407

       (b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of 51408
all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, 51409
pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or 51410
plan that covers the individual's services, otherwise would be 51411
required to pay.51412

       (29) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid 51413
precautions established by rules adopted under section 4731.051 of 51414
the Revised Code;51415

       (30) Failure to provide notice to, and receive acknowledgment 51416
of the notice from, a patient when required by section 4731.143 of 51417
the Revised Code prior to providing nonemergency professional 51418
services, or failure to maintain that notice in the patient's 51419
file;51420

       (31) Failure of a physician supervising a physician assistant 51421
to maintain supervision in accordance with the requirements of 51422
Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under that 51423
chapter;51424

       (32) Failure of a physician or podiatrist to enter into a 51425
standard care arrangement with a clinical nurse specialist, 51426
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner with whom 51427
the physician or podiatrist is in collaboration pursuant to 51428
section 4731.27 of the Revised Code or failure to fulfill the 51429
responsibilities of collaboration after entering into a standard 51430
care arrangement;51431

       (33) Failure to comply with the terms of a consult agreement 51432
entered into with a pharmacist pursuant to section 4729.39 of the 51433
Revised Code;51434

       (34) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by 51435
the board under division (F) of this section, including failure to 51436
comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to 51437
answer truthfully a question presented by the board at a 51438
deposition or in written interrogatories, except that failure to 51439
cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for 51440
discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction 51441
has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the 51442
individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue;51443

       (35) Failure to supervise an acupuncturist in accordance with 51444
Chapter 4762. of the Revised Code and the board's rules for 51445
supervision of an acupuncturist;51446

       (36) Failure to supervise an anesthesiologist assistant in 51447
accordance with Chapter 4760. of the Revised Code and the board's 51448
rules for supervision of an anesthesiologist assistant;51449

       (37) Assisting suicide as defined in section 3795.01 of the 51450
Revised Code;51451

       (38) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 51452
2317.561 of the Revised Code;51453

       (39) Failure to supervise a radiologist assistant in 51454
accordance with Chapter 4774. of the Revised Code and the board's 51455
rules for supervision of radiologist assistants;51456

       (40) Performing or inducing an abortion at an office or 51457
facility with knowledge that the office or facility fails to post 51458
the notice required under section 3701.791 of the Revised Code;51459

       (41) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures 51460
established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code 51461
for the operation of or the provision of care at a pain management 51462
clinic;51463

        (42) Failure to comply with the standards and procedures 51464
established in rules under section 4731.054 of the Revised Code 51465
for providing supervision, direction, and control of individuals 51466
at a pain management clinic;51467

       (43) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 51468
4729.79 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no 51469
longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of 51470
the Revised Code;51471

       (41)(44) Failure to comply with the requirements of section 51472
2919.171 of the Revised Code or failure to submit to the 51473
department of health in accordance with a court order a complete 51474
report as described in section 2919.171 of the Revised Code.51475

       (C) Disciplinary actions taken by the board under divisions 51476
(A) and (B) of this section shall be taken pursuant to an 51477
adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that 51478
in lieu of an adjudication, the board may enter into a consent 51479
agreement with an individual to resolve an allegation of a 51480
violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it. A consent 51481
agreement, when ratified by an affirmative vote of not fewer than 51482
six members of the board, shall constitute the findings and order 51483
of the board with respect to the matter addressed in the 51484
agreement. If the board refuses to ratify a consent agreement, the 51485
admissions and findings contained in the consent agreement shall 51486
be of no force or effect.51487

       A telephone conference call may be utilized for ratification 51488
of a consent agreement that revokes or suspends an individual's 51489
certificate to practice. The telephone conference call shall be 51490
considered a special meeting under division (F) of section 121.22 51491
of the Revised Code.51492

       If the board takes disciplinary action against an individual 51493
under division (B) of this section for a second or subsequent plea 51494
of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, a violation of 51495
section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, the disciplinary action 51496
shall consist of a suspension of the individual's certificate to 51497
practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined 51498
appropriate by the board, a more serious sanction involving the 51499
individual's certificate to practice. Any consent agreement 51500
entered into under this division with an individual that pertains 51501
to a second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding 51502
of guilt of, a violation of that section shall provide for a 51503
suspension of the individual's certificate to practice for a 51504
period of at least one year or, if determined appropriate by the 51505
board, a more serious sanction involving the individual's 51506
certificate to practice.51507

       (D) For purposes of divisions (B)(10), (12), and (14) of this 51508
section, the commission of the act may be established by a finding 51509
by the board, pursuant to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 51510
the Revised Code, that the individual committed the act. The board 51511
does not have jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial 51512
court renders a final judgment in the individual's favor and that 51513
judgment is based upon an adjudication on the merits. The board 51514
has jurisdiction under those divisions if the trial court issues 51515
an order of dismissal upon technical or procedural grounds.51516

       (E) The sealing of conviction records by any court shall have 51517
no effect upon a prior board order entered under this section or 51518
upon the board's jurisdiction to take action under this section 51519
if, based upon a plea of guilty, a judicial finding of guilt, or a 51520
judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of 51521
conviction, the board issued a notice of opportunity for a hearing 51522
prior to the court's order to seal the records. The board shall 51523
not be required to seal, destroy, redact, or otherwise modify its 51524
records to reflect the court's sealing of conviction records.51525

       (F)(1) The board shall investigate evidence that appears to 51526
show that a person has violated any provision of this chapter or 51527
any rule adopted under it. Any person may report to the board in a 51528
signed writing any information that the person may have that 51529
appears to show a violation of any provision of this chapter or 51530
any rule adopted under it. In the absence of bad faith, any person 51531
who reports information of that nature or who testifies before the 51532
board in any adjudication conducted under Chapter 119. of the 51533
Revised Code shall not be liable in damages in a civil action as a 51534
result of the report or testimony. Each complaint or allegation of 51535
a violation received by the board shall be assigned a case number 51536
and shall be recorded by the board.51537

       (2) Investigations of alleged violations of this chapter or 51538
any rule adopted under it shall be supervised by the supervising 51539
member elected by the board in accordance with section 4731.02 of 51540
the Revised Code and by the secretary as provided in section 51541
4731.39 of the Revised Code. The president may designate another 51542
member of the board to supervise the investigation in place of the 51543
supervising member. No member of the board who supervises the 51544
investigation of a case shall participate in further adjudication 51545
of the case.51546

       (3) In investigating a possible violation of this chapter or 51547
any rule adopted under this chapter, the board may administer 51548
oaths, order the taking of depositions, inspect and copy any 51549
books, accounts, papers, records, or documents, issue subpoenas, 51550
and compel the attendance of witnesses and production of books, 51551
accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony, except that a 51552
subpoena for patient record information shall not be issued 51553
without consultation with the attorney general's office and 51554
approval of the secretary and supervising member of the board. 51555
Before issuance of a subpoena for patient record information, the 51556
secretary and supervising member shall determine whether there is 51557
probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a 51558
violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that 51559
the records sought are relevant to the alleged violation and 51560
material to the investigation. The subpoena may apply only to 51561
records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the 51562
alleged violation.51563

       On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the board 51564
and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, the 51565
board may move for an order compelling the production of persons 51566
or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure.51567

       A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a sheriff, 51568
the sheriff's deputy, or a board employee designated by the board. 51569
Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by 51570
delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named therein, 51571
reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual 51572
place of residence. When the person being served is a person whose 51573
practice is authorized by this chapter, service of the subpoena 51574
may be made by certified mail, restricted delivery, return receipt 51575
requested, and the subpoena shall be deemed served on the date 51576
delivery is made or the date the person refuses to accept 51577
delivery.51578

       A sheriff's deputy who serves a subpoena shall receive the 51579
same fees as a sheriff. Each witness who appears before the board 51580
in obedience to a subpoena shall receive the fees and mileage 51581
provided for under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.51582

       (4) All hearings and investigations of the board shall be 51583
considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of 51584
the Revised Code.51585

       (5) Information received by the board pursuant to an 51586
investigation is confidential and not subject to discovery in any 51587
civil action.51588

       The board shall conduct all investigations and proceedings in 51589
a manner that protects the confidentiality of patients and persons 51590
who file complaints with the board. The board shall not make 51591
public the names or any other identifying information about 51592
patients or complainants unless proper consent is given or, in the 51593
case of a patient, a waiver of the patient privilege exists under 51594
division (B) of section 2317.02 of the Revised Code, except that 51595
consent or a waiver of that nature is not required if the board 51596
possesses reliable and substantial evidence that no bona fide 51597
physician-patient relationship exists.51598

       The board may share any information it receives pursuant to 51599
an investigation, including patient records and patient record 51600
information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing 51601
boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, 51602
adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or 51603
administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the 51604
information shall comply with the same requirements regarding 51605
confidentiality as those with which the state medical board must 51606
comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised 51607
Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is 51608
dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial 51609
proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in 51610
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require 51611
that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality 51612
is maintained with respect to any part of the information that 51613
contains names or other identifying information about patients or 51614
complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state 51615
medical board when the information was in the board's possession. 51616
Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court 51617
include sealing its records or deleting specific information from 51618
its records.51619

       (6) On a quarterly basis, the board shall prepare a report 51620
that documents the disposition of all cases during the preceding 51621
three months. The report shall contain the following information 51622
for each case with which the board has completed its activities:51623

       (a) The case number assigned to the complaint or alleged 51624
violation;51625

       (b) The type of certificate to practice, if any, held by the 51626
individual against whom the complaint is directed;51627

       (c) A description of the allegations contained in the 51628
complaint;51629

       (d) The disposition of the case.51630

       The report shall state how many cases are still pending and 51631
shall be prepared in a manner that protects the identity of each 51632
person involved in each case. The report shall be a public record 51633
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.51634

       (G) If the secretary and supervising member determine both of 51635
the following, they may recommend that the board suspend an 51636
individual's certificate to practice without a prior hearing:51637

       (1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an 51638
individual has violated division (B) of this section;51639

       (2) That the individual's continued practice presents a 51640
danger of immediate and serious harm to the public. 51641

        Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by 51642
the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an 51643
affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, excluding 51644
the secretary and supervising member, may suspend a certificate 51645
without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be 51646
utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the 51647
summary suspension.51648

       The board shall issue a written order of suspension by 51649
certified mail or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 51650
the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by 51651
the court during pendency of any appeal filed under section 119.12 51652
of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary 51653
suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date 51654
set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier 51655
than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless 51656
otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.51657

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall 51658
remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final 51659
adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section 51660
and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board 51661
shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days 51662
after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order 51663
within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the 51664
summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, 51665
final adjudicative order.51666

       (H) If the board takes action under division (B)(9), (11), or 51667
(13) of this section and the judicial finding of guilt, guilty 51668
plea, or judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu 51669
of conviction is overturned on appeal, upon exhaustion of the 51670
criminal appeal, a petition for reconsideration of the order may 51671
be filed with the board along with appropriate court documents. 51672
Upon receipt of a petition of that nature and supporting court 51673
documents, the board shall reinstate the individual's certificate 51674
to practice. The board may then hold an adjudication under Chapter 51675
119. of the Revised Code to determine whether the individual 51676
committed the act in question. Notice of an opportunity for a 51677
hearing shall be given in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 51678
Revised Code. If the board finds, pursuant to an adjudication held 51679
under this division, that the individual committed the act or if 51680
no hearing is requested, the board may order any of the sanctions 51681
identified under division (B) of this section.51682

       (I) The certificate to practice issued to an individual under 51683
this chapter and the individual's practice in this state are 51684
automatically suspended as of the date of the individual's second 51685
or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of, 51686
a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, or the date 51687
the individual pleads guilty to, is found by a judge or jury to be 51688
guilty of, or is subject to a judicial finding of eligibility for 51689
intervention in lieu of conviction in this state or treatment or 51690
intervention in lieu of conviction in another jurisdiction for any 51691
of the following criminal offenses in this state or a 51692
substantially equivalent criminal offense in another jurisdiction: 51693
aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious 51694
assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual 51695
imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated 51696
burglary. Continued practice after suspension shall be considered 51697
practicing without a certificate.51698

       The board shall notify the individual subject to the 51699
suspension by certified mail or in person in accordance with 51700
section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose 51701
certificate is automatically suspended under this division fails 51702
to make a timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 51703
the Revised Code, the board shall do whichever of the following is 51704
applicable:51705

       (1) If the automatic suspension under this division is for a 51706
second or subsequent plea of guilty to, or judicial finding of 51707
guilt of, a violation of section 2919.123 of the Revised Code, the 51708
board shall enter an order suspending the individual's certificate 51709
to practice for a period of at least one year or, if determined 51710
appropriate by the board, imposing a more serious sanction 51711
involving the individual's certificate to practice.51712

       (2) In all circumstances in which division (I)(1) of this 51713
section does not apply, enter a final order permanently revoking 51714
the individual's certificate to practice.51715

       (J) If the board is required by Chapter 119. of the Revised 51716
Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and if the 51717
individual subject to the notice does not timely request a hearing 51718
in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board 51719
is not required to hold a hearing, but may adopt, by an 51720
affirmative vote of not fewer than six of its members, a final 51721
order that contains the board's findings. In that final order, the 51722
board may order any of the sanctions identified under division (A) 51723
or (B) of this section.51724

       (K) Any action taken by the board under division (B) of this 51725
section resulting in a suspension from practice shall be 51726
accompanied by a written statement of the conditions under which 51727
the individual's certificate to practice may be reinstated. The 51728
board shall adopt rules governing conditions to be imposed for 51729
reinstatement. Reinstatement of a certificate suspended pursuant 51730
to division (B) of this section requires an affirmative vote of 51731
not fewer than six members of the board.51732

       (L) When the board refuses to grant a certificate to an 51733
applicant, revokes an individual's certificate to practice, 51734
refuses to register an applicant, or refuses to reinstate an 51735
individual's certificate to practice, the board may specify that 51736
its action is permanent. An individual subject to a permanent 51737
action taken by the board is forever thereafter ineligible to hold 51738
a certificate to practice and the board shall not accept an 51739
application for reinstatement of the certificate or for issuance 51740
of a new certificate.51741

       (M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, 51742
all of the following apply:51743

       (1) The surrender of a certificate issued under this chapter 51744
shall not be effective unless or until accepted by the board. A 51745
telephone conference call may be utilized for acceptance of the 51746
surrender of an individual's certificate to practice. The 51747
telephone conference call shall be considered a special meeting 51748
under division (F) of section 121.22 of the Revised Code. 51749
Reinstatement of a certificate surrendered to the board requires 51750
an affirmative vote of not fewer than six members of the board.51751

       (2) An application for a certificate made under the 51752
provisions of this chapter may not be withdrawn without approval 51753
of the board.51754

       (3) Failure by an individual to renew a certificate of 51755
registration in accordance with this chapter shall not remove or 51756
limit the board's jurisdiction to take any disciplinary action 51757
under this section against the individual.51758

       (N) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (B)(28) of 51759
this section against any person who waives deductibles and 51760
copayments as follows:51761

       (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly 51762
allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments 51763
shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan 51764
purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of 51765
the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.51766

       (2) For professional services rendered to any other person 51767
authorized to practice pursuant to this chapter, to the extent 51768
allowed by this chapter and rules adopted by the board.51769

       (O) Under the board's investigative duties described in this 51770
section and subject to division (F) of this section, the board 51771
shall develop and implement a quality intervention program 51772
designed to improve through remedial education the clinical and 51773
communication skills of individuals authorized under this chapter 51774
to practice medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and 51775
surgery, and podiatric medicine and surgery. In developing and 51776
implementing the quality intervention program, the board may do 51777
all of the following:51778

       (1) Offer in appropriate cases as determined by the board an 51779
educational and assessment program pursuant to an investigation 51780
the board conducts under this section;51781

       (2) Select providers of educational and assessment services, 51782
including a quality intervention program panel of case reviewers;51783

       (3) Make referrals to educational and assessment service 51784
providers and approve individual educational programs recommended 51785
by those providers. The board shall monitor the progress of each 51786
individual undertaking a recommended individual educational 51787
program.51788

       (4) Determine what constitutes successful completion of an 51789
individual educational program and require further monitoring of 51790
the individual who completed the program or other action that the 51791
board determines to be appropriate;51792

       (5) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 51793
Revised Code to further implement the quality intervention 51794
program.51795

       An individual who participates in an individual educational 51796
program pursuant to this division shall pay the financial 51797
obligations arising from that educational program.51798

       Sec. 4731.297.  (A) As used in this section:51799

       (1) "Academic medical center" means a medical school and its 51800
affiliated teaching hospitals and clinics partnering to do all of 51801
the following:51802

       (a) Provide the highest quality of patient care from expert 51803
physicians;51804

       (b) Conduct groundbreaking research leading to medical 51805
advancements for current and future patients;51806

       (c) Provide medical education and graduate medical education 51807
to educate and train physicians. 51808

       (2) "Affiliated physician group practice" means a medical 51809
practice that consists of one or more physicians authorized under 51810
this chapter to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 51811
medicine and surgery and that is affiliated with an academic 51812
medical center to further the objectives described in divisions 51813
(A)(1)(a) to (c) of this section.51814

       (B) The state medical board shall issue, without examination, 51815
to an applicant who meets the requirements of this section a 51816
certificate of conceded eminence authorizing the practice of 51817
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery as part 51818
of the applicant's employment with an academic medical center in 51819
this state or affiliated physician group practice in this state.51820

       (C) To be eligible for a certificate of conceded eminence, an 51821
applicant shall provide to the board all of the following:51822

       (1) Evidence satisfactory to the board of all of the 51823
following:51824

       (a) That the applicant is an international medical graduate 51825
who holds a medical degree from an educational institution listed 51826
in the international medical education directory;51827

       (b) That the applicant has been appointed to serve in this 51828
state as a full-time faculty member of a medical school accredited 51829
by the liaison committee on medical education or an osteopathic 51830
medical school accredited by the American osteopathic association;51831

       (c) That the applicant has accepted an offer of employment 51832
with an academic medical center in this state or affiliated 51833
physician group practice in this state;51834

       (d) That the applicant holds a license in good standing in 51835
another state or country authorizing the practice of medicine and 51836
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery;51837

       (e) That the applicant has unique talents and extraordinary 51838
abilities not generally found within the applicant's specialty, as 51839
demonstrated by satisfying at least four of the following:51840

       (i) The applicant has achieved educational qualifications 51841
beyond those that are required for entry into the applicant's 51842
specialty, including advanced degrees, special certifications, or 51843
other academic credentials.51844

       (ii) The applicant has written multiple articles in journals 51845
listed in the index medicus or an equivalent scholarly publication 51846
acceptable to the board.51847

       (iii) The applicant has a sustained record of excellence in 51848
original research, at least some of which involves serving as the 51849
principal investigator or co-principal investigator for a research 51850
project.51851

       (iv) The applicant has received nationally or internationally 51852
recognized prizes or awards for excellence.51853

       (v) The applicant has participated in peer review in a field 51854
of specialization that is the same as or similar to the 51855
applicant's specialty.51856

       (vi) The applicant has developed new procedures or treatments 51857
for complex medical problems that are recognized by peers as a 51858
significant advancement in the applicable field of medicine.51859

       (vii) The applicant has held previous academic appointments 51860
with or been employed by a health care organization that has a 51861
distinguished national or international reputation.51862

       (viii) The applicant has been the recipient of a national 51863
institutes of health or other competitive grant award.51864

       (f) That the applicant has received staff membership or 51865
professional privileges from the academic medical center pursuant 51866
to standards adopted under section 3701.351 of the Revised Code on 51867
a basis that requires the applicant's medical education and 51868
graduate medical education to be at least equivalent to that of a 51869
physician educated and trained in the United States;51870

       (g) That the applicant has sufficient written and oral 51871
English skills to communicate effectively and reliably with 51872
patients, their families, and other medical professionals;51873

       (h) That the applicant will have professional liability 51874
insurance through the applicant's employment with the academic 51875
medical center or affiliated physician group practice.51876

       (2) An affidavit from the applicant agreeing to practice only 51877
within the clinical setting of the academic medical center;51878

       (3) Three letters of reference from distinguished experts in 51879
the applicant's specialty attesting to the unique capabilities of 51880
the applicant, at least one of which must be from outside the 51881
academic medical center or affiliated physician group practice;51882

       (4) An affidavit from the dean of the medical school where 51883
the applicant has been appointed to serve as a faculty member 51884
stating that the applicant meets all of the requirements of 51885
division (C)(1) of this section and that the letters of reference 51886
submitted under division (C)(3) of this section are from 51887
distinguished experts in the applicant's specialty, and 51888
documentation to support the affidavit;51889

       (5) A fee of one thousand dollars for the certificate. 51890

       (D)(1) The holder of a certificate of conceded eminence may 51891
practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery 51892
only within the clinical setting of the academic medical center 51893
with which the certificate holder is employed.51894

       (2) A certificate holder may supervise medical students, 51895
physicians participating in graduate medical education, advanced 51896
practice nurses, and physician assistants when performing clinical 51897
services in the certificate holder's area of specialty.51898

       (E) The board may revoke a certificate issued under this 51899
section on receiving proof satisfactory to the board that the 51900
certificate holder has engaged in practice in this state outside 51901
the scope of the certificate or that there are grounds for action 51902
against the certificate holder under section 4731.22 of the 51903
Revised Code.51904

       (F) A certificate of conceded eminence is valid for the 51905
shorter of two years or the duration of the certificate holder's 51906
employment with the academic medical center or affiliated 51907
physician group practice. The certificate ceases to be valid if 51908
the holder resigns or is otherwiseterminated from the academic 51909
medical center or affiliated physician group practice.51910

       (G) A certificate of conceded eminence may be renewed for an 51911
additional two-year period. There is no limit on the number of 51912
times a certificate may be renewed. A person seeking renewal of a 51913
certificate shall apply to the board and is eligible for renewal 51914
if the applicant does all of the following:51915

       (1) Pays the renewal fee of one thousand dollars;51916

       (2) Provides to the board an affidavit and supporting 51917
documentation from the academic medical center or affiliated 51918
physician group practice of all of the following:51919

       (a) That the applicant's initial appointment to the medical 51920
faculty is still valid or has been renewed;51921

       (b) That the applicant's clinical practice is consistent with 51922
the established standards in the field;51923

       (c) That the applicant has demonstrated continued scholarly 51924
achievement;51925

       (d) That the applicant has demonstrated continued 51926
professional achievement consistent with the academic medical 51927
center's requirements, established pursuant to standards adopted 51928
under section 3701.351 of the Revised Code, for physicians with 51929
staff membership or professional privileges with the academic 51930
medical center.51931

       (3) Satisfies the same continuing medical education 51932
requirements set forth in section 4731.281 of the Revised Code 51933
that apply to a person who holds a certificate to practice 51934
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery issued 51935
under this chapter.51936

       (4) Complies with any other requirements established by the 51937
board.51938

       (H) The board may adopt any rules it considers necessary to 51939
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 51940
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.51941

       Sec. 4735.01.  As used in this chapter:51942

       (A) "Real estate broker" includes any person, partnership, 51943
association, limited liability company, limited liability 51944
partnership, or corporation, foreign or domestic, who for another, 51945
whether pursuant to a power of attorney or otherwise, and who for 51946
a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, or with the 51947
intention, or in the expectation, or upon the promise of receiving 51948
or collecting a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration 51949
does any of the following:51950

       (1) Sells, exchanges, purchases, rents, or leases, or 51951
negotiates the sale, exchange, purchase, rental, or leasing of any 51952
real estate;51953

       (2) Offers, attempts, or agrees to negotiate the sale, 51954
exchange, purchase, rental, or leasing of any real estate;51955

       (3) Lists, or offers, attempts, or agrees to list, or 51956
auctions, or offers, attempts, or agrees to auction, any real 51957
estate;51958

       (4) Buys or offers to buy, sells or offers to sell, or 51959
otherwise deals in options on real estate;51960

       (5) Operates, manages, or rents, or offers or attempts to 51961
operate, manage, or rent, other than as custodian, caretaker, or 51962
janitor, any building or portions of buildings to the public as 51963
tenants;51964

       (6) Advertises or holds self out as engaged in the business 51965
of selling, exchanging, purchasing, renting, or leasing real 51966
estate;51967

       (7) Directs or assists in the procuring of prospects or the 51968
negotiation of any transaction, other than mortgage financing, 51969
which does or is calculated to result in the sale, exchange, 51970
leasing, or renting of any real estate;51971

       (8) Is engaged in the business of charging an advance fee or 51972
contracting for collection of a fee in connection with any 51973
contract whereby the broker undertakes primarily to promote the 51974
sale, exchange, purchase, rental, or leasing of real estate 51975
through its listing in a publication issued primarily for such 51976
purpose, or for referral of information concerning such real 51977
estate to brokers, or both, except that this division does not 51978
apply to a publisher of listings or compilations of sales of real 51979
estate by their owners;51980

       (9) Collects rental information for purposes of referring 51981
prospective tenants to rental units or locations of such units and 51982
charges the prospective tenants a fee.51983

       (B) "Real estate" includes leaseholds as well as any and 51984
every interest or estate in land situated in this state, whether 51985
corporeal or incorporeal, whether freehold or nonfreehold, and the 51986
improvements on the land, but does not include cemetery interment 51987
rights.51988

       (C) "Real estate salesperson" means any person associated 51989
with a licensed real estate broker to do or to deal in any acts or 51990
transactions set out or comprehended by the definition of a real 51991
estate broker, for compensation or otherwise.51992

       (D) "Institution of higher education" means either of the 51993
following:51994

       (1) A nonprofit institution as defined in section 1713.01 of 51995
the Revised Code that actually awards, rather than intends to 51996
award, degrees for fulfilling requirements of academic work beyond 51997
high school;51998

       (2) An institution operated for profit that otherwise 51999
qualifies under the definition of an institution in section 52000
1713.01 of the Revised Code and that actually awards, rather than 52001
intends to award, degrees for fulfilling requirements of academic 52002
work beyond high school.52003

       (E) "Foreign real estate" means real estate not situated in 52004
this state and any interest in real estate not situated in this 52005
state.52006

       (F) "Foreign real estate dealer" includes any person, 52007
partnership, association, limited liability company, limited 52008
liability partnership, or corporation, foreign or domestic, who 52009
for another, whether pursuant to a power of attorney or otherwise, 52010
and who for a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration, or 52011
with the intention, or in the expectation, or upon the promise of 52012
receiving or collecting a fee, commission, or other valuable 52013
consideration, does or deals in any act or transaction specified 52014
or comprehended in division (A) of this section with respect to 52015
foreign real estate.52016

       (G) "Foreign real estate salesperson" means any person 52017
associated with a licensed foreign real estate dealer to do or 52018
deal in any act or transaction specified or comprehended in 52019
division (A) of this section with respect to foreign real estate, 52020
for compensation or otherwise.52021

       (H) Any person, partnership, association, limited liability 52022
company, limited liability partnership, or corporation, who, for 52023
another, in consideration of compensation, by fee, commission, 52024
salary, or otherwise, or with the intention, in the expectation, 52025
or upon the promise of receiving or collecting a fee, does, or 52026
offers, attempts, or agrees to engage in, any single act or 52027
transaction contained in the definition of a real estate broker, 52028
whether an act is an incidental part of a transaction, or the 52029
entire transaction, shall be constituted a real estate broker or 52030
real estate salesperson under this chapter.52031

       (I)(1) The terms "real estate broker," "real estate 52032
salesperson," "foreign real estate dealer," and "foreign real 52033
estate salesperson" do not include a person, partnership, 52034
association, limited liability company, limited liability 52035
partnership, or corporation, or the regular employees thereof, who 52036
perform any of the acts or transactions specified or comprehended 52037
in division (A) of this section, whether or not for, or with the 52038
intention, in expectation, or upon the promise of receiving or 52039
collecting a fee, commission, or other valuable consideration:52040

       (a) With reference to real estate situated in this state 52041
owned by such person, partnership, association, limited liability 52042
company, limited liability partnership, or corporation, or 52043
acquired on its own account in the regular course of, or as an 52044
incident to the management of the property and the investment in 52045
it;52046

       (b) As receiver or trustee in bankruptcy, as guardian, 52047
executor, administrator, trustee, assignee, commissioner, or any 52048
person doing the things mentioned in this section, under authority 52049
or appointment of, or incident to a proceeding in, any court, or 52050
as a bona fide public officer, or as executor, trustee, or other 52051
bona fide fiduciary under any trust agreement, deed of trust, 52052
will, or other instrument that has been executed in good faith 52053
creating a like bona fide fiduciary obligation;52054

       (c) As a public officer while performing the officer's 52055
official duties;52056

       (d) As an attorney at law in the performance of the 52057
attorney's duties;52058

       (e) As a person who engages in the brokering of the sale of 52059
business assets, not including the sale, lease, exchange, or 52060
assignment of any interest in real estate;52061

       (f) As a person who engages in the sale of manufactured homes 52062
as defined in division (C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 52063
Code, or of mobile homes as defined in division (O) of section 52064
4501.01 of the Revised Code, provided the sale does not include 52065
the negotiation, sale, lease, exchange, or assignment of any 52066
interest in real estate;52067

       (g) As a person who engages in the sale of commercial real 52068
estate pursuant to the requirements of section 4735.022 of the 52069
Revised Code.52070

       (2) A person, partnership, association, limited liability 52071
company, limited liability partnership, or corporation exempt 52072
under division (I)(1)(a) of this section shall be limited by the 52073
legal interest in the real estate held by that person or entity to 52074
performing any of the acts or transactions specified in or 52075
comprehended by division (A) of this section.52076

       (J) "Disabled licensee" means a person licensed pursuant to 52077
this chapter who is under a severe disability which is of such a 52078
nature as to prevent the person from being able to attend any 52079
instruction lasting at least three hours in duration.52080

       (K) "Division of real estate" may be used interchangeably 52081
with, and for all purposes has the same meaning as, "division of 52082
real estate and professional licensing."52083

       (L) "Superintendent" or "superintendent of real estate" means 52084
the superintendent of the division of real estate and professional 52085
licensing of this state. Whenever the division or superintendent 52086
of real estate is referred to or designated in any statute, rule, 52087
contract, or other document, the reference or designation shall be 52088
deemed to refer to the division or superintendent of real estate 52089
and professional licensing, as the case may be.52090

       (M) "Inactive license" means the license status in which a 52091
salesperson's license is in the possession of the division, 52092
renewed as required under this chapter or rules adopted under this 52093
chapter, and not associated with a real estate broker.52094

       (N) "Broker's license on deposit" means the license status in 52095
which a broker's license is in the possession of the division of 52096
real estate and professional licensing and renewed as required 52097
under this chapter or rules adopted under this chapter.52098

       (O) "Suspended license" means the license status that 52099
prohibits a licensee from providing services that require a 52100
license under this chapter for a specified interval of time.52101

       (P) "Reactivate" means the process prescribed by the 52102
superintendent of real estate and professional licensing to remove 52103
a license from an inactive, voluntary hold, suspended, or broker's 52104
license on deposit status to allow a licensee to provide services 52105
that require a license under this chapter.52106

       (Q) "Revoked" means the license status in which the license 52107
is void and not eligible for reactivation.52108

       (R) "Commercial real estate" means any parcel of real estate 52109
in this state other than real estate containing one to four 52110
residential units. "Commercial real estate" does not include 52111
single-family residential units such as condominiums, townhouses, 52112
manufactured homes, or homes in a subdivision when sold, leased, 52113
or otherwise conveyed on a unit-by-unit basis, even when those 52114
units are a part of a larger building or parcel of real estate 52115
containing more than four residential units.52116

       (S) "Out-of-state commercial broker" includes any person, 52117
partnership, association, limited liability company, limited 52118
liability partnership, or corporation that is licensed to do 52119
business as a real estate broker in a jurisdiction other than 52120
Ohio.52121

       (T) "Out-of-state commercial salesperson" includes any person 52122
affiliated with an out-of-state commercial broker who is not 52123
licensed as a real estate salesperson in Ohio.52124

       (U) "Exclusive right to sell or lease listing agreement" 52125
means an agency agreement between a seller and broker that meets 52126
the requirements of section 4735.55 of the Revised Code and does 52127
both of the following:52128

       (1) Grants the broker the exclusive right to represent the 52129
seller in the sale or lease of the seller's property;52130

       (2) Provides the broker will be compensated if the broker, 52131
the seller, or any other person or entity produces a purchaser or 52132
tenant in accordance with the terms specified in the listing 52133
agreement or if the property is sold or leased during the term of 52134
the listing agreement to anyone other than to specifically 52135
exempted persons or entities.52136

       (V) "Exclusive agency agreement" means an agency agreement 52137
between a seller and broker that meets the requirements of section 52138
4735.55 of the Revised Code and does both of the following:52139

       (1) Grants the broker the exclusive right to represent the 52140
seller in the sale or lease of the seller's property;52141

       (2) Provides the broker will be compensated if the broker or 52142
any other person or entity produces a purchaser or tenant in 52143
accordance with the terms specified in the listing agreement or if 52144
the property is sold or leased during the term of the listing 52145
agreement, unless the property is sold or leased solely through 52146
the efforts of the seller or to the specifically exempted persons 52147
or entities.52148

       (W) "Exclusive purchaser agency agreement" means an agency 52149
agreement between a purchaser and broker that meets the 52150
requirements of section 4735.55 of the Revised Code and does both 52151
of the following:52152

       (1) Grants the broker the exclusive right to represent the 52153
purchaser in the purchase or lease of property;52154

        (2) Provides the broker will be compensated in accordance 52155
with the terms specified in the exclusive agency agreement or if a 52156
property is purchased or leased by the purchaser during the term 52157
of the agency agreement unless the property is specifically 52158
exempted in the agency agreement.52159

        The agreement may authorize the broker to receive 52160
compensation from the seller or the seller's agent and may provide 52161
that the purchaser is not obligated to compensate the broker if 52162
the property is purchased or leased solely through the efforts of 52163
the purchaser.52164

       (X) "Seller" means a party in a real estate transaction who 52165
is the potential transferor of property. "Seller" includes an 52166
owner of property who is seeking to sell the property and a 52167
landlord who is seeking to rent or lease property to another 52168
person.52169

       (Y) "Voluntary hold" means the license status in which a 52170
license is in the possession of the division of real estate and 52171
professional licensing for a period of not more than twelve months 52172
pursuant to section 4735.142 of the Revised Code, is not renewed 52173
in accordance with the requirements specified in this chapter or 52174
the rules adopted pursuant to it, and is not associated with a 52175
real estate broker.52176

       (Z) "Resigned" means the license status in which a license 52177
has been voluntarily and permanently surrendered to or is 52178
otherwise in the possession of the division of real estate and 52179
professional licensing, ismay not be renewed or reactivated in 52180
accordance with the requirements specified in this chapter or the 52181
rules adopted pursuant to it, and is not associated with a real 52182
estate broker.52183

       (AA)(Z) "Bona fide" means made in good faith or without 52184
purpose of circumventing license law.52185

       Sec. 4735.02.  (A) Except as provided in section 4735.022 of 52186
the Revised Code, no person, partnership, association, limited 52187
liability company, limited liability partnership, or corporation 52188
shall act as a real estate broker or real estate salesperson, or 52189
advertise or assume to act as such, without first being licensed 52190
as provided in this chapter. No person, partnership, association, 52191
limited liability company, limited liability partnership, or 52192
corporation shall provide services that require a license under 52193
this chapter if the licensee's license is inactive, suspended, 52194
placed on voluntary hold, resigned, or a broker's license on 52195
deposit, or if the license has been revoked. Nothing contained in 52196
this chapter shall be construed as authorizing a real estate 52197
broker or salesperson to perform any service constituting the 52198
practice of law.52199

       (B) No partnership, association, limited liability company, 52200
limited liability partnership, or corporation holding a real 52201
estate license shall employ as an officer, director, manager, or 52202
principal employee any person previously holding a license as a 52203
real estate broker, real estate salesperson, foreign real estate 52204
dealer, or foreign real estate salesperson, whose license has been 52205
placed in inactive, voluntary hold, or resigned status, or is 52206
suspended, or revoked and who has not thereafter reactivated the 52207
license or received a new license.52208

       Sec. 4735.052. (A) Upon receipt of a written complaint or 52209
upon the superintendent's own motion, the superintendent may 52210
investigate any person that has allegedly violated section 4735.02 52211
or 4735.25 of the Revised Code, except that the superintendent 52212
shall not initiate an investigation, pursuant to this section, of 52213
any person who held a license on voluntary hold or a suspended or 52214
inactive license under this chapter on the date of the alleged 52215
violation.52216

       (B) If, after investigation, the superintendent determines 52217
there exists reasonable evidence of a violation of section 4735.02 52218
or 4735.25 of the Revised Code, within fourteen business days 52219
after that determination, the superintendent shall send the party 52220
who is the subject of the investigation, a written notice, by 52221
regular mail, that includes all of the following information:52222

       (1) A description of the activity in which the party 52223
allegedly is engaging or has engaged that is a violation of 52224
section 4735.02 or 4735.25 of the Revised Code;52225

       (2) The applicable law allegedly violated;52226

       (3) A statement informing the party that a hearing concerning 52227
the alleged violation will be held, upon the party's request, 52228
before a hearing examiner pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 52229
Code.52230

       (C)(1) If a hearing is requested, the hearing examiner shall 52231
hear the testimony of all parties present at the hearing and 52232
consider any written testimony submitted pursuant to this section, 52233
and determine if there has been a violation of section 4735.02 or 52234
4735.25 of the Revised Code. 52235

        (2) After the conclusion of formal hearings, the hearing 52236
examiner shall file a report of findings of fact and conclusions 52237
of law with the superintendent, the commission, the complainant, 52238
and the parties. Within twenty days of receipt of such copy of the 52239
written report of findings of fact and conclusions of law, the 52240
parties and the division may file with the commission written 52241
objections to the report, which shall be considered by the 52242
commission before approving, modifying, or disapproving the 52243
report.52244

       (3) The commission shall review the hearing examiner's report 52245
at the next regularly scheduled commission meeting held at least 52246
twenty business days after receipt of the hearing examiner's 52247
report. The commission shall hear the testimony of the complainant 52248
or the parties upon request.52249

       (4) The commission shall decide whether to impose 52250
disciplinary sanctions upon a party for a violation of section 52251
4735.02 of the Revised Code. If the commission finds that a 52252
violation has occurred, the commission may assess a civil penalty, 52253
in an amount it determines, not to exceed one thousand dollars per 52254
violation. Each day a violation occurs or continues is a separate 52255
violation. The commission shall determine the terms of payment. 52256
The commission shall maintain a record of the proceedings of the 52257
hearing and issue a written opinion to all parties, citing its 52258
findings and grounds for any action taken.52259

       (D) Civil penalties collected under this section shall be 52260
deposited in the real estate operating fund, which is created in 52261
the state treasury under section 4735.211 of the Revised Code.52262

       (E) If a party fails to pay a civil penalty assessed pursuant 52263
to this section within the time prescribed by the commission, the 52264
superintendent shall forward to the attorney general the name of 52265
the party and the amount of the civil penalty, for the purpose of 52266
collecting that civil penalty. In addition to the civil penalty 52267
assessed pursuant to this section, the party also shall pay any 52268
fee assessed by the attorney general for collection of the civil 52269
penalty.52270

       (F) The superintendent may reserve the right to bring a civil 52271
action against a party that fails to pay a civil penalty for 52272
breach of contract in a court of competent jurisdiction.52273

       Sec. 4735.10.  (A)(1) The Ohio real estate commission may 52274
adopt reasonable rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 52275
Revised Code, necessary for implementing the provisions of this 52276
chapter relating, but not limited to, the following:52277

       (a) The form and manner of filing applications for licensure;52278

       (b) Times and form of examination for license;52279

       (c) Placing an existing broker's license on deposit or a 52280
salesperson's license on an inactive status for an indefinite 52281
period;52282

       (d) Specifying the process by which a licensee may place52283
resign the licensee's license on voluntary hold or resigned 52284
status;52285

       (e) Defining any additional license status that the 52286
commission determines is necessary and that is not otherwise 52287
defined in this chapter and establishing the process by which a 52288
licensee places the licensee's license in a status defined by the 52289
commission in the rules the commission adopts;52290

       (f) Clarification of the activities that require a license 52291
under this chapter.52292

       (2) The commission shall adopt reasonable rules in accordance 52293
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for implementing the 52294
provisions of this chapter relating to the following:52295

       (a) The issuance, renewal, suspension, and revocation of 52296
licenses, other sanctions that may be imposed for violations of 52297
this chapter, the conduct of hearings related to these actions, 52298
and the process of reactivating a license;52299

       (b) A three-year license and a three-year license renewal 52300
system;52301

       (c) Standards for the approval of the ten-hour postlicensure 52302
courses as required by division (H)(G) of section 4735.07 and 52303
division (H) of section 4735.09 of the Revised Code, courses of 52304
study required for licenses, courses offered in preparation for 52305
license examinations, or courses required as continuing education 52306
for licenses. 52307

       (d) Guidelines to ensure that continuing education classes 52308
are open to all persons licensed under this chapter. The rules 52309
shall specify that an organization that sponsors a continuing 52310
education class may offer its members a reasonable reduction in 52311
the fees charged for the class.52312

       (e) Requirements for trust accounts and property management 52313
accounts. The rules shall specify that:52314

       (i) Brokerages engaged in the management of property for 52315
another may, pursuant to a written contract with the property 52316
owner, exercise signatory authority for withdrawals from property 52317
management accounts maintained in the name of the property owner. 52318
The exercise of authority for withdrawals does not constitute a 52319
violation of any provision of division (A) of section 4735.18 of 52320
the Revised Code.52321

       (ii) The interest earned on property management trust 52322
accounts maintained in the name of the property owner or the 52323
broker shall be payable to the property owner unless otherwise 52324
specified in a written contract.52325

       (f) Notice of renewal forms and filing deadlines;52326

       (g) Special assessments under division (A) of section 4735.12 52327
of the Revised Code.52328

       (B) The commission may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 52329
119. of the Revised Code establishing standards and guidelines 52330
with which the superintendent of real estate shall comply in the 52331
exercise of the following powers:52332

       (1) Appointment and recommendation of ancillary trustees 52333
under section 4735.05 of the Revised Code;52334

       (2) Rejection of names proposed to be used by partnerships, 52335
associations, limited liability companies, limited liability 52336
partnerships, and corporations, under division (A) of section 52337
4735.06 of the Revised Code;52338

       (3) Acceptance and rejection of applications to take the 52339
broker and salesperson examinations and licensure, with 52340
appropriate waivers pursuant to division (E) of section 4735.07 52341
and section 4735.09 of the Revised Code;52342

       (4) Approval of applications of brokers to place their 52343
licenses in an inactive status and to become salespersons under 52344
section 4735.13 of the Revised Code;52345

       (5) Appointment of hearing examiners under section 119.09 of 52346
the Revised Code;52347

       (6) Acceptance and rejection of applications to take the 52348
foreign real estate dealer and salesperson examinations and 52349
licensure, with waiver of examination, under sections 4735.27 and 52350
4735.28 of the Revised Code;52351

       (7) Qualification of foreign real estate under section 52352
4735.25 of the Revised Code.52353

       If at any time there is no rule in effect establishing a 52354
guideline or standard required by this division, the 52355
superintendent may adopt a rule in accordance with Chapter 119. of 52356
the Revised Code for such purpose.52357

       (C) The commission or superintendent may hear testimony in 52358
matters relating to the duties imposed upon them, and the 52359
president of the commission and superintendent may administer 52360
oaths. The commission or superintendent may require other proof of 52361
the honesty, truthfulness, and good reputation of any person named 52362
in an application for a real estate broker's or real estate 52363
salesperson's license before admitting the applicant to the 52364
examination or issuing a license.52365

       Sec. 4735.13.  (A) Every real estate broker licensed under 52366
this chapter shall have and maintain a definite place of business 52367
in this state. A post office box address is not a definite place 52368
of business for purposes of this section. The license of a real 52369
estate broker shall be prominently displayed in the office or 52370
place of business of the broker, and no license shall authorize 52371
the licensee to do business except from the location specified in 52372
it. If the broker maintains more than one place of business within 52373
the state, the broker shall apply for and procure a duplicate 52374
license for each branch office maintained by the broker. Each 52375
branch office shall be in the charge of a licensed broker or 52376
salesperson. The branch office license shall be prominently 52377
displayed at the branch office location.52378

       (B) The license of each real estate salesperson shall be 52379
mailed to and remain in the possession of the licensed broker with 52380
whom the salesperson is or is to be associated until the licensee 52381
places the license on inactive, voluntary hold, or resigned status 52382
or until the salesperson leaves the brokerage or is terminated. 52383
The broker shall keep each salesperson's license in a way that it 52384
can, and shall on request, be made immediately available for 52385
public inspection at the office or place of business of the 52386
broker. Except as provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this 52387
section, immediately upon the salesperson's leaving the 52388
association or termination of the association of a real estate 52389
salesperson with the broker, the broker shall return the 52390
salesperson's license to the superintendent of real estate.52391

       The failure of a broker to return the license of a real 52392
estate salesperson or broker who leaves or who is terminated, via 52393
certified mail return receipt requested, within three business 52394
days of the receipt of a written request from the superintendent 52395
for the return of the license, is prima-facie evidence of 52396
misconduct under division (A)(6) of section 4735.18 of the Revised 52397
Code.52398

       (C) AnyA licensee shall notify the superintendent in writing 52399
within fifteen days of any of the following occurrences:52400

       (1) The licensee is convicted of a felony.52401

       (2) The licensee is convicted of a crime involving moral 52402
turpitude.52403

       (3) The licensee is found to have violated any federal, 52404
state, or municipal civil rights law pertaining to discrimination 52405
in housing.52406

       (4) The licensee is found to have engaged in a discriminatory 52407
practice pertaining to housing accommodations described in 52408
division (H) of section 4112.02 of the Revised Code.52409

       (5) The licensee is found to have violated any municipal 52410
civil rights law pertaining to housing discrimination.52411

       (6) The licensee is the subject of an order by the department 52412
of commerce, the department of insurance, or the department of 52413
agriculture revoking or permanently surrendering any professional 52414
license, certificate, or registration.52415

       (7)(6) The licensee is the subject of an order by any 52416
government agency concerning real estate, financial matters, or 52417
the performance of fiduciary duties with respect to any license, 52418
certificate, or registration.52419

       If a licensee fails to notify the superintendent within the 52420
required time, the superintendent immediately may suspend the 52421
license of the licensee.52422

       Any court that convicts a licensee of a violation of any 52423
municipal civil rights law pertaining to housing discrimination 52424
also shall notify the Ohio civil rights commission within fifteen 52425
days of the conviction.52426

       (D) In case of any change of business location, a broker 52427
shall give notice to the superintendent, on a form prescribed by 52428
the superintendent, within thirty days after the change of 52429
location, whereupon the superintendent shall issue new licenses 52430
for the unexpired period without charge. If a broker changes a 52431
business location without giving the required notice and without 52432
receiving new licenses that action is prima-facie evidence of 52433
misconduct under division (A)(6) of section 4735.18 of the Revised 52434
Code.52435

       (E) If a real estate broker desires to associate with another 52436
real estate broker in the capacity of a real estate salesperson, 52437
the broker shall apply to the superintendent to deposit the 52438
broker's real estate broker's license with the superintendent and 52439
for the issuance of a real estate salesperson's license. The 52440
application shall be made on a form prescribed by the 52441
superintendent and shall be accompanied by the recommendation of 52442
the real estate broker with whom the applicant intends to become 52443
associated and a fee of twenty-five dollars for the real estate 52444
salesperson's license. One dollar of the fee shall be credited to 52445
the real estate education and research fund. If the superintendent 52446
is satisfied that the applicant is honest, truthful, and of good 52447
reputation, has not been convicted of a felony or a crime 52448
involving moral turpitude, and has not been finally adjudged by a 52449
court to have violated any municipal, state, or federal civil 52450
rights laws relevant to the protection of purchasers or sellers of 52451
real estate, and that the association of the real estate broker 52452
and the applicant will be in the public interest, the 52453
superintendent shall grant the application and issue a real estate 52454
salesperson's license to the applicant. Any license so deposited 52455
with the superintendent shall be subject to this chapter. A broker 52456
who intends to deposit the broker's license with the 52457
superintendent, as provided in this section, shall give written 52458
notice of this fact in a format prescribed by the superintendent 52459
to all salespersons associated with the broker when applying to 52460
place the broker's license on deposit.52461

       (F) If a real estate broker desires to become a member or 52462
officer of a partnership, association, limited liability company, 52463
limited liability partnership, or corporation that is or intends 52464
to become a licensed real estate broker, the broker shall notify 52465
the superintendent of the broker's intentions. The notice of 52466
intention shall be on a form prescribed by the superintendent and 52467
shall be accompanied by a fee of twenty-five dollars. One dollar 52468
of the fee shall be credited to the real estate education and 52469
research fund.52470

        A licensed real estate broker who is a member or officer of a 52471
partnership, association, limited liability company, limited 52472
liability partnership, or corporation shall only act as a real 52473
estate broker for such partnership, association, limited liability 52474
company, limited liability partnership, or corporation.52475

       (G) If a real estate broker or salesperson enters the armed 52476
forces, the broker or salesperson may place the broker's or 52477
salesperson's license on deposit with the Ohio real estate 52478
commission. The licensee shall not be required to renew the 52479
license until the renewal date that follows the date of discharge 52480
from the armed forces. Any license deposited with the commission 52481
shall be subject to this chapter. Any licensee whose license is on 52482
deposit under this division and who fails to meet the continuing 52483
education requirements of section 4735.141 of the Revised Code 52484
because the licensee is in the armed forces shall satisfy the 52485
commission that the licensee has complied with the continuing 52486
education requirements within twelve months of the licensee's 52487
first birthday after discharge. The superintendent shall notify 52488
the licensee of the licensee's obligations under section 4735.141 52489
of the Revised Code at the time the licensee applies for 52490
reactivation of the licensee's license.52491

       (H) If a licensed real estate salesperson submits an 52492
application to the superintendent to leave the association of one 52493
broker to associate with a different broker, the broker possessing 52494
the licensee's license need not return the salesperson's license 52495
to the superintendent. The superintendent may process the 52496
application regardless of whether the licensee's license is 52497
returned to the superintendent.52498

       Sec. 4735.14.  (A) Each license issued under this chapter, 52499
shall be valid without further recommendation or examination until 52500
it is placed in an inactive, voluntary hold, or resigned status, 52501
is revoked or suspended, or such license expires by operation of 52502
law.52503

       (B) Except for a licensee who has placed the licensee's 52504
license on voluntary hold orin resigned status pursuant to 52505
section 4735.142 of the Revised Code, each licensed broker, 52506
brokerage, or salesperson shall file, on or before the date the 52507
Ohio real estate commission has adopted by rule for that licensee 52508
in accordance with division (A)(2)(f) of section 4735.10 of the 52509
Revised Code, a notice of renewal on a form prescribed by the 52510
superintendent of real estate. The notice of renewal shall be 52511
mailed by the superintendent two months prior to the filing 52512
deadline to the personal residence address of each broker or 52513
salesperson that is on file with the division. If the licensee is 52514
a partnership, association, limited liability company, limited 52515
liability partnership, or corporation, the notice of renewal shall 52516
be mailed by the superintendent two months prior to the filing 52517
deadline to the brokerage's business address on file with the 52518
division. A licensee shall not renew the licensee's license any 52519
earlier than two months prior to the filing deadline.52520

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this 52521
section, the license of any real estate broker, brokerage, or 52522
salesperson that fails to file a notice of renewal on or before 52523
the filing deadline of each ensuing year shall be suspended 52524
automatically without the taking of any action by the 52525
superintendent. A suspended license may be reactivated within 52526
twelve months of the date of suspension, provided that the renewal 52527
fee plus a penalty fee of fifty per cent of the renewal fee is 52528
paid to the superintendent. Failure to reactivate the license as 52529
provided in this division shall result in automatic revocation of 52530
the license without the taking of any action by the 52531
superintendent. No person, partnership, association, corporation, 52532
limited liability company, or limited partnership shall engage in 52533
any act or acts for which a real estate license is required while 52534
that entity's license is placed in an inactive, voluntary hold, or 52535
resigned status, or is suspended, or revoked. The commission shall 52536
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 52537
provide to licensees notice of suspension or revocation or both.52538

       (D) Each licensee shall notify the commissionsuperintendent52539
of a change in personal residence address. A licensee's failure to 52540
notify the commissionsuperintendent of a change in personal 52541
residence address does not negate the requirement to file the 52542
license renewal by the required deadline established by the 52543
commission by rule under division (A)(2)(f) of section 4735.10 of 52544
the Revised Code.52545

       (E) The superintendent shall not renew a license if the 52546
licensee fails to comply with section 4735.141 of the Revised Code 52547
or is otherwise not in compliance with this chapter.52548

       (F) The superintendent shall make notice of successful 52549
renewal available electronically to licensees as soon as 52550
practicable, but not later than thirty days after receipt by the 52551
division of a complete application and renewal fee. This notice 52552
shall serve as a notice of renewal for purposes of section 4745.02 52553
of the Revised Code.52554

       Sec. 4735.141.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 52555
division and except for a licensee who has placed the licensee's 52556
license on voluntary hold orin resigned status pursuant to 52557
section 4735.142 of the Revised Code, each person licensed under 52558
section 4735.07 or 4735.09 of the Revised Code shall submit proof 52559
satisfactory to the superintendent of real estate that the 52560
licensee has satisfactorily completed thirty hours of continuing 52561
education, as prescribed by the Ohio real estate commission 52562
pursuant to section 4735.10 of the Revised Code, on or before the 52563
licensee's birthday occurring three years after the licensee's 52564
date of initial licensure, and on or before the licensee's 52565
birthday every three years thereafter.52566

       Persons licensed as real estate salespersons who subsequently 52567
become licensed real estate brokers shall continue to submit proof 52568
of continuing education in accordance with the time period 52569
established in this section.52570

       The requirements of this section shall not apply to any 52571
disabled licensee as provided in division (E) of this section.52572

       Each licensee who is seventy years of age or older, within a 52573
continuing education reporting period, shall submit proof 52574
satisfactory to the superintendent of real estate that the 52575
licensee has satisfactorily completed a total of nine classroom 52576
hours of continuing education, including instruction in Ohio real 52577
estate law; recently enacted state and federal laws affecting the 52578
real estate industry; municipal, state, and federal civil rights 52579
law; and canons of ethics for the real estate industry as adopted 52580
by the commission. The required proof of completion shall be 52581
submitted on or before the licensee's birthday that falls in the 52582
third year of that continuing education reporting period. A 52583
licensee who is seventy years of age or older whose license is in 52584
an inactive status is exempt from the continuing education 52585
requirements specified in this section. The commission shall adopt 52586
reasonable rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 52587
Code to carry out the purposes of this paragraph.52588

       (B) The continuing education requirements of this section 52589
shall be completed in schools, seminars, and educational 52590
institutions approved by the commission. Such approval shall be 52591
given according to rules established by the commission under the 52592
procedures of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, and shall not be 52593
limited to institutions providing two-year or four-year degrees. 52594
Each school, seminar, or educational institution approved under 52595
this division shall be open to all licensees on an equal basis.52596

       (C) If the requirements of this section are not met by a 52597
licensee within the period specified, the licensee's license shall 52598
be suspended automatically without the taking of any action by the 52599
superintendent. The superintendent shall notify the licensee of 52600
the license suspension, and such notification shall be sent by 52601
regular mail to the personal residence address of the licensee 52602
that is on file with the division. Any license so suspended shall 52603
remain suspended until it is reactivated by the superintendent. No 52604
such license shall be reactivated until it is established, to the 52605
satisfaction of the superintendent, that the requirements of this 52606
section have been met. If the requirements of this section are not 52607
met within twelve months from the date the license was suspended, 52608
the license shall be revoked automatically without the taking of 52609
any action by the superintendent.52610

       (D) If the license of a real estate broker is suspended 52611
pursuant to division (C) of this section, the license of a real 52612
estate salesperson associated with that broker correspondingly is 52613
suspended pursuant to division (H) of section 4735.20 of the 52614
Revised Code. A sole broker shall notify affiliated salespersons 52615
of the suspension in writing within three days of receiving the 52616
notice required by division (C) of this section.52617

       (1) The suspended license of the associated real estate 52618
salesperson shall be reactivated and no fee shall be charged or 52619
collected for that reactivation if that broker subsequently 52620
submits proof to the superintendent that the broker has complied 52621
with the requirements of this section and requests that the 52622
broker's license as a real estate broker be reactivated, and the 52623
superintendent then reactivates the broker's license as a real 52624
estate broker.52625

       (2) If the real estate salesperson submits an application to 52626
leave the association of the suspended broker in order to 52627
associate with a different broker, the suspended license of the 52628
associated real estate salesperson shall be reactivated and no fee 52629
shall be charged or collected for that reactivation. The 52630
superintendent may process the application regardless of whether 52631
the licensee's license is returned to the superintendent.52632

       Any person whose license is reactivated pursuant to this 52633
division shall comply with the requirements of this section and 52634
otherwise be in compliance with this chapter.52635

       (E) Any licensee who is a disabled licensee at any time 52636
during the last three months of the third year of the licensee's 52637
continuing education reporting period may receive an extension of 52638
time as deemed appropriate by the superintendent to submit proof 52639
to the superintendent that the licensee has satisfactorily 52640
completed the required thirty hours of continuing education. To 52641
receive an extension of time, the licensee shall submit a request 52642
to the division of real estate for the extension and proof 52643
satisfactory to the commission that the licensee was a disabled 52644
licensee at some time during the last three months of the 52645
three-year reporting period. The proof shall include, but is not 52646
limited to, a signed statement by the licensee's attending 52647
physician describing the disability, certifying that the 52648
licensee's disability is of such a nature as to prevent the 52649
licensee from attending any instruction lasting at least three 52650
hours in duration, and stating the expected duration of the 52651
disability. The licensee shall request the extension and provide 52652
the physician's statement to the division no later than one month 52653
prior to the end of the licensee's three-year continuing education 52654
reporting period, unless the disability did not arise until the 52655
last month of the three-year reporting period, in which event the 52656
licensee shall request the extension and provide the physician's 52657
statement as soon as practical after the occurrence of the 52658
disability. A licensee granted an extension pursuant to this 52659
division who is no longer a disabled licensee and who submits 52660
proof of completion of the continuing education during the 52661
extension period, shall submit, for future continuing education 52662
reporting periods, proof of completion of the continuing education 52663
requirements according to the schedule established in division (A) 52664
of this section.52665

       (F) The superintendent shall not renew a license if the 52666
licensee fails to comply with this section, and the licensee shall 52667
be required to pay the penalty fee provided in section 4735.14 of 52668
the Revised Code.52669

       (G) A licensee shall submit proof of completion of the 52670
required continuing education with the licensee's notice of 52671
renewal. The proof shall be submitted in the manner provided by 52672
the superintendent.52673

       Sec. 4735.142.  (A) Any person licensed under section 4735.07 52674
or 4735.09 of the Revised Code, at any time prior to the date the 52675
licensee is required to file a notice of renewal pursuant to 52676
division (B) of section 4735.14 of the Revised Code may apply to 52677
the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing to 52678
place the licensee's license on voluntary hold orin a permanently52679
resigned status.52680

       (B) If the superintendent has placed a license on voluntary 52681
hold pursuant to a request made under division (A) of this 52682
section, the licensee who requested that the licensee's license be 52683
placed on voluntary hold may apply to the superintendent to 52684
reactivate that license within twelve months after the date the 52685
license is placed on voluntary hold. The superintendent shall 52686
reactivate that license if the licensee complies with the 52687
requirements for such reactivation that are specified in rules 52688
adopted by the Ohio real estate commission pursuant to division 52689
(A) of section 4735.10 of the Revised Code and satisfies all of 52690
the following requirements:52691

       (1) The licensee complies with the postlicensure education 52692
requirements specified in section 4735.07 or 4735.09 of the 52693
Revised Code, as applicable; 52694

       (2) The licensee complies with the continuing education 52695
requirements specified in section 4735.141 of the Revised Code; 52696

       (3) The licensee renews the licensee's license in accordance 52697
with section 4735.14 of the Revised Code and, if applicable, pays 52698
the annual brokerage assessment fee in accordance with the 52699
requirements specified in rules adopted by the commission. 52700

       (C) If a licensee does not apply to reactivate a license on 52701
voluntary hold pursuant to division (B) of this section during the 52702
twelve-month time period specified in that division or does not 52703
satisfy the requirements specified in that division during that 52704
twelve-month period, the superintendent shall consider that 52705
license to be in a resigned status. The superintendent shall not 52706
reactivate a resigned license. The resignation of a license is 52707
considered to be final without the taking of any action by the 52708
superintendent. If a person whose license is in a resigned status 52709
pursuant to this division wishes to obtain an active license, the 52710
person shall apply for an active license in accordance with the 52711
requirements specified in section 4735.07 or 4735.09 of the 52712
Revised Code, as applicable.52713

       (D) A licensee, at any time during which a license has been 52714
suspended pursuant to division (G) of section 4735.07, division 52715
(H) of section 4735.09, division (E) of section 4735.12, division 52716
(C) of section 4735.14, division (C) of section 4735.141, or 52717
section 4735.182 of the Revised Code, may apply to the 52718
superintendent on a form prescribed by the superintendent to 52719
voluntarilypermanently resign the licensee's license voluntarily. 52720
The resignation of a license is considered to be final without the 52721
taking of any action by the superintendent. If52722

       (C) If a person whose license is in a permanently resigned 52723
status pursuant to a request made under this divisionsection52724
wishes to obtain an active or inactive license, the person shall 52725
apply for such a license in accordance with the requirements 52726
specified in section 4735.07 or 4735.09 of the Revised Code, as 52727
applicable, or in the rules adopted by the commission pursuant to 52728
division (A) of section 4735.10 of the Revised Code.52729

       (E)(D) If placing a broker's license on voluntary hold orin52730
a permanently resigned status will result in the closure of the 52731
broker's brokerage, the broker, within three days after applying 52732
to the superintendent to place the license on voluntary hold orin52733
a permanently resigned status, shall provide to each salesperson 52734
associated with that broker a written notice stating that fact.52735

       (F)(E) This section does not apply to any licensee whose 52736
license has been suspended pursuant to division (F) of section 52737
4735.181 of the Revised Code or due to disciplinary action ordered 52738
by the commission pursuant to section 4735.051 of the Revised 52739
Code.52740

       Sec. 4735.74.  Unless otherwise agreed in writing, a licensee 52741
owes no further duty to a client after performance of all duties 52742
or after any contract has terminated or expired, except for both 52743
of the following:52744

       (A) Providing the client with an accounting of all moneys and 52745
property relating to the transaction;52746

       (B) Keeping confidential all information received during the 52747
course of the transaction unless:52748

       (1) The client permits disclosure;52749

       (2) Disclosure is required by law or by court order;52750

       (3) The information becomes public from a source other than 52751
the licensee;52752

       (4) The information is necessary to prevent a crime the 52753
client intends to commit;52754

       (5) Disclosure is necessary to defend the brokerage or its 52755
licensees against an accusation of wrongful conduct or to 52756
establish or defend a claim that a commission is owed on a 52757
transaction.;52758

       (6) Disclosure is regarding sales information requested by a 52759
registeredreal estate appraiser assistant registered under 52760
Chapter 4763. of the Revised Code or a licensed or certifiedreal 52761
estate appraiser licensed or certified under Chapter 4763. of the 52762
Revised Code for the purposes of performing an appraisal. No cause 52763
of action shall arise on behalf of any person against a licensee 52764
for releasing information pursuant to this division.52765

       Sec. 4736.01.  As used in this chapter:52766

       (A) "Environmental health science" means the aspect of public 52767
health science that includes, but is not limited to, the following 52768
bodies of knowledge: air quality, food quality and protection, 52769
hazardous and toxic substances, consumer product safety, housing, 52770
institutional health and safety, community noise control, 52771
radiation protection, recreational facilities, solid and liquid 52772
waste management, vector control, drinking water quality, milk 52773
sanitation, and rabies control.52774

       (B) "Sanitarian" means a person who performs for compensation 52775
educational, investigational, technical, or administrative duties 52776
requiring specialized knowledge and skills in the field of 52777
environmental health science.52778

       (C) "Registered sanitarian" means a person who is registered 52779
as a sanitarian in accordance with this chapter.52780

       (D) "Sanitarian-in-training" means a person who is registered 52781
as a sanitarian-in-training in accordance with this chapter.52782

       (E) "Practice of environmental health" means consultation, 52783
instruction, investigation, inspection, or evaluation by an 52784
employee of a city health district, a general health district, the 52785
environmental protection agency, the department of health, or the 52786
department of agriculture requiring specialized knowledge, 52787
training, and experience in the field of environmental health 52788
science, with the primary purpose of improving or conducting 52789
administration or enforcement under any of the following:52790

       (1) Chapter 911., 913., 917., 3717., 3718., 3721., 3729., or 52791
3733. of the Revised Code;52792

       (2) Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code as it pertains to solid 52793
waste;52794

       (3) Section 955.26, 3701.344, 3707.01, or 3707.03, sections 52795
3707.38 to 3707.99, or section 3715.21 of the Revised Code;52796

       (4) Rules adopted under former section 3701.34 of the Revised 52797
Code pertaining to rabies control or swimming pools;52798

       (5) Rules adopted under section 3701.935 of the Revised Code 52799
for school health and safety network inspections and rules adopted 52800
under section 3707.26 of the Revised Code for sanitary 52801
inspections.52802

       "Practice of environmental health" does not include sampling, 52803
testing, controlling of vectors, reporting of observations, or 52804
other duties that do not require application of specialized 52805
knowledge and skills in environmental health science performed 52806
under the supervision of a registered sanitarian.52807

       The state board of sanitarian registration may further define 52808
environmental health science in relation to specific functions in 52809
the practice of environmental health through rules adopted by the 52810
board under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.52811

       Sec. 4740.03.  (A) The administrative section of the Ohio 52812
construction industry licensing board annually shall elect from 52813
among its members a chairperson and other officers as the board, 52814
by rule, designates. The chairperson shall preside over meetings 52815
of the administrative section or designate another member to 52816
preside in the chairperson's absence. The administrative section 52817
shall hold at least two regular meetings each year, but may meet 52818
at additional times as specified by rule, at the call of the 52819
chairperson, or upon the request of two or more members. A 52820
majority of the members of the administrative section constitutes 52821
a quorum for the transaction of all business. The administrative 52822
section may not take any action without the concurrence of at 52823
least three of its members.52824

       (B)(1) The administrative section shall employ a secretary, 52825
who is not a member of the board, to serve at the pleasure of the 52826
administrative section, and shall fix the compensation of the 52827
secretary. The secretary shall be in the unclassified civil 52828
service of the state.52829

       (2) The secretary shall do all of the following:52830

       (a) Keep or set standards for and delegate to another person 52831
the keeping of the minutes, books, and other records and files of 52832
the board and each section of the board;52833

       (b) Issue all licenses in the name of the board;52834

       (c) Send out all notices, including advance notices of 52835
meetings of the board and each section of the board, and attend to 52836
all correspondence of the board and each section of the board, 52837
under the direction of the administrative section;52838

       (d) Receive and deposit all fees payable pursuant to this 52839
chapter into the laborindustrial compliance operating fund 52840
created pursuant to section 121.084 of the Revised Code;52841

       (e) Perform all other duties incidental to the office of the 52842
secretary or properly assigned to the secretary by the 52843
administrative section of the board.52844

       (3) Before entering upon the discharge of the duties of the 52845
secretary, the secretary shall file with the treasurer of state a 52846
bond in the sum of five thousand dollars, payable to the state, to 52847
ensure the faithful performance of the secretary's duties. The 52848
board shall pay the premium of the bond in the same manner as it 52849
pays other expenditures of the board.52850

       (C) Upon the request of the administrative section of the 52851
board, the director of commerce shall supply the board and its 52852
sections with personnel, office space, and supplies, as the 52853
director determines appropriate. The administrative section of the 52854
board shall employ any additional staff it considers necessary and 52855
appropriate.52856

       (D) The chairperson of the board or the secretary, or both, 52857
as authorized by the board, shall approve all vouchers of the 52858
board.52859

       Sec. 4740.11.  The Ohio construction industry licensing board 52860
and its sections shall deposit all receipts and fines collected 52861
under this chapter into the state treasury to the credit of the 52862
laborindustrial compliance operating fund created in section 52863
121.084 of the Revised Code.52864

       Sec. 4740.14.  (A) There is hereby created within the 52865
department of commerce the residential construction advisory 52866
committee consisting of nine persons the director of commerce 52867
appoints. The advisory committee shall be made up of the following 52868
members:52869

       (1) Three shall be general contractors who have recognized 52870
ability and experience in the construction of residential 52871
buildings.52872

       (2) Two shall be building officials who have experience 52873
administering and enforcing a residential building code.52874

       (3) One, chosen from a list of three names the Ohio fire 52875
chief's association submits, shall be from the fire service 52876
certified as a fire safety inspector who has at least ten years of 52877
experience enforcing fire or building codes.52878

       (4) One shall be a residential contractor who has recognized 52879
ability and experience in the remodeling and construction of 52880
residential buildings.52881

       (5) One shall be an architect registered pursuant to Chapter 52882
4703. of the Revised Code, with recognized ability and experience 52883
in the architecture of residential buildings.52884

       (6) One, chosen from a list of three names the Ohio municipal 52885
league submits to the director, shall be a mayor of a municipal 52886
corporation in which the Ohio residential building code is being 52887
enforced in the municipal corporation by a certified building 52888
department.52889

       (B) Terms of office shall be for three years, with each term 52890
ending on the date three years after the date of appointment. Each 52891
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 52892
end of the term for which the member was appointed. Vacancies 52893
shall be filled in the manner provided for initial appointments. 52894
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy in an unexpired term shall 52895
hold office for the remainder of that term.52896

       (C) The advisory committee shall do all of the following:52897

       (1) Recommend to the board of building standards a building 52898
code for residential buildings. The committee shall recommend a 52899
code that it may model on a residential building code a national 52900
model code organization issues, with adaptations necessary to 52901
implement the code in this state. If the board of building 52902
standards decides not to adopt a code the committee recommends, 52903
the committee shall revise the code and resubmit it until the 52904
board adopts a code the committee recommends as the state 52905
residential building code;52906

       (2) Advise the board regarding the establishment of standards 52907
for certification of building officials who enforce the state 52908
residential building code;52909

       (3) Assist the board in providing information and guidance to 52910
residential contractors and building officials who enforce the 52911
state residential building code;52912

       (4) Advise the board regarding the interpretation of the 52913
state residential building code;52914

       (5) Provide other assistance the committee considers 52915
necessary;52916

       (6) Provide the board with a written report of the 52917
committee's findings for each consideration required by division 52918
(D) of this section.52919

       (D) The committee shall not make its recommendation to the 52920
board pursuant to divisions (C)(1), (2), and (4) of this section 52921
until the advisory committee has considered all of the following:52922

       (1) The impact that the state residential building code may 52923
have upon the health, safety, and welfare of the public;52924

       (2) The economic reasonableness of the residential building 52925
code;52926

       (3) The technical feasibility of the residential building 52927
code;52928

       (4) The financial impact that the residential building code 52929
may have on the public's ability to purchase affordable housing.52930

       (E) The advisory committee may provide the board with any 52931
rule the committee recommends to update or amend the state 52932
residential building code or any rule that the committee 52933
recommends to update or amend the state residential building code 52934
after receiving a petition described in division (A)(2) of section 52935
3781.12 of the Revised Code.52936

       (F) Members of the advisory committee shall receive no salary 52937
for the performance of their duties as members, but shall receive 52938
their actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of 52939
their duties as members of the advisory committee and shall 52940
receive a per diem for each day in attendance at an official 52941
meeting of the committee, to be paid from the laborindustrial 52942
compliance operating fund in the state treasury, using fees 52943
collected in connection with residential buildings pursuant to 52944
division (F)(2) of section 3781.102 of the Revised Code and 52945
deposited in that fund.52946

       (G) The advisory committee is not subject to divisions (A) 52947
and (B) of section 101.84 of the Revised Code.52948

       Sec. 4743.05.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 52949
4701.20, 4723.062, 4723.082, and 4729.65, 4781.121, and 4781.28 of 52950
the Revised Code, all money collected under Chapters 3773., 4701., 52951
4703., 4709., 4713., 4715., 4717., 4723., 4725., 4729., 4732., 52952
4733., 4734., 4736., 4741., 4753., 4755., 4757., 4758., 4759., 52953
4761., 4766., 4771., 4775., 4779., and 4781. of the Revised Code 52954
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 52955
occupational licensing and regulatory fund, which is hereby 52956
created for use in administering such chapters.52957

       At the end of each quarter, the director of budget and 52958
management shall transfer from the occupational licensing and 52959
regulatory fund to the nurse education assistance fund created in 52960
section 3333.28 of the Revised Code the amount certified to the 52961
director under division (B) of section 4723.08 of the Revised 52962
Code.52963

       At the end of each quarter, the director shall transfer from 52964
the occupational licensing and regulatory fund to the certified 52965
public accountant education assistance fund created in section 52966
4701.26 of the Revised Code the amount certified to the director 52967
under division (H)(2) of section 4701.10 of the Revised Code.52968

       Sec. 4763.05. (A)(1)(a) A person shall make application for 52969
an initial state-certified general real estate appraiser 52970
certificate, an initial state-certified residential real estate 52971
appraiser certificate, an initial state-licensed residential real 52972
estate appraiser license, or an initial state-registered real 52973
estate appraiser assistant registration in writing to the 52974
superintendent of real estate on a form the superintendent 52975
prescribes. The application shall include the address of the 52976
applicant's principal place of business and all other addresses at 52977
which the applicant currently engages in the business of preparing 52978
real estate appraisals and the address of the applicant's current 52979
residence. The superintendent shall retain the applicant's current 52980
residence address in a separate record which shalldoes not 52981
constitute a public record for purposes of section 149.03149.4352982
of the Revised Code. The application shall indicate whether the 52983
applicant seeks certification as a general real estate appraiser 52984
or as a residential real estate appraiser, licensure as a 52985
residential real estate appraiser, or registration as a real 52986
estate appraiser assistant and be accompanied by the prescribed 52987
examination and certification, registration, or licensure fees set 52988
forth in section 4763.09 of the Revised Code. The application also 52989
shall include a pledge, signed by the applicant, that the 52990
applicant will comply with the standards set forth in this 52991
chapter; and a statement that the applicant understands the types 52992
of misconduct for which disciplinary proceedings may be initiated 52993
against the applicant pursuant to this chapter.52994

       (b) Upon the filing of an application and payment of any 52995
examination and certification, registration, or licensure fees, 52996
the superintendent of real estate shall request the superintendent 52997
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, or a 52998
vendor approved by the bureau, to conduct a criminal records check 52999
based on the applicant's fingerprints in accordance with division 53000
(A)(11) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 53001
division (K) of section 121.08 of the Revised Code, the 53002
superintendent of real estate shall request that criminal record 53003
information from the federal bureau of investigation be obtained 53004
as part of the criminal records check. Any fee required under 53005
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code shall be 53006
paid by the applicant.53007

       (2) For purposes of providing funding for the real estate 53008
appraiser recovery fund established by section 4763.16 of the 53009
Revised Code, the real estate appraiser board shall levy an 53010
assessment against each person issued an initial certificate, 53011
registration, or license and against current licensees, 53012
registrants, and certificate holders, as required by board rule. 53013
The assessment is in addition to the application and examination 53014
fees for initial applicants required by division (A)(1) of this 53015
section and the renewal fees required for current certificate 53016
holders, registrants, and licensees. The superintendent of real 53017
estate shall deposit the assessment into the state treasury to the 53018
credit of the real estate appraiser recovery fund. The assessment 53019
for initial certificate holders, registrants, and licensees shall 53020
be paid prior to the issuance of a certificate, registration, or 53021
license, and for current certificate holders, registrants, and 53022
licensees, at the time of renewal.53023

       (B) An applicant for an initial general real estate appraiser 53024
certificate, residential real estate appraiser certificate, or 53025
residential real estate appraiser license shall possess experience 53026
in real estate appraisal as the board prescribes by rule. In 53027
addition to any other information required by the board, the 53028
applicant shall furnish, under oath, a detailed listing of the 53029
appraisal reports or file memoranda for each year for which 53030
experience is claimed and, upon request of the superintendent or 53031
the board, shall make available for examination a sample of the 53032
appraisal reports prepared by the applicant in the course of the 53033
applicant's practice.53034

       (C) An applicant for an initial certificate, registration, or 53035
license shall be at least eighteen years of age, honest, truthful, 53036
and of good reputation and shall present satisfactory evidence to 53037
the superintendent that the applicant has successfully completed 53038
any education requirements the board prescribes by rule.53039

       (D) An applicant for an initial general real estate appraiser 53040
or residential real estate appraiser certificate or residential 53041
real estate appraiser license shall take and successfully complete 53042
a written examination in order to qualify for the certificate or 53043
license.53044

        The board shall prescribe the examination requirements by 53045
rule.53046

       (E)(1) A nonresident, natural person of this state who has 53047
complied with this section may obtain a certificate, registration, 53048
or license. The board shall adopt rules relating to the 53049
certification, registration, and licensure of a nonresident 53050
applicant whose state of residence the board determines to have 53051
certification, registration, or licensure requirements that are 53052
substantially similar to those set forth in this chapter and the 53053
rules adopted thereunder.53054

       (2) The board shall recognize on a temporary basis a 53055
certification or license issued in another state and shall 53056
register on a temporary basis an appraiser who is certified or 53057
licensed in another state if all of the following apply:53058

       (a) The temporary registration is to perform an appraisal 53059
assignment that is part of a federally related transaction.53060

       (b) The appraiser's business in this state is of a temporary 53061
nature.53062

       (c) The appraiser registers with the board pursuant to this 53063
division.53064

       An appraiser who is certified or licensed in another state 53065
shall register with the board for temporary practice before 53066
performing an appraisal assignment in this state in connection 53067
with a federally related transaction.53068

       The board shall adopt rules relating to registration for the 53069
temporary recognition of certification and licensure of appraisers 53070
from another state. The registration for temporary recognition of 53071
certified or licensed appraisers from another state shall not 53072
authorize completion of more than one appraisal assignment in this 53073
state. The board shall not issue more than two registrations for 53074
temporary practice to any one applicant in any calendar year.53075

       (3) In addition to any other information required to be 53076
submitted with the nonresident applicant's or appraiser's 53077
application for a certificate, registration, license, or temporary 53078
recognition of a certificate or license, each nonresident 53079
applicant or appraiser shall submit a statement consenting to the 53080
service of process upon the nonresident applicant or appraiser by 53081
means of delivering that process to the secretary of state if, in 53082
an action against the applicant, certificate holder, registrant, 53083
or licensee arising from the applicant's, certificate holder's, 53084
registrant's, or licensee's activities as a certificate holder, 53085
registrant, or licensee, the plaintiff, in the exercise of due 53086
diligence, cannot effect personal service upon the applicant, 53087
certificate holder, registrant, or licensee.53088

       (F) The superintendent shall not issue a certificate, 53089
registration, or license to, or recognize on a temporary basis an 53090
appraiser from another state that is a corporation, partnership, 53091
or association. This prohibition shall not be construed to prevent 53092
a certificate holder or licensee from signing an appraisal report 53093
on behalf of a corporation, partnership, or association.53094

       (G) Every person licensed, registered, or certified under 53095
this chapter shall notify the superintendent, on a form provided 53096
by the superintendent, of a change in the address of the 53097
licensee's, registrant's, or certificate holder's principal place 53098
of business or residence within thirty days of the change. If a 53099
licensee's, registrant's, or certificate holder's license, 53100
registration, or certificate is revoked or not renewed, the 53101
licensee, registrant, or certificate holder immediately shall 53102
return the annual and any renewal certificate, registration, or 53103
license to the superintendent.53104

       (H)(1) The superintendent shall not issue a certificate, 53105
registration, or license to any person, or recognize on a 53106
temporary basis an appraiser from another state, who does not meet 53107
applicable minimum criteria for state certification, registration, 53108
or licensure prescribed by federal law or rule.53109

       (2) The superintendent shall not issue a general real estate 53110
appraiser certificate, residential real estate appraiser 53111
certificate, residential real estate appraiser license, or real 53112
estate appraiser assistant registration to any person who has been 53113
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal offense involving 53114
theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, 53115
passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any 53116
criminal offense involving money or securities, including a 53117
violation of an existing or former law of this state, any other 53118
state, or the United States that substantially is equivalent to 53119
such an offense. However, if the applicant has pleaded guilty to 53120
or been convicted of such an offense, the superintendent shall not 53121
consider the offense if the applicant has proven to the 53122
superintendent, by a preponderance of the evidence, that the 53123
applicant's activities and employment record since the conviction 53124
show that the applicant is honest, truthful, and of good 53125
reputation, and there is no basis in fact for believing that the 53126
applicant will commit such an offense again.53127

       Sec. 4765.02. (A)(1) There is hereby created the state board 53128
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services within the 53129
division of emergency medical services of the department of public 53130
safety. The board shall consist of the members specified in this 53131
section who are residents of this state. The governor, with the 53132
advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint all members of the 53133
board, except the employee of the department of public safety 53134
designated by the director of public safety under this section to 53135
be a member of the board. In making the appointments, the governor 53136
shall appoint only members with background or experience in 53137
emergency medical services or trauma care and shall attempt to 53138
include members representing urban and rural areas, various 53139
geographical regions of the state, and various schools of 53140
training.53141

       (2) One member of the board shall be a physician certified by 53142
the American board of emergency medicine or the American 53143
osteopathic board of emergency medicine who is active in the 53144
practice of emergency medicine and is actively involved with an 53145
emergency medical service organization. The governor shall appoint 53146
this member from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter 53147
of the American college of emergency physicians and three persons 53148
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association. One member shall be 53149
a physician certified by the American board of surgery or the 53150
American osteopathic board of surgery who is active in the 53151
practice of trauma surgery and is actively involved with emergency 53152
medical services. The governor shall appoint this member from 53153
among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American 53154
college of surgeons and three persons nominated by the Ohio 53155
osteopathic association. One member shall be a physician certified 53156
by the American academy of pediatrics or American osteopathic 53157
board of pediatrics who is active in the practice of pediatric 53158
emergency medicine and actively involved with an emergency medical 53159
service organization. The governor shall appoint this member from 53160
among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American 53161
academy of pediatrics and three persons nominated by the Ohio 53162
osteopathic association. One member shall be the administrator of 53163
an adult or pediatric trauma center. The governor shall appoint 53164
this member from among three persons nominated by the OHA: the 53165
association for hospitals and health systems, three persons 53166
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons 53167
nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and 53168
three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio. One member 53169
shall be the administrator of a hospital that is not a trauma 53170
centerlocated in this state. The governor shall appoint this 53171
member from among three persons nominated by OHA: the association 53172
for hospitals and health systems, three persons nominated by the 53173
Ohio osteopathic association, and three persons nominated by the 53174
association of Ohio children's hospitals, and three persons 53175
nominated by the health forum of Ohio. One member shall be a 53176
registered nurse with EMS certification who is in the active 53177
practice of emergency nursingperforms mobile intensive care or 53178
air medical transport. The governor shall appoint this member from 53179
among three persons nominated by the Ohio nurses association, 53180
three persons nominated by the Ohio association of critical care 53181
transport, and three persons nominated by the Ohio state council 53182
of the emergency nurses association. One member shall be the chief 53183
of a fire department that is also an emergency medical service 53184
organization in which more than fifty per cent of the persons who 53185
provide emergency medical services are full-time paid employees. 53186
The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 53187
nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association. One member shall 53188
be the chief of a fire department that is also an emergency 53189
medical service organization in which more than fifty per cent of 53190
the persons who provide emergency medical services are volunteers. 53191
The governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 53192
nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association. One member shall 53193
be a person who is certified to teach under section 4765.23 of the 53194
Revised Code or, if the board has not yet certified persons to 53195
teach under that section, a person who is qualified to be 53196
certified to teach under that sectionand holds a valid 53197
certificate to practice as an EMT, advanced EMT, or paramedic. The 53198
governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 53199
nominated by the Ohio emergency medical technician instructors 53200
association and the Ohio instructor/coordinators' society. One 53201
member shall be an EMT-basic, one shall be an EMT-IEMT, advanced 53202
EMT, or paramedic, and one member shall be a paramedic. The 53203
governor shall appoint these members from among three EMTs-basic, 53204
three EMTs-I,EMTs or advanced EMTs and three paramedics nominated 53205
by the Ohio association of professional fire fighters and three 53206
EMTs-basic, three EMTs-I, and three paramedics nominated by the 53207
northern Ohio fire fighters. One member shall be an EMT-basic, 53208
one shall be an EMT-IEMT, advanced EMT, or paramedic, and one 53209
member shall be a paramedic whom the. The governor shall appoint 53210
these members from among three EMTs-basic, three EMTs-I,EMTs or 53211
advanced EMTs and three paramedics nominated by the Ohio state 53212
firefighter's association. One member shall be a person whom the 53213
governor shall appoint from among an EMT-basic, an EMT-I, andEMT, 53214
an advanced EMT, or a paramedic nominated by the Ohio association 53215
of emergency medical services or the Ohio ambulance and medical 53216
transportation association. One member shall be an EMT, an 53217
advanced EMT, or a paramedic, whom the governor shall appoint from 53218
among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and medical 53219
transportation association. One member shall be a paramedic, whom 53220
the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by 53221
the Ohio ambulance and medical transportation association. The 53222
governor shall appoint one member who is an EMT-basic, EMT-I, or 53223
paramedic affiliated with an emergency medical services 53224
organization. One member shall be a member of the Ohio ambulance 53225
association whom the governor shall appoint from among three 53226
persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance association. One member 53227
shall be a physician certified by the American board of surgery, 53228
American board of osteopathic surgery, American osteopathic board 53229
of emergency medicine, or American board of emergency medicine who 53230
is the chief medical officer of an air medical agency and is 53231
currently active in providing emergency medical services. The 53232
governor shall appoint this member from among three persons 53233
nominated by the Ohio association of air medical services.One 53234
member shall be the owner or operator of a private emergency 53235
medical service organization whom the governor shall appoint from 53236
among three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance and medical 53237
transportation association. One member shall be a provider of 53238
mobile intensive care unit transportation in this state whom the 53239
governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the 53240
Ohio association of critical care transport. One member shall be a 53241
provider of air-medical transportation in this state whom the 53242
governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by the 53243
Ohio association of critical care transport. One member shall be 53244
the owner or operator of a nonemergency medical service 53245
organization in this state that provides ambulette services whom 53246
the governor shall appoint from among three persons nominated by 53247
the Ohio ambulance and medical transportation association.53248

       The governor may refuse to appoint any of the persons 53249
nominated by one or more organizations under division (A)(2) of53250
this section, except the employee of the department of public 53251
safety designated by the director of public safety under this 53252
section to be a member of the board. In that event, the 53253
organization or organizations shall continue to nominate the 53254
required number of persons until the governor appoints to the 53255
board one or more of the persons nominated by the organization or 53256
organizations.53257

       The director of public safety shall designate an employee of 53258
the department of public safety to serve as a member of the board 53259
at the director's pleasure. This member shall serve as a liaison 53260
between the department and the division of emergency medical 53261
services in cooperation with the executive director of the board.53262

       Initial appointments to the board by the governor and the 53263
director of public safety shall be made within ninety days after 53264
November 12, 1992. Of the initial appointments by the governor, 53265
five shall be for terms ending one year after November 12, 1992, 53266
six shall be for terms ending two years after November 12, 1992, 53267
and six shall be for terms ending three years after November 12, 53268
1992. Within ninety days after the effective date of this 53269
amendment, the governor shall appoint the member of the board who 53270
is the chief medical officer of an air medical agency for an 53271
initial term ending November 12, 2000. Thereafter, terms53272

       (B) Terms of office of all members appointed by the governor 53273
shall be for three years, each term ending on the same day of the 53274
same month as did the term it succeeds. Each member shall hold 53275
office from the date of appointment until the end of the term for 53276
which the member was appointed. A member shall continue in office 53277
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 53278
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 53279
has elapsed, whichever occurs first.53280

       Each vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the 53281
original appointment. A member appointed to fill a vacancy 53282
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 53283
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 53284
remainder of the unexpired term.53285

       The term of a member shall expire if the member ceases to 53286
meet any of the requirements to be appointed as that member. The 53287
governor may remove any member from office for neglect of duty, 53288
malfeasance, misfeasance, or nonfeasance, after an adjudication 53289
hearing held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.53290

       (C) The members of the board shall serve without compensation 53291
but shall be reimbursed for their actual and necessary expenses 53292
incurred in carrying out their duties as board members.53293

       (D) The board shall organize by annually selecting a chair 53294
and vice-chair from among its members. The board may adopt bylaws 53295
to regulate its affairs. A majority of all members of the board 53296
shall constitute a quorum. No action shall be taken without the 53297
concurrence of a majority of all members of the board. The board 53298
shall meet at least four times annually and at the call of the 53299
chair. The chair shall call a meeting on the request of the 53300
executive director or the medical director of the board or on the 53301
written request of five members. The board shall maintain written 53302
or electronic records of its meetings.53303

       (E) Upon twenty-four hours' notice from a member of the 53304
board, the member's employer shall release the member from the 53305
member's employment duties to attend meetings of the full board. 53306
Nothing in this paragraphdivision requires the employer of a 53307
member of the board to compensate the member for time the member 53308
is released from employment duties under this paragraph, but any 53309
civil immunity, workers' compensation, disability, or similar 53310
coverage that applies to a member of the board as a result of the 53311
member's employment shall continue to apply while the member is 53312
released from employment duties under this paragraph.53313

       Sec. 4765.03.  (A) The director of public safety shall 53314
appoint a full-time executive director for the state board of 53315
emergency medical and transportation services. The executive 53316
director shall be knowledgeable in emergency medical services and 53317
trauma care and shall serve at the pleasure of the director of 53318
public safety. The director of public safety shall appoint the 53319
executive director from among three persons nominated by the 53320
board. The director of public safety may refuse, for cause, to 53321
appoint any of the board's nominees. If the director fails to 53322
appoint any of the board's nominees, the board shall continue to 53323
nominate groups of three persons until the director does appoint 53324
one of the board's nominees. The executive director shall serve as 53325
the chief executive officer of the board and as the executive 53326
director of the division of emergency medical services. The 53327
executive director shall attend each meeting of the board, except 53328
the board may exclude the executive director from discussions 53329
concerning the employment or performance of the executive director 53330
or medical director of the board. The executive director shall 53331
give a surety bond to the state in such sum as the board 53332
determines, conditioned on the faithful performance of the duties 53333
of the executive director's office. The executive director shall 53334
receive a salary from the board and shall be reimbursed for actual 53335
and necessary expenses incurred in carrying out duties as 53336
executive director.53337

       The executive director shall submit a report to the director 53338
of public safety at least every three months regarding the status 53339
of emergency medical services in this state. The executive 53340
director shall meet with the director of public safety at the 53341
director's request.53342

       (B) The board shall appoint a medical director, who shall 53343
serve at the pleasure of the board. The medical director shall be 53344
a physician certified by the American board of emergency medicine 53345
or the American osteopathic board of emergency medicine who is 53346
active in the practice of emergency medicine and has been actively 53347
involved with an emergency medical service organization for at 53348
least five years prior to being appointed. The board shall 53349
consider any recommendations for this appointment from the Ohio 53350
chapter of the American college of emergency physicians, the Ohio 53351
chapter of the American college of surgeons, the Ohio chapter of 53352
the American academy of pediatrics, the Ohio osteopathic 53353
association, and the Ohio state medical association.53354

       The medical director shall direct the executive director and 53355
advise the board with regard to adult and pediatric trauma and 53356
emergency medical services issues. The medical director shall 53357
attend each meeting of the board, except the board may exclude the 53358
medical director from discussions concerning the appointment or 53359
performance of the medical director or executive director of the 53360
board. The medical director shall be employed and paid by the 53361
board and shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses 53362
incurred in carrying out duties as medical director.53363

       (C) The board may appoint employees as it determines 53364
necessary. The board shall prescribe the duties and titles of its 53365
employees.53366

       Sec. 4765.04.  (A) The firefighter and fire safety inspector 53367
training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 53368
and transportation services is hereby created and shall consist of 53369
the members of the board who are chiefs of fire departments, and 53370
the members of the board who are emergency medical 53371
technicians-basic, emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and 53372
emergency medical technicians-paramedic appointed from among 53373
persons nominated by the Ohio association of professional fire 53374
fighters or the northern Ohio fire fighters and from among persons 53375
nominated by the Ohio state firefighter's association. Each member 53376
of the committee, except the chairperson, may designate a person 53377
with fire experience to serve in that member's place. The members 53378
of the committee or their designees shall select a chairperson 53379
from among the members or their designees.53380

       The committee may conduct investigations in the course of 53381
discharging its duties under this chapter. In the course of an 53382
investigation, the committee may issue subpoenas. If a person 53383
subpoenaed fails to comply with the subpoena, the committee may 53384
authorize its chairperson to apply to the court of common pleas in 53385
the county where the person to be subpoenaed resides for an order 53386
compelling compliance in the same manner as compliance with a 53387
subpoena issued by the court is compelled.53388

       (B) The trauma committee of the state board of emergency 53389
medical, fire, and transportation services is hereby created and 53390
shall consist of the following members appointed by the director 53391
of public safety:53392

       (1) A physician who is certified by the American board of 53393
surgery or American osteopathic board of surgery and actively 53394
practices general trauma surgery, appointed from among three 53395
persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of 53396
surgeons, three persons nominated by the Ohio state medical 53397
association, and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 53398
association;53399

       (2) A physician who is certified by the American board of 53400
surgery or the American osteopathic board of surgery and actively 53401
practices orthopedic trauma surgery, appointed from among three 53402
persons nominated by the Ohio orthopedic society and three persons 53403
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;53404

       (3) A physician who is certified by the American board of 53405
neurological surgeons or the American osteopathic board of surgery 53406
and actively practices neurosurgery on trauma victims, appointed 53407
from among three persons nominated by the Ohio state neurological 53408
society and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 53409
association;53410

       (4) A physician who is certified by the American board of 53411
surgeons or American osteopathic board of surgeons and actively 53412
specializes in treating burn victims, appointed from among three 53413
persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of 53414
surgeons and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 53415
association;53416

       (5) A dentist who is certified by the American board of oral 53417
and maxillofacial surgery and actively practices oral and 53418
maxillofacial surgery, appointed from among three persons 53419
nominated by the Ohio dental association;53420

       (6) A physician who is certified by the American board of 53421
physical medicine and rehabilitation or American osteopathic board 53422
of rehabilitation medicine and actively provides rehabilitative 53423
care to trauma victims, appointed from among three persons 53424
nominated by the Ohio society of physical medicine and 53425
rehabilitation and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 53426
association;53427

       (7) A physician who is certified by the American board of 53428
surgery or American osteopathic board of surgery with special 53429
qualifications in pediatric surgery and actively practices 53430
pediatric trauma surgery, appointed from among three persons 53431
nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American academy of 53432
pediatrics and three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 53433
association;53434

       (8) A physician who is certified by the American board of 53435
emergency medicine or American osteopathic board of emergency 53436
medicine, actively practices emergency medicine, and is actively 53437
involved in emergency medical services, appointed from among three 53438
persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American college of 53439
emergency physicians and three persons nominated by the Ohio 53440
osteopathic association;53441

       (9) A physician who is certified by the American board of 53442
pediatrics, American osteopathic board of pediatrics, or American 53443
board of emergency medicine, is sub-boarded in pediatric emergency 53444
medicine, actively practices pediatric emergency medicine, and is 53445
actively involved in emergency medical services, appointed from 53446
among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter of the American 53447
academy of pediatrics, three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter 53448
of the American college of emergency physicians, and three persons 53449
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association;53450

       (10) A physician who is certified by the American board of 53451
surgery, American osteopathic board of surgery, or American board 53452
of emergency medicine and is the chief medical officer of an air 53453
medical organization, appointed from among three persons nominated 53454
by the Ohio association of air medical services;53455

       (11) A coroner or medical examiner appointed from among three 53456
people nominated by the Ohio state coroners' association;53457

       (12) A registered nurse who actively practices trauma nursing 53458
at an adult or pediatric trauma center, appointed from among three 53459
persons nominated by the Ohio association of trauma nurse 53460
coordinators;53461

       (13) A registered nurse who actively practices emergency 53462
nursing and is actively involved in emergency medical services, 53463
appointed from among three persons nominated by the Ohio chapter 53464
of the emergency nurses' association;53465

       (14) The chief trauma registrar of an adult or pediatric 53466
trauma center, appointed from among three persons nominated by the 53467
alliance of Ohio trauma registrars;53468

       (15) The administrator of an adult or pediatric trauma 53469
center, appointed from among three persons nominated by OHA: the 53470
association for hospitals and health systems, three persons 53471
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons 53472
nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and 53473
three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio;53474

       (16) The administrator of a hospital that is not a trauma 53475
center and actively provides emergency care to adult or pediatric 53476
trauma patients, appointed from among three persons nominated by 53477
OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, three 53478
persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three 53479
persons nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, 53480
and three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio;53481

       (17) The operator of an ambulance company that actively 53482
provides trauma care to emergency patients, appointed from among 53483
three persons nominated by the Ohio ambulance association;53484

       (18) The chief of a fire department that actively provides 53485
trauma care to emergency patients, appointed from among three 53486
persons nominated by the Ohio fire chiefs' association;53487

       (19) An EMT or paramedic who is certified under this chapter 53488
and actively provides trauma care to emergency patients, appointed 53489
from among three persons nominated by the Ohio association of 53490
professional firefighters, three persons nominated by the northern 53491
Ohio fire fighters, three persons nominated by the Ohio state 53492
firefighters' association, and three persons nominated by the Ohio 53493
association of emergency medical services;53494

       (20) A person who actively advocates for trauma victims, 53495
appointed from three persons nominated by the Ohio brain injury 53496
association and three persons nominated by the governor's council 53497
on people with disabilities;53498

       (21) A physician or nurse who has substantial administrative 53499
responsibility for trauma care provided in or by an adult or 53500
pediatric trauma center, appointed from among three persons 53501
nominated by OHA: the association for hospitals and health 53502
systems, three persons nominated by the Ohio osteopathic 53503
association, three persons nominated by the association of Ohio 53504
children's hospitals, and three persons nominated by the health 53505
forum of Ohio;53506

       (22) Three representatives of hospitals that are not trauma 53507
centers and actively provide emergency care to trauma patients, 53508
appointed from among three persons nominated by OHA: the 53509
association for hospitals and health systems, three persons 53510
nominated by the Ohio osteopathic association, three persons 53511
nominated by the association of Ohio children's hospitals, and 53512
three persons nominated by the health forum of Ohio. The 53513
representatives may be hospital administrators, physicians, 53514
nurses, or other clinical professionals.53515

       Members of the committee shall have substantial experience in 53516
the categories they represent, shall be residents of this state, 53517
and may be members of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 53518
and transportation services. In appointing members of the 53519
committee, the director shall attempt to include members 53520
representing urban and rural areas, various geographical areas of 53521
the state, and various schools of training. The director shall not 53522
appoint to the committee more than one member who is employed by 53523
or practices at the same hospital, health system, or emergency 53524
medical service organization.53525

       The director may refuse to appoint any of the persons 53526
nominated by an organization or organizations under this division. 53527
In that event, the organization or organizations shall continue to 53528
nominate the required number of persons until the director 53529
appoints to the committee one or more of the persons nominated by 53530
the organization or organizations.53531

       Initial appointments to the committee shall be made by the 53532
director not later than ninety days after November 3, 2000. 53533
Members of the committee shall serve at the pleasure of the 53534
director, except that any member of the committee who ceases to be 53535
qualified for the position to which the member was appointed shall 53536
cease to be a member of the committee. Vacancies on the committee 53537
shall be filled in the same manner as original appointments.53538

       The members of the committee shall serve without compensation 53539
but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred 53540
in carrying out duties as members of the committee.53541

       The committee shall select a chairperson and vice-chairperson 53542
from among its members. A majority of all members of the committee 53543
shall constitute a quorum. No action shall be taken without the 53544
concurrence of a majority of all members of the committee. The 53545
committee shall meet at the call of the chair, upon written 53546
request of five members of the committee, and at the direction of 53547
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation53548
services. The committee shall not meet at times or locations that 53549
conflict with meetings of the board. The executive director and 53550
medical director of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 53551
and transportation services may participate in any meeting of the 53552
committee and shall do so at the request of the committee.53553

       The committee shall advise and assist the state board of 53554
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services in matters 53555
related to adult and pediatric trauma care and the establishment 53556
and operation of the state trauma registry. In matters relating to 53557
the state trauma registry, the board and the committee shall 53558
consult with trauma registrars from adult and pediatric trauma 53559
centers in the state. The committee may appoint a subcommittee to 53560
advise and assist with the trauma registry. The subcommittee may 53561
include persons with expertise relevant to the trauma registry who 53562
are not members of the board or committee.53563

       (C) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 53564
transportation services may appoint other committees and 53565
subcommittees as it considers necessary.53566

       (D) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 53567
transportation services, and any of its committees or 53568
subcommittees, may request assistance from any state agency. The 53569
board and its committees and subcommittees may permit persons who 53570
are not members of those bodies to participate in deliberations of 53571
those bodies, but no person who is not a member of the board shall 53572
vote on the board and no person who is not a member of a committee 53573
created under division (A) or (B) of this section shall vote on 53574
that committee.53575

       (E) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 53576
apply to the committees established under division (A) or (B) of 53577
this section.53578

       Sec. 4765.05. (A) As used in this section, "prehospital 53579
emergency medical services" means an emergency medical services 53580
system that provides medical services to patients who require 53581
immediate assistance, because of illness or injury, prior to their 53582
arrival at an emergency medical facility.53583

       (B) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 53584
transportation services shall divide the state geographically into 53585
prehospital emergency medical services regions for purposes of 53586
overseeing the delivery of adult and pediatric prehospital 53587
emergency medical services. For each prehospital emergency medical 53588
services region, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 53589
transportation services shall appoint either a physician to serve 53590
as the regional director or a physician advisory board to serve as 53591
the regional advisory board. The state board of emergency medical, 53592
fire, and transportation services shall specify the duties of each 53593
regional director and regional advisory board. Regional directors 53594
and members of regional advisory boards shall serve without 53595
compensation, but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary 53596
expenses incurred in carrying out duties as regional directors and 53597
members of regional advisory boards.53598

       (C) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit in 53599
any way the ability of a hospital to determine the market area of 53600
that hospital.53601

       Sec. 4765.06.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 53602
fire, and transportation services shall establish an emergency 53603
medical services incidence reporting system for the collection of 53604
information regarding the delivery of emergency medical services 53605
in this state and the frequency at which the services are 53606
provided. All emergency medical service organizations shall submit 53607
to the board any information that the board determines is 53608
necessary for maintaining the incidence reporting system.53609

       (B) The board shall establish a state trauma registry to be 53610
used for the collection of information regarding the care of adult 53611
and pediatric trauma victims in this state. The registry shall 53612
provide for the reporting of adult and pediatric trauma-related 53613
deaths, identification of adult and pediatric trauma patients, 53614
monitoring of adult and pediatric trauma patient care data, 53615
determination of the total amount of uncompensated adult and 53616
pediatric trauma care provided annually by each facility that 53617
provides care to trauma victims, and collection of any other 53618
information specified by the board. All persons designated by the 53619
board shall submit to the board any information it determines is 53620
necessary for maintaining the state trauma registry. At the 53621
request of the board any state agency possessing information 53622
regarding adult or pediatric trauma care shall provide the 53623
information to the board. The board shall maintain the state 53624
trauma registry in accordance with rules adopted under section 53625
4765.11 of the Revised Code.53626

       Rules relating to the state trauma registry adopted under 53627
this section and section 4765.11 of the Revised Code shall not 53628
prohibit the operation of other trauma registries and may provide 53629
for the reporting of information to the state trauma registry by 53630
or through other trauma registries in a manner consistent with 53631
information otherwise reported to the state trauma registry. Other 53632
trauma registries may report aggregate information to the state 53633
trauma registry, provided the information can be matched to the 53634
person that reported it. Information maintained by another trauma 53635
registry and reported to the state trauma registry in lieu of 53636
being reported directly to the state trauma registry is a public 53637
record and shall be maintained, made available to the public, held 53638
in confidence, risk adjusted, and not subject to discovery or 53639
introduction into evidence in a civil action as provided in 53640
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and this section. Any person 53641
who provides, maintains, or risk adjusts such information shall 53642
comply with this section and rules adopted under it in performing 53643
that function and has the same immunities with respect to that 53644
function as a person who performs that function with respect to 53645
the state trauma registry.53646

       (C) The board and any employee or contractor of the board or 53647
the department of public safety shall not make public information 53648
it receives under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code that 53649
identifies or would tend to identify a specific recipient of 53650
emergency medical services or adult or pediatric trauma care.53651

       (D) Not later than two years after the effective date of this 53652
amendmentNovember3, 2000, the board shall adopt and implement 53653
rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code that provide 53654
written standards and procedures for risk adjustment of 53655
information received by the board under Chapter 4765. of the 53656
Revised Code. The rules shall be developed in consultation with 53657
appropriate medical, hospital, and emergency medical service 53658
organizations and may provide for risk adjustment by a contractor 53659
of the board. Before risk adjustment standards and procedures are 53660
implemented, no member of the board and no employee or contractor 53661
of the board or the department of public safety shall make public 53662
information received by the board under Chapter 4765. of the 53663
Revised Code that identifies or would tend to identify a specific 53664
provider of emergency medical services or adult or pediatric 53665
trauma care. After risk adjustment standards and procedures are 53666
implemented, the board shall make public such information only on 53667
a risk adjusted basis.53668

       (E) The board shall adopt rules under section 4765.11 of the 53669
Revised Code that specify procedures for ensuring the 53670
confidentiality of information that is not to be made public under 53671
this section. The rules shall specify the circumstances in which 53672
deliberations of the persons performing risk adjustment functions 53673
under this section are not open to the public and records of those 53674
deliberations are maintained in confidence. Nothing in this 53675
section prohibits the board from making public statistical 53676
information that does not identify or tend to identify a specific 53677
recipient or provider of emergency medical services or adult or 53678
pediatric trauma care.53679

       (F) No provider that furnishes information to the board with 53680
respect to any patient the provider examined or treated shall, 53681
because of this furnishing, be deemed liable in damages to any 53682
person or be held to answer for betrayal of a professional 53683
confidence in the absence of willful or wanton misconduct. No such 53684
information shall be subject to introduction in evidence in any 53685
civil action against the provider. No provider that furnishes 53686
information to the board shall be liable for the misuse or 53687
improper release of the information by the board or any other 53688
person.53689

       No person who performs risk adjustment functions under this 53690
section shall, because of performing such functions, be held 53691
liable in a civil action for betrayal of professional confidence 53692
or otherwise in the absence of willful or wanton misconduct.53693

       Sec. 4765.07.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 53694
fire, and transportation services shall adopt rules under section 53695
4765.11 of the Revised Code to establish and administer a grant 53696
program under which grants are distributed according to the 53697
following priorities:53698

       (1) First priority shall be given to emergency medical 53699
service organizations for the training of personnel, for the 53700
purchase of equipment and vehicles, and to improve the 53701
availability, accessibility, and quality of emergency medical 53702
services in this state. In this category, the board shall give 53703
priority to grants that fund training and equipping of emergency 53704
medical service personnel.53705

       (2) Second priority shall be given to entities that research, 53706
test, and evaluate medical procedures and systems related to adult 53707
and pediatric trauma care.53708

       (3) Third priority shall be given to entities that research 53709
the causes, nature, and effects of traumatic injuries, educate the 53710
public about injury prevention, and implement, test, and evaluate 53711
injury prevention strategies.53712

        (4) Fourth priority shall be given to entities that research, 53713
test, and evaluate procedures that promote the rehabilitation, 53714
retraining, and reemployment of adult or pediatric trauma victims 53715
and social service support mechanisms for adult or pediatric 53716
trauma victims and their families.53717

        (5) Fifth priority shall be given to entities that conduct 53718
research on, test, or evaluate one or more of the following:53719

       (a) Procedures governing the performance of emergency medical 53720
services in this state;53721

       (b) The training of emergency medical service personnel;53722

       (c) The staffing of emergency medical service organizations.53723

       (6) For grants distributed for the grant award years 53724
occurring not later than the award year ending June 30, 2017, 53725
sixth priority shall be given to entities that operate paramedic 53726
training programs and are seeking national accreditation of the 53727
programs.53728

       (B) To be eligible for a grant distributed pursuant to 53729
division (A)(6) of this section, an applicant for the grant shall 53730
meet all of the following conditions:53731

       (1) Hold a certificate of accreditation issued by the board 53732
under section 4765.17 of the Revised Code to operate a paramedic 53733
training program;53734

       (2) Be seeking initial national accreditation of the program 53735
from an accrediting organization approved by the board;53736

       (3) Apply for the national accreditation on or after February 53737
25, 2010.53738

       (C) The grant program shall be funded from the trauma and 53739
emergency medical services grants fund created by section 4513.263 53740
of the Revised Code. 53741

       Sec. 4765.08.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 53742
and transportation services shall prepare a statewide emergency 53743
medical services plan and shall revise the plan as necessary.53744

       The board shall prepare a plan for the statewide regulation 53745
of emergency medical services during periods of disaster. The plan 53746
shall be consistent with the statewide emergency medical services 53747
plan required under this section and with the statewide emergency 53748
operations plan required under section 5502.22 of the Revised 53749
Code. The board shall submit the plan to the emergency management 53750
agency created under section 5502.22 of the Revised Code. The 53751
board shall cooperate with the agency in any other manner the 53752
agency considers necessary to develop and implement the statewide 53753
emergency operations plan.53754

       Sec. 4765.09.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 53755
and transportation services shall prepare recommendations for the 53756
operation of ambulance service organizations, air medical 53757
organizations, and emergency medical service organizations. Within 53758
thirty days following the preparation or modification of 53759
recommendations, the board shall notify the board of county 53760
commissioners of any county, the board of township trustees of any 53761
township, the board of trustees of any joint ambulance district, 53762
or the board of trustees of any joint emergency medical services 53763
district in which there exist ambulance service organizations, air 53764
medical organizations, or emergency medical service organizations 53765
of any board recommendations for the operation of such 53766
organizations. The recommendations shall include, but not be 53767
limited to:53768

       (A) The definition and classification of ambulances and 53769
medical aircraft;53770

       (B) The design, equipment, and supplies for ambulances and 53771
medical aircraft, including special equipment, supplies, training, 53772
and staffing required to assist pediatric and geriatric emergency 53773
victims;53774

       (C) The minimum number and type of personnel for the 53775
operation of ambulances and medical aircraft;53776

       (D) The communication systems necessary for the operation of 53777
ambulances and medical aircraft;53778

       (E) Reports to be made by persons holding certificates of 53779
accreditation or approval issued under section 4765.17 of the 53780
Revised Code and certificates to practice issued under section 53781
4765.30 of the Revised Code to ascertain compliance with this 53782
chapter and the rules and recommendations adopted thereunder and 53783
to ascertain the quantity and quality of ambulance service 53784
organizations, air medical organizations, and emergency medical 53785
service organizations throughout the state.53786

       Sec. 4765.10.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 53787
fire, and transportation services shall do all of the following:53788

       (1) Administer and enforce the provisions of this chapter and 53789
the rules adopted under it;53790

       (2) Approve, in accordance with procedures established in 53791
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, 53792
examinations that demonstrate competence to have a certificate to 53793
practice renewed without completing a continuing education 53794
program;53795

       (3) Advise applicants for state or federal emergency medical 53796
services funds, review and comment on applications for these 53797
funds, and approve the use of all state and federal funds 53798
designated solely for emergency medical service programs unless 53799
federal law requires another state agency to approve the use of 53800
all such federal funds;53801

       (4) Serve as a statewide clearinghouse for discussion, 53802
inquiry, and complaints concerning emergency medical services;53803

       (5) Make recommendations to the general assembly on 53804
legislation to improve the delivery of emergency medical services;53805

       (6) Maintain a toll-free long distance telephone number 53806
through which it shall respond to questions about emergency 53807
medical services;53808

       (7) Work with appropriate state offices in coordinating the 53809
training of firefighters and emergency medical service personnel. 53810
Other state offices that are involved in the training of 53811
firefighters or emergency medical service personnel shall 53812
cooperate with the board and its committees and subcommittees to 53813
achieve this goal.53814

       (8) Provide a liaison to the state emergency operation center 53815
during those periods when a disaster, as defined in section 53816
5502.21 of the Revised Code, has occurred in this state and the 53817
governor has declared an emergency as defined in that section.53818

       (B) The board may do any of the following:53819

       (1) Investigate complaints concerning emergency medical 53820
services and emergency medical service organizations as it 53821
determines necessary;53822

       (2) Enter into reciprocal agreements with other states that 53823
have standards for accreditation of emergency medical services 53824
training programs and for certification of first responders, 53825
EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, paramedics, firefighters, or fire safety 53826
inspectors that are substantially similar to those established 53827
under this chapter and the rules adopted under it;53828

       (3) Establish a statewide public information system and 53829
public education programs regarding emergency medical services;53830

       (4) Establish an injury prevention program.53831

       Sec. 4765.101. (A) The state board of emergency medical, 53832
fire, and transportation services shall investigate any allegation 53833
that a person has violated this chapter or a rule adopted under 53834
it.53835

       Any person may submit to the board a written complaint 53836
regarding an alleged violation of this chapter or a rule adopted 53837
under it. In the absence of fraud or bad faith, no person 53838
submitting a complaint to the board or testifying in an 53839
adjudication hearing conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 53840
the Revised Code with regard to such an alleged violation shall be 53841
liable to any person in damages in a civil action as a result of 53842
submitting the complaint or providing testimony.53843

        (B) In investigating an allegation, the board may do any of 53844
the following:53845

        (1) Administer oaths;53846

        (2) Order the taking of depositions;53847

        (3) Issue subpoenas;53848

        (4) Compel the attendance of witnesses and production of 53849
books, accounts, papers, records, documents, and testimony.53850

       (C) A subpoena for patient record information shall not be 53851
issued without consultation with the attorney general's office and 53852
approval of the executive director of the board. Before issuance 53853
of a subpoena for patient record information, the executive 53854
director shall determine whether there is probable cause to 53855
believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this 53856
chapter or any rule adopted under it and that the records sought 53857
are relevant to the alleged violation and material to the 53858
investigation. The subpoena may apply only to records that cover a 53859
reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation.53860

        (D) On failure to comply with any subpoena issued by the 53861
board and after reasonable notice to the person being subpoenaed, 53862
the board may move, pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure, for 53863
an order compelling the production of persons or records.53864

        (E) A subpoena issued by the board may be served by a 53865
sheriff, the sheriff's deputy, or an investigator for the division 53866
of emergency medical services of the department of public safety. 53867
Service of a subpoena issued by the board may be made by 53868
delivering a copy of the subpoena to the person named in it, 53869
reading it to the person, or leaving it at the person's usual 53870
place of residence. When the person being served is an individual 53871
authorized by this chapter to practice emergency medical services, 53872
service of the subpoena may be made by certified mail, restricted 53873
delivery, return receipt requested, and the subpoena shall be 53874
deemed served on the date delivery is made or on the date that the 53875
person refuses to accept delivery.53876

       Sec. 4765.102. (A) As used in this section, "licensing 53877
agency" means any entity that has the authority pursuant to Title 53878
XLVII of the Revised Code to issue a license, and any other agency 53879
of this or another state, other than the Ohio supreme court, that 53880
has the authority to issue a license that authorizes an individual 53881
to engage in an occupation or profession. "Licensing agency" 53882
includes an administrative officer that has authority to issue a 53883
license that authorizes an individual to engage in an occupation 53884
or profession.53885

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this 53886
section and section 4765.111 of the Revised Code, all information 53887
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation53888
services receives pursuant to an investigation, including 53889
information regarding an alleged violation of this chapter or 53890
rules adopted under it or a complaint submitted under division (A) 53891
of section 4765.101 of the Revised Code, is confidential, and is 53892
not subject to discovery in any civil action, during the course of 53893
the investigation and any adjudication proceedings that result 53894
from the investigation. Upon completion of the investigation and 53895
any resulting adjudication proceedings, the information is a 53896
matter of public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the 53897
Revised Code.53898

        (C) The board may release information otherwise made 53899
confidential by division (B) of this section to law enforcement 53900
officers or licensing agencies of this or another state that are 53901
prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating the holder of a 53902
certificate issued under this chapter or a person who allegedly 53903
engaged in the unauthorized provision of emergency medical 53904
services.53905

        A law enforcement officer or licensing agency with 53906
information disclosed by the board under this division shall not 53907
divulge the information other than for the purpose of an 53908
adjudication by a court or licensing agency to which the subject 53909
of the adjudication is a party.53910

        (D) If an investigation conducted under section 4765.101 of 53911
the Revised Code requires a review of patient records, the 53912
investigation and proceedings related to it shall be conducted in 53913
such a manner as to protect patient confidentiality. The board 53914
shall not make public the name or any other identifying 53915
information about a patient unless proper consent is given in 53916
accordance with rules adopted by the board. If the patient is less 53917
than eighteen years of age, the board shall obtain consent from 53918
the patient's parent, guardian, or custodian.53919

       Sec. 4765.11.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 53920
fire, and transportation services shall adopt, and may amend and 53921
rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 53922
and division (C) of this section that establish all of the 53923
following:53924

       (1) Procedures for its governance and the control of its 53925
actions and business affairs;53926

       (2) Standards for the performance of emergency medical 53927
services by first responders, emergency medical technicians-basic, 53928
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 53929
technicians-paramedic;53930

       (3) Application fees for certificates of accreditation, 53931
certificates of approval, certificates to teach, and certificates 53932
to practice, which shall be deposited into the trauma and 53933
emergency medical services fund created in section 4513.263 of the 53934
Revised Code;53935

       (4) Criteria for determining when the application or renewal 53936
fee for a certificate to practice may be waived because an 53937
applicant cannot afford to pay the fee;53938

       (5) Procedures for issuance and renewal of certificates of 53939
accreditation, certificates of approval, certificates to teach, 53940
and certificates to practice, including any procedures necessary 53941
to ensure that adequate notice of renewal is provided in 53942
accordance with division (D) of section 4765.30 of the Revised 53943
Code;53944

       (6) Procedures for suspending or revoking certificates of 53945
accreditation, certificates of approval, certificates to teach, 53946
and certificates to practice;53947

       (7) Grounds for suspension or revocation of a certificate to 53948
practice issued under section 4765.30 of the Revised Code and for 53949
taking any other disciplinary action against a first responder, 53950
EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic;53951

       (8) Procedures for taking disciplinary action against a first 53952
responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic;53953

       (9) Standards for certificates of accreditation and 53954
certificates of approval;53955

       (10) Qualifications for certificates to teach;53956

       (11) Requirements for a certificate to practice;53957

       (12) The curricula, number of hours of instruction and 53958
training, and instructional materials to be used in adult and 53959
pediatric emergency medical services training programs and adult 53960
and pediatric emergency medical services continuing education 53961
programs;53962

       (13) Procedures for conducting courses in recognizing 53963
symptoms of life-threatening allergic reactions and in calculating 53964
proper dosage levels and administering injections of epinephrine 53965
to adult and pediatric patients who suffer life-threatening 53966
allergic reactions;53967

       (14) Examinations for certificates to practice;53968

       (15) Procedures for administering examinations for 53969
certificates to practice;53970

       (16) Procedures for approving examinations that demonstrate 53971
competence to have a certificate to practice renewed without 53972
completing an emergency medical services continuing education 53973
program;53974

       (17) Procedures for granting extensions and exemptions of 53975
emergency medical services continuing education requirements;53976

       (18) Procedures for approving the additional emergency 53977
medical services first responders are authorized by division (C) 53978
of section 4765.35 of the Revised Code to perform, EMTs-basic are 53979
authorized by division (C) of section 4765.37 of the Revised Code 53980
to perform, EMTs-I are authorized by division (B)(5) of section 53981
4765.38 of the Revised Code to perform, and paramedics are 53982
authorized by division (B)(6) of section 4765.39 of the Revised 53983
Code to perform;53984

       (19) Standards and procedures for implementing the 53985
requirements of section 4765.06 of the Revised Code, including 53986
designations of the persons who are required to report information 53987
to the board and the types of information to be reported;53988

       (20) Procedures for administering the emergency medical 53989
services grant program established under section 4765.07 of the 53990
Revised Code;53991

       (21) Procedures consistent with Chapter 119. of the Revised 53992
Code for appealing decisions of the board;53993

       (22) Minimum qualifications and peer review and quality 53994
improvement requirements for persons who provide medical direction 53995
to emergency medical service personnel;53996

       (23) The manner in which a patient, or a patient's parent, 53997
guardian, or custodian may consent to the board releasing 53998
identifying information about the patient under division (D) of 53999
section 4765.102 of the Revised Code;54000

       (24) Circumstances under which a training program or 54001
continuing education program, or portion of either type of 54002
program, may be taught by a person who does not hold a certificate 54003
to teach issued under section 4765.23 of the Revised Code;54004

       (25) Certification cycles for certificates issued under 54005
sections 4765.23 and 4765.30 of the Revised Code and certificates 54006
issued by the executive director of the state board of emergency 54007
medical, fire, and transportation services under section 4765.55 54008
of the Revised Code that establish a common expiration date for 54009
all certificates.54010

       (B) The board may adopt, and may amend and rescind, rules in 54011
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and division (C) 54012
of this section that establish the following:54013

       (1) Specifications of information that may be collected under 54014
the trauma system registry and incidence reporting system created 54015
under section 4765.06 of the Revised Code;54016

       (2) Standards and procedures for implementing any of the 54017
recommendations made by any committees of the board or under 54018
section 4765.04 of the Revised Code;54019

       (3) Requirements that a person must meet to receive a 54020
certificate to practice as a first responder pursuant to division 54021
(A)(2) of section 4765.30 of the Revised Code;54022

       (4) Any other rules necessary to implement this chapter.54023

       (C) In developing and administering rules adopted under this 54024
chapter, the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54025
transportation services shall consult with regional directors and 54026
regional physician advisory boards created by section 4765.05 of 54027
the Revised Code and emphasize the special needs of pediatric and 54028
geriatric patients.54029

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, before 54030
adopting, amending, or rescinding any rule under this chapter, the 54031
board shall submit the proposed rule to the director of public 54032
safety for review. The director may review the proposed rule for 54033
not more than sixty days after the date it is submitted. If, 54034
within this sixty-day period, the director approves the proposed 54035
rule or does not notify the board that the rule is disapproved, 54036
the board may adopt, amend, or rescind the rule as proposed. If, 54037
within this sixty-day period, the director notifies the board that 54038
the proposed rule is disapproved, the board shall not adopt, 54039
amend, or rescind the rule as proposed unless at least twelve 54040
members of the board vote to adopt, amend, or rescind it.54041

       This division does not apply to an emergency rule adopted in 54042
accordance with section 119.03 of the Revised Code.54043

       Sec. 4765.111. Except as provided in this section or sections 54044
4765.112 to 4765.116 of the Revised Code, the state board of 54045
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall conduct 54046
disciplinary proceedings regarding the holder of a certificate 54047
issued under this chapter in accordance with rules adopted by the 54048
board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.54049

       The board and a holder of a certificate are the parties to a 54050
hearing conducted under this chapter. Either party may submit a 54051
written request to the other party for a list of witnesses and 54052
copies of documents intended to be introduced at the hearing. The 54053
request shall be in writing and shall be served not less than 54054
thirty-seven days prior to the commencement of the hearing, unless 54055
the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension 54056
of time to make the request. Not later than thirty days before the 54057
hearing, the responding party shall provide the requested list of 54058
witnesses and copies of documents to the requesting party, unless 54059
the hearing officer or presiding board member grants an extension 54060
of time to provide the list and copies.54061

        Failure to timely provide a list or copies requested in 54062
accordance with this section shall result in exclusion from the 54063
hearing of the witnesses, testimony, or documents.54064

       Sec. 4765.112.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 54065
fire, and transportation services, by an affirmative vote of the 54066
majority of its members, may suspend without a prior hearing a 54067
certificate to practice issued under this chapter if the board 54068
determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that 54069
continued practice by the certificate holder presents a danger of 54070
immediate and serious harm to the public and that the certificate 54071
holder has done any of the following:54072

       (1) Furnished false, fraudulent, or misleading information to 54073
the board; 54074

       (2) Engaged in activities that exceed those permitted by the 54075
individual's certificate;54076

        (3) In a court of this or any other state or federal court 54077
been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been the subject of a 54078
judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt 54079
resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of 54080
eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a felony 54081
or for a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice or 54082
involving gross immorality or moral turpitude.54083

       (B) Immediately following the decision to impose a summary 54084
suspension, the board, in accordance with section 119.07 of the 54085
Revised Code, shall issue a written order of suspension, cause it 54086
to be delivered to the certificate holder, and notify the 54087
certificate holder of the opportunity for a hearing. If timely 54088
requested by the certificate holder, a hearing shall be conducted 54089
in accordance with section 4765.115 of the Revised Code. 54090

       Sec. 4765.113.  If the state board of emergency medical, 54091
fire, and transportation services imposes a suspension on the 54092
basis of a conviction, judicial finding, or plea as described in 54093
division (A)(3) of section 4765.112 of the Revised Code that is 54094
overturned on appeal, the certificate holder, on exhaustion of the 54095
criminal appeal process, may file with the board a petition for 54096
reconsideration of the suspension along with appropriate court 54097
documents. On receipt of the petition and documents, the board 54098
shall reinstate the certificate holder's certificate to practice.54099

       Sec. 4765.114.  (A) A certificate to practice emergency 54100
medical services issued under this chapter is automatically 54101
suspended on the certificate holder's conviction of, plea of 54102
guilty to, or judicial finding of guilt of any of the following: 54103
aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious 54104
assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual 54105
imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated burglary, aggravated 54106
robbery, or a substantially equivalent offense committed in this 54107
or another jurisdiction. Continued practice after the suspension 54108
is practicing without a certificate. 54109

       (B) If the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54110
transportation services has knowledge that an automatic suspension 54111
has occurred, it shall notify, in accordance with section 119.07 54112
of the Revised Code, the certificate holder of the suspension and 54113
of the opportunity for a hearing. If timely requested by the 54114
certificate holder, a hearing shall be conducted in accordance 54115
with section 4765.115 of the Revised Code. 54116

       Sec. 4765.115.  (A) A suspension order issued under section 54117
4765.112 or automatic suspension under section 4765.114 of the 54118
Revised Code is not subject to suspension by a court prior to a 54119
hearing under this section or during the pendency of any appeal 54120
filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. 54121

       (B) A suspension order issued under section 4765.112 or 54122
automatic suspension under section 4765.114 of the Revised Code 54123
remains in effect, unless reversed by the state board of emergency 54124
medical, fire, and transportation services, until a final 54125
adjudication order issued by the board pursuant to this section 54126
becomes effective.54127

       (C) Hearings requested pursuant to section 4765.112 or 54128
4765.114 of the Revised Code shall be conducted under this section 54129
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 54130

       (D) A hearing under this section shall be held not later than 54131
forty-five days but not earlier than forty days after the 54132
certificate holder requests it, unless another date is agreed to 54133
by the certificate holder and the board. 54134

       (E) After completion of an adjudication hearing, the board 54135
may adopt, by an affirmative vote of the majority of its members, 54136
a final adjudication order that imposes any of the following 54137
sanctions:54138

       (1) Suspension of the holder's certificate to practice;54139

       (2) Revocation of the holder's certificate to practice;54140

       (3) Issuance of a written reprimand;54141

       (4) A refusal to renew or a limitation on the holder's 54142
certificate to practice.54143

       The board shall issue its final adjudication order not later 54144
than forty-five days after completion of an adjudication hearing. 54145
If the board does not issue a final order within that time period, 54146
the suspension order is void, but any final adjudication order 54147
subsequently issued is not affected.54148

       (F) Any action taken by the board under this section 54149
resulting in a suspension from practice shall be accompanied by a 54150
written statement of the conditions under which the certificate to 54151
practice may be reinstated. Reinstatement of a certificate 54152
suspended under this section requires an affirmative vote by the 54153
majority of the members of the board. 54154

       (G) When the board revokes or refuses to reinstate a 54155
certificate to practice, the board may specify that its action is 54156
permanent. An individual subject to permanent action taken by the 54157
board is forever ineligible to hold a certificate of the type 54158
revoked or refused, and the board shall not accept from the 54159
individual an application for reinstatement of the certificate or 54160
for a new certificate.54161

       Sec. 4765.116.  If a certificate holder subject to a 54162
suspension order issued by the state board of emergency medical, 54163
fire, and transportation services under section 4765.112 or an 54164
automatic suspension order under section 4765.114 of the Revised 54165
Code fails to make a timely request for a hearing, the following 54166
apply:54167

       (A) In the case of a certificate holder subject to a summary 54168
suspension order, the board is not required to hold a hearing, but 54169
may adopt, by an affirmative vote of a majority of its members, a 54170
final order that contains the board's findings. In the final 54171
order, the board may order any of the sanctions listed in division 54172
(E) of section 4765.115 of the Revised Code. 54173

       (B) In the case of a certificate holder subject to an 54174
automatic suspension order, the board may adopt, by an affirmative 54175
vote of a majority of its members, a final order that permanently 54176
revokes the holder's certificate to practice.54177

       Sec. 4765.12.  (A) Not later than two years after the 54178
effective date of this sectionNovember 3, 2000, the state board 54179
of emergency medical and transportation services shall develop and 54180
distribute guidelines for the care of trauma victims by emergency 54181
medical service personnel and for the conduct of peer review and 54182
quality assurance programs by emergency medical service 54183
organizations. The guidelines shall be consistent with the state 54184
trauma triage protocols adopted in rules under sections 4765.11 54185
and 4765.40 of the Revised Code and shall place emphasis on the 54186
special needs of pediatric and geriatric trauma victims. In 54187
developing the guidelines, the board shall consult with entities 54188
with interests in trauma and emergency medical services and shall 54189
consider any relevant guidelines adopted by national 54190
organizations, including the American college of surgeons, 54191
American college of emergency physicians, and American academy of 54192
pediatrics. The board shall distribute the guidelines, and 54193
amendments to the guidelines, to each emergency medical service 54194
organization, regional director, regional physician advisory 54195
board, certified emergency medical service instructor, and person 54196
who regularly provides medical direction to emergency medical 54197
service personnel in this state.54198

       (B) Not later than three years after the effective date of 54199
this sectionNovember 3, 2000, each emergency medical service 54200
organization in this state shall implement ongoing peer review and 54201
quality assurance programs designed to improve the availability 54202
and quality of the emergency medical services it provides. The 54203
form and content of the programs shall be determined by each 54204
emergency medical service organization. In implementing the 54205
programs, each emergency medical service organization shall 54206
consider how to improve its ability to provide effective trauma 54207
care, particularly for pediatric and geriatric trauma victims, and 54208
shall take into account the trauma care guidelines developed by 54209
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation54210
services under this section.54211

       Information generated solely for use in a peer review or 54212
quality assurance program conducted on behalf of an emergency 54213
medical service organization is not a public record under section 54214
149.43 of the Revised Code. Such information, and any discussion 54215
conducted in the course of a peer review or quality assurance 54216
program conducted on behalf of an emergency medical service 54217
organization, is not subject to discovery in a civil action and 54218
shall not be introduced into evidence in a civil action against 54219
the emergency medical service organization on whose behalf the 54220
information was generated or the discussion occurred.54221

       No emergency medical service organization on whose behalf a 54222
peer review or quality assurance program is conducted, and no 54223
person who conducts such a program, because of performing such 54224
functions, shall be liable in a civil action for betrayal of 54225
professional confidence or otherwise in the absence of willful or 54226
wanton misconduct.54227

       Sec. 4765.15.  A person seeking to operate an emergency 54228
medical services training program shall submit a completed 54229
application for accreditation to the state board of emergency 54230
medical, fire, and transportation services on a form the board 54231
shall prescribe and furnish. The application shall be accompanied 54232
by the appropriate application fee established in rules adopted 54233
under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.54234

       A person seeking to operate an emergency medical services 54235
continuing education program shall submit a completed application 54236
for approval to the board on a form the board shall prescribe and 54237
furnish. The application shall be accompanied by the appropriate 54238
application fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 54239
of the Revised Code.54240

       The board shall administer the accreditation and approval 54241
processes pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the 54242
Revised Code. In administering these processes, the board may 54243
authorize other persons to evaluate applications for accreditation 54244
or approval and may accept the recommendations made by those 54245
persons.54246

       The board may cause an investigation to be made into the 54247
accuracy of the information submitted in any application for 54248
accreditation or approval. If an investigation indicates that 54249
false, misleading, or incomplete information has been submitted to 54250
the board in connection with any application for accreditation or 54251
approval, the board shall conduct a hearing on the matter in 54252
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.54253

       Sec. 4765.16.  (A) All courses offered through an emergency 54254
medical services training program or an emergency medical services 54255
continuing education program, other than ambulance driving, shall 54256
be developed under the direction of a physician who specializes in 54257
emergency medicine. Each course that deals with trauma care shall 54258
be developed in consultation with a physician who specializes in 54259
trauma surgery. Except as specified by the state board of 54260
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services pursuant to 54261
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code, each 54262
course offered through a training program or continuing education 54263
program shall be taught by a person who holds the appropriate 54264
certificate to teach issued under section 4765.23 of the Revised 54265
Code.54266

       (B) A training program for first responders shall meet the 54267
standards established in rules adopted by the board under section 54268
4765.11 of the Revised Code. The program shall include courses in 54269
both of the following areas for at least the number of hours 54270
established by the board's rules:54271

       (1) Emergency victim care;54272

       (2) Reading and interpreting a trauma victim's vital signs.54273

       (C) A training program for emergency medical 54274
technicians-basic shall meet the standards established in rules 54275
adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. 54276
The program shall include courses in each of the following areas 54277
for at least the number of hours established by the board's rules:54278

       (1) Emergency victim care;54279

       (2) Reading and interpreting a trauma victim's vital signs;54280

       (3) Triage protocols for adult and pediatric trauma victims;54281

       (4) In-hospital training;54282

       (5) Clinical training;54283

       (6) Training as an ambulance driver.54284

       Each operator of a training program for emergency medical 54285
technicians-basic shall allow any pupil in the twelfth grade in a 54286
secondary school who is at least seventeen years old and who 54287
otherwise meets the requirements for admission into such a 54288
training program to be admitted to and complete the program and, 54289
as part of the training, to ride in an ambulance with emergency 54290
medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 54291
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 54292
technicians-paramedic. Each emergency medical service organization 54293
shall allow pupils participating in training programs to ride in 54294
an ambulance with emergency medical technicians-basic, advanced 54295
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 54296
technicians-paramedic.54297

       (D) A training program for emergency medical 54298
technicians-intermediate shall meet the standards established in 54299
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54300
Code. The program shall include, or require as a prerequisite, the 54301
training specified in division (C) of this section and courses in 54302
each of the following areas for at least the number of hours 54303
established by the board's rules:54304

       (1) Recognizing symptoms of life-threatening allergic 54305
reactions and in calculating proper dosage levels and 54306
administering injections of epinephrine to persons who suffer 54307
life-threatening allergic reactions, conducted in accordance with 54308
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54309
Code;54310

       (2) Venous access procedures;54311

       (3) Cardiac monitoring and electrical interventions to 54312
support or correct the cardiac function.54313

       (E) A training program for emergency medical 54314
technicians-paramedic shall meet the standards established in 54315
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54316
Code. The program shall include, or require as a prerequisite, the 54317
training specified in divisions (C) and (D) of this section and 54318
courses in each of the following areas for at least the number of 54319
hours established by the board's rules:54320

       (1) Medical terminology;54321

       (2) Venous access procedures;54322

       (3) Airway procedures;54323

       (4) Patient assessment and triage;54324

       (5) Acute cardiac care, including administration of 54325
parenteral injections, electrical interventions, and other 54326
emergency medical services;54327

       (6) Emergency and trauma victim care beyond that required 54328
under division (C) of this section;54329

       (7) Clinical training beyond that required under division (C) 54330
of this section.54331

       (F) A continuing education program for first responders, 54332
EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics shall meet the standards 54333
established in rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of 54334
the Revised Code. A continuing education program shall include 54335
instruction and training in subjects established by the board's 54336
rules for at least the number of hours established by the board's 54337
rules.54338

       Sec. 4765.17.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 54339
fire, and transportation services shall issue the appropriate 54340
certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval to an 54341
applicant who is of good reputation and meets the requirements of 54342
section 4765.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall grant or deny 54343
a certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval within 54344
one hundred twenty days of receipt of the application. The board 54345
may issue or renew a certificate of accreditation or certificate 54346
of approval on a provisional basis to an applicant who is of good 54347
reputation and is in substantial compliance with the requirements 54348
of section 4765.16 of the Revised Code. The board shall inform an 54349
applicant receiving such a certificate of the conditions that must 54350
be met to complete compliance with section 4765.16 of the Revised 54351
Code.54352

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, a 54353
certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval is valid 54354
for up to five years and may be renewed by the board pursuant to 54355
procedures and standards established in rules adopted under 54356
section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. An application for renewal 54357
shall be accompanied by the appropriate renewal fee established in 54358
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.54359

       (C) A certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval 54360
issued on a provisional basis is valid for the length of time 54361
established by the board. If the board finds that the holder of 54362
such a certificate has met the conditions it specifies under 54363
division (A) of this section, the board shall issue the 54364
appropriate certificate of accreditation or certificate of 54365
approval.54366

       (D) A certificate of accreditation is valid only for the 54367
emergency medical services training program or programs for which 54368
it is issued. The holder of a certificate of accreditation may 54369
apply to operate additional training programs in accordance with 54370
rules adopted by the board under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54371
Code. Any additional training programs shall expire on the 54372
expiration date of the applicant's current certificate. A 54373
certificate of approval is valid only for the emergency medical 54374
services continuing education program for which it is issued. 54375
Neither is transferable.54376

       (E) The holder of a certificate of accreditation or a 54377
certificate of approval may offer courses at more than one 54378
location in accordance with rules adopted under section 4765.11 of 54379
the Revised Code.54380

       Sec. 4765.18.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 54381
and transportation services may suspend or revoke a certificate of 54382
accreditation or a certificate of approval issued under section 54383
4765.17 of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:54384

       (A) Violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it;54385

       (B) Furnishing of false, misleading, or incomplete 54386
information to the board;54387

       (C) The signing of an application or the holding of a 54388
certificate of accreditation by a person who has pleaded guilty to 54389
or has been convicted of a felony, or has pleaded guilty to or 54390
been convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude;54391

       (D) The signing of an application or the holding of a 54392
certificate of accreditation by a person who is addicted to the 54393
use of any controlled substance or has been adjudicated 54394
incompetent for that purpose by a court, as provided in section 54395
5122.301 of the Revised Code;54396

       (E) Violation of any commitment made in an application for a 54397
certificate of accreditation or certificate of approval;54398

       (F) Presentation to prospective students of misleading, 54399
false, or fraudulent information relating to the emergency medical 54400
services training program or emergency medical services continuing 54401
education program, employment opportunities, or opportunities for 54402
enrollment in accredited institutions of higher education after 54403
entering or completing courses offered by the operator of a 54404
program;54405

       (G) Failure to maintain in a safe and sanitary condition 54406
premises and equipment used in conducting courses of study;54407

       (H) Failure to maintain financial resources adequate for the 54408
satisfactory conduct of courses of study or to retain a sufficient 54409
number of certified instructors;54410

       (I) Discrimination in the acceptance of students upon the 54411
basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.54412

       Sec. 4765.22. A person seeking a certificate to teach in an 54413
emergency medical services training program or an emergency 54414
medical services continuing education program shall submit a 54415
completed application for certification to the state board of 54416
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services on a form the 54417
board shall prescribe and furnish. The application shall be 54418
accompanied by the appropriate application fee established in 54419
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.54420

       Sec. 4765.23.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 54421
and transportation services shall issue a certificate to teach in 54422
an emergency medical services training program or an emergency 54423
medical services continuing education program to any applicant who 54424
it determines meets the qualifications established in rules 54425
adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. The certificate 54426
shall indicate each type of instruction and training the 54427
certificate holder may teach under the certificate.54428

       A certificate to teach shall have a certification cycle 54429
established by the board and may be renewed by the board pursuant 54430
to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code. An 54431
application for renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate 54432
renewal fee established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of 54433
the Revised Code.54434

       The board may suspend or revoke a certificate to teach 54435
pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54436
Code.54437

       Sec. 4765.28.  A person seeking a certificate to practice as 54438
a first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, emergency 54439
medical technician-intermediate, or emergency medical 54440
technician-paramedic shall submit a completed application for 54441
certification to the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54442
transportation services on a form the board shall prescribe and 54443
furnish. Except as provided in division (B) of section 4765.29 of 54444
the Revised Code, the application shall include evidence that the 54445
applicant received the appropriate certificate of completion 54446
pursuant to section 4765.24 of the Revised Code. The application 54447
shall be accompanied by the appropriate application fee 54448
established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54449
Code, unless the board waives the fee on determining pursuant to 54450
those rules that the applicant cannot afford to pay the fee.54451

       Sec. 4765.29.  (A) The state board of emergency medical, 54452
fire, and transportation services shall provide for the 54453
examination of applicants for certification to practice as first 54454
responders, emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 54455
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 54456
technicians-paramedic. The examinations shall be established by 54457
the board in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54458
Code. The board may administer the examinations or contract with 54459
other persons to administer the examinations. In either case, the 54460
examinations shall be administered pursuant to procedures 54461
established in rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54462
Code and shall be offered at various locations in the state 54463
selected by the board.54464

       Except as provided in division (B) of this section, an 54465
applicant shall not be permitted to take an examination for the 54466
same certificate to practice more than three times since last 54467
receiving the certificate of completion pursuant to section 54468
4765.24 of the Revised Code that qualifies the applicant to take 54469
the examination unless the applicant receives another certificate 54470
of completion that qualifies the applicant to take the 54471
examination.54472

       (B) On request of an applicant who fails three examinations 54473
for the same certificate to practice, the board may direct the 54474
applicant to complete a specific portion of an accredited 54475
emergency medical services training program. If the applicant 54476
provides satisfactory proof to the board that the applicant has 54477
successfully completed that portion of the program, the applicant 54478
shall be permitted to take the examination.54479

       Sec. 4765.30.  (A)(1) The state board of emergency medical, 54480
fire, and transportation services shall issue a certificate to 54481
practice as a first responder to an applicant who meets all of the 54482
following conditions:54483

       (a) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, is 54484
a volunteer for a nonprofit emergency medical service organization 54485
or a nonprofit fire department;54486

       (b) Holds the appropriate certificate of completion issued in 54487
accordance with section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;54488

       (c) Passes the appropriate examination conducted under 54489
section 4765.29 of the Revised Code;54490

       (d) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or 54491
the rules adopted under it;54492

       (e) Meets any other certification requirements established in 54493
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.54494

       (2) The board may waive the requirement to be a volunteer for 54495
a nonprofit entity if the applicant meets other requirements 54496
established in rules adopted under division (B)(3) of section 54497
4765.11 of the Revised Code relative to a person's eligibility to 54498
practice as a first responder.54499

       (B) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54500
transportation services shall issue a certificate to practice as 54501
an emergency medical technician-basic to an applicant who meets 54502
all of the following conditions:54503

       (1) Holds a certificate of completion in emergency medical 54504
services training-basic issued in accordance with section 4765.24 54505
of the Revised Code;54506

       (2) Passes the examination for emergency medical 54507
technicians-basic conducted under section 4765.29 of the Revised 54508
Code;54509

       (3) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or 54510
the rules adopted under it;54511

       (4) Meets any other certification requirements established in 54512
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.54513

       (C) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54514
transportation services shall issue a certificate to practice as 54515
an emergency medical technician-intermediate or emergency medical 54516
technician-paramedic to an applicant who meets all of the 54517
following conditions:54518

       (1) Holds a certificate to practice as an emergency medical 54519
technician-basic;54520

       (2) Holds the appropriate certificate of completion issued in 54521
accordance with section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;54522

       (3) Passes the appropriate examination conducted under 54523
section 4765.29 of the Revised Code;54524

       (4) Is not in violation of any provision of this chapter or 54525
the rules adopted under it;54526

       (5) Meets any other certification requirements established in 54527
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.54528

       (D) A certificate to practice shall have a certification 54529
cycle established by the board and may be renewed by the board 54530
pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54531
Code. Not later than sixty days prior to the expiration date of an 54532
individual's certificate to practice, the board shall notify the 54533
individual of the scheduled expiration.54534

       An application for renewal shall be accompanied by the 54535
appropriate renewal fee established in rules adopted under section 54536
4765.11 of the Revised Code, unless the board waives the fee on 54537
determining pursuant to those rules that the applicant cannot 54538
afford to pay the fee. Except as provided in division (B) of 54539
section 4765.31 of the Revised Code, the application shall include 54540
evidence of either of the following:54541

       (1) That the applicant received a certificate of completion 54542
from the appropriate emergency medical services continuing 54543
education program pursuant to section 4765.24 of the Revised Code;54544

       (2) That the applicant has successfully passed an examination 54545
that demonstrates the competence to have a certificate renewed 54546
without completing an emergency medical services continuing 54547
education program. The board shall approve such examinations in 54548
accordance with rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54549
Code.54550

       (E) The board shall not require an applicant for renewal of a 54551
certificate to practice to take an examination as a condition of 54552
renewing the certificate. This division does not preclude the use 54553
of examinations by operators of approved emergency medical 54554
services continuing education programs as a condition for issuance 54555
of a certificate of completion in emergency medical services 54556
continuing education.54557

       Sec. 4765.31.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 54558
section, a first responder, emergency medical technician-basic, 54559
emergency medical technician-intermediate, and emergency medical 54560
technician-paramedic shall complete an emergency medical services 54561
continuing education program or pass an examination approved by 54562
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation54563
services under division (A) of section 4765.10 of the Revised Code 54564
prior to the expiration of the individual's certificate to 54565
practice. Completion of the continuing education requirements for 54566
EMTs-I or paramedics satisfies the continuing education 54567
requirements for renewing the certificate to practice as an 54568
EMT-basic held by an EMT-I or paramedic.54569

       (B)(1) An applicant for renewal of a certificate to practice 54570
may apply to the board, in writing, for an extension to complete 54571
the continuing education requirements established under division 54572
(A) of this section. The board may grant such an extension and 54573
determine the length of the extension. The board may authorize the 54574
applicant to continue to practice during the extension as if the 54575
certificate to practice had not expired.54576

       (2) An applicant for renewal of a certificate to practice may 54577
apply to the board, in writing, for an exemption from the 54578
continuing education requirements established under division (A) 54579
of this section. The board may exempt an individual or a group of 54580
individuals from all or any part of the continuing education 54581
requirements due to active military service, unusual circumstance, 54582
emergency, special hardship, or any other cause considered 54583
reasonable by the board.54584

       (C) Decisions of whether to grant an extension or exemption 54585
under division (B) of this section shall be made by the board 54586
pursuant to procedures established in rules adopted under section 54587
4765.11 of the Revised Code.54588

       Sec. 4765.32.  A current, valid certificate of accreditation 54589
issued under the provisions of former section 3303.11 or 3303.23 54590
of the Revised Code shall remain valid until one year after the 54591
expiration date of the certificate as determined by the provisions 54592
of those sections and shall confer the same privileges and impose 54593
the same responsibilities and requirements as a certificate of 54594
accreditation issued by the state board of emergency medical, 54595
fire, and transportation services under section 4765.17 of the 54596
Revised Code.54597

       A certificate to practice as an emergency medical 54598
technician-ambulance that is valid on November 24, 1995, shall be 54599
considered a certificate to practice as an emergency medical 54600
technician-basic. A certificate to practice as an advanced 54601
emergency medical technician-ambulance that is valid on November 54602
24, 1995, shall be considered a certificate to practice as an 54603
emergency medical technician-intermediate.54604

       Sec. 4765.33.  The state board of emergency medical, fire, 54605
and transportation services may suspend or revoke certificates to 54606
practice issued under section 4765.30 of the Revised Code, and may 54607
take other disciplinary action against first responders, emergency 54608
medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 54609
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 54610
technicians-paramedic pursuant to rules adopted under section 54611
4765.11 of the Revised Code.54612

       Sec. 4765.37.  (A) An emergency medical technician-basic 54613
shall perform the emergency medical services described in this 54614
section in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted 54615
under it by the state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54616
transportation services.54617

       (B) An emergency medical technician-basic may operate, or be 54618
responsible for operation of, an ambulance and may provide 54619
emergency medical services to patients. In an emergency, an 54620
EMT-basic may determine the nature and extent of illness or injury 54621
and establish priority for required emergency medical services. An 54622
EMT-basic may render emergency medical services such as opening 54623
and maintaining an airway, giving positive pressure ventilation, 54624
cardiac resuscitation, electrical interventions with automated 54625
defibrillators to support or correct the cardiac function and 54626
other methods determined by the board, controlling of hemorrhage, 54627
treatment of shock, immobilization of fractures, bandaging, 54628
assisting in childbirth, management of mentally disturbed 54629
patients, initial care of poison and burn patients, and 54630
determining triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims. Where 54631
patients must in an emergency be extricated from entrapment, an 54632
EMT-basic may assess the extent of injury and render all possible 54633
emergency medical services and protection to the entrapped 54634
patient; provide light rescue services if an ambulance has not 54635
been accompanied by a specialized unit; and after extrication, 54636
provide additional care in sorting of the injured in accordance 54637
with standard emergency procedures.54638

       (C) An EMT-basic may perform any other emergency medical 54639
services approved pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 54640
of the Revised Code. The board shall determine whether the nature 54641
of any such service requires that an EMT-basic receive 54642
authorization prior to performing the service.54643

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 54644
if the board determines under division (C) of this section that a 54645
service requires prior authorization, the service shall be 54646
performed only pursuant to the written or verbal authorization of 54647
a physician or of the cooperating physician advisory board, or 54648
pursuant to an authorization transmitted through a direct 54649
communication device by a physician or registered nurse designated 54650
by a physician.54651

       (2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or 54652
the required response time prohibits communication, an EMT-basic 54653
may perform services subject to this division, if, in the judgment 54654
of the EMT-basic, the life of the patient is in immediate danger. 54655
Services performed under these circumstances shall be performed in 54656
accordance with the protocols for triage of adult and pediatric 54657
trauma victims established in rules adopted under sections 4765.11 54658
and 4765.40 of the Revised Code and any applicable protocols 54659
adopted by the emergency medical service organization with which 54660
the EMT-basic is affiliated.54661

       Sec. 4765.38.  (A) An emergency medical 54662
technician-intermediate shall perform the emergency medical 54663
services described in this section in accordance with this chapter 54664
and any rules adopted under it.54665

       (B) An EMT-I may do any of the following:54666

       (1) Establish and maintain an intravenous lifeline that has 54667
been approved by a cooperating physician or physician advisory 54668
board;54669

       (2) Perform cardiac monitoring;54670

       (3) Perform electrical interventions to support or correct 54671
the cardiac function;54672

       (4) Administer epinephrine;54673

       (5) Determine triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims;54674

       (6) Perform any other emergency medical services approved 54675
pursuant to rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised 54676
Code.54677

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 54678
the services described in division (B) of this section shall be 54679
performed by an EMT-I only pursuant to the written or verbal 54680
authorization of a physician or of the cooperating physician 54681
advisory board, or pursuant to an authorization transmitted 54682
through a direct communication device by a physician or registered 54683
nurse designated by a physician.54684

       (2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or 54685
the required response time prohibits communication, an EMT-I may 54686
perform any of the services described in division (B) of this 54687
section, if, in the judgment of the EMT-I, the life of the patient 54688
is in immediate danger. Services performed under these 54689
circumstances shall be performed in accordance with the protocols 54690
for triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims established in 54691
rules adopted under sections 4765.11 and 4765.40 of the Revised 54692
Code and any applicable protocols adopted by the emergency medical 54693
service organization with which the EMT-I is affiliated.54694

       (D) In addition to, and in the course of, providing emergency 54695
medical treatment, an emergency medical technician-intermediate 54696
may withdraw blood as provided under sections 1547.11, 4506.17, 54697
and 4511.19 of the Revised Code. An emergency medical 54698
technician-intermediate shall withdraw blood in accordance with 54699
this chapter and any rules adopted under it by the state board of 54700
emergency medical and transportation services. 54701

       Sec. 4765.39.  (A) An emergency medical technician-paramedic 54702
shall perform the emergency medical services described in this 54703
section in accordance with this chapter and any rules adopted 54704
under it.54705

       (B) A paramedic may do any of the following:54706

       (1) Perform cardiac monitoring;54707

       (2) Perform electrical interventions to support or correct 54708
the cardiac function;54709

       (3) Perform airway procedures;54710

       (4) Perform relief of pneumothorax;54711

       (5) Administer appropriate drugs and intravenous fluids;54712

       (6) Determine triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims;54713

       (7) Perform any other emergency medical services, including 54714
life support or intensive care techniques, approved pursuant to 54715
rules adopted under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code.54716

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 54717
the services described in division (B) of this section shall be 54718
performed by a paramedic only pursuant to the written or verbal 54719
authorization of a physician or of the cooperating physician 54720
advisory board, or pursuant to an authorization transmitted 54721
through a direct communication device by a physician or registered 54722
nurse designated by a physician.54723

       (2) If communications fail during an emergency situation or 54724
the required response time prohibits communication, a paramedic 54725
may perform any of the services described in division (B) of this 54726
section, if, in the paramedic's judgment, the life of the patient 54727
is in immediate danger. Services performed under these 54728
circumstances shall be performed in accordance with the protocols 54729
for triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims established in 54730
rules adopted under sections 4765.11 and 4765.40 of the Revised 54731
Code and any applicable protocols adopted by the emergency medical 54732
service organization with which the paramedic is affiliated.54733

       (D) In addition to, and in the course of, providing emergency 54734
medical treatment, an emergency medical technician-paramedic may 54735
withdraw blood as provided under sections 1547.11, 4506.17, and 54736
4511.19 of the Revised Code. An emergency medical 54737
technician-paramedic shall withdraw blood in accordance with this 54738
chapter and any rules adopted under it by the state board of 54739
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services.54740

       Sec. 4765.40.  (A)(1) Not later than two years after the 54741
effective date of this amendmentNovember 3, 2000, the state board 54742
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall 54743
adopt rules under section 4765.11 of the Revised Code establishing 54744
written protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric trauma 54745
victims. The rules shall define adult and pediatric trauma in a 54746
manner that is consistent with section 4765.01 of the Revised 54747
Code, minimizes overtriage and undertriage, and emphasizes the 54748
special needs of pediatric and geriatric trauma patients.54749

       (2) The state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of 54750
this section shall require a trauma victim to be transported 54751
directly to an adult or pediatric trauma center that is qualified 54752
to provide appropriate adult or pediatric trauma care, unless one 54753
or more of the following exceptions applies:54754

       (a) It is medically necessary to transport the victim to 54755
another hospital for initial assessment and stabilization before 54756
transfer to an adult or pediatric trauma center;54757

       (b) It is unsafe or medically inappropriate to transport the 54758
victim directly to an adult or pediatric trauma center due to 54759
adverse weather or ground conditions or excessive transport time;54760

       (c) Transporting the victim to an adult or pediatric trauma 54761
center would cause a shortage of local emergency medical service 54762
resources;54763

       (d) No appropriate adult or pediatric trauma center is able 54764
to receive and provide adult or pediatric trauma care to the 54765
trauma victim without undue delay;54766

       (e) Before transport of a patient begins, the patient 54767
requests to be taken to a particular hospital that is not a trauma 54768
center or, if the patient is less than eighteen years of age or is 54769
not able to communicate, such a request is made by an adult member 54770
of the patient's family or a legal representative of the patient.54771

       (3)(a) The state triage protocols adopted under division (A) 54772
of this section shall require trauma patients to be transported to 54773
an adult or pediatric trauma center that is able to provide 54774
appropriate adult or pediatric trauma care, but shall not require 54775
a trauma patient to be transported to a particular trauma center. 54776
The state triage protocols shall establish one or more procedures 54777
for evaluating whether an injury victim requires or would benefit 54778
from adult or pediatric trauma care, which procedures shall be 54779
applied by emergency medical service personnel based on the 54780
patient's medical needs. In developing state trauma triage 54781
protocols, the board shall consider relevant model triage rules 54782
and shall consult with the commission on minority health, regional 54783
directors, regional physician advisory boards, and appropriate 54784
medical, hospital, and emergency medical service organizations.54785

       (b) Before the joint committee on agency rule review 54786
considers state triage protocols for trauma victims proposed by 54787
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation54788
services, or amendments thereto, the board shall send a copy of 54789
the proposal to the Ohio chapter of the American college of 54790
emergency physicians, the Ohio chapter of the American college of 54791
surgeons, the Ohio chapter of the American academy of pediatrics, 54792
OHA: the association for hospitals and health systems, the Ohio 54793
osteopathic association, and the association of Ohio children's 54794
hospitals and shall hold a public hearing at which it must 54795
consider the appropriateness of the protocols to minimize 54796
overtriage and undertriage of trauma victims.54797

       (c) The board shall provide copies of the state triage 54798
protocols, and amendments to the protocols, to each emergency 54799
medical service organization, regional director, regional 54800
physician advisory board, certified emergency medical service 54801
instructor, and person who regularly provides medical direction to 54802
emergency medical service personnel in the state; to each medical 54803
service organization in other jurisdictions that regularly provide 54804
emergency medical services in this state; and to others upon 54805
request.54806

       (B)(1) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54807
transportation services shall approve regional protocols for the 54808
triage of adult and pediatric trauma victims, and amendments to 54809
such protocols, that are submitted to the board as provided in 54810
division (B)(2) of this section and provide a level of adult and 54811
pediatric trauma care comparable to the state triage protocols 54812
adopted under division (A) of this section. The board shall not 54813
otherwise approve regional triage protocols for trauma victims. 54814
The board shall not approve regional triage protocols for regions 54815
that overlap and shall resolve any such disputes by apportioning 54816
the overlapping territory among appropriate regions in a manner 54817
that best serves the medical needs of the residents of that 54818
territory. The trauma committee of the board shall have reasonable 54819
opportunity to review and comment on regional triage protocols and 54820
amendments to such protocols before the board approves or 54821
disapproves them.54822

       (2) Regional protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric 54823
trauma victims, and amendments to such protocols, shall be 54824
submitted in writing to the state board of emergency medical, 54825
fire, and transportation services by the regional physician 54826
advisory board or regional director, as appropriate, that serves a 54827
majority of the population in the region in which the protocols 54828
apply. Prior to submitting regional triage protocols, or an 54829
amendment to such protocols, to the state board of emergency 54830
medical, fire, and transportation services, a regional physician 54831
advisory board or regional director shall consult with each of the 54832
following that regularly serves the region in which the protocols 54833
apply:54834

       (a) Other regional physician advisory boards and regional 54835
directors;54836

       (b) Hospitals that operate an emergency facility;54837

       (c) Adult and pediatric trauma centers;54838

       (d) Professional societies of physicians who specialize in 54839
adult or pediatric emergency medicine or adult or pediatric trauma 54840
surgery;54841

       (e) Professional societies of nurses who specialize in adult 54842
or pediatric emergency nursing or adult or pediatric trauma 54843
surgery;54844

       (f) Professional associations or labor organizations of 54845
emergency medical service personnel;54846

       (g) Emergency medical service organizations and medical 54847
directors of such organizations;54848

       (h) Certified emergency medical service instructors.54849

       (3) Regional protocols for the triage of adult and pediatric 54850
trauma victims approved under division (B)(2) of this section 54851
shall require patients to be transported to a trauma center that 54852
is able to provide an appropriate level of adult or pediatric 54853
trauma care; shall not discriminate among trauma centers for 54854
reasons not related to a patient's medical needs; shall seek to 54855
minimize undertriage and overtriage; may include any of the 54856
exceptions in division (A)(2) of this section; and supersede the 54857
state triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section 54858
in the region in which the regional protocols apply.54859

       (4) Upon approval of regional protocols for the triage of 54860
adult and pediatric trauma victims under division (B)(2) of this 54861
section, or an amendment to such protocols, the state board of 54862
emergency medical, fire, and transportation services shall provide 54863
written notice of the approval and a copy of the protocols or 54864
amendment to each entity in the region in which the protocols 54865
apply to which the board is required to send a copy of the state 54866
triage protocols adopted under division (A) of this section.54867

       (C)(1) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54868
transportation services shall review the state triage protocols 54869
adopted under division (A) of this section at least every three 54870
years to determine if they are causing overtriage or undertriage 54871
of trauma patients, and shall modify them as necessary to minimize 54872
overtriage and undertriage.54873

       (2) Each regional physician advisory board or regional 54874
director that has had regional triage protocols approved under 54875
division (B)(2) of this section shall review the protocols at 54876
least every three years to determine if they are causing 54877
overtriage or undertriage of trauma patients and shall submit an 54878
appropriate amendment to the state board, as provided in division 54879
(B) of this section, as necessary to minimize overtriage and 54880
undertriage. The state board shall approve the amendment if it 54881
will reduce overtriage or undertriage while complying with 54882
division (B) of this section, and shall not otherwise approve the 54883
amendment.54884

       (D) No provider of emergency medical services or person who 54885
provides medical direction to emergency medical service personnel 54886
in this state shall fail to comply with the state triage protocols 54887
adopted under division (A) of this section or applicable regional 54888
triage protocols approved under division (B)(2) of this section.54889

       (E) The state board of emergency medical, fire, and 54890
transportation services shall adopt rules under section 4765.11 of 54891
the Revised Code that provide for enforcement of the state triage 54892
protocols adopted under division (A) of this section and regional 54893
triage protocols approved under division (B)(2) of this section, 54894
and for education regarding those protocols for emergency medical 54895
service organizations and personnel, regional directors and 54896
regional physician advisory boards, emergency medical service 54897
instructors, and persons who regularly provide medical direction 54898
to emergency medical service personnel in this state.54899

       Sec. 4765.42.  Each emergency medical service organization 54900
shall give notice of the name of its medical director or the names 54901
of the members of its cooperating physician advisory board to the 54902
state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation54903
services. The notice shall be made in writing.54904

       Sec. 4765.48.  The attorney general, the prosecuting attorney 54905
of the county, or the city director of law shall, upon complaint 54906
of the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation54907
services, prosecute to termination or bring an action for 54908
injunction against any person violating this chapter or the rules 54909
adopted under it. The common pleas court in which an action for 54910
injunction is filed has the jurisdiction to grant injunctive 54911
relief upon a showing that the respondent named in the complaint 54912
is in violation of this chapter or the rules adopted under it.54913

       Sec. 4765.49.  (A) A first responder, emergency medical 54914
technician-basic, emergency medical technician-intermediate, or 54915
emergency medical technician-paramedic is not liable in damages in 54916
a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property 54917
resulting from the individual's administration of emergency 54918
medical services, unless the services are administered in a manner 54919
that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct. A physician or 54920
registered nurse designated by a physician, who is advising or 54921
assisting in the emergency medical services by means of any 54922
communication device or telemetering system, is not liable in 54923
damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or 54924
property resulting from the individual's advisory communication or 54925
assistance, unless the advisory communication or assistance is 54926
provided in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton 54927
misconduct. Medical directors and members of cooperating physician 54928
advisory boards of emergency medical service organizations are not 54929
liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to 54930
person or property resulting from their acts or omissions in the 54931
performance of their duties, unless the act or omission 54932
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.54933

       (B) A political subdivision, joint ambulance district, joint 54934
emergency medical services district, or other public agency, and 54935
any officer or employee of a public agency or of a private 54936
organization operating under contract or in joint agreement with 54937
one or more political subdivisions, that provides emergency 54938
medical services, or that enters into a joint agreement or a 54939
contract with the state, any political subdivision, joint 54940
ambulance district, or joint emergency medical services district 54941
for the provision of emergency medical services, is not liable in 54942
damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or 54943
property arising out of any actions taken by a first responder, 54944
EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic working under the officer's or 54945
employee's jurisdiction, or for injury, death, or loss to person 54946
or property arising out of any actions of licensed medical 54947
personnel advising or assisting the first responder, EMT-basic, 54948
EMT-I, or paramedic, unless the services are provided in a manner 54949
that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.54950

       (C) A student who is enrolled in an emergency medical 54951
services training program accredited under section 4765.17 of the 54952
Revised Code or an emergency medical services continuing education 54953
program approved under that section is not liable in damages in a 54954
civil action for injury, death, or loss to person or property 54955
resulting from either of the following:54956

       (1) The student's administration of emergency medical 54957
services or patient care or treatment, if the services, care, or 54958
treatment is administered while the student is under the direct 54959
supervision and in the immediate presence of an EMT-basic, EMT-I, 54960
paramedic, registered nurse, or physician and while the student is 54961
receiving clinical training that is required by the program, 54962
unless the services, care, or treatment is provided in a manner 54963
that constitutes willful or wanton misconduct;54964

       (2) The student's training as an ambulance driver, unless the 54965
driving is done in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton 54966
misconduct.54967

       (D) An EMT-basic, EMT-I, paramedic, or other operator, who 54968
holds a valid commercial driver's license issued pursuant to 54969
Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code or driver's license issued 54970
pursuant to Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code and who is employed 54971
by an emergency medical service organization that is not owned or 54972
operated by a political subdivision as defined in section 2744.01 54973
of the Revised Code, is not liable in damages in a civil action 54974
for injury, death, or loss to person or property that is caused by 54975
the operation of an ambulance by the EMT-basic, EMT-I, paramedic, 54976
or other operator while responding to or completing a call for 54977
emergency medical services, unless the operation constitutes 54978
willful or wanton misconduct or does not comply with the 54979
precautions of section 4511.03 of the Revised Code. An emergency 54980
medical service organization is not liable in damages in a civil 54981
action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property that 54982
is caused by the operation of an ambulance by its employee or 54983
agent, if this division grants the employee or agent immunity from 54984
civil liability for the injury, death, or loss.54985

       (E) An employee or agent of an emergency medical service 54986
organization who receives requests for emergency medical services 54987
that are directed to the organization, dispatches first 54988
responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics in response to those 54989
requests, communicates those requests to those employees or agents 54990
of the organization who are authorized to dispatch first 54991
responders, EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, or paramedics, or performs any 54992
combination of these functions for the organization, is not liable 54993
in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to person 54994
or property resulting from the individual's acts or omissions in 54995
the performance of those duties for the organization, unless an 54996
act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.54997

       (F) A person who is performing the functions of a first 54998
responder, EMT-basic, EMT-I, or paramedic under the authority of 54999
the laws of a state that borders this state and who provides 55000
emergency medical services to or transportation of a patient in 55001
this state is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, 55002
death, or loss to person or property resulting from the person's 55003
administration of emergency medical services, unless the services 55004
are administered in a manner that constitutes willful or wanton 55005
misconduct. A physician or registered nurse designated by a 55006
physician, who is licensed to practice in the adjoining state and 55007
who is advising or assisting in the emergency medical services by 55008
means of any communication device or telemetering system is not 55009
liable in damages in a civil action for injury, death, or loss to 55010
person or property resulting from the person's advisory 55011
communication or assistance, unless the advisory communication or 55012
assistance is provided in a manner that constitutes willful or 55013
wanton misconduct.55014

       (G) A person certified under section 4765.23 of the Revised 55015
Code to teach in an emergency medical services training program or 55016
emergency medical services continuing education program, and a 55017
person who teaches at the Ohio fire academy established under 55018
section 3737.33 of the Revised Code or in a fire service training 55019
program described in division (A) of section 4765.55 of the 55020
Revised Code, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 55021
injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the 55022
person's acts or omissions in the performance of the person's 55023
duties, unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 55024
misconduct.55025

       (H) In the accreditation of emergency medical services 55026
training programs or approval of emergency medical services 55027
continuing education programs, the state board of emergency 55028
medical, fire, and transportation services and any person or 55029
entity authorized by the board to evaluate applications for 55030
accreditation or approval are not liable in damages in a civil 55031
action for injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting 55032
from their acts or omissions in the performance of their duties, 55033
unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 55034
misconduct.55035

       (I) A person authorized by an emergency medical service 55036
organization to review the performance of first responders, 55037
EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics or to administer quality 55038
assurance programs is not liable in damages in a civil action for 55039
injury, death, or loss to person or property resulting from the 55040
person's acts or omissions in the performance of the person's 55041
duties, unless an act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 55042
misconduct.55043

       Sec. 4765.55.  (A) The executive director of the state board 55044
of emergency medical, fire, and transportation services, with the 55045
advice and counsel of the firefighter and fire safety inspector 55046
training committee of the state board of emergency medical, fire, 55047
and transportation services, shall assist in the establishment and 55048
maintenance by any state agency, or any county, township, city, 55049
village, school district, or educational service center of a fire 55050
service training program for the training of all persons in 55051
positions of any fire training certification level approved by the 55052
executive director, including full-time paid firefighters, 55053
part-time paid firefighters, volunteer firefighters, and, fire 55054
safety inspectors in this state. The executive director, with the 55055
advice and counsel of the committee, shall adopt rules to regulate 55056
those firefighter and fire safety inspector training programs, and 55057
other training programs approved by the executive director. The 55058
rules may include, but need not be limited to, training 55059
curriculum, certification examinations, training schedules, 55060
minimum hours of instruction, attendance requirements, required 55061
equipment and facilities, basic physical requirements, and methods 55062
of training for all persons in positions of any fire training 55063
certification level approved by the executive director, including 55064
full-time paid firefighters, part-time paid firefighters, 55065
volunteer firefighters, and fire safety inspectors. The rules 55066
adopted to regulate training programs for volunteer firefighters 55067
shall not require more than thirty-six hours of training.55068

       The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the 55069
committee, shall provide for the classification and chartering of 55070
fire service training programs in accordance with rules adopted 55071
under division (B) of this section, and may take action against 55072
any chartered training program or applicant, in accordance with 55073
rules adopted under divisions (B)(4) and (5) of this section, for 55074
failure to meet standards set by the adopted rules.55075

       (B) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of 55076
the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 55077
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation55078
services, shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules under 55079
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish all of the 55080
following:55081

       (1) Requirements for, and procedures for chartering, the 55082
training programs regulated by this section;55083

       (2) Requirements for, and requirements and procedures for 55084
obtaining and renewing, an instructor certificate to teach the 55085
training programs and continuing education classes regulated by 55086
this section;55087

       (3) Requirements for, and requirements and procedures for 55088
obtaining and renewing, any of the fire training certificates 55089
regulated by this section;55090

       (4) Grounds and procedures for suspending, revoking, 55091
restricting, or refusing to issue or renew any of the certificates 55092
or charters regulated by this section, which grounds shall be 55093
limited to one of the following:55094

        (a) Failure to satisfy the education or training requirements 55095
of this section;55096

        (b) Conviction of a felony offense;55097

        (c) Conviction of a misdemeanor involving moral turpitude;55098

        (d) Conviction of a misdemeanor committed in the course of 55099
practice;55100

        (e) In the case of a chartered training program or applicant, 55101
failure to meet standards set by the rules adopted under this 55102
division.55103

       (5) Grounds and procedures for imposing and collecting fines, 55104
not to exceed one thousand dollars, in relation to actions taken 55105
under division (B)(4) of this section against persons holding 55106
certificates and charters regulated by this section, the fines to 55107
be deposited into the trauma and emergency medical services fund 55108
established under section 4513.263 of the Revised Code;55109

       (6) Continuing education requirements for certificate 55110
holders, including a requirement that credit shall be granted for 55111
in-service training programs conducted by local entities;55112

       (7) Procedures for considering the granting of an extension 55113
or exemption of fire service continuing education requirements;55114

       (8) Certification cycles for which the certificates and 55115
charters regulated by this section are valid.55116

       (C) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of 55117
the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 55118
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation55119
services, shall issue or renew an instructor certificate to teach 55120
the training programs and continuing education classes regulated 55121
by this section to any applicant that the executive director 55122
determines meets the qualifications established in rules adopted 55123
under division (B) of this section, and may take disciplinary 55124
action against an instructor certificate holder or applicant in 55125
accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section. 55126
The executive director, with the advice and counsel of the 55127
committee, shall charter or renew the charter of any training 55128
program that the executive director determines meets the 55129
qualifications established in rules adopted under division (B) of 55130
this section, and may take disciplinary action against the holder 55131
of a charter in accordance with rules adopted under division (B) 55132
of this section.55133

       (D) The executive director shall issue or renew a fire 55134
training certificate for a firefighter, a fire safety inspector, 55135
or another position of any fire training certification level 55136
approved by the executive director, to any applicant that the 55137
executive director determines meets the qualifications established 55138
in rules adopted under division (B) of this section and may take 55139
disciplinary actions against a certificate holder or applicant in 55140
accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of this section.55141

       (E) Certificates issued under this section shall be on a form 55142
prescribed by the executive director, with the advice and counsel 55143
of the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 55144
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation55145
services.55146

       (F)(1) The executive director, with the advice and counsel of 55147
the firefighter and fire safety inspector training committee of 55148
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation55149
services, shall establish criteria for evaluating the standards 55150
maintained by other states and the branches of the United States 55151
military for firefighter, fire safety inspector, and fire 55152
instructor training programs, and other training programs 55153
recognized by the executive director, to determine whether the 55154
standards are equivalent to those established under this section 55155
and shall establish requirements and procedures for issuing a 55156
certificate to each person who presents proof to the executive 55157
director of having satisfactorily completed a training program 55158
that meets those standards.55159

       (2) The executive director, with the committee's advice and 55160
counsel, shall adopt rules establishing requirements and 55161
procedures for issuing a fire training certificate in lieu of 55162
completing a chartered training program.55163

       (G) Nothing in this section invalidates any other section of 55164
the Revised Code relating to the fire training academy. Section 55165
4765.11 of the Revised Code does not affect any powers and duties 55166
granted to the executive director under this section.55167

       Sec. 4765.56.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 55168
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state board of emergency medical, 55169
fire, and transportation services shall comply with sections 55170
3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules 55171
adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to 55172
a certificate to practice issued pursuant to this chapter.55173

       Sec. 4766.01.  As used in this chapter:55174

       (A) "Advanced life support" means treatment described in 55175
section 4765.39 of the Revised Code that a paramedic is certified 55176
to perform.55177

       (B) "Air medical service organization" means an organization 55178
that furnishes, conducts, maintains, advertises, promotes, or 55179
otherwise engages in providing medical services with a rotorcraft 55180
air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance.55181

       (C) "Air medical transportation" means the transporting of a 55182
patient by rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance 55183
with appropriately licensed and certified medical personnel.55184

       (D) "Ambulance" means any motor vehicle that is specifically 55185
designed, constructed, or modified and equipped and is intended to 55186
be used to provide basic life support, intermediate life support, 55187
advanced life support, or mobile intensive care unit services and 55188
transportation upon the streets or highways of this state of 55189
persons who are seriously ill, injured, wounded, or otherwise 55190
incapacitated or helpless. "Ambulance" does not include air 55191
medical transportation or a vehicle designed and used solely for 55192
the transportation of nonstretcher-bound persons, whether 55193
hospitalized or handicapped or whether ambulatory or confined to a 55194
wheelchair.55195

       (E) "Ambulette" means a motor vehicle that is specifically 55196
designed, constructed, or modified and equipped and is intended to 55197
be used for transportation upon the streets or highways of this 55198
state of persons who require use of a wheelchair.55199

       (F) "Basic life support" means treatment described in section 55200
4765.37 of the Revised Code that an EMT-basicEMT is certified to 55201
perform.55202

       (G) "Disaster situation" means any condition or situation 55203
described by rule of the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 55204
fire, and transportation boardservices as a mass casualty, major 55205
emergency, natural disaster, or national emergency.55206

       (H) "Emergency medical service organization" means an 55207
organization that uses EMTs-basicEMTs, EMTs-Iadvanced EMTs, or 55208
paramedics, or a combination of EMTs-basicEMTs, EMTs-Iadvanced 55209
EMTs, and paramedics, to provide medical care to victims of 55210
illness or injury. An emergency medical service organization 55211
includes, but is not limited to, a commercial ambulance service 55212
organization, a hospital, and a funeral home.55213

       (I) "EMT-basicEMT," "EMT-Iadvanced EMT," and "paramedic" 55214
have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.55215

       (J) "Fixed wing air ambulance" means a fixed wing aircraft 55216
that is specifically designed, constructed, or modified and 55217
equipped and is intended to be used as a means of air medical 55218
transportation.55219

       (K) "Intermediate life support" means treatment described in 55220
section 4765.38 of the Revised Code that an EMT-Iadvanced EMT is 55221
certified to perform.55222

       (L) "Major emergency" means any emergency event that cannot 55223
be resolved through the use of locally available emergency 55224
resources.55225

       (M) "Mass casualty" means an emergency event that results in 55226
ten or more persons being injured, incapacitated, made ill, or 55227
killed.55228

       (N) "Medical emergency" means an unforeseen event affecting 55229
an individual in such a manner that a need for immediate care is 55230
created.55231

       (O) "Mobile intensive care unit" means an ambulance used only 55232
for maintaining specialized or intensive care treatment and used 55233
primarily for interhospital transports of patients whose 55234
conditions require care beyond the scope of a paramedic as 55235
provided in section 4765.39 of the Revised Code.55236

       (P)(1) "Nonemergency medical service organization" means a 55237
person that does both of the following:55238

       (a) Provides services to the public on a regular basis for 55239
the purpose of transporting individuals who require the use of a 55240
wheelchair or are confined to a wheelchair to receive health care 55241
services at health care facilities or health care practitioners' 55242
offices in nonemergency circumstances;55243

       (b) Provides the services for a fee, regardless of whether 55244
the fee is paid by the person being transported, a third party 55245
payer, as defined in section 3702.51 of the Revised Code, or any 55246
other person or government entity.55247

       (2) "Nonemergency medical service organization" does not 55248
include a health care facility, as defined in section 1751.01 of 55249
the Revised Code, that provides ambulette services only to 55250
patients of that facility.55251

       (Q) "Nontransport vehicle" means a motor vehicle operated by 55252
a licensed emergency medical service organization not as an 55253
ambulance, but as a vehicle for providing services in conjunction 55254
with the ambulances operated by the organization or other 55255
emergency medical service organizations.55256

       (R) "Patient" means any individual who as a result of illness 55257
or injury needs medical attention, whose physical or mental 55258
condition is such that there is imminent danger of loss of life or 55259
significant health impairment, who may be otherwise incapacitated 55260
or helpless as a result of a physical or mental condition, or 55261
whose physical condition requires the use of a wheelchair.55262

       (S) "Rotorcraft air ambulance" means a helicopter or other 55263
aircraft capable of vertical takeoffs, vertical landings, and 55264
hovering that is specifically designed, constructed, or modified 55265
and equipped and is intended to be used as a means of air medical 55266
transportation.55267

       Sec. 4766.03.  (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 55268
fire, and transportation boardservices shall adopt rules, in 55269
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, implementing the 55270
requirements of this chapter. The rules shall include provisions 55271
relating to the following:55272

       (1) Requirements for an emergency medical service 55273
organization to receive a permit for an ambulance or nontransport 55274
vehicle;55275

       (2) Requirements for an emergency medical service 55276
organization to receive a license as a basic life-support, 55277
intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile 55278
intensive care unit organization;55279

       (3) Requirements for a nonemergency medical service 55280
organization to receive a permit for an ambulette vehicle;55281

       (4) Requirements for a nonemergency medical service 55282
organization to receive a license for an ambulette service;55283

       (5) Requirements for an air medical service organization to 55284
receive a permit for a rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air 55285
ambulance;55286

       (6) Requirements for licensure of air medical service 55287
organizations;55288

       (7) Forms for applications and renewals of licenses and 55289
permits;55290

       (8) Requirements for record keeping of service responses made 55291
by licensed emergency medical service organizations;55292

       (9) Fee amounts for licenses and permits, and their renewals;55293

       (10) Inspection requirements for licensees' vehicles or 55294
aircraft, records, and physical facilities;55295

       (11) Fee amounts for inspections of ambulances, ambulettes, 55296
rotorcraft air ambulances, fixed wing air ambulances, and 55297
nontransport vehicles;55298

       (12) Requirements for ambulances and nontransport vehicles 55299
used by licensed emergency medical service organizations, for 55300
ambulette vehicles used by licensed nonemergency medical service 55301
organizations, and for rotorcraft air ambulances or fixed wing air 55302
ambulances used by licensed air medical service organizations that 55303
specify for each type of vehicle or aircraft the types of 55304
equipment that must be carried, the communication systems that 55305
must be maintained, and the personnel who must staff the vehicle 55306
or aircraft;55307

       (13) The level of care each type of emergency medical service 55308
organization, nonemergency medical service organization, and air 55309
medical service organization is authorized to provide;55310

       (14) Eligibility requirements for employment as an ambulette 55311
driver, including grounds for disqualification due to the results 55312
of a motor vehicle law violation check, chemical test, or criminal 55313
records check. The rule may require that an applicant for 55314
employment as an ambulette driver provide a set of fingerprints to 55315
law enforcement authorities if the applicant comes under final 55316
consideration for employment.55317

       (15) Any other rules that the board determines necessary for 55318
the implementation and enforcement of this chapter.55319

       (B) In the rules for ambulances and nontransport vehicles 55320
adopted under division (A)(12) of this section, the board may 55321
establish requirements that vary according to whether the 55322
emergency medical service organization using the vehicles is 55323
licensed as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, 55324
advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization.55325

       (C) A mobile intensive care unit that is not dually certified 55326
to provide advanced life-support and meets the requirements of the 55327
rules adopted under this section is not required to carry 55328
immobilization equipment, including board splint kits, traction 55329
splints, backboards, backboard straps, cervical immobilization 55330
devices, cervical collars, stair chairs, folding cots, or other 55331
types of immobilization equipment determined by the board to be 55332
unnecessary for mobile intensive care units.55333

       A mobile intensive care unit is exempt from the emergency 55334
medical technician staffing requirements of section 4765.43 of the 55335
Revised Code when it is staffed by at least one physician or 55336
registered nurse and another person, designated by a physician, 55337
who holds a valid license or certificate to practice in a health 55338
care profession, and when at least one of the persons staffing the 55339
mobile intensive care unit is a registered nurse whose training 55340
meets or exceeds the training required for a paramedic.55341

       Sec. 4766.04.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 55342
chapter, no person shall furnish, operate, conduct, maintain, 55343
advertise, engage in, or propose or profess to engage in the 55344
business or service in this state of transporting persons who are 55345
seriously ill, injured, or otherwise incapacitated or who require 55346
the use of a wheelchair or are confined to a wheelchair unless the 55347
person is licensed pursuant to this section.55348

       (B) To qualify for a license as a basic life-support, 55349
intermediate life-support, advanced life-support, or mobile 55350
intensive care unit organization, an emergency medical service 55351
organization shall do all of the following:55352

       (1) Apply for a permit for each ambulance and nontransport 55353
vehicle owned or leased as provided in section 4766.07 of the 55354
Revised Code;55355

       (2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the 55356
Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation 55357
boardservices regarding ambulances and nontransport vehicles, 55358
including requirements pertaining to equipment, communications 55359
systems, staffing, and level of care the particular organization 55360
is permitted to render;55361

       (3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as 55362
specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;55363

       (4) Meet all other requirements established under rules 55364
adopted by the board for the particular license.55365

       (C) To qualify for a license to provide ambulette service, a 55366
nonemergency medical service organization shall do all of the 55367
following:55368

       (1) Apply for a permit for each ambulette owned or leased as 55369
provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code;55370

       (2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the55371
Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation 55372
boardservices regarding ambulettes, including requirements 55373
pertaining to equipment, communication systems, staffing, and 55374
level of care the organization is permitted to render;55375

       (3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as 55376
specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;55377

       (4) Meet all other requirements established under rules 55378
adopted by the board for the license.55379

       (D) To qualify for a license to provide air medical 55380
transportation, an air medical service organization shall do all 55381
of the following:55382

       (1) Apply for a permit for each rotorcraft air ambulance and 55383
fixed wing air ambulance owned or leased as provided in section 55384
4766.07 of the Revised Code;55385

       (2) Meet all requirements established in rules adopted by the55386
Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation 55387
boardservices regarding rotorcraft air ambulances and fixed wing 55388
air ambulances, including requirements pertaining to equipment, 55389
communication systems, staffing, and level of care the 55390
organization is permitted to render;55391

       (3) Maintain the appropriate type and amount of insurance as 55392
specified in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code;55393

       (4) Meet all other requirements established under rules 55394
adopted by the board for the license.55395

       (E) An emergency medical service organization that applies 55396
for a license as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, 55397
advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization; 55398
a nonemergency medical service organization that applies for a 55399
license to provide ambulette service; or an air medical service 55400
organization that applies for a license to provide air medical 55401
transportation shall submit a completed application to the board, 55402
on a form provided by the board for each particular license, 55403
together with the appropriate fees established under section 55404
4766.05 of the Revised Code. The application form shall include 55405
all of the following:55406

       (1) The name and business address of the operator of the 55407
organization for which licensure is sought;55408

       (2) The name under which the applicant will operate the 55409
organization;55410

       (3) A list of the names and addresses of all officers and 55411
directors of the organization;55412

       (4) For emergency medical service organizations and 55413
nonemergency medical service organizations, a description of each 55414
vehicle to be used, including the make, model, year of 55415
manufacture, mileage, vehicle identification number, and the color 55416
scheme, insignia, name, monogram, or other distinguishing 55417
characteristics to be used to designate the applicant's vehicle;55418

       (5) For air medical service organizations using fixed wing 55419
air ambulances, a description of each aircraft to be used, 55420
including the make, model, year of manufacture, and aircraft hours 55421
on airframe;55422

       (6) For air medical service organizations using rotorcraft 55423
air ambulances, a description of each aircraft to be used, 55424
including the make, model, year of manufacture, aircraft hours on 55425
airframe, aircraft identification number, and the color scheme, 55426
insignia, name, monogram, or other distinguishing characteristics 55427
to be used to designate the applicant's rotorcraft air ambulance;55428

       (7) The location and description of each place from which the 55429
organization will operate;55430

       (8) A description of the geographic area to be served by the 55431
applicant;55432

       (9) Any other information the board, by rule, determines 55433
necessary.55434

       (F) Within sixty days after receiving a completed application 55435
for licensure as a basic life-support, intermediate life-support, 55436
advanced life-support, or mobile intensive care unit organization; 55437
an ambulette service; or an air medical service organization, the 55438
board shall approve or deny the application. The board shall deny 55439
an application if it determines that the applicant does not meet 55440
the requirements of this chapter or any rules adopted under it. 55441
The board shall send notice of the denial of an application by 55442
certified mail to the applicant. The applicant may request a 55443
hearing within ten days after receipt of the notice. If the board 55444
receives a timely request, it shall hold a hearing in accordance 55445
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.55446

       (G) If an applicant or licensee operates or plans to operate 55447
an organization in more than one location under the same or 55448
different identities, the applicant or licensee shall apply for 55449
and meet all requirements for licensure or renewal of a license, 55450
other than payment of a license fee or renewal fee, for operating 55451
the organization at each separate location. An applicant or 55452
licensee that operates or plans to operate under the same 55453
organization identity in separate locations shall pay only a 55454
single license fee.55455

       (H) An emergency medical service organization that wishes to 55456
provide ambulette services to the public must apply for a separate 55457
license under division (C) of this section.55458

       (I) Each license issued under this section and each permit 55459
issued under section 4766.07 of the Revised Code expires one year 55460
after the date of issuance and may be renewed in accordance with 55461
the standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised 55462
Code. An application for renewal shall include the license or 55463
permit renewal fee established under section 4766.05 of the 55464
Revised Code. An applicant for renewal of a permit also shall 55465
submit to the board proof of an annual inspection of the vehicle 55466
or aircraft for which permit renewal is sought. The board shall 55467
renew a license if the applicant meets the requirements for 55468
licensure and shall renew a permit if the applicant and vehicle or 55469
aircraft meet the requirements to maintain a permit for that 55470
vehicle or aircraft.55471

       (J) Each licensee shall maintain accurate records of all 55472
service responses conducted. The records shall be maintained on 55473
forms prescribed by the board and shall contain information as 55474
specified by rule by the board.55475

       Sec. 4766.05.  (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 55476
fire, and transportation boardservices shall establish by rule a 55477
license fee, a permit fee for each ambulance, ambulette, 55478
rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 55479
nontransport vehicle owned or leased by the licensee that is or 55480
will be used as provided in section 4766.07 of the Revised Code, 55481
and fees for renewals of licenses and permits, taking into 55482
consideration the actual costs incurred by the board in carrying 55483
out its duties under this chapter. However, the fee for each 55484
license and each renewal of a license shall not exceed one hundred 55485
dollars, and the fee for each permit and each renewal of a permit 55486
shall not exceed one hundred dollars for each ambulance, 55487
rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 55488
nontransport vehicle. The fee for each permit and each renewal of 55489
a permit shall be twenty-five dollars for each ambulette for one 55490
year after March 9, 2004. Thereafter, the board shall determine by 55491
rule the fee, which shall not exceed fifty dollars, for each 55492
permit and each renewal of a permit for each ambulette. For 55493
purposes of establishing fees, "actual costs" includes the costs 55494
of salaries, expenses, inspection equipment, supervision, and 55495
program administration.55496

       (B) The board shall deposit all fees and other moneys 55497
collected pursuant to sections 4766.04, 4766.07, and 4766.08 of 55498
the Revised Code in the state treasury to the credit of the 55499
occupational licensingtrauma and regulatoryemergency medical 55500
services fund, which is created by section 4743.054513.263 of the 55501
Revised Code. All moneys from the fund shall be used solely for 55502
the salaries and expenses of the board incurred in implementing 55503
and enforcing this chapter.55504

       (C) The board, subject to the approval of the controlling 55505
board, may establish fees in excess of the maximum amounts allowed 55506
under division (A) of this section, but such fees shall not exceed 55507
those maximum amounts by more than fifty per cent.55508

       Sec. 4766.07.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by rule of 55509
the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and55510
transportation boardservices, each emergency medical service 55511
organization, nonemergency medical service organization, and air 55512
medical service organization subject to licensure under this 55513
chapter shall possess a valid permit for each ambulance, 55514
ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 55515
nontransport vehicle it owns or leases that is or will be used by 55516
the licensee to perform the services permitted by the license. 55517
Each licensee and license applicant shall submit the appropriate 55518
fee and an application for a permit for each ambulance, ambulette, 55519
rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and 55520
nontransport vehicle to the Ohiostate board of emergency55521
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices on forms provided 55522
by the board. The application shall include documentation that the 55523
vehicle or aircraft meets the appropriate standards set by the 55524
board, that the vehicle or aircraft has been inspected pursuant to 55525
division (C) of this section, that the permit applicant maintains 55526
insurance as provided in section 4766.06 of the Revised Code, and 55527
that the vehicle or aircraft and permit applicant meet any other 55528
requirements established under rules adopted by the board.55529

       The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and55530
transportation boardservices may adopt rules in accordance with 55531
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to authorize the temporary use of 55532
a vehicle or aircraft for which a permit is not possessed under 55533
this section in back-up or disaster situations.55534

       (B)(1) Within sixty days after receiving a completed 55535
application for a permit, the board shall issue or deny the 55536
permit. The board shall deny an application if it determines that 55537
the permit applicant, vehicle, or aircraft does not meet the 55538
requirements of this chapter and the rules adopted under it that 55539
apply to permits for ambulances, ambulettes, rotorcraft air 55540
ambulances, fixed wing air ambulances, and nontransport vehicles. 55541
The board shall send notice of the denial of an application by 55542
certified mail to the permit applicant. The permit applicant may 55543
request a hearing within ten days after receipt of the notice. If 55544
the board receives a timely request, it shall hold a hearing in 55545
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.55546

       (2) If the board issues the vehicle permit for an ambulance, 55547
ambulette, or nontransport vehicle, it also shall issue a decal, 55548
in a form prescribed by rule, to be displayed on the rear window 55549
of the vehicle. The board shall not issue a decal until all of the 55550
requirements for licensure and permit issuance have been met.55551

       (3) If the board issues the aircraft permit for a rotorcraft 55552
air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance, it also shall issue a 55553
decal, in a form prescribed by rule, to be displayed on the left 55554
fuselage aircraft window in a manner that complies with all 55555
applicable federal aviation regulations. The board shall not issue 55556
a decal until all of the requirements for licensure and permit 55557
issuance have been met.55558

       (C) In addition to any other requirements that the board 55559
establishes by rule, a licensee or license applicant applying for 55560
an initial vehicle or aircraft permit under division (A) of this 55561
section shall submit to the board the vehicle or aircraft for 55562
which the permit is sought. Thereafter, a licensee shall annually 55563
submit to the board each vehicle or aircraft for which a permit 55564
has been issued.55565

       (1) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of an 55566
ambulance, ambulette, or nontransport vehicle to determine its 55567
roadworthiness and compliance with standard motor vehicle 55568
requirements.55569

       (2) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the 55570
medical equipment, communication system, and interior of an 55571
ambulance to determine the operational condition and safety of the 55572
equipment and the ambulance's interior and to determine whether 55573
the ambulance is in compliance with the federal requirements for 55574
ambulance construction that were in effect at the time the 55575
ambulance was manufactured, as specified by the general services 55576
administration in the various versions of its publication titled 55577
"federal specification for the star-of-life ambulance, 55578
KKK-A-1822."55579

       (3) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the 55580
equipment, communication system, and interior of an ambulette to 55581
determine the operational condition and safety of the equipment 55582
and the ambulette's interior and to determine whether the 55583
ambulette is in compliance with state requirements for ambulette 55584
construction. The board shall determine by rule requirements for 55585
the equipment, communication system, interior, and construction of 55586
an ambulette.55587

       (4) The board shall conduct a physical inspection of the 55588
medical equipment, communication system, and interior of a 55589
rotorcraft air ambulance or fixed wing air ambulance to determine 55590
the operational condition and safety of the equipment and the 55591
aircraft's interior.55592

       (5) The board shall issue a certificate to the applicant for 55593
each vehicle or aircraft that passes the inspection and may assess 55594
a fee for each inspection, as established by the board.55595

       (6) The board shall adopt rules regarding the implementation 55596
and coordination of inspections. The rules may permit the board to 55597
contract with a third party to conduct the inspections required of 55598
the board under this section.55599

       Sec. 4766.08.  (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 55600
fire, and transportation board mayservices, pursuant to an 55601
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 55602
Revised Code, may suspend or revoke any license or permit or 55603
renewal thereof issued under this chapter for any one or 55604
combination of the following causes:55605

       (1) Violation of this chapter or any rule adopted thereunder;55606

       (2) Refusal to permit the board to inspect a vehicle or 55607
aircraft used under the terms of a permit or to inspect the 55608
records or physical facilities of a licensee;55609

       (3) Failure to meet the ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air 55610
ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, and nontransport vehicle 55611
requirements specified in this chapter or the rules adopted 55612
thereunder;55613

       (4) Violation of an order issued by the board;55614

       (5) Failure to comply with any of the terms of an agreement 55615
entered into with the board regarding the suspension or revocation 55616
of a license or permit or the imposition of a penalty under this 55617
section.55618

       (B) If the board determines that the records, record-keeping 55619
procedures, or physical facilities of a licensee, or an ambulance, 55620
ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed wing air ambulance, or 55621
nontransport vehicle for which a valid permit has been issued, do 55622
not meet the standards specified in this chapter and the rules 55623
adopted thereunder, the board shall notify the licensee of any 55624
deficiencies within thirty days of finding the deficiencies. If 55625
the board determines that the deficiencies exist and they remain 55626
uncorrected after thirty days, the board may suspend the license, 55627
vehicle permit, or aircraft permit. The licensee, notwithstanding 55628
the suspension under this division, may operate until all appeals 55629
have been exhausted.55630

       (C) At the discretion of the board, a licensee whose license 55631
has been suspended or revoked under this section may be ineligible 55632
to be licensed under this chapter for a period of not more than 55633
three years from the date of the violation, provided that the 55634
board shall make no determination on a period of ineligibility 55635
until all the licensee's appeals relating to the suspension or 55636
revocation have been exhausted.55637

       (D) The board may, in addition to any other action taken 55638
under this section and after a hearing conducted pursuant to 55639
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, impose a penalty of not more 55640
than fifteen hundred dollars for any violation specified in this 55641
section. The attorney general shall institute a civil action for 55642
the collection of any such penalty imposed.55643

       Sec. 4766.09.  This chapter does not apply to any of the 55644
following:55645

       (A) A person rendering services with an ambulance in the 55646
event of a disaster situation when licensees' vehicles based in 55647
the locality of the disaster situation are incapacitated or 55648
insufficient in number to render the services needed;55649

       (B) Any person operating an ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft 55650
air ambulance, or fixed wing air ambulance outside this state 55651
unless receiving a person within this state for transport to a 55652
location within this state;55653

       (C) A publicly owned or operated emergency medical service 55654
organization and the vehicles it owns or leases and operates, 55655
except as provided in section 307.051, division (G) of section 55656
307.055, division (F) of section 505.37, division (B) of section 55657
505.375, and division (B)(3) of section 505.72 of the Revised 55658
Code;55659

       (D) An ambulance, ambulette, rotorcraft air ambulance, fixed 55660
wing air ambulance, or nontransport vehicle owned or leased and 55661
operated by the federal government;55662

       (E) A publicly owned and operated fire department vehicle;55663

       (F) Emergency vehicles owned by a corporation and operating 55664
only on the corporation's premises, for the sole use by that 55665
corporation;55666

       (G) An ambulance, nontransport vehicle, or other emergency 55667
medical service organization vehicle owned and operated by a 55668
municipal corporation;55669

       (H) A motor vehicle titled in the name of a volunteer rescue 55670
service organization, as defined in section 4503.172 of the 55671
Revised Code;55672

       (I) A public emergency medical service organization;55673

       (J) A fire department, rescue squad, or life squad comprised 55674
of volunteers who provide services without expectation of 55675
remuneration and do not receive payment for services other than 55676
reimbursement for expenses;55677

       (K) A private, nonprofit emergency medical service 55678
organization when fifty per cent or more of its personnel are 55679
volunteers, as defined in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code;55680

       (L) Emergency medical service personnel who are regulated by 55681
the state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation55682
services under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code;55683

       (M) Any of the following that operates a transit bus, as that 55684
term is defined in division (Q) of section 5735.01 of the Revised 55685
Code, unless the entity provides ambulette services that are 55686
reimbursed under the state medicaid plan:55687

        (1) A public nonemergency medical service organization;55688

        (2) An urban or rural public transit system;55689

        (3) A private nonprofit organization that receives grants 55690
under section 5501.07 of the Revised Code.55691

       (N)(1) An entity, to the extent it provides ambulette 55692
services, if the entity meets all of the following conditions:55693

       (a) The entity is certified by the department of aging or the 55694
department's designee in accordance with section 173.391 of the 55695
Revised Code or operates under a contract or grant agreement with 55696
the department or the department's designee in accordance with 55697
section 173.392 of the Revised Code.55698

       (b) The entity meets the requirements of section 4766.14 of 55699
the Revised Code.55700

       (c) The entity does not provide ambulette services that are 55701
reimbursed under the state medicaid plan.55702

       (2) A vehicle, to the extent it is used to provide ambulette 55703
services, if the vehicle meets both of the following conditions:55704

       (a) The vehicle is owned by an entity that meets the 55705
conditions specified in division (N)(1) of this section.55706

       (b) The vehicle does not provide ambulette services that are 55707
reimbursed under the state medicaid plan.55708

        (O) A vehicle that meets both of the following criteria, 55709
unless the vehicle provides services that are reimbursed under the 55710
state medicaid plan:55711

       (1) The vehicle was purchased with funds from a grant made by 55712
the United States secretary of transportation under 49 U.S.C. 55713
5310;55714

        (2) The department of transportation holds a lien on the 55715
vehicle.55716

       Sec. 4766.10.  This chapter does not invalidate any ordinance 55717
or resolution adopted by a municipal corporation that establishes 55718
standards for the licensure of emergency medical service 55719
organizations as basic life-support, intermediate life-support, or 55720
advanced life-support service organizations that have their 55721
principal places of business located within the limits of the 55722
municipal corporation, as long as the licensure standards meet or 55723
exceed the standards established in this chapter and the rules 55724
adopted thereunder.55725

       Emergency medical service organizations licensed by a 55726
municipal corporation are subject to the jurisdiction of the Ohio55727
state board of emergency medical, fire, and transportation board55728
services, but the fees they pay to the board for licenses, 55729
permits, and renewals thereof shall not exceed fifty per cent of 55730
the fee amounts established by the board pursuant to section 55731
4766.03 of the Revised Code. The board may choose to waive the 55732
vehicle inspection requirements and inspection fees, but not the 55733
permit fees, for the vehicles of organizations licensed by a 55734
municipal corporation.55735

       Sec. 4766.11. (A) The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 55736
fire, and transportation boardservices may investigate alleged 55737
violations of this chapter or the rules adopted under it and may 55738
investigate any complaints received regarding alleged violations.55739

       In addition to any other remedies available and regardless of 55740
whether an adequate remedy at law exists, the board may apply to 55741
the court of common pleas in the county where a violation of any 55742
provision of this chapter or any rule adopted pursuant thereto is 55743
occurring for a temporary or permanent injunction restraining a 55744
person from continuing to commit that violation. On a showing that 55745
a person has committed a violation, the court shall grant the 55746
injunction.55747

       In conducting an investigation under this section, the board 55748
may issue subpoenas compelling the attendance and testimony of 55749
witnesses and the production of books, records, and other 55750
documents pertaining to the investigation. If a person fails to 55751
obey a subpoena from the board, the board may apply to the court 55752
of common pleas in the county where the investigation is being 55753
conducted for an order compelling the person to comply with the 55754
subpoena. On application by the board, the court shall compel 55755
obedience by attachment proceedings for contempt, as in the case 55756
of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena from the court 55757
or a refusal to testify therein.55758

       (B) The medical transportation board may suspend a license 55759
issued under this chapter without a prior hearing if it determines 55760
that there is evidence that the license holder is subject to 55761
action under this section and that there is clear and convincing 55762
evidence that continued operation by the license holder presents a 55763
danger of immediate and serious harm to the public. The 55764
chairperson and executive director of the board shall make a 55765
preliminary determination and describe the evidence on which they 55766
made their determination to the board members. The board by 55767
resolution may designate another board member to act in place of 55768
the chairperson or another employee to act in place of the 55769
executive director in the event that the chairperson or executive 55770
director is unavailable or unable to act. Upon review of the 55771
allegations, the board, by the affirmative vote of at least foura 55772
majority of its members, may suspend the license without a 55773
hearing.55774

       Any method of communication, including a telephone conference 55775
call, may be utilized for describing the evidence to the board 55776
members, for reviewing the allegations, and for voting on the 55777
suspension.55778

       Immediately following the decision by the board to suspend a 55779
license under this division, the board shall issue a written order 55780
of suspension and cause it to be delivered in accordance with 55781
section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If the license holder subject 55782
to the suspension requests an adjudication hearing by the board, 55783
the date set for the adjudication shall be within fifteen days but 55784
not earlier than seven days after the request unless another date 55785
is agreed to by the license holder and the board.55786

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division remains in 55787
effect, unless reversed by the board, until a final adjudicative 55788
order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 55789
119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue 55790
its final adjudicative order not less than ninety days after 55791
completion of its adjudication hearing. Failure to issue the order 55792
by that day shall cause the summary suspension order to end, but 55793
such failure shall not affect the validity of any subsequent final 55794
adjudication order.55795

       Sec. 4766.12.  If a county, township, joint ambulance 55796
district, or joint emergency medical services district chooses to 55797
have the Ohiostate board of emergency medical, fire, and55798
transportation boardservices license its emergency medical 55799
service organizations and issue permits for its vehicles pursuant 55800
to this chapter, except as may be otherwise provided, all 55801
provisions of this chapter and all rules adopted by the board 55802
thereunder are fully applicable. However, a county, township, 55803
joint ambulance district, or joint emergency medical services 55804
district is not required to obtain any type of permit from the 55805
board for any of its nontransport vehicles.55806

       Sec. 4766.13.  The Ohiostate board of emergency medical, 55807
fire, and transportation boardservices, by endorsement, may 55808
license and issue vehicle permits to an emergency medical service 55809
organization or a nonemergency medical service organization that 55810
is regulated by another state. To qualify for a license and 55811
vehicle permits by endorsement, an organization must submit 55812
evidence satisfactory to the board that it has met standards in 55813
another state that are equal to or more stringent than the 55814
standards established by this chapter and the rules adopted under 55815
it.55816

       Sec. 4766.15.  (A) An applicant for employment as an 55817
ambulette driver with an organization licensed pursuant to this 55818
chapter shall submit proof to the organization of, or give consent 55819
to the employer to obtain, all of the following:55820

       (1)(a) A valid driver's license issued pursuant to Chapter 55821
4506. or 4507. of the Revised Code, or its equivalent, if the 55822
applicant is a resident of another state;55823

       (b) A recent certified abstract of the applicant's record of 55824
convictions for violations of motor vehicle laws provided by the 55825
registrar of motor vehicles pursuant to section 4509.05 of the 55826
Revised Code, or its equivalent, if the applicant is a resident of 55827
another state.55828

       (2)(a) A certificate of completion of a course in first aid 55829
techniques offered by the American red cross or an equivalent 55830
organization;55831

       (b) A certificate of completion of a course in 55832
cardiopulmonary resuscitation, or its equivalent, offered by an 55833
organization approved by the Ohiostate board of emergency55834
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices.55835

       (3) The result of a chemical test or tests of the applicant's 55836
blood, breath, or urine conducted at a hospital or other 55837
institution approved by the board for the purpose of determining 55838
the alcohol, drug of abuse, controlled substance, or metabolite of 55839
a controlled substance content of the applicant's whole blood, 55840
blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine;55841

       (4) The result of a criminal records check conducted by the 55842
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.55843

       (B) An organization may employ an applicant on a temporary 55844
provisional basis pending the completion of all of the 55845
requirements of this section. The length of the provisional period 55846
shall be determined by the board.55847

       (C) An organization licensed pursuant to this chapter shall 55848
use information received pursuant to this section to determine in 55849
accordance with rules adopted by the Ohiostate board of emergency55850
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices under section 55851
4766.03 of the Revised Code whether an applicant is disqualified 55852
for employment.55853

       No applicant shall be accepted for permanent employment as an 55854
ambulette driver by an organization licensed pursuant to this 55855
chapter until all of the requirements of division (A) of this 55856
section have been met.55857

       Sec. 4766.22.  (A) Not later than forty-five days after the 55858
end of each fiscal year, the Ohiostate board of emergency55859
medical, fire, and transportation boardservices shall submit a 55860
report to the governor and general assembly that provides all of 55861
the following information for that fiscal year:55862

       (1) The number of each of the following the board issued:55863

       (a) Basic life-support organization licenses;55864

       (b) Intermediate life-support organization licenses;55865

       (c) Advanced life-support organization licenses;55866

       (d) Mobile intensive care unit organization licenses;55867

       (e) Ambulette service licenses;55868

       (f) Air medical service organization licenses;55869

       (g) Ambulance permits;55870

       (h) Nontransport vehicle permits;55871

       (i) Ambulette vehicle permits;55872

       (j) Rotorcraft air ambulance permits;55873

       (k) Fixed wing air ambulance permits.55874

       (2) The amount of fees the board collected for issuing and 55875
renewing each type of license and permit specified in division 55876
(A)(1) of this section;55877

       (3) The number of inspections the board or a third party on 55878
the board's behalf conducted in connection with each type of 55879
license and permit specified in division (A)(1) of this section 55880
and the amount of fees the board collected for the inspections;55881

       (4) The number of complaints that were submitted to the 55882
board;55883

       (5) The number of investigations the board conducted under 55884
section 4766.11 of the Revised Code;55885

       (6) The number of adjudication hearings the board held and 55886
the outcomes of the adjudications;55887

       (7) The amount of penalties the board imposed and collected 55888
under section 4766.08 of the Revised Code;55889

       (8) Other information the board determines reflects the 55890
board's operations.55891

       (B) The board shall post the annual report required by this 55892
section on its web site and make it available to the public on 55893
request.55894

       Sec. 4773.08.  The publicdirector of health council shall 55895
adopt rules to implement and administer this chapter. In adopting 55896
the rules, the councildirector shall consider any recommendations 55897
made by the radiation advisory council created under section 55898
3701.93 of the Revised Code. The rules shall be adopted in 55899
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and shall not be 55900
less stringent than any applicable standards specified in 42 55901
C.F.R. 75. The rules shall establish all of the following:55902

       (A) Standards for licensing general x-ray machine operators, 55903
radiographers, radiation therapy technologists, and nuclear 55904
medicine technologists;55905

       (B) Application and renewal fees for licenses issued under 55906
this chapter that do not exceed the cost incurred in issuing and 55907
renewing the licenses;55908

       (C) Standards for accreditation of educational programs and 55909
approval of continuing education programs in general x-ray machine 55910
operation, radiography, radiation therapy technology, and nuclear 55911
medicine technology;55912

       (D) Fees for accrediting educational programs and approving 55913
continuing education programs in general x-ray machine operation, 55914
radiography, radiation therapy technology, and nuclear medicine 55915
technology that do not exceed the cost incurred in accrediting the 55916
educational programs;55917

       (E) Fees for issuing conditional licenses under section 55918
4773.05 of the Revised Code that do not exceed the cost incurred 55919
in issuing the licenses;55920

       (F) Continuing education requirements that must be met to 55921
have a license renewed under section 4773.03 of the Revised Code;55922

       (G) Continuing education requirements that the holder of a 55923
conditional license must meet to receive a license issued under 55924
section 4773.03 of the Revised Code;55925

       (H) Any other rules necessary for the implementation or 55926
administration of this chapter.55927

       Sec. 4781.01.  As used in this chapter:55928

       (A) "Industrialized unit" has the same meaning as in division 55929
(C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.55930

       (B) "Installation" means any of the following:55931

       (1) The temporary or permanent construction of stabilization, 55932
support, and anchoring systems for manufactured housing;55933

       (2) The placement and erection of a manufactured housing unit 55934
or components of a unit on a structural support system;55935

       (3) The supporting, blocking, leveling, securing, anchoring, 55936
underpinning, or adjusting of any section or component of a 55937
manufactured housing unit;55938

       (4) The joining or connecting of all sections or components 55939
of a manufactured housing unit.55940

       (C) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 55941
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.55942

       (D) "Manufactured home park" has the same meaning as in 55943
division (A) of section 3733.01 of the Revised Codemeans any 55944
tract of land upon which three or more manufactured or mobile 55945
homes used for habitation are parked, either free of charge or for 55946
revenue purposes, and includes any roadway, building, structure, 55947
vehicle, or enclosure used or intended for use as a part of the 55948
facilities of the park. "Manufactured home park" does not include 55949
any of the following:55950

       (1) A tract of land used solely for the storage or display 55951
for sale of manufactured or mobile homes or solely as a temporary 55952
park-camp as defined in section 3729.01 of the Revised Code;55953

       (2) A tract of land that is subdivided and the individual 55954
lots are for sale or sold for the purpose of installation of 55955
manufactured or mobile homes used for habitation and the roadways 55956
are dedicated to the local government authority;55957

       (3) A tract of land within an area that is subject to local 55958
zoning authority and subdivision requirements and is subdivided, 55959
and the individual lots are for sale or sold for the purpose of 55960
installation of manufactured or mobile homes for habitation.55961

       (E) "Manufactured housing" means manufactured homes and 55962
mobile homes.55963

       (F) "Manufactured housing installer" means an individual who 55964
installs manufactured housing.55965

       (G) "Mobile home" has the same meaning as in division (O) of 55966
section 4501.01 of the Revised Code.55967

       (H) "Model standards" means the federal manufactured home 55968
installation standards established pursuant to 42 U.S.C. 5404.55969

       (I) "Permanent foundation" has the same meaning as in 55970
division (C)(5) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.55971

       (J) "Business" includes any activities engaged in by any 55972
person for the object of gain, benefit, or advantage either direct 55973
or indirect.55974

       (K) "Casual sale" means any transfer of a manufactured home 55975
or mobile home by a person other than a manufactured housing 55976
dealer, manufactured housing salesperson, or manufacturer to an 55977
ultimate consumer or a person who purchases the home for use as a 55978
residence.55979

       (L) "Engaging in business" means commencing, conducting, or 55980
continuing in business, or liquidating a business when the 55981
liquidator thereof holds self out to be conducting such business; 55982
making a casual sale or otherwise making transfers in the ordinary 55983
course of business when the transfers are made in connection with 55984
the disposition of all or substantially all of the transferor's 55985
assets is not engaging in business.55986

       (M) "Manufactured home park operator" has the same meaning as 55987
"operator" in section 3733.01 of the Revised Codeor "park 55988
operator" means the person who has responsible charge of a 55989
manufactured home park and who is licensed under sections 4781.26 55990
to 4781.35 of the Revised Code.55991

       (N) "Manufactured housing broker" means any person acting as 55992
a selling agent on behalf of an owner of a manufactured home or 55993
mobile home that is subject to taxation under section 4503.06 of 55994
the Revised Code.55995

       (O) "Manufactured housing dealer" means any person engaged in 55996
the business of selling at retail, displaying, offering for sale, 55997
or dealing in manufactured homes or mobile homes.55998

       (P) "Manufacturer" means a person who manufacturers, 55999
assembles, or imports manufactured homes or mobile homes.56000

        (Q) "Retail sale" or "sale at retail" means the act or 56001
attempted act of selling, bartering, exchanging, or otherwise 56002
disposing of a manufactured home or mobile home to an ultimate 56003
purchaser for use as a residence.56004

       (R) "Salesperson" means any individual employed by a 56005
manufactured housing dealer or manufactured housing broker to 56006
sell, display, and offer for sale, or deal in manufactured homes 56007
or mobile homes for a commission, compensation, or other valuable 56008
consideration, but does not mean any public officer performing 56009
official duties.56010

       (S) "Ultimate purchaser" means, with respect to any new 56011
manufactured home, the first person, other than a manufactured 56012
housing dealer purchasing in the capacity of a manufactured 56013
housing dealer, who purchases such new manufactured home for 56014
purposes other than resale.56015

       (T) "Tenant" means a person who is entitled under a rental 56016
agreement with a manufactured home park operator to occupy a 56017
manufactured home park lot and who does not own the home occupying 56018
the lot.56019

       (U) "Owner" means a person who is entitled under a rental 56020
agreement with a manufactured home park operator to occupy a 56021
manufactured home park lot and who owns the home occupying the 56022
lot.56023

       (V) "Resident" means a person entitled under a rental 56024
agreement to the use and occupancy of residential premises to the 56025
exclusion of others. "Resident" includes both tenants and owners.56026

       (W) "Residential premises" means a lot located within a 56027
manufactured home park and the grounds, areas, and facilities 56028
contained within the manufactured home park for the use of 56029
residents generally or the use of which is promised to a resident.56030

       (X) "Rental agreement" means any agreement or lease, written 56031
or oral, that establishes or modifies the terms, conditions, 56032
rules, or any other provisions concerning the use and occupancy of 56033
residential premises by one of the parties.56034

       (Y) "Security deposit" means any deposit of money or property 56035
to secure performance by the resident under a rental agreement.56036

       (Z) "Development" means any artificial change to improved or 56037
unimproved real estate, including, without limitation, buildings 56038
or structures, dredging, filling, grading, paving, excavation or 56039
drilling operations, or storage of equipment or materials, and the 56040
construction, expansion, or substantial alteration of a 56041
manufactured home park, for which plan review is required under 56042
division (A) of section 4781.31 of the Revised Code. "Development" 56043
does not include the building, construction, erection, or 56044
manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 of the 56045
Revised Code is applicable.56046

       (AA) "Flood" or "flooding" means either of the following:56047

       (1) A general and temporary condition of partial or complete 56048
inundation of normally dry land areas from any of the following:56049

       (a) The overflow of inland or tidal waters;56050

       (b) The unusual and rapid accumulation or runoff of surface 56051
waters from any source;56052

       (c) Mudslides that are proximately caused by flooding as 56053
defined in division (AA)(1)(b) of this section and that are akin 56054
to a river of liquid and flowing mud on the surface of normally 56055
dry land areas, as when earth is carried by a current of water and 56056
deposited along the path of the current.56057

       (2) The collapse or subsidence of land along the shore of a 56058
lake or other body of water as a result of erosion or undermining 56059
that is caused by waves or currents of water exceeding anticipated 56060
cyclical levels or that is suddenly caused by an unusually high 56061
water level in a natural body of water, and that is accompanied by 56062
a severe storm, by an unanticipated force of nature, such as a 56063
flash flood, by an abnormal tidal surge, or by some similarly 56064
unusual and unforeseeable event, that results in flooding as 56065
defined in division (AA)(1)(a) of this section.56066

       (BB) "Flood plain" means the area adjoining any river, 56067
stream, watercourse, or lake that has been or may be covered by 56068
flood water.56069

       (CC) "One-hundred-year flood" means a flood having a one per 56070
cent chance of being equaled or exceeded in any given year.56071

       (DD) "One-hundred-year flood plain" means that portion of a 56072
flood plain inundated by a one-hundred-year flood.56073

       (EE) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 56074
Revised Code and also includes this state, any political 56075
subdivision of this state, and any other state or local body of 56076
this state.56077

       (FF) "Substantial damage" means damage of any origin 56078
sustained by a manufactured or mobile home that is situated in a 56079
manufactured home park located in a flood plain when the cost of 56080
restoring the home to its condition before the damage occurred 56081
will equal or exceed fifty per cent of the market value of the 56082
home before the damage occurred.56083

       (GG) "Substantially alter" means a change in the layout or 56084
design of a manufactured home park, including, without limitation, 56085
the movement of utilities or changes in established streets, lots, 56086
or sites or in other facilities. In the case of manufactured home 56087
parks located within a one-hundred-year flood plain, 56088
"substantially alter" also includes changes in elevation resulting 56089
from the addition of fill, grading, or excavation that may affect 56090
flood plain management.56091

       (HH) "Tract" means a contiguous area of land that consists of 56092
one or more parcels, lots, or sites that have been separately 56093
surveyed regardless of whether the individual parcels, lots, or 56094
sites have been recorded and regardless of whether the one or more 56095
parcels, lots, or sites are under common or different ownership.56096

       Sec. 4781.02. (A) There is hereby created the manufactured 56097
homes commission which consists of nine members, with three 56098
members appointed by the governor, three members appointed by the 56099
president of the senate, and three members appointed by the 56100
speaker of the house of representatives.56101

       (B)(1) Commission members shall be residents of this state, 56102
except for members appointed pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(b) and 56103
(B)(4)(a) of this section. Members shall be selected from a list 56104
of persons the Ohio manufactured homes association, or any 56105
successor entity, recommends, except for appointments made 56106
pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section.56107

       (2) The governor shall appoint the following members:56108

       (a) One member to represent the board of building standards, 56109
who may be a member of the board or a board employee not in the 56110
classified civil service, with an initial term ending December 31, 56111
2007;56112

       (b) One member to represent the department of health, who may 56113
be a department employee not in the classified civil service, with 56114
an initial term ending December 31, 2005who is registered as a 56115
sanitarian in accordance with Chapter 4736. of the Revised Code, 56116
has experience with the regulation of manufactured homes, and is 56117
an employee of a health district described in section 3709.01 of 56118
the Revised Code;56119

       (c) One member whose primary residence is a manufactured 56120
home, with an initial term ending December 31, 2006.56121

       (3) The president of the senate shall appoint the following 56122
members:56123

        (a) Two members who are manufactured housing installers who 56124
have been actively engaged in the installation of manufactured 56125
housing for the five years immediately prior to appointment, with 56126
the initial term of one installer ending December 31, 2007, and 56127
the initial term of the other installer ending December 31, 2005.56128

       (b) One member who manufactures manufactured homes in this 56129
state or who manufactures manufactured homes in another state and 56130
ships homes into this state, to represent manufactured home 56131
manufacturers, with an initial term ending December 31, 2006.56132

       (4) The speaker of the house of representatives shall appoint 56133
the following members:56134

       (a) One member who operates a manufactured or mobile home 56135
retail business in this state to represent manufactured housing 56136
dealers, with an initial term ending December 31, 2007;56137

       (b) One member who is a manufactured home park operator or is 56138
employed by an operator, with an initial term ending December 31, 56139
2005;56140

       (c) One member to represent the Ohio manufactured home 56141
association, or any successor entity, who may be the president or 56142
executive director of the association or the successor entity, 56143
with an initial term ending December 31, 2006.56144

       (C)(1) After the initial term, each term of office is for 56145
four years ending on the thirty-first day of December. A member 56146
holds office from the date of appointment until the end of the 56147
term. No member may serve more than two consecutive four-year 56148
terms.56149

       (2) Any member appointed to fill a vacancy that occurs prior 56150
to the expiration of a term continues in office for the remainder 56151
of that term. Any member continues in office subsequent to the 56152
expiration date of the term until the member's successor takes 56153
office or until sixty days have elapsed, which ever occurs first.56154

       (3) A vacancy on the commission does not impair the authority 56155
of the remaining members to exercise all of the commission's 56156
powers.56157

       (D)(1) The governor may remove any member from office for 56158
incompetence, neglect of duty, misfeasance, nonfeasance, 56159
malfeasance, or unprofessional conduct in office.56160

       (2) Vacancies shall be filled in the manner of the original 56161
appointment.56162

       Sec. 4781.04. (A) The manufactured homes commission shall 56163
adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all 56164
of the following:56165

       (1) Establish uniform standards that govern the installation 56166
of manufactured housing. Not later than one hundred eighty days 56167
after the secretary of the United States department of housing and 56168
urban development adopts model standards for the installation of 56169
manufactured housing or amends those standards, the commission 56170
shall amend its standards as necessary to be consistent with, and 56171
not less stringent than, the model standards for the design and 56172
installation of manufactured housing the secretary adopts or any 56173
manufacturers' standards that the secretary determines are equal 56174
to or not less stringent than the model standards.56175

       (2) Govern the inspection of the installation of manufactured 56176
housing. The rules shall specify that the commission, any building 56177
department or personnel of any department, any licensor or 56178
personnel of any licensor, or any private third party, certified 56179
pursuant to section 4781.07 of the Revised Code shall conduct all 56180
inspections of the installation of manufactured housing located in 56181
manufactured home parks to determine compliance with the uniform 56182
installation standards the commission establishes pursuant to this 56183
section. 56184

       As used in division (A)(2) of this section, "licensor" has 56185
the same meaning as in section 3733.01 of the Revised Code.56186

       (3) Govern the design, construction, installation, approval, 56187
and inspection of foundations and the base support systems for 56188
manufactured housing. The rules shall specify that the commission, 56189
any building department or personnel of any department, any 56190
licensor or personnel of any licensor, or any private third party, 56191
certified pursuant to section 4781.07 of the Revised Code shall 56192
conduct all inspections of the installation, foundations, and base 56193
support systems of manufactured housing located in manufactured 56194
home parks to determine compliance with the uniform installation 56195
standards and foundation and base support system design the 56196
commission establishes pursuant to this section. 56197

       As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "licensor" has 56198
the same meaning as in section 3733.01 of the Revised Code.56199

       (4) Govern the training, experience, and education 56200
requirements for manufactured housing installers, manufactured 56201
housing dealers, manufactured housing brokers, and manufactured 56202
housing salespersons;56203

       (5) Establish a code of ethics for manufactured housing 56204
installers;56205

       (6) Govern the issuance, revocation, and suspension of 56206
licenses to manufactured housing installers;56207

       (7) Establish fees for the issuance and renewal of licenses, 56208
for conducting inspections to determine an applicant's compliance 56209
with this chapter and the rules adopted pursuant to it, and for 56210
the commission's expenses incurred in implementing this chapter;56211

       (8) Establish conditions under which a licensee may enter 56212
into contracts to fulfill the licensee's responsibilities;56213

       (9) Govern the investigation of complaints concerning any 56214
violation of this chapter or the rules adopted pursuant to it or 56215
complaints involving the conduct of any licensed manufactured 56216
housing installer or person installing manufactured housing 56217
without a license, licensed manufactured housing dealer, licensed 56218
manufactured housing broker, or manufactured housing salesperson;56219

       (10) Establish a dispute resolution program for the timely 56220
resolution of warranty issues involving new manufactured homes, 56221
disputes regarding responsibility for the correction or repair of 56222
defects in manufactured housing, and the installation of 56223
manufactured housing. The rules shall provide for the timely 56224
resolution of disputes between manufacturers, manufactured housing 56225
dealers, and installers regarding the correction or repair of 56226
defects in manufactured housing that are reported by the purchaser 56227
of the home during the one-year period beginning on the date of 56228
installation of the home. The rules also shall provide that 56229
decisions made regarding the dispute under the program are not 56230
binding upon the purchaser of the home or the other parties 56231
involved in the dispute unless the purchaser so agrees in a 56232
written acknowledgement that the purchaser signs and delivers to 56233
the program within ten business days after the decision is issued.56234

       (11) Establish the requirements and procedures for the 56235
certification of building departments and building department 56236
personnel pursuant to section 4781.07 of the Revised Code;56237

       (12) Establish fees to be charged to building departments and 56238
building department personnel applying for certification and 56239
renewal of certification pursuant to section 4781.07 of the 56240
Revised Code;56241

       (13) Develop a policy regarding the maintenance of records 56242
for any inspection authorized or conducted pursuant to this 56243
chapter. Any record maintained under division (A)(13) of this 56244
section shall be a public record under section 149.43 of the 56245
Revised Code.56246

       (14) Carry out any other provision of this chapter.56247

       (B) The manufactured homes commission shall do all of the 56248
following:56249

       (1) Prepare and administer a licensure examination to 56250
determine an applicant's knowledge of manufactured housing 56251
installation and other aspects of installation the commission 56252
determines appropriate;56253

       (2) Select, provide, or procure appropriate examination 56254
questions and answers for the licensure examination and establish 56255
the criteria for successful completion of the examination;56256

       (3) Prepare and distribute any application form this chapter 56257
requires;56258

       (4) Receive applications for licenses and renewal of licenses 56259
and issue licenses to qualified applicants;56260

       (5) Establish procedures for processing, approving, and 56261
disapproving applications for licensure;56262

       (6) Retain records of applications for licensure, including 56263
all application materials submitted and a written record of the 56264
action taken on each application;56265

       (7) Review the design and plans for manufactured housing 56266
installations, foundations, and support systems;56267

       (8) Inspect a sample of homes at a percentage the commission 56268
determines to evaluate the construction and installation of 56269
manufactured housing installations, foundations, and support 56270
systems to determine compliance with the standards the commission 56271
adopts;56272

       (9) Investigate complaints concerning violations of this 56273
chapter or the rules adopted pursuant to it, or the conduct of any 56274
manufactured housing installer, manufactured housing dealer, 56275
manufactured housing broker, or manufactured housing salesperson;56276

       (10) Determine appropriate disciplinary actions for 56277
violations of this chapter;56278

       (11) Conduct audits and inquiries of manufactured housing 56279
installers, manufactured housing dealers, and manufactured housing 56280
brokers as appropriate for the enforcement of this chapter. The 56281
commission, or any person the commission employs for the purpose, 56282
may review and audit the business records of any manufactured 56283
housing installer, dealer, or broker during normal business hours.56284

       (12) Approve an installation training course, which may be 56285
offered by the Ohio manufactured homes association or other 56286
entity;56287

       (13) Perform any function or duty necessary to administer 56288
this chapter and the rules adopted pursuant to it.56289

       (C) Nothing in this section shall be construed to limit the 56290
authority of a board of health to enforce section 3701.344 or 56291
Chapters 3703., 3718., and 3781. of the Revised Code.56292

       Sec. 4781.07. (A) Pursuant to rules the manufactured homes 56293
commission adopts, the commission may certify municipal, township, 56294
and county building departments and the personnel of those 56295
departments, licensors as defined in section 3733.01 of the 56296
Revised Code and the personnel of those licensors, or any private 56297
third party, to exercise the commission's enforcement authority, 56298
accept and approve plans and specifications for foundations, 56299
support systems and installations, and inspect manufactured 56300
housing foundations, support systems, and manufactured housing 56301
installations. Any certification is effective for three years.56302

       (B) Following an investigation and finding of facts that 56303
support its action, the commission may revoke or suspend 56304
certification. The commission may initiate an investigation on its 56305
own motion or the petition of a person affected by the enforcement 56306
or approval of plans.56307

       Sec. 4781.09. (A) The manufactured homes commission may deny, 56308
suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew the license of any 56309
manufactured home installer for any of the following reasons:56310

       (1) Failure to satisfy the requirements of section 4781.08 or 56311
4781.10 of the Revised Code;56312

       (2) Violation of this chapter or any rule adopted pursuant to 56313
it;56314

       (3) Making a material misstatement in an application for a 56315
license;56316

       (4) Installing manufactured housing without a license or 56317
without being under the supervision of a licensed manufactured 56318
housing installer;56319

       (5) Failure to appear for a hearing before the commission or 56320
to comply with any final adjudication order of the commission 56321
issued pursuant to this chapter;56322

       (6) Conviction of a felony or a crime involving moral 56323
turpitude;56324

       (7) Having had a license revoked, suspended, or denied by the 56325
commission during the preceding two years;56326

       (8) Having had a license revoked, suspended, or denied by 56327
another state or jurisdiction during the preceding two years;56328

       (9) Engaging in conduct in another state or jurisdiction that 56329
would violate this chapter if committed in this state.56330

       (10) Failing to provide written notification of an 56331
installation pursuant to division (D) of section 4781.11 of the 56332
Revised Code to a county treasurer or county auditor.56333

       (B)(1) Any person whose license or license application is 56334
revoked, suspended, denied, or not renewed or upon whom a civil 56335
penalty is imposed pursuant to division (C) of this section may 56336
request an adjudication hearing on the matter within thirty days 56337
after receipt of the notice of the action. The hearing shall be 56338
held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.56339

       (2) Any licensee or applicant may appeal an order made 56340
pursuant to an adjudication hearing in the manner provided in 56341
section 119.12 of the Revised Code.56342

       (C) As an alternative to suspending, revoking, or refusing to 56343
renew a manufactured housing installer's license, the commission 56344
may impose a civil penalty of not less than one hundred dollars or 56345
more than five hundred dollars per violation of this chapter or 56346
any rule adopted pursuant to it. The commission shall deposit 56347
penalties in the occupational licensing and regulatory fund 56348
pursuant to section 4743.05 of the Revised Code.56349

       (D) A person whose license is suspended, revoked, or not 56350
renewed may apply for a new license two years after the date on 56351
which the license was suspended, revoked, or not renewed.56352

       Sec. 4781.121. (A) The manufactured homes commission, 56353
pursuant to section 4781.04 of the Revised Code, may investigate 56354
any person who allegedly has committed a violation. If, after an 56355
investigation the commission determines that reasonable evidence 56356
exists that a person has committed a violation, within seven days 56357
after that determination, the commission shall send a written 56358
notice to that person in the same manner as prescribed in section 56359
119.07 of the Revised Code for licensees, except that the notice 56360
shall specify that a hearing will be held and specify the date, 56361
time, and place of the hearing.56362

       (B) The commission shall hold a hearing regarding the alleged 56363
violation in the same manner prescribed for an adjudication 56364
hearing under section 119.09 of the Revised Code. If the 56365
commission, after the hearing, determines that a violation has 56366
occurred, the commission, upon an affirmative vote of five of its 56367
members, may impose a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars per 56368
violation per day. The commission's determination is an order that 56369
the person may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of the 56370
Revised Code.56371

       (C) If the person who allegedly committed a violation fails 56372
to appear for a hearing, the commission may request the court of 56373
common pleas of the county where the alleged violation occurred to 56374
compel the person to appear before the commission for a hearing.56375

       (D) If the commission assesses a person a civil penalty for a 56376
violation and the person fails to pay that civil penalty within 56377
the time period prescribed by the commission pursuant to section 56378
131.02 of the Revised Code, the commission shall forward to the 56379
attorney general the name of the person and the amount of the 56380
civil penalty for the purpose of collecting that civil penalty. In 56381
addition to the civil penalty assessed pursuant to this section, 56382
the person also shall pay any fee assessed by the attorney general 56383
for collection of the civil penalty.56384

       (E) The authority provided to the commission pursuant to this 56385
section, and any fine imposed under this section, shall be in 56386
addition to, and not in lieu of, all penalties and other remedies 56387
provided in this chapter. Any fines collected pursuant to this 56388
section shall be used solely to administer and enforce this 56389
chapter and rules adopted under it. Any fees collected pursuant to 56390
this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer of state and 56391
shall be credited to the manufactured homes commission regulatory 56392
fund created in section 4781.54 of the Revised Code and the rules 56393
adopted thereunder. The fees shall be used only for the purpose of 56394
administering and enforcing sections 4781.26 to 4781.35 of the 56395
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.56396

       (F) As used in this section, "violation" means a violation of 56397
section 4781.11, 4781.16, or 4781.27, or any rule adopted pursuant 56398
to section 4781.04, of the Revised Code.56399

       Sec. 4781.14.  (A) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of 56400
section 3733.02 of the Revised Code, the state, through theThe56401
manufactured homes commission, has exclusive authority to regulate 56402
manufactured home installers, the installation of manufactured 56403
housing, and manufactured housing foundations and support systems 56404
in thethis state. By enacting this chapter, it is the intent of 56405
the general assembly to preempt municipal corporations and other 56406
political subdivisions from regulating and licensing manufactured 56407
housing installers and regulating and inspecting the installation 56408
of manufactured housing and manufactured housing foundations and 56409
support systems.56410

       (B) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of section 3733.02 56411
of the Revised Code, theThe manufactured homes commission has 56412
exclusive power to adopt rules of uniform application throughout 56413
the state governing installation of manufactured housing, the 56414
inspection of manufactured housing foundations and support 56415
systems, the inspection of the installation of manufactured 56416
housing, the training and licensing of manufactured housing 56417
installers, and the investigation of complaints concerning 56418
manufactured housing installers.56419

       (C) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of section 3733.02 56420
of the Revised Code, theThe rules the commission adopts pursuant 56421
to this chapter are the exclusive rules governing the installation 56422
of manufactured housing, the design, construction, and approval of 56423
foundations for manufactured housing, the licensure of 56424
manufactured home installers, and the fees charged for licensure 56425
of manufactured home installers. No political subdivision of the 56426
state or any department or agency of the state may establish any 56427
other standards governing the installation of manufactured 56428
housing, manufactured housing foundations and support systems, the 56429
licensure of manufactured housing installers, or fees charged for 56430
the licensure of manufactured housing installers.56431

       (D) Nothing in this section limits the authority of the 56432
attorney general to enforce Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code or 56433
to take any action permitted by the Revised Code against 56434
manufactured housing installers, retailers, or manufacturers.56435

       Sec. 4781.15. The remedies provided in sections 4781.01 to 56436
4781.14 of the Revised Codethis chapter are in addition to 56437
remedies otherwise available for the same conduct under state or 56438
local law.56439

       Sec. 4781.16.  (A) Except as provided in division (E) of this 56440
section, no person shall do any of the following:56441

       (1) Engage in the business of displaying or selling at retail 56442
manufactured homes or mobile homes or assume to engage in that 56443
business, unless the person is licensed as a manufactured housing 56444
dealer under this chapter, or is a salesperson licensed under this 56445
chapter and employed by a licensed manufactured housing dealer;56446

       (2) Make more than five casual sales of manufactured homes or 56447
mobile homes in a twelve-month period without obtaining a license 56448
as a manufactured housing dealer under this chapter;56449

       (3) Purchase a manufactured home directly from the 56450
manufacturer without obtaining a license as a manufactured housing 56451
dealer under this chapter;56452

       (4) Engage in the business of brokering manufactured homes 56453
unless that person is licensed as a manufactured housing broker 56454
under this chapter or licensed as a real estate broker or 56455
salesperson pursuant to Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code.56456

       (B)(1) Except as provided in this division, no manufactured 56457
housing dealer shall sell, display, offer for sale, or deal in 56458
manufactured homes or mobile homes at any place except an 56459
established place of business that is used exclusively for the 56460
purpose of selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in 56461
manufactured homes or mobile homes. 56462

       (2) No manufactured housing broker shall engage in the 56463
business of brokering manufactured or mobile homes at any place 56464
except an established place of business that is used exclusively 56465
for the purpose of brokering manufactured and mobile homes.56466

       (3) A place of business used for the brokering or sale of 56467
manufactured homes or mobile homes is considered to be used 56468
exclusively for brokering, selling, displaying, offering for sale, 56469
or dealing in manufactured or mobile homes even though 56470
industrialized units, as defined by section 3781.06 of the Revised 56471
Code, are brokered, sold, displayed, offered for sale, or dealt at 56472
the same place of business.56473

       (4) If the licensed manufactured housing dealer is a 56474
manufactured home park operator, then all of the following apply:56475

       (a) An established place of business that is located in the 56476
operator's manufactured home park and that is used for selling, 56477
leasing, and renting manufactured homes and mobile homes in that 56478
manufactured home park is considered to be used exclusively for 56479
that purpose even though rent and other activities related to the 56480
operation of the manufactured home park take place at the same 56481
location or office.56482

       (b) The dealer's established place of business in the 56483
manufactured home park shall be staffed by someone licensed and 56484
regulated under this chapter who could reasonably assist any 56485
retail customer with or without an appointment, but such 56486
established place of business need not satisfy office size, 56487
display lot size, and physical barrier requirements applicable to 56488
other used motor vehicle dealers.56489

       (c) The manufactured and mobile homes being offered for sale, 56490
lease, or rental by the dealer may be located on individual rental 56491
lots inside the operator's manufactured home park.56492

        (C) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as prohibiting 56493
the sale of a new or used manufactured or mobile home located in a 56494
manufactured home park by a licensed manufactured housing dealer.56495

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit 56496
persons licensed under this chapter from making sales calls.56497

       (E)(1) This chapter does not apply to mortgagees selling at 56498
retail only those manufactured homes or mobile homes that have 56499
come into their possession by a default in the terms of a mortgage 56500
contract.56501

       (2) When a partnership licensed under this chapter is 56502
dissolved by death, the surviving partners may operate under the 56503
manufactured housing dealer license for a period of sixty days, 56504
and the heirs or representatives of deceased persons and receivers 56505
or trustees in bankruptcy appointed by any competent authority may 56506
operate under the license of the person succeeded in possession by 56507
that heir, representative, receiver, or trustee in bankruptcy.56508

       Sec. 3733.02.        Sec. 4781.26.  (A)(1) The public health council56509
manufactured homes commission, subject to Chapter 119. of the 56510
Revised Code, shall adopt, and has the exclusive power to adopt, 56511
rules of uniform application throughout the state governing the 56512
review of plans, issuance of flood plain management permits, and 56513
issuance of licenses for manufactured home parks; the location, 56514
layout, density, construction, drainage, sanitation, safety, and 56515
operation of those parks; and notices of flood events concerning, 56516
and flood protection at, those parks. The rules pertaining to 56517
flood plain management shall be consistent with and not less 56518
stringent than the flood plain management criteria of the national 56519
flood insurance program adopted under the "National Flood 56520
Insurance Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 572, 42 U.S.C.A. 4001, as 56521
amended. The rules shall not apply to the construction, erection, 56522
or manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 of the 56523
Revised Code is applicable.56524

       (2)(B) The rules pertaining to manufactured home parks 56525
constructed after June 30, 1971, shall specify that each home must 56526
be placed on its lot to provide not less than fifteen feet between 56527
the side of one home and the side of another home, ten feet 56528
between the end of one home and the side of another home, and five 56529
feet between the ends of two homes placed end to end.56530

       (3)(C) The manufactured homes commission shall determine 56531
compliance with the installation, blocking, tiedown, foundation, 56532
and base support system standards for manufactured housing located 56533
in manufactured home parks adopted by the commission pursuant to 56534
section 4781.04 of the Revised Code. All inspections of the 56535
installation, blocking, tiedown, foundation, and base support 56536
systems of manufactured housing in a manufactured home park that 56537
the department of health or a licensorcommission conducts shall 56538
be conducted by a person who has completed an installation 56539
training course approved by the manufactured homes commission 56540
certifies pursuant to division (B)(12) of section 4781.044781.0756541
of the Revised Code.56542

       As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "manufactured 56543
housing" has the same meaning as in section 4781.01 of the Revised 56544
Code.56545

       (B) The public health council, in accordance with Chapter 56546
119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules of uniform application 56547
throughout the state establishing requirements and procedures in 56548
accordance with which the director of health may authorize 56549
licensors for the purposes of sections 3733.022 and 3733.025 of 56550
the Revised Code. The rules shall include at least provisions 56551
under which a licensor may enter into contracts for the purpose of 56552
fulfilling the licensor's responsibilities under either or both of 56553
those sections.56554

       (D) The manufactured homes commission may enter into 56555
contracts for the purpose of fulfilling the commission's annual 56556
inspection responsibilities for manufactured home parks under this 56557
chapter. Boards of health of city or general health districts 56558
shall have the right of first refusal for those contracts.56559

       Sec. 3733.03.        Sec. 4781.27.  (A)(1) On or after the first day of 56560
December, but before the first day of January of the next year, 56561
every person who intends to operate a manufactured home park shall 56562
procure a license to operate the park for the next year from the 56563
licensormanufactured homes commission. If the applicable license 56564
fee prescribed under section 3733.044781.28 of the Revised Code 56565
is not received by the licensorcommission by the close of 56566
business on the last day of December, the applicant for the 56567
license shall pay a penalty equal to twenty-five per cent of the 56568
applicable license fee. The penalty shall accompany the license 56569
fee. If the last day of December is not a business day, the 56570
penalty attaches upon the close of business on the next business 56571
day.56572

       (2) No manufactured home park shall be maintained or operated 56573
in this state without a license.56574

       (3) No person who has received a license, upon the sale or 56575
disposition of the manufactured home park, may have the license 56576
transferred to the new operator. A person shall obtain a separate 56577
license to operate each manufactured home park.56578

       (B) Before a license is initially issued and annually 56579
thereafter, or more often if necessary, the licensorcommission56580
shall cause each manufactured home park to be inspected relative 56581
tofor compliance with sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.3556582
of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections. A 56583
record shall be made of each inspection on a form prescribed by 56584
the director of healthcommission.56585

       (C) Each person applying for an initial license to operate a 56586
manufactured home park shall provide acceptable proof to the 56587
director commission that adequate fire protection will be 56588
provided and that applicable fire codes will be adhered to in the 56589
construction and operation of the park.56590

       Sec. 3733.04.        Sec. 4781.28.  The licensor of a manufactured home 56591
parkmanufactured homes commission may charge a fee for an annual 56592
license to operate such a manufactured home park. The fee for a 56593
license shall be determined in accordance with section 3709.0956594
4781.26 of the Revised Code and shall include the cost of 56595
licensing and all inspections.56596

       The fee also shall include any additional amount determined 56597
by rule of the public health council, which shall be collected and 56598
transmitted by the board of health to the director of health 56599
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code and used only for 56600
the purpose of administering and enforcing sections 3733.01 to 56601
3733.08 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those 56602
sections. The portion of any fee retained by the board of health56603
Any fees collected shall be paid into a special fundtransmitted 56604
to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 56605
manufactured homes commission regulatory fund created in section 56606
4781.54 of the Revised Code and used only for the purpose of 56607
administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.0856608
4781.35 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.56609

       Sec. 3733.05.        Sec. 4781.29.  The licensor of the health district in 56610
which a manufactured home park is or is to be located, in 56611
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code,manufactured 56612
homes commission may refuse to grant, may suspend, or may revoke 56613
any license granted to any person for failure to comply with 56614
sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code or 56615
with any rule adopted by the public health council under section 56616
3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code.56617

       Sec. 3733.06.        Sec. 4781.30.  (A) Upon a license being issued under 56618
sections 3733.034781.27 to 3733.054781.29 of the Revised Code, 56619
any operator shall have the right to rent or use each lot for the 56620
parking or placement of a manufactured home or mobile home to be 56621
used for human habitation without interruption for any period 56622
coextensive with any license or consecutive licenses issued under 56623
sections 3733.034781.27 to 3733.054781.29 of the Revised Code.56624

       (B) No operator of a manufactured home park shall sell 56625
individual lots in a park for eight years following the issuance 56626
of the initial license for the park unless, at the time of sale, 56627
the park fulfills all platting and subdivision requirements 56628
established by the political subdivision in which the park is 56629
located, or the political subdivision has entered into an 56630
agreement with the operator regarding platting and subdivision 56631
requirements and the operator has fulfilled the terms of that 56632
agreement.56633

       Sec. 3733.07.        Sec. 4781.301.  Fees authorized or charged under 56634
sections 3733.021, 3733.0224781.31, 4781.32, and 3733.044781.2856635
of the Revised Code are in lieu of all license and inspection fees 56636
on or with respect to the operation or ownership of manufactured 56637
home parks within this state, except that the licensor may charge 56638
additional reasonable fees for the collection and bacteriological 56639
examination of any necessary water samples taken from any such 56640
park.56641

       Sec. 3733.021.        Sec. 4781.31.  (A) No person shall cause development 56642
to occur within any portion of a manufactured home park until the 56643
plans for the development have been submitted to and reviewed and 56644
approved by the director of healthmanufactured homes commission. 56645
This division does not require that plans be submitted to the 56646
directorcommission for approval for the replacement of 56647
manufactured or mobile homes on previously approved lots in a 56648
manufactured home park when no development is to occur in 56649
connection with the replacement. Within thirty days after receipt 56650
of the plans, all supporting documents and materials required to 56651
complete the review, and the applicable plan review fee 56652
established under division (D) of this section, the director56653
commission shall approve or disapprove the plans.56654

       (B) Any person aggrieved by the director'scommission's56655
disapproval of a set of plans under division (A) of this section 56656
may request a hearing on the matter within thirty days after 56657
receipt of the director'scommission's notice of the disapproval. 56658
The hearing shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 56659
Revised Code. Thereafter, the disapproval may be appealed in the 56660
manner provided in section 119.12 of the Revised Code.56661

       (C) The directorcommission shall establish a system by which 56662
development occurring within a manufactured home park is inspected 56663
or verified in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of56664
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code to ensure that the 56665
development complies with the plans approved under division (A) of 56666
this section.56667

       (D) The public health councilcommission shall establish fees 56668
for reviewing plans under division (A) of this section and 56669
conducting inspections under division (C) of this section.56670

       (E) The directorcommission shall charge the appropriate fees 56671
established under division (D) of this section for reviewing plans 56672
under division (A) of this section and conducting inspections 56673
under division (C) of this section. All such plan review and 56674
inspection fees received by the directorcommission shall be 56675
transmitted to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 56676
general operationsoccupational licensing and regulatory fund 56677
created in section 3701.834743.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys so 56678
credited to the fund shall be used only for the purpose of 56679
administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.0856680
4781.35 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those 56681
sections.56682

       (F) Plan approvals issued under this section do not 56683
constitute an exemption from the land use and building 56684
requirements of the political subdivision in which the 56685
manufactured home park is or is to be located.56686

       Sec. 3733.022.        Sec. 4781.32.  (A) No person shall cause development 56687
to occur or cause the replacement of a mobile or manufactured home 56688
within any portion of a manufactured home park that is located 56689
within a one-hundred-year flood plain unless the person first 56690
obtains a permit from the director of health or a licensor 56691
authorized by the directormanufactured homes commission. If the 56692
development for which a permit is required under this division is 56693
to occur on a lot where a mobile or manufactured home is or is to 56694
be located, the owner of the home and the operator of the 56695
manufactured home park shall jointly obtain the permit. Each of 56696
the persons to whom a permit is jointly issued is responsible for 56697
compliance with the provisions of the approved permit that are 56698
applicable to that person.56699

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director 56700
commission shall disapprove an application for a permit required 56701
under this division unless the director or the licensorcommission56702
finds that the proposed development or replacement of a mobile or 56703
manufactured home complies with the rules adopted under division 56704
(A) of section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code. No permit is 56705
required under this division for the construction, erection, or 56706
manufacture of any building to which section 3781.06 of the 56707
Revised Code applies.56708

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director56709
commission may suspend or revoke a permit issued under this 56710
division for failure to comply with the rules adopted under 56711
division (A) of section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code 56712
pertaining to flood plain management or for failure to comply with 56713
the approved permit.56714

       Any person aggrieved by the disapproval, suspension, or 56715
revocation of a permit under this division by the director or by a 56716
licensor authorized by the directorcommission may request a 56717
hearing on the matter within thirty days after receipt of the 56718
notice of the disapproval, suspension, or revocation. The hearing 56719
shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 56720
Thereafter, an appeal of the disapproval, suspension, or 56721
revocation may be taken in the manner provided in section 119.12 56722
of the Revised Code.56723

       (B) The public health councilcommission shall establish fees 56724
for the issuance of permits under division (A) of this section and 56725
for necessary inspections conducted to determine compliance with 56726
those permits.56727

       (C) The director or a licensor authorized by the director56728
commission shall charge the appropriate fee established under 56729
division (B) of this section for the issuance of a permit under 56730
division (A) of this section or for conducting any necessary 56731
inspection to determine compliance with the permit. If the 56732
directorcommission issues such a permit or conducts such an 56733
inspection, the fee for the permit or inspection shall be 56734
transmitted to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 56735
general operationsoccupational licensing and regulatory fund 56736
created in section 3701.834743.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys so 56737
credited to the fund shall be used by the director only for the 56738
purpose of administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to56739
3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those 56740
sections. If the licensor is a board of health, the permit or 56741
inspection fee shall be deposited to the credit of the special 56742
fund of the health district created in section 3733.04 of the 56743
Revised Code and shall be used only for the purpose set forth in 56744
that section.56745

       Sec. 3733.024.        Sec. 4781.33. (A) When a flood event affects a 56746
manufactured home park, the operator of the manufactured home 56747
park, in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of56748
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code, shall notify the 56749
licensor having jurisdiction of the occurrence ofmanufactured 56750
homes commission and the board of health having jurisdiction where56751
the flood event occurred within forty-eight hours after the end of 56752
the flood event. The commission, after receiving notification, 56753
shall immediately notify the board of health.56754

       No person shall fail to comply with this division.56755

       (B) The licensor having jurisdiction where a flood event 56756
occurred that affected a manufactured home park shall notify the 56757
director of health of the occurrence of the flood event within 56758
twenty-four hours after being notified of the flood event under 56759
division (A) of this section. Within forty-eight hours afterAfter56760
being notified of such a flood event by a licensor, the director56761
board of health shall cause an inspection to be made of the 56762
manufactured home park named in the notice. The board of health 56763
shall issue a report of the inspection to the commission within 56764
ten days after the inspection is completed.56765

       Sec. 3733.025.        Sec. 4781.34.  (A) If a mobile or manufactured home 56766
that is located in a flood plain is substantially damaged, the 56767
owner of the home shall make all alterations, repairs, or changes 56768
to the home, and the operator of the manufactured home park shall 56769
make all alterations, repairs, or changes to the lot on which the 56770
home is located, that are necessary to ensure compliance with the 56771
flood plain management rules adopted under division (A) of section 56772
3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code. Such alterations, repairs, or 56773
changes may include, without limitation, removal of the home or 56774
other structures.56775

       No person shall fail to comply with this division.56776

       (B) No person shall cause to be performed any alteration, 56777
repair, or change required by division (A) of this section unless 56778
the person first obtains a permit from the director of health or a 56779
licensor authorized by the directormanufactured homes commission. 56780
The owner of the home and the operator of the manufactured home 56781
park shall jointly obtain the permit required by this division. 56782
Each of the persons to whom a permit is jointly issued is 56783
responsible for compliance with the provisions of the approved 56784
permit that are applicable to that person.56785

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director56786
commission shall disapprove an application for a permit required 56787
under this division unless the director or the licensorcommission56788
finds that the proposed alteration, repair, or change complies 56789
with the rules adopted under division (A) of section 3733.0256790
4781.26 of the Revised Code. No permit is required under this 56791
division for the construction, erection, or manufacture of any 56792
building to which section 3781.06 of the Revised Code applies.56793

       The director or a licensor authorized by the director56794
commission may suspend or revoke a permit issued under this 56795
division for failure to comply with the rules adopted under 56796
division (A) of section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code 56797
pertaining to flood plain management or for failure to comply with 56798
the approved permit for making alterations, repairs, or changes to 56799
the lot on which the manufactured home is located.56800

       Any person aggrieved by the disapproval, suspension, or 56801
revocation of a permit under this division by the director or by a 56802
licensor authorized by the directorcommission may request a 56803
hearing on the matter within thirty days after receipt of the 56804
notice of the disapproval, suspension, or revocation. The hearing 56805
shall be held in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 56806
Thereafter, an appeal of the disapproval, suspension, or 56807
revocation may be taken in the manner provided in section 119.12 56808
of the Revised Code and for necessary inspections conducted to 56809
determine compliance with those permits.56810

       (C) The public health councilcommission shall establish fees 56811
for the issuance of permits under division (B) of this section and 56812
for necessary inspections conducted to determine compliance with 56813
those permits for making alterations, repairs, or changes to the 56814
lot on which the manufactured home is located.56815

       (D) The director or a licensor authorized by the director56816
commission shall charge the appropriate fee established under 56817
division (C) of this section for the issuance of a permit under 56818
division (B) of this section or for conducting any necessary 56819
inspection to determine compliance with the permit. If the 56820
directorcommission issues such a permit or conducts such an 56821
inspection, the fee for the permit or inspection shall be 56822
transmitted to the treasurer of state and shall be credited to the 56823
general operationsoccupational licensing and regulatory fund 56824
created in section 3701.834743.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys so 56825
credited to the fund shall be used by the director only for the 56826
purpose of administering and enforcing sections 3733.014781.26 to56827
3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under those 56828
sections. If the licensor is a board of health, the permit or 56829
inspection fee shall be deposited to the credit of the special 56830
fund of the health district created in section 3733.04 of the 56831
Revised Code and shall be used only for the purpose set forth in 56832
that section.56833

       Sec. 3733.08.        Sec. 4781.35.  (A) No person shall violate sections 56834
3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.35 of the Revised Code or the 56835
rules adopted thereunder.56836

       (B) The prosecuting attorney of the county, the city director 56837
of law, or the attorney general, upon complaint of the licensor or 56838
the director of healthmanufactured homes commission, shall 56839
prosecute to termination or bring an action for injunction against 56840
any person violating sections 3733.014781.26 to 3733.084781.3556841
of the Revised Code or the rules adopted thereunder.56842

       Sec. 3733.09.        Sec. 4781.36.  (A) Subject to section 3733.09156843
4781.37 of the Revised Code, a park operator shall not retaliate 56844
against a resident by increasing the resident's rent, decreasing 56845
services that are due to the resident, refusing to renew or 56846
threatening to refuse to renew the rental agreement with the 56847
resident, or bringing or threatening to bring an action for 56848
possession of the resident's premises because:56849

       (1) The resident has complained to an appropriate 56850
governmental agency of a violation of a building, housing, health, 56851
or safety code that is applicable to the premises, and the 56852
violation materially affects health and safety;56853

       (2) The resident has complained to the park operator of any 56854
violation of section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code;56855

       (3) The resident joined with other residents for the purpose 56856
of negotiating or dealing collectively with the park operator on 56857
any of the terms and conditions of a rental agreement.56858

       (B) If a park operator acts in violation of division (A) of 56859
this section, the resident may:56860

       (1) Use the retaliatory action of the park operator as a 56861
defense to an action by the park operator to recover possession of 56862
the premises;56863

       (2) Recover possession of the premises;56864

       (3) Terminate the rental agreement.56865

       In addition, the resident may recover from the park operator 56866
any actual damages together with reasonable attorneys fees.56867

       (C) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits a park 56868
operator from increasing the rent to reflect the cost of 56869
improvements installed by the park operator in or about the 56870
premises or to reflect an increase in other costs of operation of 56871
the premises.56872

       Sec. 3733.091.        Sec. 4781.37.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3733.0956873
4781.36 of the Revised Code, a park operator may bring an action 56874
under Chapter 1923. of the Revised Code for possession of the 56875
premises if any of the following applies:56876

       (1) The resident is in default in the payment of rent.56877

       (2) The violation of the applicable building, housing, 56878
health, or safety code that the resident complained of was 56879
primarily caused by any act or lack of reasonable care by the 56880
resident, by any other person in the resident's household, or by 56881
anyone on the premises with the consent of the resident.56882

       (3) The resident is holding over the resident's term.56883

       (4) The resident is in violation of rules of the public 56884
health councilmanufactured homes commission adopted pursuant to 56885
section 3733.024781.26 of the Revised Code or rules of the 56886
manufactured home park adopted pursuant to the rules of the public 56887
health councilcommission.56888

       (5) The resident has been absent from the manufactured home 56889
park for a period of thirty consecutive days prior to the 56890
commencement of the action, and the resident's manufactured home, 56891
mobile home, or recreational vehicle parked in the manufactured 56892
home park has been left unoccupied for that thirty-day period, 56893
without notice to the park operator and without payment of rent 56894
due under the rental agreement.56895

       (B) The maintenance of an action by the park operator under 56896
this section does not prevent the resident from recovering damages 56897
for any violation by the park operator of the rental agreement or 56898
of section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code.56899

       Sec. 3733.10.        Sec. 4781.38.  (A) A park operator who is a party to 56900
a rental agreement shall:56901

       (1) Comply with the requirements of all applicable building, 56902
housing, health, and safety codes which materially affect health 56903
and safety, and comply with rules of the public health council56904
manufactured homes commission;56905

       (2) Make all repairs and do whatever is reasonably necessary 56906
to put and keep the premises in a fit and habitable condition;56907

       (3) Keep all common areas of the premises in a safe and 56908
sanitary condition;56909

       (4) Maintain in good and safe working order and condition all 56910
electrical and plumbing fixtures and appliances, and septic 56911
systems, sanitary and storm sewers, refuse receptacles, and well 56912
and water systems that are supplied or required to be supplied by56913
himthe park operator;56914

       (5) Not abuse the right of access conferred by division (B) 56915
of section 3733.1014781.39 of the Revised Code;56916

       (6) Except in the case of emergency or if it is impracticable 56917
to do so, give the resident reasonable notice of histhe park 56918
operator's intent to enter onto the residential premises and enter 56919
only at reasonable times. Twenty-four hours' notice shall be 56920
presumed to be a reasonable notice in the absence of evidence to 56921
the contrary.56922

       (B) If the park operator violates any provision of this 56923
section, makes a lawful entry onto the residential premises in an 56924
unreasonable manner, or makes repeated demands for entry otherwise 56925
lawful which demands have the effect of harassing the resident, 56926
the resident may recover actual damages resulting from the 56927
violation, entry, or demands and injunctive relief to prevent the 56928
recurrence of the conduct, and if hethe resident obtains a 56929
judgment, reasonable attorneys' fees, or terminate the rental 56930
agreement.56931

       Sec. 3733.101.        Sec. 4781.39.  (A) A resident who is a party to a 56932
rental agreement shall:56933

       (1) Keep that part of the premises that the resident occupies 56934
and uses safe and sanitary;56935

       (2) Dispose of all rubbish, garbage, and other waste in a 56936
clean, safe, and sanitary manner;56937

       (3) Comply with the requirements imposed on residents by all 56938
applicable state and local housing, health, and safety codes, 56939
rules of the public health councilmanufactured homes commission, 56940
and rules of the manufactured home park;56941

       (4) Personally refrain, and forbid any other person who is on 56942
the premises with the resident's permission, from intentionally or 56943
negligently destroying, defacing, damaging, or removing any 56944
fixture, appliance, or other part of the residential premises;56945

       (5) Conduct self and require other persons on the premises 56946
with the resident's consent to conduct themselves in a manner that 56947
will not disturb the resident's neighbors' peaceful enjoyment of 56948
the manufactured home park.56949

       (B) The resident shall not unreasonably withhold consent for 56950
the park operator to enter the home to inspect utility 56951
connections, or enter onto the premises in order to inspect the 56952
premises, make ordinary, necessary, or agreed repairs, 56953
decorations, alterations, or improvements, deliver parcels which 56954
are too large for the resident's mail facilities, or supply 56955
necessary or agreed services.56956

       (C) If the resident violates any provision of this section, 56957
the park operator may recover any actual damages which result from 56958
the violation and reasonable attorneys' fees. This remedy is in 56959
addition to any right of the park operator to terminate the rental 56960
agreement, to maintain an action for the possession of the 56961
premises, or injunctive relief to compel access under division (B) 56962
of this section.56963

       Sec. 3733.11.        Sec. 4781.40.  (A)(1) The park operator shall offer 56964
each home owner a written rental agreement for a manufactured home 56965
park lot for a term of one year or more that contains terms 56966
essentially the same as any alternative month-to-month rental 56967
agreement offered to current and prospective tenants and owners. 56968
The park operator shall offer the minimum one-year rental 56969
agreement to the owner prior to installation of the home in the 56970
manufactured home park or, if the home is in the manufactured home 56971
park, prior to the expiration of the owner's existing rental 56972
agreement.56973

       (2) The park operator shall deliver the offer to the owner by 56974
certified mail, return receipt requested, or in person. If the 56975
park operator delivers the offer to the owner in person, the owner 56976
shall complete a return showing receipt of the offer. If the owner 56977
does not accept the offer, the park operator is discharged from 56978
any obligation to make any further such offers. If the owner 56979
accepts the offer, the park operator shall, at the expiration of 56980
each successive rental agreement, offer the owner another rental 56981
agreement, for a term that is mutually agreed upon, and that 56982
contains terms essentially the same as the alternative 56983
month-to-month agreement. The park operator shall deliver 56984
subsequent rental offers by ordinary mail or personal delivery. If 56985
the park operator sells the manufactured home park to another 56986
manufactured home park operator, the purchaser is bound by the 56987
rental agreements entered into by the purchaser's predecessor.56988

       (3) If the park operator sells the manufactured home park for 56989
a use other than as a manufactured home park, the park operator 56990
shall give each tenant and owner a written notification by 56991
certified mail, return receipt requested, or by handing it to the 56992
tenant or owner in person. If the park operator delivers the 56993
notification in person, the recipient shall complete a return 56994
showing receipt of the notification. This notification shall 56995
contain notice of the sale of the manufactured home park, and 56996
notice of the date by which the tenant or owner shall vacate. The 56997
date by which the tenant shall vacate shall be at least one 56998
hundred twenty days after receipt of the written notification, and 56999
the date by which the owner shall vacate shall be at least one 57000
hundred eighty days after receipt of the written notification.57001

       (B) A park operator shall fully disclose in writing all fees, 57002
charges, assessments, including rental fees, and rules prior to a 57003
tenant or owner executing a rental agreement and assuming 57004
occupancy in the manufactured home park. No fees, charges, 57005
assessments, or rental fees so disclosed may be increased nor 57006
rules changed by a park operator without specifying the date of 57007
implementation of the changed fees, charges, assessments, rental 57008
fees, or rules, which date shall be not less than thirty days 57009
after written notice of the change and its effective date to all 57010
tenants or owners in the manufactured home park, and no fee, 57011
charge, assessment, or rental fee shall be increased during the 57012
term of any tenant's or owner's rental agreement. Failure on the 57013
part of the park operator to fully disclose all fees, charges, or 57014
assessments shall prevent the park operator from collecting the 57015
undisclosed fees, charges, or assessments. If a tenant or owner 57016
refuses to pay any undisclosed fees, charges, or assessments, the 57017
refusal shall not be used by the park operator as a cause for 57018
eviction in any court.57019

       (C) A park operator shall promulgate rules governing the 57020
rental or occupancy of a lot in the manufactured home park. The 57021
rules shall not be unreasonable, arbitrary, or capricious. A copy 57022
of the rules and any amendments to them shall be delivered by the 57023
park operator to the tenant or owner prior to signing the rental 57024
agreement. A copy of the rules and any amendments to them shall be 57025
posted in a conspicuous place upon the manufactured home park 57026
grounds.57027

       (D) No park operator shall require an owner to purchase from 57028
the park operator any personal property. The park operator may 57029
determine by rule the style or quality of skirting, equipment for 57030
tying down homes, manufactured or mobile home accessories, or 57031
other equipment to be purchased by an owner from a vendor of the 57032
owner's choosing, provided that the equipment is readily available 57033
to the owner. Any such equipment shall be installed in accordance 57034
with the manufactured home park rules.57035

       (E) No park operator shall charge any owner who chooses to 57036
install an electric or gas appliance in a home an additional fee 57037
solely on the basis of the installation, unless the installation 57038
is performed by the park operator at the request of the owner, nor 57039
shall the park operator restrict the installation, service, or 57040
maintenance of the appliance, restrict the ingress or egress of 57041
repairpersons to the manufactured home park for the purpose of 57042
installation, service, or maintenance of the appliance, nor 57043
restrict the making of any interior improvement in a home, if the 57044
installation or improvement is in compliance with applicable 57045
building codes and other provisions of law and if adequate utility 57046
services are available for the installation or improvement.57047

       (F) No park operator shall require a tenant to lease or an 57048
owner to purchase a manufactured or mobile home from the park 57049
operator or any specific person as a condition of or prerequisite 57050
to entering into a rental agreement.57051

       (G) No park operator shall require an owner to use the 57052
services of the park operator or any other specific person for 57053
installation of the manufactured or mobile home on the residential 57054
premises or for the performance of any service.57055

       (H) No park operator shall:57056

       (1) Deny any owner the right to sell the owner's manufactured 57057
home within the manufactured home park if the owner gives the park 57058
operator ten days' notice of the intention to sell the home;57059

       (2) Require the owner to remove the home from the 57060
manufactured home park solely on the basis of the sale of the 57061
home;57062

       (3) Unreasonably refuse to enter into a rental agreement with 57063
a purchaser of a home located within the operator's manufactured 57064
home park;57065

       (4) Charge any tenant or owner any fee, charge, or 57066
assessment, including a rental fee, that is not set forth in the 57067
rental agreement or, if the rental agreement is oral, is not set 57068
forth in a written disclosure given to the tenant or owner prior 57069
to the tenant or owner entering into a rental agreement;57070

       (5) Charge any owner any fee, charge, or assessment because 57071
of the transfer of ownership of a home or because a home is moved 57072
out of or into the manufactured home park, except a charge for the 57073
actual costs and expenses that are incurred by the park operator 57074
in moving the home out of or into the manufactured home park, or 57075
in installing the home in the manufactured home park and that have 57076
not been reimbursed by another tenant or owner.57077

       (I) If the park operator violates any provision of divisions 57078
(A) to (H) of this section, the tenant or owner may recover actual 57079
damages resulting from the violation, and, if the tenant or owner 57080
obtains a judgment, reasonable attorneys' fees, or terminate the 57081
rental agreement.57082

       (J) No rental agreement shall require a tenant or owner to 57083
sell, lease, or sublet the tenant's or owner's interest in the 57084
rental agreement or the manufactured or mobile home that is or 57085
will be located on the lot that is the subject of the rental 57086
agreement to any specific person or through any specific person as 57087
the person's agent.57088

       (K) No park operator shall enter into a rental agreement with 57089
the owner of a manufactured or mobile home for the use of 57090
residential premises, if the rental agreement requires the owner 57091
of the home, as a condition to the owner's renting, occupying, or 57092
remaining on the residential premises, to pay the park operator or 57093
any other person specified in the rental agreement a fee or any 57094
sum of money based on the sale of the home, unless the owner of 57095
the home uses the park operator or other person as the owner's 57096
agent in the sale of the home.57097

       (L) A park operator and a tenant or owner may include in a 57098
rental agreement any terms and conditions, including any term 57099
relating to rent, the duration of an agreement, and any other 57100
provisions governing the rights and obligations of the parties 57101
that are not inconsistent with or prohibited by sections 3733.09 57102
to 3733.20 of the Revised Code or any other rule of law.57103

       (M) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, 57104
the owner of a manufactured or mobile home that was previously 57105
titled by a dealer may utilize the services of a manufactured home57106
housing dealer or broker licensed under Chapter 4517. of the 57107
Revised Code or a person properly licensed under Chapter 4735.57108
4781. of the Revised Code to sell or lease the home.57109

       Sec. 3733.12.        Sec. 4781.41.  (A) If a park operator fails to 57110
fulfill any obligation imposed upon himthe park operator by 57111
section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code or by the rental 57112
agreement, or the conditions of the premises are such that the 57113
resident reasonably believes that a park operator has failed to 57114
fulfill any such obligations, or a governmental agency has found 57115
that the premises are not in compliance with building, housing, 57116
health, or safety codes which apply to any condition of the 57117
residential premises that could materially affect the health and 57118
safety of an occupant, the resident may give notice in writing to 57119
the park operator specifying the acts, omissions, or code 57120
violations that constitute noncompliance with such provisions. The 57121
notice shall be sent to the person or place where rent is normally 57122
paid.57123

       (B) If a park operator receives the notice described in 57124
division (A) of this section and after receipt of the notice fails 57125
to remedy the condition within a reasonable time, considering the 57126
severity of the condition and the time necessary to remedy such 57127
condition, or within thirty days, whichever is sooner, and if the 57128
resident is current in rent payments due under the rental 57129
agreement, the resident may do one of the following:57130

       (1) Deposit all rent that is due and thereafter becomes due 57131
the park operator with the clerk of court of the municipal or 57132
county court having jurisdiction in the territory in which the 57133
residential premises are located;57134

       (2) Apply to the court for an order directing the park 57135
operator to remedy the condition. As part thereof, the resident 57136
may deposit rent pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, and 57137
may apply for an order reducing the periodic rent due the park 57138
operator until such time as the park operator does remedy the 57139
condition, and may apply for an order to use the rent deposited to 57140
remedy the condition. In any order issued pursuant to this 57141
division, the court may require the resident to deposit rent with 57142
the clerk of court as provided in division (B)(1) of this section.57143

       Sec. 3733.121.        Sec. 4781.42.  (A) Whenever a resident deposits rent 57144
with the clerk of a court as provided in section 3733.124781.4157145
of the Revised Code, the clerk shall give written notice of this 57146
fact to the park operator and to histhe park operator's agent, if 57147
any.57148

       (B) The clerk shall place all rent deposited with himthe 57149
clerk in a separate rent escrow account in the name of the clerk 57150
in a bank or building and loan association domiciled in this 57151
state.57152

       (C) The clerk shall keep in a separate docket an account of 57153
each deposit, with the name and address of the resident, and the 57154
name and address of the park operator and of histhe park 57155
operator's agent, if any.57156

       (D) For histhe clerk's costs, the clerk may charge a fee of 57157
one per cent of the amount of the rent deposited, which shall be 57158
assessed as court costs.57159

       (E) All interest that has accrued on the rent deposited by 57160
the clerk of a county court under division (B) of this section 57161
shall be paid into the treasury of the political subdivision for 57162
which the clerk performs histhe clerk's duties. All interest that 57163
has accrued on the rent deposited by the clerk of a municipal 57164
court under division (B) of this section shall be paid into the 57165
city treasury as defined in division (B) of section 1901.03 of the 57166
Revised Code.57167

       Sec. 3733.122.        Sec. 4781.43.  (A) A park operator who receives 57168
notice that rent due himthe park operator has been deposited with 57169
a clerk of court pursuant to section 3733.124781.41 of the 57170
Revised Code, may:57171

       (1) Apply to the clerk of court for release of the rent on 57172
the ground that the condition contained in the notice given 57173
pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised 57174
Code has been remedied. The clerk shall forthwith release the 57175
rent, less costs, to the park operator if the resident gives 57176
written notice to the clerk that the condition has been remedied.57177

       (2) Apply to the court for release of the rent on the grounds 57178
that the resident did not comply with the notice requirement of 57179
division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, or 57180
that the resident was not current in rent payments due under the 57181
rental agreement at the time the resident initiated rent deposits 57182
with the clerk of courts under division (B)(1) of section 3733.1257183
4781.41 of the Revised Code;57184

       (3) Apply to the court for release of the rent on the grounds 57185
that there was no violation of any obligation imposed upon the 57186
park operator by section 3733.104781.38 of the Revised Code or by 57187
the rental agreement, or by any building, housing, health, or 57188
safety code, or that the condition contained in the notice given 57189
pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised 57190
Code has been remedied.57191

       (B) The resident shall be named as a party to any action 57192
filed by the park operator under this section, and shall have the 57193
right to file an answer and counterclaim, as in other civil cases. 57194
A trial shall be held within sixty days of the date of filing of 57195
the park operator's complaint, unless for good cause shown the 57196
court grants a continuance.57197

       (C) If the court finds that there was no violation of any 57198
obligation imposed upon the park operator by section 3733.1057199
4781.38 of the Revised Code or by the rental agreement, or by any 57200
building, housing, health, or safety code, or that the condition 57201
contained in the notice given pursuant to division (A) of section 57202
3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code has been remedied, or that the 57203
resident did not comply with the notice requirement of division 57204
(A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, or that the 57205
resident was not current in rent payments at the time the resident 57206
initiated rent deposits with the clerk of court under division 57207
(B)(1) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, the court 57208
shall order the release to the park operator of rent on deposit 57209
with the clerk, less costs.57210

       (D) If the court finds that the condition contained in the 57211
notice given pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.4157212
of the Revised Code was the result of an act or omission of the 57213
resident, or that the resident intentionally acted in bad faith in 57214
proceeding under section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised Code, the 57215
resident shall be liable for damages caused to the park operator, 57216
and for costs, together with reasonable attorneys' fees if the 57217
resident intentionally acted in bad faith.57218

       Sec. 3733.123.        Sec. 4781.44.  (A) If a park operator brings an 57219
action for the release of rent deposited with a clerk of court, 57220
the court may, during the pendency of the action, upon application 57221
of the park operator, release part of the rent on deposit for 57222
payment of the periodic interest on a mortgage on the premises, 57223
the periodic principal payments on a mortgage on the premises, the 57224
insurance premiums for the premises, real estate taxes on the 57225
premises, utility services, repairs, and other customary and usual 57226
costs of operating the premises.57227

       (B) In determining whether to release rent for the payments 57228
described in division (A) of this section, the court shall 57229
consider the amount of rent the park operator receives from other 57230
lots, the cost of operating these lots, and the costs which may be 57231
required to remedy the condition contained in the notice given 57232
pursuant to division (A) of section 3733.124781.41 of the Revised 57233
Code.57234

       Sec. 3733.13.        Sec. 4781.45.  If a resident commits a material 57235
violation of the rules of the manufactured home park, of the 57236
public health councilmanufactured homes commission, or of 57237
applicable state and local health and safety codes, the park 57238
operator may deliver a written notification of the violation to 57239
the resident. The notification shall contain all of the following:57240

       (A) A description of the violation;57241

       (B) A statement that the rental agreement will terminate upon 57242
a date specified in the written notice not less than thirty days 57243
after receipt of the notice unless the resident remedies the 57244
violation;57245

       (C) A statement that the violation was material and that if a 57246
second material violation of any park or public health council57247
commission rule, or any health and safety code, occurs within six 57248
months after the date of this notice, the rental agreement will 57249
terminate immediately;57250

       (D) A statement that a defense available to termination of 57251
the rental agreement for two material violations of park or public 57252
health councilcommission rules, or of health and safety codes, is 57253
that the park rule is unreasonable, or that the park or public 57254
health councilcommission rule, or health or safety code, is not 57255
being enforced against other manufactured home park residents, or 57256
that the two violations were not willful and not committed in bad 57257
faith.57258

       If the resident remedies the condition described in the 57259
notice, whether by repair, the payment of damages, or otherwise, 57260
the rental agreement shall not terminate. The park operator may 57261
terminate the rental agreement immediately if the resident commits 57262
a second material violation of the park or public health council57263
commission rules, or of applicable state and local health and 57264
safety codes, subject to the defense that the park rule is 57265
unreasonable, that the park or public health councilcommission57266
rule, or health or safety code, is not being enforced against 57267
other manufactured home park residents, or that the two violations 57268
were not willful and not committed in bad faith.57269

       Sec. 3733.14.        Sec. 4781.46.  In any action under sections 3733.0957270
4781.36 to 3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code, any party may 57271
recover damages for the breach of contract or the breach of any 57272
duty that is imposed by law.57273

       Sec. 3733.15.        Sec. 4781.47.  (A) No provision of sections 3733.0957274
4781.36 to 3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code may be modified or 57275
waived by any oral or written agreement except as provided in 57276
division (F) of this section.57277

       (B) No warrant of attorney to confess judgment shall be 57278
recognized in any rental agreement or in any other agreement 57279
between a park operator and resident for the recovery of rent or 57280
damages to the residential premises.57281

       (C) No agreement to pay the park operator's or resident's 57282
attorney fees shall be recognized in any rental agreement for 57283
residential premises or in any other agreement between a park 57284
operator and resident.57285

       (D) No agreement by a resident to the exculpation or 57286
limitation of any liability of the park operator arising under law 57287
or to indemnify the park operator for that liability or its 57288
related costs shall be recognized in any rental agreement or in 57289
any other agreement between a park operator and resident.57290

       (E) A rental agreement, or the assignment, conveyance, trust 57291
deed, or security instrument of the park operator's interest in 57292
the rental agreement may not permit the receipt of rent free of 57293
the obligation to comply with section 3733.104781.38 of the 57294
Revised Code.57295

       (F) The park operator may agree to assume responsibility for 57296
fulfilling any duty or obligation imposed on a resident by section 57297
3733.1014781.39 of the Revised Code.57298

       Sec. 3733.16.        Sec. 4781.48.  (A) If the court as a matter of law 57299
finds a rental agreement, or any clause of it, to have been 57300
unconscionable at the time it was made, it may refuse to enforce 57301
the rental agreement or it may enforce the remainder of the rental 57302
agreement without the unconscionable clause, or it may so limit 57303
the application of any unconscionable clause as to avoid any 57304
unconscionable result.57305

       (B) When it is claimed or appears to the court that the 57306
rental agreement, or any clause of it, may be unconscionable, the 57307
parties shall be afforded a reasonable opportunity to present 57308
evidence as to its setting, purpose, and effect to aid the court 57309
in making the determination.57310

       Sec. 3733.17.        Sec. 4781.49.  (A) No park operator of residential 57311
premises shall initiate any act, including termination of 57312
utilities or services, exclusion from the premises, or threat of 57313
any unlawful act, against a resident, or a resident whose right to 57314
possession has terminated, for the purpose of recovering 57315
possession of residential premises, other than as provided in 57316
Chapters 1923., 3733.4781., and 5303. of the Revised Code.57317

       (B) No park operator of residential premises shall seize the 57318
furnishings or possessions of a resident, or of a resident whose 57319
right to possession was terminated, for the purpose of recovering 57320
rent payments, other than in accordance with an order issued by a 57321
court of competent jurisdiction.57322

       (C) A park operator who violates this section is liable in a 57323
civil action for all damages caused to a resident, or to a 57324
resident whose right to possession has terminated, together with 57325
reasonable attorneys' fees.57326

       Sec. 3733.18.        Sec. 4781.50.  (A) Any security deposit in excess of 57327
fifty dollars or one month's periodic rent, whichever is greater, 57328
shall bear interest on the excess at the rate of five per cent per 57329
annum if the resident remains in possession of the premises for 57330
six months or more, and shall be computed and paid annually by the 57331
park operator to the resident.57332

       (B) Upon termination of the rental agreement any property or 57333
money held by the park operator as a security deposit may be 57334
applied to the payment of past due rent and to the payment of the 57335
amount of damages that the park operator has suffered by reason of 57336
the resident's noncompliance with section 3733.1014781.39 of the 57337
Revised Code or the rental agreement. Any deduction from the 57338
security deposit shall be itemized and identified by the park 57339
operator in a written notice delivered to the resident together 57340
with the amount due, within thirty days after termination of the 57341
rental agreement and delivery of possession. The resident shall 57342
provide the park operator in writing with a forwarding address or 57343
new address to which the written notice and amount due from the 57344
park operator may be sent. If the resident fails to provide the 57345
park operator with the forwarding or new address as required, the 57346
resident shall not be entitled to damages or attorneys' fees under 57347
division (C) of this section.57348

       (C) If the park operator fails to comply with division (B) of 57349
this section, the resident may recover the property and money due 57350
himthe resident, together with damages in an amount equal to the 57351
amount wrongfully withheld, and reasonable attorneys' fees.57352

       Sec. 3733.19.        Sec. 4781.51.  (A) Every written rental agreement for 57353
residential premises shall contain the name and address of the 57354
owner of the residential premises and the name and address of the 57355
owner's agent, if any. If the owner or the owner's agent is a 57356
corporation, partnership, limited partnership, association, trust, 57357
or other entity, the address shall be the principal place of 57358
business in the county in which the residential premises are 57359
situated or if there is no place of business in such county then 57360
its principal place of business in this state, and shall include 57361
the name of the person in charge thereof.57362

       (B) If the rental agreement is oral, the park operator, at 57363
the commencement of the term of occupancy, shall deliver to the 57364
resident a written notice containing the information required in 57365
division (A) of this section.57366

       (C) If the park operator fails to provide the notice of the 57367
name and address of the owner and owner's agent, if any, as 57368
required under division (A) or (B) of this section, the notices to 57369
the park operator required under division (A) of sections 3733.1257370
4781.41 and 3733.1214781.42 of the Revised Code are waived by the 57371
park operator and the operator's agent.57372

       (D) Every written rental agreement for residential premises 57373
shall contain the following notice in ten-point boldface type:57374

       "YOUR RIGHTS AS A RESIDENT AND YOUR MANUFACTURED HOME PARK 57375
OPERATOR'S RIGHTS ARE PROTECTED BY SECTIONS 3733.094781.36 TO 57376
3733.204781.52 OF THE REVISED CODE, WHICH REGULATE RENTAL 57377
AGREEMENTS IN MANUFACTURED HOME PARKS."57378

       If the rental agreement is oral, the park operator, at the 57379
commencement of the term of occupancy, shall deliver the notice to 57380
the resident in writing.57381

       Sec. 3733.20.        Sec. 4781.52.  No municipal corporation may adopt or 57382
continue in existence any ordinance and no township may adopt or 57383
continue in existence any resolution that is in conflict with 57384
sections 3733.094781.36 to 3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code, 57385
or that regulates those rights and obligations of parties to a 57386
rental agreement that are regulated by sections 3733.094781.36 to 57387
3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code. Sections 3733.094781.36 to 57388
3733.204781.52 of the Revised Code do not preempt any housing, 57389
building, health, or safety codes of any municipal corporation or 57390
township.57391

       Sec. 4781.54.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 57392
the manufactured homes commission regulatory fund. The fund shall 57393
consist of fees collected under section 4781.121 of the Revised 57394
Code and fees paid under section 4781.28 of the Revised Code and 57395
shall be used for the purposes described in those sections.57396

       Sec. 4781.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (A) of section 57397
4781.16 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor on a 57398
first offense and shall be subject to a mandatory fine of one 57399
hundred dollars. On a second offense, the person is guilty of a 57400
misdemeanor of the first degree and shall be subject to a 57401
mandatory fine of one thousand dollars.57402

       (B) Whoever violates section 4781.20 of the Revised Code is 57403
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.57404

       (C) Whoever violates any of the following is guilty of a 57405
misdemeanor of the fourth degree: 57406

       (1) Division (B) or (C) of section 4781.16 of the Revised 57407
Code;57408

       (2) Section 4781.22 of the Revised Code;57409

       (3) Section 4781.23 of the Revised Code;57410

       (4) Division (A) of section 4781.24 of the Revised Code;57411

       (5) Section 4781.25 of the Revised Code;57412

       (6) Division (A) of section 4781.35 of the Revised Code.57413

       Sec. 4905.01.  As used in this chapter:57414

       (A) "Railroad" has the same meaning as in section 4907.02 of 57415
the Revised Code.57416

       (B) "Motor transportation companycarrier" has the same 57417
meaning as in sections 4905.03 and 4921.02section 4923.01 of the 57418
Revised Code.57419

       (C) "TrailerMotor vehicle" and "public highway" have the 57420
same meanings as in section 4921.024921.01 of the Revised Code.57421

       (D) "Private motor carrier" and "motor vehicle" have the same 57422
meanings as in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code.57423

       (E) "Ohio coal research and development costs" means all 57424
reasonable costs associated with a facility or project undertaken 57425
by a public utility for which a recommendation to allow the 57426
recovery of costs associated therewith has been made under 57427
division (B)(7) of section 1551.33 of the Revised Code, including, 57428
but not limited to, capital costs, such as costs of debt and 57429
equity; construction and operation costs; termination and 57430
retirement costs; costs of feasibility and marketing studies 57431
associated with the project; and the acquisition and delivery 57432
costs of Ohio coal used in the project, less any expenditures of 57433
grant moneys.57434

       Sec. 4905.02. (A) As used in this chapter, "public utility" 57435
includes every corporation, company, copartnership, person, or 57436
association, the lessees, trustees, or receivers of the foregoing, 57437
defined in section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, including any 57438
public utility that operates its utility not for profit, except 57439
the following:57440

       (A)(1) An electric light company that operates its utility 57441
not for profit;57442

       (B)(2) A public utility, other than a telephone company, that 57443
is owned and operated exclusively by and solely for the utility's 57444
customers, including any consumer or group of consumers 57445
purchasing, delivering, storing, or transporting, or seeking to 57446
purchase, deliver, store, or transport, natural gas exclusively by 57447
and solely for the consumer's or consumers' own intended use as 57448
the end user or end users and not for profit;57449

       (C)(3) A public utility that is owned or operated by any 57450
municipal corporation;57451

       (D)(4) A railroad as defined in sections 4907.02 and 4907.03 57452
of the Revised Code;57453

       (E)(5) Any provider, including a telephone company, with 57454
respect to its provision of any of the following:57455

       (1)(a) Advanced services as defined in 47 C.F.R. 51.5;57456

       (2)(b) Broadband service, however defined or classified by 57457
the federal communications commission;57458

       (3)(c) Information service as defined in the 57459
"Telecommunications Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 59, 47 U.S.C. 153(20);57460

       (4)(d) Subject to division (A) of section 4927.03 of the 57461
Revised Code, internet protocol-enabled services as defined in 57462
section 4927.01 of the Revised Code;57463

        (5)(e) Subject to division (A) of section 4927.03 of the 57464
Revised Code, any telecommunications service as defined in section 57465
4927.01 of the Revised Code to which both of the following apply:57466

       (a)(i) The service was not commercially available on 57467
September 13, 2010, the effective date of the amendment of this 57468
section by S.B. 162 of the 128th general assembly.57469

       (b)(ii) The service employs technology that became available 57470
for commercial use only after September 13, 2010, the effective 57471
date of the amendment of this section by S.B. 162 of the 128th 57472
general assembly.57473

       (B)(1) "Public utility" includes a for-hire motor carrier 57474
even if the carrier is operated in connection with an entity 57475
described in division (A)(1), (2), (4), or (5) of this section.57476

       (2) Division (A) of this section shall not be construed to 57477
relieve a private motor carrier, operated in connection with an 57478
entity described in division (A)(1), (2), (4), or (5) of this 57479
section, from compliance with any of the following:57480

       (a) Chapter 4923. of the Revised Code;57481

       (b) Hazardous-material regulation under section 4921.15 of 57482
the Revised Code and division (H) of section 4921.19 of the 57483
Revised Code, or rules adopted thereunder;57484

       (c) Rules governing unified carrier registration adopted 57485
under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code.57486

       Sec. 4905.03.  As used in this chapter:57487

       (A) Any, any person, firm, copartnership, voluntary 57488
association, joint-stock association, company, or corporation, 57489
wherever organized or incorporated, is:57490

       (1)(A) A telephone company, when engaged in the business of 57491
transmitting telephonic messages to, from, through, or in this 57492
state;57493

       (2)(B) A for-hire motor transportation companycarrier, when 57494
engaged in the business of carrying and transporting persons or 57495
property or the business of providing or furnishing such 57496
transportation service, for hire, in or by motor-propelled 57497
vehicles of any kind, including trailers, for the public in 57498
general, over any public street, road, or highway in this state57499
vehicle for compensation, except as providedwhen engaged in any 57500
of the operations in intrastate commerce described in divisions 57501
(B)(1) to (9) of section 4921.024921.01 of the Revised Code, but 57502
including the carrier's agents, officers, and representatives, as 57503
well as employees responsible for hiring, supervising, training, 57504
assigning, or dispatching drivers and employees concerned with the 57505
installation, inspection, and maintenance of motor-vehicle 57506
equipment and accessories;57507

       (3)(C) An electric light company, when engaged in the 57508
business of supplying electricity for light, heat, or power 57509
purposes to consumers within this state, including supplying 57510
electric transmission service for electricity delivered to 57511
consumers in this state, but excluding a regional transmission 57512
organization approved by the federal energy regulatory commission;57513

       (4)(D) A gas company, when engaged in the business of 57514
supplying artificial gas for lighting, power, or heating purposes 57515
to consumers within this state or when engaged in the business of 57516
supplying artificial gas to gas companies or to natural gas 57517
companies within this state, but a producer engaged in supplying 57518
to one or more gas or natural gas companies, only such artificial 57519
gas as is manufactured by that producer as a by-product of some 57520
other process in which the producer is primarily engaged within 57521
this state is not thereby a gas company. All rates, rentals, 57522
tolls, schedules, charges of any kind, or agreements between any 57523
gas company and any other gas company or any natural gas company 57524
providing for the supplying of artificial gas and for compensation 57525
for the same are subject to the jurisdiction of the public 57526
utilities commission.57527

       (5)(E) A natural gas company, when engaged in the business of 57528
supplying natural gas for lighting, power, or heating purposes to 57529
consumers within this state. Notwithstanding the above, neither 57530
the delivery nor sale of Ohio-produced natural gas by a producer 57531
or gatherer under a public utilities commission-ordered exemption, 57532
adopted before, as to producers, or after, as to producers or 57533
gatherers, January 1, 1996, or the delivery or sale of 57534
Ohio-produced natural gas by a producer or gatherer of 57535
Ohio-produced natural gas, either to a lessor under an oil and gas 57536
lease of the land on which the producer's drilling unit is 57537
located, or the grantor incident to a right-of-way or easement to 57538
the producer or gatherer, shall cause the producer or gatherer to 57539
be a natural gas company for the purposes of this section.57540

       All rates, rentals, tolls, schedules, charges of any kind, or 57541
agreements between a natural gas company and other natural gas 57542
companies or gas companies providing for the supply of natural gas 57543
and for compensation for the same are subject to the jurisdiction 57544
of the public utilities commission. The commission, upon 57545
application made to it, may relieve any producer or gatherer of 57546
natural gas, defined in this section as a gas company or a natural 57547
gas company, of compliance with the obligations imposed by this 57548
chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. 57549
of the Revised Code, so long as the producer or gatherer is not 57550
affiliated with or under the control of a gas company or a natural 57551
gas company engaged in the transportation or distribution of 57552
natural gas, or so long as the producer or gatherer does not 57553
engage in the distribution of natural gas to consumers.57554

       Nothing in division (A)(5)(E) of this section limits the 57555
authority of the commission to enforce sections 4905.90 to 4905.96 57556
of the Revised Code.57557

       (6)(F) A pipe-line company, when engaged in the business of 57558
transporting natural gas, oil, or coal or its derivatives through 57559
pipes or tubing, either wholly or partly within this state;57560

       (7)(G) A water-works company, when engaged in the business of 57561
supplying water through pipes or tubing, or in a similar manner, 57562
to consumers within this state;57563

       (8)(H) A heating or cooling company, when engaged in the 57564
business of supplying water, steam, or air through pipes or tubing 57565
to consumers within this state for heating or cooling purposes;57566

       (9)(I) A messenger company, when engaged in the business of 57567
supplying messengers for any purpose;57568

       (10)(J) A street railway company, when engaged in the 57569
business of operating as a common carrier, a railway, wholly or 57570
partly within this state, with one or more tracks upon, along, 57571
above, or below any public road, street, alleyway, or ground, 57572
within any municipal corporation, operated by any motive power 57573
other than steam and not a part of an interurban railroad, whether 57574
the railway is termed street, inclined-plane, elevated, or 57575
underground railway;57576

       (11)(K) A suburban railroad company, when engaged in the 57577
business of operating as a common carrier, whether wholly or 57578
partially within this state, a part of a street railway 57579
constructed or extended beyond the limits of a municipal 57580
corporation, and not a part of an interurban railroad;57581

       (12)(L) An interurban railroad company, when engaged in the 57582
business of operating a railroad, wholly or partially within this 57583
state, with one or more tracks from one municipal corporation or 57584
point in this state to another municipal corporation or point in 57585
this state, whether constructed upon the public highways or upon 57586
private rights-of-way, outside of municipal corporations, using 57587
electricity or other motive power than steam power for the 57588
transportation of passengers, packages, express matter, United 57589
States mail, baggage, and freight. Such an interurban railroad 57590
company is included in the term "railroad" as used in section 57591
4907.02 of the Revised Code.57592

       (13)(M) A sewage disposal system company, when engaged in the 57593
business of sewage disposal services through pipes or tubing, and 57594
treatment works, or in a similar manner, within this state.57595

       (B) "Motor-propelled vehicle" means any automobile, 57596
automobile truck, motor bus, or any other self-propelled vehicle 57597
not operated or driven upon fixed rails or tracks.57598

       Sec. 4905.05.  The jurisdiction, supervision, powers, and 57599
duties of the public utilities commission extend to every public 57600
utility and railroad, the plant or property of which lies wholly 57601
within this state and when the property of a public utility or 57602
railroad lies partly within and partly without this state to that 57603
part of such plant or property which lies within this state; to 57604
the persons or companies owning, leasing, or operating such public 57605
utilities and railroads; to the records and accounts of the 57606
business thereof done within this state; and to the records and 57607
accounts of any companies which are part of an electric utility 57608
holding company system exempt under section 3(a)(1) or (2) of the 57609
"Public Utility Holding Company Act of 1935," 49 Stat. 803, 15 57610
U.S.C. 79c, and the rules and regulations promulgated thereunder, 57611
insofar as such records and accounts may in any way affect or 57612
relate to the costs associated with the provision of electric 57613
utility service by any public utility operating in this state and 57614
part of such holding company system.57615

       Nothing in this section, or section 4905.06 or 4905.46 of the 57616
Revised Code pertaining to regulation of holding companies, grants 57617
the public utilities commission authority to regulate a holding 57618
company or its subsidiaries which are organized under the laws of 57619
another state, render no public utility service in the state of 57620
Ohio, and are regulated as a public utility by the public 57621
utilities commission of another state or primarily by a federal 57622
regulatory commission, nor do these grants of authority apply to 57623
public utilities that are excepted from the definition of "public 57624
utility" under divisions (A)(1) to (C)(3) of section 4905.02 of 57625
the Revised Code.57626

       Sec. 4905.06.  The public utilities commission has general 57627
supervision over all public utilities within its jurisdiction as 57628
defined in section 4905.05 of the Revised Code, and may examine 57629
such public utilities and keep informed as to their general 57630
condition, capitalization, and franchises, and as to the manner in 57631
which their properties are leased, operated, managed, and 57632
conducted with respect to the adequacy or accommodation afforded 57633
by their service, the safety and security of the public and their 57634
employees, and their compliance with all laws, orders of the 57635
commission, franchises, and charter requirements. The commission 57636
has general supervision over all other companies referred to in 57637
section 4905.05 of the Revised Code to the extent of its 57638
jurisdiction as defined in that section, and may examine such 57639
companies and keep informed as to their general condition and 57640
capitalization, and as to the manner in which their properties are 57641
leased, operated, managed, and conducted with respect to the 57642
adequacy or accommodation afforded by their service, and their 57643
compliance with all laws and orders of the commission, insofar as 57644
any of such matters may relate to the costs associated with the 57645
provision of electric utility service by public utilities in this 57646
state which are affiliated or associated with such companies. The 57647
commission, through the public utilities commissioners or 57648
inspectors or employees of the commission authorized by it, may 57649
enter in or upon, for purposes of inspection, any property, 57650
equipment, building, plant, factory, office, apparatus, machinery, 57651
device, and lines of any public utility. The power to inspect 57652
includes the power to prescribe any rule or order that the 57653
commission finds necessary for protection of the public safety. In 57654
order to assist the commission in the performance of its duties 57655
under this chapter, authorized employees of the motor carrier 57656
enforcement unit, created under section 5503.34 of the Revised 57657
Code in the division of state highway patrol, of the department of 57658
public safety may enter in or upon, for inspection purposes, any 57659
motor vehicle of any motor transportation company or private motor 57660
carrier as defined in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code.57661

       In order to inspect motor vehicles owned or operated by a 57662
motor transportation companycarrier engaged in the transportation 57663
of persons, authorized employees of the motor carrier enforcement 57664
unit, division of state highway patrol, of the department of 57665
public safety may enter in or upon any property of any motor 57666
transportation company, as defined in section 4921.02 of the 57667
Revised Code,carrier engaged in the intrastate transportation of 57668
persons.57669

       Sec. 4905.402.  (A) As used in this section:57670

       (1) "Control" means the possession of the power to direct the 57671
management and policies of a domestic telephone company or a 57672
holding company of a domestic telephone company, or the management 57673
and policies of a domestic electric utility or a holding company 57674
of a domestic electric utility, through the ownership of voting 57675
securities, by contract, or otherwise, but does not include the 57676
power that results from holding an official position or the 57677
possession of corporate office with the domestic company or 57678
utility or the holding company. Control is presumed to exist if 57679
any person, directly or indirectly, owns, controls, holds the 57680
power to vote, or holds with the power to vote proxies that 57681
constitute, twenty per cent or more of the total voting power of 57682
the domestic company or utility or the holding company.57683

       (2) "Electric utility" has the same meaning as in section 57684
4928.07 of the Revised Code.57685

       (3) "Holding company" excludes any securities broker 57686
performing the usual and customary broker's function.57687

       (4) "Telephone company" means any company described in 57688
division (A)(1) of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code that is a 57689
public utility under section 4905.02 of the Revised Code and 57690
provides basic local exchange service, as defined in section 57691
4927.01 of the Revised Code.57692

       (B) No person shall acquire control, directly or indirectly, 57693
of a domestic telephone company or a holding company controlling a 57694
domestic telephone company or of a domestic electric utility or a 57695
holding company controlling a domestic electric utility unless 57696
that person obtains the prior approval of the public utilities 57697
commission under this section. To obtain approval the person shall 57698
file an application with the commission demonstrating that the 57699
acquisition will promote public convenience and result in the 57700
provision of adequate service for a reasonable rate, rental, toll, 57701
or charge. The application shall contain such information as the 57702
commission may require. If the commission considers a hearing 57703
necessary, it may fix a time and place for hearing. If, after 57704
review of the application and after any necessary hearing, the 57705
commission is satisfied that approval of the application will 57706
promote public convenience and result in the provision of adequate 57707
service for a reasonable rate, rental, toll, or charge, the 57708
commission shall approve the application and make such order as it 57709
considers proper. If the commission fails to issue an order within 57710
thirty days of the filing of the application, or within twenty 57711
days of the conclusion of a hearing, if one is held, the 57712
application shall be deemed approved by operation of law.57713

       (C) No domestic telephone company shall merge with another 57714
domestic telephone company unless the merging companies obtain the 57715
prior approval of the commission. An application seeking such 57716
approval shall be filed, processed, and decided in the manner 57717
provided for an application under division (B) of this section.57718

       (D) The commission shall adopt such rules as it finds 57719
necessary to carry out the provisions of this section.57720

       (E) If it appears to the commission or to any person that may 57721
be adversely affected that any person is engaged in or about to 57722
engage in any acts or practices that would violate division (B) or 57723
(C) of this section or any provision of a rule adopted under this 57724
section, the attorney general, when directed to do so by the 57725
commission, or the person claiming to be adversely affected may 57726
bring an action in any court of common pleas that has jurisdiction 57727
and venue to enjoin such acts or practices and enforce compliance. 57728
Upon a proper showing, the court shall grant, without bond, a 57729
restraining order or temporary or permanent injunction.57730

       (F) The courts of this state have jurisdiction over every 57731
person not a resident of or domiciled or authorized to do business 57732
in this state that files, or is prohibited from acting without 57733
first filing, an application under division (B) or (C) of this 57734
section, and over all actions involving such person arising out of 57735
violations of any provision of this section or of a rule adopted 57736
under this section. The secretary of state shall be the agent for 57737
service of process for any such person in any action, suit, or 57738
proceeding arising out of such violations. Copies of all such 57739
lawful process shall be served upon the secretary of state and 57740
transmitted by certified mail, with return receipt requested, by 57741
the secretary of state to such person at the person's last known 57742
address.57743

       Sec. 4905.54.  Every public utility or railroad and every 57744
officer of a public utility or railroad shall comply with every 57745
order, direction, and requirement of the public utilities 57746
commission made under authority of this chapter and Chapters 57747
4901., 4903., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised 57748
Code, so long as they remain in force. Except as otherwise 57749
specifically provided in sections 4905.83,section 4905.95, 57750
4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the Revised Code, the public 57751
utilities commission may assess a forfeiture of not more than ten 57752
thousand dollars for each violation or failure against a public 57753
utility or railroad that violates a provision of those chapters or 57754
that after due notice fails to comply with an order, direction, or 57755
requirement of the commission that was officially promulgated. 57756
Each day's continuance of the violation or failure is a separate 57757
offense. All forfeitures collected under this section shall be 57758
credited to the general revenue fund.57759

       Sec. 4905.57.  Except as otherwise specifically provided in 57760
sections 4905.83, 4905.96, 4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the 57761
Revised Code, actions to recover forfeitures provided for in this 57762
chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. 57763
of the Revised Code shall be prosecuted in the name of the state 57764
and may be brought in the court of common pleas of any county in 57765
which the public utility or, railroad, or motor carrier is 57766
located. Such actions shall be commenced and prosecuted by the 57767
attorney general when hethe attorney general is directed to do so 57768
by the public utilities commission. Moneys recovered by such 57769
actions shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of 57770
the general revenue fund.57771

       Sec. 4905.58.  All prosecutions against a railroad or an 57772
officer, agent, or employee thereof, under Chapters 4901., 4903., 57773
4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 4923. and other sections of 57774
the Revised Code for penalties involving imprisonment shall be by 57775
indictment.57776

       Sec. 4905.80.  The policy of this state is to:57777

       (A) Regulate transportation by motor carriers so as to 57778
recognize and preserve the inherent advantages of, and foster safe 57779
conditions in, that transportation and among those carriers in the 57780
public interest;57781

       (B) Promote safe and secure service by motor carriers, 57782
without unjust discriminations, undue preferences or advantages, 57783
and unfair or destructive competitive practices;57784

       (C) Improve the relations between, and coordinate 57785
transportation by and regulation of, motor carriers and other 57786
carriers;57787

       (D) Develop and preserve a highway transportation system 57788
properly adapted to the needs of commerce and the state;57789

       (E) Cooperate with the federal government and the several 57790
states, and the authorized officials thereof, and with any 57791
organization of motor carriers in the administration and 57792
enforcement of this chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 57793
4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code.57794

       Sec. 4905.81.  The public utilities commission shall:57795

       (A) Supervise and regulate each motor carrier;57796

       (B) Regulate the safety of operation of each motor carrier;57797

       (C) Adopt reasonable safety rules applicable to the highway 57798
transportation of persons or property in interstate and intrastate 57799
commerce by motor carriers;57800

       (D) Adopt safety rules applicable to the transportation and 57801
offering for transportation of hazardous materials in interstate 57802
and intrastate commerce by motor carriers. The rules shall not be 57803
incompatible with the requirements of the United States department 57804
of transportation.57805

       (E) Require the filing of reports and other data by motor 57806
carriers;57807

       (F) Adopt reasonable rules for the administration and 57808
enforcement of this chapter and Chapters 4901., 4903., 4907., 57809
4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code applying to each motor 57810
carrier in this state;57811

       (G) Supervise and regulate motor carriers in all other 57812
matters affecting the relationship between those carriers and the 57813
public to the exclusion of all local authorities, except as 57814
provided in this section. The commission, in the exercise of the 57815
jurisdiction conferred upon it by this chapter and Chapters 4901., 57816
4903., 4907., 4909., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code, may 57817
adopt rules affecting motor carriers, notwithstanding the 57818
provisions of any ordinance, resolution, license, or permit 57819
enacted, adopted, or granted by any township, municipal 57820
corporation, municipal corporation and county, or county. In case 57821
of conflict between any such ordinance, resolution, license, or 57822
permit, the order or rule of the commission shall prevail. Local 57823
subdivisions may adopt reasonable local police rules within their 57824
respective boundaries not inconsistent with those chapters and 57825
rules adopted under them.57826

       The commission has jurisdiction to receive, hear, and 57827
determine as a question of fact, upon complaint of any party or 57828
upon its own motion, and upon not less than fifteen days' notice 57829
of the time and place of the hearing and the matter to be heard, 57830
whether any corporation, company, association, joint-stock 57831
association, person, firm, or copartnership, or their lessees, 57832
legal or personal representatives, trustees, or receivers or 57833
trustees appointed by any court, is engaged as a motor carrier. 57834
The finding of the commission on such a question is a final order 57835
that may be reviewed as provided in section 4923.15 of the Revised 57836
Code.57837

       Sec. 4905.84. (A) As used in this section:57838

        (1) "Telecommunications relay service" means intrastate 57839
transmission services that provide the ability for an individual 57840
who has a hearing or speech impairment to engage in a 57841
communication by wire or radio with a hearing individual in a 57842
manner that is functionally equivalent to the ability of an 57843
individual who does not have a hearing or speech impairment to 57844
communicate using voice communication services by wire or radio. 57845
"Telecommunications relay service" includes services that enable 57846
two-way communication between an individual who uses a 57847
telecommunications device for the deaf or other nonvoice terminal 57848
device and an individual who does not use such a device.57849

        (2) "TRS provider" means an entity selected by the public 57850
utilities commission as the provider of telecommunications relay 57851
service for this state as part of the commission's intrastate 57852
telecommunications relay service program certified pursuant to 57853
federal law.57854

        (B) For the sole purpose of funding telecommunications relay 57855
service, the commission shall, not earlier than January 1, 2009, 57856
impose on and collect from each service provider that is required 57857
under federal law to provide its customers access to 57858
telecommunications relay service an annual assessment to pay for 57859
costs incurred by the TRS provider for providing such service in 57860
Ohio. The commission shall determine the appropriate service 57861
providers to be assessed the telecommunications relay service 57862
costs, including telephone companies as defined in division (A)(1)57863
of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, commercial mobile radio 57864
service providers, and providers of advanced services or internet 57865
protocol-enabled services that are competitive with or 57866
functionally equivalent to basic local exchange service as defined 57867
in section 4927.01 of the Revised Code.57868

        (C) The assessment shall be allocated proportionately among 57869
the appropriate service providers using a competitively neutral 57870
formula established by the commission based on the number of 57871
retail intrastate customer access lines or their equivalent. The 57872
commission shall annually reconcile the funds collected with the 57873
actual costs of providing telecommunications relay service when it 57874
issues the assessment and shall either proportionately charge the 57875
service providers for any amounts not sufficient to cover the 57876
actual costs or proportionately credit amounts collected in excess 57877
of the actual costs. The total amount assessed from all service 57878
providers shall not exceed the total telecommunications relay 57879
service costs.57880

        Each service provider that pays the assessment shall be 57881
permitted to recover the cost of the assessment. The method of 57882
recovery may include, but is not limited to, a customer billing 57883
surcharge.57884

        The commission shall deposit the money collected in the 57885
telecommunications relay service fund, which is hereby created in 57886
the state treasury, and shall use the money in that fund solely to 57887
compensate the TRS provider.57888

        (D) The commission shall take such measures as it considers 57889
necessary to protect the confidentiality of information provided 57890
to the commission pursuant to this section by service providers 57891
required to pay the assessment.57892

        (E) The commission may assess a forfeiture of not more than 57893
one thousand dollars on any service provider failing to comply 57894
with this section. Each day's continuance of such failure is a 57895
separate offense. The forfeiture shall be recovered in accordance 57896
with sections 4905.55 to 4905.60 of the Revised Code.57897

       (F) The jurisdiction and authority granted to the commission 57898
by this section is limited to the administration and enforcement 57899
of this section. The commission may adopt such rules as it finds 57900
necessary to carry out this section. The commission shall adopt 57901
rules under section 111.15 of the Revised Code to establish the 57902
assessment amounts and procedures.57903

       Sec. 4905.90.  As used in sections 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the 57904
Revised Code:57905

       (A) "Contiguous property" includes, but is not limited to, a 57906
manufactured home park as defined in section 3733.014781.01 of 57907
the Revised Code; a public or publicly subsidized housing project; 57908
an apartment complex; a condominium complex; a college or 57909
university; an office complex; a shopping center; a hotel; an 57910
industrial park; and a race track.57911

       (B) "Gas" means natural gas, flammable gas, or gas which is 57912
toxic or corrosive.57913

       (C) "Gathering lines" and the "gathering of gas" have the 57914
same meaning as in the Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act and the 57915
rules adopted by the United States department of transportation 57916
pursuant to the Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act, including 49 57917
C.F.R. part 192, as amended.57918

       (D) "Intrastate pipe-line transportation" has the same 57919
meaning as in 82 Stat. 720 (1968), 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1671, as 57920
amended, but excludes the gathering of gas exempted by the Natural 57921
Gas Pipeline Safety Act.57922

       (E) "Master-meter system" means a pipe-line system that 57923
distributes gas within a contiguous property for which the system 57924
operator purchases gas for resale to consumers, including tenants. 57925
Such pipe-line system supplies consumers who purchase the gas 57926
directly through a meter, or by paying rent, or by other means. 57927
The term includes a master-meter system as defined in 49 C.F.R. 57928
191.3, as amended. The term excludes a pipeline within a 57929
manufactured home, mobile home, or a building.57930

       (F) "Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act" means the "Natural Gas 57931
Pipeline Safety Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 720, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1671 57932
et seq., as amended.57933

       (G) "Operator" means any of the following:57934

       (1) A gas company or natural gas company as defined in 57935
section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, except that division 57936
(A)(5)(E) of that section does not authorize the public utilities 57937
commission to relieve any producer of gas, as a gas company or 57938
natural gas company, of compliance with sections 4905.90 to 57939
4905.96 of the Revised Code or the pipe-line safety code created 57940
under section 4905.91 of the Revised Code;57941

       (2) A pipe-line company, as defined in section 4905.03 of the 57942
Revised Code, when engaged in the business of transporting gas by 57943
pipeline;57944

       (3) A public utility that is excepted from the definition of 57945
"public utility" under division (B)(A)(2) or (C)(3) of section 57946
4905.02 of the Revised Code, when engaged in supplying or 57947
transporting gas by pipeline within this state;57948

       (4) Any person that owns, operates, manages, controls, or 57949
leases any of the following:57950

       (a) Intrastate pipe-line transportation facilities within 57951
this state;57952

       (b) Gas gathering lines within this state which are not 57953
exempted by the Natural Gas Pipeline Safety Act;57954

       (c) A master-meter system within this state.57955

       "Operator" does not include an ultimate consumer who owns a 57956
service line, as defined in 49 C.F.R. 192.3, as amended, on the 57957
real property of that ultimate consumer.57958

       (H) "Operator of a master-meter system" means a person 57959
described under division (F)(G)(4)(c) of this section. An operator 57960
of a master-meter system is not a public utility under section 57961
4905.02 or a gas or natural gas company under section 4905.03 of 57962
the Revised Code.57963

       (I) "Person" means:57964

       (1) In addition to those defined in division (C) of section 57965
1.59 of the Revised Code, a joint venture or a municipal 57966
corporation;57967

       (2) Any trustee, receiver, assignee, or personal 57968
representative of persons defined in division (H)(I)(1) of this 57969
section.57970

       (J) "Safety audit" means the public utilities commission's 57971
audit of the premises, pipe-line facilities, and the records, 57972
maps, and other relevant documents of a master-meter system to 57973
determine the operator's compliance with sections 4905.90 to 57974
4905.96 of the Revised Code and the pipe-line safety code.57975

       (K) "Safety inspection" means any inspection, survey, or 57976
testing of a master-meter system which is authorized or required 57977
by sections 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the Revised Code and the 57978
pipe-line safety code. The term includes, but is not limited to, 57979
leak surveys, inspection of regulators and critical valves, and 57980
monitoring of cathodic protection systems, where applicable.57981

       (L) "Safety-related condition" means any safety-related 57982
condition defined in 49 C.F.R. 191.23, as amended.57983

       (M) "Total Mcfs of gas it supplied or delivered" means the 57984
sum of the following volumes of gas that an operator supplied or 57985
delivered, measured in units per one thousand cubic feet:57986

       (1) Residential sales;57987

       (2) Commercial and industrial sales;57988

       (3) Other sales to public authorities;57989

       (4) Interdepartmental sales;57990

       (5) Sales for resale;57991

       (6) Transportation of gas.57992

       Sec. 4907.01.  As used in sections 4907.01 to 4907.63 of the 57993
Revised Code:57994

       (A) "Public utility" has the same meaning as in section 57995
4905.02 of the Revised Code.57996

       (B) "Telephone company," "street railway company," and 57997
"interurban railroad company" have the same meanings as in section 57998
4905.03 of the Revised Code.57999

       (C) "Railroad" has the same meaning as in section 4907.02 of 58000
the Revised Code.58001

       (D) "Public highway" has the same meaning as in sections 58002
4905.03 and 4921.02section 4921.01 of the Revised Code.58003

       Sec. 4907.02.  As used in Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 58004
4907., 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4959. of the Revised Code, 58005
"railroad" includes any corporation, company, individual, or 58006
association of individuals, or its lessees, trustees, or receivers 58007
appointed by a court, which owns, operates, manages, or controls a 58008
railroad or part of a railroad as a common carrier in this state, 58009
or which owns, operates, manages, or controls any cars or other 58010
equipment used on such a railroad, or which owns, operates, 58011
manages, or controls any bridges, terminals, union depots, 58012
sidetracks, docks, wharves, or storage elevators used in 58013
connection with such a railroad, whether owned by such railroad or 58014
otherwise, and means and includes express companies, water 58015
transportation companies, freight-line companies, sleeping car 58016
companies, and interurban railroad companies, and all persons and 58017
associations of persons, whether incorporated or not, operating 58018
such agencies for public use in the conveyance of persons or 58019
property within this state. All duties required of, and penalties 58020
imposed upon, a railroad or an officer or agent thereof insofar as 58021
they are applicable, are required and imposed upon express 58022
companies, water transportation companies, and interurban railroad 58023
companies, and upon their officers and agents.58024

       The public utilities commission has the power of supervision 58025
and control of express companies, water transportation companies, 58026
and interurban railroad companies to the same extent as railroads.58027

       Sec. 4907.04.  Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and58028
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code do not apply to 58029
street and electric railways engaged solely in the transportation 58030
of passengers within the limits of cities, or to other private 58031
railroads not doing business as common carriers.58032

       Sec. 4907.08.  The public utilities commission shall inquire 58033
into any neglect or violation of the laws of this state by a 58034
railroad doing business in this state, by its officers, agents, or 58035
employees, or by any person operating a railroad. The commission 58036
shall enforce Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., 4909., 4921., 58037
4923., and 4959. of the Revised Code, as well as all other laws 58038
relating to railroads, and report violations thereof to the 58039
attorney general.58040

       If, upon complaint or otherwise, the commission has reason to 58041
believe that a railroad or any officer, agent, or employee of a 58042
railroad has violated or is violating any law of this state, or if 58043
it has reason to believe that differences have arisen between 58044
citizens of the state and any railroad operating as a common 58045
carrier within this state, it shall examine into the matter.58046

       Sec. 4907.19.  The public utilities commission shall cause 58047
blank forms to be prepared suitable for the purposes designated in 58048
Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 58049
4925. of the Revised Code which shall conform as nearly as 58050
practicable to the forms prescribed by the interstate commerce 58051
commission, and, when necessary, furnish such blank forms to each 58052
railroad.58053

       Sec. 4907.28.  No railroad shall charge, demand, collect, or 58054
receive a greater or less compensation for the transportation of 58055
passengers or property, or for any service in connection 58056
therewith, than is specified in the printed schedules referred to 58057
in sections 4907.25 to 4907.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code, 58058
including schedules of joint rates, as being then in force. The 58059
rates, fares, and charges named in such schedules shall be the 58060
lawful rates, fares, and charges until they are changed as 58061
provided in Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 58062
4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code.58063

       Sec. 4907.35.  If a railroad, or an agent or officer of a 58064
railroad, by special rate, rebate, drawback, or by means of false 58065
billing, false classification, false weighing, or other device, 58066
charges, demands, collects, or receives, either directly or 58067
indirectly, from any person, firm, or corporation, a greater or 58068
less compensation for service rendered or to be rendered by such 58069
railroad for the transportation of persons or property or any 58070
service in connection therewith, than that prescribed in the 58071
published tariffs then in force, or established as provided in 58072
Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 58073
4925. of the Revised Code, or a greater or less compensation than 58074
it charges, demands, collects, or receives from any other person, 58075
firm, or corporation for a like and contemporaneous service in the 58076
transportation of a like kind of traffic, under substantially 58077
similar circumstances and conditions, the railroad is guilty of 58078
unjust discrimination, which is hereby prohibited. Upon conviction 58079
of unjust discrimination, such railroad shall forfeit and pay into 58080
the state treasury not less than one hundred nor more than five 58081
thousand dollars for each offense.58082

       No agent or officer of a railroad shall violate this section.58083

       Sec. 4907.37.  No common carrier subject to Chapters 4901., 58084
4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the 58085
Revised Code shall make or give undue or unreasonable preference 58086
or advantage to a particular person, company, firm, corporation, 58087
or locality, or to any particular description of traffic, or 58088
subject any particular person, company, firm, corporation, or 58089
locality, or any particular description of traffic, to any undue 58090
or unreasonable prejudice or disadvantage in any respect.58091

       Sec. 4907.43.  When the tracks of a railroad and the tracks 58092
of an interurban or suburban railway cross, connect, or intersect, 58093
and such tracks are of the same gauge, the companies owning such 58094
railroads may connect such tracks so as to admit the passage of 58095
cars from one to the other with facility.58096

       If any such railroads fail to make such connection, upon 58097
complaint of any party authorized by Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 58098
4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code to 58099
file complaint, the public utilities commission shall proceed to 58100
hear and determine the same in a manner provided for making 58101
investigations upon complaint.58102

       If upon such hearing the commission finds that it is 58103
practicable and reasonably necessary to accomodateaccommodate the 58104
public, to connect such tracks and that when so connected it will 58105
be practicable to transport cars over such railroad without 58106
endangering the equipment, tracks, or appliances of either 58107
company, the commission shall make an order requiring such 58108
railroads to make connection. Such order shall describe the terms 58109
and conditions and shall apportion the cost of making such 58110
connection between the railroads.58111

       When such connection is made, the railroads parties to it, 58112
according to their respective powers, shall afford all reasonable 58113
and proper facilities for the interchange of traffic between their 58114
respective lines for forwarding and delivering passengers and 58115
property, and without unreasonable delay or discrimination shall 58116
transfer, switch, and deliver freight or passenger cars destine to 58117
a point on its own or connecting lines. Precedence may be given to 58118
livestock and perishable freight over other freight. Whenever a 58119
derailing device is required at the intersection of any railroads 58120
mentioned in this section, it shall be installed, maintained, and 58121
operated as required by the commission, which may prescribe the 58122
necessary rules and regulations for such operation, and designate 58123
the companies that shall be responsible for the operation of such 58124
derailing device.58125

       Sec. 4907.49.  When two or more railroads cross a public 58126
highway or street at a dangerous crossing, the expenses incurred 58127
in the erection and maintenance of gates, bells, or other devices, 58128
and of necessary gatekeepers or flagmenflaggers, and apportioned 58129
by the public utilities commission as railroad expense, shall be 58130
shared equally by the railroads.58131

       Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 58132
4923. of the Revised Code do not prevent the use of automatic 58133
bells or other mechanical devices by a railroad at a public 58134
crossing not declared dangerous by the public utilities 58135
commission, nor do they prevent state, county, township, or 58136
municipal officials from entering into an agreement with a 58137
railroad to pay all or part of the expense of erecting a warning 58138
device. Any funds levied and made available for highways or street 58139
purposes may be used to pay the public share of the cost under 58140
such an agreement. If a gate is erected or a flagmanflagger is 58141
stationed and maintained by a railroad, either alone or pursuant 58142
to such an agreement, the gate or flagmanflagger shall not be 58143
abandoned nor an automatic bell or other mechanical device 58144
substituted for the gate or flagmanflagger, unless the commission 58145
consents to the abandonment or substitution.58146

       Sec. 4907.57.  All claims, charges, or demands against a 58147
railroad for loss of or damage to property occurring while in the 58148
custody of such railroad and unreasonable delay in transportation 58149
and delivery, for overcharges upon a shipment, or for any other 58150
service in violation of Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and58151
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code, if not paid 58152
within sixty days from the date of the filing thereof with such 58153
railroad, may be submitted to the public utilities commission by a 58154
formal complaint. Such complaint shall be made upon blank forms 58155
which the commission shall provide upon demand of the claimant.58156

       Such complaint shall be verified as petitions in civil 58157
actions and may be accompanied by the sworn statements of any 58158
witnesses who have knowledge of any fact material to the inquiry. 58159
Upon the filing of such complaint the commission shall forthwith 58160
cite the railroad to answer the complaint, and the citation shall 58161
be accompanied with a brief statement of the claim. The answer of 58162
the railroad shall be filed within three weeks from the service of 58163
the citation and shall be verified as answers in civil cases, and 58164
may be accompanied with the affidavits of any witnesses having 58165
knowledge of facts material to the inquiry.58166

       The burden of proof shall be upon the railroad to show that 58167
loss or damage to property was not due to its negligence. The 58168
railroad to which property is delivered for shipment shall prima 58169
facie be liable for loss or damage occurring to such property in 58170
transit notwithstanding such property may be delivered to other 58171
railroads before reaching its destination. The claim referred to 58172
in this section for loss of or damage to property may be made to 58173
any carrier over whose lines the lost or damaged property was 58174
consigned, and such claimant may at histhe claimant's option join 58175
all of such railroads as parties defendant in histhe complaint 58176
before said commission. The railroad shall furnish the claimant 58177
with a copy of its answer and affidavits, and within two weeks 58178
from the filing of such answers the claimant may file hisa reply, 58179
with affidavits in support thereof, verified as replies in civil 58180
cases. At the expiration of said period of two weeks the 58181
commission shall proceed summarily to examine the complaint, 58182
answer, reply, and affidavits, and shall determine the existence 58183
and validity of the claim presented. If the commission finds in 58184
favor of the claimant it shall certify its findings to the clerk 58185
of the court of common pleas of the county in which the claimant 58186
resides or where the railroad or any of its offices is maintained.58187

       Sec. 4907.59.  Upon request of the public utilities 58188
commission, the attorney general or the prosecuting attorney of 58189
the proper county shall aid in an investigation, prosecution, 58190
hearing, or trial had under Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., 58191
and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code, and shall 58192
institute and prosecute necessary actions or proceedings for the 58193
enforcement of such chapters and of other laws of this state 58194
relating to railroads, and for the punishment of all violations of 58195
such chapters and such other laws.58196

       Sec. 4907.60.  If a railroad fails to perform a duty enjoined 58197
upon it by Chapter 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., 4909., 4921., 58198
4923., or 4959. of the Revised Code, or does any act prohibited by 58199
any of those chapters, for which failure or act no penalty or 58200
forfeiture has been provided by law, or fails to obey a lawful 58201
requirement or order made by the public utilities commission or 58202
order of any court upon application of the commission, the 58203
railroad, except as otherwise specifically provided in sections 58204
4905.83,section 4905.95, 4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the 58205
Revised Code, shall forfeit into the state treasury not less than 58206
one hundred nor more than ten thousand dollars for each violation 58207
or failure. In construing and enforcing this section, the act, 58208
omission, or failure of any officer, agent, or other person acting 58209
for or employed by a railroad, while acting within the scope of 58210
the officer's, agent's, or other person's employment, is the act, 58211
omission, or failure of the railroad.58212

       Sec. 4907.61.  Except as otherwise specifically provided in 58213
sections 4905.83, 4905.96, 4919.99, 4921.99, and 4923.99 of the 58214
Revised Code, when the attorney general prosecutes an action for 58215
the recovery of a forfeiture provided for in Chapter 4901., 4903., 58216
4905., 4907., 4909., 4921., 4923., or 4959. of the Revised Code, 58217
the attorney general may bring the action in the court of common 58218
pleas of Franklin county or of any county having jurisdiction of 58219
the defendant.58220

       Sec. 4907.62.  If a railroad does, causes, or permits 58221
anything prohibited by Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and58222
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code to be done, or 58223
omits doing anything required to be done by such chapters, such 58224
railroad is liable to the person, firm, or corporation injured 58225
thereby in treble the amount of damages sustained in consequence 58226
of such violation or omission. A recovery provided by this section 58227
shall not affect a recovery by the state of the penalty prescribed 58228
for such violation.58229

       Sec. 4909.01.  As used in this chapter:58230

       (A) "Public utility" has the same meaning as in section 58231
4905.02 of the Revised Code.58232

       (B) "Electric light company," "gas company," "natural gas 58233
company," "pipeline company," "water-works company," "sewage 58234
disposal system company," and "street railway company" have the 58235
same meanings as in section 4905.03 of the Revised Code.58236

       (C) "Railroad" has the same meaning as in section 4907.02 of 58237
the Revised Code.58238

       (D) "Motor transportation companyFor-hire motor carrier" has 58239
the same meaning as in sections 4905.03 and 4921.02section 58240
4921.01 of the Revised Code.58241

       Sec. 4909.02.  All regulations, practices, and service of 58242
railroad companies prescribed by the public utilities commission 58243
shall be in force and be prima-facie reasonable, unless suspended 58244
or found otherwise in an action brought for that purpose pursuant 58245
to Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., and 58246
4923. of the Revised Code, or until changed or modified by the 58247
commission.58248

       Sec. 4909.03.  All rates, fares, charges, classifications, 58249
and joint rates of railroad companies fixed by the public 58250
utilities commission shall be in force and be prima-facie lawful 58251
for two years from the day they take effect, or until changed or 58252
modified by the commission or by an order of a competent court in 58253
an action under Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 58254
4921., and 4923. of the Revised Code.58255

       Sec. 4909.17.  No rate, joint rate, toll, classification, 58256
charge, or rental, no change in any rate, joint rate, toll, 58257
classification, charge, or rental, and no regulation or practice 58258
affecting any rate, joint rate, toll, classification, charge, or 58259
rental of a public utility shall become effective until the public 58260
utilities commission, by order, determines it to be just and 58261
reasonable, except as provided in this section and sections 58262
4909.18, 4909.19, and 4909.191 of the Revised Code. Such sections 58263
do not apply to any rate, joint rate, toll, classification, 58264
charge, or rental, or any regulation or practice affecting the 58265
same, of railroads, street and electric railways, for-hire motor 58266
transportation companiescarriers, and pipe line companies. 58267

       Sec. 4909.22.  When passengers or property are transported 58268
over two or more connecting railroads between points in this 58269
state, and the railroad companies have made joint rates for the 58270
transportation of such passengers or property, such rates and all 58271
charges in connection therewith shall be just and reasonable. 58272
Every unjust and unreasonable charge is prohibited. A less charge 58273
by each of such railroads for its proportion of such joint rates 58274
than is made locally between the same points on their respective 58275
lines is not for that reason a violation of Chapters 4901., 4903., 58276
4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised 58277
Code and does not render such railroads liable to any of the 58278
penalties in such chapters.58279

       Sec. 4909.24.  Upon complaint of a person, firm, corporation, 58280
or association, of a mercantile, agricultural, or manufacturing 58281
society, or of a body politic or municipal organization, that any 58282
of the rates, fares, charges, or classifications, or any joint 58283
rates are in any respect unreasonable or unjustly discriminatory, 58284
or that any regulation or practice, affecting the transportation 58285
of persons or property, or any service in connection therewith, 58286
are in any respect unreasonable or unjustly discriminatory, or 58287
that any service is inadequate, the public utilities commission 58288
may notify the railroad complained of that complaint has been 58289
made, and ten days after such notice proceed to investigate such 58290
charges as provided in Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and58291
4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of the Revised Code. Before making 58292
such investigation, the commission shall give the railroad and the 58293
complainants ten days' notice of the time and place such matters 58294
will be considered and determined, and such parties are entitled 58295
to be heard and to have process to enforce the attendance of 58296
witnesses.58297

       A railroad may make complaint with like effect as though made 58298
by any person, firm, corporation, or association, merctantile58299
mercantile, agricultural, or manufacturing society, body politic, 58300
or municipal organization.58301

       Sec. 4909.28.  If, upon an investigation under Chapters 58302
4901., 4903., 4905., 4907., and 4909., 4921., 4923., and 4925. of 58303
the Revised Code, the public utilities commission finds that any 58304
existing rate, fare, charge, or classification, any joint rate, or 58305
any regulation or practice affecting the transportation of persons 58306
or property, or service in connection therewith, is unreasonable 58307
or unjustly discriminatory, or that any service is inadequate, it 58308
shall determine and by order fix a reasonable rate, fare, charge, 58309
classification, joint rate, regulation, practice, or service to be 58310
imposed, observed, and followed in the future, in place of that so 58311
found to be unreasonable, unjustly discriminatory, or inadequate. 58312
A certified copy of each such order shall be delivered to an 58313
officer or station agent of the railroad affected, and such order 58314
shall of its own force take effect and become operative thirty 58315
days after service.58316

       All railroads to which such order applies shall make such 58317
changes in their schedules on file as are necessary to conform to 58318
such order, and no change shall thereafter be made by any railroad 58319
in any such rate, fare, or charge, or in any joint rate, without 58320
the approval of the commission.58321

       Sec. 4911.01.  As used in this chapter:58322

       (A) "Public utility" means every one as defined in divisions 58323
(A)(1), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (C), (D), (E), (F), (G), 58324
(H), and (13)(M) of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, including 58325
all public utilities that operate their utilities not for profit, 58326
except the following:58327

       (1) Electric light companies that operate their utilities not 58328
for profit;58329

       (2) Public utilities, other than telephone companies, that 58330
are owned and operated exclusively by and solely for the 58331
utilities' customers;58332

       (3) Public utilities that are owned or operated by any 58333
municipal corporation;58334

       (4) Railroads as defined in sections 4907.02 and 4907.03 of 58335
the Revised Code.58336

       (B) "Residential consumer" means urban, suburban, and rural 58337
patrons of public utilities insofar as their needs for utility 58338
services are limited to their residence.58339

       Sec. 4921.01.  As used in this chapter:58340

       (A) "Ambulance" has the same meaning as in section 4766.01 of 58341
the Revised Code.58342

       (B) "For-hire motor carrier" means a person engaged in the 58343
business of transporting persons or property by motor vehicle for 58344
compensation, except when engaged in any of the following in 58345
intrastate commerce:58346

       (1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual 58347
taxicab service;58348

       (2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating 58349
to or from school sessions or school events;58350

       (3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm 58351
products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;58352

       (4) The distribution of newspapers;58353

       (5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to 58354
gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;58355

       (6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons 58356
by hearse or ambulance;58357

       (7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure 58358
and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;58359

       (8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing 58360
arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in 58361
such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of 58362
operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;58363

       (9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public 58364
road work.58365

       "For-hire motor carrier" includes the carrier's agents, 58366
officers, and representatives, as well as employees responsible 58367
for hiring, supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching 58368
drivers and employees concerned with the installation, inspection, 58369
and maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.58370

       Divisions (B)(1) to (9) of this section shall not be 58371
construed to relieve a person from compliance with 58372
hazardous-material regulation under section 4921.15 of the Revised 58373
Code and division (H) of section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, or 58374
rules adopted thereunder, or from compliance with rules governing 58375
unified carrier registration adopted under section 4921.11 of the 58376
Revised Code.58377

       (C) "Household goods" means personal effects and property 58378
used or to be used in a dwelling, excluding property moving from a 58379
factory or store.58380

       (D) "Interstate commerce" means trade, traffic, or 58381
transportation in the United States that is any of the following:58382

       (1) Between a place in a state and a place outside of that 58383
state (including a place outside of the United States);58384

       (2) Between two places in a state through another state or a 58385
place outside of the United States;58386

       (3) Between two places in a state as part of trade, traffic, 58387
or transportation originating or terminating outside the state or 58388
the United States.58389

       (E) "Intrastate commerce" means any trade, traffic, or 58390
transportation in any state which is not described in the term 58391
"interstate commerce."58392

       (F) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, machine, tractor, 58393
trailer, or semitrailer propelled or drawn by mechanical power and 58394
used upon the highways in the transportation of persons or 58395
property, or any combination thereof, but does not include any 58396
vehicle, locomotive, or car operated exclusively on a rail or 58397
rails, or a trolley bus operated by electric power derived from a 58398
fixed overhead wire, furnishing local passenger transportation 58399
similar to street-railway service.58400

       (G) "Public highway" means any public street, road, or 58401
highway in this state, whether within or without the corporate 58402
limits of a municipal corporation.58403

       (H) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 58404
persons in a motor vehicle where such transportation is incidental 58405
to another purpose of a volunteer driver, and includes ridesharing 58406
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.58407

       (I) "School bus" has the same meaning as in section 4511.01 58408
of the Revised Code.58409

       (J) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power designed 58410
or used for carrying persons or property and for being drawn by a 58411
separate motor vehicle, including any vehicle of the trailer type, 58412
whether designed or used for carrying persons or property wholly 58413
on its own structure, or so designed or used that a part of its 58414
own weight or the weight of its load rests upon and is carried by 58415
such motor vehicle.58416

       Sec. 4921.03. (A) No for-hire motor carrier may operate in 58417
intrastate commerce unless the carrier has a current and valid 58418
certificate of public convenience and necessity.58419

       (B) The public utilities commission shall issue a certificate 58420
of public convenience and necessity to any person who does all of 58421
the following:58422

       (1) Files with the commission, in accordance with rules 58423
adopted under section 4921.05 of the Revised Code, a complete and 58424
accurate application that shall include a certification that (a) 58425
the person understands and is in compliance with the applicable 58426
service, operation, and safety laws of this state and (b) the 58427
person meets the requirements of section 4921.09 of the Revised 58428
Code;58429

       (2) Agrees to maintain accurate and current business and 58430
insurance information with the commission, in accordance with the 58431
commission's rules;58432

       (3) Has paid all applicable registration fees in accordance 58433
with rules adopted under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, all 58434
applicable taxes under section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, and 58435
any forfeitures imposed under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code.58436

       (C) The commission shall have no power to fix, alter, or 58437
establish rates for the transportation of persons or property, nor 58438
shall the commission have the power to require or accept the 58439
filing of tariffs establishing such rates, except that the 58440
commission may accept the filing of tariffs establishing rates for 58441
the transportation of household goods.58442

       (D) A for-hire motor carrier may, at any time after a 58443
certificate of public convenience and necessity is granted or 58444
refused, file a new application or supplement a former 58445
application.58446

       (E) The commission may deny issuance of a certificate of 58447
public convenience and necessity for failure to comply with this 58448
section or rules adopted under section 4921.05 of the Revised 58449
Code.58450

       Sec. 4921.05. The public utilities commission shall adopt 58451
rules prescribing the manner and form in which a person shall 58452
apply for a certificate of public convenience and necessity under 58453
section 4921.03 of the Revised Code. The rules shall include a 58454
requirement that applications be made in writing on the blanks 58455
furnished by the commission and contain any information and 58456
certifications deemed necessary by the commission to carry out 58457
this chapter.58458

       Sec. 4921.07. (A) The public utilities commission shall adopt 58459
rules regarding procedures and timelines by which a certificate of 58460
public convenience and necessity issued under section 4921.03 of 58461
the Revised Code may be suspended. At a minimum, the rules shall 58462
require suspension of a certificate if the for-hire motor carrier 58463
does any of the following:58464

       (1) Fails to file a complete and accurate application for the 58465
certificate under section 4921.03 of the Revised Code;58466

       (2) Fails to maintain accurate and current business and 58467
insurance information with the commission;58468

       (3) Fails to maintain proper proof of insurance or proper 58469
levels of insurance under section 4921.09 of the Revised Code;58470

       (4) Fails to pay all applicable registration fees in 58471
accordance with rules adopted under section 4921.11 of the Revised 58472
Code, all applicable taxes under section 4921.19 of the Revised 58473
Code, and any forfeitures imposed under section 4923.99 of the 58474
Revised Code;58475

       (5) Requests to suspend the carrier's operations.58476

       (B)(1) The commission shall adopt rules regarding procedures 58477
and timelines by which a certificate suspended under division (A) 58478
of this section may be revoked if the conditions giving rise to 58479
the suspension are not remedied.58480

       (2) The commission shall provide the carrier with written 58481
notice indicating the nature of the deficiency, a proposed 58482
effective date of the revocation, and the means by which the 58483
deficiency may be remedied. The carrier may correct the identified 58484
deficiency or submit evidence refuting the proposed revocation 58485
within sixty days from the date of the notice. The commission may 58486
extend the sixty-day period for good cause shown. The commission 58487
may revoke the certificate after the remedy period if the carrier 58488
has not provided sufficient evidence to remedy the deficiency.58489

       Sec. 4921.09. (A) No certificate of public convenience and 58490
necessity shall be issued by the public utilities commission to 58491
any for-hire motor carrier until the carrier has filed with the 58492
commission a liability insurance certificate, policy, or bond 58493
satisfactory to the commission, in the sum and with the provisions 58494
the commission considers necessary adequately to protect the 58495
interests of the public, having due regard for the number of 58496
persons and amount of property affected. The certificate, policy, 58497
or bond shall insure the carrier against loss sustained by reason 58498
of death or injuries to persons and for loss or damage to property 58499
resulting from the negligence of the carrier.58500

       (B) No certificate for the transportation of household goods 58501
shall be issued to a for-hire motor carrier pursuant to sections 58502
4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code until it has filed with the 58503
commission a freight cargo insurance certificate, policy, or bond 58504
that the commission has determined to be adequate to protect the 58505
interests of the shipping public.58506

       (C) The Commission shall adopt rules to achieve the purposes 58507
of this section that are not incompatible with the requirements of 58508
the United States department of transportation. The rules shall at 58509
a minimum address all of the following:58510

       (1) The minimum levels of financial responsibility for each 58511
type of for-hire motor carrier;58512

       (2) The form and type of documents to be filed with the 58513
commission;58514

       (3) The manner by which documents may be filed with the 58515
commission;58516

       (4) The timelines for filing documents with the commission. 58517

       (D) If a certificate, policy, or bond required under division 58518
(A) of this section is canceled during its term or lapses for any 58519
reason, both of the following apply:58520

       (1) All operations under the certificate of public 58521
convenience and necessity shall cease immediately, and further 58522
operations shall not be conducted until a replacement is filed 58523
with the commission under division (D)(2) of this section.58524

       (2) The commission shall require the company to replace the 58525
certificate, policy, or bond with another that fully complies with 58526
the requirements of this section.58527

       The certificate of public convenience and necessity shall be 58528
reinstated only after a satisfactory insurance certificate, 58529
policy, or bond has been filed with the commission.58530

       (E) To ensure minimum standards of protection of consumers' 58531
household goods, the commission may adopt rules, not incompatible 58532
with the requirements of the United States department of 58533
transportation, governing requirements for cargo insurance for 58534
for-hire motor carriers engaged in the transportation of household 58535
goods over a public highway in this state.58536

       Sec. 4921.11.  The public utilities commission shall adopt 58537
rules applicable to registration pursuant to the unified carrier 58538
registration plan, codified as 49 U.S.C. 14504a, and the rules, 58539
procedures, and fee schedules adopted thereunder, in accordance 58540
with division (G) of section 4921.19 of the Revised Code.58541

       Sec. 4921.13. (A) The public utilities commission shall adopt 58542
rules applicable to the filing of annual update forms and the 58543
payment of taxes by for-hire motor carriers. The rules shall not 58544
be incompatible with the requirements of the United States 58545
department of transportation. The rules shall at a minimum address 58546
all of the following:58547

       (1) The information and certifications that must be provided 58548
to the commission on an annual update form, including a 58549
certification that the carrier continues to be in compliance with 58550
the applicable laws of this state.58551

       (2) Documentation and information that must be provided 58552
regarding proof of financial responsibility;58553

       (3) The form and manner in which taxes may be paid under 58554
section 4921.19 of the Revised Code.58555

       (B) The rules may address any other information that the 58556
commission determines is necessary to carry out this section.58557

       (C) A for-hire motor carrier shall not be issued a tax 58558
receipt under division (C) of section 4921.19 of the Revised Code 58559
until all of the following have been satisfied:58560

       (1) A complete and accurate annual update form has been filed 58561
with the commission;58562

       (2) Proof of financial responsibility remains in effect; 58563

       (3) All applicable registration fees in accordance with rules 58564
adopted under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, all applicable 58565
taxes under section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, and any 58566
forfeitures imposed under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code have 58567
been paid in full.58568

       Sec. 4921.15.  (A) As used in sections 4921.15, 4921.16, and 58569
4921.19 of the Revised Code:58570

       (1) "Uniform registration" has the same meaning as 58571
"registration" as used in the final report submitted to the United 58572
States secretary of transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of 58573
section 22 of the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform 58574
Safety Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819.58575

       (2) "Uniform permit" has the same meaning as "permit" as used 58576
in the final report submitted to the United States secretary of 58577
transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of section 22 of the 58578
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 58579
104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819.58580

       (B)(1) The public utilities commission may adopt rules 58581
applicable to the uniform registration and uniform permitting of 58582
persons engaged in the highway transportation of hazardous 58583
materials into, through, or within this state. The rules shall 58584
include rules staggering the registration date for those persons 58585
and reducing or extending, by no more than one year, the permit 58586
renewal period for those persons.58587

       (2) For the purpose of minimizing filing requirements 58588
regarding any background investigation required for the issuance 58589
of a uniform permit as a carrier of hazardous wastes, the 58590
commission shall accept from any applicant for the permit any 58591
refiling of information the applicant has filed with the office of 58592
the attorney general under section 3734.42 of the Revised Code or 58593
any reference to that information if the refiled or referenced 58594
information is on file with the office of the attorney general, is 58595
accurate and timely for the commission's purposes under this 58596
section, and is supplemented by any additional information the 58597
commission requires. The office of the attorney general, as 58598
necessary for a background investigation, shall make accessible to 58599
the commission any information referenced or refiled in an 58600
application for a uniform permit as a carrier of hazardous wastes 58601
that the attorney general determines may be disclosed in 58602
accordance with section 3734.42 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 58603
sections 4921.15, 4921.16, and division (H) of section 4921.19 of 58604
the Revised Code affects any limitations under section 3734.42 of 58605
the Revised Code on the disclosure of that information.58606

       (C) The commission, as necessary to implement the rules 58607
adopted under division (B) of this section, may enter into 58608
agreements, contracts, arrangements, or declarations with other 58609
states and with the national repository, established pursuant to 58610
the final report submitted to the United States secretary of 58611
transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of section 22 of the 58612
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 58613
104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819. The agreements, contracts, 58614
arrangements, or declarations shall include, but not be limited 58615
to, the determination of a base state, the collection of uniform 58616
registration fees, the frequency of distribution of uniform 58617
registration fees, procedures for dispute resolution, and 58618
protection of trade secrets and confidential business information.58619

       (D) No person shall knowingly falsify or fail to submit any 58620
data, reports, records, or other information required to be 58621
submitted to the commission pursuant to this section or a rule 58622
adopted under it. For purposes of this division, a person acts 58623
knowingly if either of the following applies:58624

       (1) The person has actual knowledge of the facts giving rise 58625
to the violation.58626

       (2) A reasonable person acting in the circumstances and 58627
exercising due care would have such knowledge.58628

       (E) After notice and opportunity for a hearing, the 58629
commission, pursuant to criteria set forth in rules adopted under 58630
division (B) of this section, may suspend, revoke, or deny the 58631
uniform permit as a carrier of hazardous materials of any person 58632
that has obtained or applied for such a uniform permit from the 58633
commission pursuant to rules adopted under that division, or the 58634
commission may order the suspension of the transportation of 58635
hazardous materials into, through, or within this state by a 58636
carrier that has obtained a uniform permit from another state that 58637
has a reciprocity agreement with the commission pursuant to 58638
division (C) of this section.58639

       (F)(1) The proceedings specified in division (E) of this 58640
section are subject to and governed by Chapter 4903. of the 58641
Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in this section. The 58642
court of appeals of Franklin county has exclusive original 58643
jurisdiction to review, modify, or vacate any order of the 58644
commission suspending, revoking, or denying a uniform permit as a 58645
carrier of hazardous materials of any person that has obtained or 58646
applied for a uniform permit from the commission pursuant to rules 58647
adopted under division (B) of this section, or any order of the 58648
commission suspending the transportation of hazardous materials 58649
into, through, or within this state by a carrier that has obtained 58650
a uniform permit from another state that has a reciprocity 58651
agreement with the commission under division (C) of this section. 58652
The court of appeals shall hear and determine those appeals in the 58653
same manner and under the same standards as the Ohio supreme court 58654
hears and determines appeals under Chapter 4903. of the Revised 58655
Code. The judgment of the court of appeals is final and conclusive 58656
unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such appeals may 58657
be taken either by the commission or the person to whom the order 58658
was issued and shall proceed as in the case of appeals in civil 58659
actions as provided in Chapter 2505. of the Revised Code.58660

       (2) Section 4903.11 of the Revised Code does not apply to 58661
appeals of any order of the commission suspending, revoking, or 58662
denying a uniform permit of a person that has obtained or applied 58663
for a uniform permit from the commission pursuant to rules adopted 58664
under division (B) of this section, or of any order of the 58665
commission suspending the transportation of hazardous materials 58666
into, through, or within this state by a carrier that has obtained 58667
a uniform permit from another state that has a reciprocity 58668
agreement with the commission pursuant to division (C) of this 58669
section. Any person to whom such an order is issued who wishes to 58670
contest the order shall file, within sixty days after the entry of 58671
the order upon the journal of the commission, a notice of appeal, 58672
setting forth the order appealed from and the errors complained 58673
of. The notice of appeal shall be served, unless waived, upon the 58674
chairperson of the commission or, in the event of the 58675
chairperson's absence, upon any public utilities commissioner, or 58676
by leaving a copy at the office of the commission at Columbus. On 58677
appeal, the court shall reverse, vacate, or modify the order if, 58678
upon consideration of the record, the court is of the opinion that 58679
the order was unlawful or unreasonable.58680

       Sec. 4921.16.  (A) Information submitted to the public 58681
utilities commission as part of a uniform registration 58682
application, pursuant to rules adopted under division (B) of 58683
section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, is a public record and is 58684
subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.58685

       (B) Except for information related to corporate structure and 58686
personnel, information that is submitted to the commission as part 58687
of a uniform permit application, pursuant to rules adopted under 58688
division (B) of section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, is a public 58689
record and is subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. 58690
Information that is related to corporate structure and personnel 58691
that is submitted to the commission as part of a uniform permit 58692
application, pursuant to rules adopted under division (B) of 58693
section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, is not a public record and is 58694
not subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Except as 58695
provided in division (D) of this section, the commission shall not 58696
disclose to any person any information that is related to 58697
corporate structure and personnel that is submitted as part of a 58698
uniform permit application.58699

       (C) Information that is submitted for any background 58700
investigation for an application for a uniform permit as a carrier 58701
of hazardous wastes is not a public record and is not subject to 58702
section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division 58703
(D) of this section, the commission shall not disclose to any 58704
person any information submitted for any background investigation 58705
for such an application.58706

       (D) The commission may disclose to its authorized employees 58707
and to any federal agencies, state agencies of this state or 58708
another state, local government agencies of this state or another 58709
state, or the national repository established pursuant to the 58710
final report submitted to the United States secretary of 58711
transportation, pursuant to subsection (c) of section 22 of the 58712
"Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 58713
104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1819, any information submitted 58714
to the commission as part of a uniform permit application that is 58715
related to corporate structure and personnel or submitted for any 58716
background investigation for an application for a uniform permit 58717
as a carrier of hazardous wastes if all of the following 58718
conditions are met:58719

       (1) The commission enters into a confidentiality agreement 58720
with the employee, agency, or national repository under which that 58721
employee or entity agrees not to disclose to any third party any 58722
information related to corporate structure or personnel or any 58723
information submitted as part of a background investigation unless 58724
the third party enters into a confidentiality agreement with the 58725
commission consistent with this division.58726

       (2) The employee, agency, or national repository certifies to 58727
the commission that it is not required by any state or federal law 58728
to disclose any information related to corporate structure or 58729
personnel or any information submitted as part of a background 58730
investigation.58731

       (3) The federal agency, state or local government agency of 58732
another state, or national repository irrevocably consents in 58733
writing to the jurisdiction of the courts of this state and 58734
service of process in this state, including, without limitation, 58735
summonses and subpoenas, for any civil proceeding arising out of 58736
an intentional disclosure of information in violation of this 58737
division.58738

       (E) Any person who intentionally discloses information in 58739
violation of division (D) of this section is liable to the owner 58740
of the information for civil damages caused by the disclosure.58741

       Sec. 4921.19.  (A) Every for-hire motor carrier operating in 58742
this state shall, at the time of the issuance of a certificate of 58743
public convenience and necessity under section 4921.03 of the 58744
Revised Code, pay to the public utilities commission, for and on 58745
behalf of the treasurer of state, the following taxes:58746

       (1) For each motor vehicle used for transporting persons, 58747
thirty dollars;58748

       (2) For each commercial tractor, as defined in section 58749
4501.01 of the Revised Code, used for transporting property, 58750
thirty dollars;58751

       (3) For each other motor vehicle transporting property, 58752
twenty dollars.58753

       (B) Every for-hire motor carrier operating in this state 58754
solely in intrastate commerce shall, annually between the first 58755
day of May and the thirtieth day of June, pay to the commission, 58756
for and on behalf of the treasurer of state, the following taxes:58757

       (1) For each motor vehicle used for transporting persons, 58758
thirty dollars;58759

       (2) For each commercial tractor, as defined in section 58760
4501.01 of the Revised Code, used for transporting property, 58761
thirty dollars;58762

       (3) For each other motor vehicle transporting property, 58763
twenty dollars.58764

       (C) After a for-hire motor carrier has paid the applicable 58765
taxes under division (B) of this section and all requirements 58766
under division (C) of section 4921.13 of the Revised Code have 58767
been met, the commission shall issue the carrier a tax receipt. 58768
The carrier shall carry a copy of the tax receipt in each motor 58769
vehicle operated by the carrier. The carrier shall maintain the 58770
original copy of the tax receipt at the carrier's primary place of 58771
business.58772

       (D) A trailer used by a for-hire motor carrier shall not be 58773
taxed under this section.58774

       (E) The annual tax levied by division (B) of this section 58775
does not apply in those cases where the commission finds that the 58776
movement of agricultural commodities or foodstuffs produced 58777
therefrom requires a temporary and seasonal use of vehicular 58778
equipment for a period of not more than ninety days. In such 58779
event, the tax on the vehicular equipment shall be twenty-five per 58780
cent of the annual tax levied by division (B) of this section. If 58781
any vehicular equipment is used in excess of the ninety-day 58782
period, the annual tax levied by this section shall be paid.58783

       (F) All taxes levied by division (B) of this section shall be 58784
reckoned as from the beginning of the quarter in which the tax 58785
receipt is issued or as from when the use of equipment under any 58786
existing tax receipt began.58787

       (G) The fees for unified carrier registration pursuant to 58788
section 4921.11 of the Revised Code shall be identical to those 58789
established by the unified carrier registration act board as 58790
approved by the federal motor carrier safety administration for 58791
each year.58792

       (H)(1) The fees for uniform registration and a uniform permit 58793
as a carrier of hazardous materials pursuant to section 4921.15 of 58794
the Revised Code shall consist of the following:58795

       (a) A processing fee of fifty dollars;58796

       (b) An apportioned per-truck registration fee, which shall be 58797
calculated by multiplying the percentage of a registrant's 58798
activity in this state times the percentage of the registrant's 58799
business that is hazardous-materials-related, times the number of 58800
vehicles owned or operated by the registrant, times a per-truck 58801
fee determined by order of the commission following public notice 58802
and an opportunity for comment.58803

       (i) The percentage of a registrant's activity in this state 58804
shall be calculated by dividing the number of miles that the 58805
registrant travels in this state under the international 58806
registration plan, pursuant to section 4503.61 of the Revised 58807
Code, by the number of miles that the registrant travels 58808
nationwide under the international registration plan. Registrants 58809
that operate solely within this state shall use one hundred per 58810
cent as their percentage of activity. Registrants that do not 58811
register their vehicles through the international registration 58812
plan shall calculate activity in the state in the same manner as 58813
that required by the international registration plan.58814

       (ii) The percentage of a registrant's business that is 58815
hazardous-materials-related shall be calculated, for 58816
less-than-truckload shipments, by dividing the weight of all the 58817
registrant's hazardous materials shipments by the total weight of 58818
all shipments in the previous year. The percentage of a 58819
registrant's business that is hazardous-materials-related shall be 58820
calculated, for truckload shipments, by dividing the number of 58821
shipments for which placarding, marking of the vehicle, or 58822
manifesting, as appropriate, was required by regulations adopted 58823
under sections 4 to 6 of the "Hazardous Materials Transportation 58824
Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C. App. 1804, 58825
by the total number of the registrant's shipments that transported 58826
any kind of goods in the previous year. A registrant that 58827
transports both less-than-truckload and truckload shipments of 58828
hazardous materials shall calculate the percentage of business 58829
that is hazardous-materials-related on a proportional basis.58830

       (iii) A registrant may utilize fiscal year, or calendar year, 58831
or other current company accounting data, or other publicly 58832
available information, in calculating the percentages required by 58833
divisions (H)(1)(b)(i) and (ii) of this section.58834

       (2) The commission, after notice and opportunity for a 58835
hearing, may assess each carrier a fee for any background 58836
investigation required for the issuance, for the purpose of 58837
section 3734.15 of the Revised Code, of a uniform permit as a 58838
carrier of hazardous wastes and fees related to investigations and 58839
proceedings for the denial, suspension, or revocation of a uniform 58840
permit as a carrier of hazardous materials. The fees shall not 58841
exceed the reasonable costs of the investigations and proceedings. 58842
The fee for a background investigation for a uniform permit as a 58843
carrier of hazardous wastes shall be six hundred dollars plus the 58844
costs of obtaining any necessary information not included in the 58845
permit application, to be calculated at the rate of thirty dollars 58846
per hour, not exceeding six hundred dollars, plus any fees payable 58847
to obtain necessary information.58848

       (I) The application fee for a certificate for the 58849
transportation of household goods issued pursuant to sections 58850
4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code shall be based on the 58851
certificate holder's gross revenue, in the prior year, for the 58852
intrastate transportation of household goods. The commission shall 58853
establish, by order, ranges of gross revenue and the fee for each 58854
range. The fees shall be set in amounts sufficient to carry out 58855
the purposes of sections 4921.30 to 4921.38 and 4923.99 of the 58856
Revised Code and, to the extent necessary, the commission shall 58857
make changes to the fee structure to ensure that neither over nor 58858
under collection of the fees occurs. The fees shall also take into 58859
consideration the revenue generated from the assessment of 58860
forfeitures under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code regarding 58861
the consumer protection provisions applicable to for-hire motor 58862
carriers engaged in the transportation of household goods.58863

       (J) The fees and taxes provided under this section shall be 58864
in addition to taxes, fees, and charges fixed and exacted by other 58865
sections of the Revised Code, except the assessments required by 58866
section 4905.10 of the Revised Code, but all fees, license fees, 58867
annual payments, license taxes, or taxes or other money exactions, 58868
except the general property tax, assessed, charged, fixed, or 58869
exacted by local authorities such as municipal corporations, 58870
townships, counties, or other local boards, or the officers of 58871
such subdivisions are illegal and, are superseded by sections 58872
4503.04 and 4905.03 and Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code. On 58873
compliance with sections 4503.04 and 4905.03 and Chapter 4921. of 58874
the Revised Code, all local ordinances, resolutions, by laws, and 58875
rules in force shall cease to be operative as to the persons in 58876
compliance, except that such local subdivisions may make 58877
reasonable local police regulations within their respective 58878
boundaries not inconsistent with sections 4503.04 and 4905.03 and 58879
Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code. 58880

       Sec. 4921.21. (A) As used in this section, "adjusted credit 58881
amount" means the aggregate amount credited to the public 58882
utilities transportation safety fund, less the sum of all of the 58883
following:58884

       (1) The fees collected by the public utilities commission, in 58885
accordance with the unified carrier registration plan under 58886
section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, that exceed the federal 58887
certification of revenue for each year of the plan;58888

       (2) The fees collected by the commission on behalf of other 58889
states under division (C) of section 4921.15 of the Revised Code;58890

       (3) The forfeitures collected by the commission under section 58891
4923.99 of the Revised Code for violations of rules adopted under 58892
division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.58893

       (B)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 58894
public utilities transportation safety fund. The fees collected in 58895
accordance with the unified carrier registration plan under 58896
section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, the fees collected under 58897
section 4921.15 of the Revised Code, the taxes and fees remitted 58898
under section 4921.19 of the Revised Code, the forfeitures imposed 58899
under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code, except as provided in 58900
division (B)(2) of this section, and the fines collected under 58901
section 4163.07 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the 58902
state treasury to the credit of the public utilities 58903
transportation safety fund, until the adjusted credit amount in a 58904
fiscal year is equal to the total amount appropriated from the 58905
fund for the fiscal year. Once this point of parity is reached, 58906
any additional fees, taxes, forfeitures, or fines received during 58907
the fiscal year shall be credited to the general revenue fund, 58908
except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, and except 58909
for both of the following:58910

       (a) The fees collected in accordance with the unified carrier 58911
registration plan under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code, that 58912
exceed the federal certification of revenue for each year of the 58913
plan;58914

       (b) The fees collected on behalf of other states under 58915
division (C) of section 4921.15 of the Revised Code.58916

       (2) The first eight hundred thousand dollars of forfeitures 58917
collected under section 4923.99 of the Revised Code, for 58918
violations of rules adopted under division (A)(2) of section 58919
4923.04 of the Revised Code, during each fiscal year shall be 58920
credited to the public utilities transportation safety fund. Any 58921
forfeitures in excess of that amount shall be deposited into the 58922
general revenue fund. In each fiscal year, the commission shall 58923
distribute moneys from these forfeitures credited to the public 58924
utilities transportation safety fund for the purposes of emergency 58925
response planning and the training of safety, enforcement, and 58926
emergency services personnel in proper techniques for the 58927
management of hazardous materials releases that occur during 58928
transportation or otherwise. For these purposes, fifty per cent of 58929
all such moneys credited to the public utilities transportation 58930
safety fund shall be distributed to Cleveland state university, 58931
forty-five per cent shall be distributed to other educational 58932
institutions, state agencies, regional planning commissions, and 58933
political subdivisions, and five per cent shall be retained by the 58934
commission for the administration of this section and for training 58935
employees. However, if, in any such period, moneys from these 58936
forfeitures credited to the public utilities transportation safety 58937
fund equal an amount less than four hundred thousand dollars, the 58938
commission shall distribute, to the extent of the aggregate amount 58939
of those moneys, two hundred thousand dollars to Cleveland state 58940
university and the remainder to other educational institutions, 58941
state agencies, regional planning commissions, and political 58942
subdivisions.58943

       (C) The purpose of the public utilities transportation safety 58944
fund shall be for defraying all expenses incident to maintaining 58945
the nonrailroad transportation activities of the commission.58946

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the federal 58947
commercial vehicle transportation systems fund. The fund shall 58948
consist of money received from the United States department of 58949
transportation's commercial vehicle intelligent transportation 58950
systems infrastructure deployment program. The public utilities 58951
commission shall use the fund to deploy the Ohio commercial 58952
vehicle information systems networks project and to improve safety 58953
of motor carrier operations through electronic exchange of data.58954

       (E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the motor 58955
carrier safety fund. The fund shall consist of money received from 58956
the United States department of transportation for motor carrier 58957
safety. The commission shall use the fund to administer the 58958
state's motor carrier safety assistance program and associated 58959
grants, including the motor carrier safety assistance program 58960
basic grant, the incentive grant, the high priority grants, the 58961
new entrant safety assurance grant, the safety data improvement 58962
grant, or their equivalents.58963

       (F) If the director of budget and management determines there 58964
is not sufficient money in the public utilities transportation 58965
safety fund, the director shall transfer money from the general 58966
revenue fund to the public utilities transportation safety fund in 58967
an amount up to the difference between the balance of the public 58968
utilities transportation safety fund and the appropriations from 58969
that fund. If the director subsequently determines during the 58970
fiscal year that the balance of the public utilities 58971
transportation safety fund exceeds the amount needed to support 58972
the appropriations from the fund, the director shall transfer the 58973
excess money, up to the amount of the original transfer, to the 58974
general revenue fund.58975

       Sec. 4921.25. Any person, firm, copartnership, voluntary 58976
association, joint-stock association, company, or corporation, 58977
wherever organized or incorporated, that is engaged in the towing 58978
of motor vehicles is subject to regulation by the public utilities 58979
commission as a for-hire motor carrier under this chapter. Such an 58980
entity is not subject to any ordinance, rule, or resolution of a 58981
municipal corporation, county, or township that provides for the 58982
licensing, registering, or regulation of entities that tow motor 58983
vehicles.58984

       Sec. 4921.30.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 58985
4921.32 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code, a for-hire motor carrier 58986
engaged in the transportation of household goods in intrastate 58987
commerce:58988

       (A) Is subject to Chapter 4921. of the Revised Code and to 58989
all other provisions of the Revised Code applicable to a for-hire 58990
motor carrier, including sections 4506.22, 4511.78, 5502.01, 58991
5503.02, and 5503.34 of the Revised Code;58992

       (B) Is not a public utility as defined in section 4911.01 of 58993
the Revised Code.58994

       Sec. 4921.32.  Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter 58995
or Chapters 4901. to 4909. and 4923. of the Revised Code to the 58996
contrary:58997

       (A) Not later than six months after the effective date of 58998
this section, the public utilities commission, in accordance with 58999
sections 4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised Code, shall establish 59000
by order a certification system for for-hire motor carriers 59001
engaged in the transportation of household goods in intrastate 59002
commerce.59003

       (B) Beginning on the effective date of the order of the 59004
commission as initially issued under division (A) of this section, 59005
no for-hire motor carrier shall engage in the transportation of 59006
household goods in intrastate commerce without first holding a 59007
current and valid certificate for the transportation of household 59008
goods issued by the commission pursuant to sections 4921.30 to 59009
4921.38 of the Revised Code.59010

       Sec. 4921.34. (A) The public utilities commission shall 59011
approve an application for a certificate for the transportation of 59012
household goods under sections 4921.30 to 4921.38 of the Revised 59013
Code and shall issue a certificate, provided the applicant pays 59014
the applicable application fee under division (I) of section 59015
4921.19 of the Revised Code and submits to the commission a 59016
completed application, on a form prescribed by the commission, 59017
that is substantially the same as the application prescribed by 59018
the commission pursuant to section 4921.05 of the Revised Code, 59019
and includes a certification of all of the following by 59020
responsible officials of the applicant:59021

       (1) The applicant's workers' compensation coverage is current 59022
pursuant to Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.59023

       (2) The applicant's unemployment compensation coverage is 59024
current pursuant to Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code.59025

       (3) The applicant's financial responsibility is in accordance 59026
with rules adopted by the commission under section 4921.09 of the 59027
Revised Code.59028

       (B) The commission shall not approve any application that 59029
does not contain the proper certifications required by this 59030
section. The commission may revoke a certificate issued under 59031
division (A) of this section if, after at least fifteen days' 59032
advance notice to the certificate holder of the basis for such 59033
action and providing the holder with an opportunity for a hearing, 59034
the commission finds that the holder is not in compliance with 59035
this chapter, or rules adopted or orders issued under it.59036

       (C) A certificate issued under division (A) of this section 59037
is valid for one year and is renewable annually.59038

       Sec. 4921.36.  Each holder of a certificate for the 59039
transportation of household goods shall do all of the following:59040

       (A) Make its current certificate available for public 59041
inspection during normal business hours;59042

       (B) Present each of its customers with information, written 59043
in plain and clear language and pursuant to a form prescribed by 59044
the public utilities commission, outlining a consumer's rights;59045

       (C) Include its certificate number on all advertising, 59046
written estimates, and contracts, pursuant to rules adopted by the 59047
commission.59048

       Sec. 4921.38.  In accordance with sections 4921.30 to 4921.36 59049
of the Revised Code, the public utilities commission may adopt 59050
rules regarding any of the following:59051

       (A) Providing for binding estimates by for-hire motor 59052
carriers engaged in the transportation of household goods in 59053
intrastate commerce;59054

       (B) Providing for guaranteed-not-to-exceed estimates by those 59055
carriers;59056

       (C) Requiring those carriers to include their certificate 59057
number in all advertising, written estimates, and contracts 59058
related to the transportation of household goods in intrastate 59059
commerce;59060

       (D) As are necessary and proper to carry out this chapter 59061
with respect to those carriers;59062

       (E) Providing for the enforcement of the consumer protection 59063
provisions of Title 49 of the United States Code related to the 59064
delivery and transportation of household goods in interstate 59065
commerce, as permitted by 49 U.S.C. 14710.59066

       Sec. 4923.01.  As used in this chapter:59067

       (A) "Ambulance," "interstate commerce," "intrastate 59068
commerce," "motor vehicle," "public highway," "ridesharing 59069
arrangement," and "school bus" have the same meanings as in 59070
section 4921.01 of the Revised Code.59071

       (B) "For-hire motor carrier" means a person engaged in the 59072
business of transporting persons or property by motor vehicle for 59073
compensation, except when engaged in any of the following in 59074
intrastate commerce:59075

       (1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual 59076
taxicab service;59077

       (2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating 59078
to or from school sessions or school events;59079

       (3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm 59080
products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;59081

       (4) The distribution of newspapers;59082

       (5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to 59083
gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;59084

       (6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons 59085
by hearse or ambulance;59086

       (7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure 59087
and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;59088

       (8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing 59089
arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in 59090
such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of 59091
operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;59092

       (9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public 59093
road work.59094

       "For-hire motor carrier" includes the carrier's agents, 59095
officers, and representatives, as well as employees responsible 59096
for hiring, supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching 59097
drivers and employees concerned with the installation, inspection, 59098
and maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.59099

       Divisions (B)(1) to (9) of this section shall not be 59100
construed to relieve a person from compliance with rules adopted 59101
under division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code, 59102
division (E) of section 4923.06 of the Revised Code, division (B) 59103
of section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, and section 4923.11 of the 59104
Revised Code, or from compliance with rules regarding commercial 59105
driver's licenses adopted under division (A)(1) of section 4923.04 59106
of the Revised Code.59107

       (C) "Motor carrier" means both a for-hire motor carrier and a 59108
private motor carrier.59109

       (D) "Private motor carrier" means a person who is not a 59110
for-hire motor carrier but is engaged in the business of 59111
transporting persons or property by motor vehicle, except as 59112
provided in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code. "Private motor 59113
carrier" includes the carrier's agents, officers, and 59114
representatives, as well as employees responsible for hiring, 59115
supervising, training, assigning, or dispatching drivers and 59116
employees concerned with the installation, inspection, and 59117
maintenance of motor-vehicle equipment and accessories.59118

       Sec. 4923.02.  (A) As used in this chapter, "private motor 59119
carrier" does not include a person when engaged in any of the 59120
following in intrastate commerce:59121

       (1) The transportation of persons in taxicabs in the usual 59122
taxicab service;59123

       (2) The transportation of pupils in school busses operating 59124
to or from school sessions or school events;59125

       (3) The transportation of farm supplies to the farm or farm 59126
products from farm to market or to food fabricating plants;59127

       (4) The distribution of newspapers;59128

       (5) The transportation of crude petroleum incidental to 59129
gathering from wells and delivery to destination by pipe line;59130

       (6) The transportation of injured, ill, or deceased persons 59131
by hearse or ambulance; 59132

       (7) The transportation of compost (a combination of manure 59133
and sand or shredded bark mulch) or shredded bark mulch;59134

       (8) The transportation of persons in a ridesharing 59135
arrangement when any fee charged each person so transported is in 59136
such amount as to recover only the person's share of the costs of 59137
operating the motor vehicle for such purpose;59138

       (9) The operation of motor vehicles for contractors on public 59139
road work.59140

       (B) The public utilities commission may grant a motor carrier 59141
operating in intrastate commerce a temporary exemption from some 59142
or all of the provisions of this chapter and the rules adopted 59143
under it, when either of the following applies:59144

       (1) The governor of this state has declared an emergency.59145

       (2) The chairperson of the commission or the chairperson's 59146
designee has declared a transportation-specific emergency.59147

       (C) The commission may adopt rules not incompatible with the 59148
requirements of the United States department of transportation to 59149
provide exemptions to motor carriers operating in intrastate 59150
commerce not otherwise identified in divisions (A) and (B) of this 59151
section.59152

       (D) Divisions (A) to (C) of this section shall not be 59153
construed to relieve a person from compliance with either of the 59154
following:59155

       (1) Rules adopted under division (A)(2) of section 4923.04 of 59156
the Revised Code, division (E) of section 4923.06 of the Revised 59157
Code, division (B) of section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, and 59158
section 4923.11 of the Revised Code;59159

       (2) Rules regarding commercial driver's licenses adopted 59160
under division (A)(1) of section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.59161

       Sec. 4923.04.  (A)(1) The public utilities commission shall 59162
adopt rules applicable to the transportation of persons or 59163
property by motor carriers operating in interstate and intrastate 59164
commerce.59165

       (2) The commission shall adopt rules applicable to the 59166
highway transportation and offering for transportation of 59167
hazardous materials by motor carriers, and persons engaging in the 59168
highway transportation and offering for transportation of 59169
hazardous materials, operating in interstate or intrastate 59170
commerce. 59171

       (B) The rules adopted under division (A) of this section 59172
shall not be incompatible with the requirements of the United 59173
States department of transportation.59174

       (C) To achieve the purposes of this chapter and to assist the 59175
commission in the performance of any of its powers or duties, the 59176
commission, either through the public utilities commissioners or 59177
employees authorized by it, may do either or both of the 59178
following:59179

       (1) Apply for, and any judge of a court of record of 59180
competent jurisdiction may issue, an appropriate search warrant;59181

       (2) Examine under oath, at the offices of the commission, any 59182
officer, agent, or employee of any person subject to this chapter. 59183
The commission, by subpoena, also may compel the attendance of a 59184
witness for the purpose of the examination and, by subpoena duces 59185
tecum, may compel the production of all books, contracts, records, 59186
and documents that relate to the transportation and offering for 59187
transportation of hazardous materials.59188

       Sec. 4923.06. (A) The public utilities commission may, 59189
through the commission's inspectors or other authorized employees, 59190
enter in or upon any motor vehicle of any motor carrier, or any 59191
person engaging in the transportation of hazardous material or 59192
hazardous waste, to inspect the motor vehicle or driver subject to 59193
rules adopted under section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.59194

       (B) In order to assist the commission in performing its 59195
duties under this section, authorized employees of the state 59196
highway patrol of the department of public safety may conduct 59197
inspections of motor vehicles and drivers.59198

       (C) Inspectors and employees authorized to conduct 59199
inspections under divisions (A) and (B) of this section may, under 59200
the direction of the commission, stop motor vehicles to inspect 59201
those vehicles and drivers to enforce compliance with rules 59202
adopted under section 4923.04 of the Revised Code.59203

       (D) Inspectors and employees authorized to conduct 59204
inspections under divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall 59205
conduct inspections consistent with the North American standard 59206
inspection procedure of the commercial vehicle safety alliance and 59207
the standards of the United States department of transportation. 59208
The inspectors and employees may declare drivers and motor 59209
vehicles out-of-service consistent with this procedure and these 59210
standards.59211

       (E) The commission may adopt rules to carry out this section 59212
that are not incompatible with the requirements of the United 59213
States department of transportation.59214

       Sec. 4923.07. (A) The public utilities commission may, 59215
through the commission's inspectors or other authorized employees, 59216
enter in or upon the premises and motor vehicles of any motor 59217
carrier, or any person engaging in the transportation of hazardous 59218
material or hazardous waste, to examine any records, documents, or 59219
property for the purpose of assessing the safety, performance, and 59220
management controls associated with the carrier or person.59221

       (B) The commission may adopt rules to carry out this section 59222
that are not incompatible with the requirements of the United 59223
States department of transportation. 59224

       Sec. 4923.09. The public utilities commission shall cooperate 59225
with and permit the use of the services, records, and facilities 59226
of the commission as fully as practicable by appropriate officers 59227
of the United States department of transportation, other federal 59228
agencies or commissions, and appropriate commissions of other 59229
states in the enforcement and administration of state and federal 59230
laws relating to highway transportation by motor vehicles. The 59231
commission may enter into cooperative agreements with the United 59232
States department of transportation and any other federal agency 59233
or commission to enforce the safety laws and rules of this state 59234
and of the United States concerning highway transportation by 59235
motor vehicles. All grants-in-aid, cash, and reimbursements 59236
received by the commission pursuant to those cooperative 59237
agreements shall be deposited to the credit of the motor carrier 59238
safety fund created under section 4921.21 of the Revised Code.59239

       Sec. 4923.11. The public utilities commission may adopt rules 59240
applicable to the highway routing of hazardous materials into, 59241
through, or within this state. Rules adopted under this section 59242
shall not be incompatible with requirements of the United States 59243
department of transportation.59244

       Sec. 4923.15.  Proceedings of the public utilities commission 59245
for the assessment of forfeitures for violations of Chapters 4921. 59246
and 4923. of the Revised Code are subject to and governed by 59247
section 4923.99 of the Revised Code. In all other respects in 59248
which the commission has power and authority under Chapters 4921. 59249
and 4923. of the Revised Code, applications and complaints may be 59250
made and filed with the commission, processes may be issued, 59251
hearings may be held, opinions, orders, and decisions may be made 59252
and filed, petitions for rehearing may be filed and acted upon, 59253
and all proceedings before the supreme court of this state may be 59254
considered and disposed of by that court in the manner, under the 59255
conditions, subject to the limitations, and with the effect 59256
specified in the sections of the Revised Code governing the 59257
supervision of public utilities by the commission.59258

       Sec. 4923.99.  (A)(1) Whoever violates Chapter 4921. or 4923. 59259
of the Revised Code is liable to the state for a forfeiture of not 59260
more than twenty-five thousand dollars for each day of each 59261
violation. The public utilities commission, after providing 59262
reasonable notice and the opportunity for a hearing in accordance 59263
with the procedural rules adopted under section 4901.13 of the 59264
Revised Code, shall assess, by order, a forfeiture upon a person 59265
whom the commission determines, by a preponderance of the 59266
evidence, committed the violation. In determining the amount of 59267
the forfeiture for a violation discovered during a driver or 59268
motor-vehicle inspection under section 4923.06 of the Revised 59269
Code, the commission shall, to the extent practicable, not act in 59270
a manner incompatible with the requirements of the United States 59271
department of transportation, and, to the extent practicable, 59272
shall utilize a system comparable to the recommended civil-penalty 59273
procedure adopted by the commercial vehicle safety alliance. In 59274
determining the amount of the forfeiture for a violation 59275
discovered during a compliance review of a motor carrier under 59276
section 4923.07 of the Revised Code, the commission shall, to the 59277
extent practicable, not act in a manner incompatible with the 59278
civil-penalty guidelines of the United States department of 59279
transportation.59280

       The attorney general, upon the written request of the 59281
commission, shall bring a civil action in the court of common 59282
pleas of Franklin county to collect a forfeiture assessed under 59283
this section. The commission shall account for the forfeitures 59284
collected under this section and pay them to the treasurer of 59285
state under section 4921.21 of the Revised Code.59286

       (2) The attorney general, upon the written request of the 59287
commission, shall bring an action for injunctive relief in the 59288
court of common pleas of Franklin county against any person who 59289
has violated or is violating any order issued by the commission to 59290
secure compliance with any provision of Chapter 4921. or 4923. of 59291
the Revised Code. The court of common pleas of Franklin county has 59292
jurisdiction to and may grant preliminary and permanent injunctive 59293
relief upon a showing that the person against whom the action is 59294
brought has violated or is violating any such order. The court 59295
shall give precedence to such an action over all other cases.59296

       (B) The amount of any forfeiture may be compromised at any 59297
time prior to collection of the forfeiture. The commission shall 59298
adopt rules governing the manner in which the amount of a 59299
forfeiture may be established by agreement prior to the hearing on 59300
the forfeiture before the commission.59301

       (C) The proceedings of the commission specified in division 59302
(A) of this section are subject to and governed by Chapter 4903. 59303
of the Revised Code, except as otherwise specifically provided in 59304
this section. The court of appeals of Franklin county has 59305
exclusive, original jurisdiction to review, modify, or vacate an 59306
order of the commission issued to secure compliance with any 59307
provision of Chapter 4921. or 4923. of the Revised Code. The court 59308
of appeals shall hear and determine those appeals in the same 59309
manner, and under the same standards, as the supreme court hears 59310
and determines appeals under Chapter 4903. of the Revised Code. 59311
The judgment of the court of appeals is final and conclusive 59312
unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such appeals may 59313
be taken either by the commission or the person to whom the 59314
compliance order or forfeiture assessment was issued and shall 59315
proceed as in the case of appeals in civil actions as provided in 59316
the rules of appellate procedure and Chapter 2505. of the Revised 59317
Code.59318

       (D) Section 4903.11 of the Revised Code does not apply to an 59319
appeal of an order issued to secure compliance with Chapter 4921. 59320
or 4923. of the Revised Code or an order issued under division 59321
(A)(1) of this section assessing a forfeiture. Any person to whom 59322
any such order is issued who wishes to contest a compliance order, 59323
the fact of the violation, or the amount of the forfeiture shall 59324
file a notice of appeal, setting forth the order appealed from and 59325
the errors complained of, within sixty days after the entry of the 59326
order upon the journal of the commission. The notice of appeal 59327
shall be served, unless waived, upon the chairperson of the 59328
commission or, in the event of the chairperson's absence, upon any 59329
public utilities commissioner, or by leaving a copy at the office 59330
of the commission at Columbus. An order issued by the commission 59331
to secure compliance with Chapter 4921. or 4923. of the Revised 59332
Code or an order issued under division (A)(1) of this section 59333
assessing a forfeiture shall be reversed, vacated, or modified on 59334
appeal if, upon consideration of the record, the court is of the 59335
opinion that the order was unlawful or unreasonable.59336

       (E) Only for such violations that constitute violations of 59337
the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 59338
1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 U.S.C.A. App. 1804 and 1805, or 59339
regulations adopted under the act, the commission, in determining 59340
liability, shall use the same standard of culpability for civil 59341
forfeitures under this section as that set forth for civil 59342
penalties under section 12 of the "Hazardous Materials 59343
Transportation Uniform Safety Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 3244, 49 59344
U.S.C.A. App. 1809. The commission shall consider the assessment 59345
considerations for civil penalties specified in regulations 59346
adopted under the "Hazardous Materials Transportation Act," 88 59347
Stat. 2156 (1975), 49 U.S.C. 1801.59348

       Sec. 4927.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:59349

       (1) "Basic local exchange service" means residential-end-user 59350
access to and usage of telephone-company-provided services over a 59351
single line or small-business-end-user access to and usage of 59352
telephone-company-provided services over the primary access line 59353
of service, which in the case of residential and small-business 59354
access and usage is not part of a bundle or package of services, 59355
that does both of the following:59356

       (a) Enables a customer to originate or receive voice 59357
communications within a local service area as that area exists on 59358
September 13, 2010, the effective date of the amendment of this 59359
section by S.B. 162 of the 128th general assembly;59360

       (b) Consists of all of the following services:59361

       (i) Local dial tone service;59362

       (ii) For residential end users, flat-rate telephone exchange 59363
service;59364

       (iii) Touch tone dialing service;59365

       (iv) Access to and usage of 9-1-1 services, where such 59366
services are available;59367

       (v) Access to operator services and directory assistance;59368

       (vi) Provision of a telephone directory in any reasonable 59369
format for no additional charge and a listing in that directory, 59370
with reasonable accommodations made for private listings;59371

       (vii) Per call, caller identification blocking services;59372

       (viii) Access to telecommunications relay service; and59373

       (ix) Access to toll presubscription, interexchange or toll 59374
providers or both, and networks of other telephone companies.59375

       (2) "Bundle or package of services" means one or more 59376
telecommunications services or other services offered together as 59377
one service option at a single price.59378

       (3) "Carrier access" means access to and usage of telephone 59379
company-provided facilities that enable end user customers 59380
originating or receiving voice grade, data, or image 59381
communications, over a local exchange telephone company network 59382
operated within a local service area, to access interexchange or 59383
other networks and includes special access.59384

       (4) "Federal poverty level" means the income level 59385
represented by the poverty guidelines as revised annually by the 59386
United States department of health and human services in 59387
accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Reconciliation Act 59388
of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family 59389
size equal to the size of the family of the person whose income is 59390
being determined.59391

        (5) "Incumbent local exchange carrier" means, with respect to 59392
an area, the local exchange carrier that:59393

        (a) On February 8, 1996, provided telephone exchange service 59394
in such area; and59395

        (b)(i) On February 8, 1996, was deemed to be a member of the 59396
exchange carrier association pursuant to 47 C.F.R. 69.601(b); or59397

        (ii) Is a person or entity that, on or after February 8, 59398
1996, became a successor or assign of a member described in 59399
division (A)(5)(b)(i) of this section.59400

        (6) "Internet protocol-enabled services" means any services, 59401
capabilities, functionalities, or applications that are provided 59402
using internet protocol or a successor protocol to enable an end 59403
user to send or receive communications in internet protocol format 59404
or a successor format, regardless of how any particular such 59405
service is classified by the federal communications commission, 59406
and includes voice over internet protocol service.59407

        (7) "Local exchange carrier" means any person engaged in the 59408
provision of telephone exchange service, or the offering of access 59409
to telephone exchange service or facilities for the purpose of 59410
originating or terminating telephone toll service.59411

        (8) "Local service area" means the geographic area that may 59412
encompass more than one exchange area and within which a telephone 59413
customer, by paying the rate for basic local exchange service, may 59414
complete calls to other telephone customers without being assessed 59415
long distance toll charges.59416

       (9) "Small business" means a nonresidential service customer 59417
with three or fewer service access lines.59418

       (10) "Telecommunications" means the transmission, between or 59419
among points specified by the user, of information of the user's 59420
choosing, without change in the form or content of the information 59421
as sent and received.59422

       (11) "Telecommunications carrier" has the same meaning as in 59423
the "Telecommunications Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 60, 47 U.S.C. 153.59424

       (12) "Telecommunications service" means the offering of 59425
telecommunications for a fee directly to the public, or to such 59426
classes of users as to be effectively available directly to the 59427
public, regardless of the facilities used.59428

       (13) "Telephone company" means a company described in 59429
division (A)(1) of section 4905.03 of the Revised Code that is a 59430
public utility under section 4905.02 of the Revised Code.59431

       (14) "Telephone exchange service" means telecommunications 59432
service that is within a telephone exchange, or within a connected 59433
system of telephone exchanges within the same exchange area 59434
operated to furnish to subscribers intercommunicating service of 59435
the character ordinarily furnished by a single exchange, and that 59436
is covered by the exchange service charge; or comparable service 59437
provided through a system of switches, transmission equipment, or 59438
other facilities, or combination thereof, by which a customer can 59439
originate and terminate a telecommunications service.59440

       (15) "Telephone toll service" means telephone service between 59441
stations in different exchange areas for which there is made a 59442
separate charge not included in contracts with customers for 59443
exchange service.59444

       (16) "Voice over internet protocol service" means a service 59445
that uses a broadband connection from an end user's location and 59446
enables real-time, two-way, voice communications that originate or 59447
terminate from the user's location using internet protocol or a 59448
successor protocol, including, but not limited to, any such 59449
service that permits an end user to receive calls from and 59450
terminate calls to the public switched network.59451

       (17) "Wireless service" means federally licensed commercial 59452
mobile service as defined in the "Telecommunications Act of 1996," 59453
110 Stat. 61, 151, 153, 47 U.S.C. 332(d) and further defined as 59454
commercial mobile radio service in 47 C.F.R. 20.3. Under division 59455
(A)(17) of this section, commercial mobile radio service is 59456
specifically limited to mobile telephone, mobile cellular 59457
telephone, paging, personal communications services, and 59458
specialized mobile radio service provided by a common carrier in 59459
this state and excludes fixed wireless service.59460

       (18) "Wireless service provider" means a facilities-based 59461
provider of wireless service to one or more end users in this 59462
state.59463

       (B) The definitions of this section shall be applied 59464
consistent with the definitions in the "Telecommunications Act of 59465
1996," 110 Stat. 56, 47 U.S.C. 151 et seq., as amended, and with 59466
federal decisions interpreting those definitions.59467

       Sec. 4929.01.  As used in this chapter:59468

       (A) "Alternative rate plan" means a method, alternate to the 59469
method of section 4909.15 of the Revised Code, for establishing 59470
rates and charges, under which rates and charges may be 59471
established for a commodity sales service or ancillary service 59472
that is not exempt pursuant to section 4929.04 of the Revised Code 59473
or for a distribution service. Alternative rate plans may include, 59474
but are not limited to, methods that provide adequate and reliable 59475
natural gas services and goods in this state; minimize the costs 59476
and time expended in the regulatory process; tend to assess the 59477
costs of any natural gas service or goods to the entity, service, 59478
or goods that cause such costs to be incurred; afford rate 59479
stability; promote and reward efficiency, quality of service, or 59480
cost containment by a natural gas company; provide sufficient 59481
flexibility and incentives to the natural gas industry to achieve 59482
high quality, technologically advanced, and readily available 59483
natural gas services and goods at just and reasonable rates and 59484
charges; or establish revenue decoupling mechanisms. Alternative 59485
rate plans also may include, but are not limited to, automatic 59486
adjustments based on a specified index or changes in a specified 59487
cost or costs.59488

       (B) "Ancillary service" means a service that is ancillary to 59489
the receipt or delivery of natural gas to consumers, including, 59490
but not limited to, storage, pooling, balancing, and transmission.59491

       (C) "Commodity sales service" means the sale of natural gas 59492
to consumers, exclusive of any distribution or ancillary service.59493

       (D) "Comparable service" means any regulated service or goods 59494
whose availability, quality, price, terms, and conditions are the 59495
same as or better than those of the services or goods that the 59496
natural gas company provides to a person with which it is 59497
affiliated or which it controls, or, as to any consumer, that the 59498
natural gas company offers to that consumer as part of a bundled 59499
service that includes both regulated and exempt services or goods.59500

       (E) "Consumer" means any person or association of persons 59501
purchasing, delivering, storing, or transporting, or seeking to 59502
purchase, deliver, store, or transport, natural gas, including 59503
industrial consumers, commercial consumers, and residential 59504
consumers, but not including natural gas companies.59505

       (F) "Distribution service" means the delivery of natural gas 59506
to a consumer at the consumer's facilities, by and through the 59507
instrumentalities and facilities of a natural gas company, 59508
regardless of the party having title to the natural gas.59509

       (G) "Natural gas company" means a natural gas company, as 59510
defined in section 4905.03 of the Revised Code, that is a public 59511
utility as defined in section 4905.02 of the Revised Code and 59512
excludes a retail natural gas supplier.59513

       (H) "Person," except as provided in division (N) of this 59514
section, has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the Revised 59515
Code, and includes this state and any political subdivision, 59516
agency, or other instrumentality of this state and includes the 59517
United States and any agency or other instrumentality of the 59518
United States.59519

       (I) "Billing or collection agent" means a fully independent 59520
agent, not affiliated with or otherwise controlled by a retail 59521
natural gas supplier or governmental aggregator subject to 59522
certification under section 4929.20 of the Revised Code, to the 59523
extent that the agent is under contract with such supplier or 59524
aggregator solely to provide billing and collection for 59525
competitive retail natural gas service on behalf of the supplier 59526
or aggregator.59527

       (J) "Competitive retail natural gas service" means any retail 59528
natural gas service that may be competitively offered to consumers 59529
in this state as a result of revised schedules approved under 59530
division (C) of section 4929.29 of the Revised Code, a rule or 59531
order adopted or issued by the public utilities commission under 59532
Chapter 4905. of the Revised Code, or an exemption granted by the 59533
commission under sections 4929.04 to 4929.08 of the Revised Code.59534

       (K) "Governmental aggregator" means either of the following:59535

       (1) A legislative authority of a municipal corporation, a 59536
board of township trustees, or a board of county commissioners 59537
acting exclusively under section 4929.26 or 4929.27 of the Revised 59538
Code as an aggregator for the provision of competitive retail 59539
natural gas service;59540

       (2) A municipal corporation acting exclusively under Section 59541
4 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, as an aggregator for the 59542
provision of competitive retail natural gas service.59543

       (L)(1) "Mercantile customer" means a customer that consumes, 59544
other than for residential use, more than five hundred thousand 59545
cubic feet of natural gas per year at a single location within 59546
this state or consumes natural gas, other than for residential 59547
use, as part of an undertaking having more than three locations 59548
within or outside of this state. "Mercantile customer" excludes a 59549
customer for which a declaration under division (L)(2) of this 59550
section is in effect pursuant to that division.59551

       (2) A not-for-profit customer that consumes, other than for 59552
residential use, more than five hundred thousand cubic feet of 59553
natural gas per year at a single location within this state or 59554
consumes natural gas, other than for residential use, as part of 59555
an undertaking having more than three locations within or outside 59556
this state may file a declaration under division (L)(2) of this 59557
section with the public utilities commission. The declaration 59558
shall take effect upon the date of filing, and by virtue of the 59559
declaration, the customer is not a mercantile customer for the 59560
purposes of this section and sections 4929.20 to 4929.29 of the 59561
Revised Code or the purposes of a governmental natural gas 59562
aggregation or arrangement or other contract entered into after 59563
the declaration's effective date for the supply or arranging of 59564
the supply of natural gas to the customer to a location within 59565
this state. The customer may file a rescission of the declaration 59566
with the commission at any time. The rescission shall not affect 59567
any governmental natural gas aggregation or arrangement or other 59568
contract entered into by the customer prior to the date of the 59569
filing of the rescission and shall have effect only with respect 59570
to any subsequent such aggregation or arrangement or other 59571
contract. The commission shall prescribe rules under section 59572
4929.10 of the Revised Code specifying the form of the declaration 59573
or a rescission and procedures by which a declaration or 59574
rescission may be filed.59575

       (M) "Retail natural gas service" means commodity sales 59576
service, ancillary service, natural gas aggregation service, 59577
natural gas marketing service, or natural gas brokerage service.59578

       (N) "Retail natural gas supplier" means any person, as 59579
defined in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, that is engaged on a 59580
for-profit or not-for-profit basis in the business of supplying or 59581
arranging for the supply of a competitive retail natural gas 59582
service to consumers in this state that are not mercantile 59583
customers. "Retail natural gas supplier" includes a marketer, 59584
broker, or aggregator, but excludes a natural gas company, a 59585
governmental aggregator as defined in division (K)(1) or (2) of 59586
this section, an entity described in division (B)(A)(2) or (C)(3)59587
of section 4905.02 of the Revised Code, or a billing or collection 59588
agent, and excludes a producer or gatherer of gas to the extent 59589
such producer or gatherer is not a natural gas company under 59590
section 4905.03 of the Revised Code.59591

       (O) "Revenue decoupling mechanism" means a rate design or 59592
other cost recovery mechanism that provides recovery of the fixed 59593
costs of service and a fair and reasonable rate of return, 59594
irrespective of system throughput or volumetric sales.59595

       Sec. 4929.02.  (A) It is the policy of this state to, 59596
throughout this state:59597

       (1) Promote the availability to consumers of adequate, 59598
reliable, and reasonably priced natural gas services and goods;59599

       (2) Promote the availability of unbundled and comparable 59600
natural gas services and goods that provide wholesale and retail 59601
consumers with the supplier, price, terms, conditions, and quality 59602
options they elect to meet their respective needs;59603

       (3) Promote diversity of natural gas supplies and suppliers, 59604
by giving consumers effective choices over the selection of those 59605
supplies and suppliers;59606

       (4) Encourage innovation and market access for cost-effective 59607
supply- and demand-side natural gas services and goods;59608

       (5) Encourage cost-effective and efficient access to 59609
information regarding the operation of the distribution systems of 59610
natural gas companies in order to promote effective customer 59611
choice of natural gas services and goods;59612

       (6) Recognize the continuing emergence of competitive natural 59613
gas markets through the development and implementation of flexible 59614
regulatory treatment;59615

       (7) Promote an expeditious transition to the provision of 59616
natural gas services and goods in a manner that achieves effective 59617
competition and transactions between willing buyers and willing 59618
sellers to reduce or eliminate the need for regulation of natural 59619
gas services and goods under Chapters 4905. and 4909. of the 59620
Revised Code;59621

       (8) Promote effective competition in the provision of natural 59622
gas services and goods by avoiding subsidies flowing to or from 59623
regulated natural gas services and goods;59624

       (9) Ensure that the risks and rewards of a natural gas 59625
company's offering of nonjurisdictional and exempt services and 59626
goods do not affect the rates, prices, terms, or conditions of 59627
nonexempt, regulated services and goods of a natural gas company 59628
and do not affect the financial capability of a natural gas 59629
company to comply with the policy of this state specified in this 59630
section;59631

       (10) Facilitate the state's competitiveness in the global 59632
economy;59633

       (11) Facilitate additional choices for the supply of natural 59634
gas for residential consumers, including aggregation;59635

       (12) Promote an alignment of natural gas company interests 59636
with consumer interest in energy efficiency and energy 59637
conservation.59638

       (B) The public utilities commission and the office of the 59639
consumers' counsel shall follow the policy specified in this 59640
section in exercising their respective authorities relative to 59641
sections 4929.03 to 4929.30 of the Revised Code.59642

       (C) Nothing in Chapter 4929. of the Revised Code shall be 59643
construed to alter the public utilities commission's construction 59644
or application of division (A)(5)(E) of section 4905.03 of the 59645
Revised Code.59646

       Sec. 4929.041.  (A) As used in this section, "regulatory 59647
exemption" means an exemption from all provisions of Chapter 4905. 59648
of the Revised Code with the exception of sections 4905.10, 59649
4905.35, and 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the Revised Code, Chapters 59650
4909., 4933., and 4935. of the Revised Code, with the exception of 59651
section 4935.03 of the Revised Code, and from any rule or order 59652
issued under the exempted provisions of those chapters.59653

        (B) The public utilities commission, upon thean application 59654
offiled under section 4909.18 of the Revised Code by a natural 59655
gas company in substantial compliance with the policy specified in 59656
section 4929.02 of the Revised Code, shall exemptgrant a 59657
regulatory exemption, by order, any investmentfor either or both 59658
of the following:59659

       (1) Any investments in gathering lines or storage or 59660
gathering facilities placed into service on or after January 1, 59661
2010, and also any service of the natural gas company related to 59662
those gathering lines or storage facilities from all provisions 59663
of Chapter 4905. of the Revised Code with the exception of 59664
sections 4905.10, 4905.35, and 4905.90 to 4905.96 of the Revised 59665
Code, Chapters 4909., 4933., and 4935. of the Revised Code, with 59666
the exception of section 4935.03 of the Revised Code, and from any 59667
rule or order issued under the exempted provisions of those 59668
chapters;59669

       (2) Any investments in gathering facilities placed into 59670
service before January 1, 2010, and also any service of the 59671
natural gas company related to those facilities.59672

        (C)(1) A natural gas company requesting a regulatory 59673
exemption under division (B)(2) of this section shall identify in 59674
the application both of the following:59675

        (a) The valuation of the investments to be exempted, as 59676
determined under division (A)(1) of section 4909.15 of the Revised 59677
Code, in the rate case proceeding that established the company's 59678
rates in effect at the time of the filing of the application 59679
requesting the regulatory exemption;59680

        (b) The valuation of all nonexempt investments placed into 59681
service after the date certain used in the rate case proceeding 59682
described in division (C)(1)(a) of this section, excluding 59683
investments for which deferral or recovery is authorized under 59684
section 4909.18, 4929.05, or 4929.111 of the Revised Code.59685

        (2) The commission shall compare the valuations identified in 59686
divisions (C)(1)(a) and (b) of this section.59687

        (a) If the valuation identified in division (C)(1)(a) of this 59688
section exceeds the valuation identified in division (C)(1)(b) of 59689
this section, the commission shall, in addition to the adjustments 59690
needed to implement the regulatory exemption, reduce the gross 59691
annual revenues to which the utility is entitled under division 59692
(B) of section 4909.15 of the Revised Code by applying the rate of 59693
return, as determined under division (A)(2) of section 4909.15 of 59694
the Revised Code in the rate case proceeding in which the 59695
regulatory exemption is being sought, to the difference in the two 59696
valuations.59697

        (b) If the valuation identified in division (C)(1)(a) of this 59698
section does not exceed the valuation identified in division 59699
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the commission shall make no 59700
adjustments beyond those needed to implement the regulatory 59701
exemption.59702

       (B)(D)(1) Subject to division (C)(E) of this section, a 59703
natural gas company subject to ana regulatory exemption order 59704
issued under division (A) of this section shall, to the maximum 59705
extent practicable, keep separate the company's operations, 59706
resources, and employees, and the associated books and records, 59707
involved in the provision or marketing of a company-provided 59708
service related to an investment exempted under the regulatory59709
exemption order from the operations, resources, and employees, and 59710
the associated books and records, involved in the provision or 59711
marketing of any company-provided service not exempted under the 59712
regulatory exemption order or any other section of the Revised 59713
Code.59714

        (2) An order granting regulatory exemption order issued under 59715
division (A) of this section shall prescribe a functional 59716
separation plan for compliance with division (B)(D)(1) of this 59717
section.59718

        (C)(E)(1) No natural gas company subject to ana regulatory59719
exemption order issued under division (A) of this section may use 59720
the company's storage facilities andor gathering lines59721
facilities associated with the regulatory exemption order to 59722
provide a commodity sales service that is unregulated or subject 59723
to an exemption order issued under section 4929.04 of the Revised 59724
Code.59725

        (2) Upon application to the commission by a natural gas 59726
company and upon a finding of good cause shown, the commission 59727
may, by order, waive the prohibition described in division 59728
(C)(E)(1) of this section. The natural gas company shall bear the 59729
burden of proof that the waiver is just and reasonable, which 59730
shall constitute good cause.59731

        (D)(F) The commission shall have continuous jurisdiction to 59732
enforce any terms that it imposes in ana regulatory exemption 59733
order issued under division (A) of this section. Whenever the 59734
commission is of the opinion, after hearing had upon complaint or 59735
upon its own initiative or complaint, served as provided in 59736
section 4905.26 of the Revised Code, that ana regulatory59737
exemption order issued under division (A) of this section has 59738
adversely affected the quality, adequacy, or sufficiency of 59739
service provided by the company subject to the regulatory59740
exemption order, the commission may alter, amend, or suspend the 59741
regulatory exemption order.59742

       Sec. 4933.18.  (A) In a prosecution for a theft offense, as 59743
defined in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, that involves 59744
alleged tampering with a gas, electric, steam, or water meter, 59745
conduit, or attachment of a utility that has been disconnected by 59746
the utility, proof that a meter, conduit, or attachment of a 59747
utility has been tampered with is prima-facie evidence that the 59748
person who is obligated to pay for the service rendered through 59749
the meter, conduit, or attachment and is in possession or control 59750
of the meter, conduit, or attachment at the time the tampering 59751
occurred has caused the tampering with intent to commit a theft 59752
offense.59753

       In a prosecution for a theft offense, as defined in section 59754
2913.01 of the Revised Code, that involves the alleged 59755
reconnection of a gas, electric, steam, or water meter, conduit, 59756
or attachment of a utility that has been disconnected by the 59757
utility, proof that a meter, conduit, or attachment disconnected 59758
by a utility has been reconnected without the consent of the 59759
utility is prima-facie evidence that the person in possession or 59760
control of the meter, conduit, or attachment at the time of the 59761
reconnection has reconnected the meter, conduit, or attachment 59762
with intent to commit a theft offense.59763

       (B) As used in this section:59764

       (1) "Utility" means any electric light company, gas company, 59765
natural gas company, pipe-line company, water-works company, or 59766
heating or cooling company, as defined by division (A)(3), (4), 59767
(5), (6), (7)(C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (8)(H) of section 4905.03 59768
of the Revised Code, its lessees, trustees, or receivers, or any 59769
similar utility owned or operated by a political subdivision.59770

       (2) "Tamper" means to interfere with, damage, or by-pass a 59771
utility meter, conduit, or attachment with the intent to impede 59772
the correct registration of a meter or the proper functions of a 59773
conduit or attachment so as to reduce the amount of utility 59774
service that is registered on the meter.59775

       Sec. 4933.19.  Each electric light company, gas company, 59776
natural gas company, pipe-line company, water-works company, or 59777
heating or cooling company, as defined by division (A)(3), (4), 59778
(5), (6), (7),(C), (D), (E), (F), (G), or (8)(H) of section 59779
4905.03 of the Revised Code, or its lessees, trustees, or 59780
receivers, and each similar utility owned or operated by a 59781
political subdivision shall notify its customers, on an annual 59782
basis, that tampering with or bypassing a meter constitutes a 59783
theft offense that could result in the imposition of criminal 59784
sanctions.59785

       Sec. 4939.01. As used in sections 4939.01 to 4939.08 of the 59786
Revised Code:59787

       (A) "Cable operator," "cable service," and "franchise" have 59788
the same meanings as in the "Cable Communications Policy Act of 59789
1984," 98 Stat. 2779, 47 U.S.C.A. 522.59790

       (B) "Occupy or use" means, with respect to a public way, to 59791
place a tangible thing in a public way for any purpose, including, 59792
but not limited to, constructing, repairing, positioning, 59793
maintaining, or operating lines, poles, pipes, conduits, ducts, 59794
equipment, or other structures, appurtenances, or facilities 59795
necessary for the delivery of public utility services or any 59796
services provided by a cable operator.59797

       (C) "Person" means any natural person, corporation, or 59798
partnership and also includes any governmental entity.59799

       (D) "Public utility" means any company described in section 59800
4905.03 of the Revised Code except in divisions (A)(2)(B) and 59801
(9)(I) of that section, which company also is a public utility as 59802
defined in section 4905.02 of the Revised Code; and includes any 59803
electric supplier as defined in section 4933.81 of the Revised 59804
Code.59805

       (E) "Public way" means the surface of, and the space within, 59806
through, on, across, above, or below, any public street, public 59807
road, public highway, public freeway, public lane, public path, 59808
public alley, public court, public sidewalk, public boulevard, 59809
public parkway, public drive, and any other land dedicated or 59810
otherwise designated for a compatible public use, which, on or 59811
after the effective date of this sectionJuly 2, 2002, is owned or 59812
controlled by a municipal corporation. "Public way" excludes a 59813
private easement.59814

       (F) "Public way fee" means a fee levied to recover the costs 59815
incurred by a municipal corporation and associated with the 59816
occupancy or use of a public way.59817

       Sec. 4953.04.  No union terminal company or corporation shall 59818
engage in the business of a for-hire motor transportation service59819
carrier, as defined in sections 4905.03, 4921.02, and 4923.0259820
4921.01 of the Revised Code, over any public highway in this 59821
state, without obtaining authority from the public utilities 59822
commission, and complying with all laws governing every 59823
corporation or company when engaged or proposing to engage in such59824
the business of a for-hire motor transportation servicecarrier.59825

       Sec. 4961.03.  Any railroad company owning or operating a 59826
railroad in this state may own, control, operate, or manage motor 59827
vehicles for the purpose of transporting persons or property, or 59828
both, upon the public highways for hire, subject to sections 59829
4921.02 to 4921.32, inclusive,Chapters 4921. and 4923. of the 59830
Revised Code. Any railroad company may also own and operate 59831
equipment for and engage in the business of aerial transportation. 59832
Any railroad company may acquire, own, and hold capital stock and 59833
securities of corporations organized for or engaged in the 59834
businesses authorized in this section and may operate the 59835
properties, or any part thereof, of such corporations, and may 59836
enter into working arrangements and agreements with such 59837
corporations.59838

       Sec. 4965.54.  Any common carrier, railroad, or 59839
transportation companymotor carrier receiving property at a point 59840
within this state for transportation to a point within this state, 59841
shall issue a receipt or bill of lading for such property and is 59842
liable to the lawful holder of it for any loss, damage, or injury 59843
to such property caused by it or by any common carrier, railroad, 59844
or transportation company to which such property is delivered or 59845
over whose line such property passes. No contract, receipt, rule, 59846
or regulation shall exempt such common carrier, railroad, or 59847
transportation companymotor carrier from the liability imposed by 59848
this section. This section does not deprive any holder of such 59849
receipt or bill of lading of any remedy or right of action which 59850
hethe holder has under existing law.59851

       The common carrier, railroad, or transportation companymotor 59852
carrier issuing such receipt or bill of lading may recover from 59853
the common carrier, railroad, or transportation companymotor 59854
carrier on whose line the loss, damage, or injury was sustained 59855
the amount of such loss, damage, or injury it is required to pay 59856
the owners of such property as is evidenced by any receipt, 59857
judgment, or transcript thereof.59858

       As used in this section, "motor carrier" has the same meaning 59859
as in section 4923.01 of the Revised Code.59860

       Sec. 5101.01. (A) As used in the Revised Code, the 59861
"department of public welfare" and the "department of human 59862
services" mean the department of job and family services and the 59863
"director of public welfare" and the "director of human services" 59864
mean the director of job and family services. Whenever the 59865
department or director of public welfare or the department or 59866
director of human services is referred to or designated in any 59867
statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the reference 59868
or designation shall be deemed to refer to the department or 59869
director of job and family services, as the case may be.59870

       (B) As used in this chapter of the Revised Code:59871

        (1) References to counties or to a county departments59872
department of job and family services include thea joint county 59873
department of job and family services established under section 59874
329.40 of the Revised Code.59875

        (2) References to boardsa board of county commissioners 59876
include boardsthe board of directors of thea joint county59877
department of job and family services established under section 59878
329.40 of the Revised Code.59879

       Sec. 5101.46.  (A) As used in this section:59880

       (1) "Title XX" means Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 59881
88 Stat. 2337 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397, as amended.59882

       (2) "Respective local agency" means, with respect to the 59883
department of job and family services, a county department of job 59884
and family services; with respect to the department of mental 59885
health, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 59886
services; and with respect to the department of developmental 59887
disabilities, a county board of developmental disabilities.59888

       (3) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty guidelines 59889
as revised annually by the United States department of health and 59890
human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus 59891
Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 59892
9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of the 59893
family of the person whose income is being determined.59894

       (B) The departments of job and family services, mental 59895
health, and developmental disabilities, with their respective 59896
local agencies, shall administer the provision of social services 59897
funded through grants made under Title XX. The social services 59898
furnished with Title XX funds shall be directed at the following 59899
goals:59900

       (1) Achieving or maintaining economic self-support to 59901
prevent, reduce, or eliminate dependency;59902

       (2) Achieving or maintaining self-sufficiency, including 59903
reduction or prevention of dependency;59904

       (3) Preventing or remedying neglect, abuse, or exploitation 59905
of children and adults unable to protect their own interests, or 59906
preserving, rehabilitating, or reuniting families;59907

       (4) Preventing or reducing inappropriate institutional care 59908
by providing for community-based care, home-based care, or other 59909
forms of less intensive care;59910

       (5) Securing referral or admission for institutional care 59911
when other forms of care are not appropriate, or providing 59912
services to individuals in institutions.59913

       (C)(1) All federal funds received under Title XX shall be 59914
appropriated as follows:59915

       (a) Seventy-two and one-half per cent to the department of 59916
job and family services;59917

       (b) Twelve and ninety-three one-hundrethsone-hundredths per 59918
cent to the department of mental health;59919

       (c) Fourteen and fifty-seven one-hundrethsone-hundredths per 59920
cent to the department of developmental disabilities.59921

       (2) Each of the state departments shall, subject to the 59922
approval of the controlling board, develop a formula for the 59923
distribution of the Title XX funds appropriated to the department 59924
to its respective local agencies. The formula developed by each 59925
state department shall take into account all of the following for 59926
each of its respective local agencies:59927

       (a) The total population of the area that is served by the 59928
respective local agency;59929

       (b) The percentage of the population in the area served that 59930
falls below the federal poverty guidelines;59931

       (c) The respective local agency's history of and ability to 59932
utilize Title XX funds.59933

       (3) Each of the state departments shall expend for state 59934
administrative costs not more than three per cent of the Title XX 59935
funds appropriated to the department. 59936

       Each state department shall establish for each of its 59937
respective local agencies the maximum percentage of the Title XX 59938
funds distributed to the respective local agency that the 59939
respective local agency may expend for local administrative costs. 59940
The percentage shall be established by rule and shall comply with 59941
federal law governing the use of Title XX funds. The rules shall 59942
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 59943
as if they were internal management rules.59944

       (4) The department of job and family services shall expend 59945
for the training of the following not more than two per cent of 59946
the Title XX funds appropriated to the department:59947

       (a) Employees of county departments of job and family 59948
services;59949

       (b) Providers of services under contract with the state 59950
departments' respective local agencies;59951

       (c) Employees of a public children services agency directly 59952
engaged in providing Title XX services. 59953

       (D) The department of job and family services shall prepare a 59954
biennialan annual comprehensive Title XX social services plan on 59955
the intended use of Title XX funds. The department shall develop a 59956
method for obtaining public comment during the development of the 59957
plan and following its completion.59958

       For each statefederal fiscal year, the department of job and 59959
family services shall prepare a report on the actual use of Title 59960
XX funds. The department shall make the annual report available 59961
for public inspection.59962

       The departments of mental health and developmental 59963
disabilities shall prepare and submit to the department of job and 59964
family services the portions of each biennialannual plan and 59965
annual report that apply to services for mental health and mental 59966
retardation and developmental disabilities. Each respective local 59967
agency of the three state departments shall submit information as 59968
necessary for the preparation of biennialannual plans and annual59969
reports.59970

       (E) Each county department of job and family services shall 59971
adopt a county profile for the administration and provision of 59972
Title XX social services in the county. In developing its county 59973
profile, the county department shall take into consideration the 59974
comments and recommendations received from the public by the 59975
county family services planning committee pursuant to section 59976
329.06 of the Revised Code. As part of its preparation of the 59977
county profile, the county department may prepare a local needs 59978
report analyzing the need for Title XX social services.59979

       The county department shall submit the county profile to the 59980
board of county commissioners for its review. Once the county 59981
profile has been approved by the board, the county department 59982
shall file a copy of the county profile with the department of job 59983
and family services. The department shall approve the county 59984
profile if the department determines the profile provides for the 59985
Title XX social services to meet the goals specified in division 59986
(B) of this section.59987

       (F) Any of the three state departments and their respective 59988
local agencies may require that an entity under contract to 59989
provide social services with Title XX funds submit to an audit on 59990
the basis of alleged misuse or improper accounting of funds. If an 59991
audit is required, the social services provider shall reimburse 59992
the state department or respective local agency for the cost it 59993
incurred in conducting the audit or having the audit conducted.59994

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 59995
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 59996
reimburse the appropriate state department or its respective local 59997
agency the amount of the adverse findings. The amount shall not be 59998
reimbursed with Title XX funds received under this section. The 59999
three state departments and their respective local agencies may 60000
terminate or refuse to enter into a Title XX contract with a 60001
social services provider if there are adverse findings in an audit 60002
that are the responsibility of the provider. 60003

       (G) Except with respect to the matters for which each of the 60004
state departments must adopt rules under division (C)(3) of this 60005
section, the department of job and family services may adopt any 60006
rules it considers necessary to implement and carry out the 60007
purposes of this section. Rules governing financial and 60008
operational matters of the department or matters between the 60009
department and county departments of job and family services shall 60010
be adopted as internal management rules in accordance with section 60011
111.15 of the Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for 60012
services, program participation, and other matters pertaining to 60013
applicants and participants shall be adopted in accordance with 60014
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.60015

       Sec. 5101.60.  As used in sections 5101.60 to 5101.71 of the 60016
Revised Code:60017

       (A) "Abuse" means the infliction upon an adult by self or 60018
others of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or cruel 60019
punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish.60020

       (B) "Adult" means any person sixty years of age or older 60021
within this state who is handicapped by the infirmities of aging 60022
or who has a physical or mental impairment which prevents the 60023
person from providing for the person's own care or protection, and 60024
who resides in an independent living arrangement. An "independent 60025
living arrangement" is a domicile of a person's own choosing, 60026
including, but not limited to, a private home, apartment, trailer, 60027
or rooming house. An "independent living arrangement" includes an 60028
adult carea residential facility licensed pursuant to Chapter 60029
5119.under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 60030
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 60031
to sixteen unrelated adults, but does not include other 60032
institutions or facilities licensed by the state or facilities in 60033
which a person resides as a result of voluntary, civil, or 60034
criminal commitment. 60035

       (C) "Caretaker" means the person assuming the responsibility 60036
for the care of an adult on a voluntary basis, by contract, 60037
through receipt of payment for care, as a result of a family 60038
relationship, or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction.60039

       (D) "Court" means the probate court in the county where an 60040
adult resides.60041

       (E) "Emergency" means that the adult is living in conditions 60042
which present a substantial risk of immediate and irreparable 60043
physical harm or death to self or any other person.60044

       (F) "Emergency services" means protective services furnished 60045
to an adult in an emergency.60046

       (G) "Exploitation" means the unlawful or improper act of a 60047
caretaker using an adult or an adult's resources for monetary or 60048
personal benefit, profit, or gain.60049

       (H) "In need of protective services" means an adult known or 60050
suspected to be suffering from abuse, neglect, or exploitation to 60051
an extent that either life is endangered or physical harm, mental 60052
anguish, or mental illness results or is likely to result.60053

       (I) "Incapacitated person" means a person who is impaired for 60054
any reason to the extent that the person lacks sufficient 60055
understanding or capacity to make and carry out reasonable 60056
decisions concerning the person's self or resources, with or 60057
without the assistance of a caretaker. Refusal to consent to the 60058
provision of services shall not be the sole determinative that the 60059
person is incapacitated. "Reasonable decisions" are decisions made 60060
in daily living which facilitate the provision of food, shelter, 60061
clothing, and health care necessary for life support.60062

       (J) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 60063
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 60064
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 60065
meet the ordinary demands of life.60066

       (K) "Neglect" means the failure of an adult to provide for 60067
self the goods or services necessary to avoid physical harm, 60068
mental anguish, or mental illness or the failure of a caretaker to 60069
provide such goods or services.60070

       (L) "Peace officer" means a peace officer as defined in 60071
section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.60072

       (M) "Physical harm" means bodily pain, injury, impairment, or 60073
disease suffered by an adult.60074

       (N) "Protective services" means services provided by the 60075
county department of job and family services or its designated 60076
agency to an adult who has been determined by evaluation to 60077
require such services for the prevention, correction, or 60078
discontinuance of an act of as well as conditions resulting from 60079
abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Protective services may include, 60080
but are not limited to, case work services, medical care, mental 60081
health services, legal services, fiscal management, home health 60082
care, homemaker services, housing-related services, guardianship 60083
services, and placement services as well as the provision of such 60084
commodities as food, clothing, and shelter.60085

       (O) "Working day" means Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, 60086
and Friday, except when such day is a holiday as defined in 60087
section 1.14 of the Revised Code.60088

       Sec. 5101.61.  (A) As used in this section:60089

       (1) "Senior service provider" means any person who provides 60090
care or services to a person who is an adult as defined in 60091
division (B) of section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.60092

       (2) "Ambulatory health facility" means a nonprofit, public or 60093
proprietary freestanding organization or a unit of such an agency 60094
or organization that:60095

       (a) Provides preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, 60096
rehabilitative, or palliative items or services furnished to an 60097
outpatient or ambulatory patient, by or under the direction of a 60098
physician or dentist in a facility which is not a part of a 60099
hospital, but which is organized and operated to provide medical 60100
care to outpatients;60101

       (b) Has health and medical care policies which are developed 60102
with the advice of, and with the provision of review of such 60103
policies, an advisory committee of professional personnel, 60104
including one or more physicians, one or more dentists, if dental 60105
care is provided, and one or more registered nurses;60106

       (c) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 60107
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 60108
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 60109
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;60110

       (d) Requires that the health care and medical care of every 60111
patient be under the supervision of a physician, provides for 60112
medical care in a case of emergency, has in effect a written 60113
agreement with one or more hospitals and other centers or clinics, 60114
and has an established patient referral system to other resources, 60115
and a utilization review plan and program;60116

       (e) Maintains clinical records on all patients;60117

       (f) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 60118
in accordance with programs and policies, with such services 60119
supervised by a registered professional nurse, and has a 60120
registered professional nurse on duty at all times of clinical 60121
operations;60122

       (g) Provides approved methods and procedures for the 60123
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;60124

       (h) Has established an accounting and record keeping system 60125
to determine reasonable and allowable costs;60126

       (i) "Ambulatory health facilities" also includes an 60127
alcoholism treatment facility approved by the joint commission on 60128
accreditation of healthcare organizations as an alcoholism 60129
treatment facility or certified by the department of alcohol and 60130
drug addiction services, and such facility shall comply with other 60131
provisions of this division not inconsistent with such 60132
accreditation or certification.60133

       (3) "Community mental health facility" means a facility which 60134
provides community mental health services and is included in the 60135
comprehensive mental health plan for the alcohol, drug addiction, 60136
and mental health service district in which it is located.60137

       (4) "Community mental health service" means services, other 60138
than inpatient services, provided by a community mental health 60139
facility.60140

       (5) "Home health agency" means an institution or a distinct 60141
part of an institution operated in this state which:60142

       (a) Is primarily engaged in providing home health services;60143

       (b) Has home health policies which are established by a group 60144
of professional personnel, including one or more duly licensed 60145
doctors of medicine or osteopathy and one or more registered 60146
professional nurses, to govern the home health services it 60147
provides and which includes a requirement that every patient must 60148
be under the care of a duly licensed doctor of medicine or 60149
osteopathy;60150

       (c) Is under the supervision of a duly licensed doctor of 60151
medicine or doctor of osteopathy or a registered professional 60152
nurse who is responsible for the execution of such home health 60153
policies;60154

       (d) Maintains comprehensive records on all patients;60155

       (e) Is operated by the state, a political subdivision, or an 60156
agency of either, or is operated not for profit in this state and 60157
is licensed or registered, if required, pursuant to law by the 60158
appropriate department of the state, county, or municipality in 60159
which it furnishes services; or is operated for profit in this 60160
state, meets all the requirements specified in divisions (A)(5)(a) 60161
to (d) of this section, and is certified under Title XVIII of the 60162
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 60163
amended.60164

       (6) "Home health service" means the following items and 60165
services, provided, except as provided in division (A)(6)(g) of 60166
this section, on a visiting basis in a place of residence used as 60167
the patient's home:60168

       (a) Nursing care provided by or under the supervision of a 60169
registered professional nurse;60170

       (b) Physical, occupational, or speech therapy ordered by the 60171
patient's attending physician;60172

       (c) Medical social services performed by or under the 60173
supervision of a qualified medical or psychiatric social worker 60174
and under the direction of the patient's attending physician;60175

       (d) Personal health care of the patient performed by aides in 60176
accordance with the orders of a doctor of medicine or osteopathy 60177
and under the supervision of a registered professional nurse;60178

       (e) Medical supplies and the use of medical appliances;60179

       (f) Medical services of interns and residents-in-training 60180
under an approved teaching program of a nonprofit hospital and 60181
under the direction and supervision of the patient's attending 60182
physician;60183

       (g) Any of the foregoing items and services which:60184

       (i) Are provided on an outpatient basis under arrangements 60185
made by the home health agency at a hospital or skilled nursing 60186
facility;60187

       (ii) Involve the use of equipment of such a nature that the 60188
items and services cannot readily be made available to the patient 60189
in the patient's place of residence, or which are furnished at the 60190
hospital or skilled nursing facility while the patient is there to 60191
receive any item or service involving the use of such equipment.60192

       Any attorney, physician, osteopath, podiatrist, chiropractor, 60193
dentist, psychologist, any employee of a hospital as defined in 60194
section 3701.01 of the Revised Code, any nurse licensed under 60195
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, any employee of an ambulatory 60196
health facility, any employee of a home health agency, any 60197
employee of an adult carea residential facility as defined in60198
licensed under section 5119.705119.22 of the Revised Code that 60199
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 60200
for three to sixteen unrelated adults, any employee of a nursing 60201
home, residential care facility, or home for the aging, as defined 60202
in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, any senior service 60203
provider, any peace officer, coroner, clergymanmember of the 60204
clergy, any employee of a community mental health facility, and 60205
any person engaged in social work or counseling having reasonable 60206
cause to believe that an adult is being abused, neglected, or 60207
exploited, or is in a condition which is the result of abuse, 60208
neglect, or exploitation shall immediately report such belief to 60209
the county department of job and family services. This section 60210
does not apply to employees of any hospital or public hospital as 60211
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.60212

       (B) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that an 60213
adult has suffered abuse, neglect, or exploitation may report, or 60214
cause reports to be made of such belief to the department.60215

       (C) The reports made under this section shall be made orally 60216
or in writing except that oral reports shall be followed by a 60217
written report if a written report is requested by the department. 60218
Written reports shall include:60219

       (1) The name, address, and approximate age of the adult who 60220
is the subject of the report;60221

       (2) The name and address of the individual responsible for 60222
the adult's care, if any individual is, and if the individual is 60223
known;60224

       (3) The nature and extent of the alleged abuse, neglect, or 60225
exploitation of the adult;60226

       (4) The basis of the reporter's belief that the adult has 60227
been abused, neglected, or exploited.60228

       (D) Any person with reasonable cause to believe that an adult 60229
is suffering abuse, neglect, or exploitation who makes a report 60230
pursuant to this section or who testifies in any administrative or 60231
judicial proceeding arising from such a report, or any employee of 60232
the state or any of its subdivisions who is discharging 60233
responsibilities under section 5101.62 of the Revised Code shall 60234
be immune from civil or criminal liability on account of such 60235
investigation, report, or testimony, except liability for perjury, 60236
unless the person has acted in bad faith or with malicious 60237
purpose.60238

       (E) No employer or any other person with the authority to do 60239
so shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 60240
performance evaluation, or reduce benefits, pay, or work 60241
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 60242
in any way retaliate against an employee as a result of the 60243
employee's having filed a report under this section.60244

       (F) Neither the written or oral report provided for in this 60245
section nor the investigatory report provided for in section 60246
5101.62 of the Revised Code shall be considered a public record as 60247
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 60248
contained in the report shall upon request be made available to 60249
the adult who is the subject of the report, to agencies authorized 60250
by the department to receive information contained in the report, 60251
and to legal counsel for the adult.60252

       Sec. 5101.97.  (A)(1) Not later than the last day of each 60253
January, April, July, and JanuaryOctober, the department of job 60254
and family services shall complete a report on the characteristics 60255
of the individuals who participate in or receive services through 60256
the programs operated by the department and the outcomes of the 60257
individuals' participation in or receipt of services through the 60258
programs. The reports shall be for the six-monththree-month60259
periods ending on the last days of March, June, September, and 60260
December and shall include information on the following:60261

       (a) Work activities, developmental activities, and 60262
alternative work activities established under sections 5107.40 to 60263
5107.69 of the Revised Code;60264

       (b) Programs of publicly funded child care, as defined in 60265
section 5104.01 of the Revised Code;60266

       (c) Child support enforcement programs;60267

       (d) Births to recipients of the medical assistancemedicaid60268
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.60269

       (2) The department shall submit the reports required under 60270
division (A)(1) of this section to the speaker and minority leader 60271
of the house of representatives, the president and minority leader 60272
of the senate, the legislative budget officer, the director of 60273
budget and management, and each board of county commissioners. The 60274
department shall provide copies of the reports to any person or 60275
government entity on request.60276

       In designing the format for the reports, the department shall 60277
consult with individuals, organizations, and government entities 60278
interested in the programs operated by the department, so that the 60279
reports are designed to enable the general assembly and the public 60280
to evaluate the effectiveness of the programs and identify any 60281
needs that the programs are not meeting.60282

       (B) Whenever the federal government requires that the 60283
department submit a report on a program that is operated by the 60284
department or is otherwise under the department's jurisdiction, 60285
the department shall prepare and submit the report in accordance 60286
with the federal requirements applicable to that report. To the 60287
extent possible, the department may coordinate the preparation and 60288
submission of a particular report with any other report, plan, or 60289
other document required to be submitted to the federal government, 60290
as well as with any report required to be submitted to the general 60291
assembly. The reports required by the Personal Responsibility and 60292
Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996 (P.L. 104-193) may be 60293
submitted as an annual summary.60294

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 60295
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 60296
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 60297
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 60298
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 60299
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 60300
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 60301

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 60302
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 60303
application for employment and every four years thereafter. When 60304
the administrator requests pursuant to this division a criminal 60305
records check for an applicant at the time of the applicant's 60306
initial application for employment, the administrator shall 60307
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 60308
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 60309
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 60310
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 60311
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 60312
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 60313
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 60314
administrator may request that the superintendent include 60315
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 60316
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 60317
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 60318
671.60319

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 60320
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 60321
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 60322
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 60323
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 60324
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 60325
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 60326
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 60327
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 60328
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 60329
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 60330
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 60331
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 60332
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 60333
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.60334

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 60335
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 60336
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 60337
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 60338
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 60339
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 60340
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 60341
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 60342
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 60343
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 60344
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 60345
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 60346
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 60347
this section.60348

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 60349
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 60350
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 60351
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 60352
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 60353
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 60354
in division (A)(9)(6) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.60355

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 60356
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 60357
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 60358
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 60359
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 60360
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 60361
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 60362
employment.60363

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 60364
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 60365
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 60366
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 60367
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 60368
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 60369
or provider of the center or home.60370

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 60371
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 60372
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 60373
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 60374
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 60375
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 60376
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 60377
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 60378
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 60379
for employment.60380

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 60381
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 60382
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 60383
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 60384
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 60385
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 60386
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 60387
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 60388
records check or its representative; the department of job and 60389
family services or a county department of job and family services; 60390
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 60391
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 60392
applicant.60393

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 60394
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 60395
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 60396
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 60397
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 60398
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.60399

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 60400
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 60401
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 60402
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 60403
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 60404
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 60405
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 60406
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 60407
employment for that position.60408

       (G) As used in this section:60409

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 60410
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 60411
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 60412
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child; 60413
an in-home aide certified pursuant to section 5104.12 of the 60414
Revised Code; or any person who would serve in any position with a 60415
child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a person 60416
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant 60417
to a contract with another entity.60418

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 60419
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.60420

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 60421
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 60422
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers and 60423
type A family day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of 60424
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct 60425
a criminal records check with respect to the following persons:60426

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 60427
center;60428

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 60429
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 60430
resides in a type A family day-care home.60431

       (2) At the times specified in division (A)(3) of this 60432
section, the director of a county department of job and family 60433
services, as part of the process of certification of type B family 60434
day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 60435
criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal 60436
records check with respect to any authorized provider of a 60437
certified type B family day-care home and any person eighteen 60438
years of age or older who resides in a certified type B family 60439
day-care home.60440

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 60441
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 60442
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 60443
four years thereafter. The director of a county department of job 60444
and family services shall request a criminal records check 60445
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 60446
initial application for certification and every four years 60447
thereafter at the time of a certification renewal. When the 60448
director of job and family services or the director of a county 60449
department of job and family services requests pursuant to 60450
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a criminal records check 60451
for a person at the time of the person's initial application for 60452
licensure or certification, the director shall request that the 60453
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 60454
investigation obtain information from the federal bureau of 60455
investigation as a part of the criminal records check for the 60456
person, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 60457
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 for the person 60458
subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases in which 60459
the director of job and family services or the director of a 60460
county department of job and family services requests a criminal 60461
records check for an applicant pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) 60462
of this section, the director may request that the superintendent 60463
include information from the federal bureau of investigation in 60464
the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 60465
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 60466
671. 60467

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 60468
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 60469
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 60470
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 60471
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 60472
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 60473
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.60474

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 60475
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 60476
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 60477
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 60478
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 60479
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 60480
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 60481
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 60482
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 60483
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.60484

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 60485
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 60486
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 60487
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 60488
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 60489
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 60490
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 60491
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 60492
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 60493
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 60494
certification.60495

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 60496
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 60497
grant a license to a child day-care center or type A family 60498
day-care home and a county director of job and family services 60499
shall not certify a type B family day-care home if a person for 60500
whom a criminal records check was required in connection with the 60501
center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 60502
to any of the violations described in division (A)(9)(6) of 60503
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.60504

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 60505
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 60506
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 60507
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 60508
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 60509
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 60510
section.60511

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 60512
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 60513
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 60514
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 60515
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 60516
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 60517
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 60518
representative, the director of job and family services, the 60519
director of a county department of job and family services, the 60520
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 60521
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 60522
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 60523
criminal records check.60524

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 60525
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 60526
section, including rules specifying exceptions to the prohibition 60527
in division (D) of this section for persons who have been 60528
convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 60529
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department60530
director.60531

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 60532
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.60533

       Sec. 5104.051.  (A)(1) The department of commerce is 60534
responsible for the inspections of child day-care centers as 60535
required by division (A)(1) of section 5104.05 of the Revised 60536
Code. Where there is a municipal, township, or county building 60537
department certified under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to 60538
exercise enforcement authority with respect to the category of 60539
building occupancy which includes day-care centers, all 60540
inspections required under division (A)(1) of section 5104.05 of 60541
the Revised Code shall be made by that department according to the 60542
standards established by the board of building standards. 60543
Inspections in areas of the state where there is no municipal, 60544
township, or county building department certified under section 60545
3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise enforcement authority with 60546
respect to the category of building occupancy which includes 60547
day-care centers shall be made by personnel of the department of 60548
commerce. Inspections of centers shall be contingent upon payment 60549
of a fee by the applicant to the department having jurisdiction to 60550
inspect.60551

       (2) The department of commerce is responsible for the 60552
inspections of type A family day-care homes as required by 60553
division (B)(3) of section 5104.05 of the Revised Code. Where 60554
there is a municipal, township, or county building department 60555
certified under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to exercise 60556
enforcement authority with respect to the category of building 60557
occupancy which includes type A homes, all inspections required 60558
under division (B)(3) of section 5104.05 of the Revised Code shall 60559
be made by that department according to the standards established 60560
by the board of building standards. Inspections in areas of the 60561
state where there is no municipal, township, or county building 60562
department certified under section 3781.10 of the Revised Code to 60563
exercise enforcement authority with respect to the category of 60564
building occupancy which includes type A homes shall be made by 60565
personnel of the department of commerce. Inspections of type A 60566
homes shall be contingent upon payment of a fee by the applicant 60567
to the department having jurisdiction to inspect.60568

       (B) The state fire marshal is responsible for the inspections 60569
required by divisions (A)(2) and (B)(1) of section 5104.05 of the 60570
Revised Code. In municipal corporations and in townships outside 60571
municipal corporations where there is a fire prevention official, 60572
the inspections shall be made by the fire chief or the fire 60573
prevention official under the supervision of and according to the 60574
standards established by the state fire marshal. In townships 60575
outside municipal corporations where there is no fire prevention 60576
official, inspections shall be made by the employees of the state 60577
fire marshal.60578

       (C) The state fire marshal shall enforce all statutes and 60579
rules pertaining to fire safety and fire prevention in child 60580
day-care centers and type A family day-care homes. In the event of 60581
a dispute between the state fire marshal and any other responsible 60582
officer under sections 5104.05 and 5104.051 of the Revised Code 60583
with respect to the interpretation or application of a specific 60584
fire safety statute or rule, the interpretation of the state fire 60585
marshal shall prevail.60586

       (D) As used in this division, "licensor" has the same meaning 60587
as in section 3717.01 of the Revised Code.60588

       The licensor for food service operations in the city or 60589
general health district in which the center is located is 60590
responsible for the inspections required under Chapter 3717. of 60591
the Revised Code.60592

       (E) Any moneys collected by the department of commerce under 60593
this section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit 60594
of the laborindustrial compliance operating fund created in 60595
section 121.084 of the Revised Code.60596

       Sec. 5104.09.  (A)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted 60597
pursuant to division (D) of this section, no individual who has 60598
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation described in 60599
division (A)(9)(6) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, a 60600
violation of section 2905.11, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 60601
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2921.03, 2921.34, or 2921.35 60602
of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or former law or 60603
ordinance of any municipal corporation, this state, any other 60604
state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent to 60605
any of those violations, or two violations of section 4511.19 of 60606
the Revised Code during operation of the center or home shall be 60607
certified as an in-home aide or be employed in any capacity in or 60608
own or operate a child day-care center, type A family day-care 60609
home, type B family day-care home, or certified type B family 60610
day-care home.60611

       (2) Each employee of a child day-care center and type A home 60612
and every person eighteen years of age or older residing in a type 60613
A home shall sign a statement on forms prescribed by the director 60614
of job and family services attesting to the fact that the employee 60615
or resident person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 60616
any offense set forth in division (A)(1) of this section and that 60617
no child has been removed from the employee's or resident person's 60618
home pursuant to section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. Each 60619
licensee of a type A home shall sign a statement on a form 60620
prescribed by the director attesting to the fact that no person 60621
who resides at the type A home and who is under the age of 60622
eighteen has been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a 60623
violation of any section listed in division (A)(1) of this 60624
section. The statements shall be kept on file at the center or 60625
type A home.60626

       (3) Each in-home aide and every person eighteen years of age 60627
or older residing in a certified type B home shall sign a 60628
statement on forms prescribed by the director of job and family 60629
services attesting that the aide or resident person has not been 60630
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense set forth in 60631
division (A)(1) of this section and that no child has been removed 60632
from the aide's or resident person's home pursuant to section 60633
2151.353 of the Revised Code. Each authorized provider shall sign 60634
a statement on forms prescribed by the director attesting that the 60635
provider has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any 60636
offense set forth in division (A)(1) of this section and that no 60637
child has been removed from the provider's home pursuant to 60638
section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. Each authorized provider 60639
shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the director 60640
attesting to the fact that no person who resides at the certified 60641
type B home and who is under the age of eighteen has been 60642
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of any 60643
section listed in division (A)(1) of this section. The statements 60644
shall be kept on file at the county department of job and family 60645
services.60646

       (4) Each administrator and licensee of a center or type A 60647
home shall sign a statement on a form prescribed by the director 60648
of job and family services attesting that the administrator or 60649
licensee has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any 60650
offense set forth in division (A)(1) of this section and that no 60651
child has been removed from the administrator's or licensee's home 60652
pursuant to section 2151.353 of the Revised Code. The statement 60653
shall be kept on file at the center or type A home.60654

       (B) No in-home aide, no administrator, licensee, authorized 60655
provider, or employee of a center, type A home, or certified type 60656
B home, and no person eighteen years of age or older residing in a 60657
type A home or certified type B home shall withhold information 60658
from, or falsify information on, any statement required pursuant 60659
to division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of this section.60660

       (C) No administrator, licensee, or child-care staff member 60661
shall discriminate in the enrollment of children in a child 60662
day-care center upon the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or 60663
national origin.60664

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 60665
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 60666
section, including rules specifying exceptions to the prohibition 60667
in division (A) of this section for persons who have been 60668
convicted of an offense listed in that division but meet 60669
rehabilitation standards set by the departmentdirector.60670

       Sec. 5104.37. (A) As used in this section, "eligible 60671
provider" means an individual or entity eligible to provide 60672
publicly funded child care pursuant to section 5104.31 of the 60673
Revised Code.60674

        (B) The department of job and family services may withhold 60675
any money due,under this chapter and recover through any 60676
appropriate method any money erroneously paid, under this chapter 60677
if evidence exists of less than full compliance with this chapter 60678
and any rules adopted under it.60679

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter to 60680
the contrary, the department shall take action against an eligible 60681
provider as described in this section.60682

        (D) The department may suspend a contract entered into with 60683
an eligible provider under section 5104.32 of the Revised Code 60684
when the department initiates an investigation concerning the 60685
eligible provider for either of the following reasons:60686

        (1) The department has evidence that the eligible provider 60687
received an improper child care payment as a result of the 60688
provider's intentional act.60689

        (2) The department receives notice and a copy of an 60690
indictment, information, or complaint charging the eligible 60691
provider or the owner or operator of the provider with committing 60692
any of the following:60693

        (a) An act that is a felony or misdemeanor relating to 60694
providing or billing for publicly funded child care or providing 60695
management or administrative services relating to providing 60696
publicly funded child care;60697

        (b) An act that would constitute an offense described in 60698
section 5104.09 of the Revised Code.60699

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 60700
the suspension of a contract under division (D) of this section 60701
shall continue until the department completes its investigation or 60702
all criminal charges are disposed of through dismissal, a finding 60703
of not guilty, conviction, or a plea of guilty.60704

        (2) If the department initiates the termination of a contract 60705
that has been suspended pursuant to division (D) of this section, 60706
the suspension shall continue until the termination process is 60707
completed.60708

       (F) An eligible provider shall not provide publicly funded 60709
child care while the provider's contract is under suspension 60710
pursuant to division (D) of this section. As of the date the 60711
eligible provider's contract is suspended, the department shall 60712
withhold payment to the eligible provider for publicly funded 60713
child care.60714

        (G) Not later than five days after suspending an eligible 60715
provider's contract pursuant to division (D) of this section, the 60716
department shall notify the eligible provider. The notice shall 60717
include all of the following:60718

        (1) A description of the investigation or indictment, 60719
information, or complaint, which need not disclose specific 60720
information concerning any ongoing administrative or criminal 60721
investigation;60722

        (2) A statement that the eligible provider is prohibited from 60723
providing publicly funded child care while the contract is under 60724
suspension;60725

        (3) A statement that the suspension will continue until the 60726
department completes its investigation or all criminal charges are 60727
disposed of through dismissal, a finding of not guilty, 60728
conviction, or a plea of guilty, and that if the department 60729
initiates the termination of the contract, the suspension will 60730
continue until the termination process is completed.60731

       (H) An eligible provider may file an appeal with the 60732
department regarding any action the department takes pursuant to 60733
division (D) of this section. The appeal must be received by the 60734
department not later than fifteen days after the date the provider 60735
receives the notification described in division (G) of this 60736
section. The department shall review the evidence and issue a 60737
decision not later than thirty days after receiving the appeal. 60738
The department shall not suspend a contract pursuant to division 60739
(D) of this section until the time for filing the appeal has 60740
passed or, if the provider files a timely appeal, the department 60741
has issued a decision on the appeal.60742

       Sec. 5107.05.  The director of job and family services shall 60743
adopt rules to implement this chapter. The rules shall be 60744
consistent with Title IV-A, Title IV-D, federal regulations, state 60745
law, the Title IV-A state plan submitted to the United States 60746
secretary of health and human services under section 5101.80 of 60747
the Revised Code, amendments to the plan, and waivers granted by 60748
the United States secretary. Rules governing eligibility, program 60749
participation, and other applicant and participant requirements 60750
shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 60751
Code. Rules governing financial and other administrative 60752
requirements applicable to the department of job and family 60753
services and county departments of job and family services shall 60754
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code.60755

       (A) The rules shall specify, establish, or govern all of the 60756
following:60757

       (1) A payment standard for Ohio works first based on federal 60758
and state appropriations that is increased in accordance with 60759
section 5107.04 of the Revised Code;60760

       (2) For the purpose of section 5107.04 of the Revised Code, 60761
the method of determining the amount of cash assistance an 60762
assistance group receives under Ohio works first;60763

       (3) Requirements for initial and continued eligibility for 60764
Ohio works first, including requirements regarding income, 60765
citizenship, age, residence, and assistance group composition;60766

       (4) For the purpose of section 5107.12 of the Revised Code, 60767
application and verification procedures, including the minimum 60768
information an application must contain;60769

       (5) The extent to which a participant of Ohio works first 60770
must notify, pursuant to section 5107.12 of the Revised Code, a 60771
county department of job and family services of additional income 60772
not previously reported to the county department;60773

       (6) For the purpose of section 5107.16 of the Revised Code, 60774
allboth of the following:60775

       (a) Standards for the determination of good cause for failure 60776
or refusal to comply in full with a provision of a 60777
self-sufficiency contract;60778

       (b) The compliance formactivities a member of an assistance 60779
group may complete to indicate willingness to come into full 60780
compliancemust complete for the member to be considered to have 60781
ceased to fail or refuse to comply in full with a provision of a 60782
self-sufficiency contract;60783

       (c) The manner by which the compliance form is to be 60784
completed and provided to a county department of job and family 60785
services.60786

       (7) The department of job and family services providing 60787
written notice of a sanction under section 5107.161 of the Revised 60788
Code;60789

       (8) For the purpose of division (A)(2)(B) of section 5107.17 60790
of the Revised Code, the period of time by which a county 60791
department of job and family services is to receive a compliance 60792
form established in rules adopted under division (A)(6)(b) of this 60793
sectioncircumstances under which the adult member of an 60794
assistance group or an assistance group's minor head of household 60795
whose failure or refusal, without good cause, to comply in full 60796
with a provision of a self-sufficiency contract causes a sanction 60797
under section 5107.16 of the Revised Code must enter into a new, 60798
or amend an existing, self-sufficiency contract before the 60799
assistance group may resume participation in Ohio works first 60800
following the sanction;60801

       (9) Requirements for the collection and distribution of 60802
support payments owed participants of Ohio works first pursuant to 60803
section 5107.20 of the Revised Code;60804

       (10) For the purpose of section 5107.22 of the Revised Code, 60805
what constitutes cooperating in establishing a minor child's 60806
paternity or establishing, modifying, or enforcing a child support 60807
order and good cause for failure or refusal to cooperate;60808

       (11) The requirements governing the LEAP program, including 60809
the definitions of "equivalent of a high school diploma" and "good 60810
cause," and the incentives provided under the LEAP program;60811

       (12) If the director implements section 5107.301 of the 60812
Revised Code, the requirements governing the award provided under 60813
that section, including the form that the award is to take and 60814
requirements an individual must satisfy to receive the award;60815

       (13) Circumstances under which a county department of job and 60816
family services may exempt a minor head of household or adult from 60817
participating in a work activity or developmental activity for all 60818
or some of the weekly hours otherwise required by section 5107.43 60819
of the Revised Code. 60820

       (14) The maximum amount of time the department will subsidize 60821
positions created by state agencies and political subdivisions 60822
under division (C) of section 5107.52 of the Revised Code;60823

       (15) The implementation of sections 5107.71 to 5107.717 of 60824
the Revised Code by county departments of job and family services;60825

       (16) A domestic violence screening process to be used for the 60826
purpose of division (A) of section 5107.71 of the Revised Code;60827

       (17) The minimum frequency with which county departments of 60828
job and family services must redetermine a member of an assistance 60829
group's need for a waiver issued under section 5107.714 of the 60830
Revised Code.60831

       (B) The rules adopted under division (A)(3) of this section 60832
regarding income shall specify what is countable income, gross 60833
earned income, and gross unearned income for the purpose of 60834
section 5107.10 of the Revised Code.60835

       The rules adopted under division (A)(10) of this section 60836
shall be consistent with 42 U.S.C. 654(29).60837

       The rules adopted under division (A)(13) of this section 60838
shall specify that the circumstances include that a school or 60839
place of work is closed due to a holiday or weather or other 60840
emergency and that an employer grants the minor head of household 60841
or adult leave for illness or earned vacation.60842

        (C) The rules may provide that a county department of job and 60843
family services is not required to take action under section 60844
5107.76 of the Revised Code to recover an erroneous payment that 60845
is below an amount the department specifiesunder circumstances 60846
the rules specify.60847

       Sec. 5107.16.  (A) If a member of an assistance group fails 60848
or refuses, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision 60849
of a self-sufficiency contract entered into under section 5107.14 60850
of the Revised Code, a county department of job and family 60851
services shall sanction the assistance group as follows:60852

       (1) For a first failure or refusal, the county department 60853
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 60854
participate in Ohio works first for one payment month or until the 60855
failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;60856

       (2) For a second failure or refusal, the county department 60857
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 60858
participate in Ohio works first for three payment months or until 60859
the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;60860

       (3) For a third or subsequent failure or refusal, the county 60861
department shall deny or terminate the assistance group's 60862
eligibility to participate in Ohio works first for six payment 60863
months or until the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is 60864
longer.60865

       (B) The director of job and family services shall establish 60866
standards for the determination of good cause for failure or 60867
refusal to comply in full with a provision of a self-sufficiency 60868
contract in rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised 60869
Code.60870

       (C) The director of job and family services shall provide a 60871
compliance form established in rules adopted under section 5107.05 60872
of the Revised Code to anAn assistance group member who fails or 60873
refuses, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision of 60874
a self-sufficiency contract. The member's failure or refusal to 60875
comply in full with the provision shall be deemed to have ceased 60876
on the date a county department of job and family services 60877
receives the compliance form from the member if the compliance 60878
form is completed and provided to the county department in the 60879
mannermust complete all compliance activities specified in rules 60880
adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code in order for the 60881
failure or refusal to be considered to have ceased.60882

       (D) After sanctioning an assistance group under division (A) 60883
of this section, a county department of job and family services 60884
shall continue to work with the assistance group.60885

       (E) An adult eligible for medicaid pursuant to division 60886
(A)(C)(1)(a) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code who is 60887
sanctioned under division (A)(3) of this section for a failure or 60888
refusal, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision of 60889
a self-sufficiency contract related to work responsibilities under 60890
sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the Revised Code loses eligibility 60891
for medicaid unless the adult is otherwise eligible for medicaid 60892
pursuant to another division of section 5111.01 of the Revised 60893
Code.60894

        An assistance group that would be participating in Ohio works 60895
first if not for a sanction under this section shall continue to 60896
be eligible for all of the following:60897

       (1) Publicly funded child care in accordance with division 60898
(A)(3) of section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;60899

       (2) Support services in accordance with section 5107.66 of 60900
the Revised Code;60901

       (3) To the extent permitted by the "Fair Labor Standards Act 60902
of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C. 201, as amended, to participate 60903
in work activities, developmental activities, and alternative work 60904
activities in accordance with sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the 60905
Revised Code.60906

       Sec. 5107.17. AnBoth of the following must occur before an60907
assistance group that resumesmay resume participation in Ohio 60908
works first following a sanction under section 5107.16 of the 60909
Revised Code is not required to do either of the following:60910

       (A) ReapplyThe assistance group must reapply under section 60911
5107.12 of the Revised Code, unless eitherif any of the following 60912
appliesapply:60913

       (1) It is the assistance group's regularly scheduled time for 60914
an eligibility redetermination;60915

       (2) The county department of job and family services does not 60916
receive the completed compliance form established in rules adopted 60917
under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code within the period of 60918
time specified in rules adopted under that sectionIf the sanction 60919
was imposed under division (A)(1) of section 5107.16 of the 60920
Revised Code, the failure or refusal on which the sanction was 60921
based is not considered to have ceased until after one payment 60922
month immediately following the date the sanction began;60923

       (3) If the sanction was imposed under division (A)(2) of 60924
section 5107.16 of the Revised Code, the failure or refusal on 60925
which the sanction was based is not considered to have ceased 60926
until after three payment months immediately following the date 60927
the sanction began;60928

       (4) If the sanction was imposed under division (A)(3) of 60929
section 5107.16 of the Revised Code, the failure or refusal on 60930
which the sanction was based is not considered to have ceased 60931
until after six payment months immediately following the date the 60932
sanction began.60933

       (B) EnterThe adult member of the assistance group or the 60934
assistance group's minor head of household whose failure or 60935
refusal, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision of 60936
a self-sufficiency contract caused the sanction must enter into a 60937
new, or amend an existing, self-sufficiency contract under section 60938
5107.14 of the Revised Code, unless the county department of job 60939
and family services determines it is time for a new appraisal 60940
under section 5107.41 of the Revised Code or the assistance 60941
group's circumstances have changed in a manner necessitating an 60942
amendment to the self-sufficiency contract as determined using 60943
procedures included in the contract under division (B)(9) ofif 60944
required to do so by rules adopted under section 5107.145107.0560945
of the Revised Code.60946

       Sec. 5111.01. (A) As used in this chapter, "medical:60947

       "Children's health insurance program" means the children's 60948
health insurance program part I, children's health insurance 60949
program part II, and children's health insurance program part III 60950
authorized by sections 5101.50 to 5101.529 of the Revised Code.60951

       "Medical assistance program" or "medicaid" means the program 60952
that is authorized by this chapter and provided by the department60953
office of job and family servicesmedical assistance under this 60954
chapter, Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 60955
(1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, et seq., as amended, and the waivers of 60956
Title XIX requirements granted to the departmentoffice by the 60957
centers for medicare and medicaid services of the United States 60958
department of health and human services.60959

       The department of job and family services(B) There is hereby 60960
established the office of medical assistance as a work unit within 60961
the department of job and family services. The chief of the office 60962
shall hold the title of medical assistance director. 60963
Notwithstanding section 5101.06 of the Revised Code, the governor 60964
shall appoint the medical assistance director and the medical 60965
assistance director shall serve at the governor's pleasure. The 60966
medical assistance director is not an assistant director of the 60967
department of job and family services for purposes of section 60968
121.05 or 5101.03 of the Revised Code or any other purpose.60969

       Subject to appropriations for the medicaid program and 60970
children's health insurance program, the department of job and 60971
family services shall provide staff and support services as 60972
necessary for the operation of the office of medical assistance.60973

       If a statute, rule, contract, or other legal authority 60974
requires the director of job and family services or department of 60975
job and family services to take an action regarding the medicaid 60976
program or children's health insurance program, the medical 60977
assistance director or office of medical assistance shall take the 60978
action in place of the director of job and family services or 60979
department of job and family services. If a statute, rule, 60980
contract, or other legal authority permits the director of job and 60981
family services or department of job and family services to take 60982
an action regarding the medicaid program or children's health 60983
insurance program, the medical assistance director or office of 60984
medical assistance shall take the action in place of the director 60985
of job and family services or department of job and family 60986
services if the action is to be taken.60987

       The office of medical assistance shall act as the single 60988
state agency to supervise the administration of the medicaid 60989
program. As the single state agency, the departmentoffice shall 60990
comply with 42 C.F.R. 431.10(e). The department'soffice's rules 60991
governing medicaid are binding on other agencies that administer 60992
components of the medicaid program. No agency may establish, by 60993
rule or otherwise, a policy governing medicaid that is 60994
inconsistent with a medicaid policy established, in rule or 60995
otherwise, by the medical assistance director of job and family 60996
services.60997

       (A)(C) The departmentoffice of job and family services60998
medical assistance may provide medical assistance under the 60999
medicaid program as long as federal funds are provided for such 61000
assistance, to the following:61001

       (1) Families with children that meet either of the following 61002
conditions:61003

       (a) The family meets the income, resource, and family 61004
composition requirements in effect on July 16, 1996, for the 61005
former aid to dependent children program as those requirements 61006
were established by Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, federal 61007
waivers granted pursuant to requests made under former section 61008
5101.09 of the Revised Code, and rules adopted by the department 61009
or any changes the department makes to those requirements in 61010
accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of section 114 of the "Personal 61011
Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996," 61012
110 Stat. 2177, 42 U.S.C.A. 1396u-1, for the purpose of 61013
implementing section 5111.0120 of the Revised Code. An adult loses 61014
eligibility for medicaid under division (A)(C)(1)(a) of this 61015
section pursuant to division (E) of section 5107.16 of the Revised 61016
Code.61017

       (b) The family does not meet the requirements specified in 61018
division (A)(C)(1)(a) of this section but is eligible for medicaid 61019
pursuant to section 5101.18 of the Revised Code.61020

       (2) Aged, blind, and disabled persons who meet the following 61021
conditions:61022

       (a) Receive federal aid under Title XVI of the "Social 61023
Security Act," or are eligible for but are not receiving such aid, 61024
provided that the income from all other sources for individuals 61025
with independent living arrangements shall not exceed one hundred 61026
seventy-five dollars per month. The income standards hereby 61027
established shall be adjusted annually at the rate that is used by 61028
the United States department of health and human services to 61029
adjust the amounts payable under Title XVI.61030

       (b) Do not receive aid under Title XVI, but meet any of the 61031
following criteria:61032

       (i) Would be eligible to receive such aid, except that their 61033
income, other than that excluded from consideration as income 61034
under Title XVI, exceeds the maximum under division (A)(C)(2)(a) 61035
of this section, and incurred expenses for medical care, as 61036
determined under federal regulations applicable to section 209(b) 61037
of the "Social Security Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 1381, 42 61038
U.S.C.A. 1396a(f), as amended, equal or exceed the amount by which 61039
their income exceeds the maximum under division (A)(C)(2)(a) of 61040
this section;61041

       (ii) Received aid for the aged, aid to the blind, or aid for 61042
the permanently and totally disabled prior to January 1, 1974, and 61043
continue to meet all the same eligibility requirements;61044

       (iii) Are eligible for medicaid pursuant to section 5101.18 61045
of the Revised Code.61046

       (3) Persons to whom federal law requires, as a condition of 61047
state participation in the medicaid program, that medicaid be 61048
provided;61049

       (4) Persons under age twenty-one who meet the income 61050
requirements for the Ohio works first program established under 61051
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code but do not meet other 61052
eligibility requirements for the program. The medical assistance61053
director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 61054
Revised Code specifying which Ohio works first requirements shall 61055
be waived for the purpose of providing medicaid eligibility under 61056
division (A)(C)(4) of this section.61057

       (B)(D) If sufficient funds are appropriated for the medicaid 61058
program, the departmentoffice of medical assistance may provide 61059
medical assistance under the medicaid program to persons in groups 61060
designated by federal law as groups to which a state, at its 61061
option, may provide medical assistance under the medicaid program.61062

       (C)(E) The departmentoffice of medical assistance may expand 61063
eligibility for the medicaid program to include individuals under 61064
age nineteen with family incomes at or below one hundred fifty per 61065
cent of the federal poverty guidelines, except that the 61066
eligibility expansion shall not occur unless the departmentoffice61067
receives the approval of the federal government. The department61068
office may implement the eligibility expansion authorized under 61069
this division on any date selected by the departmentoffice, but 61070
not sooner than January 1, 1998.61071

       (D)(F) In addition to any other authority or requirement to 61072
adopt rules under this chapter, the medical assistance director 61073
may adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised 61074
Code as the director considers necessary to establish standards, 61075
procedures, and other requirements regarding the provision of 61076
medical assistance under the medicaid program. The rules may 61077
establish requirements to be followed in applying for medicaid, 61078
making determinations of eligibility for medicaid, and verifying 61079
eligibility for medicaid. The rules may include special conditions 61080
as the departmentoffice determines appropriate for making 61081
applications, determining eligibility, and verifying eligibility 61082
for any medical assistance that the departmentoffice may provide 61083
under the medicaid program pursuant to division (C)(E) of this 61084
section and section 5111.014 or 5111.0120 of the Revised Code.61085

       Sec. 5111.013.  (A) The provision of medical assistance to 61086
pregnant women and young children who are eligible for medical 61087
assistance under division (A)(C)(3) of section 5111.01 of the 61088
Revised Code, but who are not otherwise eligible for medical 61089
assistance under that section, shall be known as the healthy start 61090
program.61091

       (B) The department of job and family services shall do all of 61092
the following with regard to the application procedures for the 61093
healthy start program:61094

       (1) Establish a short application form for the program that 61095
requires the applicant to provide no more information than is 61096
necessary for making determinations of eligibility for the healthy 61097
start program, except that the form may require applicants to 61098
provide their social security numbers. The form shall include a 61099
statement, which must be signed by the applicant, indicating that 61100
she does not choose at the time of making application for the 61101
program to apply for assistance provided under any other program 61102
administered by the department and that she understands that she 61103
is permitted at any other time to apply at the county department 61104
of job and family services of the county in which she resides for 61105
any other assistance administered by the department.61106

       (2) To the extent permitted by federal law, do one or both of 61107
the following:61108

       (a) Distribute the application form for the program to each 61109
public or private entity that serves as a women, infants, and 61110
children clinic or as a child and family health clinic and to each 61111
administrative body for such clinics and train employees of each 61112
such agency or entity to provide applicants assistance in 61113
completing the form;61114

       (b) In cooperation with the department of health, develop 61115
arrangements under which employees of county departments of job 61116
and family services are stationed at public or private agencies or 61117
entities selected by the department of job and family services 61118
that serve as women, infants, and children clinics; child and 61119
family health clinics; or administrative bodies for such clinics 61120
for the purpose both of assisting applicants for the program in 61121
completing the application form and of making determinations at 61122
that location of eligibility for the program.61123

       (3) Establish performance standards by which a county 61124
department of job and family services' level of enrollment of 61125
persons potentially eligible for the program can be measured, and 61126
establish acceptable levels of enrollment for each county 61127
department.61128

       (4) Direct any county department of job and family services 61129
whose rate of enrollment of potentially eligible enrollees in the 61130
program is below acceptable levels established under division 61131
(B)(3) of this section to implement corrective action. Corrective 61132
action may include but is not limited to any one or more of the 61133
following to the extent permitted by federal law:61134

       (a) Establishing formal referral and outreach methods with 61135
local health departments and local entities receiving funding 61136
through the bureau of maternal and child health;61137

       (b) Designating a specialized intake unit within the county 61138
department for healthy start applicants;61139

       (c) Establishing abbreviated timeliness requirements to 61140
shorten the time between receipt of an application and the 61141
scheduling of an initial application interview;61142

       (d) Establishing a system for telephone scheduling of intake 61143
interviews for applicants;61144

       (e) Establishing procedures to minimize the time an applicant 61145
must spend in completing the application and eligibility 61146
determination process, including permitting applicants to complete 61147
the process at times other than the regular business hours of the 61148
county department and at locations other than the offices of the 61149
county department.61150

       (C) To the extent permitted by federal law, local funds, 61151
whether from public or private sources, expended by a county 61152
department for administration of the healthy start program shall 61153
be considered to have been expended by the state for the purpose 61154
of determining the extent to which the state has complied with any 61155
federal requirement that the state provide funds to match federal 61156
funds for medical assistance, except that this division shall not 61157
affect the amount of funds the county is entitled to receive under 61158
section 5101.16, 5101.161, or 5111.012 of the Revised Code.61159

       (D) A county department of job and family services that 61160
maintains offices at more than one location shall accept 61161
applications for the healthy start program at all of those 61162
locations.61163

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 61164
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code as necessary 61165
to implement this section.61166

       Sec. 5111.014.  (A) The director of job and family services 61167
shall submit to the United States secretary of health and human 61168
services an amendment to the state medicaid plan to make an 61169
individual who meets all of the following requirements eligible 61170
for medicaid:61171

       (1) The individual is pregnant;61172

       (2) The individual's family income does not exceed two 61173
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines;61174

       (3) The individual satisfies all relevant requirements 61175
established by rules adopted under division (D)(F) of section 61176
5111.01 of the Revised Code.61177

       (B) If approved by the United States secretary of health and 61178
human services, the director of job and family services shall 61179
implement the medicaid plan amendment submitted under division (A) 61180
of this section as soon as possible after receipt of notice of the 61181
approval, but not sooner than January 1, 2008.61182

       Sec. 5111.0115.  (A) The department of job and family 61183
services may provide medical assistance under the medicaid 61184
program, as long as federal funds are provided for such 61185
assistance, to each former participant of the Ohio works first 61186
program established under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code who 61187
meets all of the following requirements:61188

       (1) Is ineligible to participate in Ohio works first solely 61189
as a result of increased income due to employment;61190

       (2) Is not covered by, and does not have access to, medical 61191
insurance coverage through the employer with benefits comparable 61192
to those provided under this section, as determined in accordance 61193
with rules adopted by the director of job and family services 61194
under division (B) of this section;61195

       (3) Meets any other requirement established by rule adopted 61196
under division (B) of this section.61197

       (B) The director of job and family services shall adopt such 61198
rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as are necessary to 61199
implement and administer the medical assistance program under this 61200
section.61201

       (C) A person seeking to participate in a program of medical 61202
assistance under this section shall apply to the county department 61203
of job and family services in the county in which the applicant 61204
resides. The application shall be made on a form prescribed by the 61205
department of job and family services and furnished by the county 61206
department.61207

       (D) If the county department of job and family services 61208
determines that a person is eligible to receive medical assistance 61209
under this section, the department shall provide assistance, to 61210
the same extent and in the same manner as medical assistance is 61211
provided to a person eligible for medical assistance pursuant to 61212
division (A)(C)(1)(a) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, for 61213
no longer than twelve months, beginning the month after the date 61214
the participant's eligibility for Ohio works first is terminated.61215

       Sec. 5111.0120.  The director of job and family services 61216
shall submit to the United States secretary of health and human 61217
services an amendment to the state medicaid plan to make an 61218
individual eligible for medicaid who meets all of the following 61219
requirements:61220

       (A) The individual is the parent of a child under nineteen 61221
years of age and resides with the child;61222

       (B) The individual's family income does not exceed ninety per 61223
cent of the federal poverty guidelines;61224

       (C) The individual is not otherwise eligible for medicaid;61225

       (D) The individual satisfies all relevant requirements 61226
established by rules adopted under division (D)(F) of section 61227
5111.01 of the Revised Code.61228

       Sec. 5111.031. (A) As used in this section:61229

       (1) "Independent provider" has the same meaning as in section 61230
5111.034 of the Revised Code.61231

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 61232
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 61233
5111.20 of the Revised Code.61234

       (3) "Noninstitutional medicaid provider" means any person or 61235
entity with a medicaid provider agreement other than a hospital, 61236
nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally 61237
retarded.61238

       (4) "Owner" means any person having at least five per cent 61239
ownership in a noninstitutional medicaid provider.61240

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the 61241
contrary, the department of job and family services shall take 61242
action under this section against a noninstitutional medicaid 61243
provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 61244
manager, or employee.61245

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section and in 61246
rules adopted by the department under division (H) of this 61247
section, on receiving notice and a copy of an indictment that is 61248
issued on or after September 29, 2007, and charges a 61249
noninstitutional medicaid provider or its owner, officer, 61250
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee with committing 61251
an offense specified in division (E) of this section, the 61252
department shall suspend the provider agreement held by the 61253
noninstitutional medicaid provider. Subject to division (D) of 61254
this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 61255
reimbursement to the provider for services rendered.61256

       The suspension shall continue in effect until the proceedings 61257
in the criminal case are completed through dismissal of the 61258
indictment or through conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or 61259
finding of not guilty. If the department commences a process to 61260
terminate the suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall 61261
also continue in effect until the termination process is 61262
concluded. 61263

       Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 61264
department is not required to take action under this division by 61265
issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication conducted in 61266
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.61267

       When subject to a suspension under this division, a provider, 61268
owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 61269
shall not own or provide services to any other medicaid provider 61270
or risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for 61271
medicaid recipients during the period of suspension. During the 61272
period of suspension, the provider, owner, officer, authorized 61273
agent, associate, manager, or employee shall not receive 61274
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department 61275
or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of salary, 61276
shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or through any 61277
participating provider or risk contractor.61278

       (D)(1) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement 61279
or terminate medicaid reimbursement under division (C) of this 61280
section if the provider or owner can demonstrate through the 61281
submission of written evidence that the provider or owner did not 61282
directly or indirectly sanction the action of its authorized 61283
agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in the 61284
indictment.61285

       (2) The termination of medicaid reimbursement applies only to 61286
payments for medicaid services rendered subsequent to the date on 61287
which the notice required under division (F) of this section is 61288
sent. Claims for reimbursement for medicaid services rendered by 61289
the provider prior to the issuance of the notice may be subject to 61290
prepayment review procedures whereby the department reviews claims 61291
to determine whether they are supported by sufficient 61292
documentation, are in compliance with state and federal statutes 61293
and rules, and are otherwise complete.61294

       (E)(1) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider 61295
that is not an independent provider, the suspension of a provider 61296
agreement under division (C) of this section applies when an 61297
indictment charges a person with committing an act that would be a 61298
felony or misdemeanor under the laws of this state and the act 61299
relates to or results from either of the following:61300

       (a) Furnishing or billing for medical care, services, or 61301
supplies under the medicaid program;61302

       (b) Participating in the performance of management or 61303
administrative services relating to furnishing medical care, 61304
services, or supplies under the medicaid program.61305

       (2) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider that 61306
is an independent provider, the suspension of a provider agreement 61307
under division (C) of this section applies when an indictment 61308
charges a person with committing an act that would constitute one 61309
of the offenses specified in division (D) ofa disqualifying 61310
offense as defined in section 5111.0345111.032 of the Revised 61311
Code.61312

       (F) Not later than five days after suspending a provider 61313
agreement under division (C) of this section, the department shall 61314
send notice of the suspension to the affected provider or owner. 61315
In providing the notice, the department shall do all of the 61316
following:61317

       (1) Describe the indictment that was the cause of the 61318
suspension, without necessarily disclosing specific information 61319
concerning any ongoing civil or criminal investigation;61320

       (2) State that the suspension will continue in effect until 61321
the proceedings in the criminal case are completed through 61322
dismissal of the indictment or through conviction, entry of a 61323
guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, if the department 61324
commences a process to terminate the suspended provider agreement, 61325
until the termination process is concluded;61326

       (3) Inform the provider or owner of the opportunity to submit 61327
to the department, not later than thirty days after receiving the 61328
notice, a request for a reconsideration pursuant to division (G) 61329
of this section. 61330

       (G)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (G)(2) 61331
of this section, a noninstitutional medicaid provider or owner 61332
subject to a suspension under this section may request a 61333
reconsideration. The request shall be made not later than thirty 61334
days after receipt of the notice provided under division (F) of 61335
this section. The reconsideration is not subject to an 61336
adjudication hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.61337

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the provider or owner 61338
shall submit written information and documents to the department. 61339
The information and documents may pertain to any of the following 61340
issues:61341

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 61342
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 61343
of the indictment;61344

       (b) Whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted 61345
from an offense specified in division (E) of this section;61346

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 61347
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 61348
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 61349
that resulted in the indictment.61350

       (3) The department shall review the information and documents 61351
submitted in a request for reconsideration. After the review, the 61352
suspension may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in 61353
part. The department shall notify the affected provider or owner 61354
of the results of the review. The review and notification of its 61355
results shall be completed not later than forty-five days after 61356
receiving the information and documents submitted in a request for 61357
reconsideration.61358

       (H) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 61359
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules may 61360
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 61361
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.61362

       Sec. 5111.032. (A) As used in this section:61363

       (1) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 61364
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.61365

       (2) "Department" includes a designee of the department of job 61366
and family services.61367

       (3)"Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:61368

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 61369
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 61370
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 61371
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 61372
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 61373
2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 61374
2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.22, 2909.23, 61375
2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 61376
2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 61377
2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 61378
2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 61379
2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 2919.22, 2919.23, 61380
2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 61381
2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 61382
2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 61383
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 61384
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 61385
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;61386

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 61387
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;61388

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 61389
existed prior to July 1, 1996;61390

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 61391
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 61392
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 61393
listed in division (A)(2)(a) to (c) of this section;61394

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 61395
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 61396
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 61397
division (A)(2)(a) to (d) of this section.61398

       (3) "Owner" means a person who has an ownership interest in a 61399
provider or applicant to be a provider in an amount designated by 61400
the department of job and family services in rules adopted under 61401
this section.61402

       (4) "Person subject to the criminal records check 61403
requirement" means the following:61404

       (a) A provider or applicant to be a provider who is notified 61405
under division (E)(1) of this section that the provider or 61406
applicant is subject to a criminal records check;61407

       (b) An owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective 61408
officer, or board member or prospective board member of a provider 61409
or applicant to be a provider if, pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) 61410
of this section, the owner or prospective owner, officer or 61411
prospective officer, or board member or prospective board member 61412
is specified in information given to the provider or applicant 61413
under division (E)(1) of this section;61414

       (c) An employee or prospective employee of a provider or 61415
applicant to be a provider if both of the following apply:61416

       (i) The employee or prospective employee is specified, 61417
pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of this section, in information 61418
given to the provider or applicant under division (E)(1) of this 61419
section.61420

       (ii) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 61421
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 61422
prospective employee.61423

       (5) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 61424
has a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 61425
family services pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security 61426
Act," 49 State. 620 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended.61427

       (6) "Responsible entity" means the following:61428

       (a) With respect to a criminal records check required under 61429
this section for a provider or applicant to be a provider, the 61430
department of job and family services or the department's 61431
designee;61432

       (b) With respect to a criminal records check required under 61433
this section for an owner or prospective owner, officer or 61434
prospective officer, board member or prospective board member, or 61435
employee or prospective employee of a provider or applicant to be 61436
a provider, the provider or applicant.61437

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 61438
theThis section does not apply to any individual who is subject 61439
to a criminal records check under section 3712.09, 3721.121, 61440
5111.034, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code or any 61441
individual who is subject to a database review or criminal records 61442
check under section 173.394, 3701.881, or 5111.033 of the Revised 61443
Code.61444

       (C) The department of job and family services may requiredo 61445
any of the following:61446

       (1) Require that any provider,or applicant to be a provider, 61447
employee or prospective employee of a provider, owner or 61448
prospective owner of a provider, officer or prospective officer of 61449
a provider, or board member or prospective board member of a 61450
provider submit to a criminal records check as a condition of 61451
obtaininghaving a medicaid provider agreement, continuing to hold 61452
a provider agreement, being employed by a provider, having an 61453
ownership interest in a provider, or being an officer or board 61454
member of a provider. The department may designate the categories 61455
of persons who are subject to the criminal records check 61456
requirement. The department shall designate the times at which the 61457
criminal records checks must be conducted.61458

       (2) The section does not apply to providers, applicants to be 61459
providers, employees of a provider, or prospective employees of a 61460
provider who are subject to criminal records checks under section 61461
5111.033 or 5111.034 of the Revised Code;61462

       (2) Require that any provider or applicant to be a provider 61463
require an owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective 61464
officer, or board member or prospective board member of the 61465
provider or applicant submit to a criminal records check as a 61466
condition of being an owner, officer, or board member of the 61467
provider or applicant;61468

       (3) Require that any provider or applicant to be a provider 61469
do the following:61470

       (a) If so required by rules adopted under this section, 61471
determine pursuant to a database review conducted under division 61472
(F)(1)(a) of this section whether any employee or prospective 61473
employee of the provider or applicant is included in a database;61474

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 61475
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 61476
prospective employee, require the employee or prospective employee 61477
to submit to a criminal records check as a condition of being an 61478
employee of the provider or applicant.61479

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 61480
terminate a provider's medicaid provider agreement or deny an 61481
applicant's application for a medicaid provider agreement if the 61482
provider or applicant is a person subject to the criminal records 61483
check requirement and either of the following applies:61484

       (a) The provider or applicant fails to obtain the criminal 61485
records check after being given the information specified in 61486
division (G)(1) of this section.61487

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 61488
the provider or applicant is found by the criminal records check 61489
to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 61490
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 61491
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction, 61492
the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the applicant or 61493
provider was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 61494
conviction.61495

       (2) No provider or applicant to be a provider shall permit a 61496
person to be an owner, officer, or board member of the provider or 61497
applicant if the person is a person subject to the criminal 61498
records check requirement and either of the following applies:61499

       (a) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 61500
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 61501
this section.61502

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 61503
the person is found by the criminal records check to have been 61504
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 61505
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 61506
regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the 61507
guilty plea, or the date the person was found eligible for 61508
intervention in lieu of conviction.61509

       (3) No provider or applicant to be a provider shall employ a 61510
person if any of the following apply:61511

       (a) The person has been excluded from providing services or 61512
items under the medicaid program, the medicare program operated 61513
pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," or any other 61514
federal health care program.61515

       (b) If the person is subject to a database review conducted 61516
under division (F)(1)(a) of this section, the person is found by 61517
the database review to be included in a database and the rules 61518
adopted under this section regarding the database review prohibit 61519
the provider or applicant from employing a person included in the 61520
database.61521

       (c) If the person is a person subject to the criminal records 61522
check requirement, either of the following applies:61523

       (i) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 61524
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 61525
this section.61526

       (ii) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 61527
the person is found by the criminal records check to have been 61528
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 61529
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 61530
regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the 61531
guilty plea, or the date the person was found eligible for 61532
intervention in lieu of conviction.61533

       (C)(E)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 61534
inform each provider or applicant to be a provider whether the 61535
provider or applicant is subject to a criminal records check 61536
requirement under division (B) of this section. For providers, the 61537
information shall be given at times designated in rules adopted 61538
under this section. For applicants to be providers, the 61539
information shall be given at the time of initial application. 61540
When the information is given, the department or the department's 61541
designee shall specify whichthe following:61542

       (a) Which of the provider's or applicant's employees or 61543
prospective employees, owners or prospective owners, officers or 61544
prospective officers, or board members or prospective board 61545
members are subject to thea criminal records check requirement;61546

       (b) Which of the provider's or applicant's employees or 61547
prospective employees are subject to division (C)(3) of this 61548
section.61549

       (2) At times designated in rules adopted under this section, 61550
a provider or applicant to be a provider that is a person subject 61551
to the criminal records check requirement shall informdo the 61552
following:61553

       (a) Inform each person specified by the department under 61554
division (C)(1)(E)(1)(a) of this section that the person is 61555
required, as applicable, to submit to a criminal records check for 61556
final consideration for employment in a full-time, part-time, or 61557
temporary position; as a condition of continued employment; or as 61558
a condition of becoming or continuing to bebeing an owner,61559
officer, or board member or owner of athe provider or applicant;61560

       (b) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(b) of 61561
this section that the person is subject to division (C)(3) of this 61562
section.61563

       (D)(F)(1) If a provider or applicant to be a provider is a 61564
person subject to athe criminal records check under this section61565
requirement, the department or the department's designee shall 61566
require the conduct of a criminal records check by the 61567
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 61568
investigation. If a provider or applicant to be a provider for 61569
whom a criminal records check is required does not present proof 61570
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period 61571
immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 61572
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 61573
the superintendent has requested information about the individual 61574
from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records 61575
check, the department shall require the provider or applicant to 61576
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 61577
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 61578
check of the provider or applicant. Even if a provider or 61579
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 61580
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 61581
five-year period, the department may require that the provider or 61582
applicant request that the superintendent obtain information from 61583
the federal bureau of investigation and include it in the criminal 61584
records check of the provider or applicant.61585

       (2)investigation. A provider or applicant to be a provider61586
shall require the conduct of a criminal records check by the 61587
superintendent with respect to each of the persons specified by 61588
the department under division (C)(1)(E)(1)(a) of this section. If 61589
the person for whom a criminal records check is required does not 61590
present proof of having been a resident of this state for the 61591
five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 61592
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 61593
five-year period the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 61594
identification and investigation has requested information about 61595
the individual from the federal bureau of investigation in a 61596
criminal records check, the individual shall request that the 61597
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 61598
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 61599
individual. Even if an individual for whom a criminal records 61600
check request is required presents proof of having been a resident 61601
of this state for the five-year period, the department may require 61602
the provider to request that the superintendent obtain information 61603
from the federal bureau of investigation and include it in the 61604
criminal records check of the person.With respect to each 61605
employee and prospective employee specified under division 61606
(E)(1)(b) of this section, a provider or applicant to be a 61607
provider shall do the following:61608

       (a) If rules adopted under this section require the provider 61609
or applicant to conduct a database review to determine whether the 61610
employee or prospective employee is included in a database, 61611
conduct the database review in accordance with the rules;61612

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 61613
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 61614
prospective employee, require the conduct of a criminal records 61615
check of the employee or prospective employee by the 61616
superintendent.61617

       (2) If a person subject to the criminal records check 61618
requirement does not present proof of having been a resident of 61619
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 61620
the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 61621
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 61622
information about the person from the federal bureau of 61623
investigation in a criminal records check, the responsible entity 61624
shall require the person to request that the superintendent obtain 61625
information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of 61626
the criminal records check of the person. Even if the person 61627
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 61628
five-year period, the responsible entity may require that the 61629
person request that the superintendent obtain information from the 61630
federal bureau of investigation and include it in the criminal 61631
records check of the person.61632

       (E)(1)(G) Criminal records checks required underby this 61633
section for providers or applicants to be providers shall be 61634
obtained as follows:61635

       (a)(1) The departmentresponsible entity shall provide each 61636
provider or applicantperson subject to the criminal records check 61637
requirement information about accessing and completing the form 61638
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 61639
Revised Code and the standard fingerprint impression sheet 61640
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section.61641

       (b)(2) The provider or applicantperson subject to the 61642
criminal records check requirement shall submit the required form 61643
and one complete set of the person's fingerprint impressions 61644
directly to the superintendent for purposes of conducting the 61645
criminal records check using the applicable methods prescribed by 61646
division (C) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The applicant 61647
or providerperson shall pay all fees associated with obtaining 61648
the criminal records check.61649

       (c)(3) The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 61650
check in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The 61651
provider or applicantperson subject to the criminal records check 61652
requirement shall instruct the superintendent to submit the report 61653
of the criminal records check directly to the director of job and 61654
family services.61655

       (2) Criminal records checks required under this section for 61656
persons specified by the department under division (C)(1) of this 61657
section shall be obtained as follows:61658

       (a) The provider shall give to each person subject to 61659
criminal records check requirement information about accessing and 61660
completing the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 61661
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard fingerprint 61662
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 61663
section.61664

       (b) The person shall submit the required form and one 61665
complete set of fingerprint impressions directly to the 61666
superintendent for purposes of conducting the criminal records 61667
check using the applicable methods prescribed by division (C) of 61668
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The person shall pay all fees 61669
associated with obtaining the criminal records check.61670

       (c) The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 61671
check in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The 61672
person subject to the criminal records check shall instruct the 61673
superintendent to submit the report of the criminal records check 61674
directly to the providerresponsible entity. TheIf the department 61675
or the department's designee is not the responsible entity, the61676
department or designee may require the providerresponsible entity61677
to submit the report to the department or designee.61678

       (F) If a provider or applicant to be a provider is given the 61679
information specified in division (E)(1)(a) of this section but 61680
fails to obtain a criminal records check, the department shall, as 61681
applicable, terminate the provider agreement or deny the 61682
application to be a provider.61683

       If a person is given the information specified in division 61684
(E)(2)(a) of this section but fails to obtain a criminal records 61685
check, the provider shall not, as applicable, permit the person to 61686
be an employee, owner, officer, or board member of the provider.61687

       (G) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (J) of 61688
this section, the department shall terminate the provider 61689
agreement of a provider or the department shall not issue a 61690
provider agreement to an applicant if the provider or applicant is 61691
subject to a criminal records check under this section and the 61692
provider or applicant has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty 61693
to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 61694
conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the 61695
conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the 61696
applicant or provider was found eligible for intervention in lieu 61697
of conviction:61698

       (1) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 61699
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 61700
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 61701
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 61702
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 61703
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 61704
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 61705
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 61706
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 61707
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 61708
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 61709
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 61710
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 61711
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 61712
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 61713
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 61714
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 61715
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 61716
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 61717
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 61718
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 61719
had the violation been committed prior to that date;61720

       (2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 61721
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 61722
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 61723
division (G)(1) of this section.61724

       (H)(1)(a) Except as provided in rules adopted under division 61725
(J) of this section and subject to division (H)(2) of this 61726
section, no provider shall permit a person to be an employee, 61727
owner, officer, or board member of the provider if the person is 61728
subject to a criminal records check under this section and the 61729
person has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been 61730
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of 61731
the offenses specified in division (G)(1) or (2) of this section.61732

       (b) No provider shall employ a person who has been excluded 61733
from participating in the medicaid program, the medicare program 61734
operated pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," or 61735
any other federal health care program.61736

       (2)(a)(H)(1) A provider or applicant to be a provider may 61737
employ conditionally a person for whom a criminal records check is 61738
required underby this section prior to obtaining the results of a61739
the criminal records check regarding the person, but only if the61740
both of the following apply:61741

       (a) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 61742
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the person.61743

       (b) The person submits a request for athe criminal records 61744
check not later than five business days after the individual61745
person begins conditional employment.61746

       (b)(2) A provider or applicant to be a provider that employs 61747
a person conditionally under authority of division (H)(2)(a)(1)61748
of this section shall terminate the person's employment if the 61749
results of the criminal records check request are not obtained 61750
within the period ending sixty days after the date the request is 61751
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 61752
are obtained, if the results indicate that the individualperson61753
has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been found 61754
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the 61755
offenses specified in division (G)(1) or (2) of this sectiona 61756
disqualifying offense, the provider or applicant shall terminate 61757
the person's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 61758
adopted under this section exist that permit the provider or 61759
applicant to employ the person and the provider or applicant61760
chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (J) of this 61761
sectionperson.61762

       (I) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 61763
to this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 61764
149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any 61765
person other than the following:61766

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 61767
check or the person's representative;61768

       (2) The director of job and family services and the staff of 61769
the department in the administration of the medicaid program;61770

       (3) The department's designee;61771

       (4) The provider or applicant to be a provider who required 61772
the person who is the subject of the criminal records check to 61773
submit to the criminal records check;61774

       (5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 61775
involved in a case dealing with theany of the following:61776

       (a) The denial or termination of a medicaid provider 61777
agreement;61778

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 61779
involved in a case dealing with a(b) A person's denial of 61780
employment, termination of employment, or employment or 61781
unemployment benefits;61782

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 61783
program.61784

       (J) The departmentdirector of job and family services may 61785
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 61786
implement this section. If the director adopts such rules, the 61787
rules shall designate the times at which a criminal records check 61788
must be conducted under this section. The rules may specifydo 61789
any of the following:61790

       (1) Designate the categories of persons who are subject to a 61791
criminal records check under this section;61792

       (2) Specify circumstances under which the department or the 61793
department's designee may continue a medicaid provider agreement 61794
or issue a medicaid provider agreement to an applicant when the 61795
provider or applicant hasis found by a criminal records check to 61796
have been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been found 61797
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the 61798
offenses specified in division (G)(1) or (2) of this section. The 61799
rules may also specifya disqualifying offense;61800

       (3) Specify circumstances under which a provider or applicant 61801
to be a provider may permit a person to be an employee, owner, 61802
officer, or board member of the provider or applicant, when the 61803
person hasis found by a criminal records check conducted 61804
pursuant to this section to have been convicted of, has pleaded 61805
guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 61806
conviction for any of the offenses specified in division (G)(1) or 61807
(2) of this sectiona disqualifying offense;61808

       (4) Specify all of the following:61809

       (a) The circumstances under which a database review must be 61810
conducted under division (F)(1)(a) of this section to determine 61811
whether an employee or prospective employee of a provider or 61812
applicant to be a provider is included in a database;61813

       (b) The procedures for conducting the database review;61814

       (c) The databases that are to be checked;61815

       (d) The circumstances under which a provider or applicant to 61816
be a provider is prohibited from employing a person who is found 61817
by the database review to be included in a database.61818

       Sec. 5111.033.  (A) As used in this section:61819

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 61820
consideration for employment or, after September 26, 2003, an 61821
existing employee with a waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, 61822
or temporary position that involves providing home and 61823
community-based waiver services to a person with disabilities. 61824
"Applicant" also means an existing employee with a waiver agency 61825
in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 61826
providing home and community-based waiver services to a person 61827
with disabilities after September 26, 2003.61828

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 61829
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.61830

       (3) "Waiver agency" means a person or government entity that 61831
is not certified under the medicare program and is accredited by 61832
the community health accreditation program or the joint commission 61833
on accreditation of health care organizations or a company that 61834
provides home and community-based waiver services to persons with 61835
disabilities through department of job and family services 61836
administered home and community-based waiver programs.61837

       (4) "Home"Disqualifying offense" has the same meaning as in 61838
section 5111.032 of the Revised Code.61839

       "Employee" means a person employed by a waiver agency in a 61840
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 61841
providing home and community-based services.61842

       "Home and community-based waiver services medicaid waiver 61843
component" means services furnished under the provision of 42 61844
C.F.R. 441, subpart G, that permit individuals to live in a home 61845
setting rather than a nursing facility or hospitalhas the same 61846
meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code. Home and 61847
community-based waiver services are approved by the centers for 61848
medicare and medicaid for specific populations and are not 61849
otherwise available under the medicaid state plan.61850

       "Waiver agency" means a person or government entity that 61851
provides home and community-based services under a home and 61852
community-based services medicaid waiver component administered by 61853
the department of job and family services, other than such a 61854
person or government entity that is certified under the medicare 61855
program. "Waiver agency" does not mean an independent provider as 61856
defined in section 5111.034 of the Revised Code.61857

       (B) No waiver agency shall employ an applicant or continue to 61858
employ an employee in a position that involves providing home and 61859
community-based services if any of the following apply:61860

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 61861
section reveals any of the following:61862

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 61863
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 61864
section;61865

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 61866
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 61867
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 61868
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 61869
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 61870
such a resident;61871

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 61872
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 61873
section and the rules prohibit the waiver agency from employing an 61874
applicant or continuing to employ an employee included in such a 61875
database in a position that involves providing home and 61876
community-based services.61877

       (2) After the applicant or employee is given the information 61878
and notification required by divisions (E)(2)(a) and (b) of this 61879
section, the applicant or employee fails to do either of the 61880
following:61881

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 61882
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 61883
prescribed to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised 61884
Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to 61885
division (C)(2) of that section;61886

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 61887
report of the criminal records check required by this section 61888
directly to the chief administrator of the waiver agency.61889

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 61890
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 61891
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 61892
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 61893
for a disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the 61894
conviction, date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the 61895
applicant or employee was found eligible for intervention in lieu 61896
of conviction.61897

       (C) At the time of each applicant's initial application for 61898
employment in a position that involves providing home and 61899
community-based services, the chief administrator of a waiver 61900
agency shall inform the applicant of both of the following:61901

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 61902
this section will be conducted to determine whether the waiver 61903
agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from 61904
employing the applicant in the position;61905

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 61906
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 61907
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 61908
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 61909
impressions as part of the criminal records check.61910

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 61911
that involves providing home and community-based services, the 61912
chief administrator of a waiver agency shall conduct a database 61913
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 61914
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 61915
chief administrator of a waiver agency shall conduct a database 61916
review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition 61917
of continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 61918
providing home and community-based services. A database review 61919
shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in 61920
any of the following:61921

       (1) The excluded parties list system maintained by the United 61922
States general services administration pursuant to subpart 9.4 of 61923
the federal acquisition regulation;61924

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 61925
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 61926
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 61927
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 61928
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 61929
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;61930

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 61931
5123.52 of the Revised Code;61932

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 61933
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 61934
the Revised Code;61935

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 61936
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;61937

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 61938
3721.32 of the Revised Code;61939

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 61940
under this section.61941

       (E)(1) TheAs a condition of employing any applicant in a 61942
position that involves providing home and community-based 61943
services, the chief administrator of a waiver agency shall require 61944
eachthe applicant to request that the superintendent of the 61945
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 61946
criminal records check with respect toof the applicant. If rules 61947
adopted under this section so require, the chief administrator of 61948
a waiver agency shall require an employee to request that the 61949
superintendent conduct a criminal records check of the employee at 61950
times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 61951
employ the employee in a position that involves providing home and 61952
community-based services. However, a criminal records check is not 61953
required for an applicant or employee if the waiver agency is 61954
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 61955
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 61956
involves providing home and community-based services. If an 61957
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 61958
required under this divisionby this section does not present 61959
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 61960
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 61961
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 61962
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 61963
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 61964
records check, the chief administrator shall require the applicant 61965
or employee to request that the superintendent obtain information 61966
from the federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal 61967
records check of the applicant. Even if an applicant or employee61968
for whom a criminal records check request is required under this 61969
divisionby this section presents proof of having been a resident 61970
of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator 61971
may require the applicant or employee to request that the 61972
superintendent include information from the federal bureau of 61973
investigation in the criminal records check.61974

       (2) The chief administrator shall provide the following to 61975
each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check 61976
request is required under division (B)(1) ofby this section:61977

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 61978
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 61979
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 61980
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard fingerprint61981
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 61982
section;61983

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or employee is to 61984
instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the 61985
criminal records check directly to the chief administrator.61986

       (3) An applicant given information and notification under 61987
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who fails to access, 61988
complete, and forward to the superintendent the form or the 61989
standard fingerprint impression sheet, or who fails to instruct 61990
the superintendent to submit the completed report of the criminal 61991
records check directly to the chief administrator, shall not be 61992
employed in any position in a waiver agency for which a criminal 61993
records check is required by this section.A waiver agency shall 61994
pay to the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the 61995
fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of 61996
the Revised Code for any criminal records check required by this 61997
section. However, a waiver agency may require an applicant to pay 61998
to the bureau the fee for a criminal records check of the 61999
applicant. If the waiver agency pays the fee for an applicant, it 62000
may charge the applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the waiver 62001
agency pays to the bureau under this section if the waiver agency 62002
notifies the applicant at the time of initial application for 62003
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 62004
paid, the applicant will not be considered for employment.62005

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department 62006
of job and family services in accordance with division (F) of this 62007
section and subject to division (C)(2) of this section, no waiver 62008
agency shall employ a person in a position that involves providing 62009
home and community-based waiver services to persons with 62010
disabilities if the person has been convicted of, has pleaded 62011
guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 62012
conviction for any of the following, regardless of the date of the 62013
conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the 62014
person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:62015

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 62016
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 62017
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 62018
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 62019
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 62020
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 62021
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 62022
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 62023
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 62024
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 62025
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 62026
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 62027
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 62028
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 62029
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 62030
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 62031
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 62032
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 62033
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 62034
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 62035
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 62036
had the violation been committed prior to that date;62037

       (b) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 62038
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 62039
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 62040
division (C)(1)(a) of this section.62041

       (2)(a)(F)(1) A waiver agency may employ conditionally an 62042
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required 62043
under division (B) ofby this section prior to obtaining the 62044
results of athe criminal records check regarding the individual, 62045
provided that theif both of the following apply:62046

       (a) The waiver agency is not prohibited by division (B)(1) of 62047
this section from employing the applicant in a position that 62048
involves providing home and community-based services.62049

       (b) The chief administrator of the waiver agency shall 62050
requirerequires the individualapplicant to request a criminal 62051
records check regarding the individualapplicant in accordance 62052
with division (B)(E)(1) of this section not later than five 62053
business days after the individualapplicant begins conditional 62054
employment.62055

       (b)(2) A waiver agency that employs an individualapplicant62056
conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a)(F)(1) of this 62057
section shall terminate the individual'sapplicant's employment if 62058
the results of the criminal records check request under division 62059
(B) of this section, other than the results of any request for 62060
information from the federal bureau of investigation, are not 62061
obtained within the period ending sixty days after the date the 62062
request for the criminal records check is made. Regardless of when 62063
the results of the criminal records check are obtained, if the 62064
results indicate that the individualapplicant has been convicted 62065
of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for 62066
intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the offenses listed 62067
or described in division (C)(1) of this sectiona disqualifying 62068
offense, the waiver agency shall terminate the individual's62069
applicant's employment unless circumstances specified in rules 62070
adopted under this section exist that permit the waiver agency to 62071
employ the applicant and the waiver agency chooses to employ the 62072
individual pursuant to division (F) of this sectionapplicant.62073

       (D)(1) The fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 62074
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 62075
check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of 62076
this section shall be paid to the bureau of criminal 62077
identification and investigation by the applicant or the waiver 62078
agency.62079

       (2) If a waiver agency pays the fee, it may charge the 62080
applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the agency pays under 62081
division (D)(1) of this section. An agency may collect a fee only 62082
if the agency notifies the person at the time of initial 62083
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 62084
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 62085
employment.62086

       (E)(G) The report of any criminal records check conducted 62087
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 62088
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 62089
shall not be made available to any person other than the 62090
following:62091

       (1) The individualapplicant or employee who is the subject 62092
of the criminal records check or the individual's representative 62093
of the applicant or employee;62094

       (2) The chief administrator of the waiver agency requesting62095
that requires the applicant or employee to request the criminal 62096
records check or the administrator's representative;62097

       (3) An administrator atThe director of job and family 62098
services and the staff of the department in the administration of 62099
the medicaid program;62100

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 62101
involved in a case dealing with aany of the following:62102

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or dealing with 62103
employmentemployee;62104

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 62105
employee;62106

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 62107
program.62108

       (F)(H) The departmentdirector of job and family services62109
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 62110
Code to implement this section. The62111

       (1) The rules may do the following:62112

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 62113
criminal records checks under this section;62114

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 62115
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 62116
or more classes of employees from the requirements;62117

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 62118
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 62119
database review conducted under this section.62120

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:62121

       (a) The procedures for conducting a database review under 62122
this section;62123

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 62124
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 62125
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 62126
be conducted;62127

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 62128
part of a database review, the circumstances under which a waiver 62129
agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to 62130
employ an employee who is found by the database review to be 62131
included in one or more of those databases;62132

       (d) The circumstances under which a waiver agency may employ 62133
a personan applicant or employee who hasis found by a criminal 62134
records check required by this section to have been convicted of, 62135
has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible for intervention 62136
in lieu of conviction for an offense listed or described in 62137
division (C)(1) of this sectiona disqualifying offense.62138

       (G) The chief administrator of a waiver agency shall inform 62139
each person, at the time of initial application for a position 62140
that involves providing home and community-based waiver services 62141
to a person with a disability, that the person is required to 62142
provide a set of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 62143
records check is required to be conducted if the person comes 62144
under final consideration for employment.62145

       (H)(1) A person who, on September 26, 2003, is an employee of 62146
a waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position 62147
that involves providing home and community-based waiver services 62148
to a person with disabilities shall comply with this section 62149
within sixty days after September 26, 2003, unless division (H)(2) 62150
of this section applies.62151

       (2) This section shall not apply to a person to whom all of 62152
the following apply:62153

       (a) On September 26, 2003, the person is an employee of a 62154
waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position 62155
that involves providing home and community-based waiver services 62156
to a person with disabilities.62157

       (b) The person previously had been the subject of a criminal 62158
background check relating to that position;62159

       (c) The person has been continuously employed in that 62160
position since that criminal background check had been conducted.62161

       (I) The amendments made by ...B... to this section do not 62162
preclude the department of job and family services from taking 62163
action against a person for failure to comply with former division 62164
(H) of this section as that division existed on the day preceding 62165
the effective date of this amendment.62166

       Sec. 5111.034.  (A) As used in this section:62167

       (1) "Anniversary date" means the later of the effective date 62168
of the provider agreement relating to the independent provider or 62169
sixty days after September 26, 2003.62170

       (2) "Criminal"Applicant" means a person who has applied for 62171
a medicaid provider agreement to provide home and community-based 62172
services as an independent provider under a home and 62173
community-based medicaid waiver component administered by the 62174
department of job and family services.62175

       "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 62176
109.572 of the Revised Code.62177

       (3) "Department" includes a designee of the department of job 62178
and family services.62179

       (4) "Independent"Disqualifying offense" has the same meaning 62180
as in section 5111.032 of the Revised Code.62181

       "Independent provider" means a person who is submitting an 62182
application for a provider agreement or who has a medicaid62183
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 62184
an independent provider in a home and community-based services 62185
medicaid waiver component administered by the department of job 62186
and family services administered home and community-based services 62187
program providing home and community-based waiver services to 62188
consumers with disabilities.62189

       (5) "Home and community-based waiver services medicaid waiver 62190
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.0335111.85 of 62191
the Revised Code.62192

       (B) The department of job and family services or the 62193
department's designee shall deny an applicant's application for a 62194
medicaid provider agreement and shall terminate an independent 62195
provider's medicaid provider agreement if either of the following 62196
applies:62197

       (1) After the applicant or independent provider is given the 62198
information and notification required by divisions (D)(2)(a) and 62199
(b) of this section, the applicant or independent provider fails 62200
to do either of the following:62201

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 62202
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 62203
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 62204
Revised Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant 62205
to division (C)(2) of that section;62206

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 62207
report of the criminal records check required by this section 62208
directly to the department or the department's designee.62209

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 62210
the applicant or independent provider is found by a criminal 62211
records check required by this section to have been convicted of, 62212
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 62213
of conviction for a disqualifying offense, regardless of the date 62214
of the conviction, the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the 62215
date the applicant or independent provider was found eligible for 62216
intervention in lieu of conviction.62217

       (C)(1) The department of job and family servicesor the 62218
department's designee shall inform each independent provider62219
applicant, at the time of initial application for a medicaid62220
provider agreement that involves providing home and 62221
community-based waiver services to consumers with disabilities, 62222
that the independent providerapplicant is required to provide a 62223
set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 62224
records check is required to be conducted if the person is to 62225
become an independent provider in adepartment administered home 62226
and community-based waiver programas a condition of the 62227
department's approving the application.62228

       (2) Beginning on September 26, 2003, the department or the 62229
department's designee shall inform each enrolled medicaid62230
independent provider on or before the time of the anniversary date 62231
of the medicaid provider agreement that involves providing home 62232
and community-based waiver services to consumers with disabilities62233
that the independent provider is required to provide a set of the 62234
independent provider's fingerprint impressions and that a criminal 62235
records check is required to be conducted.62236

       (C)(D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 62237
require the independent provideran applicant to complete a 62238
criminal records check prior to entering into a medicaid provider 62239
agreement with the independent provider andapplicant. The 62240
department or the department's designee shall require an 62241
independent provider to complete a criminal records check at least 62242
annually thereafter. If an applicant or independent provider for 62243
whom a criminal records check is required under this divisionby 62244
this section does not present proof of having been a resident of 62245
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 62246
the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 62247
within that five-year period the superintendent of the bureau of 62248
criminal identification and investigation has requested 62249
information about the applicant or independent provider from the 62250
federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the 62251
department or the department's designee shall request that the 62252
applicant or independent provider obtain through the 62253
superintendent a criminal records request from the federal bureau 62254
of investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 62255
applicant or independent provider. Even if an applicant or62256
independent provider for whom a criminal records check request is 62257
required under this divisionby this section presents proof of 62258
having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the 62259
department or the department's designee may request that the 62260
applicant or independent provider obtain information through the 62261
superintendent from the federal bureau of investigation in the 62262
criminal records check.62263

       (2) The department or the department's designee shall provide 62264
the following to each applicant and independent provider for whom 62265
a criminal records check request is required under division (C)(1) 62266
ofby this section:62267

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 62268
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 62269
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 62270
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard fingerprint62271
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 62272
section;62273

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or independent 62274
provider is to instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 62275
report of the criminal records check directly to the department or 62276
the department's designee.62277

       (3) An independent provider given information and 62278
notification under divisions (C)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who 62279
fails to access, complete, and forward to the superintendent the 62280
form or the standard fingerprint impression sheet, or who fails to 62281
instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the 62282
criminal records check directly to the department, shall not be 62283
approved as an independent provider.Each applicant and 62284
independent provider for whom a criminal records check is required 62285
by this section shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification 62286
and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) 62287
of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for the criminal records 62288
check conducted of the applicant or independent provider.62289

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted by the department in 62290
accordance with division (G) of this section, the department shall 62291
not issue a new provider agreement to, and shall terminate an 62292
existing provider agreement of, an independent provider if the 62293
person has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been 62294
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of 62295
the following, regardless of the date of the conviction, the date 62296
of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person was found 62297
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction:62298

       (1) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 62299
2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 62300
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 62301
2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 62302
2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 62303
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 62304
2909.03, 2909.04, 2909.05, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 62305
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 62306
2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 62307
2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 62308
2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.11, 62309
2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 62310
2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2923.01, 2923.02, 62311
2923.03, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.32, 2925.02, 2925.03, 62312
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 62313
2925.23, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 62314
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 62315
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 62316
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 62317
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 62318
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 62319
had the violation been committed prior to that date;62320

       (2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 62321
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 62322
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 62323
division (D)(1) of this section.62324

       (E) Each independent provider shall pay to the bureau of 62325
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 62326
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 62327
for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to a request 62328
made under division (C) of this section.62329

       (F)(E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by 62330
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation in 62331
accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant 62332
to a request made under division (C) of this section is not a 62333
public record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised 62334
Code and shall not be made available to any person other than the 62335
following:62336

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 62337
check or the person's representative;62338

       (2) An administrator atThe director of job and family 62339
services and the staff of the department or the administrator's 62340
representativein the administration of the medicaid program;62341

       (3) The department's designee;62342

       (4) An individual who receives home and community-based 62343
services from the person who is the subject of the criminal 62344
records check;62345

       (5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 62346
involved in a case dealing with aeither of the following:62347

       (a) A denial or termination of a provider agreement related 62348
to the criminal records check;62349

       (b) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 62350
program.62351

       (G)(F) The departmentdirector of job and family services62352
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 62353
Code to implement this section. The rules shall specify 62354
circumstances under which the department or the department's 62355
designee may either issue a provider agreement to an independent 62356
providerapprove an applicant's application or allow an 62357
independent provider to maintain an existing medicaid provider 62358
agreement wheneven though the applicant or independent provider 62359
hasis found by a criminal records check required by this section 62360
to have been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or has been 62361
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for an 62362
offense listed or described in division (D)(1) or (2) of this 62363
sectiona disqualifying offense.62364

       Sec. 5111.06.  (A)(1) As used in this section and in sections 62365
5111.061 and 5111.063 of the Revised Code:62366

       (a) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 62367
furnishes medicaid services under a provider agreement with the 62368
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 62369
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 62370
amended.62371

       (b) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 62372
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.62373

       (c) "Adjudication" has the same meaning as in division (D) of 62374
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.62375

       (2) This section does not apply to anyeither of the 62376
following:62377

       (a) Any action taken or decision made by the department of 62378
job and family services with respect to entering into or refusing 62379
to enter into a contract with a managed care organization pursuant 62380
to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;62381

       (b) Any action taken by the department under sections 5111.16 62382
to 5111.177 or sections 5111.35 to 5111.62 of the Revised Code.62383

       (B) Except as provided in division (D) of this section and 62384
section 5111.914 of the Revised Code, the department shall do 62385
either of the following by issuing an order pursuant to an 62386
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 62387
Revised Code:62388

       (1) Enter into or refuse to enter into a provider agreement 62389
with a provider, or suspend, terminate, renew, or refuse to renew 62390
an existing provider agreement with a provider;62391

       (2) Take any action based upon a final fiscal audit of a 62392
provider.62393

       (C) Any party who is adversely affected by the issuance of an 62394
adjudication order under division (B) of this section may appeal 62395
to the court of common pleas of Franklin county in accordance with 62396
section 119.12 of the Revised Code.62397

       (D) The department is not required to comply with division 62398
(B)(1) of this section whenever any of the following occur:62399

       (1) The terms of a provider agreement require the provider to 62400
hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain a certification 62401
issued by an official, board, commission, department, division, 62402
bureau, or other agency of state or federal government other than 62403
the department of job and family services, and the license, 62404
permit, certificate, or certification has been denied, revoked, 62405
not renewed, suspended, or otherwise limited.62406

       (2) The terms of a provider agreement require the provider to 62407
hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain certification 62408
issued by an official, board, commission, department, division, 62409
bureau, or other agency of state or federal government other than 62410
the department of job and family services, and the provider has 62411
not obtained the license, permit, certificate, or certification.62412

       (3) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 62413
renewed due to the termination, refusal to renew, or denial of a 62414
license, permit, certificate, or certification by an official, 62415
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 62416
of this state other than the department of job and family 62417
services, notwithstanding the fact that the provider may hold a 62418
license, permit, certificate, or certification from an official, 62419
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 62420
of another state.62421

       (4) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 62422
renewed pursuant to division (C) or (F) of section 5111.03 of the 62423
Revised Code.62424

       (5) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 62425
renewed due to the provider's termination, suspension, or 62426
exclusion from the medicare program established under Title XVIII 62427
of the "Social Security Act" or from another state's medicaid 62428
program and, in either case, the termination, suspension, or 62429
exclusion is binding on the provider's participation in the 62430
medicaid program in this state.62431

       (6) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 62432
renewed due to the provider's pleading guilty to or being 62433
convicted of a criminal activity materially related to either the 62434
medicare or medicaid program.62435

       (7) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or 62436
suspended as a result of action by the United States department of 62437
health and human services and that action is binding on the 62438
provider's participation in the medicaid program.62439

       (8) Pursuant to either section 5111.031 or 5111.035 of the 62440
Revised Code, the provider agreement is suspended and payments to 62441
the provider are suspended pending indictment of the provider.62442

       (9) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 62443
renewed because the provider or its owner, officer, authorized 62444
agent, associate, manager, or employee has been convicted of one 62445
of the offenses that caused the provider agreement to be suspended 62446
pursuant to section 5111.031 of the Revised Code.62447

       (10) The provider agreement is converted under section 62448
5111.028 of the Revised Code from a provider agreement that is not 62449
time-limited to a provider agreement that is time-limited.62450

       (11) The provider agreement is terminated or an application 62451
for re-enrollment is denied because the provider has failed to 62452
apply for re-enrollment within the time or in the manner specified 62453
for re-enrollment pursuant to section 5111.028 of the Revised 62454
Code.62455

       (12) The provider agreement is suspended or terminated, or an 62456
application for enrollment or re-enrollment is denied, for any 62457
reason authorized or required by one or more of the following: 42 62458
C.F.R. 455.106, 455.23, 455.416, 455.434, or 455.450.62459

       (13) The provider agreement is terminated or not renewed 62460
because the provider has not billed or otherwise submitted a 62461
medicaid claim to the department for two years or longer.62462

       (14) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 62463
renewed because the provider fails to provide to the department 62464
the national provider identifier assigned the provider by the 62465
national provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.62466

       In the case of a provider described in division (D)(13) or 62467
(14) of this section, the department may take its proposed action 62468
against a provider agreement by sending a notice explaining the 62469
proposed action to the provider. The notice shall be sent to the 62470
provider's address on record with the department. The notice may 62471
be sent by regular mail.62472

       (E) The department may withhold payments for services 62473
rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid program during 62474
the pendency of proceedings initiated under division (B)(1) of 62475
this section. If the proceedings are initiated under division 62476
(B)(2) of this section, the department may withhold payments only 62477
to the extent that they equal amounts determined in a final fiscal 62478
audit as being due the state. This division does not apply if the 62479
department fails to comply with section 119.07 of the Revised 62480
Code, requests a continuance of the hearing, or does not issue a 62481
decision within thirty days after the hearing is completed. This 62482
division does not apply to nursing facilities and intermediate 62483
care facilities for the mentally retarded as defined in section 62484
5111.20 of the Revised Code.62485

       Sec. 5111.091. Not later than the first day of each calendar 62486
quarterSemiannually, the director of job and family services 62487
shall submit a report to the president and minority leader of the 62488
senate, speaker and minority leader of the house of 62489
representatives, and the chairpersons of the standing committees 62490
of the senate and house of representatives that hear billswith 62491
primary responsibility for legislation making biennial 62492
appropriations a report on the establishment and implementation of 62493
programs designed to control the increase of the cost of the 62494
medicaid program, increase the efficiency of the medicaid program, 62495
and promote better health outcomes. In each calendar year, one 62496
report shall be submitted not later than the last day of June and 62497
the subsequent report shall be submitted not later than the last 62498
day of December.62499

       The report shall include information regarding all of the 62500
following:62501

       (A) Provider network management;62502

       (B) Electronic claims submission and payment systems;62503

       (C) Limited provider contracts and payments based on 62504
performance;62505

       (D) Efforts to enforce third party liability;62506

       (E) Implementation of the medicaid information technology 62507
system;62508

       (F) Expansion of the medicaid data warehouse and decision 62509
support system;62510

       (G) Development of infrastructure policies for electronic 62511
health records and e-prescribing.62512

       Sec. 5111.113.  (A) As used in this section:62513

       (1) "Adult care facility" has the same meaning as in section 62514
5119.70 of the Revised Code.62515

       (2) "Commissioner" means a person appointed by a probate 62516
court under division (E) of section 2113.03 of the Revised Code to 62517
act as a commissioner.62518

       (3)(2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of 62519
the Revised Code.62520

       (4)(3) "Personal needs allowance account" means an account or 62521
petty cash fund that holds the money of a resident of an adult 62522
care facility or home and that the facility or home manages for 62523
the resident.62524

       (4) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 62525
licensed under section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides 62526
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for three 62527
to sixteen unrelated adults.62528

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this 62529
section, the owner or operator of an adult care facility ora home 62530
or residential facility shall transfer to the department of job 62531
and family services the money in the personal needs allowance 62532
account of a resident of the facility or home or facility who was 62533
a recipient of the medical assistance program no earlier than 62534
sixty days but not later than ninety days after the resident dies. 62535
The adult care facility or home or facility shall transfer the 62536
money even though the owner or operator of the facility or home 62537
has not been issued letters testamentary or letters of 62538
administration concerning the resident's estate.62539

       (C) If funeral or burial expenses for a resident of an adult 62540
care facility ora home or residential facility who has died have 62541
not been paid and the only resource the resident had that could be 62542
used to pay for the expenses is the money in the resident's 62543
personal needs allowance account, or all other resources of the 62544
resident are inadequate to pay the full cost of the expenses, the 62545
money in the resident's personal needs allowance account shall be 62546
used to pay for the expenses rather than being transferred to the 62547
department of job and family services pursuant to division (B) of 62548
this section.62549

       (D) If, not later than sixty days after a resident of an 62550
adult care facility ora home or residential facility dies, 62551
letters testamentary or letters of administration are issued, or 62552
an application for release from administration is filed under 62553
section 2113.03 of the Revised Code, concerning the resident's 62554
estate, the owner or operator of the facility or home or facility62555
shall transfer the money in the resident's personal needs 62556
allowance account to the administrator, executor, commissioner, or 62557
person who filed the application for release from administration.62558

       (E) The transfer or use of money in a resident's personal 62559
needs allowance account in accordance with division (B), (C), or 62560
(D) of this section discharges and releases the adult care 62561
facility or home or residential facility, and the owner or 62562
operator of the facility or home, from any claim for the money 62563
from any source.62564

       (F) If, sixty-one or more days after a resident of an adult 62565
care facility ora home or residential facility dies, letters 62566
testamentary or letters of administration are issued, or an 62567
application for release from administration under section 2113.03 62568
of the Revised Code is filed, concerning the resident's estate, 62569
the department of job and family services shall transfer the funds 62570
to the administrator, executor, commissioner, or person who filed 62571
the application, unless the department is entitled to recover the 62572
money under the medicaid estate recovery program instituted under 62573
section 5111.11 of the Revised Code.62574

       Sec. 5111.16. (A) As part of the medicaid program, the 62575
department of job and family services shall establish a care 62576
management system. The department shall submit, if necessary, 62577
applications to the United States department of health and human 62578
services for waivers of federal medicaid requirements that would 62579
otherwise be violated in the implementation of the system.62580

       (B) The department shall implement the care management system 62581
in some or all counties and shall designate the medicaid 62582
recipients who are required or permitted to participate in the 62583
system. In the department's implementation of the system and 62584
designation of participants, all of the following apply:62585

       (1) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 62586
basis of being included in the category identified by the 62587
department as covered families and children, the department shall 62588
implement the care management system in all counties. All 62589
individuals included in the category shall be designated for 62590
participation, except for individuals included in one or more of 62591
the medicaid recipient groups specified in 42 C.F.R. 438.50(d). 62592
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 62593
health insuring corporations under contract with the department 62594
pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.62595

       (2) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 62596
basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, as specified in division 62597
(A)(C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the department 62598
shall implement the care management system in all counties. Except 62599
as provided in division (C) of this section, all individuals 62600
included in the category shall be designated for participation. 62601
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 62602
health insuring corporations under contract with the department 62603
pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.62604

        (3) Alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 62605
covered by medicaid shall not be included in any component of the 62606
care management system when the nonfederal share of the cost of 62607
those services is provided by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 62608
and mental health services or a state agency other than the 62609
department of job and family services, but the recipients of those 62610
services may otherwise be designated for participation in the 62611
system.62612

        (C)(1) In designating participants who receive medicaid on 62613
the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, the department shall 62614
not include any of the following, except as provided under 62615
division (C)(2) of this section:62616

        (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;62617

        (b) Individuals who are institutionalized;62618

        (c) Individuals who become eligible for medicaid by spending 62619
down their income or resources to a level that meets the medicaid 62620
program's financial eligibility requirements;62621

        (d) Individuals who are dually eligible under the medicaid 62622
program and the medicare program established under Title XVIII of 62623
the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as 62624
amended;62625

        (e) Individuals to the extent that they are receiving 62626
medicaid services through a medicaid waiver component, as defined 62627
in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.62628

       (2) If any necessary waiver of federal medicaid requirements 62629
is granted, the department may designate any of the following 62630
individuals who receive medicaid on the basis of being aged, 62631
blind, or disabled as individuals who are permitted or required to 62632
participate in the care management system:62633

       (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;62634

        (b) Individuals who reside in a nursing facility, as defined 62635
in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code;62636

       (c) Individuals who, as an alternative to receiving nursing 62637
facility services, are participating in a home and community-based 62638
services medicaid waiver component, as defined in section 5111.85 62639
of the Revised Code;62640

       (d) Individuals who are dually eligible under the medicaid 62641
program and the medicare program.62642

       (D) Subject to division (B) of this section, the department 62643
may do both of the following under the care management system:62644

       (1) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 62645
health care services from providers designated by the department;62646

       (2) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 62647
health care services through managed care organizations under 62648
contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 62649
Revised Code.62650

       (E)(1) The department shall prepare an annual report on the 62651
care management system. The report shall address the department's 62652
ability to implement the system, including all of the following 62653
components:62654

        (a) The required designation of participants included in the 62655
category identified by the department as covered families and 62656
children;62657

       (b) The required designation of participants included in the 62658
aged, blind, or disabled category of medicaid recipients;62659

       (c) The use of any programs for enhanced care management.62660

       (2) The department shall submit each annual report to the 62661
general assembly. The first report shall be submitted not later 62662
than October 1, 2007.62663

       (F) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 62664
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 62665
this section.62666

       Sec. 5111.161.  (A) As used in this section:62667

       (1) "Children's care network" means any of the following:62668

       (a) A children's hospital;62669

       (b) A group of children's hospitals;62670

       (c) A group of pediatric physicians;.62671

       (2) "Children's hospital" has the same meaning as in section 62672
2151.86 of the Revised Code.62673

       (B) If the department of job and family services includes in 62674
the care management system, pursuant to section 5111.16 of the 62675
Revised Code, individuals under twenty-one years of age included 62676
in the category of individuals who receive medicaid on the basis 62677
of being aged, blind, or disabled, as specified in division 62678
(A)(C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the department 62679
shall develop a system to recognize entities as pediatric 62680
accountable care organizations. The purpose of the recognition 62681
system shall be to meet the complex medical and behavioral needs 62682
of disabled children through new approaches to care coordination. 62683
The department shall implement the recognition system not later 62684
than July 1, 2012.62685

       An entity recognized by the department as a pediatric 62686
accountable care organization may develop innovative partnerships 62687
between relevant groups and may contract directly or subcontract 62688
with the state to provide services to the medicaid recipients 62689
under twenty-one years of age described in this division who are 62690
permitted or required to participate in the care management 62691
system. 62692

       (C)(1) To be recognized by the department as a pediatric 62693
accountable care organization, an entity shall meet the standards 62694
established in rules adopted under this section. Unless required 62695
by sections 2706 and 3022 of the "Patient Protection and 62696
Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) and Title XVIII of the 62697
"Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 (2010), 42 U.S.C. 1395jjj, 62698
the regulations adopted pursuant to those sections, and the laws 62699
of this state, the department shall not require that an entity be 62700
a health insuring corporation as a condition of receiving the 62701
department's recognition.62702

       (2) Any of the following entities may receive the 62703
department's recognition, if the standards for recognition have 62704
been met:62705

       (a) A children's care network;62706

       (b) A children's care network that may include one or more 62707
other entities, including, but not limited to, health insuring 62708
corporations or other managed care organizations;62709

       (c) Any other entity the department determines is qualified.62710

       (D) The department shall consult with all of the following in 62711
adopting rules under division (E) of this section necessary for an 62712
entity to be recognized by the department as a pediatric 62713
accountable care organization:62714

       (1) The superintendent of insurance;62715

       (2) Children's hospitals;62716

       (3) Managed care organizations under contract pursuant to 62717
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;62718

       (4) Any other relevant entities, as determined necessary by 62719
the department, with interests in pediatric accountable care 62720
organizations.62721

       (E) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 62722
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 62723
section. In adopting the rules, the department shall do all of the 62724
following:62725

       (1) Establish application procedures to be followed by an 62726
entity seeking recognition as a pediatric accountable care 62727
organization;62728

       (2) Ensure that the standards for recognition as a pediatric 62729
accountable care organization are the same as and do not conflict 62730
with those specified in sections 2706 and 3022 of the "Patient 62731
Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) and 62732
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 (2010), 42 62733
U.S.C. 1395jjj or the regulations adopted pursuant to those 62734
sections;62735

       (3) Establish requirements regarding the access to pediatric 62736
specialty care provided through or by a pediatric accountable care 62737
organization;62738

       (4) Establish accountability and financial requirements for 62739
an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable care organization;62740

       (5) Establish quality improvement initiatives consistent with 62741
any state medicaid quality plan established by the department;62742

       (6) Establish transparency and consumer protection 62743
requirements for an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable 62744
care organization;62745

       (7) Establish a process for sharing data.62746

       (F) This section does not limit the authority of the 62747
department of insurance to regulate the business of insurance in 62748
this state.62749

       Sec. 5111.171. (A) The department of job and family services 62750
may provide financial incentive awards to managed care 62751
organizations under contract with the department pursuant to 62752
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code that meet or exceed 62753
performance standards specified in provider agreements or rules 62754
adopted by the department. The department may specify in a 62755
contract with a managed care organization the amounts of financial 62756
incentive awards, methodology for distributing awards, types of 62757
awards, and standards for administration by the department.62758

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the health 62759
care compliance fund. The fund shall consist of all fines imposed 62760
on and collected from managed care organizations for failure to 62761
meet performance standards or other requirements specified in 62762
provider agreements or rules adopted by the department. All 62763
investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. 62764
Moneys credited to the fund shall be used solely for the following 62765
purposes:62766

       (1) To reimburse managed care organizations that have paid 62767
fines for failures to meet performance standards or other 62768
requirements and that have come into compliance by meeting 62769
requirements as specified by the department;62770

       (2) To provide financial incentive awards established 62771
pursuant to division (A) of this section and specified in 62772
contracts between managed care organizations and the department.62773

       Sec. 5111.20.  As used in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 62774
Revised Code:62775

       (A) "Allowable costs" are those costs determined by the 62776
department of job and family services to be reasonable and do not 62777
include fines paid under sections 5111.35 to 5111.61 and section 62778
5111.99 of the Revised Code.62779

       (B) "Ancillary and support costs" means all reasonable costs 62780
incurred by a nursing facility other than direct care costs, tax 62781
costs, or capital costs. "Ancillary and support costs" includes, 62782
but is not limited to, costs of activities, social services, 62783
pharmacy consultants, habilitation supervisors, qualified mental 62784
retardation professionals, program directors, medical and 62785
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 62786
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 62787
housekeeping, security, administration, medical equipment, 62788
utilities, liability insurance, bookkeeping, purchasing 62789
department, human resources, communications, travel, dues, license 62790
fees, subscriptions, home office costs not otherwise allocated, 62791
legal services, accounting services, minor equipment, wheelchairs, 62792
resident transportation, maintenance and repairs, help-wanted 62793
advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, 62794
organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, 62795
employee training and staff development, employee benefits, 62796
payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for 62797
self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules 62798
adopted by the director of job and family services under section 62799
5111.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel listed in this 62800
division. "Ancillary and support costs" also means the cost of 62801
equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 62802
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 62803
administrative and general costs on the facility's cost report for 62804
the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.62805

       (C) "Capital costs" means costs of ownership and, in the case 62806
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, costs 62807
of nonextensive renovation.62808

       (1) "Cost of ownership" means the actual expense incurred for 62809
all of the following:62810

       (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 62811
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:62812

       (i) Buildings;62813

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 62814
nonextensive renovations under section 5111.251 of the Revised 62815
Code;62816

       (iii) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, 62817
equipment;62818

       (iv) In the case of an intermediate care facility for the 62819
mentally retarded, extensive renovations;62820

       (v) Transportation equipment.62821

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 62822
leasehold improvements;62823

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;62824

       (d) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, lease 62825
and rent of land, building, and equipment.62826

       The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred dollars 62827
per item may be considered capital costs in accordance with a 62828
provider's practice.62829

       (2) "Costs of nonextensive renovation" means the actual 62830
expense incurred by an intermediate care facility for the mentally 62831
retarded for depreciation or amortization and interest on 62832
renovations that are not extensive renovations.62833

       (D) "Capital lease" and "operating lease" shall be construed 62834
in accordance with generally accepted accounting principles.62835

       (E) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 62836
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 62837
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to a resident of 62838
a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 62839
retarded.62840

       (F)(1) "Date of licensure," for a facility originally 62841
licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 62842
Code, means the date specific beds were originally licensed as 62843
nursing home beds under that chapter, regardless of whether they 62844
were subsequently licensed as residential facility beds under 62845
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code. For a facility originally 62846
licensed as a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the 62847
Revised Code, "date of licensure" means the date specific beds 62848
were originally licensed as residential facility beds under that 62849
section.62850

        If nursing home beds licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 62851
Revised Code or residential facility beds licensed under section 62852
5123.19 of the Revised Code were not required by law to be 62853
licensed when they were originally used to provide nursing home or 62854
residential facility services, "date of licensure" means the date 62855
the beds first were used to provide nursing home or residential 62856
facility services, regardless of the date the present provider 62857
obtained licensure.62858

        If a facility adds nursing home beds or residential facility 62859
beds or extensively renovates all or part of the facility after 62860
its original date of licensure, it will have a different date of 62861
licensure for the additional beds or extensively renovated portion 62862
of the facility, unless the beds are added in a space that was 62863
constructed at the same time as the previously licensed beds but 62864
was not licensed under Chapter 3721. or section 5123.19 of the 62865
Revised Code at that time.62866

       (2) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 62867
applies in determinations of the medicaid reimbursement rate for a 62868
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 62869
retarded but does not apply in determinations of the franchise 62870
permit fee for a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 62871
for the mentally retarded.62872

       (G) "Desk-reviewed" means that costs as reported on a cost 62873
report submitted under section 5111.26 of the Revised Code have 62874
been subjected to a desk review under division (A) of section 62875
5111.27 of the Revised Code and preliminarily determined to be 62876
allowable costs.62877

       (H) "Direct care costs" means all of the following:62878

       (1)(a) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical 62879
nurses, and nurse aides employed by the facility;62880

       (b) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 62881
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, and except as 62882
provided in division (H)(2) of this section, other persons holding 62883
degrees qualifying them to provide therapy;62884

       (c) Costs of purchased nursing services;62885

       (d) Costs of quality assurance;62886

       (e) Costs of training and staff development, employee 62887
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 62888
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 62889
rules adopted by the director of job and family services in 62890
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for personnel 62891
listed in divisions (H)(1)(a), (b), and (d) of this section;62892

       (f) Costs of consulting and management fees related to direct 62893
care;62894

       (g) Allocated direct care home office costs.62895

       (2) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 62896
this section, for nursing facilities only, direct care costs 62897
include costs of habilitation staff (other than habilitation 62898
supervisors), medical supplies, oxygen, over-the-counter pharmacy 62899
products, behavioral and mental health services, physical 62900
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 62901
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 62902
habilitation supplies, wheelchairs, resident transportation, and 62903
universal precautions supplies.62904

       (3) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 62905
this section, for intermediate care facilities for the mentally 62906
retarded only, direct care costs include both of the following:62907

       (a) Costs for physical therapists and physical therapy 62908
assistants, occupational therapists and occupational therapy 62909
assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, habilitation staff 62910
(including habilitation supervisors), qualified mental retardation 62911
professionals, program directors, social services staff, 62912
activities staff, off-site day programming, psychologists and 62913
psychology assistants, and social workers and counselors;62914

       (b) Costs of training and staff development, employee 62915
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 62916
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 62917
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for 62918
personnel listed in division (H)(3)(a) of this section.62919

       (4) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 62920
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the 62921
Revised Code.62922

       (I) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 62923
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.62924

       (J) "Franchise permit fee" means the following:62925

       (1) In the context of nursing facilities, the fee imposed by 62926
sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code;62927

       (2) In the context of intermediate care facilities for the 62928
mentally retarded, the fee imposed by sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 62929
of the Revised Code.62930

        (K) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs incurred 62931
by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded other 62932
than direct care costs, other protected costs, or capital costs. 62933
"Indirect care costs" includes but is not limited to costs of 62934
habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 62935
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 62936
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 62937
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 62938
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 62939
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 62940
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 62941
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repairs, help-wanted 62942
advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, 62943
organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, 62944
employee training and staff development, employee benefits, 62945
payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for 62946
self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules 62947
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel 62948
listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (C)(1) of this 62949
section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of equipment, 62950
including vehicles, acquired by operating lease executed before 62951
December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as administrative and 62952
general costs on the facility's cost report for the cost reporting 62953
period ending December 31, 1992.62954

       (L) "Inpatient days" means allthe following:62955

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 62956
following:62957

       (a) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 62958
source, occupies a bed in a nursing facility or intermediate care 62959
facility for the mentally retarded that is included in the 62960
nursing facility's certified capacity under Title XIX. Therapeutic 62961
or hospital leave;62962

       (b) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 62963
under section 5111.33 or 5111.331 of the Revised Code are 62964
considered inpatient days proportionate to the percentage of the 62965
facility's per resident per day rate paid for those days.62966

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 62967
mentally retarded, both of the following:62968

        (a) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 62969
source, occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility for the 62970
mentally retarded that is included in the facility's certified 62971
capacity under Title XIX;62972

        (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 62973
of the Revised Code. 62974

       (M) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 62975
means an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 62976
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 62977
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 62978
Title XIX.62979

       (N) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 62980
provided in division (BB)(2) of this section, expenditures that 62981
are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in a normally 62982
efficient working condition and that do not extend the useful life 62983
of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and repair expenses" 62984
includes but is not limited to the cost of ordinary repairs such 62985
as painting and wallpapering.62986

       (O) "Medicaid days" means allthe following:62987

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 62988
following:62989

       (a) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 62990
recipient eligible for nursing facility services occupies a bed in 62991
a nursing facility that is included in the nursing facility's 62992
certified capacity under Title XIX. Therapeutic or hospital leave;62993

       (b) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 62994
under section 5111.33 or 5111.331 of the Revised Code are 62995
considered medicaid days proportionate to the percentage of the 62996
nursing facility's per resident per day rate paid for those days.62997

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 62998
mentally retarded, both of the following:62999

        (a) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 63000
recipient eligible for intermediate care facility for the mentally 63001
retarded services occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility 63002
for the mentally retarded that is included in the facility's 63003
certified capacity under Title XIX;63004

        (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 63005
of the Revised Code. 63006

        (P) "Nursing facility" means a facility, or a distinct part 63007
of a facility, that is certified as a nursing facility by the 63008
director of health in accordance with Title XIX and is not an 63009
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. "Nursing 63010
facility" includes a facility, or a distinct part of a facility, 63011
that is certified as a nursing facility by the director of health 63012
in accordance with Title XIX and is certified as a skilled nursing 63013
facility by the director in accordance with Title XVIII.63014

       (Q) "Operator" means the person or government entity 63015
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 63016
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 63017
retarded.63018

       (R) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 63019
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded for medical 63020
supplies; real estate, franchise, and property taxes; natural gas, 63021
fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and refuse and hazardous 63022
medical waste collection; allocated other protected home office 63023
costs; and any additional costs defined as other protected costs 63024
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.63025

       (S)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that has 63026
at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 63027
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 63028
regarding a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 63029
mentally retarded:63030

       (a) The land on which the facility is located;63031

       (b) The structure in which the facility is located;63032

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 63033
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 63034
which the facility is located;63035

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 63036
which the facility is located.63037

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 63038
related to the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 63039
the mentally retarded and purchased at public issue or a regulated 63040
lender that has made a loan related to the facility unless the 63041
holder or lender operates the facility directly or through a 63042
subsidiary.63043

       (T) "Patient" includes "resident."63044

       (U) Except as provided in divisions (U)(1) and (2) of this 63045
section, "per diem" means a nursing facility's or intermediate 63046
care facility for the mentally retarded's actual, allowable costs 63047
in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, divided by the 63048
facility's inpatient days for that cost reporting period.63049

       (1) When calculating indirect care costs for the purpose of 63050
establishing rates under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code, 63051
"per diem" means an intermediate care facility for the mentally 63052
retarded's actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost 63053
reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 63054
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 63055
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 63056
had been eighty-five per cent.63057

       (2) When calculating capital costs for the purpose of 63058
establishing rates under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code, 63059
"per diem" means a facility's actual, allowable capital costs in a 63060
cost reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 63061
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 63062
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 63063
had been ninety-five per cent.63064

       (V) "Provider" means an operator with a provider agreement.63065

       (W) "Provider agreement" means a contract between the 63066
department of job and family services and the operator of a 63067
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 63068
retarded for the provision of nursing facility services or 63069
intermediate care facility services for the mentally retarded 63070
under the medicaid program.63071

       (X) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 63072
provided in a nursing facility by registered nurses, licensed 63073
practical nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the 63074
facility.63075

       (Y) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that is 63076
appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation of 63077
patient care facilities and activities, including normal standby 63078
costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays for a 63079
given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from provider to 63080
provider and from time to time for the same provider.63081

       (Z) "Related party" means an individual or organization that, 63082
to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is associated 63083
or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled by, the 63084
provider.63085

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 63086
party.63087

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 63088
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 63089
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 63090
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 63091
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 63092
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 63093
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 63094
provider and another organization from which the provider 63095
purchases or leases real property.63096

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 63097
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 63098
direct the actions or policies of an organization.63099

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 63100
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 63101
all of the following conditions are met:63102

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.63103

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 63104
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 63105
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 63106
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.63107

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 63108
other nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 63109
mentally retarded from outside organizations and are not a basic 63110
element of patient care ordinarily furnished directly to patients 63111
by the facilities.63112

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 63113
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 63114
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 63115
supplier.63116

       (AA) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is related 63117
to an owner of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 63118
for the mentally retarded by one of the following relationships:63119

       (1) Spouse;63120

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;63121

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;63122

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;63123

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 63124
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;63125

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;63126

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 63127
sister.63128

       (BB) "Renovation" and "extensive renovation" mean:63129

       (1) Any betterment, improvement, or restoration of an 63130
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded started 63131
before July 1, 1993, that meets the definition of a renovation or 63132
extensive renovation established in rules adopted by the director 63133
of job and family services in effect on December 22, 1992.63134

       (2) In the case of betterments, improvements, and 63135
restorations of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 63136
retarded started on or after July 1, 1993:63137

       (a) "Renovation" means the betterment, improvement, or 63138
restoration of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 63139
retarded beyond its current functional capacity through a 63140
structural change that costs at least five hundred dollars per 63141
bed. A renovation may include betterment, improvement, 63142
restoration, or replacement of assets that are affixed to the 63143
building and have a useful life of at least five years. A 63144
renovation may include costs that otherwise would be considered 63145
maintenance and repair expenses if they are an integral part of 63146
the structural change that makes up the renovation project. 63147
"Renovation" does not mean construction of additional space for 63148
beds that will be added to a facility's licensed or certified 63149
capacity.63150

       (b) "Extensive renovation" means a renovation that costs more 63151
than sixty-five per cent and no more than eighty-five per cent of 63152
the cost of constructing a new bed and that extends the useful 63153
life of the assets for at least ten years.63154

       For the purposes of division (BB)(2) of this section, the 63155
cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to be forty 63156
thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of inflation 63157
from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year during which 63158
the renovation is completed, using the consumer price index for 63159
shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north central 63160
region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 63161
statistics.63162

       The department of job and family services may treat a 63163
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 63164
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 63165
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 63166
construction of new beds.63167

       (CC) "Tax costs" means the costs of taxes imposed under 63168
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, real estate taxes, personal 63169
property taxes, and corporate franchise taxes.63170

       (DD) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 63171
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amended.63172

       (DD)(EE) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 63173
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.63174

       Sec. 5111.222.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by sections 63175
5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code and by division (B) of 63176
this section, the total rate that the department of job and family 63177
services shall agree to pay for a fiscal year to the provider of a 63178
nursing facility pursuant to a provider agreement shall equal the 63179
sum of all of the following:63180

        (1) The rate for direct care costs determined for the nursing 63181
facility under section 5111.231 of the Revised Code;63182

        (2) The rate for ancillary and support costs determined for 63183
the nursing facility's ancillary and support cost peer group under 63184
section 5111.24 of the Revised Code;63185

        (3) The rate for tax costs determined for the nursing 63186
facility under section 5111.242 of the Revised Code;63187

        (4) The quality incentive payment paid to the nursing 63188
facility under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code;63189

        (5) If the nursing facility qualifies as a critical access 63190
nursing facility, the critical access incentive payment paid to 63191
the nursing facility under section 5111.246 of the Revised Code;63192

       (6) The rate for capital costs determined for the nursing 63193
facility's capital costs peer group under section 5111.25 of the 63194
Revised Code.63195

        (B) The department shall adjust the rates otherwise 63196
determined under division (A) of this section as directed by the 63197
general assembly through the enactment of law governing medicaid 63198
payments to providers of nursing facilities, including any law 63199
that establishes factors by which the rates are to be adjusted.63200

       (C) In addition to paying a nursing facility provider the 63201
total rate determined for the nursing facility under division (A) 63202
of this section for a fiscal year, the department shall pay the 63203
provider a quality bonus under section 5111.245 of the Revised 63204
Code for that fiscal year if the provider's nursing facility is a 63205
qualifying nursing facility, as defined in that section, for that 63206
fiscal year. The quality bonus shall not be part of the total 63207
rate.63208

       Sec. 5111.23.  (A) The department of job and family services 63209
shall pay a provider for each of the provider's eligible 63210
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded a per 63211
resident per day rate for direct care costs established 63212
prospectively for each facility. The department shall establish 63213
each facility's rate for direct care costs quarterly.63214

       (B) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be based 63215
on the facility's cost per case-mix unit, subject to the maximum 63216
costs per case-mix unit established under division (B)(2) of this 63217
section, from the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 63218
the rate is paid. To determine the rate, the department shall do 63219
all of the following:63220

       (1) Determine each facility's cost per case-mix unit for the 63221
calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 63222
paid by dividing the facility's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 63223
per diem direct care costs for that year by its average case-mix 63224
score determined under section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for 63225
the same calendar year.63226

       (2)(a) Set the maximum cost per case-mix unit for each peer 63227
group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 63228
with more than eight beds specified in rules adopted under 63229
division (F) of this section at a percentage above the cost per 63230
case-mix unit of the facility in the group that has the group's 63231
median medicaid inpatient day for the calendar year preceding the 63232
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as calculated under 63233
division (B)(1) of this section, that is no less than the 63234
percentage calculated under division (E)(2) of this section.63235

       (b) Set the maximum cost per case-mix unit for each peer 63236
group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 63237
with eight or fewer beds specified in rules adopted under division 63238
(F) of this section at a percentage above the cost per case-mix 63239
unit of the facility in the group that has the group's median 63240
medicaid inpatient day for the calendar year preceding the fiscal 63241
year in which the rate will be paid, as calculated under division 63242
(B)(1) of this section, that is no less than the percentage 63243
calculated under division (E)(3) of this section.63244

       (c) In calculating the maximum cost per case-mix unit under 63245
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section for each peer group, 63246
the department shall exclude from its calculations the cost per 63247
case-mix unit of any facility in the group that participated in 63248
the medicaid program under the same operator for less than twelve 63249
months during the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 63250
the rate will be paid.63251

       (3) Estimate the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month 63252
period beginning on the first day of July of the calendar year 63253
preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid and 63254
ending on the thirty-first day of December of the fiscal year in 63255
which the rate will be paid, using the index specified in division 63256
(C) of this section. If the estimated inflation rate for the 63257
eighteen-month period is different from the actual inflation rate 63258
for that period, as measured using the same index, the difference 63259
shall be added to or subtracted from the inflation rate estimated 63260
under division (B)(3) of this section for the following fiscal 63261
year.63262

       (4) The department shall not recalculate a maximum cost per 63263
case-mix unit under division (B)(2) of this section or a 63264
percentage under division (E) of this section based on additional 63265
information that it receives after the maximum costs per case-mix 63266
unit or percentages are set. The department shall recalculate a 63267
maximum cost per case-mix units or percentage only if it made an 63268
error in computing the maximum cost per case-mix unit or 63269
percentage based on information available at the time of the 63270
original calculation.63271

       (C) The department shall use the following index for the 63272
purpose of division (B)(3) of this section:63273

       (1) The employment cost index for total compensation, health 63274
services component, published by the United States bureau of labor 63275
statistics;63276

       (2) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 63277
publish the index specified in division (C)(1) of this section, 63278
the index that is subsequently published by the bureau and covers 63279
nursing facilities' staff costs.63280

       (D) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be 63281
determined as follows for each calendar quarter within a fiscal 63282
year:63283

       (1) Multiply the lesser of the following by the facility's 63284
average case-mix score determined under section 5111.232 of the 63285
Revised Code for the calendar quarter that preceded the 63286
immediately preceding calendar quarter:63287

       (a) The facility's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar 63288
year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as 63289
determined under division (B)(1) of this section;63290

       (b) The maximum cost per case-mix unit established for the 63291
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid for the facility's peer 63292
group under division (B)(2) of this section;63293

       (2) Adjust the product determined under division (D)(1) of 63294
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) 63295
of this section.63296

       (E)(1) The department shall calculate the percentage above 63297
the median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) 63298
of this section for the facility that has the median medicaid 63299
inpatient day for calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care 63300
facilities for the mentally retarded with more than eight beds 63301
that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 63302
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 63303
the medicaid inpatient days for such facilities for calendar year 63304
1992.63305

       (2) The department shall calculate the percentage above the 63306
median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) of 63307
this section for the facility that has the median medicaid 63308
inpatient day for calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care 63309
facilities for the mentally retarded with eight or fewer beds that 63310
would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable 63311
direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid 63312
inpatient days for such facilities for calendar year 1992.63313

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 63314
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that specify peer groups 63315
of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded with 63316
more than eight beds and intermediate care facilities for the 63317
mentally retarded with eight or fewer beds, based on findings of 63318
significant per diem direct care cost differences due to geography 63319
and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify peer groups 63320
based on findings of significant per diem direct care cost 63321
differences due to other factors which may include case-mix.63322

       (G) The department, in accordance with division (D) of 63323
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 63324
division (F) of that section, may assign case-mix scores or costs 63325
per case-mix unit if a provider fails to submit assessment data 63326
necessary to calculate an intermediate care facility for the 63327
mentally retarded's case-mix score in accordance with that 63328
section.63329

       Sec. 5111.242. (A) As used in this section:63330

       (1) "Applicable, "applicable calendar year" means the 63331
following:63332

        (a)(1) For the purpose of the department of job and family 63333
services' initial determination under this section of nursing 63334
facilities' rate for tax costs, calendar year 2003;63335

       (b)(2) For the purpose of the department's subsequent 63336
determinations under division (C) of this section of nursing 63337
facilities' rate for tax costs, the calendar year the department 63338
selects.63339

       (2) "Tax costs" means the costs of taxes imposed under 63340
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, real estate taxes, personal 63341
property taxes, and corporate franchise taxes.63342

        (B) The department of job and family services shall pay a 63343
provider for each of the provider's eligible nursing facilities a 63344
per resident per day rate for tax costs determined under division 63345
(C) of this section.63346

        (C) At least once every ten years, the department shall 63347
determine the rate for tax costs for each nursing facility. The 63348
rate for tax costs determined under this division for a nursing 63349
facility shall be used for subsequent years until the department 63350
redetermines it. To determine a nursing facility's rate for tax 63351
costs and except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 63352
department shall divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, 63353
actual, allowable tax costs paid for the applicable calendar year 63354
by the number of inpatient days the nursing facility would have 63355
had if its occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during the 63356
applicable calendar year.63357

       (D) If a nursing facility had a credit regarding its real 63358
estate taxes reflected on its cost report for calendar year 2003, 63359
the department shall determine its rate for tax costs for the 63360
period beginning on July 1, 2010, and ending on the first day of 63361
the fiscal year for which the department first redetermines all 63362
nursing facilities' rate for tax costs under division (C) of this 63363
section by dividing the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 63364
allowable tax costs paid for calendar year 2004 by the number of 63365
inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if its 63366
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during calendar year 63367
2004.63368

       Sec. 5111.246.  (A) Each fiscal year, the department of job 63369
and family services shall pay a critical access incentive payment 63370
to the provider of each nursing facility that qualifies as a 63371
critical access nursing facility. To qualify as a critical access 63372
nursing facility for a fiscal year, a nursing facility must meet 63373
all of the following requirements:63374

       (1) The nursing facility must be located in an area that, on 63375
December 31, 2011, was designated an empowerment zone under 63376
section 1391 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 107 Stat. 63377
543, 26 U.S.C. 1391, as amended.63378

       (2) The nursing facility must have an occupancy rate of at 63379
least eighty-five per cent as of the last day of the calendar year 63380
preceding the fiscal year.63381

       (3) The nursing facility must have a medicaid utilization 63382
rate of at least sixty-five per cent as of the last day of the 63383
calendar year preceding the fiscal year.63384

       (B) A critical access nursing facility's critical access 63385
incentive payment for a fiscal year shall equal five per cent of 63386
the portion of the nursing facility's total rate for the fiscal 63387
year that is the sum of the rates and payment identified in 63388
divisions (A)(1) to (4) and (6) of section 5111.222 of the Revised 63389
Code.63390

       Sec. 5111.254.  (A) The department of job and family services 63391
shall establish initial rates for a nursing facility with a first 63392
date of licensure that is on or after July 1, 2006, including a 63393
facility that replaces one or more existing facilities, or for a 63394
nursing facility with a first date of licensure before that date 63395
that was initially certified for the medicaid program on or after 63396
that date, in the following manner:63397

       (1) The rate for direct care costs shall be the product of 63398
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (D) of 63399
section 5111.231 of the Revised Code for the facility's peer group 63400
and the nursing facility's case-mix score. For the purpose of 63401
division (A)(1) of this section, the nursing facility's case-mix 63402
score shall be the following:63403

        (a) Unless the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 63404
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 63405
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 63406
the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score for 63407
the nursing facility's peer group;63408

        (b) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 63409
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 63410
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 63411
the medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 63412
determined under section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for the 63413
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 63414
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and 63415
replacement nursing facilities.63416

       (2) The rate for ancillary and support costs shall be the 63417
rate for the facility's peer group determined under division (D) 63418
of section 5111.24 of the Revised Code.63419

       (3) The rate for capital costs shall be the rate for the 63420
facility's peer group determined under division (D) of section 63421
5111.25 of the Revised Code.63422

       (4) The rate for tax costs as defined in section 5111.242 of 63423
the Revised Code shall be the median rate for tax costs for the 63424
facility's peer group in which the facility is placed under 63425
division (C) of section 5111.24 of the Revised Code.63426

       (5) The quality incentive payment shall be the mean payment 63427
made to nursing facilities under section 5111.244 of the Revised 63428
Code.63429

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, the department 63430
shall adjust the rates established under division (A) of this 63431
section effective the first day of July, to reflect new rate 63432
calculations for all nursing facilities under sections 5111.20 to 63433
5111.331 of the Revised Code.63434

       (C) If a rate for direct care costs is determined under this 63435
section for a nursing facility using the median annual average 63436
case-mix score for the nursing facility's peer group, the rate 63437
shall be redetermined to reflect the replacement nursing 63438
facility's actual semiannual case-mix score determined under 63439
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code after the nursing facility 63440
submits its first two quarterly assessment data that qualify for 63441
use in calculating a case-mix score in accordance with rules 63442
authorized by division (E) of section 5111.232 of the Revised 63443
Code. If the nursing facility's quarterly submissions do not 63444
qualify for use in calculating a case-mix score, the department 63445
shall continue to use the median annual average case-mix score for 63446
the nursing facility's peer group in lieu of the nursing 63447
facility's semiannual case-mix score until the nursing facility 63448
submits two consecutive quarterly assessment data that qualify for 63449
use in calculating a case-mix score.63450

       Sec. 5111.862.  (A) As used in this section:63451

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 63452
section 3721.50 of the Revised Code.63453

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 63454
of the Revised Code.63455

       "Ohio home care program" means the medicaid waiver component 63456
created under section 5111.861 of the Revised Code.63457

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 63458
licensed by the department of mental health under section 5119.22 63459
of the Revised Code, or an institution certified by the department 63460
of job and family services under section 5103.03 of the Revised 63461
Code, that serves children and either has more than sixteen beds 63462
or is part of a campus of multiple facilities or institutions63463
that, combined, have a total of more than sixteen beds.63464

       (B) Subject to division (C) of section 5111.861 of the 63465
Revised Code, the department of job and family services shall 63466
establish a home first component for the Ohio home care program. 63467
An individual is eligible for the Ohio home care program's home 63468
first component if the individual has been determined to be 63469
eligible for the Ohio home care program and at least one of the 63470
following applies:63471

       (1) If the individual is under twenty-one years of age, the 63472
individual received inpatient hospital services for at least 63473
fourteen consecutive days, or had at least three inpatient 63474
hospital stays during the twelve months, immediately preceding the 63475
date the individual applies for the Ohio home care program.63476

       (2) If the individual is at least twenty-one but less than 63477
sixty years of age, the individual received inpatient hospital 63478
services for at least fourteen consecutive days immediately 63479
preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio home care 63480
program.63481

       (3) The individual received private duty nursing services 63482
under the medicaid program for at least twelve consecutive months 63483
immediately preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio 63484
home care program.63485

       (4) The individual does not reside in a nursing facility or 63486
hospital long-term care unit at the time the individual applies 63487
for the Ohio home care program but is at risk of imminent 63488
admission to a nursing facility or hospital long-term care unit 63489
due to a documented loss of a primary caregiver.63490

       (5) The individual resides in a nursing facility at the time 63491
the individual applies for the Ohio home care program.63492

       (6) At the time the individual applies for the Ohio home care 63493
program, the individual participates in the money follows the 63494
person demonstration project authorized by section 6071 of the 63495
"Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. No. 109-171, as amended, 63496
and either resides in a residential treatment facility or 63497
inpatient hospital setting.63498

       (C) An individual determined to be eligible for the home 63499
first component of the Ohio home care program shall be enrolled in 63500
the Ohio home care program in accordance with rules adopted under 63501
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.63502

       Sec. 5111.874.  (A) As used in sections 5111.874 to 5111.8710 63503
of the Revised Code:63504

       "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning as 63505
in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.63506

       "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for the 63507
mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program that an 63508
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded provides to a 63509
resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient eligible for 63510
medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the mentally 63511
retarded services.63512

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" means 63513
an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that is 63514
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 63515
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 63516
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 63517
U.S.C. 1396, as amended, and licensed as a residential facility 63518
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.63519

       "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 63520
5123.19 of the Revised Code.63521

       (B) For the purpose of increasing the number of slots 63522
available for home and community-based services and subject to 63523
sections 5111.877 and 5111.878 of the Revised Code, the operator 63524
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded may 63525
convert some or all of the beds in the facility from providing 63526
ICF/MR services to providing home and community-based services if 63527
all of the following requirements are met:63528

       (1) The operator provides the directors of health, job and 63529
family services, and developmental disabilities at least ninety 63530
days' notice of the operator's intent to make the conversion.63531

       (2) The operator complies with the requirements of sections 63532
5111.65 to 5111.689 of the Revised Code regarding a voluntary 63533
termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the Revised Code if 63534
those requirements are applicable.63535

       (3) If the operator intends to convert all of the facility's 63536
beds, the operator notifies each of the facility's residents that 63537
the facility is to cease providing ICF/MR services and inform each 63538
resident that the resident may do either of the following:63539

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services by transferring to 63540
another facility that is an intermediate care facility for the 63541
mentally retarded willing and able to accept the resident if the 63542
resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR services;63543

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 63544
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 63545
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 63546
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 63547
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.63548

       (4) If the operator intends to convert some but not all of 63549
the facility's beds, the operator notifies each of the facility's 63550
residents that the facility is to convert some of its beds from 63551
providing ICF/MR services to providing home and community-based 63552
services and inform each resident that the resident may do either 63553
of the following:63554

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services from any provider of 63555
ICF/MR services that is willing and able to provide the services 63556
to the resident if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR 63557
services;63558

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 63559
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 63560
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 63561
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 63562
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.63563

       (5) The operator meets the requirements for providing home 63564
and community-based services, including the following:63565

       (a) Such requirements applicable to a residential facility if 63566
the operator maintains the facility's license as a residential 63567
facility;63568

       (b) Such requirements applicable to a facility that is not 63569
licensed as a residential facility if the operator surrenders the 63570
facility's license as a residential facility license under section 63571
5123.19 of the Revised Code.63572

       (6) The directorsdirector of developmental disabilities and 63573
job and family services approveapproves the conversion.63574

       (C) A decision by the directorsdirector of developmental 63575
disabilities to approve or refuse to approve a proposed conversion 63576
of beds is final. In making a decision, the directorsdirector63577
shall consider all of the following:63578

       (1) The fiscal impact on the facility if some but not all of 63579
the beds are converted;63580

       (2) The fiscal impact on the medical assistance program;63581

       (3) The availability of home and community-based services.63582

       (D) The notice provided to the directors under division 63583
(B)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 63584
facility's beds are to be converted. If some but not all of the 63585
beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many of the 63586
facility's beds are to be converted and how many of the beds are 63587
to continue to provide ICF/MR services. The notice to the director 63588
of developmental disabilities shall specify whether the operator 63589
wishes to surrender the facility's license as a residential 63590
facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.63591

       (E)(1) If the directorsdirector of developmental 63592
disabilities and job and family services approveapproves a 63593
conversion under division (C) of this section, the director of 63594
health shall do the following:63595

       (a) Terminate the certification of the intermediate care 63596
facility for the mentally retarded if the notice specifies that 63597
all of the facility's beds are to be converted;63598

       (b) Reduce the facility's certified capacity by the number of 63599
beds being converted if the notice specifies that some but not all 63600
of the beds are to be converted. 63601

       (2) The director of health shall notify the director of job 63602
and family services of the termination or reduction. On receipt of 63603
the director of health's notice, the director of job and family 63604
services shall do the following:63605

       (a) Terminate the operator's medicaid provider agreement that 63606
authorizes the operator to provide ICF/MR services at the facility 63607
if the facility's certification was terminated;63608

       (b) Amend the operator's medicaid provider agreement to 63609
reflect the facility's reduced certified capacity if the 63610
facility's certified capacity is reduced. 63611

       (3) In the case of action taken under division (E)(2)(a) of 63612
this section, the operator is not entitled to notice or a hearing 63613
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the director of job 63614
and family services terminates the medicaid provider agreement.63615

       Sec. 5111.877. The director of job and family services may 63616
seek approval from the United States secretary of health and human 63617
services for not more than a total of twofive hundred slots for 63618
home and community-based services for the purposes of sections 63619
5111.874, 5111.875, and 5111.876 of the Revised Code.63620

       Sec. 5111.878. Not more than a total of onefive hundred beds 63621
may be converted from providing ICF/MR services to providing home 63622
and community-based services under sections 5111.874 and 5111.875 63623
of the Revised Code.63624

       Sec. 5111.89.  (A) As used in sections 5111.89 to 5111.894 of 63625
the Revised Code:63626

       "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 63627
173.14 of the Revised Code.63628

       "Assisted living program" means the program created under 63629
this section.63630

       "Assisted living services" means the following home and 63631
community-based services: personal care, homemaker, chore, 63632
attendant care, companion, medication oversight, and therapeutic 63633
social and recreational programming.63634

       "Assisted living waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver 63635
granted by the United States secretary of health and human 63636
services that authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the 63637
assisted living program.63638

       "County or district home" means a county or district home 63639
operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.63640

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 63641
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 63642
the Revised Code.63643

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 63644
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 63645
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 63646
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 63647
particular area, that agency or entity.63648

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 63649
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.63650

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 63651
of the Revised Code.63652

       "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 63653
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.63654

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 63655
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 63656
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.63657

       (B) There is hereby created the assisted living program. The 63658
program shall provide assisted living services to individuals who 63659
meet the program's applicable eligibility requirements. Subject to 63660
division (C) of this section, the program shall have a 63661
medicaid-funded component and a state-funded component.63662

       (C)(1) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the assisted 63663
living program is terminated under division (C)(2) of this 63664
section, all of the following apply:63665

       (a) The department of aging shall administer the 63666
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 63667
department of job and family services under section 5111.91 of the 63668
Revised Code.63669

       (b) The contract shall include an estimate of the 63670
medicaid-funded component's costs. 63671

        (c) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 63672
separate medicaid waiver component. 63673

        (d) The medicaid-funded component may not serve more 63674
individuals than is set by the United States secretary of health 63675
and human services in the assisted living waiver.63676

        (e) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 63677
under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code regarding the 63678
medicaid-funded component. 63679

       (f) The director of aging may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 63680
of the Revised Code regarding the medicaid-funded component that 63681
the rules adopted by the director of job and family services under 63682
division (C)(1)(e) of this section authorize the director of aging 63683
to adopt.63684

       (2) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 63685
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 63686
family services shall work together to determine whether the 63687
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program should 63688
continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 63689
terminated. If the departments determine that the medicaid-funded 63690
component of the assisted living program should be terminated, the 63691
medicaid-funded component shall cease to exist on a date the 63692
departments shall specify.63693

       (D) The department of aging shall administer the state-funded 63694
component of the assisted living program. The state-funded 63695
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 63696
program.63697

       An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component 63698
may participate in the component for not more than three months63699
ninety days.63700

       The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with 63701
section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the state-funded 63702
component.63703

       Sec. 5111.894.  (A) Subject to division (C)(2) of section 63704
5111.89 of the Revised Code, the department of aging shall 63705
establish a home first component of the assisted living program 63706
under which eligible individuals may be enrolled in the 63707
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program in 63708
accordance with this section. An individual is eligible for the 63709
assisted living program's home first component if both of the 63710
following apply:63711

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 63712
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program.63713

       (2) At least one of the following applies:63714

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.63715

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 63716
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 63717
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 63718
assisted living program, will require the individual to be 63719
admitted to a nursing facility within thirty days of the 63720
physician's determination.63721

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 63722
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 63723
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 63724
assisted living program, the individual is to be transported 63725
directly from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.63726

       (d) Both of the following apply:63727

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 63728
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 63729
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 63730
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 63731
or has made a request to a county department for protective 63732
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.63733

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 63734
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 63735
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 63736
services such as the assisted living program, the individual 63737
should be admitted to a nursing facility.63738

       (e) The individual resided in a residential care facility for 63739
at least six months immediately before applying for the 63740
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program and is at 63741
risk of imminent admission to a nursing facility because the costs 63742
of residing in the residential care facility have depleted the 63743
individual's resources such that the individual is unable to 63744
continue to afford the cost of residing in the residential care 63745
facility. 63746

       (B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 63747
individuals residing in the area that the area agency on aging 63748
serves who are eligible for the home first component of the 63749
assisted living program. When an area agency on aging identifies 63750
such an individual and determines that there is a vacancy in a 63751
residential care facility participating in the medicaid-funded 63752
component of the assisted living program that is acceptable to the 63753
individual, the agency shall notify the long-term care 63754
consultation program administrator serving the area in which the 63755
individual resides. The administrator shall determine whether the 63756
assisted living program is appropriate for the individual and 63757
whether the individual would rather participate in the assisted 63758
living program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 63759
facility. If the administrator determines that the assisted living 63760
program is appropriate for the individual and the individual would 63761
rather participate in the assisted living program than continue or 63762
begin to reside in a nursing facility, the administrator shall so 63763
notify the department of aging. On receipt of the notice from the 63764
administrator, the department shall approve the individual's 63765
enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 63766
program regardless of the unified waiting list established under 63767
section 173.404 of the Revised Code, unless the enrollment would 63768
cause the component to exceed any limit on the number of 63769
individuals who may participate in the component as set by the 63770
United States secretary of health and human services in the 63771
assisted living waiver. 63772

       Sec. 5111.941. (A) The medicaid revenue and collections63773
health care/medicaid support and recoveries fund is hereby created 63774
in the state treasury. ExceptAll of the following shall be 63775
credited to the fund:63776

       (1) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 63777
by the controlling board, the nonfederal share of all 63778
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries shall be 63779
credited to the fund;63780

       (2) Federal reimbursement received for payment adjustments 63781
made pursuant to section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 101 63782
Stat. 1330-148 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-4, as amended, under the 63783
medicaid program to state mental health hospitals maintained and 63784
operated by the department of mental health under division (A) of 63785
section 5119.02 of the Revised Code;63786

       (3) Revenues the department of job and family services 63787
receives from another state agency for medicaid services pursuant 63788
to an interagency agreement, other than such revenues required to 63789
be deposited into the health care services administration fund 63790
created under section 5111.94 of the Revised Code;63791

       (4) The first seven hundred fifty thousand dollars the 63792
department receives in a fiscal year for performing eligibility 63793
verification services necessary for compliance with the 63794
independent, certified audit requirement of 42 C.F.R. 455.304.63795

       (B) The department of job and family services shall use money 63796
credited to the medicaid revenue and collectionshealth 63797
care/medicaid support and recoveries fund to pay for medicaid 63798
services and contracts.63799

       Sec. 5111.946.  (A) As used in this section, "medicaid 63800
managed care organization" means a managed care organization under 63801
contract with the department of job and family services pursuant 63802
to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.63803

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the health 63804
care compliance fund. All of the following shall be credited to 63805
the fund:63806

       (1) All fines imposed on and collected from medicaid managed 63807
care organizations for failure to meet performance standards or 63808
other requirements specified in provider agreements or rules 63809
adopted by the department;63810

       (2) Money the department receives in a fiscal year for 63811
performing eligibility verification services necessary for 63812
compliance with the independent, certified audit requirement of 42 63813
C.F.R. 455.304, other than the amounts of such money that are to 63814
be credited to the health care/medicaid support and recoveries 63815
fund under section 5111.941 of the Revised Code;63816

       (3) All investment earnings of the fund.63817

       (C) Money credited to the health care compliance fund shall 63818
be used solely for the following purposes:63819

       (1) To reimburse medicaid managed care organizations that 63820
have paid fines for failure to meet performance standards or other 63821
requirements and have come into compliance by meeting requirements 63822
as specified by the department;63823

       (2) To provide financial incentive awards established 63824
pursuant to section 5111.171 of the Revised Code and specified in 63825
contracts between medicaid managed care organizations and the 63826
department.63827

       Sec. 5111.96.  (A) As used in this section, "MFP 63828
demonstration project" means a money follows the person 63829
demonstration project that the United States secretary of health 63830
and human services is authorized to award under section 6071 of 63831
the Deficit Reduction Act of 2005 (Pub. L. No. 109-171, as 63832
amended).63833

        (B) To the extent funds are available under an MFP 63834
demonstration project awarded to the department of job and family 63835
services, the director of job and family services may operate the 63836
helping Ohioans move, expanding (HOME) choice demonstration 63837
component of the medicaid program to transition medicaid 63838
recipients who qualify for the demonstration component to 63839
community settings. The director may adopt rules in accordance 63840
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration and 63841
operation of the demonstration component.63842

       Sec. 5111.97. (A) As used in this section, "nursing:63843

       (1) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 63844
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 63845
Revised Code.63846

       (2) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 63847
5111.20 of the Revised Code.63848

       (B) To the extent funds are available, the director of job 63849
and family services may establish the Ohio access success project 63850
to help medicaid recipients make the transition from residing in a 63851
nursing facility to residing in a community setting. The project 63852
may be established as a separate nonmedicaid program or integrated 63853
into a new or existing program of medicaid-funded home and 63854
community-based services authorized by amedicaid waiver approved 63855
by the United States department of health and human services63856
component. The director shall permit any recipient of 63857
medicaid-funded nursing facility services to apply for 63858
participation in the project, but may limit the number of project 63859
participants. 63860

       The director shall ensure that an assessment of an applicant 63861
is conducted as soon as practicable to determine whether the 63862
applicant is eligible for participation in the project. To the 63863
maximum extent possible, the assessment and eligibility 63864
determination shall be completed not later than the date that 63865
occurs six months after the applicant became a recipient of 63866
medicaid-funded nursing facility services.63867

        (C) To be eligible for benefits under the project, a medicaid 63868
recipient must satisfy all of the following requirements:63869

       (1) The medicaid recipient must be a recipient of 63870
medicaid-funded nursing facility services, at the time of applying 63871
for the project benefits.63872

       (2) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid program, 63873
the medicaid recipient must be able to remain in the community as 63874
a result of receiving project benefits and the projected cost of 63875
the benefits to the project does not exceed eighty per cent of the 63876
average monthly medicaid cost of a medicaid recipient in a nursing 63877
facility.63878

       (3) If the project is integrated into a medicaid-funded home 63879
and community-based services medicaid waiver programcomponent, 63880
the medicaid recipient must meet the waiver component's enrollment 63881
criteria.63882

        (D) If the director establishes the Ohio access success 63883
project, the benefits provided under the project may include 63884
payment of all of the following:63885

       (1) The first month's rent in a community setting;63886

       (2) Rental deposits;63887

       (3) Utility deposits;63888

       (4) Moving expenses;63889

       (5) Other expenses not covered by the medicaid program that 63890
facilitate a medicaid recipient's move from a nursing facility to 63891
a community setting.63892

        (E) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid program, 63893
no participant may receive more than two thousand dollars' worth 63894
of benefits under the project.63895

        (F) If the department of job and family services enters into 63896
a contract with an entity to provide fiscal management services 63897
regarding the project, the contract may provide for a portion of a 63898
participant's benefits under the project to be paid to the 63899
contracting entity. The contract shall specify the portion to be 63900
paid to the contracting entity.63901

        (G) The director may submit a request to the United States 63902
secretary of health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of 63903
the "Social Security Act," 7995 Stat. 286809 (19651981), 42 63904
U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, to create a medicaid home and 63905
community-based services medicaid waiver programcomponent to 63906
serve individuals who meet the criteria for participation in the 63907
Ohio access success project. The63908

       (H) The director may adopt rules underin accordance with63909
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration and 63910
operation of the project. If the project is integrated into a home 63911
and community-based services medicaid waiver component, the rules 63912
shall be adopted under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.63913

       Sec. 5112.31.  The department of job and family services 63914
shall do all of the following:63915

       (A) Subject to section 5112.331 of the Revised Code and63916
divisions (B) and (C) of this section and for the purposes 63917
specified in sections 5112.37 andsection 5112.371 of the Revised 63918
Code, assess for each fiscal year each intermediate care facility 63919
for the mentally retarded a franchise permit fee equal to the 63920
franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the 63921
following:63922

       (1) The number of beds certified under Title XIX of the 63923
"Social Security Act" on the first day of May of the calendar year 63924
in which the assessment is determined pursuant to division (A) of 63925
section 5112.33 of the Revised Code;63926

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year.63927

       (B) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 63928
under division (A) of this section for a fiscal year exceeds the 63929
indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net patient revenue 63930
for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded for 63931
that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of the total 63932
number of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 63933
receive enhanced medicaid payments or other state payments equal 63934
to seventy-five per cent or more of their total franchise permit 63935
fee assessments, do both of the following:63936

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under division (A) of this 63937
section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 63938
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all 63939
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded for that 63940
fiscal year;63941

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 63942
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under division (A) of 63943
this section and the amount recalculated under division (B)(1) of 63944
this section as a credit against the assessments imposed under 63945
division (A) of this section for the subsequent fiscal year.63946

       (C) If the United States secretary of health and human 63947
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 63948
sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 of the Revised Code would be an 63949
impermissible health care-related tax under section 1903(w) of the 63950
"Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991), 42 U.S.C.A.63951
1396b(w), as amended, take all necessary actions to cease 63952
implementation of those sections in accordance with rules adopted 63953
under section 5112.39 of the Revised Code.63954

       Sec. 5112.33.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day of August 63955
of each year, the department of job and family services shall 63956
determine the annual franchise permit fee for each intermediate 63957
care facility for the mentally retarded in accordance with section 63958
5112.31 of the Revised Code.63959

       (B) Not later than the first day of September of each year, 63960
the department shall mail to each intermediate care facility for 63961
the mentally retarded notice of the amount of the franchise permit 63962
fee the facility has been assessed under section 5112.31 of the 63963
Revised Code.63964

       (C) EachSubject to section 5112.331 of the Revised Code, 63965
each intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall 63966
pay its fee under section 5112.31 of the Revised Code to the 63967
department in quarterly installment payments not later than 63968
forty-five days after the last day of each September, December, 63969
March, and June.63970

       Sec. 5112.331.  (A) If, during the period beginning on the 63971
first day of May of a calendar year and ending on the first day of 63972
January of the immediately following calendar year, the operator 63973
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 63974
converts, pursuant to section 5111.874 of the Revised Code, one or 63975
more of the facility's beds to providing home and community-based 63976
services, the department of job and family services shall do the 63977
following:63978

       (1) If the facility's medicaid certification is terminated 63979
because of the conversion, terminate the facility's franchise 63980
permit fee effective on the first day of the quarter immediately 63981
following the quarter in which the department receives the notice 63982
of the conversion from the director of health;63983

       (2) If the facility's certified capacity under medicaid is 63984
reduced because of the conversion, redetermine the facility's 63985
franchise permit fee in accordance with division (B) of this 63986
section for the second half of the fiscal year for which the fee 63987
is assessed. 63988

       (B)(1) To redetermine an intermediate care facility for the 63989
mentally retarded's franchise permit fee, the department shall 63990
multiply the franchise permit fee rate by the product of the 63991
following:63992

       (a) The number of the facility's beds that remain certified 63993
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act" as of the date the 63994
conversion takes effect;63995

       (b) The number of days in the second half of the fiscal year 63996
for which the redetermination is made.63997

       (2) The intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 63998
shall pay its franchise permit fee as redetermined under division 63999
(B)(1) of this section in installment payments not later than 64000
forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the fiscal 64001
year for which the redetermination is made.64002

       Sec. 5112.341.  (A) In addition to assessing a penalty 64003
pursuant to section 5112.34 of the Revised Code, the department of 64004
job and family services may do any of the following if an 64005
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded fails to pay 64006
the full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:64007

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 64008
and penalty assessed under section 5112.34 of the Revised Code 64009
from a medicaid payment due the facility until the facility pays 64010
the installment and penalty;64011

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 64012
and penalty assessed under section 5112.34 of the Revised Code 64013
from a Medicaidmedicaid payment due the nursing facility or 64014
hospital;64015

       (3) Terminate the facility's medicaid provider agreement.64016

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 64017
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 64018
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded and without 64019
conducting an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.64020

       Sec. 5112.37.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 64021
the home and community-based services for the mentally retarded 64022
and developmentally disabled fund. Eighty-one and seventy-seven 64023
hundredths per cent of allAll installment payments and penalties 64024
paid by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 64025
under sections 5112.33 and 5112.34 of the Revised Code for state 64026
fiscal year 2012 shall be deposited into the fund. Eighty-two and 64027
two tenths per cent of all installment payments and penalties paid 64028
by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 64029
sections 5112.33 and 5112.34 of the Revised Code for state fiscal 64030
year 2013 and thereafter shall be deposited into the fund. The 64031
departmentAs soon as possible after the end of each quarter, the 64032
director of job and family services shall distributecertify to 64033
the director of budget and management the amount of money inthat 64034
is in the fund in accordance with rules adopted under section 64035
5112.39 of the Revised Codeas of the last day of that quarter. 64036
The departments of job and family services and developmental 64037
disabilities shall use the money for the medicaid program 64038
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and home and 64039
community-based services to mentally retarded and developmentally 64040
disabled persons.On receipt of a certification, the director of 64041
budget and management shall transfer the amount so certified from 64042
the home and community-based services for the mentally retarded 64043
and developmentally disabled fund to the department of 64044
developmental disabilities operating and services fund created 64045
under section 5112.371 of the Revised Code.64046

       Sec. 5112.371. There is hereby created in the state treasury 64047
the department of developmental disabilities operating and 64048
services fund. All installment payments and penalties paid by an 64049
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 64050
sections 5112.33 and 5112.34 of the Revised Code that are not 64051
deposited into the home and community-based services for the 64052
mentally retarded and developmentally disabled fund shall be 64053
deposited into the department of developmental disabilities 64054
operating and servicesThe fund shall consist of the money 64055
transferred to it under section 5112.37 of the Revised Code. The 64056
money in the fund shall be used for the expenses of the programs 64057
that the department of developmental disabilities administers and 64058
the department's administrative expenses.64059

       Sec. 5112.39.  The director of job and family services shall 64060
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 64061
do allboth of the following:64062

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department will take to cease 64063
implementation of sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 of the Revised Code 64064
if the United States secretary of health and human services 64065
determines that the franchise permit fee imposed under section 64066
5112.31 of the Revised Code is an impermissible health 64067
care-related tax under section 1903(w) of the "Social Security 64068
Act," 49105 Stat. 6201793 (19351991), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396b(w), as 64069
amended;64070

       (B) Establish the method of distributing the money in the 64071
home and community-based services for the mentally retarded and 64072
developmentally disabled fund created by section 5112.37 of the 64073
Revised Code;64074

       (C) Establish any other requirements or procedures the 64075
director considers necessary to implement sections 5112.30 to 64076
5112.39 of the Revised Code.64077

       Sec. 5119.22.  (A)(1) As used in this section and section 64078
5119.221 of the Revised Code:64079

       (a)(1) "Accommodations" means housing, daily meal 64080
preparation, laundry, housekeeping, arranging for transportation, 64081
social and recreational activities, maintenance, security, and 64082
other services that do not constitute personal care services or 64083
skilled nursing care.64084

       (2) "ADAMHS board" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 64085
and mental health services.64086

       (3) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 64087
older, other than a person described in division (A)(4) of this 64088
section who is between eighteen and twenty-one years of age.64089

       (4) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of age 64090
or a person with a mental disability who is under twenty-one years 64091
of age.64092

       (5) "Community mental health agency" means a community mental 64093
health agency as defined in division (H) of section 5122.01 of the 64094
Revised Code.64095

       (b)(6) "Community mental health services" means any of the 64096
services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code.64097

       (c)(7) "Operator" means the person that is responsible for 64098
the administration and management of a residential facility.64099

       (8) "Personal care services" means services including, but 64100
not limited to, the following:64101

       (i)(a) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;64102

       (ii)(b) Assisting residents with self-administration of 64103
medication in accordance with rules adopted under this section;64104

       (iii)(c) Preparing special diets, other than complex 64105
therapeutic diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a 64106
physician or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules 64107
adopted under this section.64108

       "Personal care services" does not include "skilled nursing 64109
care" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. A 64110
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 64111
division (A)(1)(c)(8) of this section to be considered to be 64112
providing personal care services.64113

       (d)(9) "Residential facility" means a publicly or privately 64114
operated home or facility that provides one of the following:64115

       (i) Room and board(a) Accommodations, supervision, personal 64116
care services, and community mental health services tofor one or 64117
more of the following unrelated persons with mental illness or 64118
persons with severe mental disabilities who are referred by or are 64119
receiving community mental health services from a community mental 64120
health agency, hospital, or practitioner;:64121

       (i) Adults with mental illness;64122

       (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities;64123

       (iii) Children with serious emotional disturbances or in need 64124
of mental health services.64125

       (ii) Room and board(b) Accommodations and personal care 64126
services for only one or two adults who are unrelated to the owner 64127
of the facility; accommodations, supervision, and personal care 64128
services tofor three to sixteen unrelated adults; or 64129
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one or 64130
two of the following unrelated persons:64131

       (i) Persons of any age with mental illness or persons with 64132
severe mental disabilities who are referred by or are receiving 64133
community mental health services from a community mental health 64134
agency, hospital, or practitioner;64135

       (iii) Room and board to(ii) Persons of any age with severe 64136
mental disabilities who are referred by or are receiving community 64137
mental health services from a community mental health agency, 64138
hospital, or practitioner.64139

       (c) Room and board for five or more of the following 64140
unrelated persons:64141

       (i) Adults with mental illness or persons with severe mental 64142
disabilities who are referred by or are receiving community mental 64143
health services from a community mental health agency, hospital, 64144
or practitioner;64145

       (ii) Adults with severe mental disabilities who are referred 64146
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 64147
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner.64148

       The following are not residential facilities(10) 64149
"Residential facility" does not include any of the following: the 64150
residence of a relative or guardian of a mentally ill individual, 64151
a64152

       (a) A hospital subject to licensure under section 5119.20 of 64153
the Revised Code, a;64154

       (b) A residential facility as defined inlicensed under64155
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, a facility providing care for 64156
a child in the custody of a public children services agency or a 64157
private agency certified under section 5103.03 of the Revised 64158
Code, a foster care facilityor otherwise regulated by the 64159
department of developmental disabilities;64160

       (c) An institution or association subject to certification 64161
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, an adult care facility 64162
subject to licensure under sections 5119.70 to 5119.88 of the 64163
Revised Code, and a;64164

       (d) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 64165
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 64166
for care of hospice patients;64167

       (e) A nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 64168
the aging subject to licensure underas defined in section 3721.02 64169
of the Revised Code;64170

       (f) An alcohol or drug addiction program as defined in 64171
section 3793.01 of the Revised Code;64172

       (g) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 64173
section 3793.11 of the Revised Code;64174

       (h) Any facility that receives funding for operating costs 64175
from the department of development under any program established 64176
to provide emergency shelter housing or transitional housing for 64177
the homeless;64178

       (i) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 64179
entered into an agreement with a hospice care program under 64180
section 3712.07 of the Revised Code;64181

       (j) A facility approved by the veterans administration under 64182
section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 64183
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 64184
the placement and care of veterans.64185

       (11) "Room and board" means the provision of sleeping and 64186
living space, meals or meal preparation, laundry services, 64187
housekeeping services, or any combination thereof.64188

       (12) "Supervision" means any of the following:64189

       (a) Observing a resident to ensure the resident's health, 64190
safety, and welfare while the resident engages in activities of 64191
daily living or other activities;64192

       (b) Reminding a resident to perform or complete an activity, 64193
such as reminding a resident to engage in personal hygiene or 64194
other self-care activities; 64195

       (c) Assisting a resident in making or keeping an appointment. 64196

       (13) "Unrelated" means that a resident is not related to the 64197
owner or operator of a residential facility or to the owner's or 64198
operator's spouse as a parent, grandparent, child, stepchild, 64199
grandchild, brother, sister, niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle, or as 64200
the child of an aunt or uncle.64201

       (2)(B) Nothing in division (A)(1)(d)(9) of this section shall 64202
be construed to permit personal care services to be imposed on a 64203
resident who is capable of performing the activity in question 64204
without assistance.64205

       (3)(C) Except in the case of a residential facility described 64206
in division (A)(1)(d)(i)(9)(a) of this section, members of the 64207
staff of a residential facility shall not administer medication to 64208
the facility's residents, all medication taken by residents of a 64209
residential facility shall be self-administered, and no person 64210
shall be admitted to or retained by a residential facility unless 64211
the person is capable of taking the person's own medication and 64212
biologicals, as determined in writing by the person's personal 64213
physician. Members of the staff of a residential facilitybut may 64214
do any of the following:64215

       (a)(1) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 64216
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;64217

       (b)(2) Assist a resident in the self-administration of 64218
medication by taking the medication from the locked area where it 64219
is stored, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this 64220
section, and handing it to the resident. If the resident is 64221
physically unable to open the container, a staff member may open 64222
the container for the resident.64223

       (c)(3) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert 64224
resident, such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or 64225
Parkinson's disease, in removing oral or topical medication from 64226
containers and in consuming or applying the medication, upon 64227
request by or with the consent of the resident. If a resident is 64228
physically unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's 64229
mouth without spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a 64230
container and place the container to the mouth of the resident.64231

       (B) Every(D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of 64232
this section, a person operating or desiringseeking to operate a 64233
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 64234
the department of mental health and. The application shall be 64235
submitted by the operator. When applying for the license, the 64236
applicant shall pay to the department the application fee 64237
specified in rules adopted under division (L) of this section. The 64238
fee is nonrefundable.64239

       The department shall send a copy of thean application to the 64240
ADAMHS board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 64241
services whose service district includesserving the county in 64242
which the person operates or desiresseeks to operate a 64243
residentialthe facility. The ADAMHS board shall review such 64244
applications and recommend approval or disapproval to the 64245
department. Each recommendation shall be consistent with the 64246
board's community mental health plan.64247

       (C)the application and provide to the department any 64248
information about the applicant or the facility that the board 64249
would like the department to consider in reviewing the 64250
application.64251

       (2) A person may not apply for a license to operate a 64252
residential facility if the person is or has been the owner, 64253
operator, or manager of a residential facility for which a license 64254
to operate was revoked or for which renewal of a license was 64255
refused for any reason other than nonpayment of the license 64256
renewal fee, unless both of the following conditions are met:64257

       (a) A period of not less than two years has elapsed since the 64258
date the director of mental health issued the order revoking or 64259
refusing to renew the facility's license.64260

       (b) The director's revocation or refusal to renew the license 64261
was not based on an act or omission at the facility that violated 64262
a resident's right to be free from abuse, neglect, or 64263
exploitation.64264

       (E)(1) Any person may operate a residential facility 64265
providing accommodations and personal care services for one to 64266
five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential facility that 64267
meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section 64268
as a permitted use in any residential district or zone, including 64269
any single-family residential district or zone of any political 64270
subdivision. Such facilities may be required to comply with area, 64271
height, yard, and architectural compatibility requirements that 64272
are uniformly imposed upon all single-family residences within the 64273
district or zone. 64274

       (2) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 64275
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 64276
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 64277
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section as a 64278
permitted use in any multiple-family residential district or zone 64279
of any political subdivision, except that a political subdivision 64280
that has enacted a zoning ordinance or resolution establishing 64281
planned-unit development districts as defined in section 519.021 64282
of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities from such 64283
districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 64284
ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 64285
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 64286
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 64287
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 64288
zoning ordinance or resolution to: 64289

       (a) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 64290
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 64291
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 64292
residential character of the neighborhood; 64293

       (b) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 64294
regulation. 64295

       (3) Divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section do not affect 64296
any right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate 64297
a residential facility licensed under this section in a 64298
single-family residential district or zone under conditions 64299
established by the political subdivision. 64300

       (4)(a) Notwithstanding divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 64301
section and except as provided in division (E)(4)(b) of this 64302
section, a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 64303
ordinance or resolution may limit the excessive concentration of 64304
licensed residential facilities that meet the criteria specified 64305
in division (A)(9)(b) of this section. 64306

       (b) Division (E)(4)(a) of this section does not authorize a 64307
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 64308
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 64309
the effective date of this section and that meet the criteria 64310
specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section. A political 64311
subdivision may consider the existence of such facilities for the 64312
purpose of limiting the excessive concentration of such facilities 64313
that meet the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this 64314
section that are not existing and operating on the effective date 64315
of this section.64316

       (F)(1) The department of mental health shall inspect and 64317
license the operation of residential facilities. The department 64318
shall consider the past record of the facility and the applicant 64319
or licensee in arriving at its licensure decision. The64320

       The department may issue full, probationary, and interim 64321
licenses. A full license shall expire two years after the date of 64322
issuance, a probationary license shall expire in a shorter period 64323
of time as prescribed by rulespecified in rules adopted by the 64324
director of mental health pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 64325
Codeunder division (L) of this section, and an interim license 64326
shall expire ninety days after the date of issuance. TheA license 64327
may be renewed in accordance with rules adopted by the director 64328
under division (L) of this section. The renewal application shall 64329
be submitted by the operator. When applying for renewal of a 64330
license, the applicant shall pay to the department the renewal fee 64331
specified in rules adopted under division (L) of this section. The 64332
fee is nonrefundable.64333

       (2) The department may issue an order suspending the 64334
admission of residents to the facility or refuse to issue or renew 64335
and may revoke a license if it finds the facility is not in 64336
compliance with rules adopted by the departmentdirector pursuant 64337
to division (G)(L) of this section or if any facility operated by 64338
the applicant or licensee has hadbeen cited for repeated 64339
violations of statutes or rules during the period of previous 64340
licenses. Proceedings initiated to deny applications for full or 64341
probationary licenses or to revoke such licenses are governed by 64342
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.64343

       (D)(G) The department may issue an interim license to operate 64344
a residential facility if both of the following conditions are 64345
met:64346

       (1) The department determines that the closing of or the need 64347
to remove residents from another residential facility has created 64348
an emergency situation requiring immediate removal of residents 64349
and an insufficient number of licensed beds are available.64350

       (2) The residential facility applying for an interim license 64351
meets standards established for interim licenses in rules adopted 64352
by the director under Chapter 119. of the Revised Codedivision 64353
(L) of this section.64354

       An interim license shall be valid for ninety days and may be 64355
renewed by the director no more than twice. Proceedings initiated 64356
to deny applications for or to revoke interim licenses under this 64357
division are not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.64358

       (E)(H)(1) The department of mental health may conduct an 64359
inspection of a residential facility as follows:64360

       (1)(a) Prior to the issuance of a license to a prospective 64361
operatorfor the facility;64362

       (2)(b) Prior to the renewal of any operator'sthe license;64363

       (3)(c) To determine whether athe facility has completed a 64364
plan of correction required pursuant to this division (H)(2) of 64365
this section and corrected deficiencies to the satisfaction of the 64366
department and in compliance with this section and rules adopted 64367
pursuant to it;64368

       (4)(d) Upon complaint by any individual or agency;64369

       (5)(e) At any time the director considers an inspection to be 64370
necessary in order to determine whether a residentialthe facility 64371
is in compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to 64372
this section.64373

       (2) In conducting inspections the department may conduct an 64374
on-site examination and evaluation of the residential facility,64375
and its personnel, activities, and services. The department shall 64376
have access to examine and copy all records, accounts, and any 64377
other documents relating to the operation of the residential 64378
facility, including records pertaining to residents, and shall 64379
have access to the facility in order to conduct interviews with 64380
the operator, staff, and residents. Following each inspection and 64381
review, the department shall complete a report listing any 64382
deficiencies, and including, when appropriate, a time table within 64383
which the operator shall correct the deficiencies. The department 64384
may require the operator to submit a plan of correction describing 64385
how the deficiencies will be corrected.64386

       (F)(I) No person shall do any of the following:64387

       (1) Operate a residential facility unless the facility holds 64388
a valid license;64389

       (2) Violate any of the conditions of licensure after having 64390
been granted a license;64391

       (3) Interfere with a state or local official's inspection or 64392
investigation of a residential facility;64393

       (4) Violate any of the provisions of this section or any 64394
rules adopted pursuant to this section.64395

       (G)(J) The following may enter a residential facility at any 64396
time:64397

       (1) Employees designated by the director of mental health;64398

       (2) Employees of an ADAMHS board under either of the 64399
following circumstances:64400

       (a) When a resident of the facility is receiving services 64401
from a community mental health agency under contract with that 64402
ADAMHS board or another ADAMHS board;64403

       (b) When authorized by section 340.05 of the Revised Code.64404

       (3) Employees of a community mental health agency under 64405
either of the following circumstances:64406

       (a) When the agency has a client residing in the facility;64407

       (b) When the agency is acting as an agent of an ADAMHS board 64408
other than the board with which it is under contract.64409

       (4) Representatives of the state long-term care ombudsperson 64410
program when the facility provides accommodations, supervision, 64411
and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults 64412
or to one or two unrelated adults who are recipients under the 64413
residential state supplement program.64414

       The persons specified in division (J) of this section shall 64415
be afforded access to examine and copy all records, accounts, and 64416
any other documents relating to the operation of the residential 64417
facility, including records pertaining to residents. 64418

       (K) Employees of the department of mental health may enter, 64419
for the purpose of investigation, any institution, residence, 64420
facility, or other structure which has been reported to the 64421
department as, or that the department has reasonable cause to 64422
believe is, operating as a residential facility without a valid 64423
license.64424

       (L) The director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules 64425
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, prescribing minimum64426
governing the licensing and operation of residential facilities. 64427
The rules shall establish all of the following:64428

       (1) Minimum standards for the health, safety, adequacy, and 64429
cultural specificity and sensitivitycompetency of treatment of 64430
and services for persons in residential facilities; establishing 64431
procedures64432

       (2) Procedures for the issuance, renewal or revocation of the 64433
licenses of suchresidential facilities; establishing the64434

       (3) Procedures for conducting criminal records checks for 64435
prospective operators, staff, and other individuals who, if 64436
employed by a residential facility, would have unsupervised access 64437
to facility residents;64438

       (4) The fee to be paid when applying for a new residential 64439
facility license or renewing the license;64440

       (5) Procedures for the operator of a residential facility to 64441
follow when notifying the ADAMHS board serving the county in which 64442
the facility is located when the facility is serving residents 64443
with mental illness or severe mental disability, including the 64444
circumstances under which the operator is required to make such a 64445
notification;64446

       (6) Procedures for the issuance and termination of orders of 64447
suspension of admission of residents to a residential facility; 64448

       (7) Measures to be taken by residential facilities relative 64449
to residents' medication;64450

       (8) Requirements relating to preparation of special diets;64451

       (9) The maximum number of residents ofwho may be served in a 64452
residential facility; establishing the64453

       (10) The rights of residents of residential facilities and 64454
procedures to protect such rights; and requiring64455

       (11) Procedures for obtaining an affiliation agreement 64456
approved by the board between a residential facility and a 64457
community mental health agency. Such affiliation agreement must be 64458
consistent with the residential portion of the community mental 64459
health plan submitted pursuant to section 340.03 of the Revised 64460
Code;64461

       (12) Standards and procedures under which the director may 64462
waive the requirements of any of the rules adopted.64463

       (H) The department may investigate any facility that has been 64464
reported to the department or that the department has reasonable 64465
cause to believe is operating as a residential facility without a 64466
valid license.64467

       (I)(M)(1) The department may withhold the source of any 64468
complaint reported as a violation of this actsection when the 64469
department determines that disclosure could be detrimental to the 64470
department's purposes or could jeopardize the investigation. The 64471
department may disclose the source of any complaint if the 64472
complainant agrees in writing to such disclosure and shall 64473
disclose the source upon order by a court of competent 64474
jurisdiction.64475

       (J)(2) Any person who makes a complaint under division (M)(1) 64476
of this section, or any person who participates in an 64477
administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from such a 64478
complaint, is immune from civil liability and is not subject to 64479
criminal prosecution, other than for perjury, unless the person 64480
has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.64481

       (N)(1) The director of mental health may petition the court 64482
of common pleas of the county in which a residential facility is 64483
located for an order enjoining any person from operating a 64484
residential facility without a license or from operating a 64485
licensed facility when, in the director's judgment, there is a 64486
real and present danger to the health or safety of any of the 64487
occupants of the facility. The court shall have jurisdiction to 64488
grant such injunctive relief upon a showing that the respondent 64489
named in the petition is operating a facility without a license or 64490
there is a real and present danger to the health or safety of any 64491
residents of the facility.64492

       (K) Whoever violates division (F) of this section or any rule 64493
adopted under this section is liable for a civil penalty of one 64494
hundred dollars for the first offense; for each subsequent 64495
offense, such violator is liable for a civil penalty of five 64496
hundred dollars. If the violator does not pay, the attorney 64497
general, upon the request of the director of mental health, shall 64498
bring a civil action to collect the penalty. Fines collected 64499
pursuant to this section shall be deposited into the state 64500
treasury to the credit of the mental health sale of goods and 64501
services fund.64502

       (2) When the court grants injunctive relief in the case of a 64503
facility operating without a license, the court shall issue, at a 64504
minimum, an order enjoining the facility from admitting new 64505
residents to the facility and an order requiring the facility to 64506
assist with the safe and orderly relocation of the facility's 64507
residents. 64508

       (3) If injunctive relief is granted against a facility for 64509
operating without a license and the facility continues to operate 64510
without a license, the director shall refer the case to the 64511
attorney general for further action.64512

       (O) The director may fine a person for violating division (I) 64513
of this section. The fine shall be five hundred dollars for a 64514
first offense; for each subsequent offense, the fine shall be one 64515
thousand dollars. The director's actions in imposing a fine shall 64516
be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.64517

       Sec. 5119.61.  Any provision in this chapter that refers to a 64518
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services also 64519
refers to the community mental health board in an alcohol, drug 64520
addiction, and mental health service district that has a community 64521
mental health board.64522

       The director of mental health with respect to all facilities 64523
and programs established and operated under Chapter 340. of the 64524
Revised Code for mentally ill and emotionally disturbed persons, 64525
shall do all of the following:64526

       (A) Adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 64527
that may be necessary to carry out the purposes of Chapter 340. 64528
and sections 5119.61 to 5119.63 of the Revised Code.64529

       (1) The rules shall include all of the following:64530

       (a) Rules governing a community mental health agency's 64531
services under section 340.091 of the Revised Code to an 64532
individual referred to the agency under division (C)(D)(2) of 64533
section 5119.69 of the Revised Code;64534

       (b) For the purpose of division (A)(16) of section 340.03 of 64535
the Revised Code, rules governing the duties of mental health 64536
agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 64537
services under section 5119.88 of the Revised Code regarding 64538
referrals of individuals with mental illness or severe mental 64539
disability to adult careresidential facilities as defined in 64540
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised Code and 64541
effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services for the 64542
individuals. The rules shall do at least the following:64543

       (i) Provide for agencies and boards to participate fully in 64544
the procedures owners and managers of adult care facilities must 64545
follow under division (A) of section 5119.88 of the Revised Code;64546

       (ii) Specify the manner in which boards are accountable for 64547
ensuring that ongoing mental health services are effectively 64548
arranged for individuals with mental illness or severe mental 64549
disability who are referred by the board or mental health agency 64550
under contract with the board to an adult care facility. 64551

       (c) Rules governing a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 64552
mental health services when making a report to the director of 64553
mental health under section 5119.87 of the Revised Code regarding 64554
the quality of care and services provided by an adult care 64555
facility to a person with mental illness or a severe mental 64556
disability.64557

       (2) Rules may be adopted to govern the method of paying a 64558
community mental health facility, as defined in section 5111.023 64559
of the Revised Code, for providing services listed in division (B) 64560
of that section. Such rules must be consistent with the contract 64561
entered into between the departments of job and family services 64562
and mental health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and 64563
include requirements ensuring appropriate service utilization.64564

       (B) Review and evaluate, and, taking into account the 64565
findings and recommendations of the board of alcohol, drug 64566
addiction, and mental health services of the district served by 64567
the program and the requirements and priorities of the state 64568
mental health plan, including the needs of residents of the 64569
district now residing in state mental institutions, and make 64570
recommendations for needed improvements to boards of alcohol, drug 64571
addiction, and mental health services;64572

       (C) Provide consultative services to community mental health 64573
agencies with the knowledge and cooperation of the board of 64574
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services;64575

        (D) At the director's discretion, provide to boards of 64576
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services state or 64577
federal funds, in addition to those allocated under section 64578
5119.62 of the Revised Code, for special programs or projects the 64579
director considers necessary but for which local funds are not 64580
available;64581

       (E) Establish criteria by which a board of alcohol, drug 64582
addiction, and mental health services reviews and evaluates the 64583
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided 64584
through its community mental health plan. The criteria shall 64585
include requirements ensuring appropriate service utilization. The 64586
department shall assess a board's evaluation of services and the 64587
compliance of each board with this section, Chapter 340. or 64588
section 5119.62 of the Revised Code, and other state or federal 64589
law and regulations. The department, in cooperation with the 64590
board, periodically shall review and evaluate the quality, 64591
effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided through each 64592
board. The department shall collect information that is necessary 64593
to perform these functions.64594

        (F) To the extent the director determines necessary and after 64595
consulting with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 64596
health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 64597
operation of, a community mental health information system or 64598
systems.64599

       Boards of alcohol, drug abuseaddiction, and mental health 64600
services shall submit information requested by the department in 64601
the form and manner prescribed by the department. Information 64602
collected by the department shall include, but not be limited to, 64603
all of the following:64604

       (1) Information regarding units of services provided in whole 64605
or in part under contract with a board, including diagnosis and 64606
special needs, demographic information, the number of units of 64607
service provided, past treatment, financial status, and service 64608
dates in accordance with rules adopted by the department in 64609
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;64610

       (2) Financial information other than price or price-related 64611
data regarding expenditures of boards and community mental health 64612
agencies, including units of service provided, budgeted and actual 64613
expenses by type, and sources of funds.64614

       Boards shall submit the information specified in division 64615
(F)(1) of this section no less frequently than annually for each 64616
client, and each time the client's case is opened or closed. The 64617
department shall not collect any personal information from the 64618
boards except as required or permitted by state or federal law for 64619
purposes related to payment, health care operations, program and 64620
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 64621
administration, and oversight.64622

       (G) Review each board's community mental health plan 64623
submitted pursuant to section 340.03 of the Revised Code and 64624
approve or disapprove it in whole or in part. Periodically, in 64625
consultation with representatives of boards and after considering 64626
the recommendations of the medical director, the director shall 64627
issue criteria for determining when a plan is complete, criteria 64628
for plan approval or disapproval, and provisions for conditional 64629
approval. The factors that the director considers may include, but 64630
are not limited to, the following:64631

       (1) The mental health needs of all persons residing within 64632
the board's service district, especially severely mentally 64633
disabled children, adolescents, and adults;64634

       (2) The demonstrated quality, effectiveness, efficiency, and 64635
cultural relevance of the services provided in each service 64636
district, the extent to which any services are duplicative of 64637
other available services, and whether the services meet the needs 64638
identified above;64639

       (3) The adequacy of the board's accounting for the 64640
expenditure of funds.64641

       If the director disapproves all or part of any plan, the 64642
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 64643
position. The director shall inform the board of the reasons for 64644
the disapproval and of the criteria that must be met before the 64645
plan may be approved. The director shall give the board a 64646
reasonable time within which to meet the criteria, and shall offer 64647
technical assistance to the board to help it meet the criteria.64648

       If the approval of a plan remains in dispute, the board or 64649
the director may request that the dispute be submitted to a 64650
mutually agreed upon third-party mediator with the cost to be 64651
shared by the board and the department. The mediator shall issue 64652
to the board and the department recommendations for resolution of 64653
the dispute. The director, taking into consideration the 64654
recommendations of the mediator, shall make a final determination 64655
and approve or disapprove the plan, in whole or in part.64656

       Sec. 5119.69.  (A) As used in this section and section 64657
5119.691 of the Revised Code:64658

       (1) "Long-term care consultation program" means the program 64659
the department of aging is required to develop under section 64660
173.42 of the Revised Code.64661

       (2) "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 64662
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 64663
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 64664
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 64665
particular area, that agency or entity.64666

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 64667
5111.20 of the Revised Code.64668

       (4) "Residential state supplement administrative agency" 64669
means the department of mental health or, if the department 64670
designates an entity under division (C) of this section for a 64671
particular area, the designated entity.64672

       (5) "Residential state supplement program" means the program 64673
administered pursuant to this section.64674

       (B) The department of mental health shall implement the 64675
residential state supplement program under which the state 64676
supplements the supplemental security income payments received by 64677
aged, blind, or disabled adults under Title XVI of the "Social 64678
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A., as amended. 64679
Residential state supplement payments shall be used for the 64680
provision of accommodations, supervision, and personal care 64681
services to supplemental security income recipients who the 64682
department determines are at risk of needing institutional care.64683

       (B)(C) In implementing the program, the department may 64684
designate one or more entities to be responsible for providing 64685
administrative services regarding the program. The department may 64686
designate an entity to be a residential state supplement 64687
administrative agency under this division either by entering into 64688
a contract with the entity to serve in that capacity or by 64689
otherwise delegating to the entity the responsibility to serve in 64690
that capacity.64691

       (C)(D) For an individual to be eligible for residential state 64692
supplement payments, all of the following must be the case:64693

       (1) Except as provided by division (G)(H) of this section, 64694
the individual must reside in one of the following:64695

       (a) An adult foster home certified under section 5119.692 of 64696
the Revised Code;64697

       (b) A home or facility, other than a nursing home or nursing 64698
home unit of a home for the aging, licensed by the department of 64699
health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or the department 64700
of mental health under sections 5119.70 to 5119.88 of the Revised 64701
Code;64702

       (c)(b) A residential facility as defined in division 64703
(A)(1)(d)(ii)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised Code 64704
licensed by the department of mental health;64705

       (d)(c) An apartment or room used to provide community mental 64706
health housing services certified by the department of mental 64707
health under section 5119.611 of the Revised Code and approved by 64708
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 64709
under division (A)(14) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.64710

       (2) A residential state supplement administrative agency must 64711
have determined that the environment in which the individual will 64712
be living while receiving the payments is appropriate for the 64713
individual's needs. If the individual is eligible for supplemental 64714
security income payments or social security disability insurance 64715
benefits because of a mental disability, the residential state 64716
supplement administrative agency shall refer the individual to a 64717
community mental health agency for the community mental health 64718
agency to issue in accordance withan assessment under division 64719
(A) of section 340.091 of the Revised Code a recommendation on 64720
whether the residential state supplement administrative agency 64721
should determine that the environment in which the individual will 64722
be living while receiving the payments is appropriate for the 64723
individual's needs. 64724

       (3) The individual satisfies all eligibility requirements 64725
established by rules adopted under division (D)(E) of this 64726
section.64727

       (D)(E) The directors of mental health and job and family 64728
services shall adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of 64729
the Revised Code as necessary to implement the residential state 64730
supplement program.64731

       To the extent permitted by Title XVI of the "Social Security 64732
Act," and any other provision of federal law, the director of job 64733
and family services may adopt rules establishing standards for 64734
adjusting the eligibility requirements concerning the level of 64735
impairment a person must have so that the amount appropriated for 64736
the program by the general assembly is adequate for the number of 64737
eligible individuals. The rules shall not limit the eligibility of 64738
disabled persons solely on a basis classifying disabilities as 64739
physical or mental. The director of job and family services also 64740
may adopt rules that establish eligibility standards for aged, 64741
blind, or disabled individuals who reside in one of the homes or 64742
facilities specified in division (C)(D)(1) of this section but 64743
who, because of their income, do not receive supplemental security 64744
income payments. The rules may provide that these individuals may 64745
include individuals who receive other types of benefits, 64746
including, social security disability insurance benefits provided 64747
under Title II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 64748
42 U.S.C.A. 401, as amended. Notwithstanding division (A)(B) of 64749
this section, such payments may be made if funds are available for 64750
them.64751

       The director of mental health may adopt rules establishing 64752
the method to be used to determine the amount an eligible 64753
individual will receive under the program. The amount the general 64754
assembly appropriates for the program may be a factor included in 64755
the method that director establishes. 64756

       (E)(F) The county department of job and family services of 64757
the county in which an applicant for the residential state 64758
supplement program resides shall determine whether the applicant 64759
meets income and resource requirements for the program.64760

       (F)(G) The department of mental health shall maintain a 64761
waiting list of any individuals eligible for payments under this 64762
section but not receiving them because moneys appropriated to the 64763
department for the purposes of this section are insufficient to 64764
make payments to all eligible individuals. An individual may apply 64765
to be placed on the waiting list even though the individual does 64766
not reside in one of the homes or facilities specified in division 64767
(C)(D)(1) of this section at the time of application. The director 64768
of mental health, by rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. 64769
of the Revised Code, may specify procedures and requirements for 64770
placing an individual on the waiting list and priorities for the 64771
order in which individuals placed on the waiting list are to begin 64772
to receive residential state supplement payments. The rules 64773
specifying priorities may give priority to individuals placed on 64774
the waiting list on or after July 1, 2006, who receive 64775
supplemental security income benefits under Title XVI of the 64776
"Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C. 1381, as 64777
amended. The rules shall not affect the place on the waiting list 64778
of any person who was on the list on July 1, 2006. The rules 64779
specifying priorities may also set additional priorities based on 64780
living arrangement, such as whether an individual resides in a 64781
facility listed in division (C)(D)(1) of this section or has been 64782
admitted to a nursing facility.64783

       (G)(H) An individual in a licensed or certified living 64784
arrangement receiving state supplementation on November 15, 1990, 64785
under former section 5101.531 of the Revised Code shall not become 64786
ineligible for payments under this section solely by reason of the 64787
individual's living arrangement as long as the individual remains 64788
in the living arrangement in which the individual resided on 64789
November 15, 1990.64790

       (H)(I) The department of mental health shall notify each 64791
person denied approval for payments under this section of the 64792
person's right to a hearing. On request, the hearing shall be 64793
provided in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.64794

       Sec. 5119.691. (A) As used in this section:64795

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 64796
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 64797
the Revised Code.64798

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 64799
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 64800
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 64801
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 64802
particular area, that agency or entity.64803

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 64804
of the Revised Code.64805

       "Residential state supplement administrative agency" means an 64806
entity designated as such by the department of mental health under 64807
section 5119.69 of the Revised Code.64808

       "Residential state supplement program" means the program 64809
administered pursuant to section 5119.69 of the Revised Code.64810

       (B) On a periodic schedule determined by the department of 64811
mental health, each residential state supplement administrative 64812
agency shall determine whether individuals who reside in the area 64813
that the agency serves and are on a waiting list for the 64814
residential state supplement program have been admitted to a 64815
nursing facility. If a residential state supplement administrative 64816
agency determines that such an individual has been admitted to a 64817
nursing facility, the agency shall notify the long-term care 64818
consultation program administrator serving the area in which the 64819
individual resides about the determination. The administrator 64820
shall determine whether the residential state supplement program 64821
is appropriate for the individual and whether the individual would 64822
rather participate in the program than continue residing in the 64823
nursing facility. If the administrator determines that the 64824
residential state supplement program is appropriate for the 64825
individual and the individual would rather participate in the 64826
program than continue residing in the nursing facility, the 64827
administrator shall so notify the department of mental health. On 64828
receipt of the notice from the administrator, the department of 64829
mental health shall approve the individual's enrollment in the 64830
residential state supplement program in accordance with the 64831
priorities specified in rules adopted under division (F)(G) of 64832
section 5119.69 of the Revised Code. Each quarter, the department 64833
of mental health shall certify to the director of budget and 64834
management the estimated increase in costs of the residential 64835
state supplement program resulting from enrollment of individuals 64836
in the program pursuant to this section.64837

       Sec. 5119.99. (A) Whoever violates section 5119.21 of the 64838
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.64839

       (B) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of section 5119.86 of 64840
the Revised Code shall be fined two thousand dollars for a first 64841
offense; for each subsequent offense, such person shall be fined 64842
five thousand dollars.64843

       (C) Whoever violates division (C) of section 5119.81 or 64844
division (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6), (B), (C), (D), (E), or (F) 64845
of section 5119.86 of the Revised Code shall be fined five hundred 64846
dollars for a first offense; for each subsequent offense, such 64847
person shall be fined one thousand dollars.64848

       Sec. 5120.036.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 64849
correction shall provide risk reduction programming and treatment 64850
for inmates whom a court under section 2929.143 of the Revised 64851
Code recommends serve a risk reduction sentence and who meet the 64852
eligibility criteria described in division (B) of this section.64853

       (B) If an offender is sentenced to a term of imprisonment in 64854
a state correctional institution and the sentencing court 64855
recommended that the offender serve a risk reduction sentence, the 64856
department of rehabilitation and correction shall conduct a 64857
validated and objective assessment of the person's needs and risk 64858
of reoffending. If the offender cooperates with the risk 64859
assessment and agrees to participate in any programming or 64860
treatment ordered by the department, the department shall provide 64861
programming and treatment to the offender to address the risks and 64862
needs identified in the assessment.64863

       (C) If the department determines that an offender serving a 64864
term of incarceration for whom the sentencing court recommended a 64865
risk reduction sentence under section 2929.143 of the Revised Code 64866
has successfully completed the assessment and treatment or 64867
programming required by the department under division (B) of this 64868
section, the department shall release the offender to supervised 64869
releasepost-release control under one or more post-release 64870
control sanctions after the offender has served each mandatory 64871
prison term to which the offender was sentenced, if any, and a 64872
minimum of eighty per cent of the aggregated nonmandatory prison 64873
terms to which the offender was sentenced. The placement under 64874
post-release control sanctions shall be under terms set by the 64875
parole board in accordance with section 2967.28 of the Revised 64876
Code and shall be subject to the provisions of that section and 64877
sections 2929.141 and 2967.15 of the Revised Code regarding 64878
violation of post-release control sanctions. No mandatory prison 64879
term shall be reduced by, or as a result of, an offender's service 64880
of a risk reduction sentence. The department shall notify the 64881
sentencing court that the offender has successfully completed the 64882
terms of the risk reduction sentence at least thirty days prior to 64883
the date upon which the offender is to be released. 64884

       (D) As used in this section:64885

        (1) "Mandatory prison term" has the same meaning as in 64886
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.64887

        (2) "Nonmandatory prison term" means a prison term that is 64888
not a mandatory prison term.64889

       (3) "Post-release control" and "post-release control 64890
sanction" have the same meanings as in section 2967.01 of the 64891
Revised Code.64892

       Sec. 5120.105.  (A) The department of administrative services64893
Ohio facilities construction commission shall provide for the 64894
construction of a halfway house facility in conformity with 64895
Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, except that construction 64896
services may be provided by the department of rehabilitation and 64897
correction.64898

       (B) The director of rehabilitation and correction may enter 64899
into an agreement with a halfway house organization for the 64900
management of a halfway house facility. The halfway house 64901
organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the 64902
management of a halfway house facility shall pay the costs of 64903
management of and general building services for the halfway house 64904
facility as provided in an agreement between the department of 64905
rehabilitation and correction and the halfway house organization.64906

       (C) No state funds, including state bond proceeds, shall be 64907
spent on the construction of a halfway house facility under 64908
sections 5120.102 to 5120.105 of the Revised Code, unless the 64909
general assembly has specifically authorized the spending of money 64910
on, or has made an appropriation to the department of 64911
rehabilitation and correction for, the construction of the halfway 64912
house facility or rental payments relating to the financing of the 64913
construction of that facility. An authorization to spend money or 64914
an appropriation for planning a halfway house facility does not 64915
constitute an authorization to spend money on, or an appropriation 64916
for, the construction of that facility. Capital funds for the 64917
construction of halfway house facilities under sections 5120.102 64918
to 5120.105 of the Revised Code shall be paid from the adult 64919
correctional building fund created in division (F) of section 64920
154.24 of the Revised Code.64921

       Sec. 5120.132.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 64922
treasury the prisoner programs fund. The director of 64923
rehabilitation and correction shall deposit in the fund all moneys 64924
received by the department from commissions on telephone systems 64925
established for the use of prisonersand services provided to 64926
prisoners in relation to electronic mail, prisoner trust fund 64927
deposits, and the purchase of music, digital music players, and 64928
other electronic devices. The money in the fund shall be used only 64929
to pay for the costs of the following:64930

       (1) The purchase of material, supplies, and equipment used in 64931
any library program, educational program, religious program, 64932
recreational program, or pre-release program operated by the 64933
department for the benefit of prisoners;64934

       (2) The construction, alteration, repair, or reconstruction 64935
of buildings and structures owned by the department for use in any 64936
library program, educational program, religious program, 64937
recreational program, or pre-release program operated by the 64938
department for the benefit of prisoners;64939

       (3) The payment of salary, wages, and other compensation to 64940
employees of the department who are employed in any library 64941
program, educational program, religious program, recreational 64942
program, or pre-release program operated by the department for the 64943
benefit of prisoners;64944

       (4) The compensation to vendors that contract with the 64945
department for the provision of services for the benefit of 64946
prisoners in any library program, educational program, religious 64947
program, recreational program, or pre-release program operated by 64948
the department;64949

       (5) The payment of prisoner release payments in an 64950
appropriate amount as determined pursuant to rule;64951

       (6) The purchase of other goods and the payment of other 64952
services that are determined, in the discretion of the director, 64953
to be goods and services that may provide additional benefit to 64954
prisoners.64955

       (B) The director shall establish rules for the operation of 64956
the prisoner programs fund.64957

       Sec. 5120.66.  (A) Within ninety days after November 23, 64958
2005, but not before January 1, 2006, the department of 64959
rehabilitation and correction shall establish and operate on the 64960
internet a database that contains all of the following:64961

       (1) For each inmate in the custody of the department under a 64962
sentence imposed for a conviction of or plea of guilty to any 64963
offense, all of the following information:64964

       (a) The inmate's name;64965

       (b) For each offense for which the inmate was sentenced to a 64966
prison term or term of imprisonment and is in the department's 64967
custody, the name of the offense, the Revised Code section of 64968
which the offense is a violation, the gender of each victim of the 64969
offense if those facts are known, whether each victim of the 64970
offense was an adult or child if those facts are known, the range 64971
of the possible prison terms or term of imprisonment that could 64972
have been imposed for the offense, the actual prison term or term 64973
of imprisonment imposed for the offense, the county in which the 64974
offense was committed, the date on which the inmate began serving 64975
the prison term or term of imprisonment imposed for the offense, 64976
and either the date on which the inmate will be eligible for 64977
parole relative to the offense if the prison term or term of 64978
imprisonment is an indefinite term or life term or the date on 64979
which the term ends if the prison term is a definite term;64980

       (c) All of the following information that is applicable 64981
regarding the inmate:64982

       (i) If known to the department prior to the conduct of any 64983
hearing for judicial release of the defendant pursuant to section 64984
2929.20 of the Revised Code in relation to any prison term or term 64985
of imprisonment the inmate is serving for any offense or any 64986
hearing for release of the defendant pursuant to section 2967.19 64987
of the Revised Code in relation to any such term, notice of the 64988
fact that the inmate will be having a hearing regarding a possible 64989
grant of judicial release or release, the date of the hearing, and 64990
the right of any person pursuant to division (J) of section 64991
2929.20 or division (H) of section 2967.19 of the Revised Code, 64992
whichever is applicable, to submit to the court a written 64993
statement regarding the possible judicial release or release. The 64994
department also shall post notice of the filingsubmission to a 64995
sentencing court of any petitionrecommendation for early release 64996
of the inmate pursuant to section 2967.19 of the Revised Code, as 64997
required by division (E) of that section.64998

       (ii) If the inmate is serving a prison term pursuant to 64999
division (A)(3), (B)(1)(a), (b), or (c), (B)(2)(a), (b), or (c), 65000
or (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (d) of section 2971.03 of the Revised 65001
Code, prior to the conduct of any hearing pursuant to section 65002
2971.05 of the Revised Code to determine whether to modify the 65003
requirement that the inmate serve the entire prison term in a 65004
state correctional facility in accordance with division (C) of 65005
that section, whether to continue, revise, or revoke any existing 65006
modification of that requirement, or whether to terminate the 65007
prison term in accordance with division (D) of that section, 65008
notice of the fact that the inmate will be having a hearing 65009
regarding those determinations and of the date of the hearing;65010

       (iii) At least three weeks before the adult parole authority 65011
recommends a pardon or commutation of sentence for the inmate or 65012
at least three weeks prior to a hearing before the adult parole 65013
authority regarding a grant of parole to the inmate in relation to 65014
any prison term or term of imprisonment the inmate is serving for 65015
any offense, notice of the fact that the inmate might be under 65016
consideration for a pardon or commutation of sentence or will be 65017
having a hearing regarding a possible grant of parole, of the date 65018
of any hearing regarding a possible grant of parole, and of the 65019
right of any person to submit a written statement regarding the 65020
pending action;65021

       (iv) At least three weeks before the inmate is transferred to 65022
transitional control under section 2967.26 of the Revised Code in 65023
relation to any prison term or term of imprisonment the inmate is 65024
serving for any offense, notice of the pendency of the transfer, 65025
of the date of the possible transfer, and of the right of any 65026
person to submit a statement regarding the possible transfer;65027

       (v) Prompt notice of the inmate's escape from any facility in 65028
which the inmate was incarcerated and of the capture of the inmate 65029
after an escape;65030

       (vi) Notice of the inmate's death while in confinement;65031

       (vii) Prior to the release of the inmate from confinement, 65032
notice of the fact that the inmate will be released, of the date 65033
of the release, and, if applicable, of the standard terms and 65034
conditions of the release;65035

       (viii) Notice of the inmate's judicial release pursuant to 65036
section 2929.20 of the Revised Code or release pursuant to section 65037
2967.19 of the Revised Code.65038

       (2) Information as to where a person can send written 65039
statements of the types referred to in divisions (A)(1)(c)(i), 65040
(iii), and (iv) of this section.65041

       (B)(1) The department shall update the database required 65042
under division (A) of this section every twenty-four hours to 65043
ensure that the information it contains is accurate and current.65044

       (2) The database required under division (A) of this section 65045
is a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the 65046
Revised Code. The department shall make the database searchable by 65047
inmate name and by the county and zip code where the offender 65048
intends to reside after release from a state correctional 65049
institution if this information is known to the department.65050

       (3) The database required under division (A) of this section 65051
may contain information regarding inmates who are listed in the 65052
database in addition to the information described in that 65053
division.65054

       (4) No information included on the database required under 65055
division (A) of this section shall identify or enable the 65056
identification of any victim of any offense committed by an 65057
inmate.65058

       (C) The failure of the department to comply with the 65059
requirements of division (A) or (B) of this section does not give 65060
any rights or any grounds for appeal or post-conviction relief to 65061
any inmate.65062

       (D) This section, and the related provisions of sections 65063
2929.20, 2967.03, 2967.12, and 2967.26 of the Revised Code enacted 65064
in the act in which this section was enacted, shall be known as 65065
"Laura's Law."65066

       Sec. 5122.31.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 65067
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter and sections 65068
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised 65069
Code, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, 65070
and directly or indirectly identifying a patient or former patient 65071
or person whose hospitalization has been sought under this 65072
chapter, shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by 65073
any person except:65074

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 65075
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 65076
guardian, consents, and if the disclosure is in the best interests 65077
of the person, as may be determined by the court for judicial 65078
records and by the chief clinical officer for medical records;65079

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter or 65080
section 5123.60 of the Revised Code;65081

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 65082
mental health services, and community mental health agencies may 65083
release necessary medical information to insurers and other 65084
third-party payers, including government entities responsible for 65085
processing and authorizing payment, to obtain payment for goods 65086
and services furnished to the patient;65087

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;65088

       (5) That a patient shall be granted access to the patient's 65089
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 65090
restricted in a patient's treatment plan for clear treatment 65091
reasons;65092

       (6) That hospitals and other institutions and facilities 65093
within the department of mental health may exchange psychiatric 65094
records and other pertinent information with other hospitals, 65095
institutions, and facilities of the department, and with community 65096
mental health agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 65097
mental health services with which the department has a current 65098
agreement for patient care or services. Records and information 65099
that may be released pursuant to this division shall be limited to 65100
medication history, physical health status and history, financial 65101
status, summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 65102
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.65103

       (7) That hospitals within the department, other institutions 65104
and facilities within the department, hospitals licensed by the 65105
department under section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, and 65106
community mental health agencies may exchange psychiatric records 65107
and other pertinent information with payers and other providers of 65108
treatment and health services if the purpose of the exchange is to 65109
facilitate continuity of care for a patient;65110

       (8) That a patient's family member who is involved in the 65111
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the patient may 65112
receive medication information, a summary of the patient's 65113
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 65114
available to assist the patient and the patient's family, if the 65115
patient's treating physician determines that the disclosure would 65116
be in the best interests of the patient. No such disclosure shall 65117
be made unless the patient is notified first and receives the 65118
information and does not object to the disclosure.65119

       (9) That community mental health agencies may exchange 65120
psychiatric records and certain other information with the board 65121
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and other 65122
agencies in order to provide services to a person involuntarily 65123
committed to a board. Release of records under this division shall 65124
be limited to medication history, physical health status and 65125
history, financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary 65126
of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if any.65127

       (10) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 65128
administrator of an estate of a deceased patient when the 65129
information is necessary to administer the estate;65130

       (11) That records in the possession of the Ohio historical 65131
society may be released to the closest living relative of a 65132
deceased patient upon request of that relative;65133

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 65134
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 65135
director of mental health for the purpose of evaluating the 65136
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services and determining 65137
if the services meet minimum standards. Information obtained 65138
during such evaluations shall not be retained with the name of any 65139
patient.65140

       (13) That records pertaining to the patient's diagnosis, 65141
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 65142
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 65143
the patient was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 65144
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 65145
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 65146
involuntary commitment under this chapter.65147

       (14) That the department of mental health may exchange 65148
psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health treatment 65149
records, and other pertinent information with the department of 65150
rehabilitation and correction to ensure continuity of care for 65151
inmates who are receiving mental health services in an institution 65152
of the department of rehabilitation and correction and may 65153
exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health 65154
treatment records, and other pertinent information with boards of 65155
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and community 65156
mental health agencies to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 65157
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 65158
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 65159
department shall not disclose those records unless the inmate is 65160
notified, receives the information, and does not object to the 65161
disclosure. The release of records under this division is limited 65162
to records regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, 65163
physical health status and history, summary of course of 65164
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if 65165
any.65166

       (15) That a community mental health agency that ceases to 65167
operate may transfer to either a community mental health agency 65168
that assumes its caseload or to the board of alcohol, drug 65169
addiction, and mental health services of the service district in 65170
which the patient resided at the time services were most recently 65171
provided any treatment records that have not been transferred 65172
elsewhere at the patient's request.65173

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 65174
(A)(3), (6), (7), and (9) of this section, the custodian of the 65175
records shall attempt to obtain the patient's consent for the 65176
disclosure. No person shall reveal the contents of a medical 65177
record of a patient except as authorized by law.65178

       (C) The managing officer of a hospital who releases necessary 65179
medical information under division (A)(3) of this section to allow 65180
an insurance carrier or other third party payor to comply with 65181
section 5121.43 of the Revised Code shall neither be subject to 65182
criminal nor civil liability.65183

       Sec. 5123.01.  As used in this chapter:65184

       (A) "Chief medical officer" means the licensed physician 65185
appointed by the managing officer of an institution for the 65186
mentally retarded with the approval of the director of 65187
developmental disabilities to provide medical treatment for 65188
residents of the institution.65189

       (B) "Chief program director" means a person with special 65190
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of the 65191
mentally retarded, certified according to division (C) of this 65192
section in at least one of the designated fields, and appointed by 65193
the managing officer of an institution for the mentally retarded 65194
with the approval of the director to provide habilitation and care 65195
for residents of the institution.65196

       (C) "Comprehensive evaluation" means a study, including a 65197
sequence of observations and examinations, of a person leading to 65198
conclusions and recommendations formulated jointly, with 65199
dissenting opinions if any, by a group of persons with special 65200
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of persons 65201
with mental retardation or a developmental disability, which group 65202
shall include individuals who are professionally qualified in the 65203
fields of medicine, psychology, and social work, together with 65204
such other specialists as the individual case may require.65205

       (D) "Education" means the process of formal training and 65206
instruction to facilitate the intellectual and emotional 65207
development of residents.65208

       (E) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 65209
the institution assists the resident in acquiring and maintaining 65210
those life skills that enable the resident to cope more 65211
effectively with the demands of the resident's own person and of 65212
the resident's environment and in raising the level of the 65213
resident's physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 65214
Habilitation includes but is not limited to programs of formal, 65215
structured education and training.65216

       (F) "Health officer" means any public health physician, 65217
public health nurse, or other person authorized or designated by a 65218
city or general health district.65219

       (G) "Home and community-based services" means medicaid-funded 65220
home and community-based services specified in division (B)(1) of 65221
section 5111.87 of the Revised Code provided under the medicaid 65222
waiver components the department of developmental disabilities 65223
administers pursuant to section 5111.871 of the Revised Code. 65224
HoweverExcept as provided in section 5123.0412 of the Revised 65225
Code, home and community-based services provided under the 65226
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 65227
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 65228
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter only to 65229
the extent, if any, provided by the contract required by section 65230
5111.871 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.65231

       (H) "Indigent person" means a person who is unable, without 65232
substantial financial hardship, to provide for the payment of an 65233
attorney and for other necessary expenses of legal representation, 65234
including expert testimony.65235

       (I) "Institution" means a public or private facility, or a 65236
part of a public or private facility, that is licensed by the 65237
appropriate state department and is equipped to provide 65238
residential habilitation, care, and treatment for the mentally 65239
retarded.65240

       (J) "Licensed physician" means a person who holds a valid 65241
certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 65242
authorizing the person to practice medicine and surgery or 65243
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or a medical officer of the 65244
government of the United States while in the performance of the 65245
officer's official duties.65246

       (K) "Managing officer" means a person who is appointed by the 65247
director of developmental disabilities to be in executive control 65248
of an institution for the mentally retarded under the jurisdiction 65249
of the department.65250

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 65251
the Revised Code.65252

       (M) "Medicaid case management services" means case management 65253
services provided to an individual with mental retardation or 65254
other developmental disability that the state medicaid plan 65255
requires.65256

       (N) "Mentally retarded person" means a person having 65257
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 65258
concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, manifested 65259
during the developmental period.65260

       (O) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 65261
by court order" means a person eighteen years of age or older who 65262
is at least moderately mentally retarded and in relation to whom, 65263
because of the person's retardation, either of the following 65264
conditions exist:65265

       (1) The person represents a very substantial risk of physical 65266
impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence that the 65267
person is unable to provide for and is not providing for the 65268
person's most basic physical needs and that provision for those 65269
needs is not available in the community;65270

       (2) The person needs and is susceptible to significant 65271
habilitation in an institution.65272

       (P) "A person who is at least moderately mentally retarded" 65273
means a person who is found, following a comprehensive evaluation, 65274
to be impaired in adaptive behavior to a moderate degree and to be 65275
functioning at the moderate level of intellectual functioning in 65276
accordance with standard measurements as recorded in the most 65277
current revision of the manual of terminology and classification 65278
in mental retardation published by the American association on 65279
mental retardation.65280

       (Q) As used in this division, "substantial functional 65281
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 65282
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 65283
Revised Code.65284

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 65285
that is characterized by all of the following:65286

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 65287
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 65288
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 65289
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.65290

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two.65291

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely.65292

       (4) It results in one of the following:65293

       (a) In the case of a person under three years of age, at 65294
least one developmental delay or an established risk;65295

       (b) In the case of a person at least three years of age but 65296
under six years of age, at least two developmental delays or an 65297
established risk;65298

       (c) In the case of a person six years of age or older, a 65299
substantial functional limitation in at least three of the 65300
following areas of major life activity, as appropriate for the 65301
person's age: self-care, receptive and expressive language, 65302
learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent 65303
living, and, if the person is at least sixteen years of age, 65304
capacity for economic self-sufficiency.65305

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 65306
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 65307
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 65308
individually planned and coordinated for the person.65309

       (R) "Developmentally disabled person" means a person with a 65310
developmental disability.65311

       (S) "State institution" means an institution that is 65312
tax-supported and under the jurisdiction of the department.65313

       (T) "Residence" and "legal residence" have the same meaning 65314
as "legal settlement," which is acquired by residing in Ohio for a 65315
period of one year without receiving general assistance prior to 65316
July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code, 65317
financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or 65318
assistance from a private agency that maintains records of 65319
assistance given. A person having a legal settlement in the state 65320
shall be considered as having legal settlement in the assistance 65321
area in which the person resides. No adult person coming into this 65322
state and having a spouse or minor children residing in another 65323
state shall obtain a legal settlement in this state as long as the 65324
spouse or minor children are receiving public assistance, care, or 65325
support at the expense of the other state or its subdivisions. For 65326
the purpose of determining the legal settlement of a person who is 65327
living in a public or private institution or in a home subject to 65328
licensing by the department of job and family services, the 65329
department of mental health, or the department of developmental 65330
disabilities, the residence of the person shall be considered as 65331
though the person were residing in the county in which the person 65332
was living prior to the person's entrance into the institution or 65333
home. Settlement once acquired shall continue until a person has 65334
been continuously absent from Ohio for a period of one year or has 65335
acquired a legal residence in another state. A woman who marries a 65336
man with legal settlement in any county immediately acquires the 65337
settlement of her husband. The legal settlement of a minor is that 65338
of the parents, surviving parent, sole parent, parent who is 65339
designated the residential parent and legal custodian by a court, 65340
other adult having permanent custody awarded by a court, or 65341
guardian of the person of the minor, provided that:65342

       (1) A minor female who marries shall be considered to have 65343
the legal settlement of her husband and, in the case of death of 65344
her husband or divorce, she shall not thereby lose her legal 65345
settlement obtained by the marriage.65346

       (2) A minor male who marries, establishes a home, and who has 65347
resided in this state for one year without receiving general 65348
assistance prior to July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of 65349
the Revised Code, financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the 65350
Revised Code, or assistance from a private agency that maintains 65351
records of assistance given shall be considered to have obtained a 65352
legal settlement in this state.65353

       (3) The legal settlement of a child under eighteen years of 65354
age who is in the care or custody of a public or private child 65355
caring agency shall not change if the legal settlement of the 65356
parent changes until after the child has been in the home of the 65357
parent for a period of one year.65358

       No person, adult or minor, may establish a legal settlement 65359
in this state for the purpose of gaining admission to any state 65360
institution.65361

       (U)(1) "Resident" means, subject to division (R)(2) of this 65362
section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 65363
involuntarily to an institution or other facility pursuant to 65364
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 65365
Code subsequent to a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity 65366
or incompetence to stand trial or under this chapter who is under 65367
observation or receiving habilitation and care in an institution.65368

       (2) "Resident" does not include a person admitted to an 65369
institution or other facility under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 65370
2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 65371
reference in this chapter to resident, or the context in which the 65372
reference occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 65373
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.65374

       (V) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 65375
commitment, or continued commitment is being sought in any 65376
proceeding under this chapter.65377

       (W) "Working day" and "court day" mean Monday, Tuesday, 65378
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a legal 65379
holiday.65380

       (X) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 65381
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 65382
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 65383
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 65384
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 65385
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 65386
which a person was found guilty.65387

       (Y) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 65388
pleas.65389

       (Z) "Supported living" and "residential services" have the 65390
same meanings as in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.65391

       Sec. 5123.033. The program fee fund is hereby created in the 65392
state treasury. All fees collected pursuant to sections 5123.161, 65393
5123.164, and 5123.19, and 5126.25 of the Revised Code shall be 65394
credited to the fund. Money credited to the fund shall be used 65395
solely for the department of developmental disabilities' duties 65396
under sections 5123.16 to 5123.1695123.1610, and 5123.19, and 65397
5126.25 of the Revised Code and to provide continuing education 65398
and professional training to employees of county boards of 65399
developmental disabilities for the purpose of section 5126.25 of 65400
the Revised Code and other providers of services to individuals 65401
with mental retardation or a developmental disability. If the 65402
money credited to the fund is inadequate to pay all of the 65403
department's costs in performing those duties and providing the 65404
continuing education and professional training, the department may 65405
use other available funds appropriated to the department to pay 65406
the remaining costs of performing those duties and providing the 65407
continuing education and professional training.65408

       Sec. 5123.042. (A) TheExcept as provided in section 65409
5123.197 of the Revised Code, each person or government entity 65410
seeking to develop new or modify existing residential services 65411
shall submit to the department of developmental disabilities a 65412
plan for the development or modification. The department shall 65413
approve a plan that is submitted in accordance with rules adopted 65414
under this section and meets the uniform standards for plans 65415
established in those rules.65416

        The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt rules 65417
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 65418
the following:65419

       (1)(A) Procedures for submitting plans under this section;65420

       (B) Uniform standards under which:65421

       (a) A person or agency shall submit plans to the county board 65422
of developmental disabilities for the development of residential 65423
services for individuals with mental retardation or a 65424
developmental disability within the county;65425

       (b) The county board must review the plans and recommend 65426
providers for the servicesfor the plans.65427

       (2) The eligibility criteria for selecting persons and 65428
agencies to provide residential services, which shall take into 65429
consideration the recommendations of the county board.65430

       (B) The county board, in accordance with its comprehensive 65431
service plan, shall review all proposals for the development of 65432
residential services that are submitted to it and shall, if the 65433
proposals are acceptable to the county board, recommend providers 65434
for the development of residential services within the county. The 65435
department shall approve proposals for the development of 65436
residential services within counties based upon the availability 65437
of funds and in accordance with rules adopted under division 65438
(A)(2) of this section.65439

       No county board shall recommend providers for the development 65440
of residential services if the county board is an applicant to 65441
provide services. In cases of possible conflict of interest, the 65442
director shall appoint a committee that shall, in accordance with 65443
the approved county comprehensive service plan, review and 65444
recommend to the director providers for the services.65445

       If a county board fails to establish an approved 65446
comprehensive service plan, the director may establish residential 65447
services development goals for the county board based on 65448
documented need as determined by the department. If a county board 65449
fails to develop or implement such a plan in accordance with the 65450
rules adopted under this section, the department may, without the 65451
involvement of the county board, review and select providers for 65452
the development of residential services in the county. 65453

       Sec. 5123.044. The department of developmental disabilities 65454
shall determine whether county boards of developmental 65455
disabilities are in compliance withviolate the rights that 65456
individuals with mental retardation or other developmental 65457
disabilities have under section 5126.046 of the Revised Code to 65458
obtain home and community-based services, nonmedicaid residential 65459
services, or nonmedicaid supported living from qualified and 65460
willing providers. The department shall provide assistance to an 65461
individual with mental retardation or other developmental 65462
disability who requests assistance with the individual's right65463
rights under that section 5126.046 of the Revised Code to choose a 65464
provider of habilitation, vocational, community employment, 65465
residential, or supported living services if the department is 65466
notified of a county board's alleged violation of the individual's 65467
right to choose such a providerrights under that section.65468

       Sec. 5123.0412. (A) The department of developmental 65469
disabilities shall charge each county board of developmental 65470
disabilities an annual fee equal to one and one-quarter per cent 65471
of the total value of all medicaid paid claims for home and 65472
community-based services provided during the year to an individual 65473
eligible for services from the county board. However, the 65474
department shall not charge the fee for home and community-based 65475
services provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 65476
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. No county board 65477
shall pass the cost of a fee charged to the county board under 65478
this section on to another provider of these services.65479

       (B) The fees collected under this section shall be deposited 65480
into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the ODJFS 65481
administration and oversight fund, both of which are hereby 65482
created in the state treasury. The portion of the fees to be 65483
deposited into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 65484
portion of the fees to be deposited into the ODJFS administration 65485
and oversight fund shall be the portion specified in an 65486
interagency agreement entered into under division (C) of this 65487
section. The department of developmental disabilities shall use 65488
the money in the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 65489
department of job and family services shall use the money in the 65490
ODJFS administration and oversight fund for both of the following 65491
purposes:65492

       (1) Medicaid administrative costs, including administrative 65493
and oversight costs of medicaid case management services and home 65494
and community-based services. The administrative and oversight 65495
costs of medicaid case management services and home and 65496
community-based services shall include costs for staff, systems, 65497
and other resources the departments need and dedicate solely to 65498
the following duties associated with the services:65499

       (a) Eligibility determinations;65500

       (b) Training;65501

       (c) Fiscal management;65502

       (d) Claims processing;65503

       (e) Quality assurance oversight;65504

       (f) Other duties the departments identify.65505

       (2) Providing technical support to county boards' local 65506
administrative authority under section 5126.055 of the Revised 65507
Code for the services.65508

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 65509
family services shall enter into an interagency agreement to do 65510
both of the following:65511

       (1) Specify which portion of the fees collected under this 65512
section is to be deposited into the ODDD administration and 65513
oversight fund and which portion is to be deposited into the ODJFS 65514
administration and oversight fund;65515

       (2) Provide for the departments to coordinate the staff whose 65516
costs are paid for with money in the ODDD administration and 65517
oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund.65518

       (D) The departments shall submit an annual report to the 65519
director of budget and management certifying how the departments 65520
spent the money in the ODDD administration and oversight fund and 65521
the ODJFS administration and oversight fund for the purposes 65522
specified in division (B) of this section.65523

       Sec. 5123.0414. (A) When the director of developmental 65524
disabilities, under section 119.07 of the Revised Code, sends a 65525
party a notice by registered mail, return receipt requested, that 65526
the director intends to take action against the party authorized 65527
by section 5123.082, 5123.166, 5123.168, 5123.19, 5123.45, 65528
5123.51, or 5126.25 of the Revised Code and the notice is returned 65529
to the director with an endorsement indicating that the notice was 65530
refused or unclaimed, the director shall resend the notice by 65531
ordinary mail to the party.65532

        (B) If the original notice was refused, the notice shall be 65533
deemed received as of the date the director resends the notice.65534

        (C) If the original notice was unclaimed, the notice shall be 65535
deemed received as of the date the director resends the notice 65536
unless, not later than thirty days after the date the director 65537
sent the original notice, the resent notice is returned to the 65538
director for failure of delivery.65539

       If the notice concerns taking action under section 5123.51 of 65540
the Revised Code and the resent notice is returned to the director 65541
for failure of delivery not later than thirty days after the date 65542
the director sent the original notice, the director shall cause 65543
the notice to be published in a newspaper of general circulation 65544
in the county of the party's last known residence or business and 65545
shall mail a dated copy of the published notice to the party at 65546
the last known address. The notice shall be deemed received as of 65547
the date of the publication.65548

        If the notice concerns taking action under section 5123.082,65549
5123.166, 5123.168, 5123.19, 5123.45, or 5126.25 of the Revised 65550
Code and the resent notice is returned to the director for failure 65551
of delivery not later than thirty days after the date the director 65552
sent the original notice, the director shall resend the notice to 65553
the party a second time. The notice shall be deemed received as of 65554
the date the director resends the notice the second time.65555

       Sec. 5123.0415. As used in this section, "license" means a 65556
license, certificate, or evidence of registration.65557

       Each person and each government entity that applies for or 65558
holds a valid license, certification, or registration issued under 65559
section 5123.082, 5123.161, 5123.19, 5123.45, or 5126.25, or 65560
5126.252 of the Revised Code shall notify the director of 65561
developmental disabilities of any change in the personperson's65562
or government entity's address.65563

       Sec. 5123.081.  (A) As used in this section:65564

       (1)(a) "Applicant" means aany of the following:65565

       (i) A person who is under final consideration for appointment 65566
to or employment with the department of developmental 65567
disabilities, including, but not limited to, aor a county board 65568
of developmental disabilities;65569

       (ii) A person who is being transferred to the department and 65570
anor a county board;65571

       (iii) An employee who is being recalled to or reemployed by 65572
the department or a county board after a layoff;65573

        (iv) A person under final consideration for a direct services 65574
position with a provider or subcontractor.65575

        (b) Neither of the following is an applicant:65576

        (i) A person who is employed by a responsible entity in a 65577
position for which a criminal records check is required by this 65578
section and either is being considered for a different position 65579
with the responsible entity or is returning after a leave of 65580
absence or seasonal break in employment, unless the responsible 65581
entity has reason to believe that the person has committed a 65582
disqualifying offense;65583

        (ii) A person who is to provide only respite care under a 65584
family support services program established under section 5126.11 65585
of the Revised Code if a family member of the individual with 65586
mental retardation or a developmental disability who is to receive 65587
the respite care selects the person.65588

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 65589
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.65590

       (3) "Direct services position" means an employment position 65591
in which the employee has the opportunity to be alone with or 65592
exercises supervision or control over one or more individuals with 65593
mental retardation or a developmental disability.65594

        (4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:65595

        (a) One or more violations of section 959.13, 959.131, 65596
2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 65597
2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 65598
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 65599
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 65600
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 65601
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 65602
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 65603
2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 65604
2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 65605
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 65606
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 65607
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 65608
2921.24, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 65609
2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 65610
2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 65611
2925.09, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 65612
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;65613

        (b) One or more violations of section 2905.04 of the Revised 65614
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;65615

        (c) One or more violations of section 2919.23 of the Revised 65616
Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the 65617
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 65618
violation occurred prior to that date;65619

        (d) One violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that 65620
is not a minor drug possession offense;65621

        (e) Two or more violations of section 2925.11 of the Revised 65622
Code, regardless of whether any of the violations are a minor drug 65623
possession offense;65624

        (f) One or more violations of felonious sexual penetration 65625
under former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;65626

        (g) One or more violations of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 65627
2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is 65628
the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the 65629
offenses listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (f) of this section;65630

        (h) One or more felonies contained in the Revised Code that 65631
are not listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (g) of this section, if 65632
the felony bears a direct and substantial relationship to the 65633
duties and responsibilities of the position being filled;65634

        (i) One or more offenses contained in the Revised Code 65635
constituting a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first 65636
offense and a felony on a subsequent offense, if the offense bears 65637
a direct and substantial relationship to the position being filled 65638
and the nature of the services being provided by the responsible 65639
entity;65640

        (j) One or more violations of an existing or former municipal 65641
ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United 65642
States, if the offense is substantially equivalent to any of the 65643
offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (i) of this 65644
section.65645

        (5)(a) "Employee" means either of the following:65646

        (i) A person appointed to or employed by the department of 65647
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 65648
disabilities;65649

        (ii) A person employed in a direct services position by a 65650
provider or subcontractor.65651

        (b) "Employee" does not mean a person who provides only 65652
respite care under a family support services program established 65653
under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code if a family member of 65654
the individual with mental retardation or a developmental 65655
disability who receives the respite care selected the person.65656

        (6) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as 65657
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.65658

       (7) "Provider" means a person that provides specialized 65659
services to individuals with mental retardation or a developmental 65660
disability and employs one or more persons in direct services 65661
positions.65662

        (8) "Responsible entity" means the following:65663

        (a) The department of developmental disabilities in the case 65664
of either of the following:65665

        (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 65666
final consideration for appointment to or employment with the 65667
department, being transferred to the department, or being recalled 65668
to or reemployed by the department after a layoff;65669

        (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 65670
appointed to or employed by the department.65671

        (b) A county board of developmental disabilities in the case 65672
of either of the following:65673

        (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 65674
final consideration for appointment to or employment with the 65675
county board, being transferred to the county board, or being 65676
recalled to or reemployed by the county board after a layoff;65677

        (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 65678
appointed to or employed by the county board.65679

        (c) A provider in the case of either of the following:65680

        (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 65681
final consideration for a direct services position with the 65682
provider;65683

        (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 65684
employed in a direct services position by the provider.65685

       (d) A subcontractor in the case of either of the following:65686

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 65687
final consideration for a direct services position with the 65688
subcontractor;65689

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 65690
employed in a direct services position by the subcontractor.65691

        (9) "Specialized services" means any program or service 65692
designed and operated to serve primarily individuals with mental 65693
retardation or a developmental disability, including a program or 65694
service provided by an entity licensed or certified by the 65695
department of developmental disabilities. If there is a question 65696
as to whether a provider or subcontractor is providing specialized 65697
services, the provider or subcontractor may request that the 65698
director of developmental disabilities make a determination. The 65699
director's determination is final.65700

       (10) "Subcontractor" means a person to which both of the 65701
following apply:65702

       (a) The person has either of the following:65703

       (i) A subcontract with a provider to provide specialized 65704
services included in the contract between the provider and the 65705
department of developmental disabilities or a county board of 65706
developmental disabilities;65707

       (ii) A subcontract with another subcontractor to provide 65708
specialized services included in a subcontract between the other 65709
subcontractor and a provider or other subcontractor.65710

       (b) The person employs one or more persons in direct services 65711
positions.65712

       (B) The director of developmental disabilitiesA responsible 65713
entity shall not employ an applicant or continue to employ an 65714
employee if either of the following applies:65715

        (1) The applicant or employee fails to comply with division 65716
(D)(3) of this section.65717

        (2) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 65718
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 65719
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 65720
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 65721
for a disqualifying offense.65722

        (C) Before employing an applicant in a position for which a 65723
criminal records check is required by this section, a responsible 65724
entity shall require the applicant to submit a statement with the 65725
applicant's signature attesting that the applicant has not been 65726
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 65727
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense. 65728
The responsible entity also shall require the applicant to sign an 65729
agreement under which the applicant agrees to notify the 65730
responsible entity within fourteen calendar days if, while 65731
employed by the responsible entity, the applicant is formally 65732
charged with, is convicted of, pleads guilty to, or is found 65733
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 65734
disqualifying offense. The agreement shall provide that the 65735
applicant's failure to provide the notification may result in 65736
termination of the applicant's employment.65737

        (D)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 65738
position for which a criminal records check is required by this 65739
section, a responsible entity shall request the superintendent of 65740
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct 65741
a criminal records check with respect to each applicant, except 65742
that the director is not required to request a criminal records 65743
check for an employee of the department who is being considered 65744
for a different position or is returning after a leave of absence 65745
or seasonal break in employment, as long as the director has no 65746
reason to believe that the employee has committed any of the 65747
offenses listed or described in division (E) of this section.65748

       If theof the applicant. If rules adopted under this section 65749
require an employee to undergo a criminal records check, a 65750
responsible entity shall request the superintendent to conduct a 65751
criminal records check of the employee at times specified in the 65752
rules as a condition of the responsible entity's continuing to 65753
employ the employee in a position for which a criminal records 65754
check is required by this section. If an applicant or employee65755
does not present proof that the applicant or employee has been a 65756
resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior 65757
to the date upon which the criminal records check is requested, 65758
the directorresponsible entity shall request that the 65759
superintendent of the bureau obtain information from the federal 65760
bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records check 65761
for the applicant. If the applicant or employee presents proof 65762
that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state 65763
for that five-year period, the directorresponsible entity may 65764
request that the superintendent of the bureau include information 65765
from the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records 65766
check. For purposes of this division, an applicant or employee may 65767
provide proof of residency in this state by presenting, with a 65768
notarized statement asserting that the applicant or employee has 65769
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, a valid 65770
driver's license, notification of registration as an elector, a 65771
copy of an officially filed federal or state tax form identifying 65772
the applicant's or employee's permanent residence, or any other 65773
document the directorresponsible entity considers acceptable.65774

       (C) The director(2) A responsible entity shall providedo 65775
all of the following:65776

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 65777
criminal records check is required by this section a copy of the 65778
form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of 65779
the Revised Code, provide to each applicantand a standard 65780
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 65781
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 65782
Code, obtain;65783

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 65784
from eachthe applicant, and forwardor employee;65785

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 65786
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 65787
investigation at the time the criminal records check is requested.65788

       (3) Any applicant or employee who receives pursuant to this 65789
division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) 65790
of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of anthe 65791
standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) 65792
of that section and who is requested to complete the form and 65793
provide a set of the applicant's or employee's fingerprint 65794
impressions shall complete the form or provide all the information 65795
necessary to complete the form and shall provide the material65796
standard impression sheet with the impressions of the applicant's 65797
or employee's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails 65798
to provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails 65799
to provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the 65800
director shall not employ the applicant.65801

       (D) The director(4) A responsible entity shall pay to the 65802
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 65803
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 65804
Revised Code for each criminal records check requested and 65805
conducted pursuant to this section.65806

        (E) A responsible entity may request any other state or 65807
federal agency to supply the directorresponsible entity with a 65808
written report regarding the criminal record of eachan applicant 65809
or employee. With regard to an applicant who becomes a department 65810
employee, if theIf an employee holds an occupational or 65811
professional license or other credentials, the director65812
responsible entity may request that the state or federal agency 65813
that regulates the employee's occupation or profession supply the 65814
directorresponsible entity with a written report of any 65815
information pertaining to the employee's criminal record that the 65816
agency obtains in the course of conducting an investigation or in 65817
the process of renewing the employee's license or other 65818
credentials. The responsible entity may consider the reports when 65819
determining whether to employ the applicant or to continue to 65820
employ the employee.65821

       (E) Except as provided in division (K)(2) of this section and 65822
in rules adopted by the director in accordance with division (M) 65823
of this section, the director shall not employ a person to fill a 65824
position with the department who has been convicted of or pleaded 65825
guilty to any of the following:65826

       (1) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 65827
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 65828
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 65829
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 65830
2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 65831
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 65832
2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 65833
2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, a violation of 65834
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 65835
1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that 65836
would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code 65837
as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation occurred 65838
prior to that date, a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised 65839
Code that is not a minor drug possession offense, or felonious 65840
sexual penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the 65841
Revised Code;65842

       (2) A felony contained in the Revised Code that is not listed 65843
in this division, if the felony bears a direct and substantial 65844
relationship to the duties and responsibilities of the position 65845
being filled;65846

       (3) Any offense contained in the Revised Code constituting a 65847
misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony 65848
on a subsequent offense, if the offense bears a direct and 65849
substantial relationship to the position being filled and the 65850
nature of the services being provided by the department;65851

       (4) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 65852
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States, if 65853
the offense is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses 65854
listed or described in division (E)(1), (2), or (3) of this 65855
section.65856

       (F) Prior to employing an applicant, the director shall 65857
require the applicant to submit a statement with the applicant's 65858
signature attesting that the applicant has not been convicted of 65859
or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or described in 65860
division (E) of this section. The director also shall require the 65861
applicant to sign an agreement under which the applicant agrees to 65862
notify the director within fourteen calendar days if, while 65863
employed with the department, the applicant is ever formally 65864
charged with, convicted of, or pleads guilty to any of the 65865
offenses listed or described in division (E) of this section. The 65866
agreement shall inform the applicant that failure to report formal 65867
charges, a conviction, or a guilty plea may result in being 65868
dismissed from employment.As a condition of employing an 65869
applicant in a position for which a criminal records check is 65870
required by this section and that involves transporting 65871
individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities 65872
or operating a responsible entity's vehicles for any purpose, the 65873
responsible entity shall obtain the applicant's driving record 65874
from the bureau of motor vehicles. If rules adopted under this 65875
section require a responsible entity to obtain an employee's 65876
driving record, the responsible entity shall obtain the employee's 65877
driving record from the bureau at times specified in the rules as 65878
a condition of continuing to employ the employee. The responsible 65879
entity may consider the applicant's or employee's driving record 65880
when determining whether to employ the applicant or to continue to 65881
employ the employee.65882

       (G) The director shall pay to the bureau of criminal 65883
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 65884
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 65885
criminal records check requested and conducted pursuant to this 65886
section.A responsible entity may employ an applicant 65887
conditionally pending receipt of a report regarding the applicant 65888
requested under this section. The responsible entity shall 65889
terminate the applicant's employment if it is determined from a 65890
report that the applicant failed to inform the responsible entity 65891
that the applicant had been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 65892
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 65893
disqualifying offense.65894

       (H) A responsible entity may charge an applicant a fee for 65895
costs the responsible entity incurs in obtaining a report 65896
regarding the applicant under this section if the responsible 65897
entity notifies the applicant of the amount of the fee at the time 65898
of the applicant's initial application for employment and that, 65899
unless the fee is paid, the responsible entity will not consider 65900
the applicant for employment. The fee shall not exceed the amount 65901
of the fee, if any, the responsible entity pays for the report.65902

        (I)(1) Any report obtained pursuant to this section is not a 65903
public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code 65904
and shall not be made available to any person, other than the 65905
following:65906

       (a) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 65907
records check or criminal records checkreport or the applicant's 65908
or employee's representative, the department;65909

       (b) The responsible entity that requested the report or its 65910
representative, a county board of developmental disabilities, and 65911
any;65912

        (c) The department if a county board, provider, or 65913
subcontractor is the responsible entity that requested the report 65914
and the department requests the responsible entity to provide a 65915
copy of the report to the department;65916

        (d) A county board if a provider or subcontractor is the 65917
responsible entity that requested the report and the county board 65918
requests the responsible entity to provide a copy of the report to 65919
the county board;65920

        (e) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 65921
involved in a case dealing with theany of the following:65922

       (i) The denial of employment to the applicant or the65923
employee;65924

       (ii) The denial, suspension, or revocation of a certificate 65925
or evidence of registration under section 5123.0825123.166 or 65926
5123.45 of the Revised Code;65927

       (iii) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 65928
program or a program the department administers.65929

       (2) An individualapplicant or employee for whom the director65930
responsible entity has obtained reports under this section may 65931
submit a written request to the directorresponsible entity to 65932
have copies of the reports sent to any state agency, entity of 65933
local government, or private entity. The individualapplicant or 65934
employee shall specify in the request the agencies or entities to 65935
which the copies are to be sent. On receiving the request, the 65936
directorresponsible entity shall send copies of the reports to 65937
the agencies or entities specified.65938

       The director(3) A responsible entity may request that a 65939
state agency, entity of local government, or private entity send 65940
copies to the directorresponsible entity of any report regarding 65941
a records check or criminal records check that the agency or 65942
entity possesses, if the directorresponsible entity obtains the 65943
written consent of the individual who is the subject of the 65944
report.65945

       (I) The director shall request the registrar of motor 65946
vehicles to supply the director with a certified abstract 65947
regarding the record of convictions for violations of motor 65948
vehicle laws of each applicant who will be required by the 65949
applicant's employment to transport individuals with mental 65950
retardation or a developmental disability or to operate the 65951
department's vehicles for any other purpose. For each abstract 65952
provided under this section, the director shall pay the amount 65953
specified in section 4509.05 of the Revised Code.65954

       (J) The director(4) A responsible entity shall provide each 65955
applicant and employee with a copy of any report or abstract65956
obtained about the applicant or employee under this section.65957

       (K)(1) The director shall inform each person, at the time of 65958
the person's initial application for employment, that the person 65959
is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 65960
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 65961
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 65962
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 65963
consideration for employment as a precondition to employment in a 65964
position.65965

       (2) The director may employ an applicant pending receipt of 65966
reports requested under this section. The director shall terminate 65967
employment of any such applicant if it is determined from the 65968
reports that the applicant failed to inform the director that the 65969
applicant had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 65970
offenses listed or described in division (E) of this section.65971

       (L) The director may charge an applicant a fee for costs the 65972
director incurs in obtaining reports, abstracts, or fingerprint 65973
impressions under this section. A fee charged under this division 65974
shall not exceed the amount of the fees the director pays under 65975
divisions (G) and (I) of this section. If a fee is charged under 65976
this division, the director shall notify the applicant of the 65977
amount of the fee at the time of the applicant's initial 65978
application for employment and that, unless the fee is paid, the 65979
director will not consider the applicant for employment.65980

       (M)(J) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 65981
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 65982
implement this section, including rules specifying.65983

        (1) The rules may do the following:65984

        (a) Require employees to undergo criminal records checks 65985
under this section;65986

        (b) Require responsible entities to obtain the driving 65987
records of employees under this section;65988

        (c) If the rules require employees to undergo criminal 65989
records checks, require responsible entities to obtain the driving 65990
records of employees, or both, exempt one or more classes of 65991
employees from the requirements.65992

        (2) The rules shall do both of the following:65993

        (a) If the rules require employees to undergo criminal 65994
records checks, require responsible entities to obtain the driving 65995
records of employees, or both, specify the times at which the 65996
criminal records checks are to be conducted and the driving 65997
records are to be obtained;65998

        (b) Specify circumstances under which the directora 65999
responsible entity may employ a person who hasan applicant or 66000
employee who is found by a criminal records check required by this 66001
section to have been convicted of or, pleaded guilty to an, or 66002
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 66003
disqualifying offense listed or described in division (E) of this 66004
section but who meets standards in regard to rehabilitation set by 66005
the director.66006

       Sec. 5123.16.  (A) As used in sections 5123.16 to 5123.16966007
5123.1610 of the Revised Code:66008

       (1) "Applicant" means any of the following:66009

       (a) The chief executive officer of a business that applies 66010
under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code for a certificate to 66011
provide supported living;66012

       (b) The chief executive officer of a business that seeks 66013
renewal of the business's supported living certificate under 66014
section 5123.164 of the Revised Code;66015

       (c) An individual who applies under section 5123.161 of the 66016
Revised Code for a certificate to provide supported living as an 66017
independent provider;66018

       (d) An independent provider who seeks renewal of the 66019
independent provider's supported living certificate under section 66020
5123.164 of the Revised Code.66021

       (2)(a) "Business" means either of the following:66022

       (i) An association, corporation, nonprofit organization, 66023
partnership, trust, or other group of persons; 66024

       (ii) An individual who employs, directly or through contract, 66025
one or more other individuals to provide supported living.66026

       (b) "Business" does not mean an independent provider.66027

       (3) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 66028
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.66029

       (4) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the following:66030

       (a) One or more violations of section 959.13, 959.131, 66031
2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 66032
2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 66033
2903.341, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 66034
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 66035
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 66036
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 66037
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 66038
2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 66039
2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 66040
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 66041
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 66042
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2921.21, 66043
2921.24, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 66044
2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 66045
2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 66046
2925.09, 2925.13, 2925.14, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 66047
2925.55, 2925.56, 2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;66048

       (b) One or more violations of section 2905.04 of the Revised 66049
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;66050

       (c) One or more violations of section 2919.23 of the Revised 66051
Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 of the 66052
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 66053
violation occurred prior to that date;66054

       (d) One violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that 66055
is not a minor drug possession offense;66056

       (e) Two or more violations of section 2925.11 of the Revised 66057
Code, regardless of whether any of the violations are a minor drug 66058
possession offense;66059

       (f) One or more violations of felonious sexual penetration 66060
under former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;66061

       (g) One or more violations of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 66062
2923.03 of the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is 66063
the object of the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the 66064
offenses listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (f) of this section;66065

       (h) One or more felonies contained in the Revised Code that 66066
are not listed in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (g) of this section, if 66067
the felony bears a direct and substantial relationship to the 66068
duties and responsibilities of the position being filled;66069

       (i) One or more offenses contained in the Revised Code 66070
constituting a misdemeanor of the first degree on the first 66071
offense and a felony on a subsequent offense, if the offense bears 66072
a direct and substantial relationship to the position being filled 66073
and the nature of the services being provided by the responsible 66074
entity;66075

       (j) One or more violations of an existing or former municipal 66076
ordinance or law of this state, any other state, or the United 66077
States, if the offense is substantially equivalent to any of the 66078
offenses listed or described in divisions (A)(4)(a) to (i) of this 66079
section.66080

       (5) "Independent provider" means a provider who provides 66081
supported living on a self-employed basis and does not employ, 66082
directly or through contract, another individual to provide the 66083
supported living.66084

       (6) "Provider" means a person or government entity certified 66085
by the director of developmental disabilities to provide supported 66086
living.66087

       (2)(7) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning 66088
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.66089

       (8) "Related party" means any of the following:66090

       (a) In the case of a provider who is an individual, any of 66091
the following:66092

       (i) The spouse of the provider;66093

       (ii) A parent or stepparent of the provider or provider's 66094
spouse;66095

       (iii) A child of the provider or provider's spouse;66096

       (iv) A sibling, half sibling, or stepsibling of the provider 66097
or provider's spouse;66098

       (v) A grandparent of the provider or provider's spouse;66099

       (vi) A grandchild of the provider or provider's spouse;66100

       (vii) An employee or employer of the provider or provider's 66101
spouse.66102

       (b) In the case of a provider that is a person other than an 66103
individual, any of the following:66104

       (i) An employee of the person;66105

       (ii) An officer of the provider, including the chief 66106
executive officer, president, vice-president, secretary, and 66107
treasurer;66108

       (iii) A member of the provider's board of directors or 66109
trustees;66110

       (iv) A person owning a financial interest of five per cent or 66111
more in the provider;66112

       (v) A corporation that has a subsidiary relationship with the 66113
provider;66114

       (vi) A person or government entity that has control over the 66115
provider's day-to-day operation;66116

       (vii) A person over which the provider has control of the 66117
day-to-day operation.66118

       (c) In the case of a provider that is a government entity, 66119
any of the following:66120

       (i) An employee of the provider;66121

       (ii) An officer of the provider;66122

       (iii) A member of the provider's governing board;66123

       (iv) A government entity that has control over the provider's 66124
day-to-day operation;66125

       (v) A person or government entity over which the provider has 66126
control of the day-to-day operation.66127

       (B) No person or government entity may provide supported 66128
living without a valid supported living certificate issued by the 66129
director of developmental disabilities.66130

       (C) A county board of developmental disabilities may provide 66131
supported living only to the extent permitted by rules adopted 66132
under section 5123.1695123.1610 of the Revised Code.66133

       Sec. 5123.161.  A person or government entity that seeks to 66134
provide supported living shall apply to the director of 66135
developmental disabilities for a supported living certificate.66136

        Except as provided in sectionsections 5123.166 and 5123.16966137
of the Revised Code, the director shall issue to the applicant66138
person or government entity a supported living certificate if the 66139
applicantperson or government entity follows the application 66140
process established in rules adopted under section 5123.16966141
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, meets the applicable certification 66142
standards established in those rules, and pays the certification 66143
fee established in those rules.66144

       Sec. 5123.162.  The director of developmental disabilities 66145
may conduct surveys of persons and government entities that seek a 66146
supported living certificate to determine whether the persons and 66147
government entities meet the certification standards. The director 66148
may also conduct surveys of providers to determine whether the 66149
providers continue to meet the certification standards. The 66150
director shall conduct the surveys in accordance with rules 66151
adopted under section 5123.1695123.1610 of the Revised Code.66152

       The records of surveys conducted under this section are 66153
public records for the purpose of section 149.43 of the Revised 66154
Code and shall be made available on the request of any person or 66155
government entity.66156

       Sec. 5123.163.  A supported living certificate is valid for a 66157
period of time established in rules adopted under section 5123.16966158
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, unless any of the following occur 66159
before the end of that period of time:66160

        (A) The director of developmental disabilities issues an 66161
order requiring that action be taken against the certificate 66162
holder under section 5123.166 of the Revised Code.66163

        (B) The director issues an order terminating the certificate 66164
under section 5123.168 of the Revised Code.66165

        (C) The certificate holder voluntarily surrenders the 66166
certificate to the director.66167

       Sec. 5123.164. Except as provided in sectionsections66168
5123.166 and 5123.169 of the Revised Code, the director of 66169
developmental disabilities shall renew a supported living 66170
certificate if the certificate holder follows the renewal process 66171
established in rules adopted under section 5123.1695123.1610 of 66172
the Revised Code, continues to meet the applicable certification 66173
standards established in those rules, and pays the renewal fee 66174
established in those rules.66175

       Sec. 5123.166.  (A) If good cause exists as specified in 66176
division (B) of this section and determined in accordance with 66177
procedures established in rules adopted under section 5123.16966178
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, the director of developmental 66179
disabilities may issue an adjudication order requiring that one of 66180
the following actions be taken against a person or government 66181
entity seeking or holding a supported living certificate:66182

       (1) Refusal to issue or renew a supported living certificate;66183

       (2) Revocation of a supported living certificate;66184

       (3) Suspension of a supported living certificate holder's 66185
authority to do either or both of the following:66186

        (a) Continue to provide supported living to one or more 66187
individuals from one or more counties who receive supported living 66188
from the certificate holder at the time the director takes the 66189
action;66190

        (b) Begin to provide supported living to one or more 66191
individuals from one or more counties who do not receive supported 66192
living from the certificate holder at the time the director takes 66193
the action.66194

       (B) The following constitute good cause for taking action 66195
under division (A) of this section against a person or government 66196
entity seeking or holding a supported living certificate:66197

       (1) The person or government entity's failure to meet or 66198
continue to meet the applicable certification standards 66199
established in rules adopted under section 5123.1695123.1610 of 66200
the Revised Code;66201

       (2) The person or government entity violates section 5123.165 66202
of the Revised Code;66203

       (3) The person or government entity's failure to satisfy the 66204
requirements of section 5123.081 or 5123.52, 5126.28, or 5126.28166205
of the Revised Code;66206

       (4) Misfeasance;66207

       (5) Malfeasance;66208

       (6) Nonfeasance;66209

       (7) Confirmed abuse or neglect;66210

       (8) Financial irresponsibility;66211

       (9) Other conduct the director determines is or would be 66212
injurious to individuals who receive or would receive supported 66213
living from the person or government entity.66214

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 66215
director shall issue an adjudication order under division (A) of 66216
this section in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.66217

       (D)(1) The director may issue an order requiring that action 66218
specified in division (A)(3) of this section be taken before a 66219
provider is provided notice and an opportunity for a hearing if 66220
all of the following are the case:66221

       (a) The director determines such action is warranted by the 66222
provider's failure to continue to meet the applicable 66223
certification standards;66224

       (b) The director determines that the failure either 66225
represents a pattern of serious noncompliance or creates a 66226
substantial risk to the health or safety of an individual who 66227
receives or would receive supported living from the provider;66228

        (c) If the order will suspend the provider's authority to 66229
continue to provide supported living to an individual who receives 66230
supported living from the provider at the time the director issues 66231
the order, both of the following are the case:66232

        (i) The director makes the individual, or the individual's 66233
guardian, aware of the director's determination under division 66234
(D)(1)(b) of this section and the individual or guardian does not 66235
select another provider.66236

        (ii) A county board of developmental disabilities has filed a 66237
complaint with a probate court under section 5123.335126.33 of 66238
the Revised Code that includes facts describing the nature of 66239
abuse or neglect that the individual has suffered due to the 66240
provider's actions that are the basis for the director making the 66241
determination under division (D)(1)(b) of this section and the 66242
probate court does not issue an order authorizing the county board 66243
to arrange services for the individual pursuant to an 66244
individualized service plan developed for the individual under 66245
section 5123.315126.31 of the Revised Code.66246

       (2) If the director issues an order under division (D)(1) of 66247
this section, sections 119.091 to 119.13 of the Revised Code and 66248
all of the following apply:66249

       (a) The director shall send the provider notice of the order 66250
by registered mail, return receipt requested, not later than 66251
twenty-four hours after issuing the order and shall include in the 66252
notice the reasons for the order, the citation to the law or rule 66253
directly involved, and a statement that the provider will be 66254
afforded a hearing if the provider requests it within ten days of 66255
the time of receiving the notice.66256

       (b) If the provider requests a hearing within the required 66257
time and the provider has provided the director the provider's 66258
current address, the director shall immediately set, and notify 66259
the provider of, the date, time, and place for the hearing.66260

       (c) The date of the hearing shall be not later than thirty 66261
days after the director receives the provider's timely request for 66262
the hearing.66263

       (d) The hearing shall be conducted in accordance with section 66264
119.09 of the Revised Code, except for all of the following:66265

       (i) The hearing shall continue uninterrupted until its close, 66266
except for weekends, legal holidays, and other interruptions the 66267
provider and director agree to.66268

       (ii) If the director appoints a referee or examiner to 66269
conduct the hearing, the referee or examiner, not later than ten 66270
days after the date the referee or examiner receives a transcript 66271
of the testimony and evidence presented at the hearing or, if the 66272
referee or examiner does not receive the transcript or no such 66273
transcript is made, the date that the referee or examiner closes 66274
the record of the hearing, shall submit to the director a written 66275
report setting forth the referee or examiner's findings of fact 66276
and conclusions of law and a recommendation of the action the 66277
director should take.66278

       (iii) The provider may, not later than five days after the 66279
date the director, in accordance with section 119.09 of the 66280
Revised Code, sends the provider or the provider's attorney or 66281
other representative of record a copy of the referee or examiner's 66282
report and recommendation, file with the director written 66283
objections to the report and recommendation.66284

       (iv) The director shall approve, modify, or disapprove the 66285
referee or examiner's report and recommendation not earlier than 66286
six days, and not later than fifteen days, after the date the 66287
director, in accordance with section 119.09 of the Revised Code, 66288
sends a copy of the report and recommendation to the provider or 66289
the provider's attorney or other representative of record.66290

       (3) The director may lift an order issued under division 66291
(D)(1) of this section even though a hearing regarding the order 66292
is occurring or pending if the director determines that the 66293
provider has taken action eliminating the good cause for issuing 66294
the order. The hearing shall proceed unless the provider withdraws 66295
the request for the hearing in a written letter to the director.66296

       (4) The director shall lift an order issued under division 66297
(D)(1) of this section if both of the following are the case:66298

        (a) The provider provides the director a plan of compliance 66299
the director determines is acceptable.66300

        (b) The director determines that the provider has implemented 66301
the plan of compliance correctly.66302

       Sec. 5123.169.  (A) The director of developmental 66303
disabilities shall not issue a supported living certificate to an 66304
applicant or renew an applicant's supported living certificate if 66305
either of the following applies:66306

       (1) The applicant fails to comply with division (C)(2) of 66307
this section;66308

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted under section 66309
5123.1610 of the Revised Code, the applicant is found by a 66310
criminal records check required by this section to have been 66311
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 66312
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense.66313

       (B) Before issuing a supported living certificate to an 66314
applicant or renewing an applicant's supported living certificate, 66315
the director shall require the applicant to submit a statement 66316
with the applicant's signature attesting that the applicant has 66317
not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible 66318
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 66319
offense. The director also shall require the applicant to sign an 66320
agreement under which the applicant agrees to notify the director 66321
within fourteen calendar days if, while holding a supported living 66322
certificate, the applicant is formally charged with, is convicted 66323
of, pleads guilty to, or is found eligible for intervention in 66324
lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense. The agreement 66325
shall provide that the applicant's failure to provide the 66326
notification may result in action being taken by the director 66327
against the applicant under section 5123.166 of the Revised Code.66328

       (C)(1) As a condition of receiving a supported living 66329
certificate or having a supported living certificate renewed, an 66330
applicant shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 66331
criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal 66332
records check of the applicant. If an applicant does not present 66333
proof to the director that the applicant has been a resident of 66334
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 66335
that the applicant applies for issuance or renewal of the 66336
supported living certificate, the director shall require the 66337
applicant to request that the superintendent obtain information 66338
from the federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal 66339
records check. If the applicant presents proof to the director 66340
that the applicant has been a resident of this state for that 66341
five-year period, the director may require the applicant to 66342
request that the superintendent include information from the 66343
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check. For 66344
purposes of this division, an applicant may provide proof of 66345
residency in this state by presenting, with a notarized statement 66346
asserting that the applicant has been a resident of this state for 66347
that five-year period, a valid driver's license, notification of 66348
registration as an elector, a copy of an officially filed federal 66349
or state tax form identifying the applicant's permanent residence, 66350
or any other document the director considers acceptable.66351

       (2) Each applicant shall do all of the following:66352

       (a) Obtain a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 66353
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 66354
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 66355
109.572 of the Revised Code;66356

       (b) Complete the form and provide the applicant's fingerprint 66357
impressions on the standard impression sheet;66358

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 66359
to the superintendent at the time the criminal records check is 66360
requested;66361

       (d) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 66362
report of the criminal records check directly to the director;66363

       (e) Pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 66364
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 66365
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 66366
check of the applicant requested and conducted pursuant to this 66367
section.66368

       (D) The director may request any other state or federal 66369
agency to supply the director with a written report regarding the 66370
criminal record of an applicant. The director may consider the 66371
reports when determining whether to issue a supported living 66372
certificate to the applicant or to renew an applicant's supported 66373
living certificate.66374

       (E) An applicant who seeks to be an independent provider or 66375
is an independent provider seeking renewal of the applicant's 66376
supported living certificate shall obtain the applicant's driving 66377
record from the bureau of motor vehicles and provide a copy of the 66378
record to the director if the supported living that the applicant 66379
will provide involves transporting individuals with mental 66380
retardation or developmental disabilities. The director may 66381
consider the applicant's driving record when determining whether 66382
to issue the applicant a supported living certificate or to renew 66383
the applicant's supported living certificate.66384

       (F)(1) A report obtained pursuant to this section is not a 66385
public record for purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code 66386
and shall not be made available to any person, other than the 66387
following:66388

       (a) The applicant who is the subject of the report or the 66389
applicant's representative;66390

       (b) The director or the director's representative;66391

       (c) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 66392
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:66393

       (i) The denial of a supported living certificate or refusal 66394
to renew a supported living certificate;66395

       (ii) The denial, suspension, or revocation of a certificate 66396
under section 5123.45 of the Revised Code;66397

       (iii) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 66398
program.66399

       (2) An applicant for whom the director has obtained reports 66400
under this section may submit a written request to the director to 66401
have copies of the reports sent to any person or state or local 66402
government entity. The applicant shall specify in the request the 66403
person or entities to which the copies are to be sent. On 66404
receiving the request, the director shall send copies of the 66405
reports to the persons or entities specified.66406

       (3) The director may request that a person or state or local 66407
government entity send copies to the director of any report 66408
regarding a records check or criminal records check that the 66409
person or entity possesses, if the director obtains the written 66410
consent of the individual who is the subject of the report.66411

       (4) The director shall provide each applicant with a copy of 66412
any report obtained about the applicant under this section.66413

       Sec. 5123.169.        Sec. 5123.1610.  The director of developmental 66414
disabilities shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised 66415
Code establishing all of the following:66416

       (A) The extent to which a county board of developmental 66417
disabilities may provide supported living;66418

       (B) The application process for obtaining a supported living 66419
certificate under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code;66420

       (C) The certification standards a person or government entity 66421
must meet to obtain a supported living certificate to provide 66422
supported living;66423

       (D) The certification fee for a supported living certificate, 66424
which shall be deposited into the program fee fund created under 66425
section 5123.033 of the Revised Code;66426

       (E) The period of time a supported living certificate is 66427
valid;66428

       (F) The process for renewing a supported living certificate 66429
under section 5123.164 of the Revised Code;66430

       (G) The renewal fee for a supported living certificate, which 66431
shall be deposited into the program fee fund created under section 66432
5123.033 of the Revised Code;66433

       (H) Procedures for conducting surveys under section 5123.162 66434
of the Revised Code;66435

       (I) Procedures for determining whether there is good cause to 66436
take action under section 5123.166 of the Revised Code against a 66437
person or government entity seeking or holding a supported living 66438
certificate;66439

       (J) Circumstances under which the director may issue a 66440
supported living certificate to an applicant or renew an 66441
applicant's supported living certificate if the applicant is found 66442
by a criminal records check required by section 5123.169 of the 66443
Revised Code to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 66444
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 66445
disqualifying offense but meets standards in regard to 66446
rehabilitation set by the director.66447

       Sec. 5123.171.  As used in this section, "respite care" means 66448
appropriate, short-term, temporary care provided to a mentally 66449
retarded or developmentally disabled person to sustain the family 66450
structure or to meet planned or emergency needs of the family.66451

       The department of developmental disabilities shall provide 66452
respite care services to persons with mental retardation or a 66453
developmental disability for the purpose of promoting 66454
self-sufficiency and normalization, preventing or reducing 66455
inappropriate institutional care, and furthering the unity of the 66456
family by enabling the family to meet the special needs of a 66457
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person.66458

       In order to be eligible for respite care services under this 66459
section, the mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 66460
must be in need of habilitation services as defined in section 66461
5126.01 of the Revised Code.66462

       Respite care may be provided in a residential facility 66463
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code or(including a 66464
residential facility certified as an intermediate care facility 66465
for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security 66466
Act," 4979 Stat. 620344 (19351965), 42 U.S.C. 3011396, et 66467
seq., as amended, or certified as) and a respite care home 66468
certified under section 5126.05 of the Revised Code.66469

       The department shall develop a system for locating vacant 66470
beds that are available for respite care and for making 66471
information on vacant beds available to users of respite care 66472
services. Facilities certified as intermediate care facilities for 66473
the mentally retarded shall report vacant beds to the department 66474
but shall not be required to accept respite care clients.66475

       The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt, and 66476
may amend or rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 66477
Revised Code for both of the following:66478

       (A) Certification by county boards of developmental 66479
disabilities of respite care homes;66480

       (B) Provision of respite care services authorized by this 66481
section. Rules adopted under this division shall establish all of 66482
the following:66483

       (1) A formula for distributing funds appropriated for respite 66484
care services;66485

       (2) Standards for supervision, training and quality control 66486
in the provision of respite care services;66487

       (3) Eligibility criteria for emergency respite care services.66488

       Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in this section and in sections 66489
5123.191, 5123.194, 5123.196, 5123.197, 5123.198, and5123.19 to66490
5123.20 of the Revised Code:66491

       (1)(a) "Residential facility" means a home or facility in 66492
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 66493
resides, except the home of a relative or legal guardian in which 66494
a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person resides, a 66495
respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of the Revised 66496
Code, a county home or district home operated pursuant to Chapter 66497
5155. of the Revised Code, or a dwelling in which the only 66498
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled residents are in an 66499
independent living arrangement or are being provided supported 66500
living.66501

        (b) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 66502
means a residential facility that is considered an intermediate 66503
care facility for the mentally retarded for the purposes of 66504
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.66505

       (2) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 66506
county, or township.66507

       (3) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in 66508
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 66509
resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the 66510
person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the 66511
provision of residential services for mentally retarded or 66512
developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial 66513
support is received for rendering such service from any 66514
governmental agency by a provider of residential services.66515

       (4)(2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 66516
has the same meaning as in section 1905(d) of the "Social Security 66517
Act," 101 Stat. 1330-204 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d), as amended.66518

        (3) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has 66519
applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to 66520
which the license was issued under this section.66521

       (4) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 66522
county, or township.66523

       (5) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 66524
5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the 66525
definition of "related party" means a person or government entity 66526
that held or applied for a license to operate a residential 66527
facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to 66528
provide supported living.66529

       (6)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(b) of this 66530
section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, 66531
including a facility certified as an intermediate care facility 66532
for the mentally retarded, in which an individual with mental 66533
retardation or a developmental disability resides.66534

        (b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the 66535
following:66536

        (i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an 66537
individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability 66538
resides;66539

        (ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 66540
the Revised Code;66541

        (iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 66542
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;66543

        (iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental 66544
retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent 66545
living arrangements or are being provided supported living.66546

       (B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a 66547
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 66548
the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential 66549
facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5119.73, 5103.03, or66550
5119.20, or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised 66551
Code. Notwithstanding Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a nursing 66552
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 66553
mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 66554
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, as amended, shall apply for 66555
licensure of the portion of the home that is certified as an 66556
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. 66557

       (C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the 66558
director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation 66559
of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for 66560
a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies 66561
the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be 66562
renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the 66563
director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this 66564
section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall 66565
specify the period for which the license is being issued or 66566
renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing 66567
period specified by the director, unless the license is 66568
terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.66569

       (D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not 66570
in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to 66571
residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a 66572
provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to 66573
renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an 66574
order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an 66575
order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order 66576
for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action 66577
the director considers necessary consistent with the director's 66578
authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In 66579
the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be 66580
imposed, all of the following apply:66581

       (1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a 66582
license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee 66583
has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a 66584
violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of 66585
residents of a residential facility.66586

       (2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve 66587
consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was 66588
last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) 66589
of this section is not given.66590

       (3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of 66591
admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in 66592
sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other 66593
violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this 66594
section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a 66595
violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of 66596
this section, the director may impose the suspension before 66597
providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 66598
the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the 66599
suspension of admissions when the director determines that the 66600
violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.66601

       (4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a 66602
residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted 66603
under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the 66604
order when the director determines that the violation that formed 66605
the basis for the order has been corrected.66606

       (5) If the director determines that two or more residential 66607
facilities owned or operated by the same person or government 66608
entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of 66609
this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 66610
adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are 66611
based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, 66612
circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the 66613
health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a 66614
survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned 66615
or operated by that person or government entity. The director may 66616
take any action authorized by this section with respect to any 66617
facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this 66618
chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 66619
adopted under such a provision.66620

       (6) When the director initiates license revocation 66621
proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction 66622
shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter 66623
of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the 66624
deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee 66625
that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall 66626
also send a copy of the letter to the county board of 66627
developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of 66628
the letter to each of the following:66629

        (a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;66630

        (b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from 66631
the licensee if the resident has a guardian;66632

        (c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives 66633
services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.66634

       (7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance 66635
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the 66636
immediate removal of residents from a residential facility 66637
whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of 66638
physical or psychological harm to the residents.66639

       (8) In determining whether a residential facility is being 66640
operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that 66641
applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such 66642
a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility 66643
present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to 66644
the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a 66645
county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental 66646
agencies.66647

       (9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or 66648
revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke 66649
a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies 66650
that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of 66651
the hearing.66652

       (E) The director shall establish a program under which public 66653
notification may be made when the director has initiated license 66654
revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension 66655
of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. 66656
The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 66657
the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall 66658
establish the procedures by which the public notification will be 66659
made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must 66660
be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made 66661
if the director has taken action against the facility in the 66662
eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest 66663
action against the facility and the latest action is being taken 66664
for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision 66665
of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the 66666
rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a 66667
method for removing or amending the public notification if the 66668
director's action is found to have been unjustified or the 66669
violation at the residential facility has been corrected.66670

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 66671
appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under 66672
division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with 66673
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.66674

       (2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the 66675
suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in 66676
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order 66677
was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in 66678
which case all of the following apply:66679

       (a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten 66680
days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the 66681
Revised Code.66682

       (b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the 66683
licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not 66684
later than thirty days after the department receives the request.66685

       (c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue 66686
uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, 66687
unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the 66688
director.66689

       (d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 66690
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later 66691
than ten days after the last of the following:66692

       (i) The close of the hearing;66693

       (ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the 66694
hearing examiner receives the transcript;66695

        (iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing 66696
examiner receives the briefs.66697

       (e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the 66698
hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee 66699
and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five 66700
days after the report is filed.66701

        (f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files 66702
the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections 66703
to the report and recommendations.66704

       (g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner 66705
files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an 66706
order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and 66707
recommendations.66708

       (h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director 66709
shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the 66710
director determines that the violation that formed the basis for 66711
the order has been corrected.66712

       (G) Neither a person or government agency whose application 66713
for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a 66714
related party of the person or government agency may apply for a 66715
license to operate a residential facility before the date that is 66716
one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose 66717
residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the 66718
licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the 66719
date that is five years after the date of the revocation.66720

        (H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 66721
director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing 66722
and regulating the operation of residential facilities, including 66723
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded. The rules 66724
for residential facilities that are intermediate care facilities 66725
for the mentally retarded may differ from those for other 66726
residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the 66727
following:66728

       (1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing 66729
licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the 66730
length of the licensing period that the director must specify for 66731
each license when it is issued or renewed;66732

       (2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, 66733
terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension 66734
of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, 66735
and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;66736

       (3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be 66737
deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 66738
of the Revised Code;66739

       (4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;66740

       (5) Requirements for the training of residential facility 66741
personnel;66742

       (6) Classifications for the various types of residential 66743
facilities;66744

       (7) Certification procedures for licensees and management 66745
contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure 66746
that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate 66747
or manage residential facilities;66748

       (8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a 66749
particular type of residential facility;66750

       (9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and 66751
transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;66752

       (10) Other standards for the operation of residential 66753
facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;66754

       (11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted 66755
under this section.66756

       (I) Before issuing a license, the director of the department 66757
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the 66758
residential facility for which application is made. The director 66759
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed 66760
residential facility at least once during the period the license 66761
is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A 66762
survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and 66763
evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the 66764
services provided there.66765

       In conducting surveys, the director or the director's 66766
designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all 66767
records, accounts, and any other documents related to the 66768
operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the 66769
facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control 66770
of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all 66771
persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with 66772
the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's 66773
designee in conducting the survey.66774

       Following each survey, unless the director initiates a 66775
license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's 66776
designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing any 66777
deficiencies, specifying a timetable within which the licensee 66778
shall submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies 66779
will be corrected, and, when appropriate, specifying a timetable 66780
within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies. After a 66781
plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's 66782
designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A copy of the 66783
report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided to 66784
any person who requests it.66785

       The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any 66786
department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any 66787
unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential 66788
facility by an authorized representative of the department.66789

       (J) In addition to any other information which may be 66790
required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the 66791
director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an 66792
approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to 66793
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply 66794
to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or 66795
modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.193 or66796
5123.197 of the Revised Code.66797

       (K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in 66798
which the licensee's residential facility is located of any 66799
significant change in the identity of the licensee or management 66800
contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee 66801
is not the owner of the building.66802

       Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with 66803
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require 66804
notification to the department of any significant change in the 66805
ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the 66806
licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that 66807
a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall 66808
consider the proposed change to be an application for development 66809
by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code 66810
and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the 66811
notification that the current license shall continue in effect or 66812
a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the 66813
director requires a new license, the director shall permit the 66814
facility to continue to operate under the current license until 66815
the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, 66816
refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 66817
119. of the Revised Code.66818

       (L) A county board of developmental disabilities, the legal 66819
rights service, and any interested person may file complaints 66820
alleging violations of statute or department rule relating to 66821
residential facilities with the department. All complaints shall 66822
be in writing and shall state the facts constituting the basis of 66823
the allegation. The department shall not reveal the source of any 66824
complaint unless the complainant agrees in writing to waive the 66825
right to confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of 66826
competent jurisdiction.66827

       The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 66828
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, 66829
referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with 66830
the department under this division.66831

       (M) The department shall establish procedures for the 66832
notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care 66833
of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are 66834
losing their license.66835

       (N) Before issuing a license under this section to a 66836
residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than 66837
one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the 66838
director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:66839

       (1) If the facility will be located in a municipal 66840
corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the 66841
municipal corporation;66842

       (2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated 66843
territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county 66844
commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of 66845
township trustees.66846

       The director shall not issue the license for ten days after 66847
mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal 66848
holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in 66849
which to comment on the proposed issuance.66850

       Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board 66851
of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that 66852
receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a 66853
license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to 66854
the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, 66855
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director 66856
receives written comments from any notified officials within the 66857
specified time, the director shall make written findings 66858
concerning the comments and the director's decision on the 66859
issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written 66860
comments from any notified local officials within the specified 66861
time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the 66862
license.66863

       (O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 66864
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 66865
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but 66866
not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a 66867
developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential 66868
district or zone, including any single-family residential district 66869
or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential 66870
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 66871
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 66872
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 66873
zone.66874

       (P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 66875
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 66876
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine 66877
but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a 66878
developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family 66879
residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except 66880
that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance 66881
or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may 66882
exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a 66883
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 66884
resolution may regulate these residential facilities in 66885
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 66886
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 66887
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 66888
zoning ordinance or resolution to:66889

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 66890
residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any 66891
walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land 66892
uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;66893

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 66894
regulation;66895

       (3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential 66896
facilities.66897

       (Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision 66898
from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory 66899
regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety 66900
regulations and building standards and regulations.66901

       (R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable 66902
to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an 66903
ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed 66904
residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional 66905
uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in 66906
effect without any substantive modification.66907

       (S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a 66908
residential facility to an applicant for a license under this 66909
section if either of the following is the case:66910

       (a) The director determines that an emergency exists 66911
requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential 66912
facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that 66913
the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license 66914
under this section within thirty days after issuance of the 66915
interim license.66916

       (b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim 66917
license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential 66918
facility.66919

       (2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an 66920
applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive 66921
a permanent license under this section, except for any differing 66922
procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a 66923
permanent license.66924

       (3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may 66925
be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred 66926
fifty days.66927

       (4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 66928
119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to 66929
administer the issuance of interim licenses.66930

       (T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section 66931
establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a 66932
particular type of residential facility, a residential facility 66933
shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being 66934
served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the 66935
number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to 66936
a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of 66937
support from the department of developmental disabilities and 66938
which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.66939

       (U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any 66940
time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other 66941
structure that has been reported to the director or that the 66942
director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a 66943
residential facility without a license issued under this section.66944

       The director may petition the court of common pleas of the 66945
county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for 66946
an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the 66947
facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court 66948
may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or 66949
governmental agency named in the petition is operating a 66950
residential facility without a license. The court may grant the 66951
injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets 66952
the requirements for receiving a license under this section.66953

       Sec. 5123.192. (A) A person or government agency operating, 66954
on the effective date of this section, an intermediate care 66955
facility for the mentally retarded pursuant to a nursing home 66956
license issued under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code shall do 66957
both of the following as a condition of continuing to operate the 66958
facility on and after July 1, 2013:66959

        (1) Not later than February 1, 2013, apply to the director of 66960
developmental disabilities for a residential facility license 66961
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code for the facility;66962

        (2) Not later than July 1, 2013, obtain the residential 66963
facility license for the facility.66964

        (B) The nursing home license of an intermediate care facility 66965
for the mentally retarded shall cease to be valid at the earliest 66966
of the following:66967

        (1) The date that the facility's nursing home license is 66968
revoked or voided under section 3721.07 of the Revised Code;66969

        (2) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 66970
for the facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;66971

        (3) July 1, 2013.66972

        (C) No bed that is part of an intermediate care facility for 66973
the mentally retarded that is licensed as a nursing home on the 66974
effective date of this section may be used as part of a nursing 66975
home on and after the earlier of the following:66976

        (1) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 66977
for the facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;66978

        (2) July 1, 2013.66979

       Sec. 5123.31. (A) The department of developmental 66980
disabilities shall keep in its office, accessible only to its 66981
employees, except by the consent of the department or the order of 66982
the judge of a court of record, a record showing the name, 66983
residence, sex, age, nativity, occupation, condition, and date of 66984
entrance or commitment of every resident in the institutions 66985
governed by it, the date, cause, and terms of discharge and the 66986
condition of such person at the time of leaving, and also a record 66987
of all transfers from one institution to another, and, if such 66988
person dies while in the care or custody of the department, the 66989
date and cause of death. These and such other facts as the 66990
department requires shall be furnished by the managing officer of 66991
each institution within ten days after the commitment, entrance, 66992
death, or discharge of a resident.66993

       Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 66994
department shall maintain the records described in this division 66995
in its office. The department shall make the records accessible 66996
only to its employees, except by the consent of the department or 66997
the order of the judge of a court of record.66998

       (B) In case of an accident or injury or peculiar death of a66999
an institution resident the managing officer shall make a special 67000
report to the department within twenty-four hours thereafter, 67001
giving the circumstances as fully as possible.67002

       (C) After a period of time determined by the department, the 67003
records described in division (A) of this section may be deposited 67004
with the Ohio historical society. Neither the records nor the 67005
information contained in them shall be disclosed by the historical 67006
society, except as provided in section 5123.89 of the Revised 67007
Code.67008

       Sec. 5123.38. (A) Except as provided in division (B) and (C)67009
of this section, if an individual receiving supported living or 67010
home and community-based services funded by a county board of 67011
developmental disabilities is committed to a state-operated 67012
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded pursuant to 67013
sections 5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code, the department of 67014
developmental disabilities shall use the funds otherwise allocated 67015
to the county board asis responsible for the nonfederal share of 67016
medicaid expenditures for the individual's care in the 67017
state-operated facility. The department of developmental 67018
disabilities shall collect the amount of the nonfederal share from 67019
the county board by either withholding that amount from funds the 67020
department has otherwise allocated to the county board or 67021
submitting an invoice for payment of that amount to the county 67022
board.67023

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply if theunder 67024
any of the following circumstances:67025

       (1) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 67026
date of the commitment of a person receiving supported services67027
living, commences funding of supported living for an individual 67028
who resides in a state-operated intermediate care facility for the 67029
mentally retarded on the date of the commitment or another 67030
eligible individual designated by the department.67031

       (C) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the(2) 67032
The county board, not later than ninety days after the date of the 67033
commitment of a person receiving home and community-based 67034
services, commences funding of home and community-based services 67035
for an individual who resides in a state-operated intermediate 67036
care facility for the mentally retarded on the date of the 67037
commitment or another eligible individual designated by the 67038
department.67039

       (3) The director of developmental disabilities, after 67040
determining that circumstances warrant granting a waiver in an 67041
individual's case, grants the county board a waiver that exempts 67042
the county board from responsibility for the nonfederal share for 67043
that case.67044

       Sec. 5123.41.  As used in this section and sections 5123.42 67045
to 5123.47 of the Revised Code:67046

       (A) "Adult services" has the same meaning as in section 67047
5126.01 of the Revised Code.67048

       (B) "Certified supported living provider" means a person or 67049
government entity certified under section 5123.161 of the Revised 67050
Code.67051

       (C) "Drug" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the 67052
Revised Code.67053

       (D) "Family support services" has the same meaning as in 67054
section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.67055

       (E) "Health-related activities" means the following:67056

       (1) Taking vital signs;67057

       (2) Application of clean dressings that do not require health 67058
assessment;67059

       (3) Basic measurement of bodily intake and output;67060

       (4) Oral suctioning;67061

       (5) Use of glucometers;67062

       (6) External urinary catheter care;67063

       (7) Emptying and replacing colostomy bags;67064

       (8) Collection of specimens by noninvasive means.67065

       (F) "Licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 67066
drugs" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised 67067
Code.67068

       (G) "MR/DD personnel" means the employees and the workers 67069
under contract who provide specialized services to individuals 67070
with mental retardation and developmental disabilities. "MR/DD 67071
personnel" includes those who provide the services as follows:67072

       (1) Through direct employment with the department of 67073
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 67074
disabilities;67075

       (2) Through an entity under contract with the department of 67076
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 67077
disabilities;67078

       (3) Through direct employment or by being under contract with 67079
private entities, including private entities that operate 67080
residential facilities.67081

       (H) "Nursing delegation" means the process established in 67082
rules adopted by the board of nursing pursuant to Chapter 4723. of 67083
the Revised Code under which a registered nurse or licensed 67084
practical nurse acting at the direction of a registered nurse 67085
transfers the performance of a particular nursing activity or task 67086
to another person who is not otherwise authorized to perform the 67087
activity or task.67088

       (I) "Prescribed medication" means a drug that is to be 67089
administered according to the instructions of a licensed health 67090
professional authorized to prescribe drugs.67091

       (J) "Residential facility" means a facility licensed under 67092
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code or subject to section 5123.192 67093
of the Revised Code.67094

       (K) "Specialized services" has the same meaning as in section 67095
5123.50 of the Revised Code.67096

       (L) "Tube feeding" means the provision of nutrition to an 67097
individual through a gastrostomy tube or a jejunostomy tube.67098

       Sec. 5123.50.  As used in this section and sections 5123.51, 67099
5123.52, and 5123.5415123.50 to 5123.542 of the Revised Code:67100

       (A) "Abuse" means all of the following:67101

       (1) The use of physical force that can reasonably be expected 67102
to result in physical harm or serious physical harm;67103

       (2) Sexual abuse;67104

       (3) Verbal abuse.67105

       (B) "Misappropriation" means depriving, defrauding, or 67106
otherwise obtaining the real or personal property of an individual 67107
by any means prohibited by the Revised Code, including violations 67108
of Chapter 2911. or 2913. of the Revised Code.67109

       (C) "MR/DD employee" means all of the following:67110

       (1) An employee of the department of developmental 67111
disabilities;67112

       (2) An employee of a county board of developmental 67113
disabilities;67114

       (3) An employee in a position that includes providing 67115
specialized services to an individual with mental retardation or 67116
another developmental disability;67117

       (4) An independent provider as defined in section 5123.16 of 67118
the Revised Code.67119

       (D) "Neglect" means, when there is a duty to do so, failing 67120
to provide an individual with any treatment, care, goods, or 67121
services that are necessary to maintain the health and safety of 67122
the individual.67123

       (E) "Offense of violence" has the same meaning as in section 67124
2901.01 of the Revised Code.67125

       (F) "Physical harm" and "serious physical harm" have the same 67126
meanings as in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code.67127

       (F)(G) "Prescribed medication" has the same meaning as in 67128
section 5123.41 of the Revised Code.67129

       (H) "Sexual abuse" means unlawful sexual conduct or sexual 67130
contact.67131

       (G)(I) "Specialized services" means any program or service 67132
designed and operated to serve primarily individuals with mental 67133
retardation or a developmental disability, including a program or 67134
service provided by an entity licensed or certified by the 67135
department of developmental disabilities. A program or service 67136
available to the general public is not a specialized service.67137

       (H)(J) "Verbal abuse" means purposely using words to 67138
threaten, coerce, intimidate, harass, or humiliate an individual.67139

       (I)(K) "Sexual conduct," "sexual contact," and "spouse" have 67140
the same meanings as in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code.67141

       Sec. 5123.51.  (A) In addition to any other action required 67142
by sections 5123.61 and 5126.31 of the Revised Code, the 67143
department of developmental disabilities shall review each report 67144
the department receives of abuse or neglect of an individual with 67145
mental retardation or a developmental disability or 67146
misappropriation of an individual's property that includes an 67147
allegation that an MR/DD employee committed or was responsible for 67148
the abuse, neglect, or misappropriation. The department shall 67149
review a report it receives from a public children services agency 67150
only after the agency completes its investigation pursuant to 67151
section 2151.421 of the Revised Code. On receipt of a notice under 67152
section 2930.061 or 5123.541 of the Revised Code, the department 67153
shall review the notice.67154

       (B) The department shall do both of the following:67155

       (1) Investigate the allegation or adopt the findings of an 67156
investigation or review of the allegation conducted by another 67157
person or government entity and determine whether there is a 67158
reasonable basis for the allegation;67159

       (2) If the department determines that there is a reasonable 67160
basis for the allegation, conduct an adjudication pursuant to 67161
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.67162

       (C)(1) The department shall appoint an independent hearing 67163
officer to conduct any hearing conducted pursuant to division 67164
(B)(2) of this section, except that, if the hearing is regarding 67165
an employee of the department who is represented by a union, the 67166
department and a representative of the union shall jointly select 67167
the hearing officer.67168

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this 67169
section, no hearing shall be conducted under division (B)(2) of 67170
this section until any criminal proceeding or collective 67171
bargaining arbitration concerning the same allegation has 67172
concluded.67173

       (b) The department may conduct a hearing pursuant to division 67174
(B)(2) of this section before a criminal proceeding concerning the 67175
same allegation is concluded if both of the following are the 67176
case:67177

        (i) The department notifies the prosecutor responsible for 67178
the criminal proceeding that the department proposes to conduct a 67179
hearing.67180

        (ii) The prosecutor consents to the hearing.67181

       (3) In conducting a hearing pursuant to division (B)(2) of 67182
this section, the hearing officer shall do all of the following:67183

       (a) Determine whether there is clear and convincing evidence 67184
that the MR/DD employee has done any of the following:67185

       (i) Misappropriated property of one or more individuals with 67186
mental retardation or a developmental disability that has a value, 67187
either separately or taken together, of one hundred dollars or 67188
more;67189

       (ii) Misappropriated property of an individual with mental 67190
retardation or a developmental disability that is designed to be 67191
used as a check, draft, negotiable instrument, credit card, charge 67192
card, or device for initiating an electronic fund transfer at a 67193
point of sale terminal, automated teller machine, or cash 67194
dispensing machine;67195

       (iii) Misappropriated prescribed medication of an individual 67196
with mental retardation or a developmental disability;67197

       (iv) Knowingly abused such an individual;67198

       (iv)(v) Recklessly abused or neglected such an individual, 67199
with resulting physical harm;67200

       (v)(vi) Negligently abused or neglected such an individual, 67201
with resulting serious physical harm;67202

       (vi)(vii) Recklessly neglected such an individual, creating a 67203
substantial risk of serious physical harm;67204

       (vii)(viii) Engaged in sexual conduct or had sexual contact 67205
with an individual with mental retardation or another 67206
developmental disability who was not the MR/DD employee's spouse 67207
and for whom the MR/DD employee was employed or under a contract 67208
to provide care;67209

       (viii)(ix) Unreasonably failed to make a report pursuant to 67210
division (C) of section 5123.61 of the Revised Code when the 67211
employee knew or should have known that the failure would result 67212
in a substantial risk of harm to an individual with mental 67213
retardation or a developmental disability;67214

       (x) Been convicted of or entered a plea of guilty to any of 67215
the following if the victim of the offense is an individual with 67216
mental retardation or a developmental disability: an offense of 67217
violence, a violation of a section contained in Chapter 2907. or 67218
Chapter 2913. of the Revised Code, or a violation of section 67219
2903.16, 2903.34, 2903.341, or 2919.22 of the Revised Code.67220

       (b) Give weight to the decision in any collective bargaining 67221
arbitration regarding the same allegation;67222

        (c) Give weight to any relevant facts presented at the 67223
hearing.67224

       (D)(1) Unless the director of developmental disabilities 67225
determines that there are extenuating circumstances and except as 67226
provided in division (E) of this section, if the director, after 67227
considering all of the factors listed in division (C)(3) of this 67228
section, finds that there is clear and convincing evidence that an 67229
MR/DD employee has done one or more of the things described in 67230
division (C)(3)(a) of this section the director shall include the 67231
name of the employee in the registry established under section 67232
5123.52 of the Revised Code.67233

       (2) Extenuating circumstances the director must consider 67234
include the use of physical force by an MR/DD employee that was 67235
necessary as self-defense.67236

       (3) If the director includes an MR/DD employee in the 67237
registry established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code, 67238
the director shall notify the employee, the person or government 67239
entity that employs or contracts with the employee, the individual 67240
with mental retardation or a developmental disability who was the 67241
subject of the report and that individual's legal guardian, if 67242
any, the attorney general, and the prosecuting attorney or other 67243
law enforcement agency. If the MR/DD employee holds a license, 67244
certificate, registration, or other authorization to engage in a 67245
profession issued pursuant to Title XLVII of the Revised Code, the 67246
director shall notify the appropriate agency, board, department, 67247
or other entity responsible for regulating the employee's 67248
professional practice.67249

       (4) If an individual whose name appears on the registry is 67250
involved in a court proceeding or arbitration arising from the 67251
same facts as the allegation resulting in the individual's 67252
placement on the registry, the disposition of the proceeding or 67253
arbitration shall be noted in the registry next to the 67254
individual's name.67255

       (E) In the case of an allegation concerning an employee of 67256
the department, after the hearing conducted pursuant to division 67257
(B)(2) of this section, the director of health or that director's 67258
designee shall review the decision of the hearing officer to 67259
determine whether the standard described in division (C)(3) of 67260
this section has been met. If the director or designee determines 67261
that the standard has been met and that no extenuating 67262
circumstances exist, the director or designee shall notify the 67263
director of developmental disabilities that the MR/DD employee is 67264
to be included in the registry established under section 5123.52 67265
of the Revised Code. If the director of developmental disabilities 67266
receives such notification, the director shall include the MR/DD 67267
employee in the registry and shall provide the notification 67268
described in division (D)(3) of this section.67269

       (F) If the department is required by Chapter 119. of the 67270
Revised Code to give notice of an opportunity for a hearing and 67271
the MR/DD employee subject to the notice does not timely request a 67272
hearing in accordance with section 119.07 or 5123.0414 of the 67273
Revised Code, the department is not required to hold a hearing.67274

       (G) Files and records of investigations conducted pursuant to 67275
this section are not public records as defined in section 149.43 67276
of the Revised Code, but, on request, the department shall provide 67277
copies of those files and records to the attorney general, a 67278
prosecuting attorney, or a law enforcement agency.67279

       Sec. 5123.542.  (A) Each of the following shall annually 67280
provide a written notice to each of its MR/DD employees explaining 67281
the conduct for which an MR/DD employee may be included in the 67282
registry established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code:67283

        (1) The department of developmental disabilities;67284

        (2) Each county board of developmental disabilities;67285

        (3) Each contracting entityprovider and subcontractor, as 67286
defined in section 5126.2815123.081 of the Revised Code;67287

        (4) Each owner, operator, or administrator of a residential 67288
facility, as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;67289

        (5) Each owner, operator, or administrator of a program 67290
certified by the department to provide supported living.67291

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities or a county 67292
board of developmental disabilities shall provide the notice 67293
required by division (A) of this section to an MR/DD employee who 67294
is an independent provider as defined in section 5123.16 of the 67295
Revised Code.67296

        (C) The notice described in division (A) of this section 67297
shall be in a form and provided in a manner prescribed by the 67298
department of developmental disabilities. The form shall be the 67299
same for all persons and entities required to provide notice under 67300
division (A) of this section.67301

        (C) The fact that an MR/DD employee does not receive the 67302
notice required by this section does not exempt the employee from 67303
inclusion in the registry established under section 5123.52 of the 67304
Revised Code.67305

       Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:67306

       (1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 67307
the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county 67308
sheriff.67309

       (2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the 67310
Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as 67311
defined in that section.67312

       (3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of 67313
the Revised Code.67314

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall 67315
establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports 67316
of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the 67317
department under this section and reports received from county 67318
boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the 67319
Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review 67320
reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.67321

       (C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, 67322
having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or 67323
a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial 67324
risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of 67325
such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that 67326
person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of 67327
such information to the entity specified in this division. Except 67328
as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as 67329
otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report 67330
shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board 67331
of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident 67332
of a facility operated by the department of developmental 67333
disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement 67334
agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or 67335
omission of an employee of a county board of developmental 67336
disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the 67337
department and to the county board.67338

       (2) All of the following persons are required to make a 67339
report under division (C)(1) of this section:67340

       (a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, 67341
any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited 67342
branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised 67343
Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse 67344
licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an 67345
ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the 67346
Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of an 67347
adult careresidential facility licensed under Chapter 3722.67348
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 67349
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 67350
unrelated adults, or employee of a community mental health 67351
facility;67352

       (b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, 67353
psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' 67354
rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;67355

       (c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county 67356
board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board 67357
member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under 67358
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board 67359
member, or employee of any other public or private provider of 67360
services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental 67361
disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 67362
of the Revised Code;67363

       (d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at 67364
an institution or branch institution of the department of 67365
developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised 67366
Code;67367

       (e) A clergymanmember of the clergy who is employed in a 67368
position that includes providing specialized services to an 67369
individual with mental retardation or another developmental 67370
disability, while acting in an official or professional capacity 67371
in that position, or a person who is employed in a position that 67372
includes providing specialized services to an individual with 67373
mental retardation or another developmental disability and who, 67374
while acting in an official or professional capacity, renders 67375
spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets 67376
of an organized religion.67377

       (3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not 67378
apply to members of the legal rights service commission or to 67379
employees of the legal rights service.67380

       (b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report 67381
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any 67382
communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or 67383
patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, 67384
if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of 67385
the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with 67386
respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, 67387
except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any 67388
testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 67389
of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the 67390
attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division 67391
(C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:67392

       (i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, 67393
is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.67394

       (ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result 67395
of the communication or any observations made during that 67396
communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a 67397
substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or 67398
condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect 67399
of the client or patient.67400

       (4) Any person who fails to make a report required under 67401
division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as 67402
defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible 67403
to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, 67404
neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees 67405
established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.67406

       (D) The reports required under division (C) of this section 67407
shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be 67408
followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the 67409
following:67410

       (1) The names and addresses of the person with mental 67411
retardation or a developmental disability and the person's 67412
custodian, if known;67413

       (2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a 67414
developmental disability;67415

       (3) Any other information that would assist in the 67416
investigation of the report.67417

       (E) When a physician performing services as a member of the 67418
staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe 67419
that a person with mental retardation or a developmental 67420
disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the 67421
physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or 67422
that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary 67423
reports.67424

       (F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a 67425
person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has 67426
suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect 67427
may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the 67428
entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 67429
5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this 67430
division, the person making the report shall make it to a law 67431
enforcement agency or the county board of developmental 67432
disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated 67433
by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall 67434
be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the 67435
report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county 67436
board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall 67437
be made to the department and to the county board.67438

       (G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible 67439
abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a 67440
developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform 67441
the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person 67442
is a resident of a facility operated by the department of 67443
developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the 67444
director's designee.67445

       (2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes 67446
an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime 67447
under federal law or the law of this state, the department of 67448
developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement 67449
agency.67450

       (3) When a county board of developmental disabilities 67451
receives a report under this section that includes an allegation 67452
of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal 67453
law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or 67454
an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of 67455
this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The 67456
superintendent or individual shall notify the department of 67457
developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this 67458
section.67459

       (4) When a county board of developmental disabilities 67460
receives a report under this section and believes that the degree 67461
of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the 67462
superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the 67463
superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact 67464
with the person with mental retardation or a developmental 67465
disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the 67466
board's receipt of the report.67467

       (H) The superintendent of the board may designate an 67468
individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement 67469
agency and the department when the county board receives a report 67470
under this section.67471

       (I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental 67472
disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the 67473
adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who 67474
consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to 67475
protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance 67476
with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the 67477
Revised Code.67478

       (J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of 67479
abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the 67480
department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall 67481
investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility 67482
operated by the department to determine the circumstances 67483
surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person 67484
responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the 67485
memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the 67486
Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry 67487
office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior 67488
reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation 67489
or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If 67490
the department finds that the report involves action or inaction 67491
that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this 67492
state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, 67493
to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental 67494
retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the 67495
consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective 67496
services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law 67497
enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to 67498
the department.67499

       If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility 67500
operated by the department, the county board of developmental 67501
disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in 67502
accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code 67503
and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of 67504
its findings to the county board.67505

       (K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health 67506
department, or agency participating in the making of reports 67507
pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in 67508
an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the 67509
reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges 67510
responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised 67511
Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that 67512
might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions 67513
except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental 67514
entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.67515

       (L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so 67516
shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 67517
performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work 67518
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 67519
retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having 67520
made a report under this section. This division does not preclude 67521
an employer or person with authority from taking action with 67522
regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if 67523
there is another reasonable basis for the action.67524

       (M) Reports made under this section are not public records as 67525
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 67526
contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the 67527
person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal 67528
counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the 67529
report by the department or by a county board of developmental 67530
disabilities.67531

       (N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 67532
physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding 67533
evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person 67534
with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause 67535
thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report 67536
submitted pursuant to this section.67537

       Sec. 5123.89.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 67538
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter, other than court 67539
journal entries or court docket entries, which directly or 67540
indirectly identify a resident or former resident of an 67541
institution for the mentally retarded or person whose 67542
institutionalization has been sought under this chapter shall be 67543
kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by any person except 67544
in the following situations:67545

       (1) It is the judgment of the court for judicial records, and 67546
the managing officer for institution records, that disclosure is 67547
in the best interest of the person identified, and that person or 67548
that person's guardian or, if that person is a minor, that 67549
person's parent or guardian consents.67550

       (2) Disclosure is provided for in other sections of this 67551
chapter.67552

       (3) It is the judgment of the managing officer for 67553
institution records that disclosure to a mental health facility is 67554
in the best interest of the person identified.67555

       (4) Disclosure is of a record deposited with the Ohio 67556
historical society pursuant to division (C) of section 5123.31 of 67557
the Revised Code and the disclosure is made to the closest living 67558
relative of the person identified, on the relative's request.67559

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall adopt 67560
rules with respect to the systematic and periodic destruction of 67561
residents' records.67562

       (C)(1) As used in this division, "family" means a parent, 67563
brother, sister, spouse, son, daughter, grandparent, aunt, uncle, 67564
or cousin.67565

       (2) Upon the death of a resident or former resident of an 67566
institution for the mentally retarded or a person whose 67567
institutionalization was sought under this chapter, the managing 67568
officer of an institution shall provide access to the 67569
certificates, applications, records, and reports made for the 67570
purposes of this chapter to the resident's, former resident's, or 67571
person's guardian if the guardian makes a written request. If a 67572
deceased resident, former resident, or person whose 67573
institutionalization was sought under this chapter did not have a 67574
guardian at the time of death, the managing officer shall provide 67575
access to the certificates, applications, records, and reports 67576
made for purposes of this chapter to a member of the person's 67577
family, upon that family member's written request.67578

       (D) No person shall reveal the contents of a record of a 67579
resident except as authorized by this chapter.67580

       Sec. 5126.023. (A) None of the following individuals may 67581
serve as a member of a county board of developmental disabilities:67582

       (1)(A) An elected public official, except for a township 67583
trustee, township fiscal officer, or individual excluded from the 67584
definition of public official or employee in division (B) of 67585
section 102.01 of the Revised Code;67586

       (2)(B) An immediate family member of anothera member of the 67587
same county board member;67588

       (3) A county board(C) An employee orof any county board;67589

       (D) An immediate family member of a county boardan employee 67590
of the same county board;67591

       (4)(E) A former employee of thea county board whose 67592
employment with the county board ceased less than onefour67593
calendar yearyears before the former employee would begin to 67594
serve as a member of the same county board;67595

       (5) An(F) A former employee of a county board whose 67596
employment ceased less than two years before the former employee 67597
would begin to serve as a member of a different county board;67598

       (G) Unless there is no conflict of interest, an individual 67599
who or whose immediate family member is a board member or an 67600
employee of an agency licensed or certified by the department of 67601
developmental disabilities to provide services to individuals with 67602
mental retardation or developmental disabilities or an individual 67603
who or whose immediate family member is an employee of such an 67604
agency;67605

       (6) An individual who or whose immediate family member is a 67606
board member or employee of an agency contracting with the county 67607
board that is not licensed or certified by the department of 67608
developmental disabilities to provide services to individuals with 67609
mental retardation or developmental disabilities unless there is 67610
no conflict of interest;67611

       (7)(H) An individual with an immediate family member who 67612
serves as a county commissioner of a county served by the county 67613
board unless the individual was a member of the county board 67614
before October 31, 1980.67615

       (B) All questions relating to the existence of a conflict of 67616
interest for the purpose of division (A)(6) of this section shall 67617
be submitted to the local prosecuting attorney for resolution. The 67618
Ohio ethics commission may examine any issues arising under 67619
Chapter 102. and sections 2921.42, 2921.421, and 2921.43 of the 67620
Revised Code.67621

       Sec. 5126.0220. (A) The superintendent of the county board 67622
of developmental disabilities shall do all of the following:67623

       (A)(1) Administer the work of the board, subject to the 67624
board's rules;67625

       (B)(2) Recommend to the board the changes necessary to 67626
increase the effectiveness of the programs and services offered 67627
pursuant to Chapters 3323. and 5126. of the Revised Code;67628

       (C)(3) Employ persons for all positions authorized by the 67629
board, approve contracts of employment for management employees 67630
that are for a term of one year or less, and approve personnel 67631
actions that involve employees in the classified civil service as 67632
may be necessary for the work of the board;67633

       (D)(4) Approve compensation for employees within the limits 67634
set by the salary schedule and budget set by the board and in 67635
accordance with section 5126.26 of the Revised Code, and ensure 67636
that all employees and consultants are properly reimbursed for 67637
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of 67638
official duties;67639

       (E)(5) Provide consultation to public agencies as defined in 67640
division (C) of section 102.01 of the Revised Code, including 67641
other county boards of developmental disabilities, and to 67642
individuals, agencies, or organizations providing services 67643
supported by the board.67644

       (B) The superintendent may authorize the payment of board 67645
obligations by the county auditor.67646

       Sec. 5126.0221. (A) As used in this section, "specialized 67647
services" has the same meaning as in section 5126.2815123.081 of 67648
the Revised Code.67649

        (B) Except as provided in division (C) of section 5126.033 of 67650
the Revised Code, none of the following individuals may be 67651
employed by a county board of developmental disabilities:67652

       (1) An employee of an agency contracting with the county 67653
board;67654

       (2) An immediate family member of an employee of an agency 67655
contracting with the county board unless the county board adopts a 67656
resolution authorizing the immediate family member's employment 67657
with the county board or the employment is consistent with a 67658
policy adopted by the board establishing parameters for such 67659
employment and the policy is consistent with Chapter 102. and 67660
sections 2921.42, 2921.421, and 2921.43 of the Revised Code;67661

       (3) An individual with an immediate family member who serves 67662
as a county commissioner of any of the counties served by the 67663
county board unless the individual was an employee of the county 67664
board before October 31, 1980;67665

       (4) An individual who is employed by, has an ownership 67666
interest in, performs or provides administrative duties for, or is 67667
a member of the governing board of an entity that provides 67668
specialized services, regardless of whether the entity contracts 67669
with the county board to provide specialized services.67670

       Sec. 5126.043. When an individual with mental retardation or 67671
other developmental disability is required within this chapter to 67672
consent, refuse to give consent, or withdraw consent for services 67673
and the individual has been adjudicated incompetent pursuant to 67674
Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code, the guardian for the individual 67675
appointed under that chapter and functioning in accordance with 67676
the appointment shall be responsible for giving, refusing to give, 67677
or withdrawing the consent for services.67678

       Individuals(A) Unless a guardian has been appointed for the 67679
individual, when a decision regarding receipt of a service or 67680
participation in a program provided for or funded under this 67681
chapter or Chapter 5123. of the Revised Code by an individual with 67682
mental retardation or other developmental disability must be made, 67683
the individual shall be permitted to make the decision. The 67684
individual may obtain support and guidance from an adult family 67685
member or other person, but doing so does not affect the right of 67686
the individual to make the decision.67687

       (B) An individual with mental retardation or other 67688
developmental disability may authorize an adult to make a decision 67689
described in division (A) of this section on the individual's 67690
behalf, as long as the adult does not have a financial interest in 67691
the decision. The authorization shall be made in writing.67692

       (C) If a guardian has been appointed for an individual with 67693
mental retardation or other developmental disability, the guardian 67694
shall make any decision described in division (A) of this section 67695
on behalf of the individual. This section does not require 67696
appointment of a guardian.67697

       (D) Individuals with mental retardation and other 67698
developmental disabilities, including those who have been 67699
adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised 67700
Code, have the right to participate in decisions that affect their 67701
lives and to have their needs, desires, and preferences 67702
considered. An adult or guardian who makes a decision pursuant to 67703
division (B) or (C) of this section shall make a decision that is 67704
in the best interests of the individual on whose behalf the 67705
decision is made and that is consistent with the needs, desires, 67706
and preferences of that individual.67707

       Sec. 5126.046. (A) Each county board of developmental 67708
disabilities that has medicaid local administrative authority 67709
under division (A) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code for 67710
habilitation, vocational, or community employment services 67711
provided as part of home and community-based services shall create 67712
a list of all persons and government entities eligible to provide 67713
such habilitation, vocational, or community employment services. 67714
If the county board chooses and is eligible to provide such 67715
habilitation, vocational, or community employment services, the 67716
county board shall include itself on the list. The county board 67717
shall make the list available to each individual with mental 67718
retardation or other developmental disability who resides in the 67719
county and is eligible for such habilitation, vocational, or 67720
community employment services. The county board shall also make 67721
the list available to such individuals' families.67722

       AnExcept as otherwise provided by 42 C.F.R. 431.51, an67723
individual with mental retardation or other developmental 67724
disability who is eligible for habilitation, vocational, or 67725
community employmenthome and community-based services may choose 67726
thehas the right to obtain the services from any provider of the 67727
services.67728

       (B) Each month, the department of developmental disabilities 67729
shall create a list of all persons and government entities 67730
eligible to provide residential services and supported living. The 67731
department shall include on the list all residential facilities 67732
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and all 67733
supported living providers certified under section 5123.161 of the 67734
Revised Code. The department shall distribute the monthly lists to 67735
county boards that have local administrative authority under 67736
division (A) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code for 67737
residential services and supported living provided as part of home 67738
and community-based services. A county board that receives a list 67739
shall make it available to each individual with mental retardation 67740
or other developmental disability who resides in the county and is 67741
eligible for such residential services or supported living. The 67742
county board shall also make the list available to the families of 67743
those individualsthat is qualified to furnish the services and is 67744
willing to furnish the services to the individual. A county board 67745
of developmental disabilities that has medicaid local 67746
administrative authority under division (A) of section 5126.055 of 67747
the Revised Code for home and community-based services and refuses 67748
to permit an individual to obtain home and community-based 67749
services from a qualified and willing provider shall provide the 67750
individual timely notice that the individual may request a hearing 67751
under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code.67752

       (B) An individual with mental retardation or other 67753
developmental disability who is eligible for nonmedicaid67754
residential services or nonmedicaid supported living may choose 67755
thehas the right to obtain the services from any provider of the 67756
residential services or supported living that is qualified to 67757
furnish the residential services or supported living and is 67758
willing to furnish the residential services or supported living to 67759
the individual.67760

       (C) If a county board that has medicaid local administrative 67761
authority under division (A) of section 5126.055 of the Revised 67762
Code for home and community-based services violates the right 67763
established by this section of an individual to choose a provider 67764
that is qualified and willing to provide services to the 67765
individual, the individual shall receive timely notice that the 67766
individual may request a hearing under section 5101.35 of the 67767
Revised Code.The department of developmental disabilities shall 67768
make available to the public on its internet web site an 67769
up-to-date list of all providers of home and community-based 67770
services, nonmedicaid residential services, and nonmedicaid 67771
supported living. County boards shall assist individuals with 67772
mental retardation or other developmental disabilities and the 67773
families of such individuals access the list on the department's 67774
internet web site.67775

       (D) The departmentsdirector of developmental disabilities 67776
and job and family services shall adopt rules in accordance with 67777
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the implementation of 67778
this section. The rules shall include procedures for individuals 67779
to choose their service providers. The rules shall not be limited 67780
by a provider selection system established under section 5126.42 67781
of the Revised Code, including any pool of providers created 67782
pursuant to a provider selection system.67783

       Sec. 5126.055.  (A) Except as provided in section 5126.056 of 67784
the Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities has 67785
medicaid local administrative authority to, and shall, do all of 67786
the following for an individual with mental retardation or other 67787
developmental disability who resides in the county that the county 67788
board serves and seeks or receives home and community-based 67789
services:67790

       (1) Perform assessments and evaluations of the individual. As 67791
part of the assessment and evaluation process, the county board 67792
shall do all of the following:67793

       (a) Make a recommendation to the department of developmental 67794
disabilities on whether the department should approve or deny the 67795
individual's application for the services, including on the basis 67796
of whether the individual needs the level of care an intermediate 67797
care facility for the mentally retarded provides;67798

       (b) If the individual's application is denied because of the 67799
county board's recommendation and the individual requests a 67800
hearing under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code, present, with 67801
the department of developmental disabilities or department of job 67802
and family services, whichever denies the application, the reasons 67803
for the recommendation and denial at the hearing;67804

       (c) If the individual's application is approved, recommend to 67805
the departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 67806
services the services that should be included in the individual's 67807
individualized service plan and, if either department approves, 67808
reduces, denies, or terminates a service included in the 67809
individual's individualized service plan under section 5111.871 of 67810
the Revised Code because of the county board's recommendation, 67811
present, with the department that made the approval, reduction, 67812
denial, or termination, the reasons for the recommendation and 67813
approval, reduction, denial, or termination at a hearing under 67814
section 5101.35 of the Revised Code.67815

       (2) In accordance with the rules adopted under section 67816
5126.046 of the Revised Code, perform the county board'sPerform 67817
any duties assigned to the county board in rules adopted under 67818
that section 5126.046 of the Revised Code regarding assisting the 67819
individual's right to choose a qualified and willing provider of 67820
the services and, at a hearing under section 5101.35 of the 67821
Revised Code, present evidence of the process for appropriate 67822
assistance in choosing providers;67823

       (3) If the county board is certified under section 5123.161 67824
of the Revised Code to provide the services and agrees to provide 67825
the services to the individual and the individual chooses the 67826
county board to provide the services, furnish, in accordance with 67827
the county board's medicaid provider agreement and for the 67828
authorized reimbursement rate, the services the individual 67829
requires;67830

       (4) Monitor the services provided to the individual and 67831
ensure the individual's health, safety, and welfare. The 67832
monitoring shall include quality assurance activities. If the 67833
county board provides the services, the department of 67834
developmental disabilities shall also monitor the services.67835

       (5) Develop, with the individual and the provider of the 67836
individual's services, an effective individualized service plan 67837
that includes coordination of services, recommend that the 67838
departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 67839
services approve the plan, and implement the plan unless either 67840
department disapproves it. The individualized service plan shall 67841
include a summary page, agreed to by the county board, provider, 67842
and individual receiving services, that clearly outlines the 67843
amount, duration, and scope of services to be provided under the 67844
plan.67845

       (6) Have an investigative agent conduct investigations under 67846
section 5126.313 of the Revised Code that concern the individual;67847

       (7) Have a service and support administrator perform the 67848
duties under division (B)(9) of section 5126.15 of the Revised 67849
Code that concern the individual.67850

       (B) A county board shall perform its medicaid local 67851
administrative authority under this section in accordance with all 67852
of the following:67853

       (1) The county board's plan that the department of 67854
developmental disabilities approves under section 5123.046 of the 67855
Revised Code;67856

       (2) All applicable federal and state laws;67857

       (3) All applicable policies of the departments of 67858
developmental disabilities and job and family services and the 67859
United States department of health and human services;67860

       (4) The department of job and family services' supervision 67861
under its authority under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code to 67862
act as the single state medicaid agency;67863

       (5) The department of developmental disabilities' oversight.67864

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 67865
family services shall communicate with and provide training to 67866
county boards regarding medicaid local administrative authority 67867
granted by this section. The communication and training shall 67868
include issues regarding audit protocols and other standards 67869
established by the United States department of health and human 67870
services that the departments determine appropriate for 67871
communication and training. County boards shall participate in the 67872
training. The departments shall assess the county board's 67873
compliance against uniform standards that the departments shall 67874
establish.67875

       (D) A county board may not delegate its medicaid local 67876
administrative authority granted under this section but may 67877
contract with a person or government entity, including a council 67878
of governments, for assistance with its medicaid local 67879
administrative authority. A county board that enters into such a 67880
contract shall notify the director of developmental disabilities. 67881
The notice shall include the tasks and responsibilities that the 67882
contract gives to the person or government entity. The person or 67883
government entity shall comply in full with all requirements to 67884
which the county board is subject regarding the person or 67885
government entity's tasks and responsibilities under the contract. 67886
The county board remains ultimately responsible for the tasks and 67887
responsibilities.67888

       (E) A county board that has medicaid local administrative 67889
authority under this section shall, through the departments of 67890
developmental disabilities and job and family services, reply to, 67891
and cooperate in arranging compliance with, a program or fiscal 67892
audit or program violation exception that a state or federal audit 67893
or review discovers. The department of job and family services 67894
shall timely notify the department of developmental disabilities 67895
and the county board of any adverse findings. After receiving the 67896
notice, the county board, in conjunction with the department of 67897
developmental disabilities, shall cooperate fully with the 67898
department of job and family services and timely prepare and send 67899
to the department a written plan of correction or response to the 67900
adverse findings. The county board is liable for any adverse 67901
findings that result from an action it takes or fails to take in 67902
its implementation of medicaid local administrative authority.67903

       (F) If the department of developmental disabilities or 67904
department of job and family services determines that a county 67905
board's implementation of its medicaid local administrative 67906
authority under this section is deficient, the department that 67907
makes the determination shall require that county board do the 67908
following:67909

       (1) If the deficiency affects the health, safety, or welfare 67910
of an individual with mental retardation or other developmental 67911
disability, correct the deficiency within twenty-four hours;67912

       (2) If the deficiency does not affect the health, safety, or 67913
welfare of an individual with mental retardation or other 67914
developmental disability, receive technical assistance from the 67915
department or submit a plan of correction to the department that 67916
is acceptable to the department within sixty days and correct the 67917
deficiency within the time required by the plan of correction.67918

       Sec. 5126.13.  (A) A county board of developmental 67919
disabilities may enter into an agreement with one or more other 67920
county boards of developmental disabilities to establish a 67921
regional council in accordance with Chapter 167. of the Revised 67922
Code. The agreement shall specify the duties and functions to be 67923
performed by the council, which may include any duty or function a 67924
county board is required or authorized to perform under this 67925
chapter. If directed to do so by a resolution adopted by a county 67926
board that is a member of a regional council, the department of 67927
developmental disabilities shall make any distributions of money 67928
for that county for the duties or functions performed by the 67929
council pursuant to its agreement that are otherwise required to 67930
be made to the county board under this chapter to the fiscal 67931
officer of the council designated under section 167.04 of the 67932
Revised Code.67933

       A county board may also enter into an agreement with one or 67934
more school districts or other political subdivisions to establish 67935
a regional council in accordance with Chapter 167. of the Revised 67936
Code.67937

       (B) On or before the thirtieth day of March, the fiscal 67938
officer of a regional council described in this section shall 67939
report to the department of developmental disabilities, in the 67940
format specified by the department, all income and operating 67941
expenditures of the council for the immediately preceding calendar 67942
year.67943

       Sec. 5126.15.  (A) A county board of developmental 67944
disabilities shall provide service and support administration to 67945
each individual three years of age or older who is eligible for 67946
service and support administration if the individual requests, or 67947
a person on the individual's behalf requests, service and support 67948
administration. A board shall provide service and support 67949
administration to each individual receiving home and 67950
community-based services. A board may provide, in accordance with 67951
the service coordination requirements of 34 C.F.R. 303.23, service 67952
and support administration to an individual under three years of 67953
age eligible for early intervention services under 34 C.F.R. part 67954
303. A board may provide service and support administration to an 67955
individual who is not eligible for other services of the board. 67956
Service and support administration shall be provided in accordance 67957
with rules adopted under section 5126.08 of the Revised Code.67958

       A board may provide service and support administration by 67959
directly employing service and support administrators or by 67960
contracting with entities for the performance of service and 67961
support administration. Individuals employed or under contract as 67962
service and support administrators shall not be in the same 67963
collective bargaining unit as employees who perform duties that 67964
are not administrative.67965

       Individuals employed by a board as service and support 67966
administrators shall not be assigned responsibilities for 67967
implementing other services for individuals and shall not be 67968
employed by or serve in a decision-making or policy-making 67969
capacity for any other entity that provides programs or services 67970
to individuals with mental retardation or developmental 67971
disabilities. An individual employed as a conditional status 67972
service and support administrator shall perform the duties of 67973
service and support administration only under the supervision of a 67974
management employee who is a service and support administration 67975
supervisor.67976

       (B) The individuals employed by or under contract with a 67977
board to provide service and support administration shall do all 67978
of the following:67979

       (1) Establish an individual's eligibility for the services of 67980
the county board of developmental disabilities;67981

       (2) Assess individual needs for services;67982

       (3) Develop individual service plans with the active 67983
participation of the individual to be served, other persons 67984
selected by the individual, and, when applicable, the provider 67985
selected by the individual, and recommend the plans for approval 67986
by the department of developmental disabilities when services 67987
included in the plans are funded through medicaid;67988

       (4) Establish budgets for services based on the individual's 67989
assessed needs and preferred ways of meeting those needs;67990

       (5) Assist individuals in making selections from among the 67991
providers they have chosen;67992

       (6) Ensure that services are effectively coordinated and 67993
provided by appropriate providers;67994

       (7) Establish and implement an ongoing system of monitoring 67995
the implementation of individual service plans to achieve 67996
consistent implementation and the desired outcomes for the 67997
individual;67998

       (8) Perform quality assurance reviews as a distinct function 67999
of service and support administration;68000

       (9) Incorporate the results of quality assurance reviews and 68001
identified trends and patterns of unusual incidents and major 68002
unusual incidents into amendments of an individual's service plan 68003
for the purpose of improving and enhancing the quality and 68004
appropriateness of services rendered to the individual;68005

       (10) Ensure that each individual receiving services has a 68006
designated person who is responsible on a continuing basis for 68007
providing the individual with representation, advocacy, advice, 68008
and assistance related to the day-to-day coordination of services 68009
in accordance with the individual's service plan. The service and 68010
support administrator shall give the individual receiving services 68011
an opportunity to designate the person to provide daily 68012
representation. If the individual declines to make a designation, 68013
the administrator shall make the designation. In either case, the 68014
individual receiving services may change at any time the person 68015
designated to provide daily representation.68016

       Sec. 5126.20.  As used in this section and sections 5126.21 68017
to 5126.295126.25 of the Revised Code:68018

       (A) "Service employee" means a person employed by a county 68019
board of developmental disabilities in a position which may 68020
require evidence of registration under section 5126.25 of the 68021
Revised Code but for which a bachelor's degree from an accredited 68022
college or university is not required, and includes employees in 68023
the positions listed in division (C) of section 5126.22 of the 68024
Revised Code.68025

       (B)(1) "Professional employee" means both of the following:68026

       (a) A person employed by a board in a position for which 68027
either a bachelor's degree from an accredited college or 68028
university or a license or certificate issued under Title XLVII of 68029
the Revised Code is a minimum requirement;68030

       (b) A person employed by a board as a conditional status 68031
service and support administrator.68032

       (2) "Professional employee" includes employees in the 68033
positions listed in division (B) of section 5126.22 of the Revised 68034
Code.68035

       (C) "Management employee" means a person employed by a board 68036
in a position having supervisory or managerial responsibilities 68037
and duties, and includes employees in the positions listed in 68038
division (A) of section 5126.22 of the Revised Code.68039

       (D) "Limited contract" means a contract of limited duration 68040
which is renewable at the discretion of the superintendent.68041

       (E) "Continuing contract" means a contract of employment that 68042
was issued prior to June 24, 1988, to a classified employee under 68043
which the employee has completed the employee's probationary 68044
period and under which the employee retains employment until the 68045
employee retires or resigns, is removed pursuant to section 68046
5126.23 of the Revised Code, or is laid off.68047

       (F) "Supervisory responsibilities and duties" includes the 68048
authority to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, 68049
discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees of the 68050
board; to responsibly direct them; to adjust their grievances; or 68051
to effectively recommend such action, if the exercise of that 68052
authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature but 68053
requires the use of independent judgment.68054

       (G)(F) "Managerial responsibilities and duties" includes 68055
formulating policy on behalf of the board, responsibly directing 68056
the implementation of policy, assisting in the preparation for the 68057
conduct of collective negotiations, administering collectively 68058
negotiated agreements, or having a major role in personnel 68059
administration.68060

       (H)(G) "Investigative agent" means an individual who conducts 68061
investigations under section 5126.313 of the Revised Code.68062

       Sec. 5126.21.  As used in this section, "management employee" 68063
does not include the superintendent of a county board of 68064
developmental disabilities.68065

       (A)(1) Each management employee of a county board of 68066
developmental disabilities shall hold a limited contract for a 68067
period of not less than one year and not more than five years, 68068
except that a management employee hired after the beginning of a 68069
program year may be employed under a limited contract expiring at 68070
the end of the program year. The board shall approve all contracts 68071
of employment for management employees that are for a term of more 68072
than one year. A management employee shall receive notice of the 68073
superintendent's intention not to rehire the employee at least 68074
ninety days prior to the expiration of the contract. If the 68075
superintendent fails to notify a management employee, the employee 68076
shall be reemployed under a limited contract of one year at the 68077
same salary plus any authorized salary increases.68078

       (2) During the term of a contract a management employee's 68079
salary may be increased, but shall not be reduced unless the 68080
reduction is part of a uniform plan affecting all employees of the 68081
board.68082

       (B) All management employees may be removed, suspended, or 68083
demoted for cause pursuant to section 5126.23 of the Revised Code.68084

       (C) All management employees shall receive employee benefits 68085
that shall include sick leave, vacation leave, holiday pay, and 68086
such other benefits as are established by the board. Sections 68087
124.38 and 325.19 of the Revised Code do not apply to management 68088
employees.68089

       (D) The superintendent of a county board of developmental 68090
disabilities shall notify all management employees of the board of 68091
their salary no later than thirty days before the first day of the 68092
new contract year.68093

       (E) All management employees of a county board of 68094
developmental disabilities who were given continuing contract 68095
status prior to the effective date of this section have continuing 68096
contract status so long as they maintain employment with the 68097
board.68098

       (F) All management employees who were probationary employees 68099
on the effective date of this section shall, upon completion of 68100
their probationary period, be granted continuing contract status 68101
if retained in employment.68102

       (G) Each county board of developmental disabilities shall 68103
establish a lay-off policy to be followed if it determines a 68104
reduction in the number of management employees is necessary.68105

       Sec. 5126.22.  (A) Employees who hold the following positions 68106
in a county board of developmental disabilities are management 68107
employees:68108

       assistant superintendent68109

       director of business68110

       director of personnel68111

       adult services director68112

       workshop director68113

       habilitation manager68114

       director of residential services68115

       principal (director of children services)68116

       program or service supervisor68117

       plant manager68118

       production manager68119

       service and support administration supervisor68120

       investigative agent68121

       confidential employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the 68122
Revised Code68123

       positions designated by the director of developmental 68124
disabilities as having managerial or supervisory responsibilities 68125
and duties68126

       positions designated by the county board in accordance with 68127
division (D) of this section.68128

       (B) Employees who hold the following positions in a board are 68129
professional employees:68130

       personnel licensed or certified pursuant to Chapter 3319. of 68131
the Revised Code68132

       early intervention specialist68133

       physical development specialist68134

       habilitation specialist68135

       work adjustment specialist68136

       placement specialist68137

       vocational evaluator68138

       psychologist68139

       occupational therapist68140

       speech and language pathologist68141

       recreation specialist68142

       behavior management specialist68143

       physical therapist68144

       supportive home services specialist68145

       licensed practical nurse or registered nurse68146

       rehabilitation counselor68147

       doctor of medicine and surgery or of osteopathic medicine and 68148
surgery68149

       dentist68150

       service and support administrator68151

       conditional status service and support administrator68152

       social worker68153

       any position that is not a management position and for which 68154
the standards for certification established by the director of 68155
developmental disabilities under section 5126.25 of the Revised 68156
Code require a bachelor's or higher degree68157

       professional positions designated by the director68158

       professional positions designated by the county board in 68159
accordance with division (D) of this section.68160

       (C) Employees who hold positions in a board that are neither 68161
management positions nor professional positions are service 68162
employees. Service employee positions include:68163

       workshop specialist68164

       workshop specialist assistant68165

       contract procurement specialist68166

       community employment specialist68167

       any assistant to a professional employee certified to 68168
provide, or supervise the provision of, adult services or service 68169
and support administration68170

       service positions designated by the director68171

       service positions designated by a county board in accordance 68172
with division (D) of this section.68173

       (D) A county board may designate a position only if the 68174
position does not include directly providing, or supervising 68175
employees who directly provide, service or instruction to 68176
individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities.68177

       (E) If a county board desires to have a position established 68178
that is not specifically listed in this section that includes 68179
directly providing, or supervising employees who directly provide, 68180
services or instruction to individuals with mental retardation or 68181
developmental disabilities, the board shall submit to the director 68182
a written description of the position and request that the 68183
director designate the position as a management, professional, or 68184
service position under this section. The director shall consider 68185
each request submitted under this division and respond within 68186
thirty days. If the director approves the request, the director 68187
shall designate the position as a management, professional, or 68188
service position.68189

       (F) A county board shall not terminate its employment of any 68190
management, professional, or service employee solely because a 68191
position is added to or eliminated from those positions listed in 68192
this section or because a position is designated or no longer 68193
designated by the director or a county board.68194

       Sec. 5126.25.  (A) The director of developmental disabilities 68195
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 68196
Codeunder division (C) of this section establishing uniform 68197
standards and procedures for the certification and registration of 68198
persons for employment by county boards of developmental 68199
disabilities as superintendents, management employees, and 68200
professional employees and uniform standards and procedures for 68201
the registration of persons for employment by county boards as 68202
registered service employees. As part of the rules, the director 68203
may establish continuing education and professional training 68204
requirements for renewal of certificates and evidence of 68205
registration and shall establish such requirements for renewal of 68206
an investigative agent certificate. In the rules, the director 68207
shall establish certification standards for employment in the 68208
position of investigative agent that require an individual to have 68209
or obtain no less than an associate degree from an accredited 68210
college or university or have or obtain comparable experience or 68211
training. The director shall not adopt rules that require any 68212
service employee to have or obtain a bachelor's or higher degree.68213

       The director shall adopt the rules in a manner that provides 68214
for the issuance of certificates and evidence of registration 68215
according to categories, levels, and grades. The rules shall 68216
describe each category, level, and grade.68217

       The rules adopted under this division shall apply to persons 68218
employed or seeking employment in a position that includes 68219
directly providing, or supervising persons who directly provide, 68220
services or instruction to or on behalf of individuals with mental 68221
retardation or developmental disabilities, except that the rules 68222
shall not apply to persons who hold a valid license issued under 68223
Chapter 3319. of the Revised Code and perform no duties other than 68224
teaching or supervision of a teaching program or persons who hold 68225
a valid license or certificate issued under Title XLVII of the 68226
Revised Code and perform only those duties governed by the license 68227
or certificate. The rules shall specify the positions that require 68228
certification or registration. The rules shall specify that the 68229
position of investigative agent requires certification, other than 68230
the persons described in division (I) of this section, who are 68231
seeking employment with or are employed by either of the 68232
following:68233

       (1) A county board of developmental disabilities;68234

       (2) An entity that contracts with a county board to operate 68235
programs and services for individuals with mental retardation or 68236
developmental disabilities.68237

       (B) No person shall be employed in a position for which 68238
certification or registration is required pursuant to the rules 68239
adopted under this section without the certification or 68240
registration that is required for that position. The person shall 68241
not be employed or shall not continue to be employed if the 68242
required certification or registration is denied, revoked, or not 68243
renewed.68244

       (B)(C) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with 68245
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing standards for 68246
approval of courses of study to prepare persons to meet 68247
certification requirements. The director shall approve courses of 68248
study meeting the standards and provide for the inspection of the 68249
courses to ensure the maintenance of satisfactory training 68250
procedures. The director shall approve courses of study only if 68251
given by a state university or college as defined in section 68252
3345.32 of the Revised Code, a state university or college of 68253
another state, or an institution that has received a certificate 68254
of authorization to confer degrees from the board of regents 68255
pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code or from a comparable 68256
agency of another stateas the director considers necessary to 68257
implement and administer this section, including rules 68258
establishing all of the following:68259

       (1) Positions of employment that are subject to this section 68260
and, for each position, whether a person must receive 68261
certification or receive registration to be employed in that 68262
position;68263

       (2) Requirements that must be met to receive the 68264
certification or registration required to be employed in a 68265
particular position, including standards regarding education, 68266
specialized training, and experience, taking into account the 68267
needs of individuals with mental retardation or developmental 68268
disabilities and the specialized techniques needed to serve them, 68269
except that the rules shall not require a person designated as a 68270
service employee under section 5126.22 of the Revised Code to have 68271
or obtain a bachelor's or higher degree;68272

       (3) Procedures to be followed in applying for initial 68273
certification or registration and for renewing the certification 68274
or registration.68275

       (4) Requirements that must be met for renewal of 68276
certification or registration, which may include continuing 68277
education and professional training requirements;68278

       (5) Subject to section 5126.23 of the Revised Code, grounds 68279
for which certification or registration may be denied, suspended, 68280
or revoked and procedures for appealing the denial, suspension, or 68281
revocation.68282

       (C)(D) Each applicant for a certificate for employment or 68283
evidence ofperson seeking certification or registration for 68284
employment by a county board shall apply to the department of 68285
developmental disabilities on forms that the director of the 68286
department shall prescribe and provide. The application shall be 68287
accompanied by the application feein the manner established in 68288
rules adopted under this section.68289

       (D) The director shall issue a certificate for employment to 68290
each applicant who meets the standards for certification 68291
established under this section and shall issue evidence of 68292
registration for employment to each applicant who meets the 68293
standards for registration established under this section. Each 68294
certificate or evidence of registration shall state the category, 68295
level, and grade for which it is issued.68296

       The director shall issue, renew, deny, suspend, or revoke 68297
certificates and evidence of registration in accordance with rules 68298
adopted under this section. The director shall deny, suspend, or 68299
revoke a certificate or evidence of registration if the director 68300
finds, pursuant to an adjudication conducted in accordance with 68301
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that the applicant for or holder 68302
of the certificate or evidence of registration is guilty of 68303
intemperate, immoral, or other conduct unbecoming to the 68304
applicant's or holder's position, or is guilty of incompetence or 68305
negligence within the scope of the applicant's or holder's duties. 68306
The director shall deny or revoke a certificate or evidence of 68307
registration if the director finds, pursuant to an adjudication 68308
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 68309
that the applicant for or holder of the certificate or evidence of 68310
registration has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 68311
offenses described in division (E) of section 5126.28 of the 68312
Revised Code, unless the individual meets standards for 68313
rehabilitation that the director establishes in the rules adopted 68314
under that section. Evidence supporting such allegations shall be 68315
presented to the director in writing and the director shall 68316
provide prompt notice of the allegations to the person who is the 68317
subject of the allegations. A denial, suspension, or revocation 68318
may be appealed in accordance with procedures the director shall 68319
establish in the rules adopted under this section.68320

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 68321
the superintendent of each county board is responsible for taking 68322
all actions regarding certification and registration of employees, 68323
other than the position of superintendent or investigative agent. 68324
For the position of superintendent or investigative agent, the 68325
director of developmental disabilities is responsible for taking 68326
all such actions.68327

       Actions that may be taken by the superintendent or director 68328
include issuing, renewing, denying, suspending, and revoking 68329
certification and registration. All actions shall be taken in 68330
accordance with the rules adopted under this section.68331

       The superintendent may charge a fee to persons applying for 68332
certification or registration. The superintendent shall establish 68333
the amount of the fee according to the costs the county board 68334
incurs in administering its program for certification and 68335
registration of employees.68336

       A person subject to the denial, suspension, or revocation of 68337
certification or registration may appeal the decision. The appeal 68338
shall be made in accordance with the rules adopted under this 68339
section.68340

       (2) Pursuant to division (C) of section 5126.05 of the 68341
Revised Code, the superintendent may enter into a contract with 68342
any other entity under which the entity is given authority to 68343
carry out all or part of the superintendent's responsibilities 68344
under division (E)(1) of this section.68345

       (F) A person holding awith valid certificatecertification 68346
or registration under this section on the effective date of any 68347
rules adopted under this section that increase the standards 68348
applicable to the certification standardsor registration shall 68349
have such period as the rules prescribe, but not less than one 68350
year after the effective date of the rules, to meet the new 68351
certification or registration standards.68352

       A person who is registered under this section on the 68353
effective date of any rule that changes the standards adopted 68354
under this section shall have such period as the rules prescribe, 68355
but not less than one year, to meet the new registration 68356
standards.68357

       (2) If an applicant for a certificate for employment has not 68358
completed the courses of instruction necessary to meet the 68359
department's standards for certification, the department shall 68360
inform the applicant of the courses the applicant must 68361
successfully complete to meet the standards and shall specify the 68362
time within which the applicant must complete the courses. The 68363
department shall grant the applicant at least one year to complete 68364
the courses and shall not require the applicant to complete more 68365
than four courses in any one year. The applicant is not subject to 68366
any changes regarding the courses required for certification that 68367
are made after the department informs the applicant of the courses 68368
the applicant must complete, unless the applicant does not 68369
successfully complete the courses within the time specified by the 68370
department.68371

       (F)(G) A person who holds a certificatewith valid 68372
certification or evidence of registration, other than one 68373
designated as temporary, is qualified to be employed according to 68374
that certificatecertification or evidence of registration by any 68375
county board or entity contracting with a county board.68376

       (G)(H) The director shall monitor county boards to ensure 68377
that their employees who must be certified or registered are 68378
appropriately certified or registered andand the employees of 68379
their contracting entities have the applicable certification or 68380
registration required under this section and that the employees 68381
are performing only those functions they are authorized to perform 68382
under their certificatethe certification or evidence of68383
registration.68384

       (H) A county board superintendent or the superintendent's 68385
designee may certify to the director that county board employees 68386
who are required to meet continuing education or professional 68387
training requirements as a condition of renewal of certificates or 68388
evidence of registration have met the requirements. The 68389
superintendent of each county board or the superintendent's 68390
designee shall maintain in appropriate personnel files evidence 68391
acceptable to the director that the employees have met the 68392
requirements and permit. On request, representatives of the 68393
department of developmental disabilities shall be given access to 68394
the evidence on request.68395

       (I) All fees collected pursuant to this section shall be 68396
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the program fee 68397
fund created under section 5123.033 of the Revised Code.68398

       (J) Employees of entities that contract with county boards of 68399
developmental disabilities to operate programs and services for 68400
individuals with mental retardation and developmental disabilities 68401
are subject to the certification and registration requirements 68402
established under section 5123.082 of the Revised CodeThe 68403
certification and registration requirements of this section and 68404
the rules adopted under it do not apply to either of the 68405
following:68406

       (1) A person who holds a valid license issued or certificate 68407
issued under Chapter 3319. of the Revised Code and performs no 68408
duties other than teaching or supervision of a teaching program;68409

       (2) A person who holds a valid license or certificate issued 68410
under Title XLVII of the Revised Code and performs only those 68411
duties governed by the license or certificate.68412

       Sec. 5126.251.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 68413
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the director of developmental 68414
disabilities or the superintendent of a county board of 68415
developmental disabilities shall comply with sections 3123.41 to 68416
3123.50 of the Revised Code and any applicable rules adopted under 68417
section 3123.63 of the Revised Code with respect to a certificate68418
a person's certification or evidence of registration issued 68419
pursuant to this chapterunder section 5126.25 of the Revised 68420
Code.68421

       Sec. 5126.51.  As used in sections 5126.51 to 5126.62 of the 68422
Revised Code:68423

       (A) "Develop" or "development," in contexts not referring to 68424
developmental disabilities, means construction or rehabilitation.68425

       (B) "Eligible lending institution" means a financial 68426
institution that meets all of the following requirements:68427

       (1) Is eligible to make commercial loans;68428

       (2) Has an office located within the territorial limits of 68429
the county;68430

       (3) Is an institution into which the county's investing 68431
authority may deposit the public moneys of the county;68432

       (4) Holds itself out as participating in the residential 68433
facility linked deposit program.68434

       (C) "Eligible organization" means either of the following:68435

       (1) Aa nonprofit corporation that has as its primary 68436
activity the development or operation of a residential facility;68437

       (2) A nonprofit corporation certified under section 5123.192 68438
of the Revised Code.68439

       (D) "Investing authority" has the same meaning as in section 68440
135.31 of the Revised Code.68441

       (E) "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 68442
5123.19 of the Revised Code and also includes a residence where a 68443
nonprofit corporation certified under section 5123.192 of the 68444
Revised Code provides or proposes to provide supported living for 68445
individuals with mental retardation or developmental disabilities.68446

       (F) "Residential facility linked deposit program" means the 68447
linked deposit program provided for in sections 5126.51 to 5126.62 68448
of the Revised Code. A "residential facility linked deposit" is a 68449
deposit of public moneys of the county under, and for the purposes 68450
of, the residential facility linked deposit program. A 68451
"residential facility linked deposit loan" is a loan under, and 68452
for the purposes of, the residential facility linked deposit 68453
program.68454

       Sec. 5139.41.  The appropriation made to the department of 68455
youth services for care and custody of felony delinquents shall be 68456
expended in accordance with the following procedure that the 68457
department shall use for each year of a biennium. The procedure 68458
shall be consistent with sections 5139.41 to 5139.43 of the 68459
Revised Code and shall be developed in accordance with the 68460
following guidelines:68461

       (A) The line item appropriation for the care and custody of 68462
felony delinquents shall provide funding for operational costs for 68463
the following:68464

       (1) Institutions and the diagnosis, care, or treatment of 68465
felony delinquents at facilities pursuant to contracts entered 68466
into under section 5139.08 of the Revised Code;68467

       (2) Community corrections facilities constructed, 68468
reconstructed, improved, or financed as described in section 68469
5139.36 of the Revised Code for the purpose of providing 68470
alternative placement and services for felony delinquents who have 68471
been diverted from care and custody in institutions;68472

       (3) County juvenile courts that administer programs and 68473
services for prevention, early intervention, diversion, treatment, 68474
and rehabilitation services and programs that are provided for 68475
alleged or adjudicated unruly or delinquent children or for 68476
children who are at risk of becoming unruly or delinquent 68477
children; 68478

       (4) Administrative expenses the department incurs in 68479
connection with the felony delinquent care and custody programs 68480
described in section 5139.43 of the Revised Code. 68481

       (B) From the appropriated line item for the care and custody 68482
of felony delinquents, the department, with the advice of the 68483
RECLAIM advisory committee established under section 5139.44 of 68484
the Revised Code, shall allocate annual operational funds for 68485
county juvenile programs, institutional care and custody, 68486
community corrections facilities care and custody, and 68487
administrative expenses incurred by the department associated with 68488
felony delinquent care and custody programs. The department, with 68489
the advice of the RECLAIM advisory committee, shall adjust these 68490
allocations, when modifications to this line item are made by 68491
legislative or executive action.68492

       (C) The department shall divide county juvenile program 68493
allocations among county juvenile courts that administer programs 68494
and services for prevention, early intervention, diversion, 68495
treatment, and rehabilitation that are provided for alleged or 68496
adjudicated unruly or delinquent children or for children who are 68497
at risk of becoming unruly or delinquent children. The department 68498
shall base funding on the county's previous year's ratio of the 68499
department's institutional and community correctional facilities 68500
commitments to that county's four year average of felony 68501
adjudications, as specified in the following formula:68502

       (1) The department shall give to each county a proportional 68503
allocation of commitment credits. The proportional allocation of 68504
commitment credits shall be calculated by the following 68505
procedures:68506

       (a) The department shall determine for each county and for 68507
the state a four yearan average of felony adjudications.68508
Beginning July 1, 2012, the average shall include felony 68509
adjudications for fiscal year 2007 and for each subsequent fiscal 68510
year through fiscal year 2016. Beginning July 1, 2017, the most 68511
recent felony adjudication data shall be included and the oldest 68512
fiscal year data shall be removed so that a ten-year average of 68513
felony adjudication data will be maintained.68514

       (b) The department shall determine for each county and for 68515
the state the number of charged bed days, for both the department 68516
and community correctional facilities, from the previous year.68517

       (c) The department shall divide the statewide total number of 68518
charged bed days by the statewide total number of felony 68519
adjudications, which quotient shall then be multiplied by a factor 68520
determined by the department.68521

       (d) The department shall calculate the county's allocation of 68522
credits by multiplying the number of adjudications for each court 68523
by the result determined pursuant to division (C)(1)(c) of this 68524
section.68525

       (2) The department shall subtract from the allocation 68526
determined pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section a credit 68527
for every chargeable bed day a youth stays in a department 68528
institution and two-thirds of credit for every chargeable bed day 68529
a youth stays in a community correctional facility, except for 68530
public safety beds. At the end of the year, the department shall 68531
divide the amount of remaining credits of that county's allocation 68532
by the total number of remaining credits to all counties, to 68533
determine the county's percentage, which shall then be applied to 68534
the total county allocation to determine the county's payment for 68535
the fiscal year.68536

       (3) The department shall pay counties three times during the 68537
fiscal year to allow for credit reporting and audit adjustments, 68538
and modifications to the appropriated line item for the care and 68539
custody of felony delinquents, as described in this section. The 68540
department shall pay fifty per cent of the payment by the 68541
fifteenth of July of each fiscal year, twenty-five per cent by the 68542
fifteenth of January of that fiscal year, and twenty-five per cent 68543
of the payment by the fifteenth of June of that fiscal year.68544

       (D) In fiscal year 2004, the payment of county juvenile 68545
programs shall be based on the following procedure:68546

       (1) The department shall divide the funding earned by each 68547
court in fiscal year 2003 by the aggregate funding of all courts, 68548
resulting in a percentage.68549

       (2) The department shall apply the percentage determined 68550
under division (D)(1) of this section to the total county juvenile 68551
program allocation for fiscal year 2004 to determine each court's 68552
total payment.68553

       (3) The department shall make payments in accordance with the 68554
schedule established in division (C)(3) of this section.68555

       Sec. 5139.43.  (A) The department of youth services shall 68556
operate a felony delinquent care and custody program that shall be 68557
operated in accordance with the formula developed pursuant to 68558
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code, subject to the conditions 68559
specified in this section.68560

       (B)(1) Each juvenile court shall use the moneys disbursed to 68561
it by the department of youth services pursuant to division (B) of 68562
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code in accordance with the 68563
applicable provisions of division (B)(2) of this section and shall 68564
transmit the moneys to the county treasurer for deposit in 68565
accordance with this division. The county treasurer shall create 68566
in the county treasury a fund that shall be known as the felony 68567
delinquent care and custody fund and shall deposit in that fund 68568
the moneys disbursed to the juvenile court pursuant to division 68569
(B) of section 5139.41 of the Revised Code. The county treasurer 68570
also shall deposit into that fund the state subsidy funds granted 68571
to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the Revised Code. The 68572
moneys disbursed to the juvenile court pursuant to division (B) of 68573
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code and deposited pursuant to this 68574
division in the felony delinquent care and custody fund shall not 68575
be commingled with any other county funds except state subsidy 68576
funds granted to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the 68577
Revised Code; shall not be used for any capital construction 68578
projects; upon an order of the juvenile court and subject to 68579
appropriation by the board of county commissioners, shall be 68580
disbursed to the juvenile court for use in accordance with the 68581
applicable provisions of division (B)(2) of this section; shall 68582
not revert to the county general fund at the end of any fiscal 68583
year; and shall carry over in the felony delinquent care and 68584
custody fund from the end of any fiscal year to the next fiscal 68585
year. The maximum balance carry-over at the end of each respective 68586
fiscal year in the felony delinquent care and custody fund in any 68587
county from funds allocated to the county pursuant to sections 68588
5139.34 and 5139.41 of the Revised Code in the previous fiscal 68589
year shall not exceed an amount to be calculated as provided in 68590
the formula set forth in this division, unless that county has 68591
applied for and been granted an exemption by the director of youth 68592
services. Beginning June 30, 2008, the maximum balance carry-over 68593
at the end of each respective fiscal year shall be determined by 68594
the following formula: for fiscal year 2008, the maximum balance 68595
carry-over shall be one hundred per cent of the allocation for 68596
fiscal year 2007, to be applied in determining the fiscal year 68597
2009 allocation; for fiscal year 2009, it shall be fifty per cent 68598
of the allocation for fiscal year 2008, to be applied in 68599
determining the fiscal year 2010 allocation; for fiscal year 2010, 68600
it shall be twenty-five per cent of the allocation for fiscal year 68601
2009, to be applied in determining the fiscal year 2011 68602
allocation; and for each fiscal year subsequent to fiscal year 68603
2010, it shall be twenty-five per cent of the allocation for the 68604
immediately preceding fiscal year, to be applied in determining 68605
the allocation for the next immediate fiscal year. The department 68606
shall withhold from future payments to a county an amount equal to 68607
any moneys in the felony delinquent care and custody fund of the 68608
county that exceed the total maximum balance carry-over that 68609
applies for that county for the fiscal year in which the payments 68610
are being made and shall reallocate the withheld amount. The 68611
department shall adopt rules for the withholding and reallocation 68612
of moneys disbursed under sections 5139.34 and 5139.41 of the 68613
Revised Code and for the criteria and process for a county to 68614
obtain an exemption from the withholding requirement. The moneys 68615
disbursed to the juvenile court pursuant to division (B) of 68616
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code and deposited pursuant to this 68617
division in the felony delinquent care and custody fund shall be 68618
in addition to, and shall not be used to reduce, any usual annual 68619
increase in county funding that the juvenile court is eligible to 68620
receive or the current level of county funding of the juvenile 68621
court and of any programs or services for delinquent children, 68622
unruly children, or juvenile traffic offenders.68623

       (2)(a) A county and the juvenile court that serves the county 68624
shall use the moneys in its felony delinquent care and custody 68625
fund in accordance with rules that the department of youth 68626
services adopts pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the 68627
Revised Code and as follows:68628

       (i) The moneys in the fund that represent state subsidy funds 68629
granted to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the Revised 68630
Code shall be used to aid in the support of prevention, early 68631
intervention, diversion, treatment, and rehabilitation programs 68632
that are provided for alleged or adjudicated unruly children or 68633
delinquent children or for children who are at risk of becoming 68634
unruly children or delinquent children. The county shall not use 68635
for capital improvements more than fifteen per cent of the moneys 68636
in the fund that represent the applicable annual grant of those 68637
state subsidy funds.68638

       (ii) The moneys in the fund that were disbursed to the 68639
juvenile court pursuant to division (B) of section 5139.41 of the 68640
Revised Code and deposited pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 68641
section in the fund shall be used to provide programs and services 68642
for the training, treatment, or rehabilitation of felony 68643
delinquents that are alternatives to their commitment to the 68644
department, including, but not limited to, community residential 68645
programs, day treatment centers, services within the home, and 68646
electronic monitoring, and shall be used in connection with 68647
training, treatment, rehabilitation, early intervention, or other 68648
programs or services for any delinquent child, unruly child, or 68649
juvenile traffic offender who is under the jurisdiction of the 68650
juvenile court. 68651

        The fund also may be used for prevention, early intervention, 68652
diversion, treatment, and rehabilitation programs that are 68653
provided for alleged or adjudicated unruly children, delinquent 68654
children, or juvenile traffic offenders or for children who are at 68655
risk of becoming unruly children, delinquent children, or juvenile 68656
traffic offenders. Consistent with division (B)(1) of this 68657
section, a county and the juvenile court of a county shall not use 68658
any of those moneys for capital construction projects.68659

       (iii) Moneys in the fund shall not be used to support 68660
programs or services that do not comply with federal juvenile 68661
justice and delinquency prevention core requirements or to support 68662
programs or services that research has shown to be ineffective. 68663
Moneys in the fund shall be prioritized to research-supported68664
Research-supported, outcome-based programs and services, to the 68665
extent they are available, shall be encouraged.68666

        (iv) The county and the juvenile court that serves the county 68667
may use moneys in the fund to provide out-of-home placement of 68668
children only in detention centers, community rehabilitation 68669
centers, or community corrections facilities approved by the 68670
department pursuant to standards adopted by the department, 68671
licensed by an authorized state agency, or accredited by the 68672
American correctional association or another national organization 68673
recognized by the department.68674

       (b) Each juvenile court shall comply with division (B)(3)(d) 68675
of this section as implemented by the department. If a juvenile 68676
court fails to comply with division (B)(3)(d) of this section, the 68677
department shall not be required to make any disbursements in 68678
accordance with division (C) or (D) of section 5139.41 or division 68679
(C)(2) of section 5139.34 of the Revised Code.68680

       (3) In accordance with rules adopted by the department 68681
pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code, 68682
each juvenile court and the county served by that juvenile court 68683
shall do all of the following that apply:68684

       (a) The juvenile court shall prepare an annual grant 68685
agreement and application for funding that satisfies the 68686
requirements of this section and section 5139.34 of the Revised 68687
Code and that pertains to the use, upon an order of the juvenile 68688
court and subject to appropriation by the board of county 68689
commissioners, of the moneys in its felony delinquent care and 68690
custody fund for specified programs, care, and services as 68691
described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section, shall submit that 68692
agreement and application to the county family and children first 68693
council, the regional family and children first council, or the 68694
local intersystem services to children cluster as described in 68695
sections 121.37 and 121.38 of the Revised Code, whichever is 68696
applicable, and shall file that agreement and application with the 68697
department for its approval. The annual grant agreement and 68698
application for funding shall include a method of ensuring equal 68699
access for minority youth to the programs, care, and services 68700
specified in it.68701

       The department may approve an annual grant agreement and 68702
application for funding only if the juvenile court involved has 68703
complied with the preparation, submission, and filing requirements 68704
described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section. If the juvenile 68705
court complies with those requirements and the department approves 68706
that agreement and application, the juvenile court and the county 68707
served by the juvenile court may expend the state subsidy funds 68708
granted to the county pursuant to section 5139.34 of the Revised 68709
Code only in accordance with division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 68710
the rules pertaining to state subsidy funds that the department 68711
adopts pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised 68712
Code, and the approved agreement and application.68713

       (b) By the thirty-first day of August of each year, the 68714
juvenile court shall file with the department a report that 68715
contains all of the statistical and other information for each 68716
month of the prior state fiscal year. If the juvenile court fails 68717
to file the report required by division (B)(3)(b) of this section 68718
by the thirty-first day of August of any year, the department 68719
shall not disburse any payment of state subsidy funds to which the 68720
county otherwise is entitled pursuant to section 5139.34 of the 68721
Revised Code and shall not disburse pursuant to division (B) of 68722
section 5139.41 of the Revised Code the applicable allocation 68723
until the juvenile court fully complies with division (B)(3)(b) of 68724
this section.68725

       (c) If the department requires the juvenile court to prepare 68726
monthly statistical reports and to submit the reports on forms 68727
provided by the department, the juvenile court shall file those 68728
reports with the department on the forms so provided. If the 68729
juvenile court fails to prepare and submit those monthly 68730
statistical reports within the department's timelines, the 68731
department shall not disburse any payment of state subsidy funds 68732
to which the county otherwise is entitled pursuant to section 68733
5139.34 of the Revised Code and shall not disburse pursuant to 68734
division (B) of section 5139.41 of the Revised Code the applicable 68735
allocation until the juvenile court fully complies with division 68736
(B)(3)(c) of this section. If the juvenile court fails to prepare 68737
and submit those monthly statistical reports within one hundred 68738
eighty days of the date the department establishes for their 68739
submission, the department shall not disburse any payment of state 68740
subsidy funds to which the county otherwise is entitled pursuant 68741
to section 5139.34 of the Revised Code and shall not disburse 68742
pursuant to division (B) of section 5139.41 of the Revised Code 68743
the applicable allocation, and the state subsidy funds and the 68744
remainder of the applicable allocation shall revert to the 68745
department. If a juvenile court states in a monthly statistical 68746
report that the juvenile court adjudicated within a state fiscal 68747
year five hundred or more children to be delinquent children for 68748
committing acts that would be felonies if committed by adults and 68749
if the department determines that the data in the report may be 68750
inaccurate, the juvenile court shall have an independent auditor 68751
or other qualified entity certify the accuracy of the data on a 68752
date determined by the department.68753

       (d) If the department requires the juvenile court and the 68754
county to participate in a fiscal monitoring program or another 68755
monitoring program that is conducted by the department to ensure 68756
compliance by the juvenile court and the county with division (B) 68757
of this section, the juvenile court and the county shall 68758
participate in the program and fully comply with any guidelines 68759
for the performance of audits adopted by the department pursuant 68760
to that program and all requests made by the department pursuant 68761
to that program for information necessary to reconcile fiscal 68762
accounting. If an audit that is performed pursuant to a fiscal 68763
monitoring program or another monitoring program described in this 68764
division determines that the juvenile court or the county used 68765
moneys in the county's felony delinquent care and custody fund for 68766
expenses that are not authorized under division (B) of this 68767
section, within forty-five days after the department notifies the 68768
county of the unauthorized expenditures, the county either shall 68769
repay the amount of the unauthorized expenditures from the county 68770
general revenue fund to the state's general revenue fund or shall 68771
file a written appeal with the department. If an appeal is timely 68772
filed, the director of the department shall render a decision on 68773
the appeal and shall notify the appellant county or its juvenile 68774
court of that decision within forty-five days after the date that 68775
the appeal is filed. If the director denies an appeal, the 68776
county's fiscal agent shall repay the amount of the unauthorized 68777
expenditures from the county general revenue fund to the state's 68778
general revenue fund within thirty days after receiving the 68779
director's notification of the appeal decision. 68780

       (C) The determination of which county a reduction of the care 68781
and custody allocation will be charged against for a particular 68782
youth shall be made as outlined below for all youths who do not 68783
qualify as public safety beds. The determination of which county a 68784
reduction of the care and custody allocation will be charged 68785
against shall be made as follows until each youth is released: 68786

       (1) In the event of a commitment, the reduction shall be 68787
charged against the committing county. 68788

       (2) In the event of a recommitment, the reduction shall be 68789
charged against the original committing county until the 68790
expiration of the minimum period of institutionalization under the 68791
original order of commitment or until the date on which the youth 68792
is admitted to the department of youth services pursuant to the 68793
order of recommitment, whichever is later. Reductions of the 68794
allocation shall be charged against the county that recommitted 68795
the youth after the minimum expiration date of the original 68796
commitment. 68797

       (3) In the event of a revocation of a release on parole, the 68798
reduction shall be charged against the county that revokes the 68799
youth's parole.68800

       (D) A juvenile court is not precluded by its allocation 68801
amount for the care and custody of felony delinquents from 68802
committing a felony delinquent to the department of youth services 68803
for care and custody in an institution or a community corrections 68804
facility when the juvenile court determines that the commitment is 68805
appropriate.68806

       Sec. 5139.511. Before a youth is released from a secure 68807
facility under the control of the department of youth services, 68808
the department of youth services shall attempt to verify the 68809
youth's identification and social security number. If the 68810
department is able to verify the youth's identity with a verified 68811
birth certificate and social security number, the department shall 68812
issue an identification card that the youth may present to the 68813
registrar or deputy registrar of motor vehicles. If the department 68814
is not able to verify the youth's identity with both a verified 68815
birth certificate and social security number, the youth shall not 68816
receive an identification card under this section.68817

       Sec. 5149.311.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 68818
correction shall establish and administer the probation 68819
improvement grant and the probation incentive grant for court of 68820
common pleas probation departments that supervise felony offenders 68821
sentenced by courts of common pleas or municipal courts. 68822

       (B)(1) The probation improvement grant shall provide funding 68823
to court of common pleas probation departments to adopt policies 68824
and practices based on the latest research on how to reduce the 68825
number of felony offenders on probation supervision who violate 68826
the conditions of their supervision. 68827

        (2) The department shall adopt rules for the distribution of 68828
the probation improvement grant, including the formula for the 68829
allocation of the subsidy based on the number of felony offenders 68830
placed on probation annually in each jurisdiction.68831

        (C)(1) The probation incentive grant shall provide a 68832
performance-based level of funding to court of common pleas68833
probation departments that are successful in reducing the number 68834
of felony offenders on probation supervision whose terms of 68835
supervision are revoked. 68836

       (2) The department shall calculate annually any cost savings 68837
realized by the state from a reduction in the percentage of people 68838
who are incarcerated because their terms of supervised probation 68839
were revoked. The cost savings estimate shall be calculated for 68840
each countyjurisdiction served by the probation department 68841
eligible for a grant under this section and be based on the 68842
difference from fiscal year 2010 and the fiscal year under 68843
examination.68844

       (3) The department shall adopt rules that specify the subsidy 68845
amount to be appropriated to court of common pleas probation 68846
departments that successfully reduce the percentage of people on 68847
probation who are incarcerated because their terms of supervision 68848
are revoked. 68849

       (D) The following stipulations apply to both the probation 68850
improvement grant and the probation incentive grant:68851

       (1) In order to be eligible for the probation improvement 68852
grant and the probation incentive grant, courts of common pleas 68853
must satisfy all requirements under sections 2301.27 and 2301.30 68854
of the Revised Code and, except. Except for sentencing decisions 68855
made by a court when use of the risk assessment tool is 68856
discretionary, in order to be eligible for the probation 68857
improvement grant and the probation incentive grant, a court must 68858
utilize the single validated risk assessment tool selected by the 68859
department of rehabilitation and correction under section 5120.114 68860
of the Revised Code.68861

       (2) The department may deny a subsidy under this section to 68862
any applicant if the applicant fails to comply with the terms of 68863
any agreement entered into pursuant to any of the provisions of 68864
this section.68865

       (3) The department shall evaluate or provide for the 68866
evaluation of the policies, practices, and programs the court of 68867
common pleas probation departments utilize with the programs of 68868
subsidies established under this section and establish means of 68869
measuring their effectiveness.68870

       (4) The department shall specify the policies, practices, and 68871
programs for which court of common pleas probation departments may 68872
use the program subsidy and shall establish minimum standards of 68873
quality and efficiency that recipients of the subsidy must follow. 68874
The department shall give priority to supporting evidence-based 68875
policies and practices, as defined by the department.68876

       Sec. 5155.14.  At the request of the superintendent or 68877
administrator of the county home, the board of county 68878
commissioners or operator shall set apart from the county home 68879
fund, a reserve fund not to exceed four hundredfive thousand68880
dollars at any time, which, upon the order of the board or 68881
operator shall be paid to the superintendent or administrator and 68882
expended as needed for emergency supplies and expenses. The 68883
superintendent or administrator shall keep an accurate account of 68884
the reserve fund, in a book to be provided at the expense of the 68885
county for that purpose, and all expenditures from it shall be 68886
audited by the board or operator. The county home fund shall be 68887
reimbursed by the superintendent or administrator, in full, for 68888
any items expended by the superintendent or administrator from the 68889
reserve fund, which items are not allowed by the board or 68890
operator. When, and as often as such amount is entirely disbursed, 68891
on the order of the board or operator, the county auditor shall 68892
pay to the superintendent or administrator the amount so 68893
appropriated.68894

       Sec. 5501.04. The following divisions are hereby established 68895
in the department of transportation:68896

       (A) The division of business services;68897

       (B) The division of engineering policy;68898

       (C) The division of finance;68899

       (D) The division of human resources;68900

       (E) The division of information technology;68901

       (F) The division of multi-modal planning and programs;68902

       (G) The division of project management;68903

       (H) The division of equal opportunity.68904

       ThePursuant to section 5501.02 of the Revised Code, the68905
director of transportation shall distribute the duties, powers, 68906
and functions of the department among the divisions of the 68907
department.68908

       Each division shall be headed by a deputy director, whose 68909
title shall be designated by the director, and shall include those 68910
other officers and employees as may be necessary to carry out the 68911
work of the division. The director shall appoint theEach deputy 68912
director of each division, who shall be in the unclassified civil 68913
service of the state and shall serve at the pleasure of the 68914
director. The director shall supervise the work of each division 68915
and shall be responsible for the determination of general policies 68916
in the performance of the duties, powers, and functions of the 68917
department and of each division. The director shall have complete 68918
executive charge of the department, shall be responsible for the 68919
organization, direction, and supervision of the work of the 68920
department and the performance of the duties, powers, and 68921
functions assigned to each division, and may establish necessary 68922
administrative units therein. TheEach deputy director of each 68923
division, with the approval of the director and subject to Chapter 68924
124. of the Revised Code, shall appoint the necessary employees of 68925
the division and may remove such employees for cause.68926

       The division of equal opportunity shall ensure that minority 68927
groups and all groups protected by state and federal civil rights 68928
laws are afforded equal opportunity to be recruited, trained, and 68929
work in the employment of or on projects of the department of 68930
transportation, and to participate in contracts awarded by the 68931
department. The director of transportation each year shall report 68932
to the governor and the general assembly on the division's 68933
activities and accomplishments.68934

       Sec. 5501.07.  In addition to those duties, powers, and 68935
functions the director of transportation assigns to it, the office 68936
of public transportation of the division of multi-modal planning 68937
and programstransit:68938

       (A) May issue grants from any public transportation grant 68939
appropriation to county transit boards, regional transit 68940
authorities, regional transit commissions, counties, municipal 68941
corporations, and private nonprofit organizations that operate or 68942
will operate a public transportation system.68943

       The director shall establish criteria for the distribution of 68944
such grants. These criteria may include and the director may 68945
consider each of the following:68946

       (1) The degree to which comprehensive regional transportation 68947
planning goals may be attained through a program for which a grant 68948
will be used;68949

       (2) The amount of local financial or other support of public 68950
transportation operations and facilities affected by the program;68951

       (3) The levels of existing service and fare;68952

       (4) The degree to which the proposed plan demonstrates 68953
approaches of potential value to other local transit boards, 68954
authorities, commissions, counties, municipal corporations, and 68955
private nonprofit organizations operating public transportation 68956
systems;68957

       (5) The degree to which the grant applicant will use state 68958
and local funds to match a federal grant;68959

       (6) Such other factors as the director determines.68960

       Any criteria established by the director for the distribution 68961
of such grants shall be consistent with the requirements of the 68962
United States department of transportation, or any administration 68963
in the department, including, but not limited to, the federal 68964
transit administration. The director may designate in the criteria 68965
certain dates after which applications for specified portions of 68966
the appropriations made for this purpose will not be accepted.68967

       (B) May issue grants from any elderly and handicapped transit 68968
fare assistance grant appropriation to county transit boards, 68969
regional transit authorities, regional transit commissions, 68970
counties, municipal corporations, and private nonprofit 68971
organizations that operate or will operate public transportation 68972
systems for the purpose of reducing the transit or paratransit 68973
fares of elderly or handicapped persons. The director shall 68974
establish criteria for the distribution of such grants.68975

       (C) May administer provisions of federal public 68976
transportation acts or programs applicable within the state, 68977
pursuant to an agreement entered into by the director with an 68978
appropriate official of the federal agency responsible for 68979
implementation of the federal acts or programs. The federal acts 68980
or programs shall include, but are not limited to, programs 68981
authorized under the "Act of July 5, 1994," 108 Stat. 785, 49 68982
U.S.C.A. 5301, as amended.68983

       (D) Shall furnish, upon request and within the limits of 68984
appropriated funds, guidance in technical or policy matters to a 68985
county transit board, regional transit authority, regional transit 68986
commission, county, municipal corporation, or private nonprofit 68987
organization that operates or proposes to operate a public 68988
transportation system, and provide assistance and liaison in the 68989
preparation and submission of applications for federal and state 68990
funds;68991

       (E) May apply for and accept grants or loans from any federal 68992
agency for the purpose of providing for the development or 68993
improvement of public transportation facilities or for the 68994
coordination of any activities related to the development or 68995
improvement of such facilities, and may provide any consideration 68996
from any public transportation grant appropriation and enter into 68997
any contracts that may be required in order to obtain such grants 68998
or loans from a federal agency.68999

       Sec. 5502.01.  (A) The department of public safety shall 69000
administer and enforce the laws relating to the registration, 69001
licensing, sale, and operation of motor vehicles and the laws 69002
pertaining to the licensing of drivers of motor vehicles.69003

       The department shall compile, analyze, and publish statistics 69004
relative to motor vehicle accidents and the causes of them, 69005
prepare and conduct educational programs for the purpose of 69006
promoting safety in the operation of motor vehicles on the 69007
highways, and conduct research and studies for the purpose of 69008
promoting safety on the highways of this state.69009

       (B) The department shall administer the laws and rules 69010
relative to trauma and emergency medical services specified in 69011
Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code and any laws and rules relative 69012
to commercial medical transportation services as may be specified 69013
in Chapter 4766. of the Revised Code.69014

       (C) The department shall administer and enforce the laws 69015
contained in Chapters 4301. and 4303. of the Revised Code and 69016
enforce the rules and orders of the liquor control commission 69017
pertaining to retail liquor permit holders.69018

       (D) The department shall administer the laws governing the 69019
state emergency management agency and shall enforce all additional 69020
duties and responsibilities as prescribed in the Revised Code 69021
related to emergency management services.69022

       (E) The department shall conduct investigations pursuant to 69023
Chapter 5101. of the Revised Code in support of the duty of the 69024
department of job and family services to administer the 69025
supplemental nutrition assistance program throughout this state. 69026
The department of public safety shall conduct investigations 69027
necessary to protect the state's property rights and interests in 69028
the supplemental nutrition assistance program.69029

       (F) The department of public safety shall enforce compliance 69030
with orders and rules of the public utilities commission and 69031
applicable laws in accordance with Chapters 4919.4905., 4921., 69032
and 4923. of the Revised Code regarding commercial motor vehicle 69033
transportation safety, economic, and hazardous materials 69034
requirements.69035

       (G) Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, the 69036
department of public safety may establish requirements for its 69037
enforcement personnel, including its enforcement agents described 69038
in section 5502.14 of the Revised Code, that include standards of 69039
conduct, work rules and procedures, and criteria for eligibility 69040
as law enforcement personnel.69041

       (H) The department shall administer, maintain, and operate 69042
the Ohio criminal justice network. The Ohio criminal justice 69043
network shall be a computer network that supports state and local 69044
criminal justice activities. The network shall be an electronic 69045
repository for various data, which may include arrest warrants, 69046
notices of persons wanted by law enforcement agencies, criminal 69047
records, prison inmate records, stolen vehicle records, vehicle 69048
operator's licenses, and vehicle registrations and titles.69049

       (I) The department shall coordinate all homeland security 69050
activities of all state agencies and shall be a liaison between 69051
state agencies and local entities for those activities and related 69052
purposes.69053

       (J) Beginning July 1, 2004, the department shall administer 69054
and enforce the laws relative to private investigators and 69055
security service providers specified in Chapter 4749. of the 69056
Revised Code.69057

       (K) The department shall administer criminal justice services 69058
in accordance with sections 5502.61 to 5502.66 of the Revised 69059
Code.69060

       Sec. 5502.011. (A) As used in this section, "department of 69061
public safety" and "department" include all divisions within the 69062
department of public safety.69063

        (B) The director of the department of public safety is the 69064
chief executive and administrative officer of the department. The 69065
director may establish policies governing the department, the 69066
performance of its employees and officers, the conduct of its 69067
business, and the custody, use, and preservation of departmental 69068
records, papers, books, documents, and property. The director also 69069
may authorize and approve investigations to be conducted by any of 69070
the department's divisions. Whenever the Revised Code imposes a 69071
duty upon or requires an action of the department, the director 69072
may perform the action or duty in the name of the department or 69073
direct such performance to be performed by the director's 69074
designee.69075

        (C) In addition to any other duties enumerated in the Revised 69076
Code, the director or the director's designee shall do all of the 69077
following:69078

        (1) Administer and direct the performance of the duties of 69079
the department;69080

        (2) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, approve, 69081
adopt, and prescribe such forms and rules as are necessary to 69082
carry out the duties of the department;69083

        (3) On behalf of the department and in addition to any 69084
authority the Revised Code otherwise grants to the department, 69085
have the authority and responsibility for approving and entering 69086
into contracts, agreements, and other business arrangements;69087

        (4) Make appointments for the department as needed to comply 69088
with requirements of the Revised Code;69089

        (5) Approve employment actions of the department, including 69090
appointments, promotions, discipline, investigations, and 69091
terminations;69092

       (6) Accept, hold, and use, for the benefit of the department, 69093
any gift, donation, bequest, or devise, and may agree to and 69094
perform all conditions of the gift, donation, bequest, or devise, 69095
that are not contrary to law;69096

       (7) Apply for, allocate, disburse, and account for grants 69097
made available under federal law or from other federal, state, or 69098
private sources;69099

       (8) Do all other acts necessary or desirable to carry out 69100
this chapter.69101

       (D)(1) The director of public safety may assess a reasonable 69102
fee, plus the amount of any charge or fee passed on from a 69103
financial institution, on a drawer or indorser for each of the 69104
following:69105

       (a) A check, draft, or money order that is returned or 69106
dishonored;69107

       (b) An automatic bank transfer that is declined, due to 69108
insufficient funds or for any other reason;69109

       (c) Any financial transaction device that is returned or 69110
dishonored for any reason.69111

       (2) The director shall deposit any fee collected under this 69112
division in an appropriate fund as determined by the director 69113
based on the tax, fee, or fine being paid.69114

       (3) As used in this division, "financial transaction device" 69115
has the same meaning as in section 113.40 of the Revised Code.69116

       (E) The director shall establish a homeland security advisory 69117
council to advise the director on homeland security, including 69118
homeland security funding efforts. The advisory council shall 69119
include, but not be limited to, state and local government 69120
officials who have homeland security or emergency management 69121
responsibilities and who represent first responders. The director 69122
shall appoint the members of the council, who shall serve without 69123
compensation.69124

       (F) The director of public safety shall adopt rules in 69125
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as required by 69126
section 2909.28 of the Revised Code and division (A)(1) of section 69127
2909.32 of the Revised Code. The director shall adopt rules as 69128
required by division (D) of section 2909.32 of the Revised Code, 69129
division (E) of section 2909.33 of the Revised Code, and division 69130
(D) of section 2909.34 of the Revised Code. The director may adopt 69131
rules pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 2909.32 of the 69132
Revised Code, division (A)(2) of section 2909.33 of the Revised 69133
Code, and division (A)(2) of section 2909.34 of the Revised Code.69134

       Sec. 5503.21.        Sec. 5502.05.  There is hereby created in the 69135
department of public safety, division of state highway patrol, a 69136
driver's license examination section to be administered by the 69137
superintendent of the state highway patrol. 69138

       The superintendent, with the approval of the director of 69139
public safety, may appoint necessary driver's license examiners 69140
and clerical personnel necessary to carry out the duties assigned 69141
under this section. The examiners shall be citizens of the United 69142
States and residents of the state and shall have such additional 69143
qualifications as the superintendent, with the approval of the69144
director, prescribes.69145

       The salaries and classifications of examiners and personnel 69146
shall be fixed in accordance with section 124.15 or 124.152 of the 69147
Revised Code. 69148

       Sec. 5503.22.        Sec. 5502.06.  Driver's license examiners assigned to 69149
the driver's license examination section shall conduct all 69150
examinations for driver's licenses as required by sections 4507.01 69151
to 4507.36 of the Revised Code, subject to the regulationsrules69152
issued by the registrar of motor vehicles.69153

       Sec. 5503.23.        Sec. 5502.07.  The superintendent of the state 69154
highway patrol, with the approval of the director of public 69155
safety, may conduct training schools for prospective driver's 69156
license examiners. The superintendentand may establish rules 69157
governing the qualifications for admission to such schools and 69158
provide for competitive examinations to determine the fitness of 69159
such students for prospective examiners, not inconsistent with the 69160
rules of the director of administrative services.69161

       Sec. 5503.02.  (A) The state highway patrol shall enforce the 69162
laws of the state relating to the titling, registration, and 69163
licensing of motor vehicles; enforce on all roads and highways, 69164
notwithstanding section 4513.39 of the Revised Code, the laws 69165
relating to the operation and use of vehicles on the highways; 69166
enforce and prevent the violation of the laws relating to the 69167
size, weight, and speed of commercial motor vehicles and all laws 69168
designed for the protection of the highway pavements and 69169
structures on the highways; investigate and enforce rules and laws 69170
of the public utilities commission governing the transportation of 69171
persons and property by motor carriers and report violations of 69172
such rules and laws to the commission; enforce against any motor 69173
transportation companycarrier as defined in section 4921.0269174
4923.01 of the Revised Code, any contract carrier by motor vehicle 69175
as defined in section 4923.02 of the Revised Code, any private 69176
motor carrier as defined in section 4923.20 of the Revised Code, 69177
and any motor carrier as defined in section 4919.75 of the Revised 69178
Code those rules and laws that, if violated, may result in a 69179
forfeiture as provided in section 4905.83, 4919.99, 4921.99, or69180
4923.99 of the Revised Code; investigate and report violations of 69181
all laws relating to the collection of excise taxes on motor 69182
vehicle fuels; and regulate the movement of traffic on the roads 69183
and highways of the state, notwithstanding section 4513.39 of the 69184
Revised Code.69185

       The patrol, whenever possible, shall determine the identity 69186
of the persons who are causing or who are responsible for the 69187
breaking, damaging, or destruction of any improved surfaced 69188
roadway, structure, sign, marker, guardrail, or other appurtenance 69189
constructed or maintained by the department of transportation and 69190
shall arrest the persons who are responsible for the breaking, 69191
damaging, or destruction and bring them before the proper 69192
officials for prosecution.69193

       State highway patrol troopers shall investigate and report 69194
all motor vehicle accidents on all roads and highways outside of 69195
municipal corporations. The superintendent of the patrol or any 69196
state highway patrol trooper may arrest, without a warrant, any 69197
person, who is the driver of or a passenger in any vehicle 69198
operated or standing on a state highway, whom the superintendent 69199
or trooper has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of a felony, 69200
under the same circumstances and with the same power that any 69201
peace officer may make such an arrest.69202

       The superintendent or any state highway patrol trooper may 69203
enforce the criminal laws on all state properties and state 69204
institutions, owned or leased by the state, and, when so ordered 69205
by the governor in the event of riot, civil disorder, or 69206
insurrection, may, pursuant to sections 2935.03 to 2935.05 of the 69207
Revised Code, arrest offenders against the criminal laws wherever 69208
they may be found within the state if the violations occurred 69209
upon, or resulted in injury to person or property on, state 69210
properties or state institutions, or under the conditions 69211
described in division (B) of this section. This authority of the 69212
superintendent and any state highway patrol trooper to enforce the 69213
criminal laws shall extend to the Lake Erie Correctional 69214
Institution, to the same extent as if that prison were owned by 69215
this state.69216

       (B) In the event of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, or 69217
the reasonable threat of riot, civil disorder, or insurrection, 69218
and upon request, as provided in this section, of the sheriff of a 69219
county or the mayor or other chief executive of a municipal 69220
corporation, the governor may order the state highway patrol to 69221
enforce the criminal laws within the area threatened by riot, 69222
civil disorder, or insurrection, as designated by the governor, 69223
upon finding that law enforcement agencies within the counties 69224
involved will not be reasonably capable of controlling the riot, 69225
civil disorder, or insurrection and that additional assistance is 69226
necessary. In cities in which the sheriff is under contract to 69227
provide exclusive police services pursuant to section 311.29 of 69228
the Revised Code, in villages, and in the unincorporated areas of 69229
the county, the sheriff has exclusive authority to request the use 69230
of the patrol. In cities in which the sheriff does not exclusively 69231
provide police services, the mayor, or other chief executive 69232
performing the duties of mayor, has exclusive authority to request 69233
the use of the patrol.69234

       The superintendent or any state highway patrol trooper may 69235
enforce the criminal laws within the area designated by the 69236
governor during the emergency arising out of the riot, civil 69237
disorder, or insurrection until released by the governor upon 69238
consultation with the requesting authority. State highway patrol 69239
troopers shall never be used as peace officers in connection with 69240
any strike or labor dispute.69241

       When a request for the use of the patrol is made pursuant to 69242
this division, the requesting authority shall notify the law 69243
enforcement authorities in contiguous communities and the sheriff 69244
of each county within which the threatened area, or any part of 69245
the threatened area, lies of the request, but the failure to 69246
notify the authorities or a sheriff shall not affect the validity 69247
of the request.69248

       (C) Any person who is arrested by the superintendent or a 69249
state highway patrol trooper shall be taken before any court or 69250
magistrate having jurisdiction of the offense with which the 69251
person is charged. Any person who is arrested or apprehended 69252
within the limits of a municipal corporation shall be brought 69253
before the municipal court or other tribunal of the municipal 69254
corporation.69255

       (D)(1) State highway patrol troopers have the same right and 69256
power of search and seizure as other peace officers.69257

       No state official shall command, order, or direct any state 69258
highway patrol trooper to perform any duty or service that is not 69259
authorized by law. The powers and duties conferred on the patrol 69260
are supplementary to, and in no way a limitation on, the powers 69261
and duties of sheriffs or other peace officers of the state.69262

       (2)(a) A state highway patrol trooper, pursuant to the policy 69263
established by the superintendent of the state highway patrol 69264
under division (D)(2)(b) of this section, may render emergency 69265
assistance to any other peace officer who has arrest authority 69266
under section 2935.03 of the Revised Code, if both of the 69267
following apply:69268

       (i) There is a threat of imminent physical danger to the 69269
peace officer, a threat of physical harm to another person, or any 69270
other serious emergency situation;69271

       (ii) Either the peace officer requests emergency assistance, 69272
or it appears that the peace officer is unable to request 69273
emergency assistance and the circumstances observed by the state 69274
highway patrol trooper reasonably indicate that emergency 69275
assistance is appropriate, or the peace officer requests emergency 69276
assistance and in the request the peace officer specifies a 69277
particular location and the state highway patrol trooper arrives 69278
at that location prior to the time that the peace officer arrives 69279
at that location and the circumstances observed by the state 69280
highway patrol trooper reasonably indicate that emergency 69281
assistance is appropriate.69282

       (b) The superintendent of the state highway patrol shall 69283
establish, within sixty days of August 8, 1991, a policy that sets 69284
forth the manner and procedures by which a state highway patrol 69285
trooper may render emergency assistance to any other peace officer 69286
under division (D)(2)(a) of this section. The policy shall include 69287
a provision that a state highway patrol trooper never be used as a 69288
peace officer in connection with any strike or labor dispute.69289

       (3)(a) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 69290
assistance to any other peace officer under the policy established 69291
by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this 69292
section shall be considered to be performing regular employment 69293
for the purposes of compensation, pension, indemnity fund rights, 69294
workers' compensation, and other rights or benefits to which the 69295
trooper may be entitled as incident to regular employment.69296

       (b) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 69297
assistance to any other peace officer under the policy established 69298
by the superintendent pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this 69299
section retains personal immunity from liability as specified in 69300
section 9.86 of the Revised Code.69301

       (c) A state highway patrol trooper who renders emergency 69302
assistance under the policy established by the superintendent 69303
pursuant to division (D)(2)(b) of this section has the same 69304
authority as the peace officer for or with whom the state highway 69305
patrol trooper is providing emergency assistance.69306

       (E)(1) Subject to the availability of funds specifically 69307
appropriated by the general assembly for security detail purposes, 69308
the state highway patrol shall provide security as follows:69309

       (a) For the governor;69310

       (b) At the direction of the governor, for other officials of 69311
the state government of this state; officials of the state 69312
governments of other states who are visiting this state; officials 69313
of the United States government who are visiting this state; 69314
officials of the governments of foreign countries or their 69315
political subdivisions who are visiting this state; or other 69316
officials or dignitaries who are visiting this state, including, 69317
but not limited to, members of trade missions;69318

       (c) For the capitol square, as defined in section 105.41 of 69319
the Revised Code;69320

       (d) For other state property.69321

       (2) To carry out the security responsibilities of the patrol 69322
listed in division (E)(1) of this section, the superintendent may 69323
assign state highway patrol troopers to a separate unit that is 69324
responsible for security details. The number of troopers assigned 69325
to particular security details shall be determined by the 69326
superintendent.69327

       (3) The superintendent and any state highway patrol trooper, 69328
when providing security pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) or (b) of 69329
this section, have the same arrest powers as other peace officers 69330
to apprehend offenders against the criminal laws who endanger or 69331
threaten the security of any person being protected, no matter 69332
where the offense occurs.69333

       The superintendent, any state highway patrol trooper, and any 69334
special police officer designated under section 5503.09 of the 69335
Revised Code, when providing security pursuant to division 69336
(E)(1)(c) of this section, shall enforce any rules governing 69337
capitol square adopted by the capitol square review and advisory 69338
board.69339

       (F) The governor may order the state highway patrol to 69340
undertake major criminal investigations that involve state 69341
property interests. If an investigation undertaken pursuant to 69342
this division results in either the issuance of a no bill or the 69343
filing of an indictment, the superintendent shall file a complete 69344
and accurate report of the investigation with the president of the 69345
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority 69346
leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house of 69347
representatives within fifteen days after the issuance of the no 69348
bill or the filing of an indictment. If the investigation does not 69349
have as its result any prosecutorial action, the superintendent 69350
shall, upon reporting this fact to the governor, file a complete 69351
and accurate report of the investigation with the president of the 69352
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the minority 69353
leader of the senate, and the minority leader of the house of 69354
representatives.69355

       (G) The superintendent may purchase or lease real property 69356
and buildings needed by the patrol, negotiate the sale of real 69357
property owned by the patrol, rent or lease real property owned or 69358
leased by the patrol, and make or cause to be made repairs to all 69359
property owned or under the control of the patrol. Any instrument 69360
by which real property is acquired pursuant to this division shall 69361
identify the agency of the state that has the use and benefit of 69362
the real property as specified in section 5301.012 of the Revised 69363
Code.69364

       Sections 123.01 and 125.02 of the Revised Code do not limit 69365
the powers granted to the superintendent by this division.69366

       Sec. 5503.04.  Forty-five per cent of the fines collected 69367
from or moneys arising from bail forfeited by persons apprehended 69368
or arrested by state highway patrol troopers shall be paid into 69369
the state treasury to be credited to the general revenue fund, 69370
five per cent shall be paid into the state treasury to be credited 69371
to the trauma and emergency medical services grants fund created 69372
by division (E) of section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, and fifty 69373
per cent shall be paid into the treasury of the municipal 69374
corporation where the case is prosecuted, if in a mayor's court. 69375
If the prosecution is in a trial court outside a municipal 69376
corporation, or outside the territorial jurisdiction of a 69377
municipal court, the fifty per cent of the fines and moneys that 69378
is not paid into the state treasury shall be paid into the 69379
treasury of the county where the case is prosecuted. The fines and 69380
moneys paid into a county treasury and the fines and moneys paid 69381
into the treasury of a municipal corporation shall be deposited 69382
one-half to the same fund and expended in the same manner as is 69383
the revenue received from the registration of motor vehicles, and 69384
one-half to the general fund of such county or municipal 69385
corporation.69386

       If the prosecution is in a municipal court, forty-five per 69387
cent of the fines and moneys shall be paid into the state treasury 69388
to be credited to the general revenue fund, five per cent shall be 69389
paid into the state treasury to be credited to the trauma and 69390
emergency medical services grants fund created by division (E) of 69391
section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, ten per cent shall be paid 69392
into the county treasury to be credited to the general fund of the 69393
county, and forty per cent shall be paid into the municipal 69394
treasury to be credited to the general fund of the municipal 69395
corporation. In the Auglaize county, Clermont county, Crawford 69396
county, Hocking county, Jackson county, Lawrence county, Madison 69397
county, Miami county, Ottawa county, Portage county, and Wayne 69398
county municipal courts, that portion of money otherwise paid into 69399
the municipal treasury shall be paid into the county treasury.69400

       The trial court shall make remittance of the fines and moneys 69401
as prescribed in this section, and at the same time as the 69402
remittance is made of the state's portion to the state treasury, 69403
the trial court shall notify the superintendent of the state 69404
highway patrol of the case and the amount covered by the 69405
remittance.69406

       This section does not apply to fines for violations of 69407
division (B) of section 4513.263 of the Revised Code, or for 69408
violations of any municipal ordinance that is substantively 69409
comparable to that division, all of which shall be delivered to 69410
the treasurer of state as provided in division (E) of section 69411
4513.263 of the Revised Code.69412

       Sec. 5503.34.  There is hereby created in the department of 69413
public safety, division of state highway patrol, a motor carrier 69414
enforcement unit, to be administered by the superintendent of the 69415
state highway patrol. This unit shall be responsible for 69416
enforcement of commercial motor vehicle transportation safety, 69417
economic, and hazardous materials requirements.69418

       The superintendent, with the approval of the director of 69419
public safety, may appoint and maintain necessary staff to carry 69420
out the duties assigned under this section.69421

       Employees of the motor carrier enforcement unit shall 69422
cooperate with the public utilities commission to enforce 69423
compliance with orders and rules of the commission, applicable 69424
laws under Chapters 49194905., 4921., and 4923. of the Revised 69425
Code, and any other applicable laws or rules.69426

       Uniformed employees of the motor carrier enforcement unit may 69427
stop commercial motor vehicles for the exclusive purpose of 69428
inspecting such vehicles to enforce compliance with orders and 69429
rules of the public utilities commission as required by division 69430
(F) of section 5502.01 of the Revised Code.69431

       Sec. 5516.02.  No advertising device shall be erected or 69432
maintained within six hundred sixty feet of the edge of the 69433
right-of-way of a highway on the interstate system except the 69434
following:69435

       (A) Directional and official signs and notices that conform 69436
to rules adopted by the director of transportation;69437

       (B) Signs advertising the sale or lease of the property upon 69438
which they are located;69439

       (C) Advertising devices indicating the name of the business 69440
or profession conducted on such property or that identify the 69441
goods produced, sold, or services rendered on such property, and 69442
that conform to rules adopted by the director;69443

       (D) Advertising devices that are located in commercial or 69444
industrial zones traversed by segments of the interstate system 69445
within the boundaries of a municipal corporation as such 69446
boundaries existed on September 21, 1959, and that conform to 69447
rules adopted by the director;69448

       (E) Advertising devices that are located on the premises of a 69449
professional sports facility and that conform to rules adopted by 69450
the director. For a professional sports facility that is located 69451
on real property owned by the state, the rules of the director 69452
shall allow an advertising device to be located within three 69453
hundred fifty feet of the structure of the professional sports 69454
facility and shall allow an advertising device to have a maximum 69455
area of five thousand square feet, excluding decorative bases and 69456
supports.69457

       Sec. 5516.06.  No advertising device shall be erected or 69458
maintained within six hundred sixty feet of the edge of the 69459
right-of-way of a highway on the primary system except the 69460
following:69461

       (A) Directional and other official signs and notices that 69462
conform to rules adopted by the director of transportation;69463

       (B) Signs advertising the sale or lease of the property upon 69464
which they are located;69465

       (C) Advertising devices indicating the name of the business, 69466
activities, or profession conducted on such property or that 69467
identify the goods produced, sold, or services rendered on such 69468
property and that conform to rules adopted by the director;69469

       (D) Precautionary signs relating to the premises;69470

       (E) Signs, displays, or devices which locate, identify, mark, 69471
or warn of the presence of pipe lines, utility lines, or rail 69472
lines, and appurtenances thereof, including, but not limited to, 69473
markers used in the maintenance, operation, observation, and 69474
safety of said lines;69475

       (F) Advertising devices located in zoned or unzoned 69476
industrial or commercial areas adjacent to highways on the primary 69477
system that conform to rules adopted by the director;69478

       (G) Signs lawfully in existence on October 22, 1965, that the 69479
director, subject to the approval of the secretary of the United 69480
States department of transportation, has determined to be landmark 69481
signs, including signs on farm structures or natural surfaces, 69482
which are of historic or artistic significance;69483

       (H) Advertising devices that are located on the premises of a 69484
professional sports facility and that conform to rules adopted by 69485
the director. For a professional sports facility that is located 69486
on real property owned by the state, the rules of the director 69487
shall allow an advertising device to be located within three 69488
hundred fifty feet of the structure of the professional sports 69489
facility and shall allow an advertising device to have a maximum 69490
area of five thousand square feet, excluding decorative bases and 69491
supports.69492

       Sec. 5701.13.  (A) As used in this section:69493

       (1) "Nursing home" means a nursing home or a home for the 69494
aging, as those terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the 69495
Revised Code, that is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 69496
of the Revised Code.69497

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a residential care 69498
facility, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, that 69499
is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 of the Revised 69500
Code.69501

       (3) "Adult careResidential facility" means an adult carea 69502
residential facility as defined inlicensed under section 5119.7069503
5119.22 of the Revised Code that is issued a license pursuant to 69504
section 5119.73 of the Revised Codeprovides accommodations, 69505
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 69506
unrelated adults.69507

       (B) As used in Title LVII of the Revised Code, and for the 69508
purpose of other sections of the Revised Code that refer 69509
specifically to Chapter 5701. or section 5701.13 of the Revised 69510
Code, a "home for the aged" means either of the following:69511

       (1) A place of residence for aged and infirm persons that 69512
satisfies divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) of this section:69513

       (a) It is a nursing home, residential care facility, or adult 69514
careresidential facility.69515

       (b) It is owned by a corporation, unincorporated association, 69516
or trust of a charitable, religious, or fraternal nature, which is 69517
organized and operated not for profit, which is not formed for the 69518
pecuniary gain or profit of, and whose net earnings or any part of 69519
whose net earnings is not distributable to, its members, trustees, 69520
officers, or other private persons, and which is exempt from 69521
federal income taxation under section 501 of the "Internal Revenue 69522
Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1.69523

       (c) It is open to the public without regard to race, color, 69524
or national origin.69525

       (d) It does not pay, directly or indirectly, compensation for 69526
services rendered, interest on debts incurred, or purchase price 69527
for land, building, equipment, supplies, or other goods or 69528
chattels, which compensation, interest, or purchase price is 69529
unreasonably high.69530

       (e) It provides services for the life of each resident 69531
without regard to the resident's ability to continue payment for 69532
the full cost of the services.69533

       (2) A place of residence that satisfies divisions (B)(1)(b), 69534
(d), and (e) of this section; that satisfies the definition of 69535
"nursing home" or "residential care facility" under section 69536
3721.01 of the Revised Code or the definition of "adult care69537
residential facility" under section 5119.70 of the Revised Code69538
division (A)(3) of this section regardless of whether it is 69539
licensed as such a home or facility; and that is provided at no 69540
charge to individuals on account of their service without 69541
compensation to a charitable, religious, fraternal, or educational 69542
institution, which individuals are aged or infirm and are members 69543
of the corporation, association, or trust that owns the place of 69544
residence. For the purposes of division (B)(2) of this section, 69545
"compensation" does not include furnishing room and board, 69546
clothing, health care, or other necessities, or stipends or other 69547
de minimis payments to defray the cost thereof.69548

       Exemption from taxation shall be accorded, on proper 69549
application, only to those homes or parts of homes which meet the 69550
standards and provide the services specified in this section.69551

       Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing a 69552
home from requiring a resident with financial need to apply for 69553
any applicable financial assistance or requiring a home to retain 69554
a resident who willfully refuses to pay for services for which the 69555
resident has contracted even though the resident has sufficient 69556
resources to do so.69557

       (C)(1) If a corporation, unincorporated association, or trust 69558
described in division (B)(1)(b) of this section is granted a 69559
certificate of need pursuant to section 3702.52 of the Revised 69560
Code to construct, add to, or otherwise modify a nursing home, or 69561
is given approval pursuant to section 3791.04 of the Revised Code 69562
to construct, add to, or otherwise modify a residential care 69563
facility or adult careresidential facility and if the 69564
corporation, association, or trust submits an affidavit to the tax 69565
commissioner stating that, commencing on the date of licensure and 69566
continuing thereafter, the home or facility will be operated in 69567
accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) of 69568
this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall be 69569
considered to be operating a "home for the aged" within the 69570
meaning of division (B)(1) of this section, beginning on the first 69571
day of January of the year in which such certificate is granted or 69572
approval is given.69573

       (2) If a corporation, association, or trust is considered to 69574
be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) of 69575
this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall notify 69576
the tax commissioner in writing upon the occurrence of any of the 69577
following events:69578

       (a) The corporation, association, or trust no longer intends 69579
to complete the construction of, addition to, or modification of 69580
the home or facility, to obtain the appropriate license for the 69581
home or facility, or to commence operation of the home or facility 69582
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 69583
of this section;69584

       (b) The certificate of approval referred to in division 69585
(C)(1) of this section expires, is revoked, or is otherwise 69586
terminated prior to the completion of the construction of, 69587
addition to, or modification of the home or facility;69588

       (c) The license to operate the home or facility is not 69589
granted by the director of health within one year following 69590
completion of the construction of, addition to, or modification of 69591
the home or facility;69592

       (d) The license to operate the home or facility is not 69593
granted by the director of health within four years following the 69594
date upon which the certificate or approval referred to in 69595
division (C)(1) of this section was granted or given;69596

       (e) The home or facility is granted a license to operate as a 69597
nursing home, residential care facility, or adult careresidential69598
facility.69599

       (3) Upon the occurrence of any of the events referred to in 69600
divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, the 69601
corporation, association, or trust shall no longer be considered 69602
to be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) 69603
of this section, except that the tax commissioner, for good cause 69604
shown and to the extent the commissioner considers appropriate, 69605
may extend the time period specified in division (C)(2)(c) or (d) 69606
of this section, or both. Nothing in division (C)(3) of this 69607
section shall be construed to prevent a nursing home, residential 69608
care facility, or adult careresidential facility from qualifying 69609
as a "home for the aged" if, upon proper application made pursuant 69610
to division (B) of this section, it is found to meet the 69611
requirements of divisions (A) and (B) of this section.69612

       Sec. 5703.05.  All powers, duties, and functions of the 69613
department of taxation are vested in and shall be performed by the 69614
tax commissioner, which powers, duties, and functions shall 69615
include, but shall not be limited to, the following:69616

       (A) Prescribing all blank forms which the department is 69617
authorized to prescribe, and to provide such forms and distribute 69618
the same as required by law and the rules of the department. 69619

       (B) Exercising the authority provided by law, including 69620
orders from bankruptcy courts, relative to remitting or refunding 69621
taxes or assessments, including penalties and interest thereon, 69622
illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any other 69623
reason overpaid, and in addition, the commissioner may on written 69624
application of any person, firm, or corporation claiming to have 69625
overpaid to the treasurer of state at any time within five years 69626
prior to the making of such application any tax payable under any 69627
law which the department of taxation is required to administer 69628
which does not contain any provision for refund, or on the 69629
commissioner's own motion investigate the facts and make in 69630
triplicate a written statement of the commissioner's findings, 69631
and, if the commissioner finds that there has been an overpayment, 69632
issue in triplicate a certificate of abatement payable to the 69633
taxpayer, the taxpayer's assigns, or legal representative which 69634
shows the amount of the overpayment and the kind of tax overpaid. 69635
One copy of such statement shall be entered on the journal of the 69636
commissioner, one shall be certified to the attorney general, and 69637
one certified copy shall be delivered to the taxpayer. All copies 69638
of the certificate of abatement shall be transmitted to the 69639
attorney general, and if the attorney general finds it to be 69640
correct the attorney general shall so certify on each copy, and 69641
deliver one copy to the taxpayer, one copy to the commissioner, 69642
and the third copy to the treasurer of state. Except as provided 69643
in sectionssection 5725.08 and 5725.16 of the Revised Code, the 69644
taxpayer's copy of any certificates of abatement may be tendered 69645
by the payee or transferee thereof to the treasurer of state, or 69646
to the commissioner on behalf of the treasurer, as payment, to the 69647
extent of the amount thereof, of any tax payable to the treasurer 69648
of state.69649

       (C) Exercising the authority provided by law relative to 69650
consenting to the compromise and settlement of tax claims;69651

       (D) Exercising the authority provided by law relative to the 69652
use of alternative tax bases by taxpayers in the making of 69653
personal property tax returns;69654

       (E) Exercising the authority provided by law relative to 69655
authorizing the prepayment of taxes on retail sales of tangible 69656
personal property or on the storage, use, or consumption of 69657
personal property, and waiving the collection of such taxes from 69658
the consumers;69659

       (F) Exercising the authority provided by law to revoke 69660
licenses;69661

       (G) Maintaining a continuous study of the practical operation 69662
of all taxation and revenue laws of the state, the manner in which 69663
and extent to which such laws provide revenues for the support of 69664
the state and its political subdivisions, the probable effect upon 69665
such revenue of possible changes in existing laws, and the 69666
possible enactment of measures providing for other forms of 69667
taxation. For this purpose the commissioner may establish and 69668
maintain a division of research and statistics, and may appoint 69669
necessary employees who shall be in the unclassified civil 69670
service; the results of such study shall be available to the 69671
members of the general assembly and the public.69672

       (H) Making all tax assessments, valuations, findings, 69673
determinations, computations, and orders the department of 69674
taxation is by law authorized and required to make and, pursuant 69675
to time limitations provided by law, on the commissioner's own 69676
motion, reviewing, redetermining, or correcting any tax 69677
assessments, valuations, findings, determinations, computations, 69678
or orders the commissioner has made, but the commissioner shall 69679
not review, redetermine, or correct any tax assessment, valuation, 69680
finding, determination, computation, or order which the 69681
commissioner has made as to which an appeal or application for 69682
rehearing, review, redetermination, or correction has been filed 69683
with the board of tax appeals, unless such appeal or application 69684
is withdrawn by the appellant or applicant or dismissed;69685

       (I) Appointing not more than five deputy tax commissioners, 69686
who, under such regulations as the rules of the department of 69687
taxation prescribe, may act for the commissioner in the 69688
performance of such duties as the commissioner prescribes in the 69689
administration of the laws which the commissioner is authorized 69690
and required to administer, and who shall serve in the 69691
unclassified civil service at the pleasure of the commissioner, 69692
but if a person who holds a position in the classified service is 69693
appointed, it shall not affect the civil service status of such 69694
person. The commissioner may designate not more than two of the 69695
deputy commissioners to act as commissioner in case of the 69696
absence, disability, or recusal of the commissioner or vacancy in 69697
the office of commissioner. The commissioner may adopt rules 69698
relating to the order of precedence of such designated deputy 69699
commissioners and to their assumption and administration of the 69700
office of commissioner.69701

       (J) Appointing and prescribing the duties of all other 69702
employees of the department of taxation necessary in the 69703
performance of the work of the department which the tax 69704
commissioner is by law authorized and required to perform, and 69705
creating such divisions or sections of employees as, in the 69706
commissioner's judgment, is proper;69707

       (K) Organizing the work of the department, which the 69708
commissioner is by law authorized and required to perform, so 69709
that, in the commissioner's judgment, an efficient and economical 69710
administration of the laws will result;69711

       (L) Maintaining a journal, which is open to public 69712
inspection, in which the tax commissioner shall keep a record of 69713
all final determinations of the commissioner;69714

       (M) Adopting and promulgating, in the manner provided by 69715
section 5703.14 of the Revised Code, all rules of the department, 69716
including rules for the administration of sections 3517.16, 69717
3517.17, and 5747.081 of the Revised Code;69718

       (N) Destroying any or all returns or assessment certificates 69719
in the manner authorized by law;69720

       (O) Adopting rules, in accordance with division (B) of 69721
section 325.31 of the Revised Code, governing the expenditure of 69722
moneys from the real estate assessment fund under that division.69723

       Sec. 5705.08.  On or before the first Monday in May of each 69724
year, the fiscal officer of each subdivision that is not a, except69725
school districtdistricts and the city of Cincinnati, shall 69726
certify to its taxing authority the amount necessary to provide 69727
for the payment of final judgments against the subdivision, except 69728
in condemnation of property cases. The taxing authority shall 69729
place such certified amount in each budget and in the annual 69730
appropriation measure for the full amount certified.69731

       On or before the first Monday in November of each year, the 69732
fiscal officer of the city of Cincinnati and of each school 69733
district shall certify to its board of educationtaxing authority69734
the amount necessary to provide for the payment of final judgments 69735
against the districtsubdivision, except in condemnation of 69736
property cases. The board of educationtaxing authority shall 69737
place such certified amount in each budget and in the annual 69738
appropriation measure for the full amount certified.69739

       Sec. 5705.19.  This section does not apply to school 69740
districts or county school financing districts.69741

       The taxing authority of any subdivision at any time and in 69742
any year, by vote of two-thirds of all the members of the taxing 69743
authority, may declare by resolution and certify the resolution to 69744
the board of elections not less than ninety days before the 69745
election upon which it will be voted that the amount of taxes that 69746
may be raised within the ten-mill limitation will be insufficient 69747
to provide for the necessary requirements of the subdivision and 69748
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of that limitation 69749
for any of the following purposes:69750

       (A) For current expenses of the subdivision, except that the 69751
total levy for current expenses of a detention facility district 69752
or district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code 69753
shall not exceed two mills and that the total levy for current 69754
expenses of a combined district organized under sections 2151.65 69755
and 2152.41 of the Revised Code shall not exceed four mills;69756

       (B) For the payment of debt charges on certain described 69757
bonds, notes, or certificates of indebtedness of the subdivision 69758
issued subsequent to January 1, 1925;69759

       (C) For the debt charges on all bonds, notes, and 69760
certificates of indebtedness issued and authorized to be issued 69761
prior to January 1, 1925;69762

       (D) For a public library of, or supported by, the subdivision 69763
under whatever law organized or authorized to be supported;69764

       (E) For a municipal university, not to exceed two mills over 69765
the limitation of one mill prescribed in section 3349.13 of the 69766
Revised Code;69767

       (F) For the construction or acquisition of any specific 69768
permanent improvement or class of improvements that the taxing 69769
authority of the subdivision may include in a single bond issue;69770

       (G) For the general construction, reconstruction, 69771
resurfacing, and repair of streets, roads, and bridges in 69772
municipal corporations, counties, or townships;69773

       (H) For parks and recreational purposes;69774

       (I) For the purpose of providing and maintaining fire 69775
apparatus, appliances, buildings, or sites therefor, or sources of 69776
water supply and materials therefor, or the establishment and 69777
maintenance of lines of fire alarm telegraph, or the payment of 69778
firefighting companies or permanent, part-time, or volunteer 69779
firefighting, emergency medical service, administrative, or 69780
communications personnel to operate the same, including the 69781
payment of any employer contributions required for such personnel 69782
under section 145.48 or 742.34 of the Revised Code, or the 69783
purchase of ambulance equipment, or the provision of ambulance, 69784
paramedic, or other emergency medical services operated by a fire 69785
department or firefighting company;69786

       (J) For the purpose of providing and maintaining motor 69787
vehicles, communications, other equipment, buildings, and sites 69788
for such buildings used directly in the operation of a police 69789
department, or the payment of salaries of permanent or part-time 69790
police, communications, or administrative personnel to operate the 69791
same, including the payment of any employer contributions required 69792
for such personnel under section 145.48 or 742.33 of the Revised 69793
Code, or the payment of the costs incurred by townships as a 69794
result of contracts made with other political subdivisions in 69795
order to obtain police protection, or the provision of ambulance 69796
or emergency medical services operated by a police department;69797

       (K) For the maintenance and operation of a county home or 69798
detention facility;69799

       (L) For community mental retardation and developmental 69800
disabilities programs and services pursuant to Chapter 5126. of 69801
the Revised Code, except that the procedure for such levies shall 69802
be as provided in section 5705.222 of the Revised Code;69803

       (M) For regional planning;69804

       (N) For a county's share of the cost of maintaining and 69805
operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry camps, 69806
or other facilities, or any combination thereof, established under 69807
section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those 69808
sections;69809

       (O) For providing for flood defense, providing and 69810
maintaining a flood wall or pumps, and other purposes to prevent 69811
floods;69812

       (P) For maintaining and operating sewage disposal plants and 69813
facilities;69814

       (Q) For the purpose of purchasing, acquiring, constructing, 69815
enlarging, improving, equipping, repairing, maintaining, or 69816
operating, or any combination of the foregoing, a county transit 69817
system pursuant to sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, 69818
or of making any payment to a board of county commissioners 69819
operating a transit system or a county transit board pursuant to 69820
section 306.06 of the Revised Code;69821

       (R) For the subdivision's share of the cost of acquiring or 69822
constructing any schools, forestry camps, detention facilities, or 69823
other facilities, or any combination thereof, under section 69824
2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those sections;69825

       (S) For the prevention, control, and abatement of air 69826
pollution;69827

       (T) For maintaining and operating cemeteries;69828

       (U) For providing ambulance service, emergency medical 69829
service, or both;69830

       (V) For providing for the collection and disposal of garbage 69831
or refuse, including yard waste;69832

       (W) For the payment of the police officer employers' 69833
contribution or the firefighter employers' contribution required 69834
under sections 742.33 and 742.34 of the Revised Code;69835

       (X) For the construction and maintenance of a drainage 69836
improvement pursuant to section 6131.52 of the Revised Code;69837

       (Y) For providing or maintaining senior citizens services or 69838
facilities as authorized by section 307.694, 307.85, 505.70, or 69839
505.706 or division (EE) of section 717.01 of the Revised Code;69840

       (Z) For the provision and maintenance of zoological park 69841
services and facilities as authorized under section 307.76 of the 69842
Revised Code;69843

       (AA) For the maintenance and operation of a free public 69844
museum of art, science, or history;69845

       (BB) For the establishment and operation of a 9-1-1 system, 69846
as defined in section 4931.40 of the Revised Code;69847

       (CC) For the purpose of acquiring, rehabilitating, or 69848
developing rail property or rail service. As used in this 69849
division, "rail property" and "rail service" have the same 69850
meanings as in section 4981.01 of the Revised Code. This division 69851
applies only to a county, township, or municipal corporation.69852

       (DD) For the purpose of acquiring property for, constructing, 69853
operating, and maintaining community centers as provided for in 69854
section 755.16 of the Revised Code;69855

       (EE) For the creation and operation of an office or joint 69856
office of economic development, for any economic development 69857
purpose of the office, and to otherwise provide for the 69858
establishment and operation of a program of economic development 69859
pursuant to sections 307.07 and 307.64 of the Revised Code, or to 69860
the extent that the expenses of a county land reutilization 69861
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code are 69862
found by the board of county commissioners to constitute the 69863
promotion of economic development, for the payment of such 69864
operations and expenses;69865

       (FF) For the purpose of acquiring, establishing, 69866
constructing, improving, equipping, maintaining, or operating, or 69867
any combination of the foregoing, a township airport, landing 69868
field, or other air navigation facility pursuant to section 505.15 69869
of the Revised Code;69870

       (GG) For the payment of costs incurred by a township as a 69871
result of a contract made with a county pursuant to section 69872
505.263 of the Revised Code in order to pay all or any part of the 69873
cost of constructing, maintaining, repairing, or operating a water 69874
supply improvement;69875

       (HH) For a board of township trustees to acquire, other than 69876
by appropriation, an ownership interest in land, water, or 69877
wetlands, or to restore or maintain land, water, or wetlands in 69878
which the board has an ownership interest, not for purposes of 69879
recreation, but for the purposes of protecting and preserving the 69880
natural, scenic, open, or wooded condition of the land, water, or 69881
wetlands against modification or encroachment resulting from 69882
occupation, development, or other use, which may be styled as 69883
protecting or preserving "greenspace" in the resolution, notice of 69884
election, or ballot form. Except as otherwise provided in this 69885
division, land is not acquired for purposes of recreation, even if 69886
the land is used for recreational purposes, so long as no 69887
building, structure, or fixture used for recreational purposes is 69888
permanently attached or affixed to the land. Except as otherwise 69889
provided in this division, land that previously has been acquired 69890
in a township for these greenspace purposes may subsequently be 69891
used for recreational purposes if the board of township trustees 69892
adopts a resolution approving that use and no building, structure, 69893
or fixture used for recreational purposes is permanently attached 69894
or affixed to the land. The authorization to use greenspace land 69895
for recreational use does not apply to land located in a township 69896
that had a population, at the time it passed its first greenspace 69897
levy, of more than thirty-eight thousand within a county that had 69898
a population, at that time, of at least eight hundred sixty 69899
thousand.69900

       (II) For the support by a county of a crime victim assistance 69901
program that is provided and maintained by a county agency or a 69902
private, nonprofit corporation or association under section 307.62 69903
of the Revised Code;69904

       (JJ) For any or all of the purposes set forth in divisions 69905
(I) and (J) of this section. This division applies only to a 69906
township.69907

       (KK) For a countywide public safety communications system 69908
under section 307.63 of the Revised Code. This division applies 69909
only to counties.69910

       (LL) For the support by a county of criminal justice services 69911
under section 307.45 of the Revised Code;69912

       (MM) For the purpose of maintaining and operating a jail or 69913
other detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 of the 69914
Revised Code;69915

       (NN) For purchasing, maintaining, or improving, or any 69916
combination of the foregoing, real estate on which to hold 69917
agricultural fairs. This division applies only to a county.69918

       (OO) For constructing, rehabilitating, repairing, or 69919
maintaining sidewalks, walkways, trails, bicycle pathways, or 69920
similar improvements, or acquiring ownership interests in land 69921
necessary for the foregoing improvements;69922

       (PP) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (G) and 69923
(OO) of this section.69924

       (QQ) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (H) and 69925
(HH) of this section. This division applies only to a township.69926

       (RR) For the legislative authority of a municipal 69927
corporation, board of county commissioners of a county, or board 69928
of township trustees of a township to acquire agricultural 69929
easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the Revised Code, and 69930
to supervise and enforce the easements.69931

       (SS) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (BB) and 69932
(KK) of this section. This division applies only to a county.69933

       (TT) For the maintenance and operation of a facility that is 69934
organized in whole or in part to promote the sciences and natural 69935
history under section 307.761 of the Revised Code.69936

       (UU) For the creation and operation of a county land 69937
reutilization corporation and for any programs or activities of 69938
the corporation found by the board of directors of the corporation 69939
to be consistent with the purposes for which the corporation is 69940
organized;69941

       (VV) For construction and maintenance of improvements and 69942
expenses of soil and water conservation district programs under 69943
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code;69944

        (WW) For the Ohio cooperative extension service fund created 69945
under section 3335.35 of the Revised Code for the purposes 69946
prescribed under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for the 69947
benefit of the citizens of a county. This division applies only to 69948
a county.69949

       (XX) For a municipal corporation that withdraws or proposes 69950
by resolution to withdraw from a regional transit authority under 69951
section 306.55 of the Revised Code to provide transportation 69952
services for the movement of persons within, from, or to the 69953
municipal corporation.69954

       The resolution shall be confined to the purpose or purposes 69955
described in one division of this section, to which the revenue 69956
derived therefrom shall be applied. The existence in any other 69957
division of this section of authority to levy a tax for any part 69958
or all of the same purpose or purposes does not preclude the use 69959
of such revenues for any part of the purpose or purposes of the 69960
division under which the resolution is adopted.69961

       The resolution shall specify the amount of the increase in 69962
rate that it is necessary to levy, the purpose of that increase in 69963
rate, and the number of years during which the increase in rate 69964
shall be in effect, which may or may not include a levy upon the 69965
duplicate of the current year. The number of years may be any 69966
number not exceeding five, except as follows:69967

       (1) When the additional rate is for the payment of debt 69968
charges, the increased rate shall be for the life of the 69969
indebtedness.69970

       (2) When the additional rate is for any of the following, the 69971
increased rate shall be for a continuing period of time:69972

       (a) For the current expenses for a detention facility 69973
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 69974
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 69975
2151.65 and 2152.41 of the Revised Code;69976

       (b) For providing a county's share of the cost of maintaining 69977
and operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry 69978
camps, or other facilities, or any combination thereof, 69979
established under section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code 69980
or under both of those sections.69981

       (3) When the additional rate is for either of the following, 69982
the increased rate may be for a continuing period of time:69983

       (a) For the purposes set forth in division (I), (J), (U), or 69984
(KK) of this section;69985

       (b) For the maintenance and operation of a joint recreation 69986
district.69987

       (4) When the increase is for the purpose or purposes set 69988
forth in division (D), (G), (H), (CC), or (PP) of this section, 69989
the tax levy may be for any specified number of years or for a 69990
continuing period of time, as set forth in the resolution.69991

       (5) When the additional rate is for the purpose described in 69992
division (Z) of this section, the increased rate shall be for any 69993
number of years not exceeding ten.69994

       A levy for one of the purposes set forth in division (G), 69995
(I), (J), or (U) of this section may be reduced pursuant to 69996
section 5705.261 or 5705.31 of the Revised Code. A levy for one of 69997
the purposes set forth in division (G), (I), (J), or (U) of this 69998
section may also be terminated or permanently reduced by the 69999
taxing authority if it adopts a resolution stating that the 70000
continuance of the levy is unnecessary and the levy shall be 70001
terminated or that the millage is excessive and the levy shall be 70002
decreased by a designated amount.70003

       A resolution of a detention facility district, a district 70004
organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a combined 70005
district organized under both sections 2151.65 and 2152.41 of the 70006
Revised Code may include both current expenses and other purposes, 70007
provided that the resolution shall apportion the annual rate of 70008
levy between the current expenses and the other purpose or 70009
purposes. The apportionment need not be the same for each year of 70010
the levy, but the respective portions of the rate actually levied 70011
each year for the current expenses and the other purpose or 70012
purposes shall be limited by the apportionment.70013

       Whenever a board of county commissioners, acting either as 70014
the taxing authority of its county or as the taxing authority of a 70015
sewer district or subdistrict created under Chapter 6117. of the 70016
Revised Code, by resolution declares it necessary to levy a tax in 70017
excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of constructing, 70018
improving, or extending sewage disposal plants or sewage systems, 70019
the tax may be in effect for any number of years not exceeding 70020
twenty, and the proceeds of the tax, notwithstanding the general 70021
provisions of this section, may be used to pay debt charges on any 70022
obligations issued and outstanding on behalf of the subdivision 70023
for the purposes enumerated in this paragraph, provided that any 70024
such obligations have been specifically described in the 70025
resolution.70026

       A resolution adopted by the legislative authority of a 70027
municipal corporation that is for the purpose in division (XX) of 70028
this section may be combined with the purpose provided in section 70029
306.55 of the Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all members 70030
of the legislative authority. The legislative authority may 70031
certify the resolution to the board of elections as a combined 70032
question. The question appearing on the ballot shall be as 70033
provided in section 5705.252 of the Revised Code.70034

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 70035
passage, and no publication of the resolution is necessary other 70036
than that provided for in the notice of election.70037

       When the electors of a subdivision have approved a tax levy 70038
under this section, the taxing authority of the subdivision may 70039
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy and issue 70040
anticipation notes in accordance with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 70041
of the Revised Code.70042

       Sec. 5705.25.  (A) A copy of any resolution adopted as 70043
provided in section 5705.19 or 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 70044
be certified by the taxing authority to the board of elections of 70045
the proper county not less than ninety days before the general 70046
election in any year, and the board shall submit the proposal to 70047
the electors of the subdivision at the succeeding November 70048
election. Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 70049
resolution to renew an existing levy, regardless of the section of 70050
the Revised Code under which the tax was imposed, shall not be 70051
placed on the ballot unless the question is submitted at the 70052
general election held during the last year the tax to be renewed 70053
or replaced may be extended on the real and public utility 70054
property tax list and duplicate, or at any election held in the 70055
ensuing year. The limitation of the foregoing sentence does not 70056
apply to a resolution to renew and increase or to renew part of an 70057
existing levy that was imposed under section 5705.191 of the 70058
Revised Code to supplement the general fund for the purpose of 70059
making appropriations for one or more of the following purposes: 70060
for public assistance, human or social services, relief, welfare, 70061
hospitalization, health, and support of general hospitals. The 70062
limitation of the second preceding sentence also does not apply to 70063
a resolution that proposes to renew two or more existing levies 70064
imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, in which case 70065
the question shall be submitted on the date of the general or 70066
primary election held during the last year at least one of the 70067
levies to be renewed may be extended on the real and public 70068
utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any election held 70069
during the ensuing year. For purposes of this section, a levy 70070
shall be considered to be an "existing levy" through the year 70071
following the last year it can be placed on that tax list and 70072
duplicate.70073

       The board shall make the necessary arrangements for the 70074
submission of such questions to the electors of such subdivision, 70075
and the election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in 70076
the same manner as regular elections in such subdivision for the 70077
election of county officers. Notice of the election shall be 70078
published in a newspaper of general circulation in the subdivision 70079
once a week for two consecutive weeks, or as provided in section 70080
7.16 of the Revised Code, prior to the election. If the board of 70081
elections operates and maintains a web site, the board of 70082
elections shall post notice of the election on its web site for 70083
thirty days prior to the election. The notice shall state the 70084
purpose, the proposed increase in rate expressed in dollars and 70085
cents for each one hundred dollars of valuation as well as in 70086
mills for each one dollar of valuation, the number of years during 70087
which the increase will be in effect, the first month and year in 70088
which the tax will be levied, and the time and place of the 70089
election.70090

       (B) The form of the ballots cast at an election held pursuant 70091
to division (A) of this section shall be as follows:70092

       "An additional tax for the benefit of (name of subdivision or 70093
public library) .......... for the purpose of (purpose stated in 70094
the resolution) .......... at a rate not exceeding ...... mills 70095
for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to (rate expressed 70096
in dollars and cents) ............ for each one hundred dollars of 70097
valuation, for ...... (life of indebtedness or number of years the 70098
levy is to run).70099

        70100

 For the Tax Levy 70101
 Against the Tax Levy  " 70102

        70103

       (C) If the levy is to be in effect for a continuing period of 70104
time, the notice of election and the form of ballot shall so state 70105
instead of setting forth a specified number of years for the levy.70106

       If the tax is to be placed on the current tax list, the form 70107
of the ballot shall be modified by adding, after the statement of 70108
the number of years the levy is to run, the phrase ", commencing 70109
in .......... (first year the tax is to be levied), first due in 70110
calendar year .......... (first calendar year in which the tax 70111
shall be due)."70112

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew, increase, or 70113
decrease an existing levy, the form of the ballot specified in 70114
division (B) of this section may be changed by substituting for 70115
the words "An additional" at the beginning of the form, the words 70116
"A renewal of a" in case of a proposal to renew an existing levy 70117
in the same amount; the words "A renewal of ........ mills and an 70118
increase of ...... mills to constitute a" in the case of an 70119
increase; or the words "A renewal of part of an existing levy, 70120
being a reduction of ...... mills, to constitute a" in the case of 70121
a decrease in the proposed levy.70122

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew two or more 70123
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, 70124
the form of the ballot specified in division (B) of this section 70125
shall be modified by substituting for the words "an additional 70126
tax" the words "a renewal of ....(insert the number of levies to 70127
be renewed) existing taxes."70128

       If the levy submitted is a levy under section 5705.72 of the 70129
Revised Code or a proposal to renew, increase, or decrease an 70130
existing levy imposed under that section, the name of the 70131
subdivision shall be "the unincorporated area of .......... (name 70132
of township)." 70133

       The question covered by such resolution shall be submitted as 70134
a separate proposition but may be printed on the same ballot with 70135
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 70136
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 70137
submitted at the same election.70138

       (D) A levy voted in excess of the ten-mill limitation under 70139
this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In the 70140
first year of the levy, it shall be extended on the tax lists 70141
after the February settlement succeeding the election. If the 70142
additional tax is to be placed upon the tax list of the current 70143
year, as specified in the resolution providing for its submission, 70144
the result of the election shall be certified immediately after 70145
the canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, who 70146
shall make the necessary levy and certify it to the county 70147
auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for collection. 70148
After the first year, the tax levy shall be included in the annual 70149
tax budget that is certified to the county budget commission.70150

       Sec. 5705.252.  (A) If the legislative authority of a 70151
municipal corporation adopts a resolution for the purposes 70152
provided in section 306.55 of the Revised Code and division (XX) 70153
of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code and certifies the 70154
resolution to the board of elections as a combined question, the 70155
question appearing on the ballot shall read:70156

       "Shall the territory within the ...... (name of municipal 70157
corporation) be withdrawn from ...... (name of regional transit 70158
authority) and shall an additional tax be levied for the benefit 70159
of ...... (name of municipal corporation) ...... for the purpose 70160
of providing transportation services for the movement of persons 70161
within, from, or to the ...... (name of municipal corporation) at 70162
a rate not exceeding ...... mills for each one dollar of 70163
valuation, which amounts to ...... (rate expressed in dollars and 70164
cents) for each one hundred dollars of valuation, for ...... 70165
(number of years the levy is to run)?"70166

       (B) If the board of trustees of a township adopts a 70167
resolution for the purposes provided in sections 306.55 and 70168
5705.72 of the Revised Code and certifies the resolution to the 70169
board of elections as a combined question, the question appearing 70170
on the ballot in the unincorporated area of the township shall 70171
read:70172

       "Shall the territory within the unincorporated area of ...... 70173
(name of township) be withdrawn from ...... (name of regional 70174
transit authority) and shall an additional tax be levied for the 70175
benefit of the unincorporated area of ...... (name of township) 70176
for the purpose of providing transportation services for the 70177
movement of persons within, from, or to the unincorporated area of 70178
...... (name of township) at a rate not exceeding ...... mills for 70179
each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to ...... (rate 70180
expressed in dollars and cents) for each one hundred dollars of 70181
valuation, for ...... (number of years the levy is to run)?70182

       Sec. 5705.28.  (A) Except as provided in division (B)(1) or 70183
(2) of this section or in section 5705.281 of the Revised Code, 70184
the taxing authority of each subdivision or other taxing unit 70185
shall adopt a tax budget for the next succeeding fiscal year:70186

       (1) On or before the fifteenth day of January in the case of 70187
a school districtdistricts and the city of Cincinnati;70188

       (2) On or before the fifteenth day of July in the case of all 70189
other subdivisions and taxing units.70190

       (B)(1) Before the first day of June in each year, the board 70191
of trustees of a school library district entitled to participate 70192
in any appropriation or revenue of a school district or to have a 70193
tax proposed by the board of education of a school district shall 70194
file with the board of education of the school district a tax 70195
budget for the ensuing fiscal year. On or before the fifteenth day 70196
of July in each year, the board of education of a school district 70197
to which a school library district tax budget was submitted under 70198
this division shall adopt such tax budget on behalf of the library 70199
district, but such budget shall not be part of the school 70200
district's tax budget.70201

       (2)(a) The taxing authority of a taxing unit that does not 70202
levy a tax is not required to adopt a tax budget pursuant to 70203
division (A) of this section. Instead, on or before the fifteenth 70204
day of July each year, such taxing authority shall adopt an 70205
operating budget for the taxing unit for the ensuing fiscal year. 70206
The operating budget shall include an estimate of receipts from 70207
all sources, a statement of all taxing unit expenses that are 70208
anticipated to occur, and the amount required for debt charges 70209
during the fiscal year. The operating budget is not required to be 70210
filed with the county auditor or the county budget commission.70211

       (b) Except for this section and sections 5705.36, 5705.38, 70212
5705.40, 5705.41, 5705.43, 5705.44, and 5705.45 of the Revised 70213
Code, a taxing unit that does not levy a tax is not a taxing unit 70214
for purposes of Chapter 5705. of the Revised Code. Documents 70215
prepared in accordance with such sections are not required to be 70216
filed with the county auditor or county budget commission.70217

       (c) The total appropriations from each fund of a taxing unit 70218
that does not levy a tax shall not exceed the total estimated 70219
revenue available for expenditures from the fund, and 70220
appropriations shall be made from each fund only for the purposes 70221
for which the fund is established.70222

       (C)(1) To assist in the preparation of the tax budget, the 70223
head of each department, board, commission, and district authority 70224
entitled to participate in any appropriation or revenue of a 70225
subdivision shall file with the taxing authority, or in the case 70226
of a municipal corporation, with its chief executive officer, 70227
before the forty-fifth day prior to the date on which the budget 70228
must be adopted, an estimate of contemplated revenue and 70229
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year, in such form as is 70230
prescribed by the taxing authority of the subdivision or by the 70231
auditor of state. The taxing authority shall include in its budget 70232
of expenditures the full amounts requested by district 70233
authorities, not to exceed the amount authorized by law, if such 70234
authorities may fix the amount of revenue they are to receive from 70235
the subdivision. In a municipal corporation in which a special 70236
levy for a municipal university has been authorized to be levied 70237
in excess of the ten-mill limitation, or is required by the 70238
charter of the municipal corporation, the taxing authority shall 70239
include an amount not less than the estimated yield of such levy, 70240
if such amount is requested by the board of directors of the 70241
municipal university.70242

       (2) A county board of developmental disabilities may include 70243
within its estimate of contemplated revenue and expenditures a 70244
reserve balance account in the community developmental 70245
disabilities residential services fund. The account shall contain 70246
money that is not needed to pay for current expenses for 70247
residential services and supported living but will be needed to 70248
pay for expenses for such services in the future or may be needed 70249
for unanticipated emergency expenses. On the request of the county 70250
board of developmental disabilities, the board of county 70251
commissioners shall include such an account in its budget of 70252
expenditures and appropriate money to the account from residential 70253
service moneys for the county board.70254

       (D) The board of trustees of any public library desiring to 70255
participate in the distribution of the county public library fund 70256
shall adopt appropriate rules extending the benefits of the 70257
library service of such library to all the inhabitants of the 70258
county on equal terms, unless such library service is by law 70259
available to all such inhabitants, and shall certify a copy of 70260
such rules to the taxing authority with its estimate of 70261
contemplated revenue and expenditures. Where such rules have been 70262
so certified or where the adoption of such rules is not required, 70263
the taxing authority shall include in its budget of receipts such 70264
amounts as are specified by such board as contemplated revenue 70265
from the county public library fund, and in its budget of 70266
expenditures the full amounts requested therefrom by such board. 70267
No library association, incorporated or unincorporated, is 70268
entitled to participate in the proceeds of the county public 70269
library fund unless such association both was organized and 70270
operating prior to January 1, 1968, and participated in the 70271
distribution of the proceeds of the county public library fund 70272
prior to December 31, 2005.70273

       Sec. 5705.30.  This section does not apply to a subdivision 70274
for which the county budget commission has waived the requirement 70275
to adopt a tax budget under section 5705.281 of the Revised Code.70276

       In addition to the information required by section 5705.29 of 70277
the Revised Code, the budget of each subdivision and school 70278
library district shall include such other information as is 70279
prescribed by the auditor of state. At least two copies of the 70280
budget shall be filed in the office of the fiscal officer of the 70281
subdivision for public inspection not less than ten days before 70282
its adoption by the taxing authority, and such taxing authority 70283
shall hold at least one public hearing thereon, of which public 70284
notice shall be given by at least one publication not less than 70285
ten days prior to the date of hearing in the official publication 70286
of such subdivision, or in a newspaper having general circulation 70287
in the subdivision. The budget, after adoption, shall be submitted 70288
to the county auditor on or before the twentieth day of July, or 70289
in the case of a school district or the city of Cincinnati, by the 70290
twentieth day of January. The tax commissioner may prescribe a 70291
later date for the submission of a subdivision's tax budget. Any 70292
subdivision that fails to submit its budget to the county auditor 70293
on or before the twentieth day of July, unless the commissioner on 70294
or before the twentieth day of July prescribesdate prescribed by 70295
this section or a later date for submission of the budget by that 70296
subdivision,prescribed by the commissioner shall not receive an 70297
apportionment from the undivided local government fund 70298
distribution for the ensuing calendar year, unless upon review of 70299
the matter the commissioner determines that the budget was adopted 70300
by the subdivision on or before the fifteenthfifth day of July70301
before the date prescribed by this section for submitting the 70302
budget, but was not submitted to the county auditor by the 70303
twentieth day of Julydate so prescribed or the later time 70304
prescribed by the commissioner because of ministerial error by the 70305
subdivision or its officers, employees, or other representatives.70306

       Sec. 5705.34.  When the budget commission has completed its 70307
work with respect to a tax budget or other information required to 70308
be provided under section 5705.281 of the Revised Code, it shall 70309
certify its action to the taxing authority, together with an 70310
estimate by the county auditor of the rate of each tax necessary 70311
to be levied by the taxing authority within its subdivision or 70312
taxing unit, and what part thereof is in excess of, and what part 70313
within, the ten-mill tax limitation. The certification shall also 70314
indicate the date on which each tax levied by the taxing authority 70315
will expire.70316

       If a taxing authority levies a tax for a fixed sum of money 70317
or to pay debt charges for the tax year for which the tax budget 70318
is prepared, and a payment on account of that tax is payable to 70319
the taxing authority for the tax year under section 5727.85, 70320
5727.86, 5751.21, or 5751.22 of the Revised Code, the county 70321
auditor, when estimating the rate at which the tax shall be levied 70322
in the current year, shall estimate the rate necessary to raise 70323
the required sum less the estimated amount of any payments made 70324
for the tax year to a taxing unit for fixed-sum levies under those 70325
sections. The estimated rate shall be the rate of the levy that 70326
the budget commission certifies with its action under this 70327
section.70328

       Each taxing authority, by ordinance or resolution, shall 70329
authorize the necessary tax levies and certify them to the county 70330
auditor before the first day of October in each year, or at such 70331
later date as is approved by the tax commissioner, except that the 70332
certification by the legislative authority of the city of 70333
Cincinnati or by a board of education shall be made by the first 70334
day of April or at such later date as is approved by the 70335
commissioner, and except that a township board of park 70336
commissioners that is appointed by the board of township trustees 70337
and oversees a township park district that contains only 70338
unincorporated territory shall authorize only those taxes approved 70339
by, and only at the rate approved by, the board of township 70340
trustees as required by division (C) of section 511.27 of the 70341
Revised Code. If the levying of a tax to be placed on the 70342
duplicate of the current year is approved by the electors of the 70343
subdivision under sections 5705.01 to 5705.47 of the Revised Code; 70344
if the rate of a school district tax is increased due to the 70345
repeal of a school district income tax and property tax rate 70346
reduction at an election held pursuant to section 5748.04 of the 70347
Revised Code; or if refunding bonds to refund all or a part of the 70348
principal of bonds payable from a tax levy for the ensuing fiscal 70349
year are issued or sold and in the process of delivery, the budget 70350
commission shall reconsider and revise its action on the budget of 70351
the subdivision or school library district for whose benefit the 70352
tax is to be levied after the returns of such election are fully 70353
canvassed, or after the issuance or sale of such refunding bonds 70354
is certified to it.70355

       Sec. 5705.35.  (A) The certification of the budget commission 70356
to the taxing authority of each subdivision or taxing unit, as set 70357
forth in section 5705.34 of the Revised Code, shall show the 70358
various funds of such subdivisions other than funds to be created 70359
by transfer and shall be filed by the county budget commission 70360
with such taxing authority on or before the first day of March in 70361
the case of school districts and the city of Cincinnati and on or 70362
before the first day of September in each year in the case of all 70363
other taxing authorities. There shall be set forth on the credit 70364
side of each fund the estimated unencumbered balances and 70365
receipts, and if a tax is to be levied for such fund, the 70366
estimated revenue to be derived therefrom, the rate of the levy, 70367
and what portion thereof is within, and what in excess of, the 70368
ten-mill tax limitation, and on the debit side, the total 70369
appropriations that may be made therefrom. Subject to division (G) 70370
of section 5705.29 of the Revised Code, any reserve balance in an 70371
account established under section 5705.13 of the Revised Code for 70372
the purpose described in division (A)(1) of that section, and the 70373
principal of a nonexpendable trust fund established under section 70374
5705.131 of the Revised Code and any additions to principal 70375
arising from sources other than the reinvestment of investment 70376
earnings arising from that fund, are not unencumbered balances for 70377
the purposes of this section. The balance in a reserve balance 70378
account established under section 5705.132 of the Revised Code is 70379
not an unencumbered balance for the purposes of this division.70380

       There shall be attached to the certification a summary, which 70381
shall be known as the "official certificate of estimated 70382
resources," that shall state the total estimated resources of each 70383
fund of the subdivision that are available for appropriation in 70384
the fiscal year, other than funds to be created by transfer, and a 70385
statement of the amount of the total tax duplicate of the school 70386
district to be used in the collection of taxes for the following 70387
calendar year. Before the end of the fiscal year, the taxing 70388
authority of each subdivision and other taxing unit shall revise 70389
its tax budget, if one was adopted, so that the total contemplated 70390
expenditures from any fund during the ensuing fiscal year will not 70391
exceed the total appropriations that may be made from such fund, 70392
as determined by the budget commission in its certification; and 70393
such revised budget shall be the basis of the annual appropriation 70394
measure.70395

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of 70396
this section, revenues from real property taxes scheduled to be 70397
settled on or before the tenth day of August and the fifteenth day 70398
of February of a fiscal year under divisions (A) and (C) of 70399
section 321.24 of the Revised Code, and revenue from taxes levied 70400
on personal property used in business scheduled to be settled on 70401
or before the thirty-first day of October and the thirtieth day of 70402
June of a fiscal year under divisions (B) and (D) of section 70403
321.24 of the Revised Code shall not be available for 70404
appropriation by a board of education prior to the fiscal year in 70405
which such latest scheduled settlement date occurs, except that 70406
moneys advanced to the treasurer of a board of education under 70407
division (A)(2)(b) of section 321.34 of the Revised Code shall be 70408
available for appropriation in the fiscal year in which they are 70409
paid to the treasurer under such section. If the date for any 70410
settlement of taxes is extended under division (E) of section 70411
321.24 of the Revised Code, the latest date set forth in divisions 70412
(A) to (D) of that section shall be used to determine in which 70413
fiscal year the revenues are first available for appropriation.70414

       (2) Revenues available for appropriation by a school district 70415
during a fiscal year may include amounts borrowed in that fiscal 70416
year under section 133.301 of the Revised Code in anticipation of 70417
the collection of taxes that are to be included in the settlements 70418
made under divisions (C) and (D) of section 321.24 of the Revised 70419
Code in the ensuing fiscal year.70420

       Sec. 5705.38.  (A) This division does not apply to school 70421
district appropriation measures. On or about the first day of each 70422
fiscal year, the taxing authority of each subdivision or other 70423
taxing unit shall pass an appropriation measure, and thereafter 70424
during the year it may pass any supplemental appropriation 70425
measures as it finds necessary, based on the revised tax budget or 70426
the official certificate of estimated resources or amendments of 70427
the certificate. If it desires to postpone the passage of the 70428
annual appropriation measure until an amended certificate is 70429
received based on the actual balances, it may pass a temporary 70430
appropriation measure for meeting the ordinary expenses of the 70431
taxing unit until no later than the first day of April or, in the 70432
case of the city of Cincinnati, the first day of October, of the 70433
current year, and the appropriations made in the temporary measure 70434
shall be chargeable to the appropriations in the annual 70435
appropriation measure for that fiscal year when passed.70436

       (B) A board of education shall pass its annual appropriation 70437
measure by the first day of October. If, by the first day of 70438
October, a board has not received either the amended certificates 70439
of estimated resources required by division (B) of section 5705.36 70440
of the Revised Code or certifications that no amended certificates 70441
need be issued, the adoption of the annual appropriation measure 70442
shall be delayed until the amended certificates or certifications 70443
are received. Prior to the passage of the annual appropriation 70444
measure, the board may pass a temporary appropriation measure for 70445
meeting the ordinary expenses of the district until it passes an 70446
annual appropriation measure, and appropriations made in the 70447
temporary measure shall be chargeable to the appropriations in the 70448
annual appropriation measure for that fiscal year when passed. 70449
During the fiscal year and after the passage of the annual 70450
appropriation measure, a district may pass any supplemental 70451
appropriation measures as it finds necessary, based on the revised 70452
tax budget or the official certificate of estimated resources or 70453
amendments of the certificate. School district appropriation 70454
measures shall be in the form as the auditor of state, after 70455
consultation with the tax commissioner, prescribes.70456

       (C) Appropriation measures shall be classified so as to set 70457
forth separately the amounts appropriated for each office, 70458
department, and division, and, within each, the amount 70459
appropriated for personal services. In the case of a municipal 70460
university, the board of directors of which have assumed, in the 70461
manner provided by law, custody and control of the funds of the 70462
university, funds shall be appropriated as a lump sum for the use 70463
of the university.70464

       Sec. 5705.72. (A) As used in this section and in section 70465
5705.25 of the Revised Code with regard to a levy submitted under 70466
this section, "electors" means electors of the unincorporated area 70467
of a township.70468

       (B) The board of trustees of any township that withdraws or 70469
proposes by resolution to withdraw the unincorporated area of the 70470
township from a regional transit authority under section 306.55 of 70471
the Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all the members of the 70472
board of trustees, may declare by resolution that the amount of 70473
taxes that may be raised within the ten-mill limitation will be 70474
insufficient to provide transportation services to the 70475
unincorporated area of the township and that it is necessary to 70476
levy a tax in excess of that limitation within the unincorporated 70477
area of that township for the purpose of providing transportation 70478
services for the movement of persons within, from, or to the 70479
unincorporated area of that township. 70480

       The resolution shall specify the necessary amount of the 70481
increase in rate to levy, the purpose of such increase, and the 70482
number of years, not exceeding ten, during which the rate increase 70483
shall be in effect, which may or may not include a levy upon the 70484
tax list of the current year.70485

       The resolution shall be submitted to the proper county board 70486
of elections not less than ninety days before the date of the 70487
election at which the question will appear on the ballot and in 70488
the manner provided by section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except 70489
that the question may be submitted to electors at a general 70490
election or a special election held on a date consistent with 70491
section 3501.01 of the Revised Code. 70492

       A resolution adopted by the board of trustees of a township 70493
under this section may be combined with a resolution for the 70494
withdrawal of the unincorporated area of the township from a 70495
regional transit authority as provided in section 306.55 of the 70496
Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all members of the board. 70497
The board may certify the combined resolution to the board of 70498
elections as a combined question. The question appearing on the 70499
ballot shall be as provided in section 5705.252 of the Revised 70500
Code.70501

       When electors have approved a tax levy under this section, 70502
the board of township trustees may anticipate a fraction of the 70503
proceeds of the levy and issue anticipation notes as authorized by 70504
section 5705.191 of the Revised Code for a current expense levy 70505
with a fixed term, and may anticipate the collection of current 70506
revenue under section 133.10 of the Revised Code.70507

       Sec. 5709.084. Real and personal property comprising a 70508
convention center that is constructed or, in the case of personal 70509
property, acquired, after January 1, 2010, are exempt from 70510
taxation if the convention center is located in a county having a 70511
population, when construction of the convention center commences, 70512
of more than one million two hundred thousand according to the 70513
most recent federal decennial census, and if the convention 70514
center, or the land upon which the convention center is situated, 70515
is owned or leased by the county. For the purposes of this 70516
section, construction of the convention center commences upon the 70517
earlier of issuance of debt to finance all or a portion of the 70518
convention center, demolition of existing structures on the site, 70519
or grading of the site in preparation for construction.70520

       Real and personal property comprising a convention center 70521
owned by the largest city in a county having a population greater 70522
than seven hundred thousand but less than nine hundred thousand 70523
according to the most recent federal decennial census is exempt 70524
from taxation, regardless of whether the property is leased to or 70525
otherwise operated or managed by a person other than the city.70526

       Real and personal property comprising a convention center 70527
owned by a convention facilities authority in a county having a 70528
population greater than one million according to the most recent 70529
federal decennial census is exempt from taxation, regardless of 70530
whether the property is leased to or otherwise operated or managed 70531
by a person other than the convention facilities authority.70532

       As used in this section, "convention center" has the same 70533
meaning as in section 307.695 of the Revised Code.70534

       Sec. 5709.12.  (A) As used in this section, "independent 70535
living facilities" means any residential housing facilities and 70536
related property that are not a nursing home, residential care 70537
facility, or adult careresidential facility as defined in 70538
division (A) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.70539

       (B) Lands, houses, and other buildings belonging to a county, 70540
township, or municipal corporation and used exclusively for the 70541
accommodation or support of the poor, or leased to the state or 70542
any political subdivision for public purposes shall be exempt from 70543
taxation. Real and tangible personal property belonging to 70544
institutions that is used exclusively for charitable purposes 70545
shall be exempt from taxation, including real property belonging 70546
to an institution that is a nonprofit corporation that receives a 70547
grant under the Thomas Alva Edison grant program authorized by 70548
division (C) of section 122.33 of the Revised Code at any time 70549
during the tax year and being held for leasing or resale to 70550
others. If, at any time during a tax year for which such property 70551
is exempted from taxation, the corporation ceases to qualify for 70552
such a grant, the director of development shall notify the tax 70553
commissioner, and the tax commissioner shall cause the property to 70554
be restored to the tax list beginning with the following tax year. 70555
All property owned and used by a nonprofit organization 70556
exclusively for a home for the aged, as defined in section 5701.13 70557
of the Revised Code, also shall be exempt from taxation.70558

       (C)(1) If a home for the aged described in division (B)(1) of 70559
section 5701.13 of the Revised Code is operated in conjunction 70560
with or at the same site as independent living facilities, the 70561
exemption granted in division (B) of this section shall include 70562
kitchen, dining room, clinic, entry ways, maintenance and storage 70563
areas, and land necessary for access commonly used by both 70564
residents of the home for the aged and residents of the 70565
independent living facilities. Other facilities commonly used by 70566
both residents of the home for the aged and residents of 70567
independent living units shall be exempt from taxation only if the 70568
other facilities are used primarily by the residents of the home 70569
for the aged. Vacant land currently unused by the home, and 70570
independent living facilities and the lands connected with them 70571
are not exempt from taxation. Except as provided in division 70572
(A)(1) of section 5709.121 of the Revised Code, property of a home 70573
leased for nonresidential purposes is not exempt from taxation.70574

       (2) Independent living facilities are exempt from taxation if 70575
they are operated in conjunction with or at the same site as a 70576
home for the aged described in division (B)(2) of section 5701.13 70577
of the Revised Code; operated by a corporation, association, or 70578
trust described in division (B)(1)(b) of that section; operated 70579
exclusively for the benefit of members of the corporation, 70580
association, or trust who are retired, aged, or infirm; and 70581
provided to those members without charge in consideration of their 70582
service, without compensation, to a charitable, religious, 70583
fraternal, or educational institution. For the purposes of 70584
division (C)(2) of this section, "compensation" does not include 70585
furnishing room and board, clothing, health care, or other 70586
necessities, or stipends or other de minimis payments to defray 70587
the cost thereof.70588

       (D)(1) A private corporation established under federal law, 70589
defined in 36 U.S.C. 1101, Pub. L. No. 102-199, 105 Stat. 1629, as 70590
amended, the objects of which include encouraging the advancement 70591
of science generally, or of a particular branch of science, the 70592
promotion of scientific research, the improvement of the 70593
qualifications and usefulness of scientists, or the increase and 70594
diffusion of scientific knowledge is conclusively presumed to be a 70595
charitable or educational institution. A private corporation 70596
established as a nonprofit corporation under the laws of a state, 70597
that is exempt from federal income taxation under section 70598
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 70599
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and has as its principal purpose one or 70600
more of the foregoing objects, also is conclusively presumed to be 70601
a charitable or educational institution.70602

       The fact that an organization described in this division 70603
operates in a manner that results in an excess of revenues over 70604
expenses shall not be used to deny the exemption granted by this 70605
section, provided such excess is used, or is held for use, for 70606
exempt purposes or to establish a reserve against future 70607
contingencies; and, provided further, that such excess may not be 70608
distributed to individual persons or to entities that would not be 70609
entitled to the tax exemptions provided by this chapter. Nor shall 70610
the fact that any scientific information diffused by the 70611
organization is of particular interest or benefit to any of its 70612
individual members be used to deny the exemption granted by this 70613
section, provided that such scientific information is available to 70614
the public for purchase or otherwise.70615

       (2) Division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to real 70616
property exempted from taxation under this section and division 70617
(A)(3) of section 5709.121 of the Revised Code and belonging to a 70618
nonprofit corporation described in division (D)(1) of this section 70619
that has received a grant under the Thomas Alva Edison grant 70620
program authorized by division (C) of section 122.33 of the 70621
Revised Code during any of the tax years the property was exempted 70622
from taxation.70623

       When a private corporation described in division (D)(1) of 70624
this section sells all or any portion of a tract, lot, or parcel 70625
of real estate that has been exempt from taxation under this 70626
section and section 5709.121 of the Revised Code, the portion sold 70627
shall be restored to the tax list for the year following the year 70628
of the sale and, except in connection with a sale and transfer of 70629
such a tract, lot, or parcel to a county land reutilization 70630
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code, a 70631
charge shall be levied against the sold property in an amount 70632
equal to the tax savings on such property during the four tax 70633
years preceding the year the property is placed on the tax list. 70634
The tax savings equals the amount of the additional taxes that 70635
would have been levied if such property had not been exempt from 70636
taxation.70637

       The charge constitutes a lien of the state upon such property 70638
as of the first day of January of the tax year in which the charge 70639
is levied and continues until discharged as provided by law. The 70640
charge may also be remitted for all or any portion of such 70641
property that the tax commissioner determines is entitled to 70642
exemption from real property taxation for the year such property 70643
is restored to the tax list under any provision of the Revised 70644
Code, other than sections 725.02, 1728.10, 3735.67, 5709.40, 70645
5709.41, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.71, 5709.73, 5709.78, and 5709.84, 70646
upon an application for exemption covering the year such property 70647
is restored to the tax list filed under section 5715.27 of the 70648
Revised Code.70649

       (E) Real property held by an organization organized and 70650
operated exclusively for charitable purposes as described under 70651
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and exempt from 70652
federal taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue 70653
Code, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(a) and (c)(3), as amended, for the purpose 70654
of constructing or rehabilitating residences for eventual transfer 70655
to qualified low-income families through sale, lease, or land 70656
installment contract, shall be exempt from taxation.70657

       The exemption shall commence on the day title to the property 70658
is transferred to the organization and shall continue to the end 70659
of the tax year in which the organization transfers title to the 70660
property to a qualified low-income family. In no case shall the 70661
exemption extend beyond the second succeeding tax year following 70662
the year in which the title was transferred to the organization. 70663
If the title is transferred to the organization and from the 70664
organization to a qualified low-income family in the same tax 70665
year, the exemption shall continue to the end of that tax year. 70666
The proportionate amount of taxes that are a lien but not yet 70667
determined, assessed, and levied for the tax year in which title 70668
is transferred to the organization shall be remitted by the county 70669
auditor for each day of the year that title is held by the 70670
organization.70671

       Upon transferring the title to another person, the 70672
organization shall file with the county auditor an affidavit 70673
affirming that the title was transferred to a qualified low-income 70674
family or that the title was not transferred to a qualified 70675
low-income family, as the case may be; if the title was 70676
transferred to a qualified low-income family, the affidavit shall 70677
identify the transferee by name. If the organization transfers 70678
title to the property to anyone other than a qualified low-income 70679
family, the exemption, if it has not previously expired, shall 70680
terminate, and the property shall be restored to the tax list for 70681
the year following the year of the transfer and a charge shall be 70682
levied against the property in an amount equal to the amount of 70683
additional taxes that would have been levied if such property had 70684
not been exempt from taxation. The charge constitutes a lien of 70685
the state upon such property as of the first day of January of the 70686
tax year in which the charge is levied and continues until 70687
discharged as provided by law.70688

       The application for exemption shall be filed as otherwise 70689
required under section 5715.27 of the Revised Code, except that 70690
the organization holding the property shall file with its 70691
application documentation substantiating its status as an 70692
organization organized and operated exclusively for charitable 70693
purposes under section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code and 70694
its qualification for exemption from federal taxation under 70695
section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code, and affirming its 70696
intention to construct or rehabilitate the property for the 70697
eventual transfer to qualified low-income families.70698

       As used in this division, "qualified low-income family" means 70699
a family whose income does not exceed two hundred per cent of the 70700
official federal poverty guidelines as revised annually in 70701
accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 70702
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902, as 70703
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the family whose 70704
income is being determined.70705

       (F) Real property held by a county land reutilization 70706
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code 70707
shall be exempt from taxation. Notwithstanding section 5715.27 of 70708
the Revised Code, a county land reutilization corporation is not 70709
required to apply to any county or state agency in order to 70710
qualify for the exemption.70711

       The exemption shall commence on the day title to the property 70712
is transferred to the corporation and shall continue to the end of 70713
the tax year in which the instrument transferring title from the 70714
corporation to another owner is recorded, if the use to which the 70715
other owner puts the property does not qualify for an exemption 70716
under this section or any other section of the Revised Code. If 70717
the title to the property is transferred to the corporation and 70718
from the corporation in the same tax year, the exemption shall 70719
continue to the end of that tax year. The proportionate amount of 70720
taxes that are a lien but not yet determined, assessed, and levied 70721
for the tax year in which title is transferred to the corporation 70722
shall be remitted by the county auditor for each day of the year 70723
that title is held by the corporation. 70724

       Upon transferring the title to another person, the 70725
corporation shall file with the county auditor an affidavit 70726
affirming that the title was transferred to such other person and 70727
shall identify the transferee by name. If the corporation 70728
transfers title to the property to anyone that does not qualify or 70729
the use to which the property is put does not qualify the property 70730
for an exemption under this section or any other section of the 70731
Revised Code, the exemption, if it has not previously expired, 70732
shall terminate, and the property shall be restored to the tax 70733
list for the year following the year of the transfer. A charge 70734
shall be levied against the property in an amount equal to the 70735
amount of additional taxes that would have been levied if such 70736
property had not been exempt from taxation. The charge constitutes 70737
a lien of the state upon such property as of the first day of 70738
January of the tax year in which the charge is levied and 70739
continues until discharged as provided by law. 70740

       In lieu of the application for exemption otherwise required 70741
to be filed as required under section 5715.27 of the Revised Code, 70742
a count land reutilization corporation holding the property shall, 70743
upon the request of any county or state agency, submit its 70744
articles of incorporation substantiating its status as a county 70745
land reutilization corporation.70746

       Sec. 5709.121. (A) Real property and tangible personal 70747
property belonging to a charitable or educational institution or 70748
to the state or a political subdivision, shall be considered as 70749
used exclusively for charitable or public purposes by such 70750
institution, the state, or political subdivision, if it meets one 70751
of the following requirements:70752

       (1) It is used by such institution, the state, or political 70753
subdivision, or by one or more other such institutions, the state, 70754
or political subdivisions under a lease, sublease, or other 70755
contractual arrangement:70756

       (a) As a community or area center in which presentations in 70757
music, dramatics, the arts, and related fields are made in order 70758
to foster public interest and education therein;70759

       (b) For other charitable, educational, or public purposes.70760

       (2) It is made available under the direction or control of 70761
such institution, the state, or political subdivision for use in 70762
furtherance of or incidental to its charitable, educational, or 70763
public purposes and not with the view to profit.70764

       (3) It is used by an organization described in division (D) 70765
of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code. If the organization is a 70766
corporation that receives a grant under the Thomas Alva Edison 70767
grant program authorized by division (C) of section 122.33 of the 70768
Revised Code at any time during the tax year, "used," for the 70769
purposes of this division, includes holding property for lease or 70770
resale to others.70771

       (B)(1) Property described in division (A)(1)(a) of this 70772
section shall continue to be considered as used exclusively for 70773
charitable or public purposes even if the property is conveyed 70774
through one conveyance or a series of conveyances to an entity 70775
that is not a charitable or educational institution and is not the 70776
state or a political subdivision, provided that all of the 70777
following conditions apply with respect to that property:70778

        (a) The property has been listed as exempt on the county 70779
auditor's tax list and duplicate for the county in which it is 70780
located for the ten tax years immediately preceding the year in 70781
which the property is conveyed through one conveyance or a series 70782
of conveyances;70783

        (b) The owner to which the property is conveyed through one 70784
conveyance or a series of conveyances leasesto an owner that does 70785
any of the following:70786

       (i) Leases the property through one lease or a series of 70787
leases to the entity that owned or occupied the property for the 70788
ten tax years immediately preceding the year in which the property 70789
is conveyed or to an affiliate of such prior owner or occupant70790
that entity;70791

       (ii) Contracts to have renovations performed as described in 70792
division (B)(1)(d) of this section and is at least partially owned 70793
by a nonprofit organization described in section 501(c)(3) of the 70794
Internal Revenue Code that is exempt from taxation under section 70795
501(a) of that code.70796

        (c) The property includes improvements that are at least 70797
fifty years old;70798

        (d) The property is being renovated in connection with a 70799
claim for historic preservation tax credits available under 70800
federal law;70801

        (e) The property continues to be used for the purposes 70802
described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section after its 70803
conveyance; and70804

        (f) The property is certified by the United States secretary 70805
of the interior as a "certified historic structure" or certified 70806
as part of a certified historic structure.70807

        (2) Notwithstanding section 5715.27 of the Revised Code, an 70808
application for exemption from taxation of property described in 70809
division (B)(1) of this section may be filed by either the owner 70810
of the property or its occupant.70811

       (C) For purposes of this section, an institution that meets 70812
all of the following requirements is conclusively presumed to be a 70813
charitable institution:70814

       (1) The institution is a nonprofit corporation or 70815
association, no part of the net earnings of which inures to the 70816
benefit of any private shareholder or individual;70817

       (2) The institution is exempt from federal income taxation 70818
under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code;70819

       (3) The majority of the institution's board of directors are 70820
appointed by the mayor or legislative authority of a municipal 70821
corporation or a board of county commissioners, or a combination 70822
thereof;70823

       (4) The primary purpose of the institution is to assist in 70824
the development and revitalization of downtown urban areas.70825

       Sec. 5709.212.  (A) With every application for an exempt 70826
facility certificate filed pursuant to section 5709.21 of the 70827
Revised Code, the applicant shall pay a fee equal to one-half of 70828
one per cent of the total exempt facility project cost, not to 70829
exceed two thousand dollars. One-half of the fee received with 70830
applications for exempt facility certificates shall be credited to 70831
the exempt facility administrative fund, which is hereby created 70832
in the state treasury, for appropriation to the department of 70833
taxation for use in administering sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of 70834
the Revised Code. If the director of environmental protection is 70835
required to provide the opinion for an application, one-half of 70836
the fee shall be credited to the non-Title V clean air fund 70837
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code for use in 70838
administering section 5709.211 of the Revised Code, unless the 70839
application is for an industrial water pollution control facility. 70840
If the application is for an industrial water pollution control 70841
facility, one-half of the fee shall be credited to the surface 70842
water protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised 70843
Code for use in administering section 5709.211 of the Revised 70844
Code. If the director of development is required to provide the 70845
opinion for an application, one-half of the fee for each exempt 70846
facility application shall be credited to the exempt facility 70847
inspection fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury, 70848
for appropriation to the department of development for use in 70849
administering section 5709.211 of the Revised Code.70850

       An applicant is not entitled to any tax exemption under 70851
section 5709.25 of the Revised Code until the fee required by this 70852
section is paid. The fee required by this section is not 70853
refundable, and is due with the application for an exempt facility 70854
certificate even if an exempt facility certificate ultimately is 70855
not issued or is withdrawn. Any application submitted without 70856
payment of the fee shall be deemed incomplete until the fee is 70857
paid.70858

       (B) The application fee imposed under division (A) of this 70859
section for a jointly owned facility shall be equal to one-half of 70860
one per cent of the total exempt facility project cost, not to 70861
exceed two thousand dollars for each facility that is the subject 70862
of the application.70863

       Sec. 5709.43.  (A) A municipal corporation that grants a tax 70864
exemption under section 5709.40 of the Revised Code shall 70865
establish a municipal public improvement tax increment equivalent 70866
fund into which shall be deposited service payments in lieu of 70867
taxes distributed to the municipal corporation under section 70868
5709.42 of the Revised Code. If the legislative authority of the 70869
municipal corporation has adopted an ordinance under division (C) 70870
of section 5709.40 of the Revised Code, the municipal corporation 70871
shall establish at least one account in that fund with respect to 70872
ordinances adopted under division (B) of that section, and one 70873
account with respect to each incentive district created in an 70874
ordinance adopted under division (C) of that section. If an 70875
ordinance adopted under division (C) of section 5709.40 of the 70876
Revised Code also authorizes the use of service payments for 70877
housing renovations within the district, the municipal corporation 70878
shall establish separate accounts for the service payments 70879
designated for public infrastructure improvements and for the 70880
service payments authorized for the purpose of housing 70881
renovations. Money in an account of the municipal public 70882
improvement tax increment equivalent fund shall be used to finance 70883
the public infrastructure improvements designated in, or the 70884
housing renovations authorized by, the ordinance with respect to 70885
which the account is established; in the case of an account 70886
established with respect to an ordinance adopted under division 70887
(C) of that section, money in the account shall be used to finance 70888
the public infrastructure improvements designated, or the housing 70889
renovations authorized, for each incentive district created in the 70890
ordinance. Money in an account shall not be used to finance or 70891
support housing renovations that take place after the incentive 70892
district has expired. The municipal corporation also may deposit 70893
into any of those accounts municipal income tax revenue that has 70894
been designated by ordinance to finance the public infrastructure 70895
improvements and housing renovations.70896

       (B) A municipal corporation may establish an urban 70897
redevelopment tax increment equivalent fund, by resolution or 70898
ordinance of its legislative authority, into which shall be 70899
deposited service payments in lieu of taxes distributed to the 70900
municipal corporation by the county treasurer as provided in 70901
section 5709.42 of the Revised Code for improvements exempt from 70902
taxation pursuant to an ordinance adopted under section 5709.41 of 70903
the Revised Code. Moneys deposited in the urban redevelopment tax 70904
increment equivalent fund shall be used for such purposes as are 70905
authorized in the resolution or ordinance establishing the fund. 70906
The municipal corporation also may deposit into the urban 70907
redevelopment tax increment equivalent fund municipal income tax 70908
revenue that has been dedicated to fund any of the purposes for 70909
which the fund is established.70910

       (C)(1)(a) A municipal corporation may distribute money in the 70911
municipal public improvement tax increment equivalent fund or the 70912
urban redevelopment tax increment equivalent fund to any school 70913
district in which the exempt property is located, in an amount not 70914
to exceed the amount of real property taxes that such school 70915
district would have received from the improvement if it were not 70916
exempt from taxation, or use money in either or both funds to 70917
finance specific public improvements benefiting the school 70918
district. The resolution or ordinance establishing the fund shall 70919
set forth the percentage of such maximum amount that will be 70920
distributed to any affected school district or used to finance 70921
specific public improvements benefiting the school district.70922

       (b) A municipal corporation also may distribute money in the 70923
municipal public improvement tax increment equivalent fund or the 70924
urban redevelopment tax increment equivalent fund as follows:70925

       (i) To a board of county commissioners, in the amount that is 70926
owed to the board pursuant to division (E) of section 5709.40 of 70927
the Revised Code;70928

       (ii) To a county in accordance with section 5709.913 of the 70929
Revised Code.70930

       (2) Money from an account in a municipal public improvement 70931
tax increment equivalent fund or from an urban redevelopment tax 70932
increment equivalent fund may be distributed under division 70933
(C)(1)(b) of this section, regardless of the date a resolution or 70934
an ordinance was adopted under section 5709.40 or 5709.41 of the 70935
Revised Code that prompted the establishment of the account or the 70936
establishment of the urban redevelopment tax increment equivalent 70937
fund, even if the resolution or ordinance was adopted prior to the 70938
effective date of this amendmentMarch 30, 2006.70939

       (D)(1) A municipal corporation may use surplus money in the 70940
municipal public improvement tax increment equivalent fund or an 70941
account of that fund, or in the urban redevelopment tax increment 70942
equivalent fund, to repay a loan or provide matching funds for a 70943
grant awarded to the municipal corporation under the local 70944
government innovation program created in section 189.02 of the 70945
Revised Code.70946

       (2) Any incidental surplus remaining in the municipal public 70947
improvement tax increment equivalent fund or an account of that 70948
fund, or in the urban redevelopment tax increment equivalent fund, 70949
upon dissolution of the account or fund shall be used as provided 70950
in division (D)(1) of this section or transferred to the general 70951
fund of the municipal corporation.70952

       Sec. 5709.62.  (A) In any municipal corporation that is 70953
defined by the United States office of management and budget as a 70954
principal city of a metropolitan statistical area, the legislative 70955
authority of the municipal corporation may designate one or more 70956
areas within its municipal corporation as proposed enterprise 70957
zones. Upon designating an area, the legislative authority shall 70958
petition the director of development for certification of the area 70959
as having the characteristics set forth in division (A)(1) of 70960
section 5709.61 of the Revised Code as amended by Substitute 70961
Senate Bill No. 19 of the 120th general assembly. Except as 70962
otherwise provided in division (E) of this section, on and after 70963
July 1, 1994, legislative authorities shall not enter into 70964
agreements under this section unless the legislative authority has 70965
petitioned the director and the director has certified the zone 70966
under this section as amended by that act; however, all agreements 70967
entered into under this section as it existed prior to July 1, 70968
1994, and the incentives granted under those agreements shall 70969
remain in effect for the period agreed to under those agreements. 70970
Within sixty days after receiving such a petition, the director 70971
shall determine whether the area has the characteristics set forth 70972
in division (A)(1) of section 5709.61 of the Revised Code, and 70973
shall forward the findings to the legislative authority of the 70974
municipal corporation. If the director certifies the area as 70975
having those characteristics, and thereby certifies it as a zone, 70976
the legislative authority may enter into an agreement with an 70977
enterprise under division (C) of this section.70978

       (B) Any enterprise that wishes to enter into an agreement 70979
with a municipal corporation under division (C) of this section 70980
shall submit a proposal to the legislative authority of the 70981
municipal corporation on a form prescribed by the director of 70982
development, together with the application fee established under 70983
section 5709.68 of the Revised Code. The form shall require the 70984
following information:70985

       (1) An estimate of the number of new employees whom the 70986
enterprise intends to hire, or of the number of employees whom the 70987
enterprise intends to retain, within the zone at a facility that 70988
is a project site, and an estimate of the amount of payroll of the 70989
enterprise attributable to these employees;70990

       (2) An estimate of the amount to be invested by the 70991
enterprise to establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a facility, 70992
including investment in new buildings, additions or improvements 70993
to existing buildings, machinery, equipment, furniture, fixtures, 70994
and inventory;70995

       (3) A listing of the enterprise's current investment, if any, 70996
in a facility as of the date of the proposal's submission.70997

       The enterprise shall review and update the listings required 70998
under this division to reflect material changes, and any agreement 70999
entered into under division (C) of this section shall set forth 71000
final estimates and listings as of the time the agreement is 71001
entered into. The legislative authority may, on a separate form 71002
and at any time, require any additional information necessary to 71003
determine whether an enterprise is in compliance with an agreement 71004
and to collect the information required to be reported under 71005
section 5709.68 of the Revised Code.71006

       (C) Upon receipt and investigation of a proposal under 71007
division (B) of this section, if the legislative authority finds 71008
that the enterprise submitting the proposal is qualified by 71009
financial responsibility and business experience to create and 71010
preserve employment opportunities in the zone and improve the 71011
economic climate of the municipal corporation, the legislative 71012
authority, on or before October 15, 20122013, may do one of the 71013
following:71014

       (1) Enter into an agreement with the enterprise under which 71015
the enterprise agrees to establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a 71016
facility and hire new employees, or preserve employment 71017
opportunities for existing employees, in return for one or more of 71018
the following incentives:71019

       (a) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 71020
fifteen, of a specified portion, up to seventy-five per cent, of 71021
the assessed value of tangible personal property first used in 71022
business at the project site as a result of the agreement. If an 71023
exemption for inventory is specifically granted in the agreement 71024
pursuant to this division, the exemption applies to inventory 71025
required to be listed pursuant to sections 5711.15 and 5711.16 of 71026
the Revised Code, except that, in the instance of an expansion or 71027
other situations in which an enterprise was in business at the 71028
facility prior to the establishment of the zone, the inventory 71029
that is exempt is that amount or value of inventory in excess of 71030
the amount or value of inventory required to be listed in the 71031
personal property tax return of the enterprise in the return for 71032
the tax year in which the agreement is entered into.71033

       (b) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 71034
fifteen, of a specified portion, up to seventy-five per cent, of 71035
the increase in the assessed valuation of real property 71036
constituting the project site subsequent to formal approval of the 71037
agreement by the legislative authority;71038

       (c) Provision for a specified number of years, not to exceed 71039
fifteen, of any optional services or assistance that the municipal 71040
corporation is authorized to provide with regard to the project 71041
site.71042

       (2) Enter into an agreement under which the enterprise agrees 71043
to remediate an environmentally contaminated facility, to spend an 71044
amount equal to at least two hundred fifty per cent of the true 71045
value in money of the real property of the facility prior to 71046
remediation as determined for the purposes of property taxation to 71047
establish, expand, renovate, or occupy the remediated facility, 71048
and to hire new employees or preserve employment opportunities for 71049
existing employees at the remediated facility, in return for one 71050
or more of the following incentives:71051

       (a) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 71052
fifteen, of a specified portion, not to exceed fifty per cent, of 71053
the assessed valuation of the real property of the facility prior 71054
to remediation;71055

       (b) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 71056
fifteen, of a specified portion, not to exceed one hundred per 71057
cent, of the increase in the assessed valuation of the real 71058
property of the facility during or after remediation;71059

       (c) The incentive under division (C)(1)(a) of this section, 71060
except that the percentage of the assessed value of such property 71061
exempted from taxation shall not exceed one hundred per cent;71062

       (d) The incentive under division (C)(1)(c) of this section.71063

       (3) Enter into an agreement with an enterprise that plans to 71064
purchase and operate a large manufacturing facility that has 71065
ceased operation or announced its intention to cease operation, in 71066
return for exemption for a specified number of years, not to 71067
exceed fifteen, of a specified portion, up to one hundred per 71068
cent, of the assessed value of tangible personal property used in 71069
business at the project site as a result of the agreement, or of 71070
the assessed valuation of real property constituting the project 71071
site, or both.71072

       (D)(1) Notwithstanding divisions (C)(1)(a) and (b) of this 71073
section, the portion of the assessed value of tangible personal 71074
property or of the increase in the assessed valuation of real 71075
property exempted from taxation under those divisions may exceed 71076
seventy-five per cent in any year for which that portion is 71077
exempted if the average percentage exempted for all years in which 71078
the agreement is in effect does not exceed sixty per cent, or if 71079
the board of education of the city, local, or exempted village 71080
school district within the territory of which the property is or 71081
will be located approves a percentage in excess of seventy-five 71082
per cent.71083

       (2) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 71084
contrary, the exemptions described in divisions (C)(1)(a), (b), 71085
and (c), (C)(2)(a), (b), and (c), and (C)(3) of this section may 71086
be for up to fifteen years if the board of education of the city, 71087
local, or exempted village school district within the territory of 71088
which the property is or will be located approves a number of 71089
years in excess of ten.71090

       (3) For the purpose of obtaining the approval of a city, 71091
local, or exempted village school district under division (D)(1) 71092
or (2) of this section, the legislative authority shall deliver to 71093
the board of education a notice not later than forty-five days 71094
prior to approving the agreement, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, 71095
and legal holidays as defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code. 71096
The notice shall state the percentage to be exempted, an estimate 71097
of the true value of the property to be exempted, and the number 71098
of years the property is to be exempted. The board of education, 71099
by resolution adopted by a majority of the board, shall approve or 71100
disapprove the agreement and certify a copy of the resolution to 71101
the legislative authority not later than fourteen days prior to 71102
the date stipulated by the legislative authority as the date upon 71103
which approval of the agreement is to be formally considered by 71104
the legislative authority. The board of education may include in 71105
the resolution conditions under which the board would approve the 71106
agreement, including the execution of an agreement to compensate 71107
the school district under division (B) of section 5709.82 of the 71108
Revised Code. The legislative authority may approve the agreement 71109
at any time after the board of education certifies its resolution 71110
approving the agreement to the legislative authority, or, if the 71111
board approves the agreement conditionally, at any time after the 71112
conditions are agreed to by the board and the legislative 71113
authority.71114

       If a board of education has adopted a resolution waiving its 71115
right to approve agreements and the resolution remains in effect, 71116
approval of an agreement by the board is not required under this 71117
division. If a board of education has adopted a resolution 71118
allowing a legislative authority to deliver the notice required 71119
under this division fewer than forty-five business days prior to 71120
the legislative authority's approval of the agreement, the 71121
legislative authority shall deliver the notice to the board not 71122
later than the number of days prior to such approval as prescribed 71123
by the board in its resolution. If a board of education adopts a 71124
resolution waiving its right to approve agreements or shortening 71125
the notification period, the board shall certify a copy of the 71126
resolution to the legislative authority. If the board of education 71127
rescinds such a resolution, it shall certify notice of the 71128
rescission to the legislative authority.71129

       (4) The legislative authority shall comply with section 71130
5709.83 of the Revised Code unless the board of education has 71131
adopted a resolution under that section waiving its right to 71132
receive such notice.71133

       (E) This division applies to zones certified by the director 71134
of development under this section prior to July 22, 1994.71135

       On or before October 15, 20122013, the legislative authority 71136
that designated a zone to which this division applies may enter 71137
into an agreement with an enterprise if the legislative authority 71138
finds that the enterprise satisfies one of the criteria described 71139
in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this section:71140

       (1) The enterprise currently has no operations in this state 71141
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 71142
operations in the zone;71143

       (2) The enterprise currently has operations in this state 71144
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 71145
operations at a new location in the zone that would not result in 71146
a reduction in the number of employee positions at any of the 71147
enterprise's other locations in this state;71148

       (3) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 71149
intends to relocate operations, currently located in another 71150
state, to the zone;71151

       (4) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 71152
intends to expand operations at an existing site in the zone that 71153
the enterprise currently operates;71154

       (5) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 71155
intends to relocate operations, currently located in this state, 71156
to the zone, and the director of development has issued a waiver 71157
for the enterprise under division (B) of section 5709.633 of the 71158
Revised Code.71159

       The agreement shall require the enterprise to agree to 71160
establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a facility in the zone and 71161
hire new employees, or preserve employment opportunities for 71162
existing employees, in return for one or more of the incentives 71163
described in division (C) of this section.71164

       (F) All agreements entered into under this section shall be 71165
in the form prescribed under section 5709.631 of the Revised Code. 71166
After an agreement is entered into under this section, if the 71167
legislative authority revokes its designation of a zone, or if the 71168
director of development revokes a zone's certification, any 71169
entitlements granted under the agreement shall continue for the 71170
number of years specified in the agreement.71171

       (G) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an 71172
agreement entered into under this section shall require that the 71173
enterprise pay an annual fee equal to the greater of one per cent 71174
of the dollar value of incentives offered under the agreement or 71175
five hundred dollars; provided, however, that if the value of the 71176
incentives exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars, the fee 71177
shall not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars. The fee shall 71178
be payable to the legislative authority once per year for each 71179
year the agreement is effective on the days and in the form 71180
specified in the agreement. Fees paid shall be deposited in a 71181
special fund created for such purpose by the legislative authority 71182
and shall be used by the legislative authority exclusively for the 71183
purpose of complying with section 5709.68 of the Revised Code and 71184
by the tax incentive review council created under section 5709.85 71185
of the Revised Code exclusively for the purposes of performing the 71186
duties prescribed under that section. The legislative authority 71187
may waive or reduce the amount of the fee charged against an 71188
enterprise, but such a waiver or reduction does not affect the 71189
obligations of the legislative authority or the tax incentive 71190
review council to comply with section 5709.68 or 5709.85 of the 71191
Revised Code.71192

       (H) When an agreement is entered into pursuant to this 71193
section, the legislative authority authorizing the agreement shall 71194
forward a copy of the agreement to the director of development and 71195
to the tax commissioner within fifteen days after the agreement is 71196
entered into. If any agreement includes terms not provided for in 71197
section 5709.631 of the Revised Code affecting the revenue of a 71198
city, local, or exempted village school district or causing 71199
revenue to be forgone by the district, including any compensation 71200
to be paid to the school district pursuant to section 5709.82 of 71201
the Revised Code, those terms also shall be forwarded in writing 71202
to the director of development along with the copy of the 71203
agreement forwarded under this division.71204

       (I) After an agreement is entered into, the enterprise shall 71205
file with each personal property tax return required to be filed, 71206
or annual report required to be filed under section 5727.08 of the 71207
Revised Code, while the agreement is in effect, an informational 71208
return, on a form prescribed by the tax commissioner for that 71209
purpose, setting forth separately the property, and related costs 71210
and values, exempted from taxation under the agreement.71211

       (J) Enterprises may agree to give preference to residents of 71212
the zone within which the agreement applies relative to residents 71213
of this state who do not reside in the zone when hiring new 71214
employees under the agreement.71215

       (K) An agreement entered into under this section may include 71216
a provision requiring the enterprise to create one or more 71217
temporary internship positions for students enrolled in a course 71218
of study at a school or other educational institution in the 71219
vicinity, and to create a scholarship or provide another form of 71220
educational financial assistance for students holding such a 71221
position in exchange for the student's commitment to work for the 71222
enterprise at the completion of the internship.71223

       (L) The tax commissioner's authority in determining the 71224
accuracy of any exemption granted by an agreement entered into 71225
under this section is limited to divisions (C)(1)(a) and (b), 71226
(C)(2)(a), (b), and (c), (C)(3), (D), and (I) of this section and 71227
divisions (B)(1) to (10) of section 5709.631 of the Revised Code 71228
and, as authorized by law, to enforcing any modification to, or 71229
revocation of, that agreement by the legislative authority of a 71230
municipal corporation or the director of development.71231

       Sec. 5709.63.  (A) With the consent of the legislative 71232
authority of each affected municipal corporation or of a board of 71233
township trustees, a board of county commissioners may, in the 71234
manner set forth in section 5709.62 of the Revised Code, designate 71235
one or more areas in one or more municipal corporations or in 71236
unincorporated areas of the county as proposed enterprise zones. A 71237
board of county commissioners may designate no more than one area 71238
within a township, or within adjacent townships, as a proposed 71239
enterprise zone. The board shall petition the director of 71240
development for certification of the area as having the 71241
characteristics set forth in division (A)(1) or (2) of section 71242
5709.61 of the Revised Code as amended by Substitute Senate Bill 71243
No. 19 of the 120th general assembly. Except as otherwise provided 71244
in division (D) of this section, on and after July 1, 1994, boards 71245
of county commissioners shall not enter into agreements under this 71246
section unless the board has petitioned the director and the 71247
director has certified the zone under this section as amended by 71248
that act; however, all agreements entered into under this section 71249
as it existed prior to July 1, 1994, and the incentives granted 71250
under those agreements shall remain in effect for the period 71251
agreed to under those agreements. The director shall make the 71252
determination in the manner provided under section 5709.62 of the 71253
Revised Code.71254

       Any enterprise wishing to enter into an agreement with the 71255
board under division (B) or (D) of this section shall submit a 71256
proposal to the board on the form and accompanied by the 71257
application fee prescribed under division (B) of section 5709.62 71258
of the Revised Code. The enterprise shall review and update the 71259
estimates and listings required by the form in the manner required 71260
under that division. The board may, on a separate form and at any 71261
time, require any additional information necessary to determine 71262
whether an enterprise is in compliance with an agreement and to 71263
collect the information required to be reported under section 71264
5709.68 of the Revised Code.71265

       (B) If the board of county commissioners finds that an 71266
enterprise submitting a proposal is qualified by financial 71267
responsibility and business experience to create and preserve 71268
employment opportunities in the zone and to improve the economic 71269
climate of the municipal corporation or municipal corporations or 71270
the unincorporated areas in which the zone is located and to which 71271
the proposal applies, the board, on or before October 15, 201271272
2013, and with the consent of the legislative authority of each 71273
affected municipal corporation or of the board of township 71274
trustees may do either of the following:71275

       (1) Enter into an agreement with the enterprise under which 71276
the enterprise agrees to establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a 71277
facility in the zone and hire new employees, or preserve 71278
employment opportunities for existing employees, in return for the 71279
following incentives:71280

       (a) When the facility is located in a municipal corporation, 71281
the board may enter into an agreement for one or more of the 71282
incentives provided in division (C) of section 5709.62 of the 71283
Revised Code, subject to division (D) of that section;71284

       (b) When the facility is located in an unincorporated area, 71285
the board may enter into an agreement for one or more of the 71286
following incentives:71287

       (i) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 71288
fifteen, of a specified portion, up to sixty per cent, of the 71289
assessed value of tangible personal property first used in 71290
business at a project site as a result of the agreement. If an 71291
exemption for inventory is specifically granted in the agreement 71292
pursuant to this division, the exemption applies to inventory 71293
required to be listed pursuant to sections 5711.15 and 5711.16 of 71294
the Revised Code, except, in the instance of an expansion or other 71295
situations in which an enterprise was in business at the facility 71296
prior to the establishment of the zone, the inventory that is 71297
exempt is that amount or value of inventory in excess of the 71298
amount or value of inventory required to be listed in the personal 71299
property tax return of the enterprise in the return for the tax 71300
year in which the agreement is entered into.71301

       (ii) Exemption for a specified number of years, not to exceed 71302
fifteen, of a specified portion, up to sixty per cent, of the 71303
increase in the assessed valuation of real property constituting 71304
the project site subsequent to formal approval of the agreement by 71305
the board;71306

       (iii) Provision for a specified number of years, not to 71307
exceed fifteen, of any optional services or assistance the board 71308
is authorized to provide with regard to the project site;71309

       (iv) The incentive described in division (C)(2) of section 71310
5709.62 of the Revised Code.71311

       (2) Enter into an agreement with an enterprise that plans to 71312
purchase and operate a large manufacturing facility that has 71313
ceased operation or has announced its intention to cease 71314
operation, in return for exemption for a specified number of 71315
years, not to exceed fifteen, of a specified portion, up to one 71316
hundred per cent, of tangible personal property used in business 71317
at the project site as a result of the agreement, or of real 71318
property constituting the project site, or both.71319

       (C)(1)(a) Notwithstanding divisions (B)(1)(b)(i) and (ii) of 71320
this section, the portion of the assessed value of tangible 71321
personal property or of the increase in the assessed valuation of 71322
real property exempted from taxation under those divisions may 71323
exceed sixty per cent in any year for which that portion is 71324
exempted if the average percentage exempted for all years in which 71325
the agreement is in effect does not exceed fifty per cent, or if 71326
the board of education of the city, local, or exempted village 71327
school district within the territory of which the property is or 71328
will be located approves a percentage in excess of sixty per cent.71329

       (b) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 71330
contrary, the exemptions described in divisions (B)(1)(b)(i), 71331
(ii), (iii), and (iv) and (B)(2) of this section may be for up to 71332
fifteen years if the board of education of the city, local, or 71333
exempted village school district within the territory of which the 71334
property is or will be located approves a number of years in 71335
excess of ten.71336

       (c) For the purpose of obtaining the approval of a city, 71337
local, or exempted village school district under division 71338
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, the board of county 71339
commissioners shall deliver to the board of education a notice not 71340
later than forty-five days prior to approving the agreement, 71341
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays as defined in 71342
section 1.14 of the Revised Code. The notice shall state the 71343
percentage to be exempted, an estimate of the true value of the 71344
property to be exempted, and the number of years the property is 71345
to be exempted. The board of education, by resolution adopted by a 71346
majority of the board, shall approve or disapprove the agreement 71347
and certify a copy of the resolution to the board of county 71348
commissioners not later than fourteen days prior to the date 71349
stipulated by the board of county commissioners as the date upon 71350
which approval of the agreement is to be formally considered by 71351
the board of county commissioners. The board of education may 71352
include in the resolution conditions under which the board would 71353
approve the agreement, including the execution of an agreement to 71354
compensate the school district under division (B) of section 71355
5709.82 of the Revised Code. The board of county commissioners may 71356
approve the agreement at any time after the board of education 71357
certifies its resolution approving the agreement to the board of 71358
county commissioners, or, if the board of education approves the 71359
agreement conditionally, at any time after the conditions are 71360
agreed to by the board of education and the board of county 71361
commissioners.71362

       If a board of education has adopted a resolution waiving its 71363
right to approve agreements and the resolution remains in effect, 71364
approval of an agreement by the board of education is not required 71365
under division (C) of this section. If a board of education has 71366
adopted a resolution allowing a board of county commissioners to 71367
deliver the notice required under this division fewer than 71368
forty-five business days prior to approval of the agreement by the 71369
board of county commissioners, the board of county commissioners 71370
shall deliver the notice to the board of education not later than 71371
the number of days prior to such approval as prescribed by the 71372
board of education in its resolution. If a board of education 71373
adopts a resolution waiving its right to approve agreements or 71374
shortening the notification period, the board of education shall 71375
certify a copy of the resolution to the board of county 71376
commissioners. If the board of education rescinds such a 71377
resolution, it shall certify notice of the rescission to the board 71378
of county commissioners.71379

       (2) The board of county commissioners shall comply with 71380
section 5709.83 of the Revised Code unless the board of education 71381
has adopted a resolution under that section waiving its right to 71382
receive such notice.71383

       (D) This division applies to zones certified by the director 71384
of development under this section prior to July 22, 1994.71385

       On or before October 15, 20122013, and with the consent of 71386
the legislative authority of each affected municipal corporation 71387
or board of township trustees of each affected township, the board 71388
of county commissioners that designated a zone to which this 71389
division applies may enter into an agreement with an enterprise if 71390
the board finds that the enterprise satisfies one of the criteria 71391
described in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this section:71392

       (1) The enterprise currently has no operations in this state 71393
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 71394
operations in the zone;71395

       (2) The enterprise currently has operations in this state 71396
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 71397
operations at a new location in the zone that would not result in 71398
a reduction in the number of employee positions at any of the 71399
enterprise's other locations in this state;71400

       (3) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 71401
intends to relocate operations, currently located in another 71402
state, to the zone;71403

       (4) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 71404
intends to expand operations at an existing site in the zone that 71405
the enterprise currently operates;71406

       (5) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 71407
intends to relocate operations, currently located in this state, 71408
to the zone, and the director of development has issued a waiver 71409
for the enterprise under division (B) of section 5709.633 of the 71410
Revised Code.71411

       The agreement shall require the enterprise to agree to 71412
establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a facility in the zone and 71413
hire new employees, or preserve employment opportunities for 71414
existing employees, in return for one or more of the incentives 71415
described in division (B) of this section.71416

       (E) All agreements entered into under this section shall be 71417
in the form prescribed under section 5709.631 of the Revised Code. 71418
After an agreement under this section is entered into, if the 71419
board of county commissioners revokes its designation of a zone, 71420
or if the director of development revokes a zone's certification, 71421
any entitlements granted under the agreement shall continue for 71422
the number of years specified in the agreement.71423

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an 71424
agreement entered into under this section shall require that the 71425
enterprise pay an annual fee equal to the greater of one per cent 71426
of the dollar value of incentives offered under the agreement or 71427
five hundred dollars; provided, however, that if the value of the 71428
incentives exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars, the fee 71429
shall not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars. The fee shall 71430
be payable to the board of county commissioners once per year for 71431
each year the agreement is effective on the days and in the form 71432
specified in the agreement. Fees paid shall be deposited in a 71433
special fund created for such purpose by the board and shall be 71434
used by the board exclusively for the purpose of complying with 71435
section 5709.68 of the Revised Code and by the tax incentive 71436
review council created under section 5709.85 of the Revised Code 71437
exclusively for the purposes of performing the duties prescribed 71438
under that section. The board may waive or reduce the amount of 71439
the fee charged against an enterprise, but such waiver or 71440
reduction does not affect the obligations of the board or the tax 71441
incentive review council to comply with section 5709.68 or 5709.85 71442
of the Revised Code, respectively.71443

       (G) With the approval of the legislative authority of a 71444
municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of a 71445
township in which a zone is designated under division (A) of this 71446
section, the board of county commissioners may delegate to that 71447
legislative authority or board any powers and duties of the board 71448
of county commissioners to negotiate and administer agreements 71449
with regard to that zone under this section.71450

       (H) When an agreement is entered into pursuant to this 71451
section, the board of county commissioners authorizing the 71452
agreement or the legislative authority or board of township 71453
trustees that negotiates and administers the agreement shall 71454
forward a copy of the agreement to the director of development and 71455
to the tax commissioner within fifteen days after the agreement is 71456
entered into. If any agreement includes terms not provided for in 71457
section 5709.631 of the Revised Code affecting the revenue of a 71458
city, local, or exempted village school district or causing 71459
revenue to be foregone by the district, including any compensation 71460
to be paid to the school district pursuant to section 5709.82 of 71461
the Revised Code, those terms also shall be forwarded in writing 71462
to the director of development along with the copy of the 71463
agreement forwarded under this division.71464

       (I) After an agreement is entered into, the enterprise shall 71465
file with each personal property tax return required to be filed, 71466
or annual report that is required to be filed under section 71467
5727.08 of the Revised Code, while the agreement is in effect, an 71468
informational return, on a form prescribed by the tax commissioner 71469
for that purpose, setting forth separately the property, and 71470
related costs and values, exempted from taxation under the 71471
agreement.71472

       (J) Enterprises may agree to give preference to residents of 71473
the zone within which the agreement applies relative to residents 71474
of this state who do not reside in the zone when hiring new 71475
employees under the agreement.71476

       (K) An agreement entered into under this section may include 71477
a provision requiring the enterprise to create one or more 71478
temporary internship positions for students enrolled in a course 71479
of study at a school or other educational institution in the 71480
vicinity, and to create a scholarship or provide another form of 71481
educational financial assistance for students holding such a 71482
position in exchange for the student's commitment to work for the 71483
enterprise at the completion of the internship.71484

       (L) The tax commissioner's authority in determining the 71485
accuracy of any exemption granted by an agreement entered into 71486
under this section is limited to divisions (B)(1)(b)(i) and (ii), 71487
(B)(2), (C), and (I) of this section, division (B)(1)(b)(iv) of 71488
this section as it pertains to divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), and (c) 71489
of section 5709.62 of the Revised Code, and divisions (B)(1) to 71490
(10) of section 5709.631 of the Revised Code and, as authorized by 71491
law, to enforcing any modification to, or revocation of, that 71492
agreement by the board of county commissioners or the director of 71493
development or, if the board's powers and duties are delegated 71494
under division (G) of this section, by the legislative authority 71495
of a municipal corporation or board of township trustees.71496

       Sec. 5709.632.  (A)(1) The legislative authority of a 71497
municipal corporation defined by the United States office of 71498
management and budget as a principal city of a metropolitan 71499
statistical area may, in the manner set forth in section 5709.62 71500
of the Revised Code, designate one or more areas in the municipal 71501
corporation as a proposed enterprise zone.71502

       (2) With the consent of the legislative authority of each 71503
affected municipal corporation or of a board of township trustees, 71504
a board of county commissioners may, in the manner set forth in 71505
section 5709.62 of the Revised Code, designate one or more areas 71506
in one or more municipal corporations or in unincorporated areas 71507
of the county as proposed urban jobs and enterprise zones, except 71508
that a board of county commissioners may designate no more than 71509
one area within a township, or within adjacent townships, as a 71510
proposed urban jobs and enterprise zone.71511

       (3) The legislative authority or board of county 71512
commissioners may petition the director of development for 71513
certification of the area as having the characteristics set forth 71514
in division (A)(3) of section 5709.61 of the Revised Code. Within 71515
sixty days after receiving such a petition, the director shall 71516
determine whether the area has the characteristics set forth in 71517
that division and forward the findings to the legislative 71518
authority or board of county commissioners. If the director 71519
certifies the area as having those characteristics and thereby 71520
certifies it as a zone, the legislative authority or board may 71521
enter into agreements with enterprises under division (B) of this 71522
section. Any enterprise wishing to enter into an agreement with a 71523
legislative authority or board of county commissioners under this 71524
section and satisfying one of the criteria described in divisions 71525
(B)(1) to (5) of this section shall submit a proposal to the 71526
legislative authority or board on the form prescribed under 71527
division (B) of section 5709.62 of the Revised Code and shall 71528
review and update the estimates and listings required by the form 71529
in the manner required under that division. The legislative 71530
authority or board may, on a separate form and at any time, 71531
require any additional information necessary to determine whether 71532
an enterprise is in compliance with an agreement and to collect 71533
the information required to be reported under section 5709.68 of 71534
the Revised Code.71535

       (B) Prior to entering into an agreement with an enterprise, 71536
the legislative authority or board of county commissioners shall 71537
determine whether the enterprise submitting the proposal is 71538
qualified by financial responsibility and business experience to 71539
create and preserve employment opportunities in the zone and to 71540
improve the economic climate of the municipal corporation or 71541
municipal corporations or the unincorporated areas in which the 71542
zone is located and to which the proposal applies, and whether the 71543
enterprise satisfies one of the following criteria:71544

       (1) The enterprise currently has no operations in this state 71545
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 71546
operations in the zone;71547

       (2) The enterprise currently has operations in this state 71548
and, subject to approval of the agreement, intends to establish 71549
operations at a new location in the zone that would not result in 71550
a reduction in the number of employee positions at any of the 71551
enterprise's other locations in this state;71552

       (3) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 71553
intends to relocate operations, currently located in another 71554
state, to the zone;71555

       (4) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 71556
intends to expand operations at an existing site in the zone that 71557
the enterprise currently operates;71558

       (5) The enterprise, subject to approval of the agreement, 71559
intends to relocate operations, currently located in this state, 71560
to the zone, and the director of development has issued a waiver 71561
for the enterprise under division (B) of section 5709.633 of the 71562
Revised Code.71563

       (C) If the legislative authority or board determines that the 71564
enterprise is so qualified and satisfies one of the criteria 71565
described in divisions (B)(1) to (5) of this section, the 71566
legislative authority or board may, after complying with section 71567
5709.83 of the Revised Code and on or before October 15, 201271568
2013, and, in the case of a board of commissioners, with the 71569
consent of the legislative authority of each affected municipal 71570
corporation or of the board of township trustees, enter into an 71571
agreement with the enterprise under which the enterprise agrees to 71572
establish, expand, renovate, or occupy a facility in the zone and 71573
hire new employees, or preserve employment opportunities for 71574
existing employees, in return for the following incentives:71575

       (1) When the facility is located in a municipal corporation, 71576
a legislative authority or board of commissioners may enter into 71577
an agreement for one or more of the incentives provided in 71578
division (C) of section 5709.62 of the Revised Code, subject to 71579
division (D) of that section;71580

       (2) When the facility is located in an unincorporated area, a 71581
board of commissioners may enter into an agreement for one or more 71582
of the incentives provided in divisions (B)(1)(b), (B)(2), and 71583
(B)(3) of section 5709.63 of the Revised Code, subject to division 71584
(C) of that section.71585

       (D) All agreements entered into under this section shall be 71586
in the form prescribed under section 5709.631 of the Revised Code. 71587
After an agreement under this section is entered into, if the 71588
legislative authority or board of county commissioners revokes its 71589
designation of the zone, or if the director of development revokes 71590
the zone's certification, any entitlements granted under the 71591
agreement shall continue for the number of years specified in the 71592
agreement.71593

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an 71594
agreement entered into under this section shall require that the 71595
enterprise pay an annual fee equal to the greater of one per cent 71596
of the dollar value of incentives offered under the agreement or 71597
five hundred dollars; provided, however, that if the value of the 71598
incentives exceeds two hundred fifty thousand dollars, the fee 71599
shall not exceed two thousand five hundred dollars. The fee shall 71600
be payable to the legislative authority or board of commissioners 71601
once per year for each year the agreement is effective on the days 71602
and in the form specified in the agreement. Fees paid shall be 71603
deposited in a special fund created for such purpose by the 71604
legislative authority or board and shall be used by the 71605
legislative authority or board exclusively for the purpose of 71606
complying with section 5709.68 of the Revised Code and by the tax 71607
incentive review council created under section 5709.85 of the 71608
Revised Code exclusively for the purposes of performing the duties 71609
prescribed under that section. The legislative authority or board 71610
may waive or reduce the amount of the fee charged against an 71611
enterprise, but such waiver or reduction does not affect the 71612
obligations of the legislative authority or board or the tax 71613
incentive review council to comply with section 5709.68 or 5709.85 71614
of the Revised Code, respectively.71615

       (F) With the approval of the legislative authority of a 71616
municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of a 71617
township in which a zone is designated under division (A)(2) of 71618
this section, the board of county commissioners may delegate to 71619
that legislative authority or board any powers and duties of the 71620
board to negotiate and administer agreements with regard to that 71621
zone under this section.71622

       (G) When an agreement is entered into pursuant to this 71623
section, the legislative authority or board of commissioners 71624
authorizing the agreement shall forward a copy of the agreement to 71625
the director of development and to the tax commissioner within 71626
fifteen days after the agreement is entered into. If any agreement 71627
includes terms not provided for in section 5709.631 of the Revised 71628
Code affecting the revenue of a city, local, or exempted village 71629
school district or causing revenue to be forgone by the district, 71630
including any compensation to be paid to the school district 71631
pursuant to section 5709.82 of the Revised Code, those terms also 71632
shall be forwarded in writing to the director of development along 71633
with the copy of the agreement forwarded under this division.71634

       (H) After an agreement is entered into, the enterprise shall 71635
file with each personal property tax return required to be filed 71636
while the agreement is in effect, an informational return, on a 71637
form prescribed by the tax commissioner for that purpose, setting 71638
forth separately the property, and related costs and values, 71639
exempted from taxation under the agreement.71640

       (I) An agreement entered into under this section may include 71641
a provision requiring the enterprise to create one or more 71642
temporary internship positions for students enrolled in a course 71643
of study at a school or other educational institution in the 71644
vicinity, and to create a scholarship or provide another form of 71645
educational financial assistance for students holding such a 71646
position in exchange for the student's commitment to work for the 71647
enterprise at the completion of the internship.71648

       Sec. 5709.73.  (A) As used in this section and section 71649
5709.74 of the Revised Code:71650

       (1) "Business day" means a day of the week excluding 71651
Saturday, Sunday, and a legal holiday as defined in section 1.14 71652
of the Revised Code.71653

       (2) "Further improvements" or "improvements" means the 71654
increase in the assessed value of real property that would first 71655
appear on the tax list and duplicate of real and public utility 71656
property after the effective date of a resolution adopted under 71657
this section were it not for the exemption granted by that 71658
resolution. For purposes of division (B) of this section, 71659
"improvements" do not include any property used or to be used for 71660
residential purposes.71661

       (3) "Housing renovation" means a project carried out for 71662
residential purposes.71663

       (4) "Incentive district" has the same meaning as in section 71664
5709.40 of the Revised Code, except that a blighted area is in the 71665
unincorporated area of a township.71666

       (5) "Project" and "public infrastructure improvement" have 71667
the same meanings as in section 5709.40 of the Revised Code.71668

       (B) A board of township trustees may, by unanimous vote, 71669
adopt a resolution that declares to be a public purpose any public 71670
infrastructure improvements made that are necessary for the 71671
development of certain parcels of land located in the 71672
unincorporated area of the township. Except with the approval 71673
under division (D) of this section of the board of education of 71674
each city, local, or exempted village school district within which 71675
the improvements are located, the resolution may exempt from real 71676
property taxation not more than seventy-five per cent of further 71677
improvements to a parcel of land that directly benefits from the 71678
public infrastructure improvements, for a period of not more than 71679
ten years. The resolution shall specify the percentage of the 71680
further improvements to be exempted and the life of the exemption.71681

       (C)(1) A board of township trustees may adopt, by unanimous 71682
vote, a resolution creating an incentive district and declaring 71683
improvements to parcels within the district to be a public purpose 71684
and, except as provided in division (F) of this section, exempt 71685
from taxation as provided in this section, but no board of 71686
township trustees of a township that has a population that exceeds 71687
twenty-five thousand, as shown by the most recent federal 71688
decennial census, shall adopt a resolution that creates an 71689
incentive district if the sum of the taxable value of real 71690
property in the proposed district for the preceding tax year and 71691
the taxable value of all real property in the township that would 71692
have been taxable in the preceding year were it not for the fact 71693
that the property was in an existing incentive district and 71694
therefore exempt from taxation exceeds twenty-five per cent of the 71695
taxable value of real property in the township for the preceding 71696
tax year. The district shall be located within the unincorporated 71697
area of the township and shall not include any territory that is 71698
included within a district created under division (B) of section 71699
5709.78 of the Revised Code. The resolution shall delineate the 71700
boundary of the district and specifically identify each parcel 71701
within the district. A district may not include any parcel that is 71702
or has been exempted from taxation under division (B) of this 71703
section or that is or has been within another district created 71704
under this division. A resolution may create more than one 71705
district, and more than one resolution may be adopted under 71706
division (C)(1) of this section.71707

       (2) Not later than thirty days prior to adopting a resolution 71708
under division (C)(1) of this section, if the township intends to 71709
apply for exemptions from taxation under section 5709.911 of the 71710
Revised Code on behalf of owners of real property located within 71711
the proposed incentive district, the board shall conduct a public 71712
hearing on the proposed resolution. Not later than thirty days 71713
prior to the public hearing, the board shall give notice of the 71714
public hearing and the proposed resolution by first class mail to 71715
every real property owner whose property is located within the 71716
boundaries of the proposed incentive district that is the subject 71717
of the proposed resolution.71718

       (3)(a) A resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this 71719
section shall specify the life of the incentive district and the 71720
percentage of the improvements to be exempted, shall designate the 71721
public infrastructure improvements made, to be made, or in the 71722
process of being made, that benefit or serve, or, once made, will 71723
benefit or serve parcels in the district. The resolution also 71724
shall identify one or more specific projects being, or to be, 71725
undertaken in the district that place additional demand on the 71726
public infrastructure improvements designated in the resolution. 71727
The project identified may, but need not be, the project under 71728
division (C)(3)(b) of this section that places real property in 71729
use for commercial or industrial purposes.71730

       A resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this section on 71731
or after March 30, 2006, shall not designate police or fire 71732
equipment as public infrastructure improvements, and no service 71733
payment provided for in section 5709.74 of the Revised Code and 71734
received by the township under the resolution shall be used for 71735
police or fire equipment.71736

       (b) A resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this 71737
section may authorize the use of service payments provided for in 71738
section 5709.74 of the Revised Code for the purpose of housing 71739
renovations within the incentive district, provided that the 71740
resolution also designates public infrastructure improvements that 71741
benefit or serve the district, and that a project within the 71742
district places real property in use for commercial or industrial 71743
purposes. Service payments may be used to finance or support 71744
loans, deferred loans, and grants to persons for the purpose of 71745
housing renovations within the district. The resolution shall 71746
designate the parcels within the district that are eligible for 71747
housing renovations. The resolution shall state separately the 71748
amount or the percentages of the expected aggregate service 71749
payments that are designated for each public infrastructure 71750
improvement and for the purpose of housing renovations.71751

       (4) Except with the approval of the board of education of 71752
each city, local, or exempted village school district within the 71753
territory of which the incentive district is or will be located, 71754
and subject to division (E) of this section, the life of an 71755
incentive district shall not exceed ten years, and the percentage 71756
of improvements to be exempted shall not exceed seventy-five per 71757
cent. With approval of the board of education, the life of a 71758
district may be not more than thirty years, and the percentage of 71759
improvements to be exempted may be not more than one hundred per 71760
cent. The approval of a board of education shall be obtained in 71761
the manner provided in division (D) of this section.71762

       (D) Improvements with respect to a parcel may be exempted 71763
from taxation under division (B) of this section, and improvements 71764
to parcels within an incentive district may be exempted from 71765
taxation under division (C) of this section, for up to ten years 71766
or, with the approval of the board of education of the city, 71767
local, or exempted village school district within which the parcel 71768
or district is located, for up to thirty years. The percentage of 71769
the improvements exempted from taxation may, with such approval, 71770
exceed seventy-five per cent, but shall not exceed one hundred per 71771
cent. Not later than forty-five business days prior to adopting a 71772
resolution under this section declaring improvements to be a 71773
public purpose that is subject to approval by a board of education 71774
under this division, the board of township trustees shall deliver 71775
to the board of education a notice stating its intent to adopt a 71776
resolution making that declaration. The notice regarding 71777
improvements with respect to a parcel under division (B) of this 71778
section shall identify the parcels for which improvements are to 71779
be exempted from taxation, provide an estimate of the true value 71780
in money of the improvements, specify the period for which the 71781
improvements would be exempted from taxation and the percentage of 71782
the improvements that would be exempted, and indicate the date on 71783
which the board of township trustees intends to adopt the 71784
resolution. The notice regarding improvements made under division 71785
(C) of this section to parcels within an incentive district shall 71786
delineate the boundaries of the district, specifically identify 71787
each parcel within the district, identify each anticipated 71788
improvement in the district, provide an estimate of the true value 71789
in money of each such improvement, specify the life of the 71790
district and the percentage of improvements that would be 71791
exempted, and indicate the date on which the board of township 71792
trustees intends to adopt the resolution. The board of education, 71793
by resolution adopted by a majority of the board, may approve the 71794
exemption for the period or for the exemption percentage specified 71795
in the notice; may disapprove the exemption for the number of 71796
years in excess of ten, may disapprove the exemption for the 71797
percentage of the improvements to be exempted in excess of 71798
seventy-five per cent, or both; or may approve the exemption on 71799
the condition that the board of township trustees and the board of 71800
education negotiate an agreement providing for compensation to the 71801
school district equal in value to a percentage of the amount of 71802
taxes exempted in the eleventh and subsequent years of the 71803
exemption period or, in the case of exemption percentages in 71804
excess of seventy-five per cent, compensation equal in value to a 71805
percentage of the taxes that would be payable on the portion of 71806
the improvements in excess of seventy-five per cent were that 71807
portion to be subject to taxation, or other mutually agreeable 71808
compensation.71809

       The board of education shall certify its resolution to the 71810
board of township trustees not later than fourteen days prior to 71811
the date the board of township trustees intends to adopt the 71812
resolution as indicated in the notice. If the board of education 71813
and the board of township trustees negotiate a mutually acceptable 71814
compensation agreement, the resolution may declare the 71815
improvements a public purpose for the number of years specified in 71816
the resolution or, in the case of exemption percentages in excess 71817
of seventy-five per cent, for the exemption percentage specified 71818
in the resolution. In either case, if the board of education and 71819
the board of township trustees fail to negotiate a mutually 71820
acceptable compensation agreement, the resolution may declare the 71821
improvements a public purpose for not more than ten years, and 71822
shall not exempt more than seventy-five per cent of the 71823
improvements from taxation. If the board of education fails to 71824
certify a resolution to the board of township trustees within the 71825
time prescribed by this section, the board of township trustees 71826
thereupon may adopt the resolution and may declare the 71827
improvements a public purpose for up to thirty years or, in the 71828
case of exemption percentages proposed in excess of seventy-five 71829
per cent, for the exemption percentage specified in the 71830
resolution. The board of township trustees may adopt the 71831
resolution at any time after the board of education certifies its 71832
resolution approving the exemption to the board of township 71833
trustees, or, if the board of education approves the exemption on 71834
the condition that a mutually acceptable compensation agreement be 71835
negotiated, at any time after the compensation agreement is agreed 71836
to by the board of education and the board of township trustees. 71837
If a mutually acceptable compensation agreement is negotiated 71838
between the board of township trustees and the board of education, 71839
including agreements for payments in lieu of taxes under section 71840
5709.74 of the Revised Code, the board of township trustees shall 71841
compensate the joint vocational school district within which the 71842
parcel or district is located at the same rate and under the same 71843
terms received by the city, local, or exempted village school 71844
district.71845

        If a board of education has adopted a resolution waiving its 71846
right to approve exemptions from taxation under this section and 71847
the resolution remains in effect, approval of such exemptions by 71848
the board of education is not required under division (D) of this 71849
section. If a board of education has adopted a resolution allowing 71850
a board of township trustees to deliver the notice required under 71851
division (D) of this section fewer than forty-five business days 71852
prior to adoption of the resolution by the board of township 71853
trustees, the board of township trustees shall deliver the notice 71854
to the board of education not later than the number of days prior 71855
to the adoption as prescribed by the board of education in its 71856
resolution. If a board of education adopts a resolution waiving 71857
its right to approve exemptions or shortening the notification 71858
period, the board of education shall certify a copy of the 71859
resolution to the board of township trustees. If the board of 71860
education rescinds the resolution, it shall certify notice of the 71861
rescission to the board of township trustees.71862

       If the board of township trustees is not required by division 71863
(D) of this section to notify the board of education of the board 71864
of township trustees' intent to declare improvements to be a 71865
public purpose, the board of township trustees shall comply with 71866
the notice requirements imposed under section 5709.83 of the 71867
Revised Code before taking formal action to adopt the resolution 71868
making that declaration, unless the board of education has adopted 71869
a resolution under that section waiving its right to receive the 71870
notice.71871

       (E)(1) If a proposed resolution under division (C)(1) of this 71872
section exempts improvements with respect to a parcel within an 71873
incentive district for more than ten years, or the percentage of 71874
the improvement exempted from taxation exceeds seventy-five per 71875
cent, not later than forty-five business days prior to adopting 71876
the resolution the board of township trustees shall deliver to the 71877
board of county commissioners of the county within which the 71878
incentive district is or will be located a notice that states its 71879
intent to adopt a resolution creating an incentive district. The 71880
notice shall include a copy of the proposed resolution, identify 71881
the parcels for which improvements are to be exempted from 71882
taxation, provide an estimate of the true value in money of the 71883
improvements, specify the period of time for which the 71884
improvements would be exempted from taxation, specify the 71885
percentage of the improvements that would be exempted from 71886
taxation, and indicate the date on which the board of township 71887
trustees intends to adopt the resolution.71888

       (2) The board of county commissioners, by resolution adopted 71889
by a majority of the board, may object to the exemption for the 71890
number of years in excess of ten, may object to the exemption for 71891
the percentage of the improvement to be exempted in excess of 71892
seventy-five per cent, or both. If the board of county 71893
commissioners objects, the board may negotiate a mutually 71894
acceptable compensation agreement with the board of township 71895
trustees. In no case shall the compensation provided to the board 71896
of county commissioners exceed the property taxes foregone due to 71897
the exemption. If the board of county commissioners objects, and 71898
the board of county commissioners and board of township trustees 71899
fail to negotiate a mutually acceptable compensation agreement, 71900
the resolution adopted under division (C)(1) of this section shall 71901
provide to the board of county commissioners compensation in the 71902
eleventh and subsequent years of the exemption period equal in 71903
value to not more than fifty per cent of the taxes that would be 71904
payable to the county or, if the board of county commissioner's 71905
objection includes an objection to an exemption percentage in 71906
excess of seventy-five per cent, compensation equal in value to 71907
not more than fifty per cent of the taxes that would be payable to 71908
the county, on the portion of the improvement in excess of 71909
seventy-five per cent, were that portion to be subject to 71910
taxation. The board of county commissioners shall certify its 71911
resolution to the board of township trustees not later than thirty 71912
days after receipt of the notice.71913

       (3) If the board of county commissioners does not object or 71914
fails to certify its resolution objecting to an exemption within 71915
thirty days after receipt of the notice, the board of township 71916
trustees may adopt its resolution, and no compensation shall be 71917
provided to the board of county commissioners. If the board of 71918
county commissioners timely certifies its resolution objecting to 71919
the trustees' resolution, the board of township trustees may adopt 71920
its resolution at any time after a mutually acceptable 71921
compensation agreement is agreed to by the board of county 71922
commissioners and the board of township trustees, or, if no 71923
compensation agreement is negotiated, at any time after the board 71924
of township trustees agrees in the proposed resolution to provide 71925
compensation to the board of county commissioners of fifty per 71926
cent of the taxes that would be payable to the county in the 71927
eleventh and subsequent years of the exemption period or on the 71928
portion of the improvement in excess of seventy-five per cent, 71929
were that portion to be subject to taxation.71930

       (F) Service payments in lieu of taxes that are attributable 71931
to any amount by which the effective tax rate of either a renewal 71932
levy with an increase or a replacement levy exceeds the effective 71933
tax rate of the levy renewed or replaced, or that are attributable 71934
to an additional levy, for a levy authorized by the voters for any 71935
of the following purposes on or after January 1, 2006, and which 71936
are provided pursuant to a resolution creating an incentive 71937
district under division (C)(1) of this section that is adopted on 71938
or after January 1, 2006, shall be distributed to the appropriate 71939
taxing authority as required under division (C) of section 5709.74 71940
of the Revised Code in an amount equal to the amount of taxes from 71941
that additional levy or from the increase in the effective tax 71942
rate of such renewal or replacement levy that would have been 71943
payable to that taxing authority from the following levies were it 71944
not for the exemption authorized under division (C) of this 71945
section:71946

       (1) A tax levied under division (L) of section 5705.19 or 71947
section 5705.191 of the Revised Code for community mental 71948
retardation and developmental disabilities programs and services 71949
pursuant to Chapter 5126. of the Revised Code;71950

       (2) A tax levied under division (Y) of section 5705.19 of the 71951
Revised Code for providing or maintaining senior citizens services 71952
or facilities;71953

       (3) A tax levied under section 5705.22 of the Revised Code 71954
for county hospitals;71955

       (4) A tax levied by a joint-county district or by a county 71956
under section 5705.19, 5705.191, or 5705.221 of the Revised Code 71957
for alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or 71958
families;71959

       (5) A tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code 71960
for library purposes;71961

       (6) A tax levied under section 5705.24 of the Revised Code 71962
for the support of children services and the placement and care of 71963
children;71964

       (7) A tax levied under division (Z) of section 5705.19 of the 71965
Revised Code for the provision and maintenance of zoological park 71966
services and facilities under section 307.76 of the Revised Code;71967

        (8) A tax levied under section 511.27 or division (H) of 71968
section 5705.19 of the Revised Code for the support of township 71969
park districts;71970

        (9) A tax levied under division (A), (F), or (H) of section 71971
5705.19 of the Revised Code for parks and recreational purposes of 71972
a joint recreation district organized pursuant to division (B) of 71973
section 755.14 of the Revised Code;71974

        (10) A tax levied under section 1545.20 or 1545.21 of the 71975
Revised Code for park district purposes;71976

        (11) A tax levied under section 5705.191 of the Revised Code 71977
for the purpose of making appropriations for public assistance; 71978
human or social services; public relief; public welfare; public 71979
health and hospitalization; and support of general hospitals;71980

        (12) A tax levied under section 3709.29 of the Revised Code 71981
for a general health district program.71982

       (G) An exemption from taxation granted under this section 71983
commences with the tax year specified in the resolution so long as 71984
the year specified in the resolution commences after the effective 71985
date of the resolution. If the resolution specifies a year 71986
commencing before the effective date of the resolution or 71987
specifies no year whatsoever, the exemption commences with the tax 71988
year in which an exempted improvement first appears on the tax 71989
list and duplicate of real and public utility property and that 71990
commences after the effective date of the resolution. Except as 71991
otherwise provided in this division, the exemption ends on the 71992
date specified in the resolution as the date the improvement 71993
ceases to be a public purpose or the incentive district expires, 71994
or ends on the date on which the public infrastructure 71995
improvements and housing renovations are paid in full from the 71996
township public improvement tax increment equivalent fund 71997
established under section 5709.75 of the Revised Code, whichever 71998
occurs first. The exemption of an improvement with respect to a 71999
parcel or within an incentive district may end on a later date, as 72000
specified in the resolution, if the board of township trustees and 72001
the board of education of the city, local, or exempted village 72002
school district within which the parcel or district is located 72003
have entered into a compensation agreement under section 5709.82 72004
of the Revised Code with respect to the improvement and the board 72005
of education has approved the term of the exemption under division 72006
(D) of this section, but in no case shall the improvement be 72007
exempted from taxation for more than thirty years. The board of 72008
township trustees may, by majority vote, adopt a resolution 72009
permitting the township to enter into such agreements as the board 72010
finds necessary or appropriate to provide for the construction or 72011
undertaking of public infrastructure improvements and housing 72012
renovations. Any exemption shall be claimed and allowed in the 72013
same or a similar manner as in the case of other real property 72014
exemptions. If an exemption status changes during a tax year, the 72015
procedure for the apportionment of the taxes for that year is the 72016
same as in the case of other changes in tax exemption status 72017
during the year.72018

       (H) The board of township trustees may issue the notes of the 72019
township to finance all costs pertaining to the construction or 72020
undertaking of public infrastructure improvements and housing 72021
renovations made pursuant to this section. The notes shall be 72022
signed by the board and attested by the signature of the township 72023
fiscal officer, shall bear interest not to exceed the rate 72024
provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code, and are not subject 72025
to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. The resolution authorizing 72026
the issuance of the notes shall pledge the funds of the township 72027
public improvement tax increment equivalent fund established 72028
pursuant to section 5709.75 of the Revised Code to pay the 72029
interest on and principal of the notes. The notes, which may 72030
contain a clause permitting prepayment at the option of the board, 72031
shall be offered for sale on the open market or given to the 72032
vendor or contractor if no sale is made.72033

       (I) The township, not later than fifteen days after the 72034
adoption of a resolution under this section, shall submit to the 72035
director of development a copy of the resolution. On or before the 72036
thirty-first day of March of each year, the township shall submit 72037
a status report to the director of development. The report shall 72038
indicate, in the manner prescribed by the director, the progress 72039
of the project during each year that the exemption remains in 72040
effect, including a summary of the receipts from service payments 72041
in lieu of taxes; expenditures of money from the fund created 72042
under section 5709.75 of the Revised Code; a description of the 72043
public infrastructure improvements and housing renovations 72044
financed with the expenditures; and a quantitative summary of 72045
changes in private investment resulting from each project.72046

       (J) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a 72047
board of township trustees from declaring to be a public purpose 72048
improvements with respect to more than one parcel.72049

       (K) A board of township trustees that adopted a resolution 72050
under this section prior to July 21, 1994, may amend that 72051
resolution to include any additional public infrastructure 72052
improvement. A board of township trustees that seeks by the 72053
amendment to utilize money from its township public improvement 72054
tax increment equivalent fund for land acquisition in aid of 72055
industry, commerce, distribution, or research, demolition on 72056
private property, or stormwater and flood remediation projects may 72057
do so provided that the board currently is a party to a 72058
hold-harmless agreement with the board of education of the city, 72059
local, or exempted village school district within the territory of 72060
which are located the parcels that are subject to an exemption. 72061
For the purposes of this division, a "hold-harmless agreement" 72062
means an agreement under which the board of township trustees 72063
agrees to compensate the school district for one hundred per cent 72064
of the tax revenue that the school district would have received 72065
from further improvements to parcels designated in the resolution 72066
were it not for the exemption granted by the resolution.72067

       (L) With respect to improvements resulting from projects, for 72068
which construction commences on or after April 1, 2012, and on or 72069
before December 31, 2013, and for which an exemption has been or 72070
will be sought pursuant to a resolution adopted under this section 72071
before December 14, 2001, "property used or to be used for 72072
residential purposes," as used in division (A)(2) of this section, 72073
means only that property that, as improved, the tax commissioner 72074
would classify as residential land and improvements pursuant to 72075
rules adopted by the tax commissioner under section 5713.041 of 72076
the Revised Code.72077

       Sec. 5709.75. (A) Any township that receives service payments 72078
in lieu of taxes under section 5709.74 of the Revised Code shall 72079
establish a township public improvement tax increment equivalent 72080
fund into which those payments shall be deposited. If the board of 72081
township trustees has adopted a resolution under division (C) of 72082
section 5709.73 of the Revised Code, the township shall establish 72083
at least one account in that fund with respect to resolutions 72084
adopted under division (B) of that section, and one account with 72085
respect to each incentive district created by a resolution adopted 72086
under division (C) of that section. If a resolution adopted under 72087
division (C) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code also 72088
authorizes the use of service payments for housing renovations 72089
within the incentive district, the township shall establish 72090
separate accounts for the service payments designated for public 72091
infrastructure improvements and for the service payments 72092
authorized for the purpose of housing renovations.72093

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) or (D) of 72094
this section, money deposited in an account of the township public 72095
improvement tax increment equivalent fund shall be used by the 72096
township to pay the costs of public infrastructure improvements 72097
designated in or the housing renovations authorized by the 72098
resolution with respect to which the account is established, 72099
including any interest on and principal of the notes; in the case 72100
of an account established with respect to a resolution adopted 72101
under division (C) of that section, money in the account shall be 72102
used to finance the public infrastructure improvements designated, 72103
or the housing renovations authorized, for each incentive district 72104
created in the resolution. Money in an account shall not be used 72105
to finance or support housing renovations that take place after 72106
the incentive district has expired.72107

       (C)(1)(a) A township may distribute money in such an account 72108
to any school district in which the exempt property is located in 72109
an amount not to exceed the amount of real property taxes that 72110
such school district would have received from the improvement if 72111
it were not exempt from taxation. The resolution establishing the 72112
fund shall set forth the percentage of such maximum amount that 72113
will be distributed to any affected school district.72114

       (b) A township also may distribute money in such an account 72115
as follows:72116

       (i) To a board of county commissioners, in the amount that is 72117
owed to the board pursuant to division (E) of section 5709.73 of 72118
the Revised Code;72119

       (ii) To a county in accordance with section 5709.913 of the 72120
Revised Code.72121

       (2) Money from an account in a township public improvement 72122
tax increment equivalent fund may be distributed under division 72123
(C)(1)(b) of this section, regardless of the date a resolution was 72124
adopted under section 5709.73 of the Revised Code that prompted 72125
the establishment of the account, even if the resolution was 72126
adopted prior to March 30, 2006.72127

       (D) A board of township trustees that adopted a resolution 72128
under division (B) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code before 72129
January 1, 1995, and that, with respect to property exempted under 72130
such a resolution, is party to a hold-harmless agreement, may 72131
appropriate and expend unencumbered money in the fund to pay 72132
current public safety expenses of the township. A township 72133
appropriating and expending money under this division shall 72134
reimburse the fund for the sum so appropriated and expended not 72135
later than the day the exemption granted under the resolution 72136
expires. For the purposes of this division, a "hold-harmless 72137
agreement" is an agreement with the board of education of a city, 72138
local, or exempted village school district under which the board 72139
of township trustees agrees to compensate the school district for 72140
one hundred per cent of the tax revenue the school district would 72141
have received from improvements to parcels designated in the 72142
resolution were it not for the exemption granted by the 72143
resolution.72144

       (E)(1) A township may use surplus money in the township 72145
public improvement tax increment equivalent fund, or an account of 72146
that fund, to repay a loan or provide matching funds for a grant 72147
awarded to the township under the local government innovation 72148
program created in section 189.02 of the Revised Code.72149

       (2) Any incidental surplus remaining in the township public 72150
improvement tax increment equivalent fund or an account of that 72151
fund upon dissolution of the account or fund shall be used as 72152
provided in division (E)(1) of this section or transferred to the 72153
general fund of the township.72154

       Sec. 5709.80.  (A) The board of county commissioners of a 72155
county that receives service payments in lieu of taxes under 72156
section 5709.79 of the Revised Code shall establish a 72157
redevelopment tax equivalent fund into which those payments shall 72158
be deposited. Separate accounts shall be established in the fund 72159
for each resolution adopted by the board of county commissioners 72160
under section 5709.78 of the Revised Code. If the board of county 72161
commissioners has adopted a resolution under division (B) of that 72162
section, the county shall establish an account for each incentive 72163
district created in that resolution. If a resolution adopted under 72164
division (B) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code also 72165
authorizes the use of service payments for housing renovations 72166
within the incentive district, the county shall establish separate 72167
accounts for the service payments designated for public 72168
infrastructure improvements and for the service payments 72169
authorized for the purpose of housing renovations.72170

       (B) Moneys deposited into each account of the fund shall be 72171
used by the county to pay the cost of constructing or repairing 72172
the public infrastructure improvements designated in, or the 72173
housing renovations authorized by, the resolution, or for each 72174
incentive district for which the account is established, to pay 72175
the interest on and principal of bonds or notes issued under 72176
division (B) of section 307.082 or division (A) of section 5709.81 72177
of the Revised Code, or for the purposes pledged under division 72178
(B) of section 5709.81 of the Revised Code. Money in an account 72179
shall not be used to finance or support housing renovations that 72180
take place after the incentive district has expired.72181

       (C)(1)(a) The board of county commissioners may distribute 72182
money in an account to any school district in which the exempt 72183
property is located in an amount not to exceed the amount of real 72184
property taxes that such school district would have received from 72185
the improvement if it were not exempt from taxation. The 72186
resolution under which an account is established shall set forth 72187
the percentage of such maximum amount that will be distributed to 72188
any affected school district.72189

       (b) A board of county commissioners also may distribute money 72190
in such an account as follows:72191

       (i) To a board of township trustees or legislative authority 72192
of a municipal corporation, as applicable, in the amount that is 72193
owed to the board of township trustees or legislative authority 72194
pursuant to division (D) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code;72195

       (ii) To a township in accordance with section 5709.914 of the 72196
Revised Code.72197

       (2) Money from an account in the redevelopment tax equivalent 72198
fund may be distributed under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, 72199
regardless of the date a resolution was adopted under section 72200
5709.78 of the Revised Code that prompted the establishment of the 72201
account, even if the resolution was adopted prior to the effective 72202
date of this amendmentMarch 30, 2006.72203

       (D) An account dissolves upon fulfillment of the purposes for 72204
which money in the account may be used(1) A county may use 72205
surplus money in an account of the redevelopment tax equivalent 72206
fund to repay a loan or provide matching funds for a grant awarded 72207
to the county under the local government innovation program 72208
created in section 189.02 of the Revised Code.72209

       (2) An incidental surplus remaining in an account upon its 72210
dissolution shall be used as provided in division (D)(1) of this 72211
section or transferred to the general fund of the county.72212

       Sec. 5713.012.  (A) For purposes of this section:72213

        (1) "Mass appraisal project" means any sexennial reappraisal, 72214
triennial update, or other revaluation of all real property or the 72215
valuation of newly constructed real property in accordance with 72216
section 5713.01 of the Revised Code. 72217

       (2) "Qualified project manager" means a person who plans, 72218
manages, coordinates, and controls the execution of a mass 72219
appraisal project under the direction of the county auditor and 72220
who has all of the following qualifications:72221

       (a) Has passed a comprehensive final examination that 72222
corresponds to a course, approved by the superintendent of real 72223
estate and professional licensing, that consists of at least 72224
thirty hours of instruction, quizzes, and learning aids. The 72225
superintendent shall not approve a course under this division that 72226
does not address the following topics in both the instruction and 72227
the examination:72228

        (i) Concepts and principles of mass appraisal as they relate 72229
to the assessment of real property for the purposes of ad valorem 72230
taxation;72231

       (ii) Methods of data collection and data management relative 72232
to parcels of real property, including modern alternative data 72233
collection methods and currently utilized computer-assisted mass 72234
appraisal systems;72235

       (iii) Assessment sales-ratio study including various measures 72236
of central tendency, the various measures of dispersion of data 72237
about the mean, median, and dollar-weighted mean, and the 72238
advantages and disadvantages of various analysis techniques;72239

       (iv) Traditional approaches of property valuation, including 72240
the cost approach, the sales comparison approach, and the income 72241
approach, as they are implemented in a mass appraisal project;72242

       (v) Methods and systems for model building and model 72243
calibration as related to mass appraisal of real property;72244

       (vi) Methods of production management and project analysis 72245
such as Gantt charts, program evaluation and review technique 72246
(PERT) charts, frequency distribution charts, line graphs, bar 72247
charts, and scatter diagrams, as they are utilized in the mass 72248
appraisal area.72249

       (b) Has completed at least seven hours of continuing 72250
education courses in mass appraisal during the two-year period 72251
immediately succeeding the year in which the person passed the 72252
examination required in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, and 72253
during each two-year period thereafter.72254

        (B)(1) The county auditor, in acting as the assessor of all 72255
real property in the auditor's county for taxation purposes in 72256
accordance with section 5713.01 of the Revised Code, shall involve 72257
at least one qualified project manager in each mass assessment 72258
project that originates more than two years after the effective 72259
date of the enactment of this section by H.B. 487 of the 129th 72260
general assembly.72261

       (2) The tax commissioner, beginning two years after the 72262
effective date of the enactment of this section by H.B. 487 of the 72263
129th general assembly, shall not approve any contract entered 72264
into by the auditor under division (E) of section 5713.01 of the 72265
Revised Code, with a person to do all or any part of the work 72266
necessary to the performance of the auditor's duties as assessor 72267
unless that person designates an officer or employee of that 72268
person, with the appropriate credentials, to act as a qualified 72269
project manager. 72270

       (3) The tax commissioner, beginning two years after the 72271
effective date of the enactment of this section by H.B. 487 of the 72272
129th general assembly, shall not include any person that has not 72273
designated an officer or employee, with the appropriate 72274
credentials, to act as a qualified project manager on a list 72275
generated by the commissioner for either of the following 72276
purposes:72277

       (a) To assist county auditors in selecting a person to do all 72278
or any part of the work necessary to the performance of the 72279
auditor's duties as assessor of all real property under section 72280
5713.01 of the Revised Code;72281

       (b) To assist the commissioner in the consideration of 72282
whether to approve or disapprove the auditor's application 72283
requesting authority to employ an appraisal firm or individual 72284
appraiser.72285

       Sec. 5713.03.  The county auditor, from the best sources of 72286
information available, shall determine, as nearly as practicable, 72287
the true value of the fee simple estate, as if unencumbered, of72288
each separate tract, lot, or parcel of real property and of 72289
buildings, structures, and improvements located thereon and the 72290
current agricultural use value of land valued for tax purposes in 72291
accordance with section 5713.31 of the Revised Code, in every 72292
district, according to the rules prescribed by this chapter and 72293
section 5715.01 of the Revised Code, and in accordance with the 72294
uniform rules and methods of valuing and assessing real property 72295
as adopted, prescribed, and promulgated by the tax commissioner. 72296
HeThe auditor shall determine the taxable value of all real 72297
property by reducing its true or current agricultural use value by 72298
the percentage ordered by the commissioner. In determining the 72299
true value of any tract, lot, or parcel of real estate under this 72300
section, if such tract, lot, or parcel has been the subject of an 72301
arm's length sale between a willing seller and a willing buyer 72302
within a reasonable length of time, either before or after the tax 72303
lien date, the auditor shallmay consider the sale price of such 72304
tract, lot, or parcel to be the true value for taxation purposes. 72305
However, the sale price in an arm's length transaction between a 72306
willing seller and a willing buyer shall not be considered the 72307
true value of the property sold if subsequent to the sale:72308

       (A) The tract, lot, or parcel of real estate loses value due 72309
to some casualty;72310

       (B) An improvement is added to the property. Nothing in this 72311
section or section 5713.01 of the Revised Code and no rule adopted 72312
under section 5715.01 of the Revised Code shall require the county 72313
auditor to change the true value in money of any property in any 72314
year except a year in which the tax commissioner is required to 72315
determine under section 5715.24 of the Revised Code whether the 72316
property has been assessed as required by law.72317

       The county auditor shall adopt and use a real property record 72318
approved by the commissioner for each tract, lot, or parcel of 72319
real property, setting forth the true and taxable value of land 72320
and, in the case of land valued in accordance with section 5713.31 72321
of the Revised Code, its current agricultural use value, the 72322
number of acres of arable land, permanent pasture land, woodland, 72323
and wasteland in each tract, lot, or parcel. HeThe auditor shall 72324
record pertinent information and the true and taxable value of 72325
each building, structure, or improvement to land, which value 72326
shall be included as a separate part of the total value of each 72327
tract, lot, or parcel of real property.72328

       Sec. 5719.13.  Taxes assessed on the shares of stock of a 72329
dealer in intangibles shall be a lien on such shares from the 72330
first day of January in each year until they are paid. Each dealer 72331
in intangibles shall collect the taxes due from the owners of such 72332
shares and payremit the same to the tax commissioner, who shall 72333
accept the remittance on behalf of the treasurer of state. The 72334
remittance shall be made payable to the treasurer of state and 72335
shall be made in the form prescribed by the commissioner. Any 72336
dealer in intangibles who fails to pay said taxes as provided in 72337
this section shall be liable by way of penalty for the gross 72338
amount of the taxes due from all the owners of shares, and for an 72339
additional amount of one hundred dollars for each day of delay in 72340
the payment of said taxes.72341

       A dealer in intangibles who pays to the treasurer of state72342
the taxes assessed upon its shares in the hands of its 72343
shareholders, as provided in this section, may deduct the amount 72344
thereof from dividends or distributions that are due or thereafter 72345
become due on such shares, and shall have a lien on the shares of 72346
stock and all funds belonging to such shareholders in its 72347
possession, or which come into its possession, for reimbursement 72348
of such tax paid on account of the shareholders, with legal 72349
interest. Such lien may be enforced in any appropriate manner.72350

       Sec. 5725.14. (A) As used in this section and section 5725.15 72351
of the Revised Code:72352

       (1) "Billing address" of a customer means one of the 72353
following:72354

       (a) The customer's address as set forth in any notice, 72355
statement, bill, or similar acknowledgment shall be presumed to be 72356
the address where the customer is located with respect to the 72357
transaction for which the dealer issued the notice, statement, 72358
bill, or acknowledgment.72359

       (b) If the dealer issues any notice, statement, bill, or 72360
similar acknowledgment electronically to an address other than a 72361
street address or post office box address or if the dealer does 72362
not issue such a notice, statement, bill, or acknowledgment, the 72363
customer's street address as set forth in the records of the 72364
dealer at the time of the transaction shall be presumed to be the 72365
address where the customer is located.72366

       (2) "Commissions" includes but is not limited to brokerage 72367
commissions, asset management fees, and similar fees charged in 72368
the regular course of business to a customer for the maintenance 72369
and management of the customer's account.72370

       (3) "Gross receipts" means one of the following:72371

       (a) In the case of a dealer in intangibles principally 72372
engaged in the business of lending money or discounting loans, the 72373
aggregate amount of loans effected or discounted;72374

       (b) In the case of a dealer in intangibles principally 72375
engaged in the business of selling or buying stocks, bonds, or 72376
other similar securities either on the dealer's own account or as 72377
agent for another, the aggregate amount of all commissions 72378
charged.72379

       (B) Each dealer in intangibles shall return to the tax 72380
commissioner between the first and second Mondays of March, 72381
annually, a report exhibiting in detail, and under appropriate 72382
heads, the dealer's resources and liabilities at the close of 72383
business on the thirty-first day of December next preceding, 72384
together with remittance made payable to the treasurer of state of 72385
the tax levied under division (D) of section 5707.03 of the 72386
Revised Code. In the case of an unincorporated dealer in 72387
intangibles, such report shall also exhibit the amount or value as 72388
of the date of conversion of all property within the year 72389
preceding the date of listing, and on or after the first day of 72390
November converted into bonds or other securities not taxed to the 72391
extent such nontaxable bonds or securities may be shown in the 72392
dealer's resources on such date, without deduction for 72393
indebtedness created in the purchase of such nontaxable bonds or 72394
securities.72395

       If a dealer in intangibles maintains separate business 72396
offices, whether within this state only or within and without this 72397
state, the report shall also show the gross receipts from business 72398
done at each such office during the year ending on the 72399
thirty-first day of December next preceding.72400

       For the purposes of this section and section 5725.15 of the 72401
Revised Code, business is considered done at an office when it 72402
originates at such office, but the receipts from business 72403
originating at one office and consummated at another office shall 72404
be divided equitably between such offices.72405

       (C) For the purposes of this section and section 5725.15 of 72406
the Revised Code, in the case of a dealer in intangibles 72407
principally engaged in the business of selling or buying stocks, 72408
bonds, or other similar securities either on the dealer's own 72409
account or as agent for another, the dealer's capital, surplus, 72410
and undivided profits employed in this state shall bear the same 72411
ratio to the dealer's total capital, surplus, and undivided 72412
profits employed everywhere as the amount described in division 72413
(C)(1) of this section bears to the amount described in division 72414
(C)(2) of this section:72415

       (1) The sum of the commissions earned during the year covered 72416
by the reportreturn from transactions with respect to brokerage 72417
accounts owned by customers having billing addresses in this 72418
state;72419

       (2) The sum of the commissions earned during that year from 72420
transactions with respect to brokerage accounts owned by all of 72421
the dealer's customers.72422

       (D) An incorporated dealer in intangibles which owns or 72423
controls fifty-one per cent or more of the common stock of another 72424
incorporated dealer in intangibles may, under uniform regulations 72425
prescribed by the tax commissioner, make a consolidated return for 72426
the purpose of sections 5725.01 to 5725.26, inclusive, of the 72427
Revised Code. In such case the parent corporation making such 72428
return is not required to include in its resources any of the 72429
stocks, securities, or other obligations of its subsidiary 72430
dealers, nor permitted to include in its liabilities any of its 72431
own securities or other obligations belonging to its subsidiaries.72432

       Sec. 5725.15. Upon receiving theThe report required by 72433
section 5725.14 of the Revised Code, the tax commissioner shall72434
ascertain and assessinclude as taxable property all the shares of 72435
such dealersthe dealer in intangibles, the capital stock of which 72436
is divided into shares, representing capital employed in this 72437
state, and the value of the property representing the capital, not 72438
divided into shares, employed in this state by such dealer in 72439
intangibles, according to the aggregate fair value of the capital, 72440
surplus, and undivided profits as shown in such report, including 72441
in the case of an unincorporated dealer, the value of property 72442
converted into nontaxable bonds or securities within the preceding 72443
year, without deduction for indebtedness created in the purchase 72444
of such nontaxable bonds or securities.72445

       The filing by a dealer of the report required by section 72446
5725.14 of the Revised Code shall be the preliminary assessment of 72447
the shares and property listed therein.72448

       If a dealer has separate offices, whether within this state 72449
only or within and without this state, the commissionerdealer72450
shall findlist the amount of capital employed in each office in 72451
this state, which shall bear the same ratio to the entire capital 72452
of such dealer, wherever employed, as the gross receipts of such 72453
office bears to the entire gross receipts of such dealer, wherever 72454
arising.72455

       The aggregate book value of the capital, surplus, and 72456
undivided profits of a dealer in intangibles as shown in such 72457
report shall be taken as the fair value thereof for the purpose of 72458
the assessment required by this section, unless the commissioner 72459
finds that such book value is greater or less than the then fair 72460
value of said capital, surplus, and undivided profits. Claim for 72461
any deduction from book value of capital, surplus, and undivided 72462
profits must be made in writing by the dealer in intangibles at 72463
the time of making histhe dealer's return.72464

       Whenever the commissioner assesses the fair value of the 72465
capital, surplus, and undivided profits of a dealer in intangibles 72466
at an amount in excess of the book value thereof as shown by its 72467
report, or disallows any claim for deduction from book value of 72468
such capital, surplus, and undivided profitslisted in the 72469
dealer's report, or assesses the shares or property of a dealer 72470
that fails to file a return, hethe commissioner shall give notice 72471
and proceed as provided in section 5711.31 of the Revised Code.72472

       Sec. 5725.16.  On or before the first Monday of May, annually 72473
, the tax commissioner shall certify to the treasurer of state the 72474
assessment of the shares or property representing capital, or 72475
apportionment of either, of each dealer in intangibles doing 72476
business in the state, showing separately the amount representing 72477
capital employed in each county.72478

       The treasurer of state shall place the amounts certified on 72479
the intangible property tax list in histhe treasurer of state's72480
office in the names of the dealers represented by those 72481
certificates.72482

       Any certificate of abatement issued pursuant to section 72483
5703.05 of the Revised Code for the overpayment of the tax on 72484
shares or property representing capital of aThe commissioner 72485
shall collect, on behalf of the treasurer, the taxes due on the 72486
assessments certified pursuant to this section, together with any 72487
applicable penalties or interest, in the manner prescribed by 72488
section 5725.22 of the Revised Code. The commissioner shall 72489
immediately forward to the treasurer any payments received under 72490
this section or section 5719.13 of the Revised Code. The treasurer 72491
shall credit all such payments against the appropriate amounts on 72492
the intangible property tax list in the treasurer's office.72493

       A dealer in intangibles may be tendered by the payee or 72494
transferee thereof to the treasurer of state as payment for any 72495
taxes allocable to the county in which the claim fora refund of 72496
any overpayment aroseof the tax levied under division (D) of 72497
section 5707.03 of the Revised Code by filing an application for 72498
final assessment in accordance with section 5711.26 of the Revised 72499
Code.72500

       Sec. 5725.17.  (A) In addition to any other penalty imposed 72501
by this chapter or Chapter 5703. of the Revised Code, the 72502
following penalties shall apply:72503

       (1) If a dealer in intangibles fails to make and furnish to 72504
the tax commissioner the report required by section 5725.14 of the 72505
Revised Code, within the time fixed by that section, a penalty 72506
shall be imposed equal to the greater of fifty dollars per month 72507
or fraction of a month, not to exceed five hundred dollars, or 72508
five per cent per month or fraction of a month, not to exceed 72509
fifty per cent, of the tax required to be shown on the report, for 72510
each month or fraction of a month elapsing between the due date, 72511
including extensions of the due date, and the date on which the 72512
report is filed.72513

       (2) If a dealer in intangibles fails to pay any amounts of 72514
the tax levied by division (D) of section 5707.03 of the Revised 72515
Code by the dates prescribed for payment, a penalty shall be 72516
imposed equal to the greater of the penalty due under division72517
(C)(F) of section 5725.22 of the Revised Code, for which this 72518
penalty shall be a substitute, or two times the interest charged 72519
under section 5725.221 of the Revised Code for the delinquent 72520
payment.72521

       (3) If a dealer in intangibles submits a report required by 72522
section 5725.14 of the Revised Code that is marked, defaced, or 72523
otherwise designed by the dealer to be a frivolous protest or an 72524
attempt to delay or impede the administration of the tax levied by 72525
division (D) of section 5707.03 of the Revised Code, a penalty 72526
shall be imposed equal to the greater of one hundred dollars or 72527
twenty-five per cent of the tax required to be shown on the 72528
report.72529

       (4) If a dealer in intangibles makes a fraudulent attempt to 72530
evade the reporting or payment of the tax levied by division (D) 72531
of section 5707.03 of the Revised Code, a penalty shall be imposed 72532
equal to the greater of one thousand dollars or one hundred per 72533
cent of the tax required to be shown on the report required by 72534
section 5725.14 of the Revised Code.72535

       (5) If any person makes a false or fraudulent claim for 72536
abatement or refund of the tax levied by division (D) of section 72537
5707.03 of the Revised Code, a penalty shall be imposed equal to 72538
the greater of one thousand dollars or one hundred per cent of the 72539
claim. The penalty imposed by this division, any abatement or 72540
refund on the claim, and interest on any refund from the date of 72541
the refund, may be assessed under section 5725.15 of the Revised 72542
Code or added by the treasurer of statetax commissioner as tax, 72543
penalty, and interest due from the tax levied by division (D) of 72544
section 5707.03 of the Revised Code, without regard to whether the 72545
person making the claim is otherwise subject to the tax, and 72546
without regard to any time limitation for assessment.72547

       (B) Each penalty imposed under division (A) of this section 72548
shall be in addition to any other penalty imposed under that 72549
division. All or part of any penalty imposed under division (A) of 72550
this section may be abated by the commissioner or the treasurer of 72551
state, as appropriate.72552

       Sec. 5725.22. (A) The treasurer of state shall maintain an 72553
intangible property tax list of taxes levied by section 5707.03 of 72554
the Revised Code and certified by the tax commissioner pursuant to 72555
sections 5711.13, 5725.08, 5725.16, and 5727.15 of the Revised 72556
Code, and a separate list of taxes levied by section 5725.18 of 72557
the Revised Code and certified by the superintendent of insurance 72558
pursuant to section 5725.20 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of 72559
any assessment certified to him72560

       (B)(1) With respect to taxes levied under section 5725.18 of 72561
the Revised Code, the treasurer of state, upon receipt of an 72562
assessment, shall compute the taxes at the rates prescribed by law 72563
and enter the taxes on the proper tax list. HeThe treasurer shall 72564
collect, and the taxpayer shall pay, all such taxes and any 72565
interest applicable thereto. Payments may be made by mail, in 72566
person, or by any other means authorized by the treasurer of 72567
state. The treasurer of state shall render a daily itemized 72568
statement to the tax commissionersuperintendent of insurance of 72569
the amount of taxes collected and the name of the domestic 72570
insurance company or assessment certificate number of the person72571
from whom collected. The treasurer of state may adopt rules 72572
concerning the methods and timeliness of paymentpayments under 72573
this division.72574

       (2) With respect to taxes levied under section 5707.03 of the 72575
Revised Code, any assessment certified to the treasurer of state 72576
shall reflect the taxes computed at the rates prescribed by law. 72577
Upon receipt of such an assessment, the treasurer shall enter the 72578
taxes on the proper tax list. The tax commissioner shall collect, 72579
and the taxpayer shall pay, all such taxes and any interest 72580
applicable thereto. Payments may be made by mail, in person, or by 72581
any other means authorized by the commissioner. The commissioner 72582
shall immediately forward to the treasurer any payments received 72583
under this division, together with any information necessary for 72584
the treasurer to properly credit such payments. The commissioner 72585
may adopt rules concerning the method and timeliness of payments 72586
under this division.72587

       (C) Each tax bill issued pursuant to this section shall 72588
separately reflect the taxes due, interest, if any, due date, and 72589
any other information considered necessary. The last day on which 72590
payment may be made without penalty shall be at least twenty but 72591
not more than thirty days from the date of mailing the tax bill. 72592
The treasurer of state or tax commissioner, as appropriate, shall 72593
mail the tax bill, and the mailing thereof shall be prima-facie 72594
evidence of receipt thereof by the taxpayer.72595

       The treasurer of stateor commissioner, as appropriate, shall 72596
refund taxes as provided in this section, but no refund shall be 72597
made to a taxpayer having a delinquent claim certified pursuant to 72598
this section that remains unpaid. The treasurer of stateor 72599
commissioner may consult the attorney general regarding such 72600
claims. Refunds shall be paid from the tax refund fund created by 72601
section 5703.052 of the Revised Code.72602

       (A)(D)(1) Within twenty days after receipt of any preliminary 72603
assessment certified to himof taxes levied under section 5725.18 72604
of the Revised Code, the treasurer of state shall issue a tax 72605
bill, but if such preliminary assessment reflects a late filed tax 72606
return, the treasurer of state shall add interest as provided in 72607
division (A) of section 5725.221 of the Revised Code and issue a 72608
tax bill.72609

       (B)(2) Within twenty days after receipt of any amended or 72610
final assessment certified to himof taxes levied under section 72611
5725.18 of the Revised Code, the treasurer of state shall 72612
ascertain the difference between the total taxes computed on such 72613
assessment and the total taxes computed on the most recent 72614
assessment certified for the same tax year. If the difference is a 72615
deficiency, the treasurer of state shall add interest as provided 72616
in division (B)(1) of section 5725.221 of the Revised Code and 72617
issue a tax bill. If the difference is an excess, the treasurer of 72618
state shall add interest as provided in division (B)(2) of section 72619
5725.221 of the Revised Code and certify the name of the taxpayer 72620
and the amount to be refunded to the director of budget and 72621
management for payment to the taxpayer. If the taxpayer has a 72622
deficiency for one tax year and an excess for another tax year, or 72623
any combination thereof for more than two tax years, the treasurer 72624
of state may determine the net result after adding interest, if 72625
applicable, and, depending on such result, proceed to mail a tax 72626
bill or certify a refund.72627

       (C)(E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this 72628
section, within twenty days after certifying to the treasurer of 72629
state an amended or final assessment, or a preliminary assessment 72630
of a dealer in intangibles that has failed to file a report or 72631
disclose taxable property, the tax commissioner shall ascertain 72632
the difference between the total taxes computed on such assessment 72633
and the total taxes computed on the most recent assessment 72634
certified for the same tax year, if any. If the difference is a 72635
deficiency, the commissioner shall add interest as provided in 72636
division (B)(1) of section 5725.221 of the Revised Code and issue 72637
a tax bill. If the difference is an excess, the commissioner shall 72638
add interest as provided in division (B)(2) of section 5725.221 of 72639
the Revised Code and certify the name of the taxpayer and the 72640
amount to be refunded to the director of budget and management for 72641
payment to the taxpayer. If the taxpayer has a deficiency for one 72642
tax year and excess for another tax year, or any combination 72643
thereof for more than two tax years, the commissioner may 72644
determine the net result after adding interest, if applicable, 72645
and, depending on such result, proceed to mail a tax bill or 72646
certify a refund.72647

       (2) The tax commissioner may issue a tax bill for any 72648
deficiency resulting from an assessment at the time the 72649
commissioner issues the assessment.72650

        (F) If a taxpayer fails to pay all taxes and interest, if 72651
any, on or before the due date shown on the tax bill but makes 72652
payment within ten calendar days of such date, the treasurer of 72653
state or tax commissioner, as appropriate, shall add a penalty 72654
equal to five per cent of the taxes due. If payment is not made 72655
within ten days of such date, the treasurer of stateor 72656
commissioner shall add a penalty equal to ten per cent of the 72657
taxes due. The treasurer of stateor commissioner shall prepare a 72658
delinquent claim for each tax bill on which penalties were added 72659
and certify such claims to the attorney general for collection. 72660
The attorney general shall transmit a copy of each claim certified 72661
by the treasurer to the tax commissioner or the superintendent of 72662
insurance and. For each claim certified by the treasurer or 72663
commissioner, the attorney general shall proceed to collect the 72664
delinquent taxes, penalties, and interest thereon in the manner 72665
prescribed by law.72666

       Sec. 5725.221.  For the purposes of this section, interest 72667
shall be computed at a rate per calendar month, rounded to the 72668
nearest one-hundredth of one per cent, equal to one-twelfth of the 72669
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 72670
for the calendar year that includes the month for which the 72671
interest accrues.72672

       (A) When taxes levied by section 3737.71, 5707.03, or 5725.18 72673
of the Revised Code are assessed as the result of a tax return 72674
being filed late, the treasurer of state or tax commissioner, as 72675
appropriate, shall add interest to the taxes due. The interest 72676
shall accrue from the first day of the month following the last 72677
day on which such taxes were required to be paid, had the 72678
assessment been certified by the date prescribed, to the last day 72679
of the month preceding the date on which the assessment was 72680
certified, and shall be computed on the taxes due.72681

       (B) If an assessment has been certified pursuant to section 72682
5711.13, 5725.08, 5725.16, 5725.20, or 5725.222 of the Revised 72683
Code and an amended or final assessment is certified for the same 72684
taxpayer and the same tax year, the treasurer of state or tax 72685
commissioner, as appropriate, shall add interest to the deficiency 72686
or excess. The interest shall be computed on the excess or 72687
deficiency, and shall be accrued in the following manner:72688

       (1) On a deficiency, interest shall accrue from the first day 72689
of the month following the last day on which the previous 72690
assessment was required to be paid, to the last day of the month 72691
preceding the date on which the amended or final assessment is 72692
certified;72693

       (2) On an excess, interest shall be allowed from the first 72694
day of the month following the date of payment of the previous 72695
assessment, to the last day of the month preceding the date on 72696
which the amended or final assessment is certified.72697

       Sec. 5731.39.  (A) No corporation organized or existing under 72698
the laws of this state shall transfer on its books or issue a new 72699
certificate for any share of its capital stock registered in the 72700
name of a decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of 72701
a decedent and another person or persons, without the written 72702
consent of the tax commissioner.72703

       (B) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 72704
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 72705
Revised Code or other corporation or person, having in possession, 72706
control, or custody a deposit standing in the name of a decedent, 72707
or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent and 72708
another person or persons, shall deliver or transfer an amount in 72709
excess of three-fourths of the total value of such deposit, 72710
including accrued interest and dividends, as of the date of 72711
decedent's death, without the written consent of the tax 72712
commissioner. The written consent of the tax commissioner need not 72713
be obtained prior to the delivery or transfer of amounts having a 72714
value of three-fourths or less of said total value.72715

       (C) No life insurance company shall pay the proceeds of an 72716
annuity or matured endowment contract, or of a life insurance 72717
contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or of any other 72718
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 72719
Code, without the written consent of the tax commissioner. Any 72720
life insurance company may pay the proceeds of any insurance 72721
contract not specified in this division (C) without the written 72722
consent of the tax commissioner.72723

       (D) No trust company or other corporation or person shall pay 72724
the proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension or profit 72725
sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, without the 72726
written consent of the tax commissioner. Such trust company or 72727
other corporation or person, however, may pay the proceeds of any 72728
death benefit, retirement, pension, or profit-sharing plan which 72729
consists of insurance on the life of the decedent payable to a 72730
beneficiary other than the estate of the insured without the 72731
written consent of the tax commissioner.72732

       (E) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 72733
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 72734
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 72735
possession, control, or custody securities, assets, or other 72736
property (including the shares of the capital stock of, or other 72737
interest in, such safe deposit company, trust company, financial 72738
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 72739
Revised Code, or other corporation), standing in the name of a 72740
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 72741
and another person or persons, and the transfer of which is 72742
taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code, shall deliver or 72743
transfer any such securities, assets, or other property which have 72744
a value as of the date of decedent's death in excess of 72745
three-fourths of the total value thereof, without the written 72746
consent of the tax commissioner. The written consent of the tax 72747
commissioner need not be obtained prior to the delivery or 72748
transfer of any such securities, assets, or other property having 72749
a value of three-fourths or less of said total value.72750

       (F) No safe deposit company, financial institution as defined 72751
in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, or other 72752
corporation or person having possession or control of a safe 72753
deposit box or similar receptacle standing in the name of a 72754
decedent or in the name of the decedent and another person or 72755
persons, or to which the decedent had a right of access, except 72756
when such safe deposit box or other receptacle stands in the name 72757
of a corporation or partnership, or in the name of the decedent as 72758
guardian or executor, shall deliver any of the contents thereof 72759
unless the safe deposit box or similar receptacle has been opened 72760
and inventoried in the presence of the tax commissioner or the 72761
commissioner's agent, and a written consent to transfer issued; 72762
provided, however, that a safe deposit company, financial 72763
institution, or other corporation or person having possession or 72764
control of a safe deposit box may deliver wills, deeds to burial 72765
lots, and insurance policies to a representative of the decedent, 72766
but that a representative of the safe deposit company, financial 72767
institution, or other corporation or person must supervise the 72768
opening of the box and make a written record of the wills, deeds, 72769
and policies removed. Such written record shall be included in the 72770
tax commissioner's inventory records.72771

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section:72772

       (1) The tax commissioner may authorize any delivery or 72773
transfer or waive any of the foregoing requirements under such 72774
terms and conditions as the commissioner may prescribe;72775

       (2) An adult care facility, as defined in section 5119.70 of 72776
the Revised Code, or aA home, as defined in section 3721.10 of 72777
the Revised Code, or a residential facility licensed under section 72778
5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 72779
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 72780
unrelated adults, may transfer or use the money in a personal 72781
needs allowance account in accordance with section 5111.113 of the 72782
Revised Code without the written consent of the tax commissioner, 72783
and without the account having been opened and inventoried in the 72784
presence of the commissioner or the commissioner's agent. 72785

       Failure to comply with this section shall render such safe 72786
deposit company, trust company, life insurance company, financial 72787
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 72788
Revised Code, or other corporation or person liable for the amount 72789
of the taxes and interest due under the provisions of Chapter 72790
5731. of the Revised Code on the transfer of such stock, deposit, 72791
proceeds of an annuity or matured endowment contract or of a life 72792
insurance contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or other 72793
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 72794
Code, proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 72795
profit sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, or 72796
securities, assets, or other property of any resident decedent, 72797
and in addition thereto, to a penalty of not less than five 72798
hundred or more than five thousand dollars.72799

       Sec. 5733.064.  There is hereby allowed a credit against the 72800
tax imposed under sections 5733.06, 5733.065, and 5733.066 of the 72801
Revised Code. The credit shall equal the lesser of fifty per cent 72802
of any cash donations made during the taxable year by the taxpayer 72803
to an Ohio corporation organized prior to January 1, 1987, whose 72804
sole purpose is to promote and encourage recycling and that has 72805
been determined by the internal revenue service to be a nonprofit 72806
corporation regardless of whether the nonprofit corporation 72807
received a grant under section 1502.053736.05 of the Revised 72808
Code, or to municipal corporations, counties, townships, park 72809
districts, and boards of education that received grants pursuant 72810
to that section, or one-half of the amount of the taxpayer's 72811
additional tax liability for the tax year resulting from the 72812
additional rates imposed by sections 5733.065 and 5733.066 of the 72813
Revised Code to provide funding for the division of recycling and 72814
litter prevention under Chapter 1502.3736. of the Revised Code. 72815
The taxpayer shall claim the nonrefundable credit in the order 72816
required under section 5733.98 of the Revised Code.72817

       The tax commissioner may require the taxpayer to furnish such 72818
information as is necessary to support a claim for a credit under 72819
this section, and no credit shall be allowed unless the 72820
information is provided.72821

       Sec. 5739.01.  As used in this chapter:72822

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 72823
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 72824
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 72825
societies, corporations, the state and its political subdivisions, 72826
and combinations of individuals of any form.72827

       (B) "Sale" and "selling" include all of the following 72828
transactions for a consideration in any manner, whether absolutely 72829
or conditionally, whether for a price or rental, in money or by 72830
exchange, and by any means whatsoever:72831

       (1) All transactions by which title or possession, or both, 72832
of tangible personal property, is or is to be transferred, or a 72833
license to use or consume tangible personal property is or is to 72834
be granted;72835

       (2) All transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 72836
be furnished to transient guests;72837

       (3) All transactions by which:72838

       (a) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 72839
repaired, except property, the purchase of which would not be 72840
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code;72841

       (b) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 72842
installed, except property, the purchase of which would not be 72843
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 72844
or property that is or is to be incorporated into and will become 72845
a part of a production, transmission, transportation, or 72846
distribution system for the delivery of a public utility service;72847

       (c) The service of washing, cleaning, waxing, polishing, or 72848
painting a motor vehicle is or is to be furnished;72849

       (d) Until August 1, 2003, industrial laundry cleaning 72850
services are or are to be provided and, on and after August 1, 72851
2003, laundry and dry cleaning services are or are to be provided;72852

       (e) Automatic data processing, computer services, or 72853
electronic information services are or are to be provided for use 72854
in business when the true object of the transaction is the receipt 72855
by the consumer of automatic data processing, computer services, 72856
or electronic information services rather than the receipt of 72857
personal or professional services to which automatic data 72858
processing, computer services, or electronic information services 72859
are incidental or supplemental. Notwithstanding any other 72860
provision of this chapter, such transactions that occur between 72861
members of an affiliated group are not sales. An "affiliated 72862
group" means two or more persons related in such a way that one 72863
person owns or controls the business operation of another member 72864
of the group. In the case of corporations with stock, one 72865
corporation owns or controls another if it owns more than fifty 72866
per cent of the other corporation's common stock with voting 72867
rights.72868

       (f) Telecommunications service, including prepaid calling 72869
service, prepaid wireless calling service, or ancillary service, 72870
is or is to be provided, but not including coin-operated telephone 72871
service;72872

       (g) Landscaping and lawn care service is or is to be 72873
provided;72874

       (h) Private investigation and security service is or is to be 72875
provided;72876

       (i) Information services or tangible personal property is 72877
provided or ordered by means of a nine hundred telephone call;72878

       (j) Building maintenance and janitorial service is or is to 72879
be provided;72880

       (k) Employment service is or is to be provided;72881

       (l) Employment placement service is or is to be provided;72882

       (m) Exterminating service is or is to be provided;72883

       (n) Physical fitness facility service is or is to be 72884
provided;72885

       (o) Recreation and sports club service is or is to be 72886
provided;72887

       (p) On and after August 1, 2003, satellite broadcasting 72888
service is or is to be provided;72889

       (q) On and after August 1, 2003, personal care service is or 72890
is to be provided to an individual. As used in this division, 72891
"personal care service" includes skin care, the application of 72892
cosmetics, manicuring, pedicuring, hair removal, tattooing, body 72893
piercing, tanning, massage, and other similar services. "Personal 72894
care service" does not include a service provided by or on the 72895
order of a licensed physician or licensed chiropractor, or the 72896
cutting, coloring, or styling of an individual's hair.72897

       (r) On and after August 1, 2003, the transportation of 72898
persons by motor vehicle or aircraft is or is to be provided, when 72899
the transportation is entirely within this state, except for 72900
transportation provided by an ambulance service, by a transit bus, 72901
as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code, and 72902
transportation provided by a citizen of the United States holding 72903
a certificate of public convenience and necessity issued under 49 72904
U.S.C. 41102;72905

       (s) On and after August 1, 2003, motor vehicle towing service 72906
is or is to be provided. As used in this division, "motor vehicle 72907
towing service" means the towing or conveyance of a wrecked, 72908
disabled, or illegally parked motor vehicle.72909

        (t) On and after August 1, 2003, snow removal service is or 72910
is to be provided. As used in this division, "snow removal 72911
service" means the removal of snow by any mechanized means, but 72912
does not include the providing of such service by a person that 72913
has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service 72914
during the calendar year.72915

       (u) Electronic publishing service is or is to be provided to 72916
a consumer for use in business, except that such transactions 72917
occurring between members of an affiliated group, as defined in 72918
division (B)(3)(e) of this section, are not sales.72919

       (4) All transactions by which printed, imprinted, 72920
overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, blueprinted, photostatic, 72921
or other productions or reproductions of written or graphic matter 72922
are or are to be furnished or transferred;72923

       (5) The production or fabrication of tangible personal 72924
property for a consideration for consumers who furnish either 72925
directly or indirectly the materials used in the production of 72926
fabrication work; and include the furnishing, preparing, or 72927
serving for a consideration of any tangible personal property 72928
consumed on the premises of the person furnishing, preparing, or 72929
serving such tangible personal property. Except as provided in 72930
section 5739.03 of the Revised Code, a construction contract 72931
pursuant to which tangible personal property is or is to be 72932
incorporated into a structure or improvement on and becoming a 72933
part of real property is not a sale of such tangible personal 72934
property. The construction contractor is the consumer of such 72935
tangible personal property, provided that the sale and 72936
installation of carpeting, the sale and installation of 72937
agricultural land tile, the sale and erection or installation of 72938
portable grain bins, or the provision of landscaping and lawn care 72939
service and the transfer of property as part of such service is 72940
never a construction contract.72941

       As used in division (B)(5) of this section:72942

       (a) "Agricultural land tile" means fired clay or concrete 72943
tile, or flexible or rigid perforated plastic pipe or tubing, 72944
incorporated or to be incorporated into a subsurface drainage 72945
system appurtenant to land used or to be used primarily in 72946
production by farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. 72947
The term does not include such materials when they are or are to 72948
be incorporated into a drainage system appurtenant to a building 72949
or structure even if the building or structure is used or to be 72950
used in such production.72951

       (b) "Portable grain bin" means a structure that is used or to 72952
be used by a person engaged in farming or agriculture to shelter 72953
the person's grain and that is designed to be disassembled without 72954
significant damage to its component parts.72955

       (6) All transactions in which all of the shares of stock of a 72956
closely held corporation are transferred, if the corporation is 72957
not engaging in business and its entire assets consist of boats, 72958
planes, motor vehicles, or other tangible personal property 72959
operated primarily for the use and enjoyment of the shareholders;72960

       (7) All transactions in which a warranty, maintenance or 72961
service contract, or similar agreement by which the vendor of the 72962
warranty, contract, or agreement agrees to repair or maintain the 72963
tangible personal property of the consumer is or is to be 72964
provided;72965

       (8) The transfer of copyrighted motion picture films used 72966
solely for advertising purposes, except that the transfer of such 72967
films for exhibition purposes is not a sale;72968

       (9) On and after August 1, 2003, all transactions by which 72969
tangible personal property is or is to be stored, except such 72970
property that the consumer of the storage holds for sale in the 72971
regular course of business;72972

       (10) All transactions in which "guaranteed auto protection" 72973
is provided whereby a person promises to pay to the consumer the 72974
difference between the amount the consumer receives from motor 72975
vehicle insurance and the amount the consumer owes to a person 72976
holding title to or a lien on the consumer's motor vehicle in the 72977
event the consumer's motor vehicle suffers a total loss under the 72978
terms of the motor vehicle insurance policy or is stolen and not 72979
recovered, if the protection and its price are included in the 72980
purchase or lease agreement;72981

       (11)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(11)(b) of this 72982
section, on and after October 1, 2009, all transactions by which 72983
health care services are paid for, reimbursed, provided, 72984
delivered, arranged for, or otherwise made available by a medicaid 72985
health insuring corporation pursuant to the corporation's contract 72986
with the state.72987

       (b) If the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 72988
United States department of health and human services determines 72989
that the taxation of transactions described in division (B)(11)(a) 72990
of this section constitutes an impermissible health care-related 72991
tax under section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 72992
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, and regulations 72993
adopted thereunder, the director of job and family services shall 72994
notify the tax commissioner of that determination. Beginning with 72995
the first day of the month following that notification, the 72996
transactions described in division (B)(11)(a) of this section are 72997
not sales for the purposes of this chapter or Chapter 5741. of the 72998
Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall order that the collection 72999
of taxes under sections 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, 5739.026, 73000
5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, and 5741.023 of the Revised Code 73001
shall cease for transactions occurring on or after that date.73002

       Except as provided in this section, "sale" and "selling" do 73003
not include transfers of interest in leased property where the 73004
original lessee and the terms of the original lease agreement 73005
remain unchanged, or professional, insurance, or personal service 73006
transactions that involve the transfer of tangible personal 73007
property as an inconsequential element, for which no separate 73008
charges are made.73009

       (C) "Vendor" means the person providing the service or by 73010
whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale is or is to 73011
be made or given and, for sales described in division (B)(3)(i) of 73012
this section, the telecommunications service vendor that provides 73013
the nine hundred telephone service; if two or more persons are 73014
engaged in business at the same place of business under a single 73015
trade name in which all collections on account of sales by each 73016
are made, such persons shall constitute a single vendor.73017

       Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and veterinarians who are 73018
engaged in selling tangible personal property as received from 73019
others, such as eyeglasses, mouthwashes, dentifrices, or similar 73020
articles, are vendors. Veterinarians who are engaged in 73021
transferring to others for a consideration drugs, the dispensing 73022
of which does not require an order of a licensed veterinarian or 73023
physician under federal law, are vendors.73024

       (D)(1) "Consumer" means the person for whom the service is 73025
provided, to whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale 73026
is or is to be made or given, to whom the service described in 73027
division (B)(3)(f) or (i) of this section is charged, or to whom 73028
the admission is granted.73029

       (2) Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and blood banks operated 73030
by nonprofit institutions and persons licensed to practice 73031
veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry are consumers of all 73032
tangible personal property and services purchased by them in 73033
connection with the practice of medicine, dentistry, the rendition 73034
of hospital or blood bank service, or the practice of veterinary 73035
medicine, surgery, and dentistry. In addition to being consumers 73036
of drugs administered by them or by their assistants according to 73037
their direction, veterinarians also are consumers of drugs that 73038
under federal law may be dispensed only by or upon the order of a 73039
licensed veterinarian or physician, when transferred by them to 73040
others for a consideration to provide treatment to animals as 73041
directed by the veterinarian.73042

       (3) A person who performs a facility management, or similar 73043
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 73044
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 73045
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 73046
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 73047
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 73048
under division (E)(1) of this section.73049

       (4)(a) In the case of a person who purchases printed matter 73050
for the purpose of distributing it or having it distributed to the 73051
public or to a designated segment of the public, free of charge, 73052
that person is the consumer of that printed matter, and the 73053
purchase of that printed matter for that purpose is a sale.73054

       (b) In the case of a person who produces, rather than 73055
purchases, printed matter for the purpose of distributing it or 73056
having it distributed to the public or to a designated segment of 73057
the public, free of charge, that person is the consumer of all 73058
tangible personal property and services purchased for use or 73059
consumption in the production of that printed matter. That person 73060
is not entitled to claim exemption under division (B)(42)(f) of 73061
section 5739.02 of the Revised Code for any material incorporated 73062
into the printed matter or any equipment, supplies, or services 73063
primarily used to produce the printed matter.73064

       (c) The distribution of printed matter to the public or to a 73065
designated segment of the public, free of charge, is not a sale to 73066
the members of the public to whom the printed matter is 73067
distributed or to any persons who purchase space in the printed 73068
matter for advertising or other purposes.73069

       (5) A person who makes sales of any of the services listed in 73070
division (B)(3) of this section is the consumer of any tangible 73071
personal property used in performing the service. The purchase of 73072
that property is not subject to the resale exception under 73073
division (E)(1) of this section.73074

       (6) A person who engages in highway transportation for hire 73075
is the consumer of all packaging materials purchased by that 73076
person and used in performing the service, except for packaging 73077
materials sold by such person in a transaction separate from the 73078
service.73079

       (7) In the case of a transaction for health care services 73080
under division (B)(11) of this section, a medicaid health insuring 73081
corporation is the consumer of such services. The purchase of such 73082
services by a medicaid health insuring corporation is not subject 73083
to the exception for resale under division (E)(1) of this section 73084
or to the exemptions provided under divisions (B)(12), (18), (19), 73085
and (22) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.73086

       (E) "Retail sale" and "sales at retail" include all sales, 73087
except those in which the purpose of the consumer is to resell the 73088
thing transferred or benefit of the service provided, by a person 73089
engaging in business, in the form in which the same is, or is to 73090
be, received by the person.73091

       (F) "Business" includes any activity engaged in by any person 73092
with the object of gain, benefit, or advantage, either direct or 73093
indirect. "Business" does not include the activity of a person in 73094
managing and investing the person's own funds.73095

       (G) "Engaging in business" means commencing, conducting, or 73096
continuing in business, and liquidating a business when the 73097
liquidator thereof holds itself out to the public as conducting 73098
such business. Making a casual sale is not engaging in business.73099

       (H)(1)(a) "Price," except as provided in divisions (H)(2), 73100
(3), and (4) of this section, means the total amount of 73101
consideration, including cash, credit, property, and services, for 73102
which tangible personal property or services are sold, leased, or 73103
rented, valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, 73104
without any deduction for any of the following:73105

       (i) The vendor's cost of the property sold;73106

       (ii) The cost of materials used, labor or service costs, 73107
interest, losses, all costs of transportation to the vendor, all 73108
taxes imposed on the vendor, including the tax imposed under 73109
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, and any other expense of the 73110
vendor;73111

       (iii) Charges by the vendor for any services necessary to 73112
complete the sale;73113

       (iv) On and after August 1, 2003, delivery charges. As used 73114
in this division, "delivery charges" means charges by the vendor 73115
for preparation and delivery to a location designated by the 73116
consumer of tangible personal property or a service, including 73117
transportation, shipping, postage, handling, crating, and packing.73118

       (v) Installation charges;73119

       (vi) Credit for any trade-in.73120

       (b) "Price" includes consideration received by the vendor 73121
from a third party, if the vendor actually receives the 73122
consideration from a party other than the consumer, and the 73123
consideration is directly related to a price reduction or discount 73124
on the sale; the vendor has an obligation to pass the price 73125
reduction or discount through to the consumer; the amount of the 73126
consideration attributable to the sale is fixed and determinable 73127
by the vendor at the time of the sale of the item to the consumer; 73128
and one of the following criteria is met:73129

       (i) The consumer presents a coupon, certificate, or other 73130
document to the vendor to claim a price reduction or discount 73131
where the coupon, certificate, or document is authorized, 73132
distributed, or granted by a third party with the understanding 73133
that the third party will reimburse any vendor to whom the coupon, 73134
certificate, or document is presented;73135

       (ii) The consumer identifies the consumer's self to the 73136
seller as a member of a group or organization entitled to a price 73137
reduction or discount. A preferred customer card that is available 73138
to any patron does not constitute membership in such a group or 73139
organization.73140

       (iii) The price reduction or discount is identified as a 73141
third party price reduction or discount on the invoice received by 73142
the consumer, or on a coupon, certificate, or other document 73143
presented by the consumer.73144

       (c) "Price" does not include any of the following:73145

       (i) Discounts, including cash, term, or coupons that are not 73146
reimbursed by a third party that are allowed by a vendor and taken 73147
by a consumer on a sale;73148

       (ii) Interest, financing, and carrying charges from credit 73149
extended on the sale of tangible personal property or services, if 73150
the amount is separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or 73151
similar document given to the purchaser;73152

       (iii) Any taxes legally imposed directly on the consumer that 73153
are separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or similar 73154
document given to the consumer. For the purpose of this division, 73155
the tax imposed under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code is not a 73156
tax directly on the consumer, even if the tax or a portion thereof 73157
is separately stated.73158

       (iv) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1)(b)(i) to (iii) of this 73159
section, any discount allowed by an automobile manufacturer to its 73160
employee, or to the employee of a supplier, on the purchase of a 73161
new motor vehicle from a new motor vehicle dealer in this state.73162

       (v) The dollar value of a gift card that is not sold by a 73163
vendor or purchased by a consumer and that is redeemed by the 73164
consumer in purchasing tangible personal property or services if 73165
the vendor is not reimbursed and does not receive compensation 73166
from a third party to cover all or part of the gift card value. 73167
For the purposes of this division, a gift card is not sold by a 73168
vendor or purchased by a consumer if it is distributed pursuant to 73169
an awards, loyalty, or promotional program. Past and present 73170
purchases of tangible personal property or services by the 73171
consumer shall not be treated as consideration exchanged for a 73172
gift card.73173

       (2) In the case of a sale of any new motor vehicle by a new 73174
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 73175
Code, in which another motor vehicle is accepted by the dealer as 73176
part of the consideration received, "price" has the same meaning 73177
as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the credit 73178
afforded the consumer by the dealer for the motor vehicle received 73179
in trade.73180

       (3) In the case of a sale of any watercraft or outboard motor 73181
by a watercraft dealer licensed in accordance with section 73182
1547.543 of the Revised Code, in which another watercraft, 73183
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor is accepted by the 73184
dealer as part of the consideration received, "price" has the same 73185
meaning as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the 73186
credit afforded the consumer by the dealer for the watercraft, 73187
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor received in trade. As 73188
used in this division, "watercraft" includes an outdrive unit 73189
attached to the watercraft.73190

       (4) In the case of transactions for health care services 73191
under division (B)(11) of this section, "price" means the amount 73192
of managed care premiums received each month by a medicaid health 73193
insuring corporation.73194

       (I) "Receipts" means the total amount of the prices of the 73195
sales of vendors, provided that the dollar value of gift cards 73196
distributed pursuant to an awards, loyalty, or promotional 73197
program, and cash discounts allowed and taken on sales at the time 73198
they are consummated are not included, minus any amount deducted 73199
as a bad debt pursuant to section 5739.121 of the Revised Code. 73200
"Receipts" does not include the sale price of property returned or 73201
services rejected by consumers when the full sale price and tax 73202
are refunded either in cash or by credit.73203

       (J) "Place of business" means any location at which a person 73204
engages in business.73205

       (K) "Premises" includes any real property or portion thereof 73206
upon which any person engages in selling tangible personal 73207
property at retail or making retail sales and also includes any 73208
real property or portion thereof designated for, or devoted to, 73209
use in conjunction with the business engaged in by such person.73210

       (L) "Casual sale" means a sale of an item of tangible 73211
personal property that was obtained by the person making the sale, 73212
through purchase or otherwise, for the person's own use and was 73213
previously subject to any state's taxing jurisdiction on its sale 73214
or use, and includes such items acquired for the seller's use that 73215
are sold by an auctioneer employed directly by the person for such 73216
purpose, provided the location of such sales is not the 73217
auctioneer's permanent place of business. As used in this 73218
division, "permanent place of business" includes any location 73219
where such auctioneer has conducted more than two auctions during 73220
the year.73221

       (M) "Hotel" means every establishment kept, used, maintained, 73222
advertised, or held out to the public to be a place where sleeping 73223
accommodations are offered to guests, in which five or more rooms 73224
are used for the accommodation of such guests, whether the rooms 73225
are in one or several structures, except as otherwise provided in 73226
division (G) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.73227

       (N) "Transient guests" means persons occupying a room or 73228
rooms for sleeping accommodations for less than thirty consecutive 73229
days.73230

       (O) "Making retail sales" means the effecting of transactions 73231
wherein one party is obligated to pay the price and the other 73232
party is obligated to provide a service or to transfer title to or 73233
possession of the item sold. "Making retail sales" does not 73234
include the preliminary acts of promoting or soliciting the retail 73235
sales, other than the distribution of printed matter which 73236
displays or describes and prices the item offered for sale, nor 73237
does it include delivery of a predetermined quantity of tangible 73238
personal property or transportation of property or personnel to or 73239
from a place where a service is performed, regardless of whether 73240
the vendor is a delivery vendor.73241

       (P) "Used directly in the rendition of a public utility 73242
service" means that property that is to be incorporated into and 73243
will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 73244
transportation, or distribution system and that retains its 73245
classification as tangible personal property after such 73246
incorporation; fuel or power used in the production, transmission, 73247
transportation, or distribution system; and tangible personal 73248
property used in the repair and maintenance of the production, 73249
transmission, transportation, or distribution system, including 73250
only such motor vehicles as are specially designed and equipped 73251
for such use. Tangible personal property and services used 73252
primarily in providing highway transportation for hire are not 73253
used directly in the rendition of a public utility service. In 73254
this definition, "public utility" includes a citizen of the United 73255
States holding, and required to hold, a certificate of public 73256
convenience and necessity issued under 49 U.S.C. 41102.73257

       (Q) "Refining" means removing or separating a desirable 73258
product from raw or contaminated materials by distillation or 73259
physical, mechanical, or chemical processes.73260

       (R) "Assembly" and "assembling" mean attaching or fitting 73261
together parts to form a product, but do not include packaging a 73262
product.73263

       (S) "Manufacturing operation" means a process in which 73264
materials are changed, converted, or transformed into a different 73265
state or form from which they previously existed and includes 73266
refining materials, assembling parts, and preparing raw materials 73267
and parts by mixing, measuring, blending, or otherwise committing 73268
such materials or parts to the manufacturing process. 73269
"Manufacturing operation" does not include packaging.73270

       (T) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 73271
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 73272
respect to a county that is a transit authority, the fiscal 73273
officer of the county transit board if one is appointed pursuant 73274
to section 306.03 of the Revised Code or the county auditor if the 73275
board of county commissioners operates the county transit system.73276

       (U) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 73277
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 73278
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 73279
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 73280
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 73281
single county. A transit authority that includes territory in more 73282
than one county must include all the area of the most populous 73283
county that is a part of such transit authority. County population 73284
shall be measured by the most recent census taken by the United 73285
States census bureau.73286

       (V) "Legislative authority" means, with respect to a regional 73287
transit authority, the board of trustees thereof, and with respect 73288
to a county that is a transit authority, the board of county 73289
commissioners.73290

       (W) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 73291
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 73292
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 73293
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 73294
county or all the area of the most populous county that is a part 73295
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 73296
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.73297

       (X) "Providing a service" means providing or furnishing 73298
anything described in division (B)(3) of this section for 73299
consideration.73300

       (Y)(1)(a) "Automatic data processing" means processing of 73301
others' data, including keypunching or similar data entry services 73302
together with verification thereof, or providing access to 73303
computer equipment for the purpose of processing data.73304

       (b) "Computer services" means providing services consisting 73305
of specifying computer hardware configurations and evaluating 73306
technical processing characteristics, computer programming, and 73307
training of computer programmers and operators, provided in 73308
conjunction with and to support the sale, lease, or operation of 73309
taxable computer equipment or systems.73310

       (c) "Electronic information services" means providing access 73311
to computer equipment by means of telecommunications equipment for 73312
the purpose of either of the following:73313

       (i) Examining or acquiring data stored in or accessible to 73314
the computer equipment;73315

       (ii) Placing data into the computer equipment to be retrieved 73316
by designated recipients with access to the computer equipment.73317

       For transactions occurring on or after the effective date of 73318
the amendment of this section by H.B. 157 of the 127th general 73319
assembly, December 21, 2007, "electronic information services" 73320
does not include electronic publishing as defined in division 73321
(LLL) of this section.73322

       (d) "Automatic data processing, computer services, or 73323
electronic information services" shall not include personal or 73324
professional services.73325

       (2) As used in divisions (B)(3)(e) and (Y)(1) of this 73326
section, "personal and professional services" means all services 73327
other than automatic data processing, computer services, or 73328
electronic information services, including but not limited to:73329

       (a) Accounting and legal services such as advice on tax 73330
matters, asset management, budgetary matters, quality control, 73331
information security, and auditing and any other situation where 73332
the service provider receives data or information and studies, 73333
alters, analyzes, interprets, or adjusts such material;73334

       (b) Analyzing business policies and procedures;73335

       (c) Identifying management information needs;73336

       (d) Feasibility studies, including economic and technical 73337
analysis of existing or potential computer hardware or software 73338
needs and alternatives;73339

       (e) Designing policies, procedures, and custom software for 73340
collecting business information, and determining how data should 73341
be summarized, sequenced, formatted, processed, controlled, and 73342
reported so that it will be meaningful to management;73343

       (f) Developing policies and procedures that document how 73344
business events and transactions are to be authorized, executed, 73345
and controlled;73346

       (g) Testing of business procedures;73347

       (h) Training personnel in business procedure applications;73348

       (i) Providing credit information to users of such information 73349
by a consumer reporting agency, as defined in the "Fair Credit 73350
Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1114, 1129 (1970), 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f), or 73351
as hereafter amended, including but not limited to gathering, 73352
organizing, analyzing, recording, and furnishing such information 73353
by any oral, written, graphic, or electronic medium;73354

       (j) Providing debt collection services by any oral, written, 73355
graphic, or electronic means.73356

       The services listed in divisions (Y)(2)(a) to (j) of this 73357
section are not automatic data processing or computer services.73358

       (Z) "Highway transportation for hire" means the 73359
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 73360
consideration by any of the following:73361

       (1) The holder of a permit or certificate issued by this 73362
state or the United States authorizing the holder to engage in 73363
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 73364
consideration over or on highways, roadways, streets, or any 73365
similar public thoroughfare;73366

       (2) A person who engages in the transportation of personal 73367
property belonging to others for consideration over or on 73368
highways, roadways, streets, or any similar public thoroughfare 73369
but who could not have engaged in such transportation on December 73370
11, 1985, unless the person was the holder of a permit or 73371
certificate of the types described in division (Z)(1) of this 73372
section;73373

       (3) A person who leases a motor vehicle to and operates it 73374
for a person described by division (Z)(1) or (2) of this section.73375

       (AA)(1) "Telecommunications service" means the electronic 73376
transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, 73377
or any other information or signals to a point, or between or 73378
among points. "Telecommunications service" includes such 73379
transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing 73380
applications are used to act on the form, code, or protocol of the 73381
content for purposes of transmission, conveyance, or routing 73382
without regard to whether the service is referred to as voice-over 73383
internet protocol service or is classified by the federal 73384
communications commission as enhanced or value-added. 73385
"Telecommunications service" does not include any of the 73386
following:73387

        (a) Data processing and information services that allow data 73388
to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and 73389
delivered by an electronic transmission to a consumer where the 73390
consumer's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the 73391
processed data or information;73392

        (b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a 73393
customer's premises;73394

        (c) Tangible personal property;73395

       (d) Advertising, including directory advertising;73396

        (e) Billing and collection services provided to third 73397
parties;73398

        (f) Internet access service;73399

        (g) Radio and television audio and video programming 73400
services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of 73401
transmission, conveyance, and routing of such services by the 73402
programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video 73403
programming services include, but are not limited to, cable 73404
service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. 522(6), and audio and video 73405
programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service 73406
providers, as defined in 47 C.F.R. 20.3;73407

        (h) Ancillary service;73408

        (i) Digital products delivered electronically, including 73409
software, music, video, reading materials, or ring tones.73410

        (2) "Ancillary service" means a service that is associated 73411
with or incidental to the provision of telecommunications service, 73412
including conference bridging service, detailed telecommunications 73413
billing service, directory assistance, vertical service, and voice 73414
mail service. As used in this division:73415

        (a) "Conference bridging service" means an ancillary service 73416
that links two or more participants of an audio or video 73417
conference call, including providing a telephone number. 73418
"Conference bridging service" does not include telecommunications 73419
services used to reach the conference bridge.73420

        (b) "Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an 73421
ancillary service of separately stating information pertaining to 73422
individual calls on a customer's billing statement.73423

        (c) "Directory assistance" means an ancillary service of 73424
providing telephone number or address information.73425

        (d) "Vertical service" means an ancillary service that is 73426
offered in connection with one or more telecommunications 73427
services, which offers advanced calling features that allow 73428
customers to identify callers and manage multiple calls and call 73429
connections, including conference bridging service.73430

        (e) "Voice mail service" means an ancillary service that 73431
enables the customer to store, send, or receive recorded messages. 73432
"Voice mail service" does not include any vertical services that 73433
the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the voice 73434
mail service.73435

        (3) "900 service" means an inbound toll telecommunications 73436
service purchased by a subscriber that allows the subscriber's 73437
customers to call in to the subscriber's prerecorded announcement 73438
or live service, and which is typically marketed under the name 73439
"900" service and any subsequent numbers designated by the federal 73440
communications commission. "900 service" does not include the 73441
charge for collection services provided by the seller of the 73442
telecommunications service to the subscriber, or services or 73443
products sold by the subscriber to the subscriber's customer.73444

        (4) "Prepaid calling service" means the right to access 73445
exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in 73446
advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access 73447
number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically 73448
dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units ofor dollars of 73449
which the number declines with use in a known amount.73450

        (5) "Prepaid wireless calling service" means a 73451
telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize 73452
mobile telecommunications service as well as other 73453
non-telecommunications services, including the download of digital 73454
products delivered electronically, and content and ancillary 73455
services, that must be paid for in advance and that is sold in 73456
predetermined units ofor dollars of which the number declines 73457
with use in a known amount.73458

        (6) "Value-added non-voice data service" means a 73459
telecommunications service in which computer processing 73460
applications are used to act on the form, content, code, or 73461
protocol of the information or data primarily for a purpose other 73462
than transmission, conveyance, or routing.73463

        (7) "Coin-operated telephone service" means a 73464
telecommunications service paid for by inserting money into a 73465
telephone accepting direct deposits of money to operate.73466

        (8) "Customer" has the same meaning as in section 5739.034 of 73467
the Revised Code.73468

       (BB) "Laundry and dry cleaning services" means removing soil 73469
or dirt from towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric 73470
items that belong to others and supplying towels, linens, articles 73471
of clothing, or other fabric items. "Laundry and dry cleaning 73472
services" does not include the provision of self-service 73473
facilities for use by consumers to remove soil or dirt from 73474
towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric items.73475

       (CC) "Magazines distributed as controlled circulation 73476
publications" means magazines containing at least twenty-four 73477
pages, at least twenty-five per cent editorial content, issued at 73478
regular intervals four or more times a year, and circulated 73479
without charge to the recipient, provided that such magazines are 73480
not owned or controlled by individuals or business concerns which 73481
conduct such publications as an auxiliary to, and essentially for 73482
the advancement of the main business or calling of, those who own 73483
or control them.73484

       (DD) "Landscaping and lawn care service" means the services 73485
of planting, seeding, sodding, removing, cutting, trimming, 73486
pruning, mulching, aerating, applying chemicals, watering, 73487
fertilizing, and providing similar services to establish, promote, 73488
or control the growth of trees, shrubs, flowers, grass, ground 73489
cover, and other flora, or otherwise maintaining a lawn or 73490
landscape grown or maintained by the owner for ornamentation or 73491
other nonagricultural purpose. However, "landscaping and lawn care 73492
service" does not include the providing of such services by a 73493
person who has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such 73494
services during the calendar year.73495

       (EE) "Private investigation and security service" means the 73496
performance of any activity for which the provider of such service 73497
is required to be licensed pursuant to Chapter 4749. of the 73498
Revised Code, or would be required to be so licensed in performing 73499
such services in this state, and also includes the services of 73500
conducting polygraph examinations and of monitoring or overseeing 73501
the activities on or in, or the condition of, the consumer's home, 73502
business, or other facility by means of electronic or similar 73503
monitoring devices. "Private investigation and security service" 73504
does not include special duty services provided by off-duty police 73505
officers, deputy sheriffs, and other peace officers regularly 73506
employed by the state or a political subdivision.73507

       (FF) "Information services" means providing conversation, 73508
giving consultation or advice, playing or making a voice or other 73509
recording, making or keeping a record of the number of callers, 73510
and any other service provided to a consumer by means of a nine 73511
hundred telephone call, except when the nine hundred telephone 73512
call is the means by which the consumer makes a contribution to a 73513
recognized charity.73514

       (GG) "Research and development" means designing, creating, or 73515
formulating new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing 73516
processes, and also means conducting scientific or technological 73517
inquiry and experimentation in the physical sciences with the goal 73518
of increasing scientific knowledge which may reveal the bases for 73519
new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing processes.73520

       (HH) "Qualified research and development equipment" means 73521
capitalized tangible personal property, and leased personal 73522
property that would be capitalized if purchased, used by a person 73523
primarily to perform research and development. Tangible personal 73524
property primarily used in testing, as defined in division (A)(4) 73525
of section 5739.011 of the Revised Code, or used for recording or 73526
storing test results, is not qualified research and development 73527
equipment unless such property is primarily used by the consumer 73528
in testing the product, equipment, or manufacturing process being 73529
created, designed, or formulated by the consumer in the research 73530
and development activity or in recording or storing such test 73531
results.73532

       (II) "Building maintenance and janitorial service" means 73533
cleaning the interior or exterior of a building and any tangible 73534
personal property located therein or thereon, including any 73535
services incidental to such cleaning for which no separate charge 73536
is made. However, "building maintenance and janitorial service" 73537
does not include the providing of such service by a person who has 73538
less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service during 73539
the calendar year.73540

       (JJ) "Employment service" means providing or supplying 73541
personnel, on a temporary or long-term basis, to perform work or 73542
labor under the supervision or control of another, when the 73543
personnel so provided or supplied receive their wages, salary, or 73544
other compensation from the provider or supplier of the employment 73545
service or from a third party that provided or supplied the 73546
personnel to the provider or supplier. "Employment service" does 73547
not include:73548

       (1) Acting as a contractor or subcontractor, where the 73549
personnel performing the work are not under the direct control of 73550
the purchaser.73551

       (2) Medical and health care services.73552

       (3) Supplying personnel to a purchaser pursuant to a contract 73553
of at least one year between the service provider and the 73554
purchaser that specifies that each employee covered under the 73555
contract is assigned to the purchaser on a permanent basis.73556

       (4) Transactions between members of an affiliated group, as 73557
defined in division (B)(3)(e) of this section.73558

       (5) Transactions where the personnel so provided or supplied 73559
by a provider or supplier to a purchaser of an employment service 73560
are then provided or supplied by that purchaser to a third party 73561
as an employment service, except "employment service" does include 73562
the transaction between that purchaser and the third party.73563

       (KK) "Employment placement service" means locating or finding 73564
employment for a person or finding or locating an employee to fill 73565
an available position.73566

       (LL) "Exterminating service" means eradicating or attempting 73567
to eradicate vermin infestations from a building or structure, or 73568
the area surrounding a building or structure, and includes 73569
activities to inspect, detect, or prevent vermin infestation of a 73570
building or structure.73571

       (MM) "Physical fitness facility service" means all 73572
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 73573
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 73574
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 73575
physical fitness facility such as an athletic club, health spa, or 73576
gymnasium, which entitles the member to use the facility for 73577
physical exercise.73578

       (NN) "Recreation and sports club service" means all 73579
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 73580
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 73581
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 73582
recreation and sports club, which entitles the member to use the 73583
facilities of the organization. "Recreation and sports club" means 73584
an organization that has ownership of, or controls or leases on a 73585
continuing, long-term basis, the facilities used by its members 73586
and includes an aviation club, gun or shooting club, yacht club, 73587
card club, swimming club, tennis club, golf club, country club, 73588
riding club, amateur sports club, or similar organization.73589

       (OO) "Livestock" means farm animals commonly raised for food, 73590
food production, or other agricultural purposes, including, but 73591
not limited to, cattle, sheep, goats, swine, poultry, and captive 73592
deer. "Livestock" does not include invertebrates, amphibians, 73593
reptiles, domestic pets, animals for use in laboratories or for 73594
exhibition, or other animals not commonly raised for food or food 73595
production.73596

       (PP) "Livestock structure" means a building or structure used 73597
exclusively for the housing, raising, feeding, or sheltering of 73598
livestock, and includes feed storage or handling structures and 73599
structures for livestock waste handling.73600

       (QQ) "Horticulture" means the growing, cultivation, and 73601
production of flowers, fruits, herbs, vegetables, sod, mushrooms, 73602
and nursery stock. As used in this division, "nursery stock" has 73603
the same meaning as in section 927.51 of the Revised Code.73604

       (RR) "Horticulture structure" means a building or structure 73605
used exclusively for the commercial growing, raising, or 73606
overwintering of horticultural products, and includes the area 73607
used for stocking, storing, and packing horticultural products 73608
when done in conjunction with the production of those products.73609

       (SS) "Newspaper" means an unbound publication bearing a title 73610
or name that is regularly published, at least as frequently as 73611
biweekly, and distributed from a fixed place of business to the 73612
public in a specific geographic area, and that contains a 73613
substantial amount of news matter of international, national, or 73614
local events of interest to the general public.73615

       (TT) "Professional racing team" means a person that employs 73616
at least twenty full-time employees for the purpose of conducting 73617
a motor vehicle racing business for profit. The person must 73618
conduct the business with the purpose of racing one or more motor 73619
racing vehicles in at least ten competitive professional racing 73620
events each year that comprise all or part of a motor racing 73621
series sanctioned by one or more motor racing sanctioning 73622
organizations. A "motor racing vehicle" means a vehicle for which 73623
the chassis, engine, and parts are designed exclusively for motor 73624
racing, and does not include a stock or production model vehicle 73625
that may be modified for use in racing. For the purposes of this 73626
division:73627

       (1) A "competitive professional racing event" is a motor 73628
vehicle racing event sanctioned by one or more motor racing 73629
sanctioning organizations, at which aggregate cash prizes in 73630
excess of eight hundred thousand dollars are awarded to the 73631
competitors.73632

       (2) "Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed 73633
for consideration for thirty-five or more hours a week, or who 73634
renders any other standard of service generally accepted by custom 73635
or specified by contract as full-time employment.73636

        (UU)(1) "Lease" or "rental" means any transfer of the 73637
possession or control of tangible personal property for a fixed or 73638
indefinite term, for consideration. "Lease" or "rental" includes 73639
future options to purchase or extend, and agreements described in 73640
26 U.S.C. 7701(h)(1) covering motor vehicles and trailers where 73641
the amount of consideration may be increased or decreased by 73642
reference to the amount realized upon the sale or disposition of 73643
the property. "Lease" or "rental" does not include:73644

       (a) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 73645
property under a security agreement or a deferred payment plan 73646
that requires the transfer of title upon completion of the 73647
required payments;73648

       (b) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 73649
property under an agreement that requires the transfer of title 73650
upon completion of required payments and payment of an option 73651
price that does not exceed the greater of one hundred dollars or 73652
one per cent of the total required payments;73653

       (c) Providing tangible personal property along with an 73654
operator for a fixed or indefinite period of time, if the operator 73655
is necessary for the property to perform as designed. For purposes 73656
of this division, the operator must do more than maintain, 73657
inspect, or set-up the tangible personal property.73658

       (2) "Lease" and "rental," as defined in division (UU) of this 73659
section, shall not apply to leases or rentals that exist before 73660
June 26, 2003.73661

       (3) "Lease" and "rental" have the same meaning as in division 73662
(UU)(1) of this section regardless of whether a transaction is 73663
characterized as a lease or rental under generally accepted 73664
accounting principles, the Internal Revenue Code, Title XIII of 73665
the Revised Code, or other federal, state, or local laws.73666

       (VV) "Mobile telecommunications service" has the same meaning 73667
as in the "Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Act," Pub. L. No. 73668
106-252, 114 Stat. 631 (2000), 4 U.S.C.A. 124(7), as amended, and, 73669
on and after August 1, 2003, includes related fees and ancillary 73670
services, including universal service fees, detailed billing 73671
service, directory assistance, service initiation, voice mail 73672
service, and vertical services, such as caller ID and three-way 73673
calling.73674

       (WW) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 73675
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.73676

       (XX) "Satellite broadcasting service" means the distribution 73677
or broadcasting of programming or services by satellite directly 73678
to the subscriber's receiving equipment without the use of ground 73679
receiving or distribution equipment, except the subscriber's 73680
receiving equipment or equipment used in the uplink process to the 73681
satellite, and includes all service and rental charges, premium 73682
channels or other special services, installation and repair 73683
service charges, and any other charges having any connection with 73684
the provision of the satellite broadcasting service.73685

       (YY) "Tangible personal property" means personal property 73686
that can be seen, weighed, measured, felt, or touched, or that is 73687
in any other manner perceptible to the senses. For purposes of 73688
this chapter and Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code, "tangible 73689
personal property" includes motor vehicles, electricity, water, 73690
gas, steam, and prewritten computer software.73691

       (ZZ) "Direct mail" means printed material delivered or 73692
distributed by United States mail or other delivery service to a 73693
mass audience or to addressees on a mailing list provided by the 73694
consumer or at the direction of the consumer when the cost of the 73695
items are not billed directly to the recipients. "Direct mail" 73696
includes tangible personal property supplied directly or 73697
indirectly by the consumer to the direct mail vendor for inclusion 73698
in the package containing the printed material. "Direct mail" does 73699
not include multiple items of printed material delivered to a 73700
single address.73701

       (AAA) "Computer" means an electronic device that accepts 73702
information in digital or similar form and manipulates it for a 73703
result based on a sequence of instructions.73704

       (BBB) "Computer software" means a set of coded instructions 73705
designed to cause a computer or automatic data processing 73706
equipment to perform a task.73707

       (CCC) "Delivered electronically" means delivery of computer 73708
software from the seller to the purchaser by means other than 73709
tangible storage media.73710

       (DDD) "Prewritten computer software" means computer software, 73711
including prewritten upgrades, that is not designed and developed 73712
by the author or other creator to the specifications of a specific 73713
purchaser. The combining of two or more prewritten computer 73714
software programs or prewritten portions thereof does not cause 73715
the combination to be other than prewritten computer software. 73716
"Prewritten computer software" includes software designed and 73717
developed by the author or other creator to the specifications of 73718
a specific purchaser when it is sold to a person other than the 73719
purchaser. If a person modifies or enhances computer software of 73720
which the person is not the author or creator, the person shall be 73721
deemed to be the author or creator only of such person's 73722
modifications or enhancements. Prewritten computer software or a 73723
prewritten portion thereof that is modified or enhanced to any 73724
degree, where such modification or enhancement is designed and 73725
developed to the specifications of a specific purchaser, remains 73726
prewritten computer software; provided, however, that where there 73727
is a reasonable, separately stated charge or an invoice or other 73728
statement of the price given to the purchaser for the modification 73729
or enhancement, the modification or enhancement shall not 73730
constitute prewritten computer software.73731

       (EEE)(1) "Food" means substances, whether in liquid, 73732
concentrated, solid, frozen, dried, or dehydrated form, that are 73733
sold for ingestion or chewing by humans and are consumed for their 73734
taste or nutritional value. "Food" does not include alcoholic 73735
beverages, dietary supplements, soft drinks, or tobacco.73736

       (2) As used in division (EEE)(1) of this section:73737

       (a) "Alcoholic beverages" means beverages that are suitable 73738
for human consumption and contain one-half of one per cent or more 73739
of alcohol by volume.73740

       (b) "Dietary supplements" means any product, other than 73741
tobacco, that is intended to supplement the diet and that is 73742
intended for ingestion in tablet, capsule, powder, softgel, 73743
gelcap, or liquid form, or, if not intended for ingestion in such 73744
a form, is not represented as conventional food for use as a sole 73745
item of a meal or of the diet; that is required to be labeled as a 73746
dietary supplement, identifiable by the "supplement facts" box 73747
found on the label, as required by 21 C.F.R. 101.36; and that 73748
contains one or more of the following dietary ingredients:73749

       (i) A vitamin;73750

       (ii) A mineral;73751

       (iii) An herb or other botanical;73752

       (iv) An amino acid;73753

       (v) A dietary substance for use by humans to supplement the 73754
diet by increasing the total dietary intake;73755

       (vi) A concentrate, metabolite, constituent, extract, or 73756
combination of any ingredient described in divisions 73757
(EEE)(2)(b)(i) to (v) of this section.73758

       (c) "Soft drinks" means nonalcoholic beverages that contain 73759
natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include 73760
beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice, or 73761
similar milk substitutes, or that contains greater than fifty per 73762
cent vegetable or fruit juice by volume.73763

       (d) "Tobacco" means cigarettes, cigars, chewing or pipe 73764
tobacco, or any other item that contains tobacco.73765

       (FFF) "Drug" means a compound, substance, or preparation, and 73766
any component of a compound, substance, or preparation, other than 73767
food, dietary supplements, or alcoholic beverages that is 73768
recognized in the official United States pharmacopoeia, official 73769
homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official 73770
national formulary, and supplements to them; is intended for use 73771
in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of 73772
disease; or is intended to affect the structure or any function of 73773
the body.73774

       (GGG) "Prescription" means an order, formula, or recipe 73775
issued in any form of oral, written, electronic, or other means of 73776
transmission by a duly licensed practitioner authorized by the 73777
laws of this state to issue a prescription.73778

       (HHH) "Durable medical equipment" means equipment, including 73779
repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that can 73780
withstand repeated use, is primarily and customarily used to serve 73781
a medical purpose, generally is not useful to a person in the 73782
absence of illness or injury, and is not worn in or on the body. 73783
"Durable medical equipment" does not include mobility enhancing 73784
equipment.73785

       (III) "Mobility enhancing equipment" means equipment, 73786
including repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that is 73787
primarily and customarily used to provide or increase the ability 73788
to move from one place to another and is appropriate for use 73789
either in a home or a motor vehicle, that is not generally used by 73790
persons with normal mobility, and that does not include any motor 73791
vehicle or equipment on a motor vehicle normally provided by a 73792
motor vehicle manufacturer. "Mobility enhancing equipment" does 73793
not include durable medical equipment.73794

       (JJJ) "Prosthetic device" means a replacement, corrective, or 73795
supportive device, including repair and replacement parts for the 73796
device, worn on or in the human body to artificially replace a 73797
missing portion of the body, prevent or correct physical deformity 73798
or malfunction, or support a weak or deformed portion of the body. 73799
As used in this division, "prosthetic device" does not include 73800
corrective eyeglasses, contact lenses, or dental prosthesis.73801

       (KKK)(1) "Fractional aircraft ownership program" means a 73802
program in which persons within an affiliated group sell and 73803
manage fractional ownership program aircraft, provided that at 73804
least one hundred airworthy aircraft are operated in the program 73805
and the program meets all of the following criteria:73806

       (a) Management services are provided by at least one program 73807
manager within an affiliated group on behalf of the fractional 73808
owners.73809

       (b) Each program aircraft is owned or possessed by at least 73810
one fractional owner.73811

       (c) Each fractional owner owns or possesses at least a 73812
one-sixteenth interest in at least one fixed-wing program 73813
aircraft.73814

       (d) A dry-lease aircraft interchange arrangement is in effect 73815
among all of the fractional owners.73816

       (e) Multi-year program agreements are in effect regarding the 73817
fractional ownership, management services, and dry-lease aircraft 73818
interchange arrangement aspects of the program.73819

       (2) As used in division (KKK)(1) of this section:73820

       (a) "Affiliated group" has the same meaning as in division 73821
(B)(3)(e) of this section.73822

        (b) "Fractional owner" means a person that owns or possesses 73823
at least a one-sixteenth interest in a program aircraft and has 73824
entered into the agreements described in division (KKK)(1)(e) of 73825
this section.73826

       (c) "Fractional ownership program aircraft" or "program 73827
aircraft" means a turbojet aircraft that is owned or possessed by 73828
a fractional owner and that has been included in a dry-lease 73829
aircraft interchange arrangement and agreement under divisions 73830
(KKK)(1)(d) and (e) of this section, or an aircraft a program 73831
manager owns or possesses primarily for use in a fractional 73832
aircraft ownership program.73833

       (d) "Management services" means administrative and aviation 73834
support services furnished under a fractional aircraft ownership 73835
program in accordance with a management services agreement under 73836
division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section, and offered by the program 73837
manager to the fractional owners, including, at a minimum, the 73838
establishment and implementation of safety guidelines; the 73839
coordination of the scheduling of the program aircraft and crews; 73840
program aircraft maintenance; program aircraft insurance; crew 73841
training for crews employed, furnished, or contracted by the 73842
program manager or the fractional owner; the satisfaction of 73843
record-keeping requirements; and the development and use of an 73844
operations manual and a maintenance manual for the fractional 73845
aircraft ownership program.73846

       (e) "Program manager" means the person that offers management 73847
services to fractional owners pursuant to a management services 73848
agreement under division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section.73849

       (LLL) "Electronic publishing" means providing access to one 73850
or more of the following primarily for business customers, 73851
including the federal government or a state government or a 73852
political subdivision thereof, to conduct research: news; 73853
business, financial, legal, consumer, or credit materials; 73854
editorials, columns, reader commentary, or features; photos or 73855
images; archival or research material; legal notices, identity 73856
verification, or public records; scientific, educational, 73857
instructional, technical, professional, trade, or other literary 73858
materials; or other similar information which has been gathered 73859
and made available by the provider to the consumer in an 73860
electronic format. Providing electronic publishing includes the 73861
functions necessary for the acquisition, formatting, editing, 73862
storage, and dissemination of data or information that is the 73863
subject of a sale.73864

       (MMM) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 73865
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 73866
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code and is under contract with the 73867
department of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 73868
of the Revised Code.73869

       (NNN) "Managed care premium" means any premium, capitation, 73870
or other payment a medicaid health insuring corporation receives 73871
for providing or arranging for the provision of health care 73872
services to its members or enrollees residing in this state.73873

       (OOO) "Captive deer" means deer and other cervidae that have 73874
been legally acquired, or their offspring, that are privately 73875
owned for agricultural or farming purposes.73876

       (PPP) "Gift card" means a document, card, certificate, or 73877
other record, whether tangible or intangible, that may be redeemed 73878
by a consumer for a dollar value when making a purchase of 73879
tangible personal property or services.73880

       Sec. 5739.02.  For the purpose of providing revenue with 73881
which to meet the needs of the state, for the use of the general 73882
revenue fund of the state, for the purpose of securing a thorough 73883
and efficient system of common schools throughout the state, for 73884
the purpose of affording revenues, in addition to those from 73885
general property taxes, permitted under constitutional 73886
limitations, and from other sources, for the support of local 73887
governmental functions, and for the purpose of reimbursing the 73888
state for the expense of administering this chapter, an excise tax 73889
is hereby levied on each retail sale made in this state.73890

       (A)(1) The tax shall be collected as provided in section 73891
5739.025 of the Revised Code. The rate of the tax shall be five 73892
and one-half per cent. The tax applies and is collectible when the 73893
sale is made, regardless of the time when the price is paid or 73894
delivered.73895

        (2) In the case of the lease or rental, with a fixed term of 73896
more than thirty days or an indefinite term with a minimum period 73897
of more than thirty days, of any motor vehicles designed by the 73898
manufacturer to carry a load of not more than one ton, watercraft, 73899
outboard motor, or aircraft, or of any tangible personal property, 73900
other than motor vehicles designed by the manufacturer to carry a 73901
load of more than one ton, to be used by the lessee or renter 73902
primarily for business purposes, the tax shall be collected by the 73903
vendor at the time the lease or rental is consummated and shall be 73904
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 73905
paid by the lessee or renter under the lease agreement. If the 73906
total amount of the consideration for the lease or rental includes 73907
amounts that are not calculated at the time the lease or rental is 73908
executed, the tax shall be calculated and collected by the vendor 73909
at the time such amounts are billed to the lessee or renter. In 73910
the case of an open-end lease or rental, the tax shall be 73911
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 73912
paid during the initial fixed term of the lease or rental, and for 73913
each subsequent renewal period as it comes due. As used in this 73914
division, "motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 73915
4501.01 of the Revised Code, and "watercraft" includes an outdrive 73916
unit attached to the watercraft.73917

       A lease with a renewal clause and a termination penalty or 73918
similar provision that applies if the renewal clause is not 73919
exercised is presumed to be a sham transaction. In such a case, 73920
the tax shall be calculated and paid on the basis of the entire 73921
length of the lease period, including any renewal periods, until 73922
the termination penalty or similar provision no longer applies. 73923
The taxpayer shall bear the burden, by a preponderance of the 73924
evidence, that the transaction or series of transactions is not a 73925
sham transaction.73926

       (3) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, in 73927
the case of a sale, the price of which consists in whole or in 73928
part of the lease or rental of tangible personal property, the tax 73929
shall be measured by the installments of that lease or rental.73930

       (4) In the case of a sale of a physical fitness facility 73931
service or recreation and sports club service, the price of which 73932
consists in whole or in part of a membership for the receipt of 73933
the benefit of the service, the tax applicable to the sale shall 73934
be measured by the installments thereof.73935

       (B) The tax does not apply to the following:73936

       (1) Sales to the state or any of its political subdivisions, 73937
or to any other state or its political subdivisions if the laws of 73938
that state exempt from taxation sales made to this state and its 73939
political subdivisions;73940

       (2) Sales of food for human consumption off the premises 73941
where sold;73942

       (3) Sales of food sold to students only in a cafeteria, 73943
dormitory, fraternity, or sorority maintained in a private, 73944
public, or parochial school, college, or university;73945

       (4) Sales of newspapers and of magazine subscriptions and 73946
sales or transfers of magazines distributed as controlled 73947
circulation publications;73948

       (5) The furnishing, preparing, or serving of meals without 73949
charge by an employer to an employee provided the employer records 73950
the meals as part compensation for services performed or work 73951
done;73952

       (6) Sales of motor fuel upon receipt, use, distribution, or 73953
sale of which in this state a tax is imposed by the law of this 73954
state, but this exemption shall not apply to the sale of motor 73955
fuel on which a refund of the tax is allowable under division (A) 73956
of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code; and the tax commissioner 73957
may deduct the amount of tax levied by this section applicable to 73958
the price of motor fuel when granting a refund of motor fuel tax 73959
pursuant to division (A) of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code 73960
and shall cause the amount deducted to be paid into the general 73961
revenue fund of this state;73962

       (7) Sales of natural gas by a natural gas company, of water 73963
by a water-works company, or of steam by a heating company, if in 73964
each case the thing sold is delivered to consumers through pipes 73965
or conduits, and all sales of communications services by a 73966
telegraph company, all terms as defined in section 5727.01 of the 73967
Revised Code, and sales of electricity delivered through wires;73968

       (8) Casual sales by a person, or auctioneer employed directly 73969
by the person to conduct such sales, except as to such sales of 73970
motor vehicles, watercraft or outboard motors required to be 73971
titled under section 1548.06 of the Revised Code, watercraft 73972
documented with the United States coast guard, snowmobiles, and 73973
all-purpose vehicles as defined in section 4519.01 of the Revised 73974
Code;73975

       (9)(a) Sales of services or tangible personal property, other 73976
than motor vehicles, mobile homes, and manufactured homes, by 73977
churches, organizations exempt from taxation under section 73978
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or nonprofit 73979
organizations operated exclusively for charitable purposes as 73980
defined in division (B)(12) of this section, provided that the 73981
number of days on which such tangible personal property or 73982
services, other than items never subject to the tax, are sold does 73983
not exceed six in any calendar year, except as otherwise provided 73984
in division (B)(9)(b) of this section. If the number of days on 73985
which such sales are made exceeds six in any calendar year, the 73986
church or organization shall be considered to be engaged in 73987
business and all subsequent sales by it shall be subject to the 73988
tax. In counting the number of days, all sales by groups within a 73989
church or within an organization shall be considered to be sales 73990
of that church or organization.73991

       (b) The limitation on the number of days on which tax-exempt 73992
sales may be made by a church or organization under division 73993
(B)(9)(a) of this section does not apply to sales made by student 73994
clubs and other groups of students of a primary or secondary 73995
school, or a parent-teacher association, booster group, or similar 73996
organization that raises money to support or fund curricular or 73997
extracurricular activities of a primary or secondary school.73998

       (c) Divisions (B)(9)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply 73999
to sales by a noncommercial educational radio or television 74000
broadcasting station.74001

       (10) Sales not within the taxing power of this state under 74002
the Constitution of the United States;74003

       (11) Except for transactions that are sales under division 74004
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, the 74005
transportation of persons or property, unless the transportation 74006
is by a private investigation and security service;74007

       (12) Sales of tangible personal property or services to 74008
churches, to organizations exempt from taxation under section 74009
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, and to any other 74010
nonprofit organizations operated exclusively for charitable 74011
purposes in this state, no part of the net income of which inures 74012
to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and no 74013
substantial part of the activities of which consists of carrying 74014
on propaganda or otherwise attempting to influence legislation; 74015
sales to offices administering one or more homes for the aged or 74016
one or more hospital facilities exempt under section 140.08 of the 74017
Revised Code; and sales to organizations described in division (D) 74018
of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.74019

       "Charitable purposes" means the relief of poverty; the 74020
improvement of health through the alleviation of illness, disease, 74021
or injury; the operation of an organization exclusively for the 74022
provision of professional, laundry, printing, and purchasing 74023
services to hospitals or charitable institutions; the operation of 74024
a home for the aged, as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised 74025
Code; the operation of a radio or television broadcasting station 74026
that is licensed by the federal communications commission as a 74027
noncommercial educational radio or television station; the 74028
operation of a nonprofit animal adoption service or a county 74029
humane society; the promotion of education by an institution of 74030
learning that maintains a faculty of qualified instructors, 74031
teaches regular continuous courses of study, and confers a 74032
recognized diploma upon completion of a specific curriculum; the 74033
operation of a parent-teacher association, booster group, or 74034
similar organization primarily engaged in the promotion and 74035
support of the curricular or extracurricular activities of a 74036
primary or secondary school; the operation of a community or area 74037
center in which presentations in music, dramatics, the arts, and 74038
related fields are made in order to foster public interest and 74039
education therein; the production of performances in music, 74040
dramatics, and the arts; or the promotion of education by an 74041
organization engaged in carrying on research in, or the 74042
dissemination of, scientific and technological knowledge and 74043
information primarily for the public.74044

       Nothing in this division shall be deemed to exempt sales to 74045
any organization for use in the operation or carrying on of a 74046
trade or business, or sales to a home for the aged for use in the 74047
operation of independent living facilities as defined in division 74048
(A) of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.74049

       (13) Building and construction materials and services sold to 74050
construction contractors for incorporation into a structure or 74051
improvement to real property under a construction contract with 74052
this state or a political subdivision of this state, or with the 74053
United States government or any of its agencies; building and 74054
construction materials and services sold to construction 74055
contractors for incorporation into a structure or improvement to 74056
real property that are accepted for ownership by this state or any 74057
of its political subdivisions, or by the United States government 74058
or any of its agencies at the time of completion of the structures 74059
or improvements; building and construction materials sold to 74060
construction contractors for incorporation into a horticulture 74061
structure or livestock structure for a person engaged in the 74062
business of horticulture or producing livestock; building 74063
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 74064
incorporation into a house of public worship or religious 74065
education, or a building used exclusively for charitable purposes 74066
under a construction contract with an organization whose purpose 74067
is as described in division (B)(12) of this section; building 74068
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 74069
incorporation into a building under a construction contract with 74070
an organization exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of 74071
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 when the building is to be used 74072
exclusively for the organization's exempt purposes; building and 74073
construction materials sold for incorporation into the original 74074
construction of a sports facility under section 307.696 of the 74075
Revised Code; building and construction materials and services 74076
sold to a construction contractor for incorporation into real 74077
property outside this state if such materials and services, when 74078
sold to a construction contractor in the state in which the real 74079
property is located for incorporation into real property in that 74080
state, would be exempt from a tax on sales levied by that state; 74081
and, until one calendar year after the construction of a 74082
convention center that qualifies for property tax exemption under 74083
section 5709.084 of the Revised Code is completed, building and 74084
construction materials and services sold to a construction 74085
contractor for incorporation into the real property comprising 74086
that convention center;74087

       (14) Sales of ships or vessels or rail rolling stock used or 74088
to be used principally in interstate or foreign commerce, and 74089
repairs, alterations, fuel, and lubricants for such ships or 74090
vessels or rail rolling stock;74091

       (15) Sales to persons primarily engaged in any of the 74092
activities mentioned in division (B)(42)(a), (g), or (h) of this 74093
section, to persons engaged in making retail sales, or to persons 74094
who purchase for sale from a manufacturer tangible personal 74095
property that was produced by the manufacturer in accordance with 74096
specific designs provided by the purchaser, of packages, including 74097
material, labels, and parts for packages, and of machinery, 74098
equipment, and material for use primarily in packaging tangible 74099
personal property produced for sale, including any machinery, 74100
equipment, and supplies used to make labels or packages, to 74101
prepare packages or products for labeling, or to label packages or 74102
products, by or on the order of the person doing the packaging, or 74103
sold at retail. "Packages" includes bags, baskets, cartons, 74104
crates, boxes, cans, bottles, bindings, wrappings, and other 74105
similar devices and containers, but does not include motor 74106
vehicles or bulk tanks, trailers, or similar devices attached to 74107
motor vehicles. "Packaging" means placing in a package. Division 74108
(B)(15) of this section does not apply to persons engaged in 74109
highway transportation for hire.74110

       (16) Sales of food to persons using supplemental nutrition 74111
assistance program benefits to purchase the food. As used in this 74112
division, "food" has the same meaning as in 7 U.S.C. 2012 and 74113
federal regulations adopted pursuant to the Food and Nutrition Act 74114
of 2008.74115

       (17) Sales to persons engaged in farming, agriculture, 74116
horticulture, or floriculture, of tangible personal property for 74117
use or consumption primarily in the production by farming, 74118
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture of other tangible 74119
personal property for use or consumption primarily in the 74120
production of tangible personal property for sale by farming, 74121
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture; or material and parts 74122
for incorporation into any such tangible personal property for use 74123
or consumption in production; and of tangible personal property 74124
for such use or consumption in the conditioning or holding of 74125
products produced by and for such use, consumption, or sale by 74126
persons engaged in farming, agriculture, horticulture, or 74127
floriculture, except where such property is incorporated into real 74128
property;74129

       (18) Sales of drugs for a human being that may be dispensed 74130
only pursuant to a prescription; insulin as recognized in the 74131
official United States pharmacopoeia; urine and blood testing 74132
materials when used by diabetics or persons with hypoglycemia to 74133
test for glucose or acetone; hypodermic syringes and needles when 74134
used by diabetics for insulin injections; epoetin alfa when 74135
purchased for use in the treatment of persons with medical 74136
disease; hospital beds when purchased by hospitals, nursing homes, 74137
or other medical facilities; and medical oxygen and medical 74138
oxygen-dispensing equipment when purchased by hospitals, nursing 74139
homes, or other medical facilities;74140

       (19) Sales of prosthetic devices, durable medical equipment 74141
for home use, or mobility enhancing equipment, when made pursuant 74142
to a prescription and when such devices or equipment are for use 74143
by a human being.74144

       (20) Sales of emergency and fire protection vehicles and 74145
equipment to nonprofit organizations for use solely in providing 74146
fire protection and emergency services, including trauma care and 74147
emergency medical services, for political subdivisions of the 74148
state;74149

       (21) Sales of tangible personal property manufactured in this 74150
state, if sold by the manufacturer in this state to a retailer for 74151
use in the retail business of the retailer outside of this state 74152
and if possession is taken from the manufacturer by the purchaser 74153
within this state for the sole purpose of immediately removing the 74154
same from this state in a vehicle owned by the purchaser;74155

       (22) Sales of services provided by the state or any of its 74156
political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, institutions, 74157
or authorities, or by governmental entities of the state or any of 74158
its political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, 74159
institutions, or authorities;74160

       (23) Sales of motor vehicles to nonresidents of this state 74161
under the circumstances described in division (B) of section 74162
5739.029 of the Revised Code;74163

       (24) Sales to persons engaged in the preparation of eggs for 74164
sale of tangible personal property used or consumed directly in 74165
such preparation, including such tangible personal property used 74166
for cleaning, sanitizing, preserving, grading, sorting, and 74167
classifying by size; packages, including material and parts for 74168
packages, and machinery, equipment, and material for use in 74169
packaging eggs for sale; and handling and transportation equipment 74170
and parts therefor, except motor vehicles licensed to operate on 74171
public highways, used in intraplant or interplant transfers or 74172
shipment of eggs in the process of preparation for sale, when the 74173
plant or plants within or between which such transfers or 74174
shipments occur are operated by the same person. "Packages" 74175
includes containers, cases, baskets, flats, fillers, filler flats, 74176
cartons, closure materials, labels, and labeling materials, and 74177
"packaging" means placing therein.74178

       (25)(a) Sales of water to a consumer for residential use, 74179
except the sale of bottled water, distilled water, mineral water, 74180
carbonated water, or ice;74181

       (b) Sales of water by a nonprofit corporation engaged 74182
exclusively in the treatment, distribution, and sale of water to 74183
consumers, if such water is delivered to consumers through pipes 74184
or tubing.74185

       (26) Fees charged for inspection or reinspection of motor 74186
vehicles under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code;74187

       (27) Sales to persons licensed to conduct a food service 74188
operation pursuant to section 3717.43 of the Revised Code, of 74189
tangible personal property primarily used directly for the 74190
following:74191

       (a) To prepare food for human consumption for sale;74192

       (b) To preserve food that has been or will be prepared for 74193
human consumption for sale by the food service operator, not 74194
including tangible personal property used to display food for 74195
selection by the consumer;74196

       (c) To clean tangible personal property used to prepare or 74197
serve food for human consumption for sale.74198

       (28) Sales of animals by nonprofit animal adoption services 74199
or county humane societies;74200

       (29) Sales of services to a corporation described in division 74201
(A) of section 5709.72 of the Revised Code, and sales of tangible 74202
personal property that qualifies for exemption from taxation under 74203
section 5709.72 of the Revised Code;74204

       (30) Sales and installation of agricultural land tile, as 74205
defined in division (B)(5)(a) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 74206
Code;74207

       (31) Sales and erection or installation of portable grain 74208
bins, as defined in division (B)(5)(b) of section 5739.01 of the 74209
Revised Code;74210

       (32) The sale, lease, repair, and maintenance of, parts for, 74211
or items attached to or incorporated in, motor vehicles that are 74212
primarily used for transporting tangible personal property 74213
belonging to others by a person engaged in highway transportation 74214
for hire, except for packages and packaging used for the 74215
transportation of tangible personal property;74216

       (33) Sales to the state headquarters of any veterans' 74217
organization in this state that is either incorporated and issued 74218
a charter by the congress of the United States or is recognized by 74219
the United States veterans administration, for use by the 74220
headquarters;74221

       (34) Sales to a telecommunications service vendor, mobile 74222
telecommunications service vendor, or satellite broadcasting 74223
service vendor of tangible personal property and services used 74224
directly and primarily in transmitting, receiving, switching, or 74225
recording any interactive, one- or two-way electromagnetic 74226
communications, including voice, image, data, and information, 74227
through the use of any medium, including, but not limited to, 74228
poles, wires, cables, switching equipment, computers, and record 74229
storage devices and media, and component parts for the tangible 74230
personal property. The exemption provided in this division shall 74231
be in lieu of all other exemptions under division (B)(42)(a) or 74232
(n) of this section to which the vendor may otherwise be entitled, 74233
based upon the use of the thing purchased in providing the 74234
telecommunications, mobile telecommunications, or satellite 74235
broadcasting service.74236

       (35)(a) Sales where the purpose of the consumer is to use or 74237
consume the things transferred in making retail sales and 74238
consisting of newspaper inserts, catalogues, coupons, flyers, gift 74239
certificates, or other advertising material that prices and 74240
describes tangible personal property offered for retail sale.74241

       (b) Sales to direct marketing vendors of preliminary 74242
materials such as photographs, artwork, and typesetting that will 74243
be used in printing advertising material; and of printed matter 74244
that offers free merchandise or chances to win sweepstake prizes 74245
and that is mailed to potential customers with advertising 74246
material described in division (B)(35)(a) of this section; and74247

       (c) Sales of equipment such as telephones, computers, 74248
facsimile machines, and similar tangible personal property 74249
primarily used to accept orders for direct marketing retail sales.74250

       (c)(d) Sales of automatic food vending machines that preserve 74251
food with a shelf life of forty-five days or less by refrigeration 74252
and dispense it to the consumer.74253

       For purposes of division (B)(35) of this section, "direct 74254
marketing" means the method of selling where consumers order 74255
tangible personal property by United States mail, delivery 74256
service, or telecommunication and the vendor delivers or ships the 74257
tangible personal property sold to the consumer from a warehouse, 74258
catalogue distribution center, or similar fulfillment facility by 74259
means of the United States mail, delivery service, or common 74260
carrier.74261

       (36) Sales to a person engaged in the business of 74262
horticulture or producing livestock of materials to be 74263
incorporated into a horticulture structure or livestock structure;74264

       (37) Sales of personal computers, computer monitors, computer 74265
keyboards, modems, and other peripheral computer equipment to an 74266
individual who is licensed or certified to teach in an elementary 74267
or a secondary school in this state for use by that individual in 74268
preparation for teaching elementary or secondary school students;74269

       (38) Sales to a professional racing team of any of the 74270
following:74271

       (a) Motor racing vehicles;74272

       (b) Repair services for motor racing vehicles;74273

       (c) Items of property that are attached to or incorporated in 74274
motor racing vehicles, including engines, chassis, and all other 74275
components of the vehicles, and all spare, replacement, and 74276
rebuilt parts or components of the vehicles; except not including 74277
tires, consumable fluids, paint, and accessories consisting of 74278
instrumentation sensors and related items added to the vehicle to 74279
collect and transmit data by means of telemetry and other forms of 74280
communication.74281

       (39) Sales of used manufactured homes and used mobile homes, 74282
as defined in section 5739.0210 of the Revised Code, made on or 74283
after January 1, 2000;74284

       (40) Sales of tangible personal property and services to a 74285
provider of electricity used or consumed directly and primarily in 74286
generating, transmitting, or distributing electricity for use by 74287
others, including property that is or is to be incorporated into 74288
and will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 74289
or distribution system and that retains its classification as 74290
tangible personal property after incorporation; fuel or power used 74291
in the production, transmission, or distribution of electricity; 74292
energy conversion equipment as defined in section 5727.01 of the 74293
Revised Code; and tangible personal property and services used in 74294
the repair and maintenance of the production, transmission, or 74295
distribution system, including only those motor vehicles as are 74296
specially designed and equipped for such use. The exemption 74297
provided in this division shall be in lieu of all other exemptions 74298
in division (B)(42)(a) or (n) of this section to which a provider 74299
of electricity may otherwise be entitled based on the use of the 74300
tangible personal property or service purchased in generating, 74301
transmitting, or distributing electricity.74302

       (41) Sales to a person providing services under division 74303
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code of tangible 74304
personal property and services used directly and primarily in 74305
providing taxable services under that section.74306

       (42) Sales where the purpose of the purchaser is to do any of 74307
the following:74308

       (a) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 74309
part into tangible personal property to be produced for sale by 74310
manufacturing, assembling, processing, or refining; or to use or 74311
consume the thing transferred directly in producing tangible 74312
personal property for sale by mining, including, without 74313
limitation, the extraction from the earth of all substances that 74314
are classed geologically as minerals, production of crude oil and 74315
natural gas, or directly in the rendition of a public utility 74316
service, except that the sales tax levied by this section shall be 74317
collected upon all meals, drinks, and food for human consumption 74318
sold when transporting persons. Persons engaged in rendering 74319
services in the exploration for, and production of, crude oil and 74320
natural gas for others are deemed engaged directly in the 74321
exploration for, and production of, crude oil and natural gas. 74322
This paragraph does not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at 74323
retail" the sale of tangible personal property that is to be 74324
incorporated into a structure or improvement to real property.74325

       (b) To hold the thing transferred as security for the 74326
performance of an obligation of the vendor;74327

       (c) To resell, hold, use, or consume the thing transferred as 74328
evidence of a contract of insurance;74329

       (d) To use or consume the thing directly in commercial 74330
fishing;74331

       (e) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 74332
part into, or to use or consume the thing transferred directly in 74333
the production of, magazines distributed as controlled circulation 74334
publications;74335

       (f) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 74336
and preparation in suitable condition for market and sale of 74337
printed, imprinted, overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, 74338
blueprinted, photostatic, or other productions or reproductions of 74339
written or graphic matter;74340

       (g) To use the thing transferred, as described in section 74341
5739.011 of the Revised Code, primarily in a manufacturing 74342
operation to produce tangible personal property for sale;74343

       (h) To use the benefit of a warranty, maintenance or service 74344
contract, or similar agreement, as described in division (B)(7) of 74345
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, to repair or maintain 74346
tangible personal property, if all of the property that is the 74347
subject of the warranty, contract, or agreement would not be 74348
subject to the tax imposed by this section;74349

       (i) To use the thing transferred as qualified research and 74350
development equipment;74351

       (j) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 74352
storing, transporting, mailing, or otherwise handling purchased 74353
sales inventory in a warehouse, distribution center, or similar 74354
facility when the inventory is primarily distributed outside this 74355
state to retail stores of the person who owns or controls the 74356
warehouse, distribution center, or similar facility, to retail 74357
stores of an affiliated group of which that person is a member, or 74358
by means of direct marketing. This division does not apply to 74359
motor vehicles registered for operation on the public highways. As 74360
used in this division, "affiliated group" has the same meaning as 74361
in division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code and 74362
"direct marketing" has the same meaning as in division (B)(35) of 74363
this section.74364

       (k) To use or consume the thing transferred to fulfill a 74365
contractual obligation incurred by a warrantor pursuant to a 74366
warranty provided as a part of the price of the tangible personal 74367
property sold or by a vendor of a warranty, maintenance or service 74368
contract, or similar agreement the provision of which is defined 74369
as a sale under division (B)(7) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 74370
Code;74371

       (l) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 74372
of a newspaper for distribution to the public;74373

       (m) To use tangible personal property to perform a service 74374
listed in division (B)(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, 74375
if the property is or is to be permanently transferred to the 74376
consumer of the service as an integral part of the performance of 74377
the service;74378

       (n) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 74379
producing tangible personal property for sale by farming, 74380
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. Persons engaged in 74381
rendering farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture 74382
services for others are deemed engaged primarily in farming, 74383
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. This paragraph does 74384
not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at retail" the sale of 74385
tangible personal property that is to be incorporated into a 74386
structure or improvement to real property.74387

       (o) To use or consume the thing transferred in acquiring, 74388
formatting, editing, storing, and disseminating data or 74389
information by electronic publishing.74390

       As used in division (B)(42) of this section, "thing" includes 74391
all transactions included in divisions (B)(3)(a), (b), and (e) of 74392
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.74393

       (43) Sales conducted through a coin operated device that 74394
activates vacuum equipment or equipment that dispenses water, 74395
whether or not in combination with soap or other cleaning agents 74396
or wax, to the consumer for the consumer's use on the premises in 74397
washing, cleaning, or waxing a motor vehicle, provided no other 74398
personal property or personal service is provided as part of the 74399
transaction.74400

       (44) Sales of replacement and modification parts for engines, 74401
airframes, instruments, and interiors in, and paint for, aircraft 74402
used primarily in a fractional aircraft ownership program, and 74403
sales of services for the repair, modification, and maintenance of 74404
such aircraft, and machinery, equipment, and supplies primarily 74405
used to provide those services.74406

       (45) Sales of telecommunications service that is used 74407
directly and primarily to perform the functions of a call center. 74408
As used in this division, "call center" means any physical 74409
location where telephone calls are placed or received in high 74410
volume for the purpose of making sales, marketing, customer 74411
service, technical support, or other specialized business 74412
activity, and that employs at least fifty individuals that engage 74413
in call center activities on a full-time basis, or sufficient 74414
individuals to fill fifty full-time equivalent positions.74415

        (46) Sales by a telecommunications service vendor of 900 74416
service to a subscriber. This division does not apply to 74417
information services, as defined in division (FF) of section 74418
5739.01 of the Revised Code.74419

        (47) Sales of value-added non-voice data service. This 74420
division does not apply to any similar service that is not 74421
otherwise a telecommunications service.74422

       (48)(a) Sales of machinery, equipment, and software to a 74423
qualified direct selling entity for use in a warehouse or 74424
distribution center primarily for storing, transporting, or 74425
otherwise handling inventory that is held for sale to independent 74426
salespersons who operate as direct sellers and that is held 74427
primarily for distribution outside this state;74428

       (b) As used in division (B)(48)(a) of this section:74429

       (i) "Direct seller" means a person selling consumer products 74430
to individuals for personal or household use and not from a fixed 74431
retail location, including selling such product at in-home product 74432
demonstrations, parties, and other one-on-one selling.74433

       (ii) "Qualified direct selling entity" means an entity 74434
selling to direct sellers at the time the entity enters into a tax 74435
credit agreement with the tax credit authority pursuant to section 74436
122.17 of the Revised Code, provided that the agreement was 74437
entered into on or after January 1, 2007. Neither contingencies 74438
relevant to the granting of, nor later developments with respect 74439
to, the tax credit shall impair the status of the qualified direct 74440
selling entity under division (B)(48) of this section after 74441
execution of the tax credit agreement by the tax credit authority.74442

       (c) Division (B)(48) of this section is limited to machinery, 74443
equipment, and software first stored, used, or consumed in this 74444
state within the period commencing June 24, 2008, and ending on 74445
the date that is five years after that date.74446

       (49)(a) Sales of materials, parts, equipment, or engines used 74447
in the repair or maintenance of aircraft or avionics systems of 74448
such aircraft, and sales of repair, remodeling, replacement, or 74449
maintenance services in this state performed on aircraft or on an 74450
aircraft's avionics, engine, or component materials or parts. As 74451
used in division (B)(49)(a) of this section, "aircraft" means 74452
aircraft of more than six thousand pounds maximum certified 74453
takeoff weight or used exclusively in general aviation.74454

       (b) Sales of tangible personal property, including materials, 74455
parts, equipment, software, supplies, tools, fuel, catalysts, oil, 74456
acids, and other consumables, or services used or consumed in 74457
performing research and development activities with respect to 74458
aerospace vehicles, the parts, avionics systems, control systems, 74459
engines, software, component materials, or component parts of such 74460
aerospace vehicles, and human performance equipment and technology 74461
associated with operating and testing aerospace vehicles. As used 74462
in division (B)(49)(b) of this section, "aerospace vehicles" means 74463
any manned or unmanned aviation device including, but not limited 74464
to, aircraft, airplanes, helicopters, missiles, rockets, and space 74465
vehicles. 74466

       (50) Sales of full flight simulators that are used for pilot 74467
or flight-crew training, sales of repair or replacement parts or 74468
components, and sales of repair or maintenance services for such 74469
full flight simulators. "Full flight simulator" means a replica of 74470
a specific type, or make, model, and series of aircraft cockpit. 74471
It includes the assemblage of equipment and computer programs 74472
necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight 74473
conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-cockpit view, 74474
and a system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a 74475
three-degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of 74476
capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described 74477
in appendices A and B of part 60 of chapter 1 of title 14 of the 74478
Code of Federal Regulations.74479

       (51) Any transfer or lease of tangible personal property 74480
between the state and a successful proposer in accordance with 74481
sections 126.60 to 126.605 of the Revised Code, provided the 74482
property is part of a project as defined in section 126.60 of the 74483
Revised Code and the state retains ownership of the project or 74484
part thereof that is being transferred or leased, between the 74485
state and JobsOhio in accordance with section 4313.02 of the 74486
Revised Code.74487

       (C) For the purpose of the proper administration of this 74488
chapter, and to prevent the evasion of the tax, it is presumed 74489
that all sales made in this state are subject to the tax until the 74490
contrary is established.74491

       (D) The levy of this tax on retail sales of recreation and 74492
sports club service shall not prevent a municipal corporation from 74493
levying any tax on recreation and sports club dues or on any 74494
income generated by recreation and sports club dues.74495

       (E) The tax collected by the vendor from the consumer under 74496
this chapter is not part of the price, but is a tax collection for 74497
the benefit of the state, and of counties levying an additional 74498
sales tax pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.026 of the Revised 74499
Code and of transit authorities levying an additional sales tax 74500
pursuant to section 5739.023 of the Revised Code. Except for the 74501
discount authorized under section 5739.12 of the Revised Code and 74502
the effects of any rounding pursuant to section 5703.055 of the 74503
Revised Code, no person other than the state or such a county or 74504
transit authority shall derive any benefit from the collection or 74505
payment of the tax levied by this section or section 5739.021, 74506
5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code.74507

       Sec. 5743.03. (A) Except as provided in section 5743.04 of 74508
the Revised Code, the taxes imposed under sections 5743.02, 74509
5743.021, 5743.024, and 5743.026 of the Revised Code shall be paid 74510
by the purchase of tax stamps. A tax stamp shall be affixed to 74511
each package of an aggregate denomination not less than the amount 74512
of the tax upon the contents thereof. The tax stamp, so affixed, 74513
shall be prima-facie evidence of payment of the tax. 74514

       Except as is provided in the rules prescribed by the tax 74515
commissioner under authority of sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the 74516
Revised Code, and unless tax stamps have been previously affixed, 74517
they shall be so affixed by each wholesale dealer, and canceled by 74518
writing or stamping across the face thereof the number assigned to 74519
such wholesale dealer by the tax commissioner for that purpose, 74520
prior to the delivery of any cigarettes to any person in this 74521
state, or in the case of a tax levied pursuant to section 74522
5743.021, 5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code, prior to the 74523
delivery of cigarettes to any person in the county in which the 74524
tax is levied.74525

       (B) Except as provided in the rules prescribed by the 74526
commissioner under authority of sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the 74527
Revised Code, each retail dealer, within twenty-four hours after 74528
the receipt of any cigarettes at the retail dealer's place of 74529
business, shall inspect the cigarettes to ensure that tax stamps 74530
are affixed. The inspection shall be completed before the 74531
cigarettes are delivered to any person in this state, or, in the 74532
case of a tax levied pursuant to section 5743.021, 5743.024, or 74533
5743.026 of the Revised Code, before the cigarettes are delivered 74534
to any person in the county in which the tax is levied.74535

       (C) Whenever any cigarettes are found in the place of 74536
business of any retail dealer without proper tax stamps affixed 74537
thereto and canceled, it is presumed that such cigarettes are kept 74538
therein in violation of sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised 74539
Code.74540

       (D) Each wholesale dealer who purchases cigarettes without 74541
proper tax stamps affixed thereto shall, on or before the 74542
thirty-first day of the month following the close of each 74543
semiannual period, which period shall end on the thirtieth day of 74544
June and the thirty-first day of December of each year, make and 74545
file a return of the preceding semiannual period, on such form as 74546
is prescribed by the tax commissioner, showing the dealer's entire 74547
purchases and sales of cigarettes and stamps or impressions for 74548
such semiannual period and accurate inventories as of the 74549
beginning and end of each semiannual period of cigarettes, stamped 74550
or unstamped; cigarette tax stamps affixed or unaffixed and unused 74551
meter impressions; and such other information as the commissioner 74552
finds necessary to the proper administration of sections 5743.01 74553
to 5743.20 of the Revised Code. The commissioner may extend the 74554
time for making and filing returns and may remit all or any part 74555
of amounts of penalties that may become due under sections 5743.01 74556
to 5743.20 of the Revised Code. The wholesale dealer shall deliver 74557
the return together with a remittance of the tax deficiency 74558
reported thereon to the treasurer of state. The treasurer of state 74559
shall stamp or otherwise mark on the return the date it was 74560
received and shall also show thereon by stamp or otherwise a 74561
payment or nonpayment of the deficiency shown by the return. 74562
Thereafter, the treasurer of state shall immediately transmit all 74563
returns filed under this section to the commissioner.74564

       (E) Any wholesale dealer who fails to file a return under 74565
this section and the rules of the commissioner, other than a 74566
report required pursuant to division (F) of this section, may be 74567
required, for each day the dealer so fails, to forfeit and pay 74568
into the state treasury the sum of one dollar as revenue arising 74569
from the tax imposed by sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised 74570
Code and such sum may be collected by assessment in the manner 74571
provided in section 5743.081 of the Revised Code. If the 74572
commissioner finds it necessary in order to insure the payment of 74573
the tax imposed by sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised 74574
Code, the commissioner may require returns and payments to be made 74575
other than semiannually. The returns shall be signed by the 74576
wholesale dealer or an authorized agent thereof.74577

       (F) Each person required to file a tax return under section 74578
5743.03, 5743.52, or 5743.62 of the Revised Code shall report to 74579
the commissioner the quantity of all cigarettes and roll-your-own 74580
cigarette tobacco sold in Ohio for each brand not covered by the 74581
tobacco master settlement agreement for which the person is liable 74582
for the taxes levied under section 5743.02, 5743.51, or 5743.62 of 74583
the Revised Code.74584

       As used in this division, "tobacco master settlement 74585
agreement" has the same meaning as in section 183.01 of the 74586
Revised Code.74587

       (G) The report required by division (F) of this section shall 74588
be made on a form prescribed by the commissioner and shall be 74589
filed not later than the last day of each month for the previous 74590
month, except that if the commissioner determines that the 74591
quantity reported by a person does not warrant monthly reporting, 74592
the commissioner may authorize reporting at less frequent 74593
intervals. The commissioner may assess a penalty of not more than 74594
two hundred fifty dollars for each month or portion thereof that a 74595
person fails to timely file a required report, and such sum may be 74596
collected by assessment in the manner provided in section 5743.081 74597
of the Revised Code. All money collected under this division shall 74598
be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 74599
sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code.74600

       (H) The treasurer of state or an agent of the treasurer may 74601
sell tax stamps only to a licensed wholesale dealer, except as 74602
otherwise authorized by the commissioner. The treasurer or an 74603
agent of the treasurer may charge the costs associated with the 74604
sale of tax stamps to the licensed wholesale dealer. Amounts 74605
collected from such charges shall be credited to the treasurer of 74606
state's administrative fund created under section 113.20 of the 74607
Revised Code.74608

       Sec. 5743.031.  (A) A wholesale dealer may affix stamps only 74609
to packages of cigarettes that the dealer received directly from a 74610
manufacturer or importer of cigarettes that possesses a valid and 74611
current license under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code, or to 74612
packages of cigarettes that the dealer received from another 74613
wholesale dealer that possesses a valid and current license under 74614
section 5743.15 of the Revised Code, provided that the tax 74615
commissioner has authorized the sale of the cigarettes between 74616
those wholesale dealers and that the wholesale dealer that sells 74617
the cigarettes received them directly from a manufacturer or 74618
importer of cigarettes that possesses a valid and current license 74619
under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code.74620

       (B) Only a wholesale dealer that possesses a valid and 74621
current license under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code may 74622
purchase or obtain tax stamps. A wholesale dealer may not sell or 74623
provide such stamps to any other wholesale dealer or any other 74624
person.74625

       (C) Any person shipping unstamped packages of cigarettes into 74626
this state to a person other than a wholesale dealer licensed 74627
under section 5743.15 of the Revised Code shall, before such 74628
shipment, file notice of the shipment with the tax commissioner. 74629
Any person that transports unstamped packages of cigarettes into 74630
or within this state shall carry in the vehicle used to convey the 74631
shipment invoices or equivalent documentation of the shipment for 74632
all cigarettes in the shipment. The invoices or other 74633
documentation shall show the true name and address of the 74634
consignor or seller, the true name and address of the consignee or 74635
purchaser, and the quantity of the cigarettes being transported. 74636
This division does not apply to any common or contractfor-hire 74637
motor carrier transporting cigarettes through this state to 74638
another location under a proper bill of lading or freight bill 74639
that states the quantity, source, and destination of the 74640
cigarettes.74641

       Sec. 5751.033.  For the purposes of this chapter, gross 74642
receipts shall be sitused to this state as follows:74643

       (A) Gross rents and royalties from real property located in 74644
this state shall be sitused to this state.74645

       (B) Gross rents and royalties from tangible personal property 74646
shall be sitused to this state to the extent the tangible personal 74647
property is located or used in this state.74648

       (C) Gross receipts from the sale of electricity and electric 74649
transmission and distribution services shall be sitused to this 74650
state in the manner provided under section 5733.059 of the Revised 74651
Code.74652

       (D) Gross receipts from the sale of real property located in 74653
this state shall be sitused to this state.74654

       (E) Gross receipts from the sale of tangible personal 74655
property shall be sitused to this state if the property is 74656
received in this state by the purchaser. In the case of delivery 74657
of tangible personal property by commonmotor carrier or by other 74658
means of transportation, the place at which such property is 74659
ultimately received after all transportation has been completed 74660
shall be considered the place where the purchaser receives the 74661
property. For purposes of this section, the phrase "delivery of 74662
tangible personal property by commonmotor carrier or by other 74663
means of transportation" includes the situation in which a 74664
purchaser accepts the property in this state and then transports 74665
the property directly or by other means to a location outside this 74666
state. Direct delivery in this state, other than for purposes of 74667
transportation, to a person or firm designated by a purchaser 74668
constitutes delivery to the purchaser in this state, and direct 74669
delivery outside this state to a person or firm designated by a 74670
purchaser does not constitute delivery to the purchaser in this 74671
state, regardless of where title passes or other conditions of 74672
sale.74673

       (F) Gross receipts from the sale, exchange, disposition, or 74674
other grant of the right to use trademarks, trade names, patents, 74675
copyrights, and similar intellectual property shall be sitused to 74676
this state to the extent that the receipts are based on the amount 74677
of use of the property in this state. If the receipts are not 74678
based on the amount of use of the property, but rather on the 74679
right to use the property, and the payor has the right to use the 74680
property in this state, then the receipts from the sale, exchange, 74681
disposition, or other grant of the right to use such property 74682
shall be sitused to this state to the extent the receipts are 74683
based on the right to use the property in this state.74684

       (G) Gross receipts from the sale of transportation services 74685
by a common or contractmotor carrier shall be sitused to this 74686
state in proportion to the mileage traveled by the carrier during 74687
the tax period on roadways, waterways, airways, and railways in 74688
this state to the mileage traveled by the carrier during the tax 74689
period on roadways, waterways, airways, and railways everywhere. 74690
With prior written approval of the tax commissioner, a common or 74691
contractmotor carrier may use an alternative situsing procedure 74692
for transportation services.74693

        (H) Gross receipts from dividends, interest, and other 74694
sources of income from financial instruments described in 74695
divisions (F)(4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), (10), (11), and (13) of 74696
section 5733.056 of the Revised Code shall be sitused to this 74697
state in accordance with the situsing provisions set forth in 74698
those divisions. When applying the provisions of divisions (F)(6), 74699
(8), and (13) of section 5733.056 of the Revised Code, "gross 74700
receipts" shall be substituted for "net gains" wherever "net 74701
gains" appears in those divisions. Nothing in this division limits 74702
or modifies the exclusions enumerated in divisions (E) and (F)(2) 74703
of section 5751.01 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner may 74704
promulgate rules to further specify the manner in which to situs 74705
gross receipts subject to this division.74706

        (I) Gross receipts from the sale of all other services, and 74707
all other gross receipts not otherwise sitused under this section, 74708
shall be sitused to this state in the proportion that the 74709
purchaser's benefit in this state with respect to what was 74710
purchased bears to the purchaser's benefit everywhere with respect 74711
to what was purchased. The physical location where the purchaser 74712
ultimately uses or receives the benefit of what was purchased 74713
shall be paramount in determining the proportion of the benefit in 74714
this state to the benefit everywhere. If a taxpayer's records do 74715
not allow the taxpayer to determine that location, the taxpayer 74716
may use an alternative method to situs gross receipts under this 74717
division if the alternative method is reasonable, is consistently 74718
and uniformly applied, and is supported by the taxpayer's records 74719
as the records exist when the service is provided or within a 74720
reasonable period of time thereafter.74721

       (J) If the situsing provisions of divisions (A) to (H) of 74722
this section do not fairly represent the extent of a person's 74723
activity in this state, the person may request, or the tax 74724
commissioner may require or permit, an alternative method. Such 74725
request by a person must be made within the applicable statute of 74726
limitations set forth in this chapter.74727

       (K) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to provide 74728
additional guidance to the application of this section, and 74729
provide alternative methods of situsing gross receipts that apply 74730
to all persons, or subset of persons, that are engaged in similar 74731
business or trade activities.74732

       (L) As used in this section, "motor carrier" has the same 74733
meaning as in section 4923.01 of the Revised Code.74734

       Sec. 5751.12.  The tax commissioner may prescribe 74735
requirements for the keeping of records and other pertinent 74736
documents, the filing of copies of federal income tax returns and 74737
determinations, and computations reconciling federal income tax 74738
returns with the returns and reports required by section 5751.05 74739
of the Revised Code. The commissioner may require any person, by 74740
rule or notice served on that person, to keep those records that 74741
the commissioner considers necessary to show whether, and the 74742
extent to which, a person is subject to this chapter. Those 74743
records and other documents shall be open during business hours to 74744
the inspection of the commissioner, and shall be preserved for a 74745
period of four years unless the commissioner, in writing, consents 74746
to their destruction within that period, or by order requires that 74747
they be kept longer. If such records are normally kept by the 74748
person electronically, the person shall provide such records to 74749
the commissioner electronically at the commissioner's request.74750

       Any information required by the tax commissioner under this 74751
chapter is confidential as provided for in section 5703.21 of the 74752
Revised Code. However, the commissioner shall make public an 74753
electronic list of all actively registered persons required to 74754
remit the tax under this chapter, including legal names, trade 74755
names, addresses, and account numbers. In addition, such list 74756
shall include all persons that cancelled their registration at any 74757
time during the preceding four calendar years, including the date 74758
the registration was cancelled.74759

       Sec. 6109.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (D)(I) and 74760
(E)(J) of this section, on and after January 1, 1994, no person 74761
shall operate or maintain a public water system in this state 74762
without a license issued by the director of environmental 74763
protection. A person who operates or maintains a public water 74764
system on January 1, 1994, shall obtain an initial license under 74765
this section in accordance with the following schedule:74766

       (1) If the public water system is a community water system, 74767
not later than January 31, 1994; 74768

       (2) If the public water system is not a community water 74769
system and serves a nontransient population, not later than 74770
January 31, 1994;74771

       (3) If the public water system is not a community water 74772
system and serves a transient population, not later than January 74773
31, 1995.74774

       A person proposing to operate or maintain a new public water 74775
system after January 1, 1994, in addition to complying with 74776
section 6109.07 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it, 74777
shall submit an application for an initial license under this 74778
section to the director prior to commencing operation of the 74779
system. 74780

       A license or license renewal issued under this section shall 74781
be renewed annually. Such a license or license renewal shall 74782
expire on the thirtieth day of January in the year following its 74783
issuance. A license holder that proposes to continue operating the 74784
public water system for which the license or license renewal was 74785
issued shall apply for a license renewal at least thirty days 74786
prior to that expiration date. 74787

       The director shall adopt, and may amend and rescind, rules in 74788
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 74789
procedures governing and information to be included on 74790
applications for licenses and license renewals under this section. 74791
Through(B)(1) A person who proposes to operate a new public water 74792
system, in addition to complying with section 6109.07 of the 74793
Revised Code and rules adopted under it, shall obtain an initial 74794
license from the director. The person shall submit an application 74795
for the initial license at least forty-five days prior to 74796
commencing the operation of the system.74797

        (C) A license shall expire on the thirtieth day of January in 74798
the year following its issuance.74799

        (D) A license shall be renewed annually. A person proposing 74800
to continue operating a public water system shall apply for a 74801
license renewal at least thirty days prior to the expiration date 74802
of the license.74803

        (E) Through June 30, 2014, each application for a license or 74804
license renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate fee 74805
established under division (M) of section 3745.11 of the Revised 74806
Code, provided that. However, an applicant for an initial license 74807
who is proposing to operate or maintain a new public water system 74808
after January 1, 1994, shall submit a fee that equals a prorated 74809
amount of the appropriate fee established under that division for 74810
the remainder of the licensing year.74811

       (B)(F) Not later than thirty days after receiving a completed 74812
application and the appropriate license fee for an initiala74813
license under division (A) of this section, the director shall 74814
issue theor license renewal for thea public water system. Not 74815
later than thirty days after receiving a completed application and 74816
the appropriate license fee for a license renewal under division 74817
(A) of this section, the director shall do one of the following:74818

       (1) Issue the license or license renewal for the public water 74819
system;74820

       (2) Issue the license or license renewal subject to terms and 74821
conditions that the director determines are necessary to ensure 74822
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it;74823

       (3) Deny the license or license renewal if the director finds 74824
that the public water system was notcannot be operated in 74825
substantial compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under 74826
it.74827

       (C)(G) The director may condition, suspend, or revoke a 74828
license or license renewal issued under this section at any time74829
if the director finds that the public water system was not or will 74830
not be operated in substantial compliance with this chapter and 74831
rules adopted under it. The director shall adopt, and may amend 74832
and rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 74833
Code governing such suspensions and revocations.74834

       (D)(H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with 74835
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures and 74836
requirements governing both of the following:74837

        (1) Information to be included on applications for licenses 74838
and license renewals issued under this section;74839

        (2) The issuance, conditioning, suspension, revocation, and 74840
denial of licenses and license renewals under this section. 74841

       (I)(1) As used in division (D)(I) of this section, "church" 74842
means a fellowship of believers, congregation, society, 74843
corporation, convention, or association that is formed primarily 74844
or exclusively for religious purposes and that is not formed or 74845
operated for the private profit of any person.74846

       (2) This section does not apply to a church that operates or 74847
maintains a public water system solely to provide water for that 74848
church or for a campground that is owned by the church and 74849
operated primarily or exclusively for members of the church and 74850
their families. A church that, on or before March 5, 1996, has 74851
obtained a license under this section for such a public water 74852
system need not obtain a license renewal under this section.74853

       (E)(J) This section does not apply to any public or nonpublic 74854
school that meets minimum standards of the state board of 74855
education that operates or maintains a public water system solely 74856
to provide water for that school.74857

       (F)(K) The environmental protection agency shall collect well 74858
log filing fees on behalf of the division of soil and water 74859
resources in the department of natural resources in accordance 74860
with section 1521.05 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 74861
it. The fees shall be submitted to the division quarterly as 74862
provided in those rules.74863

       Sec. 6111.46.  (A) The environmental protection agency shall 74864
exercise general supervision of the treatment and disposal of 74865
sewage and industrial wastes and the operation and maintenance of 74866
works or means installed for the collection, treatment, and 74867
disposal of sewage and industrial wastes. Such general supervision 74868
shall apply to all features of construction, operation, and 74869
maintenance of the works or means that do or may affect the proper 74870
treatment and disposal of sewage and industrial wastes. 74871

       (B)(1) The agency shall investigate the works or means 74872
employed in the collection, treatment, and disposal of sewage and 74873
industrial wastes whenever considered necessary or whenever 74874
requested to do so by local health officials and may issue and 74875
enforce orders and shall adopt rules governing the operation and 74876
maintenance of the works or means of treatment and disposal of 74877
such sewage and industrial wastes. In adopting rules under this 74878
section, the agency shall establish standards governing the 74879
construction, operation, and maintenance of the works or means of 74880
collection, treatment, and disposal of sewage that is generated at 74881
recreational vehicle parks, recreation camps, combined park-camps, 74882
and temporary park-camps that are separate from such standards 74883
relative to manufactured home parks.74884

       (2) As used in division (B)(1) of this section:74885

       (a) "Manufactured home parks" has the same meaning as in 74886
section 3733.014781.01 of the Revised Code.74887

       (b) "Recreational vehicle parks," "recreation camps," 74888
"combined park-camps," and "temporary park-camps" have the same 74889
meanings as in section 3729.01 of the Revised Code.74890

       (C) The agency may require the submission of records and data 74891
of construction, operation, and maintenance, including plans and 74892
descriptions of existing works or means of treatment and disposal 74893
of such sewage and industrial wastes. When the agency requires the 74894
submission of such records or information, the public officials or 74895
person, firm, or corporation having the works in charge shall 74896
comply promptly with that order.74897

       Sec. 6117.39.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 74898
section, whenever, in the opinion of the board of county 74899
commissioners, it is necessary to acquire real estate or any 74900
interest in real estate for the acquisition, construction, 74901
maintenance, or operation of any sewer, drainage, or other 74902
improvement authorized by this chapter, or to acquire the right to 74903
construct, maintain, and operate the sewer, drainage, or other 74904
improvement in and upon any property within or outside of a county 74905
sewer district, it may purchase the real estate, interest in real 74906
estate, or right by negotiation. If the board and the owner of the 74907
real estate, interest in real estate, or right are unable to agree 74908
upon its purchase and sale, or the amount of damages to be awarded 74909
for it, the board may appropriate the real estate, interest, or 74910
right in accordance with sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised 74911
Code, except that the board, in the exercise of the powers granted 74912
by this section or any other section of this chapter, may not 74913
appropriate real estate or personal property owned by a municipal 74914
corporation.74915

       (B)(1) For the purposes of division (B) of this section, 74916
eitherany of the following constitutes a public exigency:74917

        (a) A finding by the director of environmental protection 74918
that a public health nuisance caused by an occasion of unavoidable 74919
urgency and suddenness due to unsanitary conditions compels the 74920
immediate construction of sewers for the protection of the public 74921
health and welfare;74922

       (b) The issuance of an order by the board of health of a 74923
health district to mitigate or abate a public health nuisance that 74924
is caused by an occasion of unavoidable urgency and suddenness due 74925
to unsanitary conditions and compels the immediate construction of 74926
sewers for the protection of the public health and welfare;74927

       (c) With respect to an affected parcel of property, an 74928
improvement required as a result of a federally imposed or 74929
state-imposed consent decree that prohibits future sewer inflows, 74930
combined sewer overflows, or sewer back-ups.74931

        (2) If the board of county commissioners is unable to 74932
purchase property for the purpose of the construction of sewers to 74933
mitigate or abate the public health nuisance that is the subject 74934
of a finding of the director or an order of the board of health74935
addressing a public exigency pursuant to division (B) of this 74936
section, the board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution 74937
finding that it is necessary for the protection of the public 74938
health and welfare to appropriate property that the board of 74939
county commissioners considers needed for that purpose. The 74940
resolution shall contain a definite, accurate, and detailed 74941
description of the property and the name and place of residence, 74942
if known or with reasonable diligence ascertainable, of the owners 74943
of the property to be appropriated.74944

        The board of county commissioners shall fix in its resolution 74945
what it considers to be the value of the property to be 74946
appropriated, which shall be the board's determination of the 74947
compensation for the property and shall be supported by an 74948
independent appraisal, together with any damages to the residue. 74949
The board shall deposit the compensation so determined, together 74950
with an amount for the damages to the residue, with the probate 74951
court or the court of common pleas of the county in which the 74952
property, or a part of it, is situated. Except as otherwise 74953
provided in this division, the power to appropriate property for 74954
the purposes of this division shall be exercised in the manner 74955
provided in sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code for an 74956
appropriation in the time of public exigency. The board's 74957
resolution and a written copy of the independent appraisal shall 74958
accompany the petition filed under section 163.05 of the Revised 74959
Code.74960

       Sec. 6119.11.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 74961
section, the board of trustees of a regional water and sewer 74962
district may condemn for the use of the district any public or 74963
private land, easement, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, or 74964
other property within or without the district required by it for 74965
the accomplishment of its purposes according to the procedure set 74966
forth in sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code.74967

       (B)(1) For the purposes of division (B) of this section, 74968
eitherany of the following constitutes a public exigency:74969

        (a) A finding by the director of environmental protection 74970
that a public health nuisance caused by an occasion of unavoidable 74971
urgency and suddenness due to unsanitary conditions compels the 74972
immediate construction of sewers for the protection of the public 74973
health and welfare;74974

       (b) The issuance of an order by the board of health of a 74975
health district to mitigate or abate a public health nuisance that 74976
is caused by an occasion of unavoidable urgency and suddenness due 74977
to unsanitary conditions and compels the immediate construction of 74978
sewers for the protection of the public health and welfare;74979

       (c) With respect to an affected parcel of property, an 74980
improvement required as a result of a federally imposed or 74981
state-imposed consent decree that prohibits future sewer inflows, 74982
combined sewer overflows, or sewer back-ups.74983

        (2) If the board of trustees of a regional water and sewer 74984
district is unable to purchase property for the purpose of the 74985
construction of sewers to mitigate or abate the public health 74986
nuisance that is the subject of a finding of the director or an 74987
order of the board of healthaddressing a public exigency pursuant 74988
to division (B) of this section, the board of trustees may adopt a 74989
resolution finding that it is necessary for the protection of the 74990
public health and welfare to appropriate property that the board 74991
of trustees considers needed for that purpose. The resolution 74992
shall contain a definite, accurate, and detailed description of 74993
the property and the name and place of residence, if known or with 74994
reasonable diligence ascertainable, of the owners of the property 74995
to be appropriated.74996

        The board of trustees shall fix in its resolution what it 74997
considers to be the value of the property to be appropriated, 74998
which shall be the board's determination of the compensation for 74999
the property and shall be supported by an independent appraisal, 75000
together with any damages to the residue. The board shall deposit 75001
the compensation so determined, together with an amount for the 75002
damages to the residue, with the probate court or the court of 75003
common pleas of the county in which the property, or a part of it, 75004
is situated. Except as otherwise provided in this division, the 75005
power to appropriate property for the purposes of this division 75006
shall be exercised in the manner provided in sections 163.01 to 75007
163.22 of the Revised Code for an appropriation in the time of 75008
public exigency. The board's resolution and a written copy of the 75009
independent appraisal shall accompany the petition filed under 75010
section 163.05 of the Revised Code.75011

       Section 101.02. That existing sections 7.10, 7.16, 9.34, 75012
102.02, 103.05, 105.41, 107.54, 109.33, 109.57, 109.572, 109.801, 75013
119.032, 121.04, 121.08, 121.083, 121.084, 123.01, 123.011, 75014
123.024, 123.04, 123.07, 123.08, 123.09, 123.10, 123.101, 123.11, 75015
123.13, 123.14, 123.15, 123.152, 123.17, 123.21, 123.46, 123.47, 75016
123.48, 123.49, 123.77, 124.04, 124.06, 124.11, 124.12, 124.14, 75017
124.231, 124.241, 124.25, 124.26, 124.27, 124.30, 124.31, 125.082, 75018
125.14, 126.14, 135.35, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 140.08, 145.01, 75019
145.012, 149.43, 151.01, 152.18, 152.24, 153.01, 153.011, 153.013, 75020
153.02, 153.04, 153.06, 153.07, 153.08, 153.09, 153.11, 153.12, 75021
153.14, 153.16, 153.17, 153.502, 153.503, 153.53, 154.01, 167.04, 75022
173.14, 173.21, 173.23, 173.26, 173.27, 173.391, 173.394, 173.40, 75023
173.42, 173.45, 173.46, 185.01, 185.02, 185.03, 185.05, 185.06, 75024
185.07, 185.09, 185.12, 189.04, 189.05, 189.06, 189.08, 306.04, 75025
306.36, 306.55, 307.05, 307.051, 307.055, 313.121, 313.122, 75026
313.16, 329.01, 329.40, 329.41, 329.42, 329.43, 329.44, 329.45, 75027
329.46, 330.04, 339.091, 340.03, 340.05, 340.091, 505.37, 505.375, 75028
505.44, 505.72, 705.18, 749.04, 749.05, 749.18, 901.54, 924.51, 75029
955.16, 955.26, 991.02, 1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 75030
1317.05, 1321.37, 1321.52, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.02, 1322.03, 75031
1322.031, 1345.05, 1501.04, 1502.01, 1502.02, 1502.03, 1502.04, 75032
1502.05, 1502.06, 1502.07, 1502.12, 1502.99, 1503.012, 1503.43, 75033
1506.42, 1509.071, 1533.10, 1541.26, 1551.33, 1555.02, 1555.03, 75034
1555.04, 1555.05, 1555.06, 1707.08, 1707.391, 1724.03, 1733.47, 75035
1751.01, 1751.02, 1751.13, 1761.26, 1901.06, 1901.18, 1907.13, 75036
1909.11, 1923.01, 1923.02, 1923.061, 1923.15, 2151.33, 2151.412, 75037
2151.86, 2152.121, 2152.22, 2301.01, 2301.27, 2301.271, 2301.571, 75038
2305.01, 2307.89, 2317.02, 2317.422, 2317.56, 2501.02, 2503.01, 75039
2743.02, 2743.10, 2746.01, 2901.01, 2903.33, 2907.29, 2909.21, 75040
2909.28, 2927.023, 2929.01, 2929.19, 2935.01, 2935.03, 2945.371, 75041
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 2961.22, 2967.03, 2967.05, 75042
2967.14, 2967.19, 2967.191, 2967.26, 2967.28, 2981.11, 2981.14, 75043
3109.14, 3125.41, 3301.55, 3304.16, 3304.181, 3304.182, 3305.01, 75044
3305.02, 3305.03, 3305.04, 3305.05, 3305.053, 3305.06, 3313.65, 75045
3313.71, 3313.976, 3313.978, 3313.979, 3318.034, 3318.08, 3318.10, 75046
3318.30, 3318.31, 3318.37, 3333.04, 3333.041, 3333.123, 3333.21, 75047
3333.60, 3333.61, 3333.71, 3333.72, 3334.08, 3345.16, 3345.28, 75048
3345.50, 3345.51, 3345.54, 3345.69, 3345.692, 3347.03, 3383.02, 75049
3383.07, 3517.20, 3701.021, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.025, 3701.03, 75050
3701.05, 3701.07, 3701.072, 3701.11, 3701.132, 3701.146, 3701.161, 75051
3701.20, 3701.201, 3701.21, 3701.221, 3701.23, 3701.232, 3701.24, 75052
3701.241, 3701.242, 3701.248, 3701.341, 3701.342, 3701.343, 75053
3701.344, 3701.345, 3701.347, 3701.352, 3701.40, 3701.503, 75054
3701.507, 3701.508, 3701.509, 3701.57, 3701.63, 3701.74, 3701.87, 75055
3701.881, 3702.141, 3702.31, 3702.51, 3702.52, 3702.522, 3702.523, 75056
3702.524, 3702.525, 3702.526, 3702.53, 3702.531, 3702.54, 3702.55, 75057
3702.56, 3702.57, 3702.59, 3702.592, 3702.593, 3702.594, 3702.60, 75058
3702.62, 3703.01, 3703.03, 3703.04, 3703.05, 3703.06, 3703.07, 75059
3703.08, 3703.10, 3703.21, 3703.99, 3704.035, 3705.24, 3705.242, 75060
3705.30, 3706.19, 3709.03, 3709.04, 3709.06, 3709.085, 3709.09, 75061
3709.092, 3709.32, 3709.35, 3710.01, 3710.02, 3710.04, 3710.05, 75062
3710.051, 3710.06, 3710.07, 3710.08, 3710.09, 3710.10, 3710.12, 75063
3710.13, 3710.17, 3711.04, 3711.06, 3711.08, 3711.12, 3711.21, 75064
3712.03, 3712.04, 3712.09, 3713.01, 3713.02, 3713.03, 3713.04, 75065
3713.05, 3713.06, 3713.07, 3713.08, 3713.09, 3713.10, 3714.073, 75066
3715.01, 3715.025, 3715.60, 3715.61, 3715.62, 3715.68, 3715.87, 75067
3716.01, 3716.03, 3717.01, 3717.04, 3717.05, 3717.07, 3717.45, 75068
3717.51, 3718.02, 3718.021, 3718.022, 3718.05, 3718.06, 3718.07, 75069
3718.09, 3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.03, 3721.032, 3721.04, 75070
3721.07, 3721.071, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.21, 3721.28, 3721.29, 75071
3721.50, 3721.51, 3723.06, 3723.07, 3723.09, 3725.02, 3727.01, 75072
3727.42, 3729.01, 3729.02, 3729.03, 3729.04, 3729.07, 3729.08, 75073
3730.10, 3733.02, 3733.021, 3733.022, 3733.024, 3733.025, 3733.03, 75074
3733.04, 3733.05, 3733.06, 3733.07, 3733.08, 3733.09, 3733.091, 75075
3733.10, 3733.101, 3733.11, 3733.12, 3733.121, 3733.122, 3733.123, 75076
3733.13, 3733.14, 3733.15, 3733.16, 3733.17, 3733.18, 3733.19, 75077
3733.20, 3733.41, 3733.42, 3734.01, 3734.131, 3734.15, 3734.51, 75078
3734.55, 3734.79, 3734.82, 3735.37, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3742.01, 75079
3742.02, 3742.03, 3742.04, 3742.05, 3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 75080
3742.47, 3742.50, 3743.04, 3743.06, 3743.19, 3743.25, 3745.01, 75081
3745.11, 3745.112, 3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.10, 3748.12, 75082
3748.13, 3748.15, 3748.20, 3749.02, 3749.03, 3749.04, 3752.06, 75083
3770.06, 3781.03, 3781.06, 3781.102, 3781.11, 3781.112, 3783.05, 75084
3791.02, 3791.04, 3791.05, 3791.07, 3791.11, 3791.12, 3793.04, 75085
3793.09, 3905.36, 4104.01, 4104.02, 4104.06, 4104.07, 4104.08, 75086
4104.09, 4104.10, 4104.101, 4104.12, 4104.15, 4104.16, 4104.17, 75087
4104.18, 4104.19, 4104.21, 4104.33, 4104.42, 4104.43, 4104.44, 75088
4104.48, 4105.01, 4105.02, 4105.03, 4105.04, 4105.05, 4105.06, 75089
4105.09, 4105.11, 4105.12, 4105.13, 4105.15, 4105.16, 4105.17, 75090
4105.191, 4105.20, 4105.21, 4115.10, 4115.101, 4121.04, 4121.123, 75091
4121.30, 4123.20, 4123.35, 4123.54, 4123.57, 4141.35, 4163.07, 75092
4169.02, 4169.03, 4169.04, 4171.04, 4301.30, 4303.181, 4303.22, 75093
4313.02, 4501.01, 4501.06, 4501.271, 4503.031, 4503.061, 4503.062, 75094
4503.49, 4503.81, 4506.01, 4506.03, 4506.22, 4506.25, 4507.01, 75095
4507.011, 4507.12, 4507.51, 4508.02, 4510.037, 4510.038, 4511.191, 75096
4511.78, 4511.98, 4513.18, 4513.263, 4513.50, 4712.01, 4723.481, 75097
4730.42, 4731.052, 4731.22, 4735.01, 4735.02, 4735.052, 4735.10, 75098
4735.13, 4735.14, 4735.141, 4735.142, 4735.74, 4736.01, 4740.03, 75099
4740.11, 4740.14, 4743.05, 4763.05, 4765.02, 4765.03, 4765.04, 75100
4765.05, 4765.06, 4765.07, 4765.08, 4765.09, 4765.10, 4765.101, 75101
4765.102, 4765.11, 4765.111, 4765.112, 4765.113, 4765.114, 75102
4765.115, 4765.116, 4765.12, 4765.15, 4765.16, 4765.17, 4765.18, 75103
4765.22, 4765.23, 4765.28, 4765.29, 4765.30, 4765.31, 4765.32, 75104
4765.33, 4765.37, 4765.38, 4765.39, 4765.40, 4765.42, 4765.48, 75105
4765.49, 4765.55, 4765.56, 4766.01, 4766.03, 4766.04, 4766.05, 75106
4766.07, 4766.08, 4766.09, 4766.10, 4766.11, 4766.12, 4766.13, 75107
4766.15, 4766.22, 4773.08, 4781.01, 4781.02, 4781.04, 4781.07, 75108
4781.09, 4781.14, 4781.15, 4781.16, 4781.99, 4905.01, 4905.02, 75109
4905.03, 4905.05, 4905.06, 4905.402, 4905.54, 4905.57, 4905.58, 75110
4905.84, 4905.90, 4907.01, 4907.02, 4907.04, 4907.08, 4907.19, 75111
4907.28, 4907.35, 4907.37, 4907.43, 4907.49, 4907.57, 4907.59, 75112
4907.60, 4907.61, 4907.62, 4909.01, 4909.02, 4909.03, 4909.17, 75113
4909.22, 4909.24, 4909.28, 4911.01, 4927.01, 4929.01, 4929.02, 75114
4929.041, 4933.18, 4933.19, 4939.01, 4953.04, 4961.03, 4965.54, 75115
5101.01, 5101.46, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.97, 5104.012, 5104.013, 75116
5104.051, 5104.09, 5104.37, 5107.05, 5107.16, 5107.17, 5111.01, 75117
5111.013, 5111.014, 5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.031, 5111.032, 75118
5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.06, 5111.091, 5111.113, 5111.16, 75119
5111.161, 5111.171, 5111.20, 5111.222, 5111.23, 5111.242, 75120
5111.254, 5111.862, 5111.874, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.89, 75121
5111.894, 5111.941, 5111.97, 5112.31, 5112.33, 5112.341, 5112.37, 75122
5112.371, 5112.39, 5119.22, 5119.61, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 75123
5120.036, 5120.105, 5120.132, 5120.66, 5122.31, 5123.01, 5123.033, 75124
5123.042, 5123.044, 5123.0412, 5123.0414, 5123.0415, 5123.081, 75125
5123.16, 5123.161, 5123.162, 5123.163, 5123.164, 5123.166, 75126
5123.169, 5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.31, 5123.38, 5123.41, 5123.50, 75127
5123.51, 5123.542, 5123.61, 5123.89, 5126.023, 5126.0220, 75128
5126.0221, 5126.043, 5126.046, 5126.055, 5126.13, 5126.15, 75129
5126.20, 5126.21, 5126.22, 5126.25, 5126.251, 5126.51, 5139.41, 75130
5139.43, 5149.311, 5155.14, 5501.04, 5501.07, 5502.01, 5502.011, 75131
5503.02, 5503.04, 5503.21, 5503.22, 5503.23, 5503.34, 5516.02, 75132
5516.06, 5701.13, 5703.05, 5705.08, 5705.19, 5705.25, 5705.28, 75133
5705.30, 5705.34, 5705.35, 5705.38, 5709.084, 5709.12, 5709.121, 75134
5709.212, 5709.43, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.75, 75135
5709.80, 5713.03, 5719.13, 5725.14, 5725.15, 5725.16, 5725.17, 75136
5725.22, 5725.221, 5731.39, 5733.064, 5739.01, 5739.02, 5743.03, 75137
5743.031, 5751.033, 5751.12, 6109.21, 6111.46, 6117.39, and 75138
6119.11 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.75139

       Section 105.01. That sections 185.04, 185.08, 185.10, 75140
185.11, 2909.32, 2909.33, 2909.34, 3301.68, 3333.049, 3333.0411, 75141
3333.33, 3333.70, 3333.80, 3334.111, 3354.23, 3701.02, 3701.032, 75142
3701.12, 3701.33, 3701.34, 3701.35, 3702.521, 3702.5210, 75143
3702.5211, 3702.5212, 3702.5213, 3702.58, 3702.591, 3733.01, 75144
3733.031, 3745.111, 3781.183, 3791.043, 4113.11, 4121.18, 75145
4766.02, 4766.20, 4905.80, 4905.801, 4905.81, 4905.82, 4905.83, 75146
4919.75, 4919.76, 4919.77, 4919.78, 4919.79, 4919.99, 4921.01, 75147
4921.02, 4921.03, 4921.04, 4921.05, 4921.06, 4921.07, 4921.08, 75148
4921.09, 4921.10, 4921.101, 4921.11, 4921.12, 4921.13, 4921.14, 75149
4921.15, 4921.16, 4921.17, 4921.18, 4921.19, 4921.20, 4921.23, 75150
4921.24, 4921.25, 4921.26, 4921.27, 4921.28, 4921.30, 4921.31, 75151
4921.32, 4921.35, 4921.36, 4921.37, 4921.38, 4921.39, 4921.40, 75152
4921.99, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.03, 4923.04, 4923.05, 4923.06, 75153
4923.07, 4923.08, 4923.09, 4923.10, 4923.11, 4923.12, 4923.13, 75154
4923.14, 4923.17, 4923.20, 4923.26, 4923.99, 5111.651, 75155
5119.614, 5119.692, 5119.693, 5119.70, 5119.701, 5119.71, 75156
5119.711, 5119.712, 5119.72, 5119.73, 5119.731, 5119.74, 5119.75, 75157
5119.76, 5119.77, 5119.78, 5119.79, 5119.80, 5119.81, 5119.82, 75158
5119.83, 5119.84, 5119.85, 5119.86, 5119.87, 5119.88, 5123.082, 75159
5123.083, 5123.192, 5126.0222, 5126.252, 5126.26, 5126.27, 75160
5126.28, 5126.281, 5126.29, and 5501.09 of the Revised Code are 75161
hereby repealed.75162

       Section 105.10. Section 3356.10 of the Revised Code is hereby 75163
repealed, effective five years after the effective date of that 75164
section.75165

       Section 110.10. That the version of section 5122.31 of the 75166
Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 2012, 75167
be amended to read as follows:75168

       Sec. 5122.31.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 75169
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter and sections 75170
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised 75171
Code, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, 75172
and directly or indirectly identifying a patient or former patient 75173
or person whose hospitalization has been sought under this 75174
chapter, shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by 75175
any person except:75176

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 75177
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 75178
guardian, consents, and if the disclosure is in the best interests 75179
of the person, as may be determined by the court for judicial 75180
records and by the chief clinical officer for medical records;75181

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter or 75182
section 5123.601 of the Revised Code;75183

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 75184
mental health services, and community mental health agencies may 75185
release necessary medical information to insurers and other 75186
third-party payers, including government entities responsible for 75187
processing and authorizing payment, to obtain payment for goods 75188
and services furnished to the patient;75189

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;75190

       (5) That a patient shall be granted access to the patient's 75191
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 75192
restricted in a patient's treatment plan for clear treatment 75193
reasons;75194

       (6) That hospitals and other institutions and facilities 75195
within the department of mental health may exchange psychiatric 75196
records and other pertinent information with other hospitals, 75197
institutions, and facilities of the department, and with community 75198
mental health agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 75199
mental health services with which the department has a current 75200
agreement for patient care or services. Records and information 75201
that may be released pursuant to this division shall be limited to 75202
medication history, physical health status and history, financial 75203
status, summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 75204
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.75205

       (7) That hospitals within the department, other institutions 75206
and facilities within the department, hospitals licensed by the 75207
department under section 5119.20 of the Revised Code, and 75208
community mental health agencies may exchange psychiatric records 75209
and other pertinent information with payers and other providers of 75210
treatment and health services if the purpose of the exchange is to 75211
facilitate continuity of care for a patient;75212

       (8) That a patient's family member who is involved in the 75213
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the patient may 75214
receive medication information, a summary of the patient's 75215
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 75216
available to assist the patient and the patient's family, if the 75217
patient's treating physician determines that the disclosure would 75218
be in the best interests of the patient. No such disclosure shall 75219
be made unless the patient is notified first and receives the 75220
information and does not object to the disclosure.75221

       (9) That community mental health agencies may exchange 75222
psychiatric records and certain other information with the board 75223
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and other 75224
agencies in order to provide services to a person involuntarily 75225
committed to a board. Release of records under this division shall 75226
be limited to medication history, physical health status and 75227
history, financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary 75228
of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if any.75229

       (10) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 75230
administrator of an estate of a deceased patient when the 75231
information is necessary to administer the estate;75232

       (11) That records in the possession of the Ohio historical 75233
society may be released to the closest living relative of a 75234
deceased patient upon request of that relative;75235

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 75236
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 75237
director of mental health for the purpose of evaluating the 75238
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services and determining 75239
if the services meet minimum standards. Information obtained 75240
during such evaluations shall not be retained with the name of any 75241
patient.75242

       (13) That records pertaining to the patient's diagnosis, 75243
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 75244
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 75245
the patient was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 75246
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 75247
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 75248
involuntary commitment under this chapter.75249

       (14) That the department of mental health may exchange 75250
psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health treatment 75251
records, and other pertinent information with the department of 75252
rehabilitation and correction to ensure continuity of care for 75253
inmates who are receiving mental health services in an institution 75254
of the department of rehabilitation and correction. The department 75255
shall not disclose those records unless the inmate is notified, 75256
receives the information, and does not object to the disclosure. 75257
The release of records under this division is limited to records 75258
regarding an inmate's medication history, physical health status 75259
and history, summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment 75260
needs, and a discharge summary, if any.75261

       (15) That a community mental health agency that ceases to 75262
operate may transfer to either a community mental health agency 75263
that assumes its caseload or to the board of alcohol, drug 75264
addiction, and mental health services of the service district in 75265
which the patient resided at the time services were most recently 75266
provided any treatment records that have not been transferred 75267
elsewhere at the patient's request.75268

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 75269
(A)(3), (6), (7), and (9) of this section, the custodian of the 75270
records shall attempt to obtain the patient's consent for the 75271
disclosure. No person shall reveal the contents of a medical 75272
record of a patient except as authorized by law.75273

       (C) The managing officer of a hospital who releases necessary 75274
medical information under division (A)(3) of this section to allow 75275
an insurance carrier or other third party payor to comply with 75276
section 5121.43 of the Revised Code shall neither be subject to 75277
criminal nor civil liability.75278

       Section 110.11. That the existing version of section 5122.31 75279
of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 75280
2012, is hereby repealed.75281

       Section 110.12. Sections 110.10 and 110.11 of this act take 75282
effect October 1, 2012.75283

       Section 110.20. That the version of section 5123.19 of the 75284
Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 2012, 75285
be amended to read as follows:75286

       Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in this section and in sections 75287
5123.191, 5123.194, 5123.196, 5123.197, 5123.198, and5123.19 to75288
5123.20 of the Revised Code:75289

       (1)(a) "Residential facility" means a home or facility in 75290
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 75291
resides, except the home of a relative or legal guardian in which 75292
a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person resides, a 75293
respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of the Revised 75294
Code, a county home or district home operated pursuant to Chapter 75295
5155. of the Revised Code, or a dwelling in which the only 75296
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled residents are in an 75297
independent living arrangement or are being provided supported 75298
living. 75299

        (b) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 75300
means a residential facility that is considered an intermediate 75301
care facility for the mentally retarded for the purposes of 75302
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.75303

       (2) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 75304
county, or township.75305

       (3) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in 75306
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 75307
resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the 75308
person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the 75309
provision of residential services for mentally retarded or 75310
developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial 75311
support is received for rendering such service from any 75312
governmental agency by a provider of residential services.75313

       (4)(2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 75314
has the same meaning as in section 1905(d) of the "Social Security 75315
Act," 101 Stat. 1330-204 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d), as amended.75316

        (3) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has 75317
applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to 75318
which the license was issued under this section.75319

       (4) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 75320
county, or township.75321

       (5) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 75322
5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the 75323
definition of "related party" means a person or government entity 75324
that held or applied for a license to operate a residential 75325
facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to 75326
provide supported living.75327

       (6)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(b) of this 75328
section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, 75329
including a facility certified as an intermediate care facility 75330
for the mentally retarded, in which an individual with mental 75331
retardation or a developmental disability resides.75332

        (b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the 75333
following:75334

        (i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an 75335
individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability 75336
resides;75337

        (ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 75338
the Revised Code;75339

        (iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 75340
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;75341

        (iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental 75342
retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent 75343
living arrangements or are being provided supported living.75344

       (B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a 75345
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 75346
the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential 75347
facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5119.73, 5103.03, or75348
5119.20, or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised 75349
Code. Notwithstanding Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a nursing 75350
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 75351
mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 75352
Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, as amended, shall apply for 75353
licensure of the portion of the home that is certified as an 75354
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. 75355

       (C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the 75356
director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation 75357
of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for 75358
a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies 75359
the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be 75360
renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the 75361
director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this 75362
section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall 75363
specify the period for which the license is being issued or 75364
renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing 75365
period specified by the director, unless the license is 75366
terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.75367

       (D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not 75368
in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to 75369
residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a 75370
provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to 75371
renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an 75372
order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an 75373
order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order 75374
for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action 75375
the director considers necessary consistent with the director's 75376
authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In 75377
the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be 75378
imposed, all of the following apply:75379

       (1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a 75380
license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee 75381
has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a 75382
violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of 75383
residents of a residential facility.75384

       (2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve 75385
consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was 75386
last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) 75387
of this section is not given.75388

       (3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of 75389
admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in 75390
sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other 75391
violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this 75392
section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a 75393
violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of 75394
this section, the director may impose the suspension before 75395
providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 75396
the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the 75397
suspension of admissions when the director determines that the 75398
violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.75399

       (4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a 75400
residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted 75401
under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the 75402
order when the director determines that the violation that formed 75403
the basis for the order has been corrected.75404

       (5) If the director determines that two or more residential 75405
facilities owned or operated by the same person or government 75406
entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of 75407
this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 75408
adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are 75409
based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, 75410
circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the 75411
health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a 75412
survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned 75413
or operated by that person or government entity. The director may 75414
take any action authorized by this section with respect to any 75415
facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this 75416
chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 75417
adopted under such a provision.75418

       (6) When the director initiates license revocation 75419
proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction 75420
shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter 75421
of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the 75422
deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee 75423
that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall 75424
also send a copy of the letter to the county board of 75425
developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of 75426
the letter to each of the following:75427

        (a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;75428

        (b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from 75429
the licensee if the resident has a guardian;75430

        (c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives 75431
services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.75432

       (7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance 75433
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the 75434
immediate removal of residents from a residential facility 75435
whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of 75436
physical or psychological harm to the residents.75437

       (8) In determining whether a residential facility is being 75438
operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that 75439
applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such 75440
a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility 75441
present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to 75442
the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a 75443
county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental 75444
agencies.75445

       (9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or 75446
revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke 75447
a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies 75448
that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of 75449
the hearing.75450

       (E) The director shall establish a program under which public 75451
notification may be made when the director has initiated license 75452
revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension 75453
of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. 75454
The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 75455
the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall 75456
establish the procedures by which the public notification will be 75457
made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must 75458
be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made 75459
if the director has taken action against the facility in the 75460
eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest 75461
action against the facility and the latest action is being taken 75462
for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision 75463
of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the 75464
rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a 75465
method for removing or amending the public notification if the 75466
director's action is found to have been unjustified or the 75467
violation at the residential facility has been corrected.75468

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 75469
appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under 75470
division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with 75471
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.75472

       (2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the 75473
suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in 75474
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order 75475
was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in 75476
which case all of the following apply:75477

       (a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten 75478
days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the 75479
Revised Code.75480

       (b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the 75481
licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not 75482
later than thirty days after the department receives the request.75483

       (c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue 75484
uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, 75485
unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the 75486
director.75487

       (d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 75488
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later 75489
than ten days after the last of the following:75490

       (i) The close of the hearing;75491

       (ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the 75492
hearing examiner receives the transcript;75493

        (iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing 75494
examiner receives the briefs.75495

       (e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the 75496
hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee 75497
and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five 75498
days after the report is filed.75499

        (f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files 75500
the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections 75501
to the report and recommendations.75502

       (g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner 75503
files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an 75504
order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and 75505
recommendations.75506

       (h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director 75507
shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the 75508
director determines that the violation that formed the basis for 75509
the order has been corrected.75510

       (G) Neither a person or government agency whose application 75511
for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a 75512
related party of the person or government agency may apply for a 75513
license to operate a residential facility before the date that is 75514
one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose 75515
residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the 75516
licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the 75517
date that is five years after the date of the revocation.75518

        (H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 75519
director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing 75520
and regulating the operation of residential facilities, including 75521
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded. The rules 75522
for residential facilities that are intermediate care facilities 75523
for the mentally retarded may differ from those for other 75524
residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the 75525
following:75526

       (1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing 75527
licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the 75528
length of the licensing period that the director must specify for 75529
each license when it is issued or renewed;75530

       (2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, 75531
terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension 75532
of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, 75533
and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;75534

       (3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be 75535
deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 75536
of the Revised Code;75537

       (4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;75538

       (5) Requirements for the training of residential facility 75539
personnel;75540

       (6) Classifications for the various types of residential 75541
facilities;75542

       (7) Certification procedures for licensees and management 75543
contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure 75544
that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate 75545
or manage residential facilities;75546

       (8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a 75547
particular type of residential facility;75548

       (9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and 75549
transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;75550

       (10) Other standards for the operation of residential 75551
facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;75552

       (11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted 75553
under this section.75554

       (I) Before issuing a license, the director of the department 75555
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the 75556
residential facility for which application is made. The director 75557
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed 75558
residential facility at least once during the period the license 75559
is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A 75560
survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and 75561
evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the 75562
services provided there.75563

       In conducting surveys, the director or the director's 75564
designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all 75565
records, accounts, and any other documents related to the 75566
operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the 75567
facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control 75568
of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all 75569
persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with 75570
the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's 75571
designee in conducting the survey.75572

       Following each survey, unless the director initiates a 75573
license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's 75574
designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing any 75575
deficiencies, specifying a timetable within which the licensee 75576
shall submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies 75577
will be corrected, and, when appropriate, specifying a timetable 75578
within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies. After a 75579
plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's 75580
designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A copy of the 75581
report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided to 75582
any person who requests it.75583

       The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any 75584
department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any 75585
unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential 75586
facility by an authorized representative of the department.75587

       (J) In addition to any other information which may be 75588
required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the 75589
director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an 75590
approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to 75591
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply 75592
to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or 75593
modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.193 or75594
5123.197 of the Revised Code.75595

       (K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in 75596
which the licensee's residential facility is located of any 75597
significant change in the identity of the licensee or management 75598
contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee 75599
is not the owner of the building.75600

       Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with 75601
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require 75602
notification to the department of any significant change in the 75603
ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the 75604
licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that 75605
a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall 75606
consider the proposed change to be an application for development 75607
by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code 75608
and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the 75609
notification that the current license shall continue in effect or 75610
a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the 75611
director requires a new license, the director shall permit the 75612
facility to continue to operate under the current license until 75613
the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, 75614
refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 75615
119. of the Revised Code.75616

       (L) A county board of developmental disabilities and any 75617
interested person may file complaints alleging violations of 75618
statute or department rule relating to residential facilities with 75619
the department. All complaints shall be in writing and shall state 75620
the facts constituting the basis of the allegation. The department 75621
shall not reveal the source of any complaint unless the 75622
complainant agrees in writing to waive the right to 75623
confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of competent 75624
jurisdiction.75625

       The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 75626
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, 75627
referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with 75628
the department under this division.75629

       (M) The department shall establish procedures for the 75630
notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care 75631
of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are 75632
losing their license.75633

       (N) Before issuing a license under this section to a 75634
residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than 75635
one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the 75636
director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:75637

       (1) If the facility will be located in a municipal 75638
corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the 75639
municipal corporation;75640

       (2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated 75641
territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county 75642
commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of 75643
township trustees.75644

       The director shall not issue the license for ten days after 75645
mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal 75646
holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in 75647
which to comment on the proposed issuance.75648

       Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board 75649
of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that 75650
receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a 75651
license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to 75652
the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, 75653
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director 75654
receives written comments from any notified officials within the 75655
specified time, the director shall make written findings 75656
concerning the comments and the director's decision on the 75657
issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written 75658
comments from any notified local officials within the specified 75659
time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the 75660
license.75661

       (O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 75662
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 75663
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but 75664
not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a 75665
developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential 75666
district or zone, including any single-family residential district 75667
or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential 75668
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 75669
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 75670
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 75671
zone.75672

       (P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 75673
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 75674
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine 75675
but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a 75676
developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family 75677
residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except 75678
that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance 75679
or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may 75680
exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a 75681
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 75682
resolution may regulate these residential facilities in 75683
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 75684
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 75685
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 75686
zoning ordinance or resolution to:75687

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 75688
residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any 75689
walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land 75690
uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;75691

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 75692
regulation;75693

       (3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential 75694
facilities.75695

       (Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision 75696
from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory 75697
regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety 75698
regulations and building standards and regulations.75699

       (R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable 75700
to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an 75701
ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed 75702
residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional 75703
uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in 75704
effect without any substantive modification.75705

       (S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a 75706
residential facility to an applicant for a license under this 75707
section if either of the following is the case:75708

       (a) The director determines that an emergency exists 75709
requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential 75710
facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that 75711
the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license 75712
under this section within thirty days after issuance of the 75713
interim license.75714

       (b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim 75715
license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential 75716
facility.75717

       (2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an 75718
applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive 75719
a permanent license under this section, except for any differing 75720
procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a 75721
permanent license.75722

       (3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may 75723
be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred 75724
fifty days.75725

       (4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 75726
119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to 75727
administer the issuance of interim licenses.75728

       (T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section 75729
establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a 75730
particular type of residential facility, a residential facility 75731
shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being 75732
served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the 75733
number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to 75734
a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of 75735
support from the department of developmental disabilities and 75736
which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.75737

       (U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any 75738
time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other 75739
structure that has been reported to the director or that the 75740
director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a 75741
residential facility without a license issued under this section.75742

       The director may petition the court of common pleas of the 75743
county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for 75744
an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the 75745
facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court 75746
may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or 75747
governmental agency named in the petition is operating a 75748
residential facility without a license. The court may grant the 75749
injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets 75750
the requirements for receiving a license under this section.75751

       Section 110.21. That the existing version of section 5123.19 75752
of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 75753
2012, is hereby repealed.75754

       Section 110.22. Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act take 75755
effect October 1, 2012.75756

       Section 110.30. That the version of section 5123.61 of the 75757
Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 2012, 75758
be amended to read as follows:75759

       Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:75760

       (1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 75761
the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county 75762
sheriff.75763

       (2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the 75764
Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as 75765
defined in that section.75766

       (3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of 75767
the Revised Code.75768

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall 75769
establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports 75770
of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the 75771
department under this section and reports received from county 75772
boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the 75773
Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review 75774
reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.75775

       (C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, 75776
having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or 75777
a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial 75778
risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of 75779
such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that 75780
person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of 75781
such information to the entity specified in this division. Except 75782
as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as 75783
otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report 75784
shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board 75785
of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident 75786
of a facility operated by the department of developmental 75787
disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement 75788
agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or 75789
omission of an employee of a county board of developmental 75790
disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the 75791
department and to the county board.75792

       (2) All of the following persons are required to make a 75793
report under division (C)(1) of this section:75794

       (a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, 75795
any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited 75796
branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised 75797
Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse 75798
licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an 75799
ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the 75800
Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of an 75801
adult carea residential facility licensed under Chapter 3722.75802
section 5119.22 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 75803
supervision, and person care services for three to sixteen 75804
unrelated adults, or employee of a community mental health 75805
facility;75806

       (b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, 75807
psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' 75808
rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;75809

       (c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county 75810
board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board 75811
member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under 75812
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board 75813
member, or employee of any other public or private provider of 75814
services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental 75815
disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 75816
of the Revised Code;75817

       (d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at 75818
an institution or branch institution of the department of 75819
developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised 75820
Code;75821

       (e) A clergymanmember of the clergy who is employed in a 75822
position that includes providing specialized services to an 75823
individual with mental retardation or another developmental 75824
disability, while acting in an official or professional capacity 75825
in that position, or a person who is employed in a position that 75826
includes providing specialized services to an individual with 75827
mental retardation or another developmental disability and who, 75828
while acting in an official or professional capacity, renders 75829
spiritual treatment through prayer in accordance with the tenets 75830
of an organized religion.75831

       (3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not 75832
apply to employees of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.75833

       (b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report 75834
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any 75835
communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or 75836
patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, 75837
if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of 75838
the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with 75839
respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, 75840
except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any 75841
testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 75842
of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the 75843
attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division 75844
(C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:75845

       (i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, 75846
is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.75847

       (ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result 75848
of the communication or any observations made during that 75849
communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a 75850
substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or 75851
condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect 75852
of the client or patient.75853

       (4) Any person who fails to make a report required under 75854
division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as 75855
defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible 75856
to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, 75857
neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees 75858
established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.75859

       (D) The reports required under division (C) of this section 75860
shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be 75861
followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the 75862
following:75863

       (1) The names and addresses of the person with mental 75864
retardation or a developmental disability and the person's 75865
custodian, if known;75866

       (2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a 75867
developmental disability;75868

       (3) Any other information that would assist in the 75869
investigation of the report.75870

       (E) When a physician performing services as a member of the 75871
staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe 75872
that a person with mental retardation or a developmental 75873
disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the 75874
physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or 75875
that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary 75876
reports.75877

       (F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a 75878
person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has 75879
suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect 75880
may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the 75881
entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 75882
5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this 75883
division, the person making the report shall make it to a law 75884
enforcement agency or the county board of developmental 75885
disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated 75886
by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall 75887
be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the 75888
report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county 75889
board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall 75890
be made to the department and to the county board.75891

       (G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible 75892
abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a 75893
developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform 75894
the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person 75895
is a resident of a facility operated by the department of 75896
developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the 75897
director's designee.75898

       (2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes 75899
an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime 75900
under federal law or the law of this state, the department of 75901
developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement 75902
agency.75903

       (3) When a county board of developmental disabilities 75904
receives a report under this section that includes an allegation 75905
of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal 75906
law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or 75907
an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of 75908
this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The 75909
superintendent or individual shall notify the department of 75910
developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this 75911
section.75912

       (4) When a county board of developmental disabilities 75913
receives a report under this section and believes that the degree 75914
of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the 75915
superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the 75916
superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact 75917
with the person with mental retardation or a developmental 75918
disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the 75919
board's receipt of the report.75920

       (H) The superintendent of the board may designate an 75921
individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement 75922
agency and the department when the county board receives a report 75923
under this section.75924

       (I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental 75925
disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the 75926
adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who 75927
consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to 75928
protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance 75929
with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the 75930
Revised Code.75931

       (J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of 75932
abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the 75933
department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall 75934
investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility 75935
operated by the department to determine the circumstances 75936
surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person 75937
responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the 75938
memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the 75939
Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry 75940
office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior 75941
reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation 75942
or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If 75943
the department finds that the report involves action or inaction 75944
that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this 75945
state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, 75946
to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental 75947
retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the 75948
consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective 75949
services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law 75950
enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to 75951
the department.75952

       If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility 75953
operated by the department, the county board of developmental 75954
disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in 75955
accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code 75956
and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of 75957
its findings to the county board.75958

       (K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health 75959
department, or agency participating in the making of reports 75960
pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in 75961
an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the 75962
reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges 75963
responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised 75964
Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that 75965
might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions 75966
except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental 75967
entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.75968

       (L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so 75969
shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 75970
performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work 75971
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 75972
retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having 75973
made a report under this section. This division does not preclude 75974
an employer or person with authority from taking action with 75975
regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if 75976
there is another reasonable basis for the action.75977

       (M) Reports made under this section are not public records as 75978
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 75979
contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the 75980
person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal 75981
counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the 75982
report by the department or by a county board of developmental 75983
disabilities.75984

       (N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 75985
physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding 75986
evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person 75987
with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause 75988
thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report 75989
submitted pursuant to this section.75990

       Section 110.31. That the existing version of section 5123.61 75991
of the Revised Code that is scheduled to take effect on October 1, 75992
2012, is hereby repealed.75993

       Section 110.32. Sections 110.30 and 110.31 of this act take 75994
effect October 1, 2012.75995

       Section 301.11.  The items set forth in this section are 75996
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 75997
credit of the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) that are 75998
not otherwise appropriated.75999

Appropriations

PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION
76000

C15060 Clean Ohio Conservation $ 36,000,000 76001
Total Public Works Commission $ 36,000,000 76002
TOTAL Clean Ohio Conservation Fund $ 36,000,000 76003

        The foregoing appropriation item C15060, Clean Ohio 76004
Conservation, shall be used in accordance with sections 164.20 to 76005
164.27 of the Revised Code. If the Public Works Commission 76006
receives refunds due to project overpayments that are discovered 76007
during the post-project audit, the Director of the Public Works 76008
Commission may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 76009
that refunds have been received. If the Director of Budget and 76010
Management determines that the project refunds are available to 76011
support additional appropriations, such amounts are hereby 76012
appropriated.76013

       Section 301.12. The items set forth in this section are 76014
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 76015
credit of the Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 7057) 76016
that are not otherwise appropriated.76017

Appropriations

AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE
76018

C70009 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easements $ 6,000,000 76019
Total Department of Agriculture $ 6,000,000 76020
TOTAL Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund $ 6,000,000 76021


       Section 301.13. (A) The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is 76023
hereby authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o 76024
and 2q of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to 76025
sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original 76026
obligations of the state in an aggregate principal amount not to 76027
exceed $36,000,000 in addition to the original issuance of 76028
obligations heretofore authorized by prior acts of the General 76029
Assembly. These authorized obligations shall be issued and sold 76030
from time to time, subject to applicable constitutional and 76031
statutory limitations, as needed to ensure sufficient moneys to 76032
the credit of the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) to pay 76033
costs of conservation projects.76034

       (B) The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby 76035
authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o and 2q 76036
of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to sections 76037
151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original obligations of the 76038
state in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $6,000,000 in 76039
addition to the original issuance of obligations heretofore 76040
authorized by prior acts of the General Assembly. These authorized 76041
obligations shall be issued and sold from time to time, subject to 76042
applicable constitutional and statutory limitations, as needed to 76043
ensure sufficient moneys to the credit of the Clean Ohio 76044
Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 7057) to pay costs of 76045
conservation projects.76046

       Section 301.14. Notwithstanding section 126.14 of the Revised 76047
Code, appropriations from the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 76048
7056) to the Public Works Commission shall be released upon 76049
presentation of a request to release the funds, by the agency to 76050
which the appropriation has been made, to the Director of Budget 76051
and Management.76052

       Section 301.15. The capital improvements for which 76053
appropriations are made in this act from the Clean Ohio 76054
Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) and the Clean Ohio Agricultural 76055
Easement Fund (Fund 7057) are determined to be capital 76056
improvements and capital facilities for natural resources and 76057
local subdivision capital improvement projects and are designated 76058
as capital facilities to which proceeds of obligations issued 76059
under Chapter 151. of the Revised Code are to be applied. 76060

       Section 503.10. FISCAL YEAR 2012 GENERAL REVENUE FUND ENDING 76061
BALANCE76062

       Notwithstanding divisions (B) and (C) of section 131.44 of 76063
the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management shall 76064
determine the surplus General Revenue Fund revenue that existed on 76065
June 30, 2012, in excess of the amount required under division 76066
(A)(3) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code, and transfer from 76067
the General Revenue Fund, to the extent of the amount so 76068
determined, to the Statewide Treatment and Prevention Fund (Fund 76069
4750), a cash amount of $1,000,000 and to the Long-Term Care 76070
Ombudsman Program Fund (Fund 4C40), a cash amount of $1,500,000.76071

       Section 506.10. OHP HEALTH CARE GRANTS FUND76072

       For fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Department of 76073
Job and Family Services may deposit into the OHP Health Care 76074
Grants Fund (Fund 3FA0) federal grants for the administration of 76075
health care programs that the Department receives under the 76076
"Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," Public Law 111-148, 76077
and the "Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010," 76078
Public Law 111-152. The Department shall use the money in the fund 76079
to pay for expenses incurred in carrying out duties the Department 76080
assumes by accepting such federal grants, including expenses for 76081
the administration of health care programs.76082

       Section 512.10. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR CASINO CONTROL 76083
COMMISSION OPERATIONS76084

        During fiscal year 2013, the Director of Budget and 76085
Management may, in consultation with the Executive Director of the 76086
Casino Control Commission, transfer cash as necessary for 76087
operating expenses and casino investigations. The transfer shall 76088
be made from the General Revenue Fund to the Casino Control 76089
Commission Operating Fund (Fund 5HS0). Once funds from upfront 76090
license application fees and gross casino revenue taxes have been 76091
accumulated to sustain operations, the Director of Budget and 76092
Management, in consultation with the Executive Director of the 76093
Casino Control Commission, shall establish a repayment schedule 76094
for transfers to the General Revenue Fund from the Casino Control 76095
Commission Operating Fund (Fund 5HS0).76096

       Section 512.20.  PRE-SECURITIZATION TOBACCO PAYMENTS76097

       The Pre-Securitization Tobacco Payments Fund (Fund 5LS0) is 76098
hereby created in the state treasury. All moneys received by the 76099
state in connection with releases from disputed payment accounts 76100
or amounts previously withheld under the Tobacco Master Settlement 76101
Agreement that do not constitute pledged receipts for the Buckeye 76102
Tobacco Settlement Financing Authority Tobacco Settlement Bonds, 76103
Series 2007, shall be credited to the fund and used by the 76104
Director of Budget and Management as authorized in this section.76105

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 76106
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall determine, 76107
in consultation with the Attorney General, the amounts needed to 76108
fund tobacco enforcement-related activities and may transfer cash 76109
in those amounts from Fund 5LS0 to the Tobacco Oversight 76110
Administration and Enforcement Fund (Fund U087). The Director of 76111
Budget and Management may transfer remaining cash determined to be 76112
in excess of the tobacco enforcement needs of the Attorney General 76113
from Fund 5LS0 to the General Revenue Fund. 76114

       Upon receipt of all pre-securitization Tobacco Master 76115
Settlement Agreement payments and the transfer of all cash 76116
credited to Fund 5LS0 as authorized in this section, Fund 5LS0 is 76117
abolished.76118

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, and upon 76119
the request of the Attorney General, the Director of Budget and 76120
Management may transfer up to $3,000,000 cash from the General 76121
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 1060) to the Tobacco Oversight 76122
Administration and Enforcement Fund (Fund U087). 76123

       Section 512.30. CASH TRANSFER FROM TRAUMA AND EMERGENCY 76124
MEDICAL SERVICES GRANTS FUND76125

        On the effective date of this section, or as soon as possible 76126
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 76127
the cash balance in the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services 76128
Grants Fund (Fund 83P0) to the Trauma and Emergency Medical 76129
Services Fund (Fund 83M0). The Director shall cancel any existing 76130
encumbrances against appropriation item 765637, EMS Grants, and 76131
reestablish them against appropriation item 765640, EMS – Grants. 76132
The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.76133

       Section 512.40. CASH TRANSFER FROM ELEMENTARY SCHOOL SEAT 76134
BELT FUND76135

       On the effective date of this section, or as soon as possible 76136
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 76137
the cash balance in the Elementary School Seat Belt Fund (Fund 76138
83N0) to the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund (Fund 76139
83M0). The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 76140
appropriation item 761611, Elementary School Seat Belt Program, 76141
and reestablish them against appropriation item 765624, Operating 76142
Expense - Trauma and EMS. The reestablished encumbrance amounts 76143
are hereby appropriated.76144

       Section 512.50. MEDICAID PROGRAM SUPPORT STATE FUND ABOLISHED76145

       The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any 76146
remaining cash balance in the Medicaid Program Support State Fund 76147
(Fund 5C90) to the Health Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries 76148
Fund (Fund 5DL0) created under section 5111.941 of the Revised 76149
Code. The Medicaid Program Support State Fund (Fund 5C90) shall 76150
cease to exist once the transfer is complete.76151

       Section 600.10.  That Section 753.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of 76152
the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:76153

       Sec. 753.20. (A) The Governor is authorized to execute a deed 76154
in the name of the state conveying to Taylor Chevrolet, Inc. 76155
(hereinafter the "grantee"), its successors and assigns, all of 76156
the state's right, title, and interest in the following described 76157
real estate known as Ohio State Highway Patrol Post 23, 1125 Ety 76158
Road, in the City of Lancaster, County of Fairfield, State of 76159
Ohio, and in the land on which the post is situated.:76160

       Being a part of Section 27, Township 15, Range 19, Greenfield 76161
Township, Fairfield County, Ohio and being more particularly 76162
described as follows:76163

       Commencing at a point in the east line of Section 27 and in 76164
the centerline of U.S. Route 33 at Station 139 plus 53.38, (1941 76165
Survey) as shown by plans on file with the Department of Highways, 76166
said point being N 1° 21' E, 452.70 feet from the southeast corner 76167
of said Section 27; thence, along said Section line, N 1° 21 min. 76168
E, 85.21 feet, to a point in the centerline of Township Road No. 76169
201 and to an easement for electric power line of the Ohio Power 76170
Company, Deed Record Volume 166, Page 375, Recorder's Office, 76171
Fairfield County, Ohio, said point being the place of beginning of 76172
the tract herein described; thence, along said Section line and 76173
along the centerline of said Township Road, N 1° 21' E, 224.90 76174
feet, to a point; thence, leaving said road, N 74° 38' 30" W, 76175
226.61 feet, to a point; thence, S 28° 31' 30" W, 148.15 feet, to 76176
a point in the northerly right of way line of said U.S. Route 33; 76177
thence, along said northerly right of way line of said U.S. 33, S 76178
62° 01' E, 122.04 feet to a point; thence, continuing along said 76179
right of way line, S 61° 19' E, 94.12 feet, to a point; thence, 76180
continuing along said right of way line, S 60° 52' E 107.24 feet, 76181
to a point, the place of beginning containing 1.11 acres, more or 76182
less.76183

       The above described tract of land is subject to an easement 76184
for Highway purposes along Township Road No. 201.76185

       (B) In preparing the deed, the Auditor of State, with the 76186
assistance of the Attorney General, shall develop a legal 76187
description of the real estate in conformity with the actual 76188
bounds of the real estate.76189

        (C) Consideration for conveyance of the real estate shall be 76190
agreed upon between the Superintendent of the State Highway Patrol 76191
and the grantee.76192

        (D)(C) The deed may contain any condition or restriction that 76193
the Governor determines is reasonably necessary to protect the 76194
state's interests.76195

       (E)(D) The grantee shall pay all costs associated with the 76196
purchase and conveyance of the real estate, including recordation 76197
costs of the deed.76198

       (F)(E) Upon payment of the purchase price, the Auditor of 76199
State, with the assistance of the Attorney General, shall prepare 76200
a deed to the real estate. The deed shall state the consideration 76201
and any conditions or restrictions and shall be executed by the 76202
Governor in the name of the state, countersigned by the Secretary 76203
of State, sealed with the Great Seal of the State, presented in 76204
the Office of the Auditor of State for recording, and delivered to 76205
the grantee. The grantee shall present the deed for recording in 76206
the Office of the Fairfield County Recorder.76207

        (G)(F) The proceeds of the conveyance of the real estate 76208
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 76209
State Highway Safety Fund.76210

       (H)(G) This section expires one year after its effective 76211
date.76212

       Section 600.11. That existing Section 753.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 76213
114 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.76214

       Section 601.10. That Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of 76215
the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 76216
129th General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:76217

       Sec. 205.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY76218

State Highway Safety Fund Group76219

4W40 762321 Operating Expense - BMV $ 80,003,146 $ 82,403,240 82,003,240 76220
4W40 762410 Registrations Supplement $ 28,945,176 $ 29,813,532 76221
5V10 762682 License Plate Contributions $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 76222
7036 761321 Operating Expense - Information and Education $ 7,124,366 $ 7,338,097 6,988,097 76223
7036 761401 Lease Rental Payments $ 9,978,300 $ 2,315,700 76224
7036 764033 Minor Capital Projects $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 76225
7036 764321 Operating Expense - Highway Patrol $ 260,744,934 $ 258,365,903 76226
7036 764605 Motor Carrier Enforcement Expenses $ 2,860,000 $ 2,860,000 76227
8300 761603 Salvage and Exchange - Administration $ 19,469 $ 20,053 76228
8310 761610 Information and Education - Federal $ 422,084 $ 434,746 409,746 76229
8310 764610 Patrol - Federal $ 2,209,936 $ 2,276,234 76230
8310 764659 Transportation Enforcement - Federal $ 5,519,333 $ 5,684,913 76231
8310 765610 EMS - Federal $ 532,007 $ 532,007 76232
8310 769610 Food Stamp Trafficking Enforcement - Federal Investigative Unit Federal Reimbursement $ 1,546,319 $ 1,546,319 76233
8310 769631 Homeland Security - Federal $ 2,184,000 $ 2,184,000 76234
8320 761612 Traffic Safety - Federal $ 16,577,565 $ 16,577,565 76235
8350 762616 Financial Responsibility Compliance $ 5,457,240 $ 5,549,068 5,274,068 76236
8370 764602 Turnpike Policing $ 11,553,959 $ 11,553,959 76237
8380 764606 Patrol Reimbursement $ 50,000 $ 50,000 76238
83C0 764630 Contraband, Forfeiture, Other $ 622,894 $ 622,894 76239
83F0 764657 Law Enforcement Automated Data System $ 9,053,266 $ 9,053,266 76240
83G0 764633 OMVI Enforcement/Education $ 623,230 $ 641,927 76241
83J0 764693 Highway Patrol Justice Contraband $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 76242
83M0 765624 Operating Expense - Trauma and EMS $ 2,632,106 $ 2,711,069 3,204,925 76243
83M0 765640 EMS - Grants $ 0 $ 4,229,819 76244
83N0 761611 Elementary School Seat Belt Program $ 305,600 $ 305,600 0 76245
83P0 765637 EMS Grants $ 4,106,621 $ 4,229,819 0 76246
83R0 762639 Local Immobilization Reimbursement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 76247
83T0 764694 Highway Patrol Treasury Contraband $ 21,000 $ 21,000 76248
8400 764607 State Fair Security $ 1,256,655 $ 1,294,354 76249
8400 764617 Security and Investigations $ 6,432,686 $ 6,432,686 76250
8400 764626 State Fairgrounds Police Force $ 849,883 $ 849,883 76251
8400 769632 Homeland Security - Operating $ 737,791 $ 737,791 76252
8410 764603 Salvage and Exchange - Highway Patrol $ 1,339,399 $ 1,339,399 76253
8460 761625 Motorcycle Safety Education $ 3,185,013 $ 3,280,563 76254
8490 762627 Automated Title Processing Board $ 17,316,755 $ 14,335,513 76255
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety Fund Group $ 490,110,733 $ 481,261,100 480,399,356 76256

General Services Fund Group76257

4P60 768601 Justice Program Services $ 998,104 $ 1,028,047 76258
4S30 766661 Hilltop Utility Reimbursement $ 540,800 $ 540,800 76259
5ET0 768625 Drug Law Enforcement $ 3,780,000 $ 3,893,400 76260
5Y10 764695 Highway Patrol Continuing Professional Training $ 170,000 $ 170,000 76261
5Y10 767696 Investigative Unit Continuing Professional Training $ 15,000 $ 15,000 76262
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,503,904 $ 5,647,247 76263

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group76264

3290 763645 Federal Mitigation Program $ 10,110,332 $ 10,413,642 76265
3370 763609 Federal Disaster Relief $ 27,707,636 $ 27,707,636 76266
3390 763647 Emergency Management Assistance and Training $ 75,664,821 $ 77,934,765 76267
3CB0 768691 Federal Justice Grants - FFY06 $ 200,000 $ 50,000 76268
3CC0 768609 Justice Assistance Grants - FFY07 $ 583,222 $ 310,000 76269
3CD0 768610 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY08 $ 310,000 $ 150,000 76270
3CE0 768611 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY09 $ 865,000 $ 1,200,000 76271
3CV0 768697 Justice Assistance Grants Supplement – FFY08 $ 2,000 $ 0 76272
3DE0 768612 Federal Stimulus - Justice Assistance Grants $ 1,015,000 $ 1,015,000 76273
3DH0 768613 Federal Stimulus - Justice Programs $ 150,000 $ 150,000 76274
3DU0 762628 BMV Grants $ 1,525,000 $ 1,580,000 1,480,000 76275
3EU0 768614 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY10 $ 650,000 $ 920,000 76276
3L50 768604 Justice Program $ 11,400,000 $ 11,400,000 76277
3N50 763644 U.S. Department of Energy Agreement $ 31,672 $ 31,672 76278
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 130,214,683 $ 132,862,715 132,762,715 76279

State Special Revenue Fund Group76280

4V30 763662 EMA Service and Reimbursement $ 4,368,369 $ 4,499,420 76281
5390 762614 Motor Vehicle Dealers Board $ 180,000 $ 185,400 76282
5B90 766632 Private Investigator and Security Guard Provider $ 1,562,637 $ 1,562,637 76283
5BK0 768687 Criminal Justice Services - Operating $ 400,000 $ 400,000 76284
5BK0 768689 Family Violence Shelter Programs $ 750,000 $ 750,000 76285
5CM0 767691 Federal Investigative Seizure Investigative Unit Federal Equitable Sharing - Treasury $ 300,000 $ 300,000 76286
5DS0 769630 Homeland Security $ 1,414,384 $ 1,414,384 76287
5FF0 762621 Indigent Interlock and Alcohol Monitoring $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 76288
5FL0 769634 Investigations $ 899,300 $ 899,300 76289
5LM0 768698 Criminal Justice Services Law Enforcement Support $ 33,991 $ 816,955 76290
6220 767615 Investigative Contraband and Forfeiture $ 375,000 $ 375,000 76291
6570 763652 Utility Radiological Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 76292
6810 763653 SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning $ 262,438 $ 262,438 76293
8500 767628 Investigative Unit Salvage $ 90,000 $ 92,700 76294
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 14,018,073 14,052,064 $ 14,157,224 14,974,179 76295

Liquor Control Fund Group76296

7043 767321 Liquor Enforcement - Operating $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 76297
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control Fund Group $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 76298

Agency Fund Group76299

5J90 761678 Federal Salvage/GSA $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 76300
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 76301

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group76302

R024 762619 Unidentified Motor Vehicle Receipts $ 1,885,000 $ 1,885,000 76303
R052 762623 Security Deposits $ 350,000 $ 350,000 76304
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,235,000 $ 2,235,000 76305
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 654,582,393 654,616,384 $ 648,663,286 648,518,497 76306

       MOTOR VEHICLE REGISTRATION76307

       The Registrar of Motor Vehicles may deposit revenues to meet 76308
the cash needs of the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 76309
4W40) established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code, obtained 76310
under sections 4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code, less all 76311
other available cash. Revenue deposited pursuant to this paragraph 76312
shall support, in part, appropriations for operating expenses and 76313
defray the cost of manufacturing and distributing license plates 76314
and license plate stickers and enforcing the law relative to the 76315
operation and registration of motor vehicles. Notwithstanding 76316
section 4501.03 of the Revised Code, the revenues shall be paid 76317
into Fund 4W40 before any revenues obtained pursuant to sections 76318
4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code are paid into any other 76319
fund. The deposit of revenues to meet the aforementioned cash 76320
needs shall be in approximately equal amounts on a monthly basis 76321
or as otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 76322
Management pursuant to a plan submitted by the Registrar of Motor 76323
Vehicles.76324

       CAPITAL PROJECTS76325

       The Registrar of Motor Vehicles may transfer cash from the 76326
State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 4W40) to the State 76327
Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) to meet its obligations for 76328
capital projects CIR-047, Department of Public Safety Office 76329
Building and CIR-049, Warehouse Facility. 76330

       OBA BOND AUTHORITY/LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS76331

       The foregoing appropriation item 761401, Lease Rental 76332
Payments, shall be used for payments to the Ohio Building 76333
Authority for the period July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2013, under the 76334
primary leases and agreements for public safety related buildings 76335
financed by obligations issued under Chapter 152. of the Revised 76336
Code. Notwithstanding section 152.24 of the Revised Code, the Ohio 76337
Building Authority may, with approval of the Director of Budget 76338
and Management, lease capital facilities to the Department of 76339
Public Safety.76340

       HILLTOP TRANSFER76341

       The Director of Public Safety shall determine, per an 76342
agreement with the Director of Transportation, the share of each 76343
debt service payment made out of appropriation item 761401, Lease 76344
Rental Payments, that relates to the Department of 76345
Transportation's portion of the Hilltop Building Project, and 76346
shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amounts 76347
of this share. The Director of Budget and Management shall 76348
transfer the amounts of such shares from the Highway Operating 76349
Fund (Fund 7002) to the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036).76350

       CASH TRANSFERS TO TRAUMA AND EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES FUND76351

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 76352
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the unexpended 76353
and unencumbered cash balance in the Seat Belt Education Fund 76354
(Fund 8440) to the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund 76355
(Fund 83M0). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 8440 is 76356
abolished. The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances 76357
against appropriation item 761613, Seat Belt Education Program, 76358
and reestablish them against appropriation item 765624, Operating 76359
Expense - Trauma and EMS. The reestablished encumbrance amounts 76360
are hereby appropriated.76361

       CASH TRANSFERS BETWEEN FUNDS76362

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 76363
Director of Budget and Management, upon the written request of the 76364
Director of Public Safety, may approve the transfer of cash 76365
between the following six funds: the Trauma and Emergency Medical 76366
Services Fund (Fund 83M0), the Homeland Security Fund (Fund 5DS0), 76367
the Investigations Fund (Fund 5FL0), the Emergency Management 76368
Agency Service and Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4V30), the Justice 76369
Program Services Fund (Fund 4P60), and the State Bureau of Motor 76370
Vehicles Fund (Fund 4W40).76371

       CASH TRANSFERS TO SECURITY, INVESTIGATIONS, AND POLICING FUND76372

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 76373
Director of Budget and Management, upon the written request of the 76374
Director of Public Safety, may approve the transfer of cash from 76375
the Continuing Professional Training Fund (Fund 5Y10), the State 76376
Highway Patrol Contraband, Forfeiture, and Other Fund (Fund 83C0), 76377
the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund (Fund 83M0), and 76378
the Highway Safety Salvage and Exchange Highway Patrol Fund (Fund 76379
8410) to the Security, Investigations, and Policing Fund (Fund 76380
8400).76381

        CASH TRANSFERS OF SEAT BELT FINE REVENUES 76382

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 76383
Controlling Board, upon request of the Director of Public Safety, 76384
may approve the transfer of cash between the following fourthree76385
funds that receive fine revenues from enforcement of the mandatory 76386
seat belt law: the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund 76387
(Fund 83M0), the Elementary School Program Fund (Fund 83N0), and 76388
the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Grants Fund (Fund 83P0). 76389

       STATE DISASTER RELIEF76390

       The State Disaster Relief Fund (Fund 5330) may accept 76391
transfers of cash and appropriations from Controlling Board 76392
appropriation items for Ohio Emergency Management Agency disaster 76393
response costs and disaster program management costs, and may also 76394
be used for the following purposes:76395

       (A) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 76396
Controlling Board appropriation items for Ohio Emergency 76397
Management Agency public assistance and mitigation program match 76398
costs to reimburse eligible local governments and private 76399
nonprofit organizations for costs related to disasters;76400

       (B) To accept and transfer cash to reimburse the costs 76401
associated with Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) 76402
deployments;76403

       (C) To accept disaster related reimbursement from federal, 76404
state, and local governments. The Director of Budget and 76405
Management may transfer cash from reimbursements received by this 76406
fund to other funds of the state from which transfers were 76407
originally approved by the Controlling Board.76408

       (D) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 76409
Controlling Board appropriation items to fund the State Disaster 76410
Relief Program, for disasters that have been declared by the 76411
Governor, and the State Individual Assistance Program for 76412
disasters that have been declared by the Governor and the federal 76413
Small Business Administration. The Ohio Emergency Management 76414
Agency shall publish and make available application packets 76415
outlining procedures for the State Disaster Relief Program and the 76416
State Individual Assistance Program.76417

       JUSTICE ASSISTANCE GRANT FUND76418

       The federal payments made to the state for the Byrne Justice 76419
Assistance Grants Program under Title II of Division A of the 76420
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited 76421
to the credit of the Justice Assistance Grant Fund (Fund 3DE0), 76422
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All investment 76423
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.76424

        FEDERAL STIMULUS – JUSTICE PROGRAMS76425

        The federal payments made to the state for the Violence 76426
Against Women Formula Grant under Title II of Division A of the 76427
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited 76428
to the credit of the Federal Stimulus – Justice Programs Fund 76429
(Fund 3DH0).76430

        TRANSFER FROM STATE FIRE MARSHAL FUND TO EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT 76431
AGENCY SERVICE AND REIMBURSEMENT FUND76432

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 76433
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 76434
$200,000 in cash from the State Fire Marshal Fund (Fund 5460) to 76435
the Emergency Management Agency Service and Reimbursement Fund 76436
(Fund 4V30) to be distributed to the Ohio Task Force One – Urban 76437
Search and Rescue Unit and other urban search and rescue programs 76438
around the state.76439

       FAMILY VIOLENCE PREVENTION FUND76440

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in each 76441
of fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the first $750,000 received to the 76442
credit of the Family Violence Prevention Fund (Fund 5BK0) shall be 76443
appropriated to appropriation item 768689, Family Violence Shelter 76444
Programs, and the next $400,000 received to the credit of Fund 76445
5BK0 in each of those fiscal years shall be appropriated to 76446
appropriation item 768687, Criminal Justice Services - Operating. 76447
Any moneys received to the credit of Fund 5BK0 in excess of the 76448
aforementioned appropriated amounts in each fiscal year shall, 76449
upon the approval of the Controlling Board, be used to provide 76450
grants to family violence shelters in Ohio.76451

       SARA TITLE III HAZMAT PLANNING76452

       The SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning Fund (Fund 6810) is 76453
entitled to receive grant funds from the Emergency Response 76454
Commission to implement the Emergency Management Agency's 76455
responsibilities under Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code.76456

       COLLECTIVE BARGAINING INCREASES76457

       Notwithstanding division (D) of section 127.14 and division 76458
(B) of section 131.35 of the Revised Code, except for the General 76459
Revenue Fund, the Controlling Board may, upon the request of 76460
either the Director of Budget and Management, or the Department of 76461
Public Safety with the approval of the Director of Budget and 76462
Management, increase appropriations for any fund, as necessary for 76463
the Department of Public Safety, to assist in paying the costs of 76464
increases in employee compensation that have occurred pursuant to 76465
collective bargaining agreements under Chapter 4117. of the 76466
Revised Code and, for exempt employees, under section 124.152 of 76467
the Revised Code.76468

       CASH BALANCE FUND REVIEW76469

       Not later than the first day of April in each fiscal year of 76470
the biennium, the Director of Budget and Management shall review 76471
the cash balances for each fund, except the State Highway Safety 76472
Fund (Fund 7036) and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 76473
4W40), in the State Highway Safety Fund Group, and shall recommend 76474
to the Controlling Board an amount to be transferred to the credit 76475
of Fund 7036 or Fund 4W40, as appropriate.76476

       Section 601.11. That existing Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 76477
114 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 76478
of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.76479

       Section 601.20. That Section 201 of Sub. H.B. 123 of the 76480
129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:76481

       Sec. 201.  All items in Sections 201 and 203 of this act are 76482
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 76483
credit of the designated fund. For all appropriations made in this 76484
act, those in the first column are for fiscal year 2012, and those 76485
in the second column are for fiscal year 2013.76486

FND AI AI TITLE Appropriations 76487

BWC BUREAU OF WORKERS' COMPENSATION
76488

Workers' Compensation Fund Group76489

7023 855401 William Green Lease Payments to OBA $ 18,291,365 $ 17,533,370 76490
7023 855407 Claims, Risk and Medical Management $ 125,427,732 $ 124,192,959 122,492,959 76491
7023 855408 Fraud Prevention $ 11,331,154 $ 11,164,226 76492
7023 855409 Administrative Services $ 101,724,950 $ 104,136,037 103,346,037 76493
7023 855410 Attorney General Payments $ 4,621,850 $ 4,621,850 76494
8220 855606 Coal Workers' Fund $ 150,586 $ 147,666 76495
8230 855608 Marine Industry $ 76,532 $ 75,527 76496
8250 855605 Disabled Workers Relief Fund $ 322,266 $ 319,718 76497
8260 855609 Safety and Hygiene Operating $ 20,382,567 $ 20,161,132 76498
8260 855610 Gear Program $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 76499
8290 855604 Long Term Care Loan Program $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 100,000 76500
TOTAL WCF Workers' Compensation 76501
Fund Group $ 287,329,002 $ 287,352,485 283,962,485 76502

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group76503

3490 855601 OSHA Enforcement $ 1,670,998 $ 1,647,515 76504
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,670,998 $ 1,647,515 76505
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 289,000,000 $ 289,000,000 285,610,000 76506

       WILLIAM GREEN LEASE PAYMENTS76507

       The foregoing appropriation item 855401, William Green Lease 76508
Payments to OBA, shall be used for lease payments to the Ohio 76509
Building Authority, and these appropriations shall be used to meet 76510
all payments at the times they are required to be made during the 76511
period from July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2013, by the Bureau of 76512
Workers' Compensation to the Ohio Building Authority pursuant to 76513
leases and agreements made under Chapter 152. of the Revised Code 76514
and Section 6 of Am. Sub. H.B. 743 of the 118th General Assembly. 76515
Of the amounts received in Fund 7023, appropriation item 855401, 76516
William Green Lease Payments to OBA, up to $35,824,735 shall be 76517
restricted for lease rental payments to the Ohio Building 76518
Authority. If it is determined that additional appropriations are 76519
necessary for such purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.76520

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, all 76521
tenants of the William Green Building not funded by the Workers' 76522
Compensation Fund (Fund 7023) shall pay their fair share of the 76523
costs of lease payments to the Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 76524
7023) by intrastate transfer voucher.76525

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION FRAUD UNIT76526

       The Workers' Compensation Section Fund (Fund 1950) 76527
administered by the Attorney General shall receive payments from 76528
the Bureau of Workers' Compensation at the beginning of each 76529
quarter of each fiscal year to fund expenses of the Workers' 76530
Compensation Fraud Unit within the Attorney General's Office. Of 76531
the foregoing appropriation item 855410, Attorney General 76532
Payments, $828,200 in fiscal year 2012 and $828,200 in fiscal year 76533
2013 shall be used to provide these payments.76534

       SAFETY AND HYGIENE76535

       Notwithstanding section 4121.37 of the Revised Code, the 76536
Treasurer of State shall transfer $20,382,567 cash in fiscal year 76537
2012 and $20,161,132 cash in fiscal year 2013 from the State 76538
Insurance Fund to the Safety and Hygiene Fund (Fund 8260).76539

       OSHA ON-SITE CONSULTATION PROGRAM76540

        The Bureau of Workers' Compensation may designate a portion 76541
of appropriation item 855609, Safety and Hygiene Operating, to be 76542
used to match federal funding for the federal Occupational Safety 76543
and Health Administration's (OSHA) on-site consultation program.76544

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION76545

       The Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Rehabilitation 76546
Services Commission shall enter into an interagency agreement for 76547
the provision of vocational rehabilitation services and staff to 76548
mutually eligible clients. The bureau shall provide $605,407 in 76549
fiscal year 2012 and $605,407 in fiscal year 2013 from the State 76550
Insurance Fund to fund vocational rehabilitation services and 76551
staff in accordance with the interagency agreement.76552

       FUND BALANCE76553

       Any unencumbered cash balance in excess of $45,000,000 in the 76554
Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 7023) on the thirtieth day of 76555
June of each fiscal year shall be used to reduce the 76556
administrative cost rate charged to employers to cover 76557
appropriations for Bureau of Workers' Compensation operations.76558

       Section 601.21. That existing Section 201 of Sub. H.B. 123 of 76559
the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.76560

       Section 601.30. That Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 129th 76561
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:76562

       Sec. 1. All items in this section are hereby appropriated out 76563
of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the 76564
designated fund. For all appropriations made in this section, 76565
those in the first column are for fiscal year 2012, and those in 76566
the second column are for fiscal year 2013.76567

Appropriations 76568

FND AI AI TITLE FY 2012 FY 2013 76569

OIC INDUSTRIAL COMMISSION
76570

Workers' Compensation Fund Group76571

5W30 845321 Operating Expenses $ 50,100,000 $ 48,900,000 47,732,000 76572
5W30 845402 Rent - William Green Building $ 5,500,000 $ 5,500,000 76573
5W30 845410 Attorney General Payments $ 3,900,000 $ 4,000,000 76574
TOTAL WCF Workers' Compensation 76575
Fund Group $ 59,500,000 $ 58,400,000 57,232,000 76576
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 59,500,000 $ 58,400,000 57,232,000 76577

       RENT - WILLIAM GREEN BUILDING76578

       The foregoing appropriation item 845402, Rent - William Green 76579
Building, shall be used for rent and operating expenses for the 76580
space occupied by the Industrial Commission in the William Green 76581
Building.76582

       Section 601.31. That existing Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 76583
129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.76584

       Section 601.40. That Sections 205.10, 207.10, 207.10.80, 76585
207.20.10, 207.20.30, 207.20.90, 209.10, 209.20, 209.30, 211.10, 76586
215.10, 215.20, 223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 261.10.40, 261.10.70, 76587
261.20.40, 261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.80, 261.20.90, 261.30.10, 76588
261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 261.30.60, 261.30.70, 261.30.80, 76589
261.30.90, 261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 263.10.90, 263.20.40, 76590
263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.10, 267.10.20, 267.10.40, 267.30.20, 76591
267.30.40, 279.10, 283.10, 287.10, 291.10, 307.10, 309.10, 76592
309.30.10, 309.30.30, 309.30.33, 309.30.53, 309.30.73, 313.10, 76593
315.10, 323.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 365.10, 76594
367.10, 369.10, 371.10, 371.30.30, 371.50.61, 371.50.65, 76595
371.60.80, 373.10, 375.10, 379.10, 387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 76596
503.50, and 521.70 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 76597
Assembly be amended to read as follows: 76598

       Sec. 205.10. ADJ ADJUTANT GENERAL76599

General Revenue Fund76600

GRF 745401 Ohio Military Reserve $ 12,308 $ 12,308 76601
GRF 745404 Air National Guard $ 1,810,606 $ 1,810,606 76602
GRF 745407 National Guard Benefits $ 400,000 $ 400,000 76603
GRF 745409 Central Administration $ 2,692,098 $ 2,692,098 2,682,098 76604
GRF 745499 Army National Guard $ 3,687,888 $ 3,689,871 76605
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,602,900 $ 8,604,883 8,594,883 76606

General Services Fund Group76607

5340 745612 Property Operations Management $ 534,304 $ 534,304 76608
5360 745605 Marksmanship Activities $ 128,600 $ 128,600 76609
5360 745620 Camp Perry and Buckeye Inn Operations $ 1,178,311 $ 978,846 76610
5370 745604 Ohio National Guard Facilities Maintenance $ 62,000 $ 62,000 76611
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,903,215 $ 1,703,750 76612

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group76613

3410 745615 Air National Guard Base Security $ 2,977,692 $ 2,977,692 76614
3420 745616 Army National Guard Service Agreement $ 10,970,050 $ 10,970,050 76615
3E80 745628 Air National Guard Operations and Maintenance $ 16,958,595 $ 16,958,595 76616
3R80 745603 Counter Drug Operations $ 25,000 $ 25,000 76617
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 30,931,337 $ 30,931,337 76618

State Special Revenue Fund Group76619

5U80 745613 Community Match Armories $ 250,000 $ 250,000 76620
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 250,000 $ 250,000 76621

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 41,687,452 $ 41,489,970 41,479,970 76622

       NATIONAL GUARD BENEFITS76623

       The foregoing appropriation item 745407, National Guard 76624
Benefits, shall be used for purposes of sections 5919.31 and 76625
5919.33 of the Revised Code, and for administrative costs of the 76626
associated programs.76627

       For active duty members of the Ohio National Guard who died 76628
after October 7, 2001, while performing active duty, the death 76629
benefit, pursuant to section 5919.33 of the Revised Code, shall be 76630
paid to the beneficiary or beneficiaries designated on the 76631
member's Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Policy.76632

       STATE ACTIVE DUTY COSTS76633

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 745409, Central 76634
Administration, $50,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 76635
purpose of paying expenses related to state active duty of members 76636
of the Ohio organized militia, in accordance with a proclamation 76637
of the Governor. Expenses include, but are not limited to, the 76638
cost of equipment, supplies, and services, as determined by the 76639
Adjutant General's Department.76640

       Sec. 207.10. DAS DEPARTMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES76641

General Revenue Fund76642

GRF 100403 Public Employees Health Care Program $ 400,000 $ 400,000 344,000 76643
GRF 100415 OAKS Rental Payments $ 23,024,500 $ 23,006,300 76644
GRF 100416 STARS Lease Rental Payments $ 4,970,700 $ 4,971,300 76645
GRF 100418 Web Sites and Business Gateway $ 2,895,063 $ 2,795,176 0 76646
GRF 100419 IT Security Infrastructure $ 742,535 $ 742,648 0 76647
GRF 100439 Equal Opportunity Certification Programs $ 625,000 $ 625,000 0 76648
GRF 100447 OBA - Building Rent Payments $ 53,260,000 $ 83,504,200 76649
GRF 100448 OBA - Building Operating Payments $ 21,000,000 $ 21,000,000 20,000,000 76650
GRF 100449 DAS - Building Operating Payments $ 7,551,245 $ 7,551,571 76651
GRF 100451 Minority Affairs $ 24,016 $ 24,016 0 76652
GRF 100452 Efficiency & Results Program $ 0 $ 650,000 76653
GRF 100456 State IT Services $ 0 $ 3,537,824 76654
GRF 100457 Equal Opportunity Services $ 0 $ 1,610,516 76655
GRF 100458 State Construction Management Services $ 0 $ 2,745,751 76656
GRF 102321 Construction Compliance $ 920,000 $ 920,000 0 76657
GRF 130321 State Agency Support Services $ 2,779,457 $ 2,780,032 2,752,232 76658
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 118,192,516 $ 148,320,243 150,673,694 76659

General Services Fund Group76660

1120 100616 DAS Administration $ 5,974,625 $ 5,886,524 5,827,659 76661
1150 100632 Central Service Agency $ 911,995 $ 912,305 903,182 76662
1170 100644 General Services Division - Operating $ 13,000,000 $ 13,000,000 76663
1220 100637 Fleet Management $ 3,978,827 $ 4,204,066 4,412,025 76664
1250 100622 Human Resources Division - Operating $ 16,922,295 $ 16,717,009 16,549,839 76665
1250 100657 Benefits Communication $ 925,586 $ 921,531 912,316 76666
1280 100620 Collective Bargaining $ 3,462,529 $ 3,464,148 3,429,507 76667
1300 100606 Risk Management Reserve $ 10,349,494 $ 12,149,884 12,028,385 76668
1310 100639 State Architect's Office $ 9,812,132 $ 9,813,342 9,463,342 76669
1320 100631 DAS Building Management $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 76670
1330 100607 IT Services Delivery $ 58,088,940 $ 58,103,005 57,521,975 76671
1880 100649 Equal Opportunity Division - Operating $ 939,559 $ 863,013 76672
2100 100612 State Printing $ 17,597,054 $ 16,659,526 76673
2290 100630 IT Governance $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 76674
2290 100640 Leveraged Enterprise Purchases $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 2,816,535 76675
4270 100602 Investment Recovery $ 4,100,000 $ 4,100,000 4,000,000 76676
4N60 100617 Major IT Purchases $ 1,950,000 $ 4,950,000 76677
4P30 100603 DAS Information Services $ 5,047,565 $ 4,979,392 4,929,598 76678
5C20 100605 MARCS Administration $ 14,075,705 $ 14,077,467 76679
5C30 100608 Skilled Trades $ 404,297 $ 404,375 204,375 76680
5EB0 100635 OAKS Support Organization $ 19,000,539 $ 19,003,108 18,813,077 76681
5EB0 100656 OAKS Updates and Developments $ 12,265,952 $ 8,743,462 8,656,027 76682
5HU0 100655 Construction Reform Demo Compliance $ 150,000 $ 150,000 76683
5L70 100610 Professional Development $ 2,496,679 $ 2,496,760 76684
5V60 100619 Employee Educational Development $ 800,000 $ 850,000 76685
5X30 100634 Centralized Gateway Enhancement $ 2,052,308 $ 2,052,308 76686
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 76687
Group $ 232,306,081 $ 232,501,225 230,566,916 76688

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group76689

3AJ0 100654 ARRA Broadband Mapping Grant $ 270,756 $ 106,347 76690
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 76691
Fund Group $ 270,756 $ 106,347 76692

State Special Revenue Fund Group76693

5JQ0 100658 Professions Professionals Licensing System $ 2,000,000 $ 1,000,000 990,000 76694
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 76695
Fund Group $ 2,000,000 $ 1,000,000 990,000 76696
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 352,769,353 $ 381,927,815 382,336,957 76697


       Sec. 207.10.80. DAS - BUILDING OPERATING PAYMENTS76699

       The foregoing appropriation item 100449, DAS - Building 76700
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the rent expenses of 76701
veterans organizations pursuant to section 123.024 of the Revised 76702
Code in fiscal years 2012 and 2013.76703

       The foregoing appropriation item, 100449, DAS - Building 76704
Operating Payments, also may be used to provide funding for the 76705
cost of property appraisals or building studies that the 76706
Department of Administrative Services may be required to obtain 76707
for property that is being sold by the state or property under 76708
consideration to be renovated or purchased by the state.76709

       Notwithstanding section 125.28 of the Revised Code, the 76710
remaining portion of the appropriation may be used to pay the 76711
operating expenses of state facilities maintained by the 76712
Department of Administrative Services that are not billed to 76713
building tenants, or other costs associated with the Voinovich 76714
Center in Youngstown, Ohio. These expenses may include, but are 76715
not limited to, the costs for vacant space and space undergoing 76716
renovation, and the rent expenses of tenants that are relocated 76717
because of building renovations. These payments shall be processed 76718
by the Department of Administrative Services through intrastate 76719
transfer vouchers and placed in the Building Management Fund (Fund 76720
1320).76721

       STATE IT SERVICES76722

       The foregoing appropriation item 100456, State IT Services, 76723
shall be used to pay costs associated with the Ohio Business 76724
Gateway, State Portal, and Shared Hosting Service that were 76725
formerly paid from appropriation item 100418, Web Sites and 76726
Business Gateway, and costs associated with statewide operators 76727
and the Ohio Geographically Referenced Information Program that 76728
were formerly paid from appropriation item 100419, IT Security 76729
Infrastructure. The Director of Budget and Management shall cancel 76730
any existing encumbrances against appropriation items 100418, Web 76731
Site and Business Gateway and 100419, IT Security Infrastructure, 76732
and reestablish them against appropriation item 100456, State IT 76733
Services. The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby 76734
appropriated.76735

        EQUAL OPPORTUNITY SERVICES76736

        The foregoing appropriation item 100457, Equal Opportunity 76737
Services, shall be used to pay costs associated with the 76738
certification of businesses for participation in the Minority 76739
Business Enterprise and Encouraging Diversity, Growth and Equity 76740
Programs that were formerly paid from appropriation item 100439, 76741
Equal Opportunity Certification Programs; the activities of the 76742
Ohio Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. Holiday Commission that were 76743
formerly paid from appropriation item 100451, Minority Affairs; 76744
and the monitoring of equal employment opportunity (EEO) and 76745
affirmative action requirements to ensure contractors bidding on 76746
and receiving contracts comply with EEO laws, rules, and 76747
regulations that were formerly paid from appropriation item 76748
102321, Construction Compliance. The Director of Budget and 76749
Management shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 76750
appropriation items 100439, Equal Opportunity Certification 76751
Programs; 100451, Minority Affairs; and 102321, Construction 76752
Compliance, and reestablish them against appropriation item 76753
100457, Equal Opportunity Services. The reestablished encumbrance 76754
amounts are hereby appropriated.76755

        STATE CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT SERVICES76756

        The foregoing appropriation item 100458, State Construction 76757
Management Services, shall be used to pay costs of statewide 76758
shared construction-related services and capital improvement 76759
project management services provided through the state's 76760
enterprise resource planning system. 76761

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT FUND TO THE 76762
HUMAN RESOURCES SERVICES FUND76763

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, in 76764
FY 2013, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up 76765
to $975,000 from the Workforce Development Fund (Fund 5D70) to the 76766
Human Resources Services Fund (Fund 1250) to support one-time 76767
human resources administration activities for state agencies. 76768

       Sec. 207.20.10. GENERAL SERVICE CHARGES76769

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 76770
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 76771
for recovering the costs of administering the programs funded by 76772
the General Services Fund (Fund 1170) and the State Printing Fund 76773
(Fund 2100). Such charges within Fund 1170 may be used to recover 76774
the cost of paying a vendor to establish reduced pricing for 76775
contracted supplies or services.76776

        If the Director of Administrative Services determines that 76777
additional amounts are necessary to pay for consulting and 76778
administrative costs related to securing lower pricing, the 76779
Director of Administrative Services may request that the Director 76780
of Budget and Management approve additional expenditures. Such 76781
approved additional amounts are appropriated to appropriation item 76782
100644, General Services Division-Operating. 76783

       Sec. 207.20.30. EQUAL OPPORTUNITY PROGRAM76784

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 76785
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 76786
for recovering the costs of administering the activities supported 76787
by the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880). These charges shall be 76788
deposited to the credit of the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880) upon 76789
payment made by state agencies, state-supported or state-assisted 76790
institutions of higher education, and tax-supported agencies, 76791
municipal corporations, and other political subdivisions of the 76792
state, for services rendered.76793

       LEVERAGED ENTERPRISE PURCHASES76794

        The foregoing appropriation item 100640, Leveraged Enterprise 76795
Purchases, shall be used by the Department of Administrative 76796
Services to make information technology purchases for the benefit 76797
of one or more government entities as authorized under division 76798
(G) of section 125.18 of the Revised Code. If the Director of 76799
Administrative Services determines that the existing appropriation 76800
is insufficient to timely make such purchases, the Director of 76801
Administrative Services shall seek Controlling Board approval for 76802
an increase in appropriation to make the requested purchases.76803

       Sec. 207.20.90. CASH TRANSFERS FROM THE MAJOR IT PURCHASES 76804
FUND76805

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 76806
Director of Budget and Management may make the following transfers 76807
from the Major IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60):76808

       (1) Up to $2,800,000 in each fiscal year of the biennium to 76809
the State Architect's Fund (Fund 1310) to support the OAKS Capital 76810
Improvements Module and other costs of the State Architect's 76811
Office that are not directly related to capital projects managed 76812
by the State Architect;76813

       (2) Up to $310,276 in fiscal year 2012 and up to $305,921 in 76814
fiscal year 2013 to the Director's Office Fund (Fund 1120) to 76815
support operating expenses of the Accountability and Results 76816
Initiative.76817

       CASH TRANSFERS TO THE MAJOR IT PURCHASES FUND76818

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 76819
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $4,000,000 76820
from the OAKS Support Organization Fund (Fund 5EB0) to the Major 76821
IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60). This amount represents cash 76822
transferred from Fund 4N60 during fiscal year 2010 pursuant to 76823
Section 207.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General 76824
Assembly. Any portion of appropriation item 100617, Major IT 76825
Purchases, that is unencumbered and unexpended at the end of 76826
fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2013.76827

       Sec. 209.10. AGE DEPARTMENT OF AGING76828

General Revenue Fund76829

GRF 490321 Operating Expenses $ 1,501,616 $ 1,502,442 1,487,418 76830
GRF 490410 Long-Term Care Ombudsman $ 482,271 $ 482,271 477,448 76831
GRF 490411 Senior Community Services $ 7,130,952 $ 7,131,236 7,060,844 76832
GRF 490414 Alzheimer's Respite $ 1,917,740 $ 1,917,757 1,895,245 76833
GRF 490423 Long-Term Care Budget - State $ 3,419,250 $ 3,419,250 3,385,057 76834
GRF 490506 National Senior Service Corps $ 241,413 $ 241,413 76835
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,693,242 $ 14,694,369 14,547,425 76836

General Services Fund Group76837

4800 490606 Senior Community Outreach and Education $ 372,518 $ 372,523 76838
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 76839
Group $ 372,518 $ 372,523 76840

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group76841

3220 490618 Federal Aging Grants $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 76842
3C40 490623 Long-Term Care Budget $ 3,525,000 $ 3,525,000 76843
3M40 490612 Federal Independence Services $ 63,655,080 $ 63,655,080 76844
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 76845
Fund Group $ 81,180,080 $ 81,180,080 76846

State Special Revenue Fund Group76847

4C40 490609 Regional Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program $ 935,000 $ 935,000 2,435,000 76848
5BA0 490620 Ombudsman Support $ 750,000 $ 750,000 76849
5K90 490613 Long-Term Care Consumers Guide $ 1,059,400 $ 1,059,400 76850
5W10 490616 Resident Services Coordinator Program $ 344,692 $ 344,700 76851
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 76852
Fund Group $ 3,089,092 $ 3,089,100 4,589,100 76853
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 99,334,932 $ 99,336,072 100,689,128 76854


       Sec. 209.20. LONG-TERM CARE76856

       Pursuant to an interagency agreement, the Department of Job 76857
and Family Services shallmay designate the Department of Aging to 76858
perform assessments under section 5111.204 of the Revised Code. 76859
The Department of Aging shall provide long-term care consultations 76860
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to assist individuals in 76861
planning for their long-term health care needs. 76862

       The Department of Aging shall administer the Medicaid 76863
waiver-funded PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the 76864
Assisted Living Program, and the PACE Program as delegated by the 76865
Department of Job and Family Services in an interagency agreement. 76866
The foregoing appropriation items 490423, Long-Term Care Budget - 76867
State, and 490623, Long-Term Care Budget, may be used to support 76868
the Department of Aging's administrative costs associated with 76869
operating the PASSPORT, Choices, Assisted Living, and PACE 76870
programs.76871

       Sec. 209.30.  LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN76872

       The foregoing appropriation item 490410, Long-Term Care 76873
Ombudsman, shall be used for a program to fund ombudsman program 76874
activities as authorized in sections 173.14 to 173.27 and section 76875
173.99 of the Revised Code.76876

       SENIOR COMMUNITY SERVICES76877

       The foregoing appropriation item 490411, Senior Community 76878
Services, shall be used for services designated by the Department 76879
of Aging, including, but not limited to, home-delivered and 76880
congregate meals, transportation services, personal care services, 76881
respite services, adult day services, home repair, care 76882
coordination, and decision support systems. Service priority shall 76883
be given to low income, frail, and cognitively impaired persons 60 76884
years of age and over. The department shall promote cost sharing 76885
by service recipients for those services funded with senior 76886
community services funds, including, when possible, sliding-fee 76887
scale payment systems based on the income of service recipients.76888

       ALZHEIMER'S RESPITE76889

       The foregoing appropriation item 490414, Alzheimer's Respite, 76890
shall be used to fund only Alzheimer's disease services under 76891
section 173.04 of the Revised Code.76892

       SENIOR COMMUNITY OUTREACH AND EDUCATION76893

       The foregoing appropriation item 490606, Senior Community 76894
Outreach and Education, may be used to provide training to workers 76895
in the field of aging pursuant to division (G) of section 173.02 76896
of the Revised Code.76897

       TRANSFER OF APPROPRIATIONS - FEDERAL INDEPENDENCE SERVICES 76898
AND FEDERAL AGING GRANTS76899

       At the request of the Director of Aging, the Director of 76900
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation between 76901
appropriation items 490612, Federal Independence Services, and 76902
490618, Federal Aging Grants. The amounts transferred shall not 76903
exceed 30 per cent of the appropriation from which the transfer is 76904
made. Any transfers shall be reported by the Department of Aging 76905
to the Controlling Board at the next scheduled meeting of the 76906
board.76907

       REGIONAL LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN PROGRAM76908

       TheOf the foregoing appropriation item 490609, Regional 76909
Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program, $935,000 in each fiscal year76910
shall be used to pay the costs of operating the regional long-term 76911
care ombudsman programs designated by the Long-Term Care 76912
Ombudsman.76913

       Notwithstanding division (B) of section 173.26 of the Revised 76914
Code, of the foregoing appropriation item 490609, Regional 76915
Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program, $1,500,000 in fiscal year 2013 76916
shall be used for costs associated with the Aging in Place Pilot 76917
Program.76918

       TRANSFER OF RESIDENT PROTECTION FUNDS76919

       In each fiscal year, the Director of Budget and Management 76920
may transfer up to $750,000 cash from the Resident Protection Fund 76921
(Fund 4E30), which is used by the Department of Job and Family 76922
Services, to the Ombudsman Support Fund (Fund 5BA0), which is used 76923
by the Department of Aging. The moneys in the Ombudsman Support 76924
Fund may be used by the state office of the Long-Term Care 76925
Ombudsman Program and by regional ombudsman programs to promote 76926
person-centered care in nursing homes.76927

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 76928
Department of Aging shall certify to the Director of Budget and 76929
Management the amount of the cash balance in the Ombudsman Support 76930
Fund at the end of fiscal year 2011.76931

       LONG-TERM CARE CONSUMERS GUIDE76932

        The foregoing appropriation item 490613, Long-Term Care 76933
Consumers Guide, shall be used to conduct annual customer 76934
satisfaction surveys and to pay for other administrative expenses 76935
related to the publication of the Ohio Long-Term Care Consumer 76936
Guide.76937

       During fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Department 76938
of Aging shall identify methods and tools for assessing consumer 76939
satisfaction with adult care facilities and with the providers of 76940
home and community-based services. The Department shall also 76941
consider the development of a provider fee structure to support 76942
the inclusion of information about adult care facilities and 76943
providers of home and community-based services among the types of 76944
providers reviewed in the Ohio Long-Term Care Consumer Guide.76945

       Sec. 211.10. AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE76946

General Revenue Fund76947

GRF 700401 Animal Disease Control $ 3,936,687 $ 3,936,687 76948
GRF 700403 Dairy Division $ 1,088,115 $ 1,088,115 76949
GRF 700404 Ohio Proud $ 50,000 $ 50,000 76950
GRF 700406 Consumer Analytical Lab $ 1,287,556 $ 1,287,556 76951
GRF 700407 Food Safety $ 848,792 $ 848,792 76952
GRF 700409 Farmland Preservation $ 72,750 $ 72,750 76953
GRF 700412 Weights and Measures $ 600,000 $ 600,000 76954
GRF 700415 Poultry Inspection $ 392,978 $ 392,978 76955
GRF 700418 Livestock Regulation Program $ 1,108,071 $ 1,108,071 76956
GRF 700424 Livestock Testing and Inspections $ 102,770 $ 102,770 76957
GRF 700499 Meat Inspection Program - State Share $ 4,175,097 $ 4,175,097 76958
GRF 700501 County Agricultural Societies $ 391,413 $ 391,413 76959
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,054,229 $ 14,054,229 76960

General Services Fund Group76961

5DA0 700644 Laboratory Administration Support $ 1,094,867 $ 1,094,867 76962
5GH0 700655 Central Support Indirect Cost $ 4,456,842 $ 4,456,842 76963
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,551,709 $ 5,551,709 76964

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group76965

3260 700618 Meat Inspection Program - Federal Share $ 4,950,000 $ 4,950,000 76966
3360 700617 Ohio Farm Loan Revolving Fund $ 150,000 $ 150,000 76967
3820 700601 Cooperative Contracts $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 76968
3AB0 700641 Agricultural Easement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 76969
3J40 700607 Indirect Cost $ 600,000 $ 600,000 76970
3R20 700614 Federal Plant Industry $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 76971
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 76972
Fund Group $ 9,700,000 $ 9,700,000 76973

State Special Revenue Fund Group76974

4960 700626 Ohio Grape Industries $ 846,611 $ 846,611 76975
4970 700627 Commodity Handlers Regulatory Program $ 483,402 $ 483,402 76976
4C90 700605 Commercial Feed and Seed $ 1,816,897 $ 1,816,897 76977
4D20 700609 Auction Education $ 41,000 $ 41,000 76978
4E40 700606 Utility Radiological Safety $ 131,785 $ 131,785 76979
4P70 700610 Food Safety Inspection $ 1,085,836 $ 1,085,836 76980
4R00 700636 Ohio Proud Marketing $ 30,500 $ 30,500 76981
4R20 700637 Dairy Industry Inspection $ 1,758,247 $ 1,758,247 76982
4T60 700611 Poultry and Meat Inspection $ 180,000 $ 180,000 76983
4T70 700613 Ohio Proud International and Domestic Market Development $ 50,000 $ 50,000 76984
5780 700620 Ride Inspection Fees $ 1,175,142 $ 1,175,142 76985
5B80 700629 Auctioneers $ 359,823 $ 359,823 76986
5FC0 700648 Plant Pest Program $ 1,164,000 3,164,000 $ 1,164,000 76987
5H20 700608 Metrology Lab and Scale Certification $ 750,000 $ 750,000 76988
5HP0 700656 Livestock Care Standards Board $ 80,000 $ 80,000 76989
5L80 700604 Livestock Management Program $ 584,000 $ 584,000 76990
6520 700634 Animal and Consumer Analytical Laboratory $ 4,366,383 $ 4,366,383 76991
6690 700635 Pesticide, Fertilizer, and Lime Inspection Program $ 3,418,041 $ 3,418,041 76992
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 76993
Fund Group $ 18,321,667 20,321,667 $ 18,321,667 76994

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group76995

7057 700632 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement $ 310,000 $ 310,000 76996
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 310,000 $ 310,000 76997

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 47,937,605 49,937,605 $ 47,937,605 76998

       COUNTY AGRICULTURAL SOCIETIES76999

       The foregoing appropriation item 700501, County Agricultural 77000
Societies, shall be used to reimburse county and independent 77001
agricultural societies for expenses related to Junior Fair 77002
activities.77003

        ABOLISHMENT OF VARIOUS FUNDS77004

        Upon the effective date of this amendment, or as soon as 77005
possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall 77006
transfer the cash balances in the following twelve funds to the 77007
Indirect Cost Fund (Fund 5GH0): (1) the Federal Grants Fund (Fund 77008
3X60), (2) the Specialty Crops Support Fund (Fund 3X70), (3) the 77009
Fruits and Vegetables Fund (Fund 4930), (4) the Dairy Fund (Fund 77010
4V00), (5) the Animal Industry Fund (Fund 4VS0), (6) the Scale 77011
Certification Fund (Fund 5790), (7) the Weights and Measures 77012
Permits Fund (Fund 58F0), (8) the Food Policy Council Fund (Fund 77013
5FD0), (9) the Sustainable Agriculture Fund (Fund 5FE0), (10) the 77014
Pilot Farmland Preservation Fund (Fund 5GS0), (11) the Farm 77015
Service Electronic Filing Fund (Fund SY70), and (12) the Seed Fund 77016
(Fund SZ40). Upon completion of the cash transfers, the funds from 77017
which the required cash transfers were made are abolished. The 77018
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against applicable 77019
line items within the abolished funds and reestablish them against 77020
Fund 5GH0 appropriation item 700655, Central Support Indirect 77021
Cost. The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby 77022
appropriated.77023

       ASIAN LONGHORNED BEETLE77024

        On the effective date of this act, or as soon as possible 77025
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 77026
up to $2,000,000 in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the 77027
Plant Pest Fund (Fund 5FC0).77028

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 700648, Plant Pest 77029
Program, up to $2,000,000 in FY 2012 shall be used for 77030
reforestation and the eradication of the Asian Longhorned Beetle. 77031
Any portion of this transfer that remains unexpended and 77032
unencumbered in FY 2012 is hereby reappropriated for the same 77033
purpose in FY 2013.77034

       CLEAN OHIO AGRICULTURAL EASEMENT77035

       The foregoing appropriation item 700632, Clean Ohio 77036
Agricultural Easement, shall be used by the Department of 77037
Agriculture in administering Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 77038
7057) projects pursuant to sections 901.21, 901.22, and 5301.67 to 77039
5301.70 of the Revised Code.77040

       Sec. 215.10. ADA DEPARTMENT OF ALCOHOL AND DRUG ADDICTION 77041
SERVICES77042

General Revenue Fund77043

GRF 038401 Treatment Services $ 11,225,590 $ 7,020,974 77044
GRF 038404 Prevention Services $ 868,659 $ 868,659 77045
GRF 038501 Medicaid Match $ 23,959,113 $ 0 77046
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 36,053,362 $ 7,889,633 77047

General Services Fund77048

5T90 038616 Problem Gambling Services $ 335,000 $ 335,000 77049
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 335,000 $ 335,000 77050

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group77051

3G40 038614 Substance Abuse Block Grant $ 69,000,000 $ 69,000,000 77052
3H80 038609 Demonstration Grants $ 8,675,580 $ 8,675,580 77053
3J80 038610 Medicaid $ 69,200,000 $ 0 77054
3N80 038611 Administrative Reimbursement $ 300,000 $ 300,000 77055
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 77056
Fund Group $ 147,175,580 $ 77,975,580 77057

State Special Revenue Fund Group77058

4750 038621 Statewide Treatment and Prevention $ 16,000,000 $ 14,000,000 15,000,000 77059
5JL0 038629 Problem Casino Gambling and Addictions Fund $ 226,612 $ 5,446,364 77060
5JW0 038615 Board Match Reimbursement $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 77061
6890 038604 Education and Conferences $ 75,000 $ 75,000 77062
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 77063
Fund Group $ 19,075,000 19,301,612 $ 17,075,000 23,521,364 77064
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 202,638,942 202,865,554 $ 103,275,213 109,721,577 77065


       Sec. 215.20.  ALCOHOL AND DRUG ADDICTION MEDICAID MATCH77067

       (A) As used in this section, "community alcohol and drug 77068
addiction Medicaid services" means services provided under the 77069
component, or aspect of the component, of the Medicaid program 77070
that the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 77071
administers pursuant to a contract entered into with the 77072
Department of Job and Family Services under section 5111.91 of the 77073
Revised Code.77074

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, the foregoing 77075
appropriation item 038501, Medicaid Match, shall be used by the 77076
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services to make payments 77077
for community alcohol and drug addiction Medicaid services.77078

       (C) For state fiscal year 2012, the Department shall allocate 77079
foregoing appropriation item 038501, Medicaid Match, and a portion 77080
of appropriation item 038621, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 77081
to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 77082
in accordance with a distribution methodology the Department shall 77083
establish. Notwithstanding sections 5111.911 and 5111.913 of the 77084
Revised Code, the boards shall use the funds allocated to them 77085
under this section to pay claims for community alcohol and drug 77086
addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012. The 77087
boards shall use all federal financial participation that the 77088
Department receives for claims paid for community alcohol and drug 77089
addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012 as 77090
the first payment source to pay claims for community alcohol and 77091
drug addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012. 77092
The boards are not required to use any funds other than the funds 77093
allocated to them under this section and the federal financial 77094
participation received for claims for community alcohol and drug 77095
addiction Medicaid services provided during fiscal year 2012 to 77096
pay for such claims.77097

       (D) The Department shall enter into an agreement with each 77098
board regarding the issue of paying claims that are for community 77099
alcohol and drug addiction Medicaid services provided before July 77100
1, 2011, and submitted for payment on or after that date. Such 77101
claims shall be paid in accordance with the agreements. A board 77102
shall receive the federal financial participation received for 77103
claims for community alcohol and drug addiction Medicaid services 77104
that were provided before July 1, 2011, and paid by the board.77105

       STATEWIDE TREATMENT AND PREVENTION77106

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 038621, Statewide 77107
Treatment and Prevention, up to $1,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 77108
shall be used to fund the pilot program for opioid- and 77109
alcohol-dependent offenders established under Section 737.70 of 77110
H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.77111

       Sec. 223.10. AGO ATTORNEY GENERAL77112

General Revenue Fund77113

GRF 055321 Operating Expenses $ 42,514,169 $ 42,514,169 77114
GRF 055405 Law-Related Education $ 100,000 $ 100,000 77115
GRF 055411 County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement $ 757,921 $ 757,921 77116
GRF 055415 County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement $ 831,499 $ 831,499 77117
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 44,203,589 $ 44,203,589 77118

General Services Fund Group77119

1060 055612 General Reimbursement $ 43,357,968 $ 43,011,277 77120
1950 055660 Workers' Compensation Section $ 8,415,504 $ 8,415,504 77121
4180 055615 Charitable Foundations $ 7,286,000 $ 7,286,000 77122
4200 055603 Attorney General Antitrust $ 1,871,674 $ 1,839,074 77123
4210 055617 Police Officers' Training Academy Fee $ 2,124,942 $ 2,088,805 77124
4Z20 055609 BCI Asset Forfeiture and Cost Reimbursement $ 1,529,685 $ 1,521,731 77125
5900 055633 Peace Officer Private Security Fund $ 98,370 $ 98,370 77126
5A90 055618 Telemarketing Fraud Enforcement $ 7,500 $ 7,500 77127
5L50 055619 Law Enforcement Assistance Program $ 300,222 $ 0 77128
5LR0 055655 Peace Officer Training - Casino $ 192,620 $ 4,629,409 77129
6310 055637 Consumer Protection Enforcement $ 3,799,115 $ 3,718,973 77130
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 77131
Group $ 68,790,980 68,983,600 $ 67,987,234 72,616,643 77132

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group77133

3060 055620 Medicaid Fraud Control $ 4,211,235 $ 4,122,399 77134
3810 055611 Civil Rights Legal Service $ 402,540 $ 402,540 77135
3830 055634 Crime Victims Assistance $ 13,000,000 $ 13,000,000 77136
3E50 055638 Attorney General Pass-Through Funds $ 1,223,606 $ 1,222,172 77137
3R60 055613 Attorney General Federal Funds $ 3,823,251 $ 3,673,251 77138
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 77139
Fund Group $ 22,660,632 $ 22,420,362 77140

State Special Revenue Fund Group77141

4020 055616 Victims of Crime $ 26,000,000 $ 26,000,000 77142
4170 055621 Domestic Violence Shelter $ 25,000 $ 25,000 77143
4190 055623 Claims Section $ 44,197,843 $ 41,953,025 77144
4L60 055606 DARE Programs $ 4,477,962 $ 4,477,962 77145
4Y70 055608 Title Defect Recision $ 600,000 $ 600,000 77146
6590 055641 Solid and Hazardous Waste Background Investigations $ 662,227 $ 651,049 77147
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 77148
Fund Group $ 75,963,032 $ 73,707,036 77149

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group77150

R004 055631 General Holding Account $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 77151
R005 055632 Antitrust Settlements $ 1,000 $ 1,000 77152
R018 055630 Consumer Frauds $ 750,000 $ 750,000 77153
R042 055601 Organized Crime Commission Distributions $ 25,025 $ 25,025 77154
R054 055650 Collection Outside Counsel Payments $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 77155
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 77156
Redistribution Fund Group $ 6,276,025 $ 6,276,025 77157

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group77158

J087 055635 Law Enforcement Technology, Training, and Facility Enhancements $ 2,300,000 $ 0 77159
U087 055402 Tobacco Settlement Oversight, Administration, and Enforcement $ 2,527,992 $ 2,514,690 77160
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 4,827,992 $ 2,514,690 77161
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 222,722,250 222,914,870 $ 217,108,936 221,738,345 77162

       COUNTY SHERIFFS' PAY SUPPLEMENT77163

        The foregoing appropriation item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay 77164
Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 77165
annual compensation of county sheriffs as required by section 77166
325.06 of the Revised Code.77167

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 77168
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 77169
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 77170
item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation so 77171
transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation of 77172
county sheriffs as required by section 325.06 of the Revised Code.77173

       COUNTY PROSECUTORS' PAY SUPPLEMENT77174

       The foregoing appropriation item 055415, County Prosecutors' 77175
Pay Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 77176
annual compensation of certain county prosecutors as required by 77177
section 325.111 of the Revised Code.77178

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 77179
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 77180
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 77181
item 055415, County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation 77182
so transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation 77183
of county prosecutors as required by section 325.111 of the 77184
Revised Code.77185

       GENERAL REIMBURSEMENT FUND77186

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 77187
on July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director 77188
of Budget and Management shall transfer $160,000 cash from the 77189
General Revenue Fund to the General Reimbursement Fund (Fund 1060) 77190
used by the Office of the Attorney General.77191

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION SECTION77192

       The Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 1950) is entitled to 77193
receive payments from the Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the 77194
Ohio Industrial Commission at the beginning of each quarter of 77195
each fiscal year to fund legal services to be provided to the 77196
Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Ohio Industrial Commission 77197
during the ensuing quarter. The advance payment shall be subject 77198
to adjustment.77199

       In addition, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation shall 77200
transfer payments at the beginning of each quarter for the support 77201
of the Workers' Compensation Fraud Unit.77202

       All amounts shall be mutually agreed upon by the Attorney 77203
General, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation, and the Ohio 77204
Industrial Commission.77205

       ATTORNEY GENERAL PASS-THROUGH FUNDS77206

        The foregoing appropriation item 055638, Attorney General 77207
Pass-Through Funds, shall be used to receive federal grant funds 77208
provided to the Attorney General by other state agencies, 77209
including, but not limited to, the Department of Youth Services 77210
and the Department of Public Safety.77211

       GENERAL HOLDING ACCOUNT77212

       The foregoing appropriation item 055631, General Holding 77213
Account, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 77214
relevant court orders or other settlements received in a variety 77215
of cases involving the Office of the Attorney General. If it is 77216
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 77217
the amounts are hereby appropriated.77218

        ANTITRUST SETTLEMENTS77219

       The foregoing appropriation item 055632, Antitrust 77220
Settlements, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 77221
relevant court orders or other out of court settlements in 77222
antitrust cases or antitrust matters involving the Office of the 77223
Attorney General. If it is determined that additional amounts are 77224
necessary for this purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.77225

       CONSUMER FRAUDS77226

        The foregoing appropriation item 055630, Consumer Frauds, 77227
shall be used for distribution of moneys from court-ordered 77228
judgments against sellers in actions brought by the Office of 77229
Attorney General under sections 1334.08 and 4549.48 and division 77230
(B) of section 1345.07 of the Revised Code. These moneys shall be 77231
used to provide restitution to consumers victimized by the fraud 77232
that generated the court-ordered judgments. If it is determined 77233
that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, the 77234
amounts are hereby appropriated.77235

       ORGANIZED CRIME COMMISSION DISTRIBUTIONS77236

        The foregoing appropriation item 055601, Organized Crime 77237
Commission Distributions, shall be used by the Organized Crime 77238
Investigations Commission, as provided by section 177.011 of the 77239
Revised Code, to reimburse political subdivisions for the expenses 77240
the political subdivisions incur when their law enforcement 77241
officers participate in an organized crime task force. If it is 77242
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 77243
the amounts are hereby appropriated.77244

       COLLECTION OUTSIDE COUNSEL PAYMENTS77245

        The foregoing appropriation item 055650, Collection Outside 77246
Counsel Payments, shall be used for the purpose of paying 77247
contingency counsel fees for cases where debtors mistakenly paid 77248
the client agencies instead of the Attorney General's Revenue 77249
Recovery/Collections Enforcement Section. If it is determined that 77250
additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are 77251
hereby appropriated.77252

       Sec. 229.10. OBM OFFICE OF BUDGET AND MANAGEMENT77253

General Revenue Fund77254

GRF 042321 Budget Development and Implementation $ 2,362,025 $ 2,378,166 2,353,166 77255
GRF 042409 Commission Closures $ 50,000 $ 50,000 77256
GRF 042416 Office of Health Transformation $ 306,285 $ 0 499,252 77257
GRF 042423 Liquor Enterprise Transaction $ 500,000 $ 0 77258
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,218,310 $ 2,428,166 2,902,418 77259

General Services Fund Group77260

1050 042603 State Accounting and Budgeting $ 21,917,230 21,158,069 $ 22,006,331 22,262,185 77261
5N40 042602 OAKS Project Implementation $ 1,358,000 $ 1,309,500 1,296,000 77262
5Z80 042608 Office of Health Transformation Administration $ 57,752 $ 0 77263
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 23,332,982 22,573,821 $ 23,315,831 23,558,185 77264

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group77265

3CM0 042606 Office of Health Transformation - Federal $ 384,037 $ 145,500 438,723 77266
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 384,037 $ 145,500 438,723 77267

Agency Fund Group77268

5EH0 042604 Forgery Recovery $ 50,000 $ 50,000 49,000 77269
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 50,000 $ 50,000 49,000 77270
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 26,985,329 26,226,168 $ 25,939,497 26,948,326 77271

       COMMISSION CLOSURES77272

       The foregoing appropriation item 042409, Commission Closures, 77273
may be used to pay obligations associated with the closure of the 77274
Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management, the 77275
School Employees Health Care Board, the Legal Rights Service, and 77276
the Workers' Compensation Council. Notwithstanding any provision 77277
of law to the contrary, this appropriation item may also be used 77278
to pay final payroll expenses occurring after the closure of the 77279
Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management, the 77280
School Employees Health Care Board, the Legal Rights Service, and 77281
the Workers' Compensation Council in the event that appropriations 77282
or cash in the closing agency are insufficient to do so. 77283

       The Director of Budget and Management may request Controlling 77284
Board approval for funds to be transferred to appropriation item 77285
042409, Commission Closures, from appropriation item 911614, CB 77286
Emergency Purposes, for anticipated expenses associated with 77287
agency closures.77288

       LIQUOR ENTERPRISE TRANSACTION77289

       The foregoing appropriation item 042423, Liquor Enterprise 77290
Transaction, shall be used by the Director of Budget and 77291
Management, without need for any other approval, to retain or 77292
contract for the services of commercial appraisers, underwriters, 77293
investment bankers, and financial advisers, as are necessary in 77294
the Director's judgment to commence negotiation of the transfer 77295
agreement referred to in sections 4313.01 and 4313.02 of the 77296
Revised Code, as enacted by this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 77297
129th General Assembly. Any amounts expended from appropriation 77298
item 042423 shall be reimbursed from the proceeds of the 77299
enterprise acquisition project transaction authorized in those 77300
sections.77301

       The Director of Budget and Management, in consultation with 77302
the Director of Commerce, may negotiate an initial agreement with 77303
JobsOhio, which shall be executed by the Directors of Budget and 77304
Management and Commerce upon its completion. 77305

       AUDIT COSTS AND DUES77306

       All centralized audit costs associated with either Single 77307
Audit Schedules or financial statements prepared in conformance 77308
with generally accepted accounting principles for the state shall 77309
be paid from the foregoing appropriation item 042603, State 77310
Accounting and Budgeting.77311

       Costs associated with the audit of the Auditor of State and 77312
national association dues shall be paid from the foregoing 77313
appropriation item 042321, Budget Development and Implementation.77314

       SHARED SERVICES CENTER77315

       The Director of Budget and Management shall use the OAKS 77316
Project Implementation Fund (Fund 5N40) and the Accounting and 77317
Budgeting Fund (Fund 1050) to support a Shared Services Center 77318
within the Office of Budget and Management for the purpose of 77319
consolidating statewide business functions and common 77320
transactional processes.77321

        The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 77322
recovery of costs to operate the Shared Services Center in the 77323
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 77324
direct charge using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies for 77325
services rendered. The Director of Budget and Management shall 77326
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 77327
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of Fund 1050.77328

       INTERNAL CONTROL AND AUDIT OVERSIGHT77329

       The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 77330
recovery of costs to operate the Internal Control and Audit 77331
Oversight Program in the accounting and budgeting services payroll 77332
rate and through a direct charge using intrastate transfer 77333
vouchers to agencies reviewed by the program. The Director of 77334
Budget and Management, with advice from the Internal Audit 77335
Advisory Council, shall determine the cost recovery methodology. 77336
Such cost recovery revenues shall be deposited to the credit of 77337
the Accounting and Budgeting Fund (Fund 1050).77338

       FORGERY RECOVERY77339

       The foregoing appropriation item 042604, Forgery Recovery, 77340
shall be used to reissue warrants that have been certified as 77341
forgeries by the rightful recipient as determined by the Bureau of 77342
Criminal Identification and Investigation and the Treasurer of 77343
State. Upon receipt of funds to cover the reissuance of the 77344
warrant, the Director of Budget and Management shall reissue a 77345
state warrant of the same amount.77346

       GRF TRANSFER TO THE OAKS PROJECT IMPLEMENTATION FUND77347

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 77348
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 77349
an amount not to exceed $1,100,000 in cash from the General 77350
Revenue Fund to the OAKS Project Implementation Fund (Fund 5N40).77351

       Sec. 243.10. COM DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE77352

General Services Fund Group77353

1630 800620 Division of Administration $ 6,200,000 $ 6,200,000 77354
1630 800637 Information Technology $ 5,999,892 $ 6,011,977 77355
5430 800602 Unclaimed Funds-Operating $ 7,836,107 $ 7,841,473 77356
5430 800625 Unclaimed Funds-Claims $ 69,700,000 $ 69,800,000 68,000,000 77357
5F10 800635 Small Government Fire Departments $ 300,000 $ 300,000 77358
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 77359
Group $ 90,035,999 $ 90,153,450 88,353,450 77360

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group77361

3480 800622 Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,129,518 $ 1,129,518 77362
3480 800624 Leaking Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,556,211 $ 1,556,211 77363
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 77364
Fund Group $ 2,685,729 $ 2,685,729 77365

State Special Revenue Fund Group77366

4B20 800631 Real Estate Appraisal Recovery $ 35,000 $ 35,000 77367
4H90 800608 Cemeteries $ 268,067 $ 268,293 77368
4X20 800619 Financial Institutions $ 2,186,271 $ 1,990,693 1,970,786 77369
5440 800612 Banks $ 7,242,364 $ 6,942,336 6,872,913 77370
5450 800613 Savings Institutions $ 2,257,220 $ 2,259,536 77371
5460 800610 Fire Marshal $ 15,400,000 $ 15,501,562 15,484,574 77372
5460 800639 Fire Department Grants $ 1,698,802 $ 1,698,802 77373
5470 800603 Real Estate Education/Research $ 125,000 $ 125,000 80,655 77374
5480 800611 Real Estate Recovery $ 25,000 $ 25,000 77375
5490 800614 Real Estate $ 3,413,708 $ 3,332,308 77376
5500 800617 Securities $ 4,312,434 $ 4,314,613 4,271,467 77377
5520 800604 Credit Union $ 3,450,390 $ 3,450,390 3,415,886 77378
5530 800607 Consumer Finance $ 3,613,016 $ 3,516,861 3,481,692 77379
5560 800615 Industrial Compliance $ 27,639,372 $ 27,664,695 27,388,048 77380
5FW0 800616 Financial Literacy Education $ 240,000 $ 240,000 200,000 77381
5GK0 800609 Securities Investor Education/Enforcement $ 1,135,000 $ 485,000 480,150 77382
5HV0 800641 Cigarette Enforcement $ 120,000 $ 120,000 118,800 77383
5LN0 800645 Liquor Operating Services $ 0 $ 5,500,000 77384
5LP0 800646 Liquor Regulatory Operating Expense $ 0 $ 8,500,000 77385
5X60 800623 Video Service $ 340,299 $ 340,630 337,224 77386
6530 800629 UST Registration/Permit Fee $ 1,854,675 $ 1,509,653 1,494,556 77387
6A40 800630 Real Estate Appraiser-Operating $ 699,565 $ 648,890 77388
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 77389
Fund Group $ 76,056,183 $ 74,469,262 87,864,580 77390

Liquor Control Fund Group77391

7043 800601 Merchandising $ 472,209,274 $ 0 77392
7043 800627 Liquor Control Operating $ 13,398,274 $ 10,110,479 1,509,374 77393
7043 800633 Development Assistance Debt Service $ 51,973,200 $ 0 77394
7043 800636 Revitalization Debt Service $ 21,129,800 $ 0 77395
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control 77396
Fund Group $ 558,710,548 $ 10,110,479 1,509,374 77397
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 727,488,459 $ 177,418,920 180,413,133 77398

       SMALL GOVERNMENT FIRE DEPARTMENTS77399

       Notwithstanding section 3737.17 of the Revised Code, the 77400
foregoing appropriation item 800635, Small Government Fire 77401
Departments, may be used to provide loans to private fire 77402
departments.77403

       UNCLAIMED FUNDS PAYMENTS77404

       The foregoing appropriation item 800625, Unclaimed 77405
Funds-Claims, shall be used to pay claims under section 169.08 of 77406
the Revised Code. If it is determined that additional amounts are 77407
necessary, the amounts are appropriated.77408

       UNCLAIMED FUNDS TRANSFERS77409

        Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the Revised 77410
Code, during the FY 2012-FY 2013 biennium, the Director of Budget 77411
and Management shall request the Director of Commerce to transfer 77412
to the General Revenue Fund up to $215,000,000 of unclaimed funds 77413
that have been reported by holders of unclaimed funds under 77414
section 169.05 of the Revised Code, irrespective of the allocation 77415
of the unclaimed funds under that section. The Director of 77416
Commerce shall transfer the funds at the times requested by the 77417
Director of Budget and Management.77418

       FIRE DEPARTMENT GRANTS77419

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, Fire Department 77420
Grants, up to $1,647,140 in each fiscal year shall be used to make 77421
annual grants to the following eligible recipients: volunteer fire 77422
departments, fire departments that serve one or more small 77423
municipalities or small townships, joint fire districts comprised 77424
of fire departments that primarily serve small municipalities or 77425
small townships, local units of government responsible for such 77426
fire departments, and local units of government responsible for 77427
the provision of fire protection services for small municipalities 77428
or small townships. For the purposes of these grants, a private 77429
fire company, as that phrase is defined in section 9.60 of the 77430
Revised Code, that is providing fire protection services under a 77431
contract to a political subdivision of the state, is an additional 77432
eligible recipient for a training grant.77433

       Eligible recipients that consist of small municipalities or 77434
small townships that all intend to contract with the same fire 77435
department or private fire company for fire protection services 77436
may jointly apply and be considered for a grant. If a joint 77437
applicant is awarded a grant, the State Fire Marshal shall, if 77438
feasible, proportionately award the grant and any equipment 77439
purchased with grant funds to each of the joint applicants based 77440
upon each applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for 77441
fire protection services.77442

       If the grant awarded to joint applicants is an equipment 77443
grant and the equipment to be purchased cannot be readily 77444
distributed or possessed by multiple recipients, each of the joint 77445
applicants shall be awarded by the State Fire Marshal an ownership 77446
interest in the equipment so purchased in proportion to each 77447
applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for fire 77448
protection services. The joint applicants shall then mutually 77449
agree on how the equipment is to be maintained, operated, stored, 77450
or disposed of. If, for any reason, the joint applicants cannot 77451
agree as to how jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, 77452
operated, stored, or disposed of or any of the joint applicants no 77453
longer maintain a contract with the same fire protection service 77454
provider as the other applicants, then the joint applicants shall, 77455
with the assistance of the State Fire Marshal, mutually agree as 77456
to how the jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, operated, 77457
stored, disposed of, or owned. If the joint applicants cannot 77458
agree how the grant equipment is to be maintained, operated, 77459
stored, disposed of, or owned, the State Fire Marshal may, in its 77460
discretion, require all of the equipment acquired by the joint 77461
applicants with grant funds to be returned to the State Fire 77462
Marshal. The State Fire Marshal may then award the returned 77463
equipment to any eligible recipients.77464

       The grants shall be used by recipients to purchase 77465
firefighting or rescue equipment or gear or similar items, to 77466
provide full or partial reimbursement for the documented costs of 77467
firefighter training, or, at the discretion of the State Fire 77468
Marshal, to cover fire department costs for providing fire 77469
protection services in that grant recipient's jurisdiction. 77470

       Grant awards for firefighting or rescue equipment or gear or 77471
for fire department costs of providing fire protection services 77472
shall be up to $15,000 per fiscal year, or up to $25,000 per 77473
fiscal year if an eligible entity serves a jurisdiction in which 77474
the Governor declared a natural disaster during the preceding or 77475
current fiscal year in which the grant was awarded. In addition to 77476
any grant funds awarded for rescue equipment or gear, or for fire 77477
department costs associated with the provision of fire protection 77478
services, an eligible entity may receive a grant for up to $15,000 77479
per fiscal year for full or partial reimbursement of the 77480
documented costs of firefighter training. For each fiscal year, 77481
the State Fire Marshal shall determine the total amounts to be 77482
allocated for each eligible purpose.77483

       The grant program shall be administered by the State Fire 77484
Marshal in accordance with rules the State Fire Marshal adopts as 77485
part of the state fire code adopted pursuant to section 3737.82 of 77486
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration and 77487
operation of the grant program. The rules may further define the 77488
entities eligible to receive grants and establish criteria for the 77489
awarding and expenditure of grant funds, including methods the 77490
State Fire Marshal may use to verify the proper use of grant funds 77491
or to obtain reimbursement for or the return of equipment for 77492
improperly used grant funds. Any amounts in appropriation item 77493
800639, Fire Department Grants, in excess of the amount allocated 77494
for these grants may be used for the administration of the grant 77495
program.77496

       CASH TRANSFERS TO THE DIVISION OF SECURITIES INVESTOR 77497
EDUCATION AND ENFORCEMENT EXPENSE FUND77498

       The Director of Budget and Management, upon the request of 77499
the Director of Commerce, shall transfer up to $485,000 in cash in 77500
each fiscal year from the Division of Securities Fund (Fund 5500) 77501
to the Division of Securities Investor Education and Enforcement 77502
Expense Fund (Fund 5GK0) created in section 1707.37 of the Revised 77503
Code. 77504

       CASH TRANSFER TO VIDEO SERVICE AUTHORIZATION FUND77505

       The Director of Budget and Management, upon the request of 77506
the Director of Commerce, shall transfer up to $340,000 in cash in 77507
each fiscal year from the Division of Administration Fund (Fund 77508
1630) to the Video Service Authorization Fund (Fund 5X60).77509

       INCREASED APPROPRIATION - MERCHANDISING77510

       The foregoing appropriation item 800601, Merchandising, shall 77511
be used under section 4301.12 of the Revised Code. If it is 77512
determined that additional expenditures are necessary, the amounts 77513
are hereby appropriated.77514

       DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE DEBT SERVICE77515

        The foregoing appropriation item 800633, Development 77516
Assistance Debt Service, shall be used to pay debt service and 77517
related financing costs at the times they are required to be made 77518
during the period from July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2012, for bond 77519
service charges on obligations issued under Chapter 166. of the 77520
Revised Code. If it is determined that additional appropriations 77521
are necessary for this purpose, such amounts are appropriated, 77522
subject to the limitations set forth in section 166.11 of the 77523
Revised Code. An appropriation for this purpose is not required, 77524
but is made in this form and in this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 77525
129th General Assembly for record purposes only.77526

        REVITALIZATION DEBT SERVICE77527

       The foregoing appropriation item 800636, Revitalization Debt 77528
Service, shall be used to pay debt service and related financing 77529
costs at the times they are required to be made pursuant to 77530
sections 151.01 and 151.40 of the Revised Code during the period 77531
from July 1, 2011, to June 30, 2012. If it is determined that 77532
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such 77533
amounts are hereby appropriated. The General Assembly acknowledges 77534
the priority of the pledge of a portion of receipts from that 77535
source to obligations issued and to be issued under Chapter 166. 77536
of the Revised Code.77537

        LIQUOR CONTROL FUND TRANSFER77538

        On January 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77539
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $10,600,000 77540
in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the Liquor Control Fund 77541
(Fund 7043) for the liquor permitting and compliance functions of 77542
the Division of Liquor Control in the Department of Commerce and 77543
for the operations of the Liquor Control Commission and the 77544
Department of Public Safety pursuant to Chapter 4301. of the 77545
Revised Code.77546

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77547
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $21,800,000 77548
in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the Liquor Control Fund 77549
(Fund 7043) for the liquor permitting and compliance functions of 77550
the Division of Liquor Control in the Department of Commerce and 77551
for the operations of the Liquor Control Commission and the 77552
Department of Public Safety pursuant to Chapter 4301. of the 77553
Revised Code.77554

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77555
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $500,000 in cash 77556
from the Liquor Control Fund (Fund 7043) to the State Liquor 77557
Regulatory Fund (Fund 5LP0) created in section 4301.30 of the 77558
Revised Code.77559

       ADMINISTRATIVE ASSESSMENTS77560

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 77561
the Division of Administration Fund (Fund 1630) is entitled to 77562
receive assessments from all operating funds of the Department in 77563
accordance with procedures prescribed by the Director of Commerce 77564
and approved by the Director of Budget and Management.77565

       Sec. 261.10.40. TRAVEL AND TOURISM77566

       The foregoing appropriation item 195407, Travel and Tourism, 77567
shall be used for marketing the state of Ohio as a tourism 77568
destination and to support administrative expenses and contracts 77569
necessary to market Ohio.77570

       STRATEGIC BUSINESS INVESTMENT DIVISION AND REGIONAL OFFICES77571
DEVELOPMENT SERVICES77572

       The foregoing appropriation item 195415, Strategic Business 77573
Investment Division and Regional OfficesDevelopment Services, 77574
shall be used for the operating expenses of the Strategic Business 77575
InvestmentServices Division and the regional economic development 77576
offices and for grants for cooperative economic development 77577
ventures.77578

       Sec. 261.10.70. CLEAN OHIO IMPLEMENTATION77579

        The foregoing appropriation item 195426, Clean Ohio 77580
Implementation, shall be used to fund the costs of administering 77581
the Clean Ohio Revitalization program and other urban 77582
revitalization programs that may be implemented by the Department 77583
of Development Services Agency.77584

       CDBG OPERATING MATCH77585

       The foregoing appropriation item 195497, CDBG Operating 77586
Match, shall be used as matching funds for grants from the United 77587
States Department of Housing and Urban Development pursuant to the 77588
Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 and regulations and 77589
policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.77590

       TECHNOLOGY PROGRAMS AND GRANTS77591

       The foregoing appropriation item 195532, Technology Programs 77592
and Grants, shall be used for the same purposes as funding 77593
previously appropriated for appropriation items 195401, Thomas 77594
Edison Program, and 195422, Technology Action. Of the foregoing 77595
appropriation item 195532, Technology Programs and Grants, up to 77596
$547,341 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used for operating expenses 77597
incurred in administering the Ohio Third Frontier pursuant to 77598
sections 184.10 to 184.20 of the Revised Code; and up to 77599
$13,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used for the Thomas 77600
Edison Program pursuant to sections 122.28 to 122.38 of the 77601
Revised Code, of which not more than ten per cent shall be used 77602
for operating expenses incurred in administering the program.77603

       BUSINESS ASSISTANCE77604

       The foregoing appropriation item 195533, Business Assistance, 77605
shall be used as matching funds for grants from the United States 77606
Small Business Administration and other federal agencies, pursuant 77607
to Public Law No. 96-302 as amended by Public Law No. 98-395, and 77608
regulations and policy guidelines for the programs pursuant 77609
thereto. This appropriation item also may be used to provide 77610
grants to local organizations to support economic development 77611
activities that promote minority business development, small 77612
business development, entrepreneurship, and exports of Ohio's 77613
goods and services.77614

       APPALACHIA ASSISTANCE77615

       The foregoing appropriation item 195535, Appalachia 77616
Assistance, may be used for the administrative costs of planning 77617
and liaison activities for the Governor's Office of Appalachia, to 77618
provide financial assistance to projects in Ohio's Appalachian 77619
counties, to pay dues for the Appalachian Regional Commission, and 77620
to match federal funds from the Appalachian Regional Commission.77621

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 195535, Appalachia 77622
Assistance, up to $440,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used to 77623
support four local development districts. Of that amount, up to 77624
$135,000 shall be allocated to the Ohio Valley Regional 77625
Development Commission, up to $135,000 shall be allocated to the 77626
Ohio Mid-Eastern Government Association, up to $135,000 shall be 77627
allocated to the Buckeye Hills-Hocking Valley Regional Development 77628
District, and up to $35,000 shall be allocated to the Eastgate 77629
Regional Council of Governments. Local development districts 77630
receiving funding under this section shall use the funds for the 77631
implementation and administration of programs and duties under 77632
section 107.21 of the Revised Code. 77633

       Sec. 261.20.40. SUPPORTIVEDEVELOPMENT SERVICES OPERATIONS77634

       The Director of Development Services may assess divisions77635
offices of the departmentagency for the cost of central service 77636
operations. An assessment shall contain the characteristics of 77637
administrative ease and uniform application. A division's payments 77638
shall be credited to the Supportive Services Fund (Fund 1350) 77639
using an intrastate transfer voucher.77640

       ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT CONTINGENCY77641

       The foregoing appropriation item 195677, Economic Development 77642
Contingency, may be used to award funds directly to either (1) 77643
business entities considering Ohio for expansion or new site 77644
location opportunities or (2) political subdivisions to assist 77645
with necessary costs involved in attracting a business entity. In 77646
addition, the Director of Development may award funds for 77647
alternative purposes when appropriate to satisfy an economic 77648
development opportunity or need deemed extraordinary in nature by 77649
the Director.77650

       LEGACY PROJECTS77651

       The foregoing appropriation item 195633, Legacy Projects, 77652
shall be used to support existing grant commitments to companies 77653
incurred prior to fiscal year 2013. A portion of the appropriation 77654
item may also be used to support administrative expenses and other 77655
costs associated with these projects.77656

       DIRECT COST RECOVERYDEVELOPMENT SERVICES REIMBURSABLE77657
EXPENDITURES77658

       The foregoing appropriation item 195636, Direct Cost Recovery77659
Development Services Reimbursable Expenditures, shall be used for 77660
reimbursable costs incurred by the agency. Revenues to the General 77661
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 6850) shall consist of moneys charged for 77662
administrative costs that are not central service costs.77663

       Sec. 261.20.50. WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT INITIATIVES77664

       Any unexpended and unencumbered portion of the foregoing 77665
appropriation item 195643, Workforce Development Initiatives, at 77666
the end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for the same 77667
purpose in fiscal year 2013.77668

       HEAP WEATHERIZATION77669

       Up to fifteen per cent of the federal funds deposited to the 77670
credit of the Home Energy Assistance Block Grant Fund (Fund 3K90) 77671
may be expended from appropriation item 195614, HEAP 77672
Weatherization, to provide home weatherization services in the 77673
state as determined by the Director of Development Services. Any 77674
transfers or increases in appropriation for the foregoing 77675
appropriation items 195614, HEAP Weatherization, or 195611, Home 77676
Energy Assistance Block Grant, shall be subject to approval by the 77677
Controlling Board.77678

       Sec. 261.20.60. BUSINESS ASSISTANCE PROGRAMS77679

       The foregoing appropriation item 195649, Business Assistance 77680
Programs, shall be used for administrative expenses associated 77681
with the operation of tax credit programs, loan servicing, the 77682
Ohio Film Office, and the Office of Strategic Business 77683
Investments, and for payments to the JobsOhio corporation 77684
established in Chapter 187. of the Revised Code for services 77685
provided for the administration of the 166 Direct Loan Program, 77686
Ohio Enterprise Bond Fund, Research and Development Loan Program, 77687
and Innovation Ohio Loan Program.77688

        STATE SPECIAL PROJECTS77689

       The State Special Projects Fund (Fund 4F20), may be used for 77690
the deposit of private-sector funds from utility companies and for 77691
the deposit of other miscellaneous state funds. State moneys so 77692
deposited shallmay also be used to match federal housing grants 77693
for the homeless and to market economic development opportunities 77694
in the state. Private-sector moneys shall be deposited for use in 77695
appropriation item 195699, Utility Provided FundsCommunity 77696
Assistance, and shall be used to (1) pay the expenses of verifying 77697
the income-eligibility of HEAP applicants, (2) leverage additional 77698
federal funds, (3) fund special projects to assist homeless 77699
individualsincome-eligible veterans and families with services 77700
and energy assistance programs, (4) fund special projects to 77701
assist with the energy efficiency of households eligible to 77702
participate in the Percentage of Income Payment Plan, and (5) 77703
assist with training programs for agencies that administer 77704
low-income customer assistance programs.77705

       Sec. 261.20.80. MINORITY BUSINESS ENTERPRISE LOAN77706

       All repayments from the Minority Development Financing 77707
Advisory Board Loan Program and the Ohio Mini-Loan Guarantee 77708
Program shall be deposited in the State Treasury to the credit of 77709
the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund (Fund 4W10). Operating 77710
costs of administering the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund 77711
may be paid from the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund (Fund 77712
4W10).77713

       MINORITY BUSINESS BONDING FUND77714

       Notwithstanding Chapters 122., 169., and 175. of the Revised 77715
Code, the Director of Development Services may, upon the 77716
recommendation of the Minority Development Financing Advisory 77717
Board, pledge up to $10,000,000 in the fiscal year 2012-fiscal 77718
year 2013 biennium of unclaimed funds administered by the Director 77719
of Commerce and allocated to the Minority Business Bonding Program 77720
under section 169.05 of the Revised Code. The transfer of any cash 77721
by the Director of Budget and Management from the Department of 77722
Commerce's Unclaimed Funds Fund (Fund 5430) used by the Department 77723
of Commerce to the Department of Development's Minority Business 77724
Bonding Fund (Fund 4490) used by the Development Services Agency77725
shall occur, if requested by the Director of Development Services, 77726
only if such funds are needed for payment of losses arising from 77727
the Minority Business Bonding Program, and only after proceeds of 77728
the initial transfer of $2,700,000 by the Controlling Board to the 77729
Minority Business Bonding Program has been used for that purpose. 77730
Moneys transferred by the Director of Budget and Management from 77731
the Department of Commerce for this purpose may be moneys in 77732
custodial funds held by the Treasurer of State. If expenditures 77733
are required for payment of losses arising from the Minority 77734
Business Bonding Program, such expenditures shall be made from 77735
appropriation item 195623, Minority Business Bonding Contingency 77736
in the Minority Business Bonding Fund, and such amounts are hereby 77737
appropriated.77738

       Sec. 261.20.90. OHIO INCUMBENT WORKFORCE TRAINING VOUCHERS77739

       (A) On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77740
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to $20,000,000 77741
cash from the Economic Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used 77742
by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job 77743
Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development 77744
Services Agency.77745

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77746
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer up to $30,000,000 77747
cash from the Economic Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used 77748
by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job 77749
Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of Development 77750
Services Agency.77751

        (B) Of the foregoing appropriation item 195526, Ohio77752
Incumbent Workforce Job Training Vouchers, up to $20,000,000 in 77753
fiscal year 2012 and up to $30,000,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall 77754
be used to support the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher 77755
Program. The Director of Development Services and the Chief 77756
Investment Officer of JobsOhio may enter into an agreement to 77757
operate the program pursuant to the contract between the 77758
Department of Development Services Agency and JobsOhio under 77759
section 187.04 of the Revised Code. The agreement may include a 77760
provision for granting, loaning, or transferring funds from 77761
appropriation item 195526, Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training 77762
Vouchers, to JobsOhio to provide training for incumbent workers.77763

       Any unexpended and unencumbered portion of the foregoing 77764
appropriation item 195526, Incumbent Workforce Training Vouchers, 77765
at the end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for the 77766
same purpose in fiscal year 2013.77767

        (C) Regardless of any agreement between the Director and the 77768
Chief Investment Officer under division (B) of this section, the 77769
Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program shall conform to 77770
guidelines for the operation of the program, including, but not 77771
limited to, the following:77772

        (1) A requirement that a training voucher under the program 77773
shall not exceed $6,000 per worker per year;77774

       (2) A provision for an employer of an eligible employee to 77775
apply for a voucher on behalf of the eligible employee;77776

        (3) A provision for an eligible employee to apply directly 77777
for a training voucher with the pre-approval of the employee's 77778
employer; and77779

        (4) A requirement that an employee participating in the 77780
program, or the employee's employer, shall pay for not less than 77781
thirty-three per cent of the training costs under the program.77782

       DEFENSE DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE77783

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 77784
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 77785
$5,000,000 in cash from the Economic Development Projects Fund 77786
(Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio Incumbent 77787
Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the Department of77788
Development Services Agency. The transferred funds are hereby 77789
appropriated in appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 77790
Assistance.77791

       The foregoing appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 77792
Assistance, shall be used for economic development programs and 77793
the creation of new jobs to leverage and support mission gains at 77794
Department of Defense facilities in Ohio by working with future 77795
base realignment and closure activities and ongoing Department of 77796
Defense efficiency initiatives, assisting efforts to secure 77797
Department of Defense support contracts for Ohio companies, 77798
assessing and supporting regional job training and workforce 77799
development needs generated by the Department of Defense and the 77800
Ohio aerospace industry, and for expanding job training and 77801
economic development programs in human performance related 77802
initiatives. These funds shall be matched by private industry 77803
partners or the Department of Defense in an aggregate amount of 77804
$6,000,000 over the FY 2012-FY 2013 biennium.77805

       Any unexpended and unencumbered portion of the foregoing 77806
appropriation item 195622, Defense Development Assistance, at the 77807
end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for the same 77808
purpose in fiscal year 2013.77809

       WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT PROGRAMS77810

       The foregoing appropriation item 195655, Workforce 77811
Development Programs, may be used for the Ohio Workforce Guarantee 77812
Program to promote training through grants to businesses and, in 77813
the case of a business consortium, to the consortium for training 77814
and education providers for the reimbursement of eligible training 77815
expenses. Not more than ten per cent of appropriation item 195655, 77816
Workforce Development Programs, shall be used for administrative 77817
expenses related to the Ohio Workforce Guarantee Program.77818

       Sec. 261.30.10.  ADVANCED ENERGY FUNDLOAN PROGRAMS77819

       The foregoing appropriation item 195660, Advanced Energy Loan77820
Programs, shall be used to provide financial assistance to 77821
customers for eligible advanced energy projects for residential, 77822
commercial, and industrial business, local government, educational 77823
institution, nonprofit, and agriculture customers, and to pay for 77824
the program's administrative costs as provided in sections 4928.61 77825
to 4928.63 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the Director 77826
of Development Services.77827

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 77828
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 77829
$750,000 in cash from the Advanced Energy Fund (Fund 5M50) to the 77830
Alternative Fuel Transportation Grant Fund (Fund 5CG0).77831

       VOLUME CAP ADMINISTRATION77832

       The foregoing appropriation item 195654, Volume Cap 77833
Administration, shall be used for expenses related to the 77834
administration of the Volume Cap Program. Revenues received by the 77835
Volume Cap Administration Fund (Fund 6170) shall consist of 77836
application fees, forfeited deposits, and interest earned from the 77837
custodial account held by the Treasurer of State.77838

       Sec. 261.30.20. INNOVATION OHIO LOAN FUND77839

        The foregoing appropriation item 195664, Innovation Ohio, 77840
shall be used to provide for innovation Ohio purposes, including 77841
loan guarantees and loans under Chapter 166. and particularly 77842
sections 166.12 to 166.16 of the Revised Code.77843

       RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT77844

       The foregoing appropriation item 195665, Research and 77845
Development, shall be used to provide for research and development 77846
purposes, including loans, under Chapter 166. and particularly 77847
sections 166.17 to 166.21 of the Revised Code.77848

       LOGISTICS AND DISTRIBUTION INFRASTRUCTURE77849

       Appropriation item 195698, Logistics and Distribution 77850
Infrastructure, shall be used for eligible logistics and 77851
distribution infrastructure projects as defined in section 166.01 77852
of the Revised Code. Any unexpended and unencumbered portion of 77853
the appropriation item at the end of fiscal year 2011 is hereby 77854
reappropriated for the same purpose in fiscal year 2012, and any 77855
unexpended and unencumbered portion of the appropriation item at 77856
the end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for the same 77857
purpose in fiscal year 2013.77858

        After all encumbrances have been paid, the Director of Budget 77859
and Management shall transfer the remaining cash balance in the 77860
Logistics and Distribution Infrastructure Fund (Fund 7008) to the 77861
Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037).77862

       FACILITIES ESTABLISHMENT FUND77863

       The foregoing appropriation item 195615, Facilities 77864
Establishment (Fund 7037), shall be used for the purposes of the 77865
Facilities Establishment Fund under Chapter 166. of the Revised 77866
Code.77867

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, an amount 77868
not to exceed $1,000,000 in cash in fiscal year 2012 may be 77869
transferred from the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to 77870
the Economic Development Financing OperatingBusiness Assistance77871
Fund (Fund 4510). The transfer is subject to Controlling Board 77872
approval under division (B) of section 166.03 of the Revised Code.77873

        Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 77874
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 77875
exceed $2,500,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 77876
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Minority Business Enterprise 77877
Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).77878

       On July 1, 20112012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77879
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the unexpended 77880
and unencumbered cash balance in the Urban Development Loans Fund 77881
(Fund 5D20) to the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037).77882

       On July 1, 20112012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77883
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the unexpended 77884
and unencumbered cash balance in the Rural Industrial Park Loan 77885
Fund (Fund 4Z60) to the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037).77886

       CAPITAL ACCESS LOAN PROGRAM77887

       The foregoing appropriation item 195628, Capital Access Loan 77888
Program, shall be used for operating, program, and administrative 77889
expenses of the program. Funds of the Capital Access Loan Program 77890
shall be used to assist participating financial institutions in 77891
making program loans to eligible businesses that face barriers in 77892
accessing working capital and obtaining fixed-asset financing.77893

       Sec. 261.30.30. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES77894

       The foregoing appropriation item 195663, Clean Ohio 77895
OperatingProgram, shall be used by the Department of Development 77896
Services Agency in administering Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund 77897
(Fund 7003) projects pursuant to sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the 77898
Revised Code.77899

       Sec. 261.30.40.  THIRD FRONTIER OPERATING77900

       The foregoing appropriation items 195686, Third Frontier 77901
Operating, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, shall be 77902
used for operating expenses incurred by the Department of77903
Development Services Agency in administering projects pursuant to 77904
sections 184.10 to 184.20 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses 77905
paid from item 195686 shall be limited to the administration of 77906
projects funded from the Third Frontier Research & Development 77907
Fund (Fund 7011) and operating expenses paid from item 195620 77908
shall be limited to the administration of projects funded from the 77909
Third Frontier Research & Development Taxable Bond Project Fund 77910
(Fund 7014).77911

       Sec. 261.30.60. JOB READY SITE OPERATINGPROGRAM77912

       The foregoing appropriation item 195688, Job Ready Site 77913
OperatingProgram, shall be used for operating expenses incurred 77914
by the Department of Development Services Agency in administering 77915
Job Ready Site Development Fund (Fund 7012) projects pursuant to 77916
sections 122.085 to 122.0820 of the Revised Code. Operating 77917
expenses include, but are not limited to, certain qualified 77918
expenses of the District Public Works Integrating Committees, as 77919
applicable, engineering review of submitted applications by the 77920
State Architect or a third-party engineering firm, audit and 77921
accountability activities, and costs associated with formal 77922
certifications verifying that site infrastructure is in place and 77923
is functional.77924

       Sec. 261.30.70. OHIO COAL DEVELOPMENT OFFICE77925

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77926
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any unexpended 77927
and unencumbered portion of appropriation item 898604, Coal 77928
Research and Development Fund, used by the Ohio Air Quality 77929
Development Authority, to a new capital appropriation item in the 77930
Department of Development Services Agency, to be determined by the 77931
Director. The Director also shall cancel all outstanding 77932
encumbrances against appropriation item 898604, Coal Research and 77933
Development Fund, and reestablish them against the foregoing new 77934
capital appropriation item. The amounts of the transfer and the 77935
reestablished encumbrances, plus $2,283,264, are hereby 77936
appropriated for fiscal year 2012 in the foregoing new 77937
appropriation item and shall be used to provide funding for coal 77938
research and development purposes.77939

       Sec. 261.30.80. THIRD FRONTIER BIOMEDICAL RESEARCH AND 77940
COMMERCIALIZATION SUPPORT77941

       The General Assembly and the Governor recognize the role that 77942
the biomedical industry has in job creation, innovation, and 77943
economic development throughout Ohio. It is the intent of the 77944
General Assembly, the Governor, the Director of Development 77945
Services, and the Director of Budget and Management to work 77946
together in continuing to provide comprehensive state support for 77947
the biomedical industry.77948

       Sec. 261.30.90. UNCLAIMED FUNDS TRANSFER77949

       (A)(1) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the 77950
Revised Code, upon the request of the Director of Budget and 77951
Management, the Director of Commerce, before June 30, 2012, shall 77952
transfer to the Job Development Initiatives Fund (Fund 5AD0) an 77953
amount not to exceed $25,000,000 in cash of the unclaimed funds 77954
that have been reported by the holders of unclaimed funds under 77955
section 169.05 of the Revised Code, regardless of the allocation 77956
of the unclaimed funds described under that section.77957

       Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the Revised 77958
Code, upon the request of the Director of Budget and Management, 77959
the Director of Commerce, before June 30, 2013, shall transfer to 77960
the Job Development Initiatives Fund (Fund 5AD0) an amount not to 77961
exceed $15,000,00018,600,000 in cash of the unclaimed funds that 77962
have been reported by the holders of unclaimed funds under section 77963
169.05 of the Revised Code, regardless of the allocation of the 77964
unclaimed funds described under that section.77965

       (B)(2) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 169.05 of the 77966
Revised Code, upon the request of the Director of Budget and 77967
Management, the Director of Commerce, before June 30, 2012, shall 77968
transfer to the State Special Projects Fund (Fund 4F20) an amount 77969
not to exceed $5,000,000 in cash of the unclaimed funds that have 77970
been reported by the holders of unclaimed funds under section 77971
169.05 of the Revised Code, regardless of the allocation of the 77972
unclaimed funds described under that section.77973

       (B) ASSORTED TRANSFERS FOR RESTRUCTURING77974

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77975
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 77976
in the Water and Sewer Fund (Fund 4440) to the General 77977
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 6850).77978

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77979
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 77980
in the Water and Sewer Administration Fund (Fund 6110) to the 77981
General Reimbursement Fund (Fund 6850).77982

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77983
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 77984
in the Tax Incentive Programs Operating Fund (Fund 4S00) to the 77985
Business Assistance Fund (Fund 4510).77986

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 77987
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 77988
in the Brownfield Stormwater Loan Fund (Fund 5KD0) to the New 77989
Market Tax Credit Program Fund (Fund 5JR0).77990

       Sec. 261.40.10. WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT77991

       The Director of Development Services and the Director of Job 77992
and Family Services may enter into one or more interagency 77993
agreements between the two departments and take other actions the 77994
directors consider appropriate to further integrate workforce 77995
development into a larger economic development strategy, to 77996
implement the recommendations of the Workforce Policy Board, and 77997
to complete activities related to the transition of the 77998
administration of employment programs identified by the board. 77999
Subject to the approval of the Director of Budget and Management, 78000
the Department of Development Services Agency and the Department 78001
of Job and Family Services may expend moneys to support the 78002
recommendations of the Workforce Policy Board in the area of 78003
integration of employment functions as described in this paragraph 78004
and to complete implementation and transition activities from the 78005
appropriations to those departments.78006

       Sec. 263.10. DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES78007

General Revenue Fund78008

GRF 320321 Central Administration $ 4,422,794 $ 4,422,794 78009
GRF 320412 Protective Services $ 2,174,826 $ 1,957,343 78010
GRF 320415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 18,394,250 $ 19,907,900 17,907,900 78011
GRF 322407 Medicaid State Match $ 218,034,162 $ 214,902,506 78012
GRF 322420 Screening and Early Intervention $ 0 $ 300,000 78013
GRF 322451 Family Support Services $ 5,932,758 $ 5,932,758 78014
GRF 322501 County Boards Subsidies $ 40,906,365 $ 44,449,280 78015
GRF 322503 Tax Equity $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 78016
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 303,865,155 $ 305,572,581 303,872,581 78017

General Services Fund Group78018

1520 323609 Developmental Center and Residential Operating Services $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 78019
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 78020

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78021

3A50 320613 DD Council $ 3,341,572 $ 3,341,572 78022
3250 322612 Community Social Service Programs $ 11,017,754 $ 10,604,896 78023
3DZ0 322648 Enhanced Medicaid - Federal $ 10,000,000 $ 0 78024
3G60 322639 Medicaid Waiver - Federal $ 866,566,007 $ 985,566,007 78025
3M70 322650 CAFS Medicaid $ 29,349,502 $ 29,349,502 3,000,000 78026
3A40 323605 Developmental Center and Residential Facility Services and Support $ 180,266,029 $ 179,384,881 174,000,000 78027
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,100,540,864 $ 1,208,246,858 1,176,512,475 78028

State Special Revenue Fund Group78029

5GE0 320606 Operating and Services $ 7,406,609 $ 7,407,297 78030
2210 322620 Supplement Service Trust $ 150,000 $ 150,000 78031
4K80 322604 Medicaid Waiver - State Match $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 78032
5CT0 322632 Intensive Behavioral Needs $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 78033
5DJ0 322625 Targeted Case Management Match $ 21,000,000 $ 24,000,000 78034
5DJ0 322626 Targeted Case Management Services $ 57,307,357 $ 66,000,000 78035
5DK0 322629 Capital Replacement Facilities $ 750,000 $ 750,000 78036
5EV0 322627 Program Fees $ 685,000 $ 685,000 78037
5H00 322619 Medicaid Repayment $ 160,000 $ 160,000 78038
5JX0 322651 Interagency Workgroup - Autism $ 45,000 45,000 78039
5Z10 322624 County Board Waiver Match $ 235,000,000 $ 290,000,000 78040
4890 323632 Developmental Center Direct Care Support $ 16,497,170 $ 16,497,169 78041
5S20 590622 Medicaid Administration & Oversight $ 20,875,567 $ 21,727,540 78042
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 372,876,703 $ 440,422,006 78043
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,780,697,039 $ 1,957,655,762 1,924,221,379 78044


       Sec. 263.10.30. FAMILYSCREENING AND EARLY INTERVENTION78046

       The foregoing appropriation item 322420, Screening and Early 78047
Intervention, shall be used for screening and early intervention 78048
programs for children with autism selected by the Director.78049

       FAMILY SUPPORT SERVICES SUBSIDY78050

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 322451, Family Support 78051
Services, may be used as follows in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal 78052
year 2013:78053

       (1) The appropriation item may be used to provide a subsidy 78054
to county boards of developmental disabilities for family support 78055
services provided under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code. The 78056
subsidy shall be paid in quarterly installments and allocated to 78057
county boards according to a formula the Director of Developmental 78058
Disabilities shall develop in consultation with representatives of 78059
county boards. A county board shall use not more than seven per 78060
cent of its subsidy for administrative costs.78061

       (2) The appropriation item may be used to distribute funds to 78062
county boards for the purpose of addressing economic hardships and 78063
to promote efficiency of operations. In consultation with 78064
representatives of county boards, the Director shall determine the 78065
amount of funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria 78066
for distributing the funds.78067

       (B) Each county board shall submit reports to the Department 78068
of Developmental Disabilities on the use of funds received under 78069
this section. The reports shall be submitted at the times and in 78070
the manner specified in rules the Director shall adopt in 78071
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.78072

       Sec. 263.10.90. TARGETED CASE MANAGEMENT SERVICES78073

       County boards of developmental disabilities shall pay the 78074
nonfederal portion of targeted case management costs to the 78075
Department of Developmental Disabilities.78076

       The Directors of Developmental Disabilities and Job and 78077
Family Services may enter into an interagency agreement under 78078
which the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall transfer 78079
cash from the Targeted Case Management Fund (Fund 5DJ0) to the 78080
Medicaid Program Support - StateHealth Care/Medicaid Support and 78081
Recoveries Fund (Fund 5C905DL0) used by the Department of Job and 78082
Family Services in an amount equal to the nonfederal portion of 78083
the cost of targeted case management services paid by county 78084
boards, and the Department of Job and Family Services shall pay 78085
the total cost of targeted case management claims. The transfer 78086
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher.78087

       Sec. 263.20.40. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER 78088
PHARMACY PROGRAMS78089

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall quarterly 78090
transfer cash from the Medicaid - Medicare Fund (Fund 3A40) to the 78091
Medicaid Program Support - StateHealth Care/Medicaid Support and 78092
Recoveries Fund (Fund 5C905DL0) used by the Department of Job and 78093
Family Services, in an amount equal to the nonfederal share of 78094
Medicaid prescription drug claim costs for all developmental 78095
centers paid by the Department of Job and Family Services. The 78096
quarterly transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer 78097
voucher.78098

       Sec. 263.20.70.  RATE INCREASE FOR WAIVER PROVIDERS SERVING 78099
FORMER RESIDENTS OF DEVELOPMENTAL CENTERS OR RESIDENTS OF 78100
CONVERTED FACILITIES78101

       Subject(A) As used in this section, "converted facility" 78102
means an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded as 78103
defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code, or former 78104
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, that 78105
converted some or all of its beds to providing home and 78106
community-based services under the Individual Options Waiver 78107
pursuant to section 5111.874 of the Revised Code.78108

       (B) Subject to approval by the Centers for Medicare and 78109
Medicaid Services, the Department of Job and Family Services shall 78110
increase the rate paid to a provider under the Individual Options 78111
Waiver by fifty-two cents for each fifteen minutes of routine 78112
homemaker/personal care provided to an individual for up to a year 78113
if all of the following apply:78114

       (A)(1) The individual was a resident of a developmental 78115
center or converted facility immediately prior to enrollment in 78116
the waiver;78117

       (B)(2) The provider begins serving the individual on or after 78118
July 1, 2011;78119

       (C)(3) The Director of Developmental Disabilities determines 78120
that the increased rate is warranted by the individual's special 78121
circumstances, including the individual's diagnosis, service 78122
needs, or length of stay at the developmental center or converted 78123
facility, and that serving the individual through the Individual 78124
Options Waiver is fiscally prudent for the Medicaid program. 78125

       Sec. 267.10. EDU DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION78126

General Revenue Fund78127

GRF 200100 Personal Services $ 8,579,178 $ 8,579,178 0 78128
GRF 200320 Maintenance and Equipment $ 2,830,407 $ 2,830,407 0 78129
GRF 200321 Operating Expenses $ 0 $ 13,142,780 78130
GRF 200408 Early Childhood Education $ 23,268,341 $ 23,268,341 78131
GRF 200416 Career-Technical Education Match $ 2,233,195 $ 2,233,195 0 78132
GRF 200420 Computer/Application/ Network Information Technology Development and Support $ 4,241,296 $ 4,241,296 78133
GRF 200421 Alternative Education Programs $ 7,403,998 $ 7,403,998 78134
GRF 200422 School Management Assistance $ 2,842,812 $ 3,000,000 78135
GRF 200424 Policy Analysis $ 328,558 $ 328,558 78136
GRF 200425 Tech Prep Consortia Support $ 260,542 $ 260,542 78137
GRF 200426 Ohio Educational Computer Network $ 17,974,489 $ 17,974,489 78138
GRF 200427 Academic Standards $ 4,346,060 $ 3,700,000 78139
GRF 200437 Student Assessment $ 55,002,167 $ 55,002,167 78140
GRF 200439 Accountability/Report Cards $ 3,579,279 $ 3,579,279 78141
GRF 200442 Child Care Licensing $ 827,140 $ 827,140 78142
GRF 200446 Education Management Information System $ 6,833,070 $ 6,833,070 78143
GRF 200447 GED Testing $ 879,551 $ 879,551 78144
GRF 200448 Educator Preparation $ 786,737 $ 786,737 78145
GRF 200455 Community Schools and Choice Programs $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 78146
GRF 200502 Pupil Transportation $ 438,248,936 $ 442,113,527 78147
GRF 200505 School Lunch Match $ 9,100,000 $ 9,100,000 78148
GRF 200511 Auxiliary Services $ 124,194,099 $ 126,194,099 78149
GRF 200532 Nonpublic Administrative Cost Reimbursement $ 56,164,384 $ 57,006,850 78150
GRF 200540 Special Education Enhancements $ 135,820,668 $ 135,820,668 78151
GRF 200545 Career-Technical Education Enhancements $ 8,802,699 $ 8,802,699 78152
GRF 200550 Foundation Funding $ 5,536,347,861 $ 5,610,290,686 5,612,562,311 78153
GRF 200901 Property Tax Allocation - Education $ 1,086,500,000 $ 1,095,000,000 78154
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,539,595,467 $ 7,628,256,477 7,630,028,102 78155

General Services Fund Group78156

1380 200606 Computer Services-Operational Information Technology Development and Support $ 7,600,090 $ 7,600,090 6,100,090 78157
4520 200638 Miscellaneous Educational Services Fees and Refunds $ 300,000 $ 300,000 78158
4L20 200681 Teacher Certification and Licensure $ 8,147,756 $ 8,147,756 78159
5960 200656 Ohio Career Information System $ 529,761 $ 529,761 78160
5H30 200687 School District Solvency Assistance $ 25,000,000 $ 25,000,000 78161
TOTAL GSF General Services 78162
Fund Group $ 41,577,607 $ 41,577,607 40,077,607 78163

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78164

3090 200601 Neglected and Delinquent Education $ 2,168,642 $ 2,168,642 78165
3670 200607 School Food Services $ 6,803,472 $ 6,959,906 78166
3690 200616 Career-Technical Education Federal Enhancement $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 78167
3700 200624 Education of Exceptional Children $ 1,905,000 $ 0 78168
3780 200660 Learn and Serve $ 619,211 $ 619,211 78169
3AF0 200603 Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims $ 639,000 $ 639,000 78170
3AN0 200671 School Improvement Grants $ 20,400,000 $ 20,400,000 78171
3AX0 200698 Improving Health and Educational Outcomes of Young People $ 630,954 $ 630,954 78172
3BK0 200628 Longitudinal Data Systems $ 500,000 $ 250,000 78173
3C50 200661 Early Childhood Education $ 14,554,749 $ 14,554,749 78174
3CG0 200646 Teacher Incentive Fund $ 1,925,881 $ 0 78175
3D10 200664 Drug Free Schools $ 1,500,000 $ 0 78176
3D20 200667 Math Science Partnerships $ 9,500,001 $ 9,500,001 78177
3DG0 200630 Federal Stimulus - McKinney Vento Grants $ 330,512 $ 0 78178
3DJ0 200699 IDEA Part B - Federal Stimulus $ 21,886,803 $ 0 78179
3DK0 200642 Title 1A - Federal Stimulus $ 18,633,673 $ 0 78180
3DL0 200650 IDEA Preschool - Federal Stimulus $ 670,000 $ 0 78181
3DM0 200651 Title IID Technology - Federal Stimulus $ 1,195,100 $ 0 78182
3DP0 200652 Title I School Improvement - Federal Stimulus $ 48,500,000 $ 30,000,000 78183
3EC0 200653 Teacher Incentive - Federal Stimulus $ 7,500,000 $ 7,500,000 78184
3EH0 200620 Migrant Education $ 2,645,905 $ 2,645,905 78185
3EJ0 200622 Homeless Children Education $ 1,759,782 $ 1,759,782 78186
3EN0 200655 State Data Systems - Federal Stimulus $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 78187
3ES0 200657 General Supervisory Enhancement Grant $ 500,000 $ 500,000 78188
3ET0 200658 Education Jobs Fund $ 300,000,000 $ 50,000,000 78189
3FD0 200665 Race to the Top $ 100,000,000 $ 100,000,000 78190
3FE0 200669 Striving Readers $ 180,000 $ 100,000 78191
3H90 200605 Head Start Collaboration Project $ 225,000 $ 225,000 78192
3L60 200617 Federal School Lunch $ 327,516,539 $ 337,323,792 78193
3L70 200618 Federal School Breakfast $ 87,596,850 $ 90,224,756 78194
3L80 200619 Child/Adult Food Programs $ 100,850,833 $ 103,876,359 78195
3L90 200621 Career-Technical Education Basic Grant $ 48,466,864 $ 48,466,864 78196
3M00 200623 ESEA Title 1A $ 530,010,000 $ 530,010,000 78197
3M20 200680 Individuals with Disabilities Education Act $ 443,170,050 $ 443,170,050 78198
3S20 200641 Education Technology $ 9,487,397 $ 9,487,397 78199
3T40 200613 Public Charter Schools $ 14,291,353 $ 14,291,353 78200
3Y20 200688 21st Century Community Learning Centers $ 43,720,462 $ 45,906,485 78201
3Y60 200635 Improving Teacher Quality $ 101,900,000 $ 101,900,000 78202
3Y70 200689 English Language Acquisition $ 8,373,995 $ 8,373,995 78203
3Y80 200639 Rural and Low Income Technical Assistance $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 78204
3Z20 200690 State Assessments $ 11,882,258 $ 11,882,258 78205
3Z30 200645 Consolidated Federal Grant Administration $ 8,949,280 $ 8,949,280 7,949,280 78206
TOTAL FED Federal Special 78207
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,310,389,566 $ 2,011,315,739 2,010,315,739 78208

State Special Revenue Fund Group78209

4540 200610 Guidance and GED Testing $ 1,050,000 $ 1,050,000 78210
4550 200608 Commodity Foods $ 24,000,000 $ 24,000,000 78211
4R70 200695 Indirect Operational Support $ 6,500,000 $ 6,600,000 78212
4V70 200633 Interagency Operational Program Support $ 1,117,725 $ 1,117,725 717,725 78213
5980 200659 Auxiliary Services Reimbursement $ 1,328,910 $ 1,328,910 78214
5BB0 200696 State Action for Education Leadership $ 231,300 $ 0 78215
5BJ0 200626 Half-Mill Maintenance Equalization $ 17,300,000 $ 18,000,000 78216
5U20 200685 National Education Statistics $ 300,000 $ 300,000 78217
6200 200615 Educational Improvement Grants $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 78218
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 78219
Fund Group $ 54,827,935 $ 55,396,635 54,996,635 78220

Lottery Profits Education Fund Group78221

7017 200612 Foundation Funding $ 717,500,000 $ 680,500,000 78222
TOTAL LPE Lottery Profits 78223
Education Fund Group $ 717,500,000 $ 680,500,000 78224

Revenue Distribution Fund Group78225

7047 200909 School District Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 722,000,000 $ 475,000,000 78226
7053 200900 School District Property Tax Replacement-Utility $ 34,000,000 $ 30,000,000 78227
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 78228
Fund Group $ 756,000,000 $ 505,000,000 78229
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,419,890,575 $ 10,922,046,458 10,920,918,083 78230


       Sec. 267.10.10. OPERATING EXPENSES78232

       The foregoing appropriation item 200321, Operating Expenses, 78233
shall be used to support the same activities as are supported 78234
prior to July 1, 2012, by appropriation items 200100, Personal 78235
Services, and 200320, Maintenance and Equipment. A portion of this 78236
appropriation item also shall be used by the Department of 78237
Education to provide matching funds under 20 U.S.C. 2321, which 78238
are provided by appropriation item 200416, Career-Technical 78239
Education Match, prior to July 1, 2012. 78240

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 78241
Director of Budget and Management shall cancel any existing 78242
encumbrances against appropriation items 200100, Personal 78243
Services, 200320, Maintenance and Equipment, and 200416, 78244
Career-Technical Education Match, and reestablish them against 78245
appropriation item 200321, Operating Expenses. The reestablished 78246
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 78247

       EARLY CHILDHOOD EDUCATION78248

       The Department of Education shall distribute the foregoing 78249
appropriation item 200408, Early Childhood Education, to pay the 78250
costs of early childhood education programs. 78251

       (A) As used in this section:78252

       (1) "Provider" means a city, local, exempted village, or 78253
joint vocational school district, or an educational service 78254
center.78255

       (2) In the case of a city, local, or exempted village school 78256
district, "new eligible provider" means a district that did not 78257
receive state funding for Early Childhood Education in the 78258
previous fiscal year or demonstrates a need for early childhood 78259
programs as defined in division (D) of this section.78260

       (3) "Eligible child" means a child who is at least three 78261
years of age as of the district entry date for kindergarten, is 78262
not of the age to be eligible for kindergarten, and whose family 78263
earns not more than two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 78264
guidelines as defined in division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the 78265
Revised Code. Children with an Individualized Education Program 78266
and where the Early Childhood Education program is the least 78267
restrictive environment may be enrolled on their third birthday.78268

       (B) In each fiscal year, up to two per cent of the total 78269
appropriation may be used by the Department for program support 78270
and technical assistance. The Department shall distribute the 78271
remainder of the appropriation in each fiscal year to serve 78272
eligible children.78273

       (C) The Department shall provide an annual report to the 78274
Governor, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the 78275
President of the Senate and post the report to the Department's 78276
web site, regarding early childhood education programs operated 78277
under this section and the early learning program guidelines.78278

       (D) After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from 78279
the previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2012, the Department 78280
shall distribute funds first to recipients of funds for early 78281
childhood education programs under Section 265.10.20 of Am. Sub. 78282
H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly in the previous fiscal year 78283
and the balance to new eligible providers of early childhood 78284
education programs under this section or to existing providers to 78285
serve more eligible children or for purposes of program expansion, 78286
improvement, or special projects to promote quality and 78287
innovation.78288

       After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from the 78289
previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2013, the Department shall 78290
distribute funds first to providers of early childhood education 78291
programs under this section in the previous fiscal year and the 78292
balance to new eligible providers or to existing providers to 78293
serve more eligible children or for purposes of program expansion, 78294
improvement, or special projects to promote quality and 78295
innovation.78296

        Awards under this section shall be distributed on a per-pupil 78297
basis, and in accordance with division (H) of this section. The 78298
Department may adjust the per-pupil amount so that the per-pupil 78299
amount multiplied by the number of eligible children enrolled and 78300
receiving services on the first day of December or the business 78301
day closest to that date equals the amount allocated under this 78302
section.78303

       (E) Costs for developing and administering an early childhood 78304
education program may not exceed fifteen per cent of the total 78305
approved costs of the program.78306

       All providers shall maintain such fiscal control and 78307
accounting procedures as may be necessary to ensure the 78308
disbursement of, and accounting for, these funds. The control of 78309
funds provided in this program, and title to property obtained, 78310
shall be under the authority of the approved provider for purposes 78311
provided in the program unless, as described in division (J) of 78312
this section, the program waives its right for funding or a 78313
program's funding is eliminated or reduced due to its inability to 78314
meet financial or early learning program guidelines. The approved 78315
provider shall administer and use such property and funds for the 78316
purposes specified.78317

       (F) The Department may examine a provider's financial and 78318
program records. If the financial practices of the program are not 78319
in accordance with standard accounting principles or do not meet 78320
financial standards outlined under division (E) of this section, 78321
or if the program fails to substantially meet the early learning 78322
program guidelines, meet a quality rating level in the tiered 78323
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 78324
5104.30 of the Revised Code as prescribed by the Department, or 78325
exhibits below average performance as measured against the 78326
guidelines, the early childhood education program shall propose 78327
and implement a corrective action plan that has been approved by 78328
the Department. The approved corrective action plan shall be 78329
signed by the chief executive officer and the executive of the 78330
official governing body of the provider. The corrective action 78331
plan shall include a schedule for monitoring by the Department. 78332
Such monitoring may include monthly reports, inspections, a 78333
timeline for correction of deficiencies, and technical assistance 78334
to be provided by the Department or obtained by the early 78335
childhood education program. The Department may withhold funding 78336
pending corrective action. If an early childhood education program 78337
fails to satisfactorily complete a corrective action plan, the 78338
Department may deny expansion funding to the program or withdraw 78339
all or part of the funding to the program and establish a new 78340
eligible provider through a selection process established by the 78341
Department.78342

       (G) Each early childhood education program shall do all of 78343
the following:78344

       (1) Meet teacher qualification requirements prescribed by 78345
section 3301.311 of the Revised Code;78346

       (2) Align curriculum to the early learning content standards 78347
developed by the Department;78348

       (3) Meet any child or program assessment requirements 78349
prescribed by the Department;78350

       (4) Require teachers, except teachers enrolled and working to 78351
obtain a degree pursuant to section 3301.311 of the Revised Code, 78352
to attend a minimum of twenty hours every two years of 78353
professional development as prescribed by the Department;78354

       (5) Document and report child progress as prescribed by the 78355
Department;78356

       (6) Meet and report compliance with the early learning 78357
program guidelines as prescribed by the Department;78358

       (7) Participate in the tiered quality rating and improvement 78359
system developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. 78360
Effective July 1, 2016, all programs shall be rated through the 78361
system.78362

       (H) Per-pupil funding for programs subject to this section 78363
shall be sufficient to provide eligible children with services for 78364
a standard early childhood schedule which shall be defined in this 78365
section as a minimum of twelve and one-half hours per school week 78366
as defined in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code for the minimum 78367
school year as defined in sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3313.482 78368
of the Revised Code. Nothing in this section shall be construed to 78369
prohibit program providers from utilizing other funds to serve 78370
eligible children in programs that exceed the twelve and one-half 78371
hours per week or that exceed the minimum school year. For any 78372
provider for which a standard early childhood education schedule 78373
creates a hardship or for which the provider shows evidence that 78374
the provider is working in collaboration with a preschool special 78375
education program, the provider may submit a waiver to the 78376
Department requesting an alternate schedule. If the Department 78377
approves a waiver for an alternate schedule that provides services 78378
for less time than the standard early childhood education 78379
schedule, the Department may reduce the provider's annual 78380
allocation proportionately. Under no circumstances shall an annual 78381
allocation be increased because of the approval of an alternate 78382
schedule.78383

       (I) Each provider shall develop a sliding fee scale based on 78384
family incomes and shall charge families who earn more than two 78385
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 78386
division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, for the 78387
early childhood education program.78388

       The Department shall conduct an annual survey of each 78389
provider to determine whether the provider charges families 78390
tuition or fees, the amount families are charged relative to 78391
family income levels, and the number of families and students 78392
charged tuition and fees for the early childhood program.78393

       (J) If an early childhood education program voluntarily 78394
waives its right for funding, or has its funding eliminated for 78395
not meeting financial standards or the early learning program 78396
guidelines, the provider shall transfer control of title to 78397
property, equipment, and remaining supplies obtained through the 78398
program to providers designated by the Department and return any 78399
unexpended funds to the Department along with any reports 78400
prescribed by the Department. The funding made available from a 78401
program that waives its right for funding or has its funding 78402
eliminated or reduced may be used by the Department for new grant 78403
awards or expansion grants. The Department may award new grants or 78404
expansion grants to eligible providers who apply. The eligible 78405
providers who apply must do so in accordance with the selection 78406
process established by the Department.78407

       (K) As used in this section, "early learning program 78408
guidelines" means the guidelines established by the Department 78409
pursuant to division (C)(3) of Section 206.09.54 of Am. Sub. H.B. 78410
66 of the 126th General Assembly.78411

       (L) Eligible expenditures for the Early Childhood Education 78412
program shall be claimed each fiscal year to help meet the state's 78413
TANF maintenance of effort requirement. The Superintendent of 78414
Public Instruction and the Director of Job and Family Services 78415
shall enter into an interagency agreement to carry out the 78416
requirements under this division, which shall include developing 78417
reporting guidelines for these expenditures.78418

       Sec. 267.10.20. CAREER-TECHNICAL EDUCATION MATCH78419

       TheFor fiscal year 2012, the foregoing appropriation item 78420
200416, Career-Technical Education Match, shall be used by the 78421
Department of Education to provide vocational administration78422
matching funds under 20 U.S.C. 23112321.78423

       The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any 78424
remaining appropriation from appropriation item 200416, 78425
Career-Technical Education Match, to appropriation item 200426, 78426
Ohio Educational Computer Network, to support the Ohio Educational 78427
Computer Network.78428

       COMPUTER/APPLICATION/NETWORKINFORMATION TECHNOLOGY78429
DEVELOPMENT AND SUPPORT78430

       The foregoing appropriation item 200420, 78431
Computer/Application/NetworkInformation Technology Development 78432
and Support, shall be used to support the development and 78433
implementation of information technology solutions designed to 78434
improve the performance and services of the Department of 78435
Education. Funds may be used for personnel, maintenance, and 78436
equipment costs related to the development and implementation of 78437
these technical system projects. Implementation of these systems 78438
shall allow the Department to provide greater levels of assistance 78439
to school districts and to provide more timely information to the 78440
public, including school districts, administrators, and 78441
legislators. Funds may also be used to support data-driven 78442
decision-making and differentiated instruction, as well as to 78443
communicate academic content standards and curriculum models to 78444
schools through web-based applications.78445

       Sec. 267.10.40. SCHOOL MANAGEMENT ASSISTANCE78446

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200422, School Management 78447
Assistance, $1,000,000 in each fiscal year 2012 and $1,300,000 in 78448
fiscal year 2013 shall be used by the Auditor of State in 78449
consultation with the Department of Education for expenses 78450
incurred in the Auditor of State's role relating to fiscal 78451
caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal emergency activities as defined 78452
in Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code and may also be used by the 78453
Auditor of State to conduct performance audits of other school 78454
districts with priority given to districts in fiscal distress. 78455
Districts in fiscal distress shall be determined by the Auditor of 78456
State and shall include districts that the Auditor of State, in 78457
consultation with the Department of Education, determines are 78458
employing fiscal practices or experiencing budgetary conditions 78459
that could produce a state of fiscal watch or fiscal emergency.78460

       The remainder of appropriation item 200422, School Management 78461
Assistance, shall be used by the Department of Education to 78462
provide fiscal technical assistance and inservice education for 78463
school district management personnel and to administer, monitor, 78464
and implement the fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal 78465
emergency provisions under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code.78466

       COMMUNITY SCHOOL AND CHOICE PROGRAMS78467

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered balances of 78468
the GRF appropriations for the Department of Education at the end 78469
of fiscal year 2012, but not to exceed $600,000, is hereby 78470
reappropriated to appropriation item 200455, Community Schools and 78471
Choice Programs, for fiscal year 2013 for the Department of 78472
Education to provide STEM schools with matching funds for industry 78473
workforce development initiatives.78474

        If the unexpended, unencumbered balances reappropriated above 78475
are less than $600,000, the Superintendent of Public Instruction 78476
shall identify outstanding GRF encumbrances of the Department for 78477
fiscal year 2012 and prior fiscal years that are no longer needed 78478
to support the obligations of the Department. On July 1, 2012, or 78479
as soon as possible thereafter, the Superintendent shall certify 78480
the identified encumbrances to the Director of Budget and 78481
Management. Upon receipt of the certification, the Director of 78482
Budget and Management shall cancel identified encumbrances in an 78483
amount up to the difference between $600,000 and the amount 78484
reappropriated above. The amount of canceled encumbrances is 78485
hereby appropriated to appropriation item 200455, Community 78486
Schools and Choice Programs, for fiscal year 2013 for the 78487
Department of Education to provide STEM schools with matching 78488
funds for industry workforce development initiatives. 78489

       Sec. 267.30.20. SPECIAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS78490

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 78491
Enhancements, up to $2,206,875 in each fiscal year shall be used 78492
for home instruction for children with disabilities.78493

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 78494
Enhancements, up to $45,282,959 in each fiscal year shall be used 78495
to fund special education and related services at county boards of 78496
developmental disabilities for eligible students under section 78497
3317.20 of the Revised Code and at institutions for eligible 78498
students under section 3317.201 of the Revised Code. 78499
Notwithstanding the distribution formulas under sections 3317.20 78500
and 3317.201 of the Revised Code, funding for DD boards and 78501
institutions for fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013 shall be 78502
determined by providing the per pupil amount received by each DD 78503
board and institution for the prior fiscal year for each student 78504
served in the current fiscal year.78505

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 78506
Enhancements, up to $1,333,468 in each fiscal year shall be used 78507
for parent mentoring programs.78508

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 78509
Enhancements, up to $2,537,824 in each fiscal year may be used for 78510
school psychology interns.78511

        The remainder of appropriation item 200540, Special Education 78512
Enhancements, shall be distributed by the Department of Education 78513
to county boards of developmental disabilities, educational 78514
service centers, and school districts for preschool special 78515
education units and preschool supervisory units under section 78516
3317.052 of the Revised Code. To the greatest extent possible, the 78517
Department of Education shall allocate these units to school 78518
districts and educational service centers.78519

       The Department may reimburse county DD boards, educational 78520
service centers, and school districts for services provided by 78521
instructional assistants, related services as defined in rule 78522
3301-51-11 of the Administrative Code, physical therapy services 78523
provided by a licensed physical therapist or physical therapist 78524
assistant under the supervision of a licensed physical therapist 78525
as required under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and Chapter 78526
4755-27 of the Administrative Code and occupational therapy 78527
services provided by a licensed occupational therapist or 78528
occupational therapy assistant under the supervision of a licensed 78529
occupational therapist as required under Chapter 4755. of the 78530
Revised Code and Chapter 4755-7 of the Administrative Code. 78531
Nothing in this section authorizes occupational therapy assistants 78532
or physical therapist assistants to generate or manage their own 78533
caseloads.78534

       The Department of Education shall require school districts, 78535
educational service centers, and county DD boards serving 78536
preschool children with disabilities to adhere to Ohio's Early 78537
Learning Program Guidelines, participate in the tiered quality 78538
rating and improvement system developed under section 5104.30 of 78539
the Revised Code, and document child progress using research-based 78540
indicators prescribed by the Department and report results 78541
annually. The reporting dates and method shall be determined by 78542
the Department. Effective July 1, 2018, all programs shall be 78543
rated through the tiered quality rating and improvement system.78544

       Sec. 267.30.40. FOUNDATION FUNDING78545

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78546
Funding, up to $675,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 78547
support the work of the College of Education and Human Ecology at 78548
the Ohio State University in reviewing and assessing the alignment 78549
of courses offered through the distance learning clearinghouse 78550
established in sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the Revised Code 78551
with the academic content standards adopted under division (A) of 78552
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.78553

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78554
Funding, up to $250,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 78555
Department to fund a shared services pilot project involving at 78556
least two educational service centers. The pilot project shall 78557
focus on the design, implementation, and evaluation of a shared 78558
service delivery model. The educational service centers 78559
participating in the pilot project shall submit a report not later 78560
than September 1, 2013, to the Governor, members of the General 78561
Assembly, and members of the State Board of Education, reviewing 78562
the opportunities and challenges of implementing shared services 78563
initiatives as well as any real or projected cost efficiencies 78564
achieved through the pilot project.78565

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78566
Funding, up to $50,000 shall be expended in each fiscal year for 78567
court payments under section 2151.362 of the Revised Code.78568

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78569
Funding, up to $8,100,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 78570
fund gifted education at educational service centers. 78571
Notwithstanding division (D)(5) of section 3317.018 of the Revised 78572
Code, the Department shall distribute the funding through the 78573
unit-based funding methodology in place under division (L) of 78574
section 3317.024, division (E) of section 3317.05, and divisions 78575
(A), (B), and (C) of section 3317.053 of the Revised Code as they 78576
existed prior to fiscal year 2010.78577

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78578
Funding, up to $10,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 78579
provide additional state aid to school districts, joint vocational 78580
school districts, and community schools for special education 78581
students under division (C)(3) of section 3317.022 of the Revised 78582
Code, except that the Controlling Board may increase these amounts 78583
if presented with such a request from the Department of Education 78584
at the final meeting of the fiscal year; and up to $2,000,000 in 78585
each fiscal year shall be reserved for Youth Services tuition 78586
payments under section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.78587

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78588
Funding, up to $41,760,000 in fiscal year 2012 and up to 78589
$35,496,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be reserved to fund the 78590
state reimbursement of educational service centers under section 78591
3317.11 of the Revised Code and the section of this act entitled 78592
"EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS FUNDING"; and up to $3,545,752 in 78593
each fiscal year shall be distributed to educational service 78594
centers for School Improvement Initiatives. Educational service 78595
centers shall be required to support districts in the development 78596
and implementation of their continuous improvement plans as 78597
required in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code and to provide 78598
technical assistance and support in accordance with Title I of the 78599
"No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," 115 Stat. 1425, 20 U.S.C. 78600
6317. 78601

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78602
Funding, up to $700,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 78603
Department of Education for a program to pay for educational 78604
services for youth who have been assigned by a juvenile court or 78605
other authorized agency to any of the facilities described in 78606
division (A) of the section of this act entitled "PRIVATE 78607
TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT."78608

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78609
Funding, up to $12,522,860 in each fiscal year 2012 and up to 78610
$14,794,485 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used to support the 78611
Cleveland school choice programprograms.78612

       Of the portion of the funds distributed to the Cleveland 78613
Municipal School District under this section, up to $11,901,887 in 78614
each fiscal year shall be used to operate the school choice 78615
program in the Cleveland Municipal School District under sections 78616
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 78617
divisions (B) and (C) of section 3313.978 and division (C) of 78618
section 3313.979 of the Revised Code, up to $1,000,000 in each 78619
fiscal year of this amount shall be used by the Cleveland 78620
Municipal School District to provide tutorial assistance as 78621
provided in division (H) of section 3313.974 of the Revised Code. 78622
The Cleveland Municipal School District shall report the use of 78623
these funds in the district's three-year continuous improvement 78624
plan as described in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code in a 78625
manner approved by the Department of Education.78626

       Any sums, in addition to the amounts specifically 78627
appropriated in appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for 78628
payments of the scholarships required under sections 3313.974 to 78629
3313.979 of the Revised Code, which are determined to be necessary 78630
by the Superintendent of Public Instruction, are hereby 78631
appropriated.78632

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78633
Funding, an amount shall be available in each fiscal year to be 78634
paid to joint vocational school districts in accordance with the 78635
section of this act entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL 78636
DISTRICTS."78637

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78638
Funding, a portion in each fiscal year shall be paid to city, 78639
exempted village, and local school districts in accordance with 78640
the section of this act entitled "SUPPLEMENTAL SCHOOL DISTRICT 78641
FUNDING."78642

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78643
Funding, a portion in each fiscal year shall be paid to school 78644
districts and community schools in accordance with the section of 78645
this act entitled "SUBSIDY FOR HIGH PERFORMING SCHOOL DISTRICTS."78646

       The remainder of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 78647
Funding, shall be used to distribute the amounts calculated for 78648
formula aid under Section 267.30.50 of this act.78649

       Appropriation items 200502, Pupil Transportation, 200540, 78650
Special Education Enhancements, and 200550, Foundation Funding, 78651
other than specific set-asides, are collectively used in each 78652
fiscal year to pay state formula aid obligations for school 78653
districts, community schools, STEM schools, and joint vocational 78654
school districts under this act. The first priority of these 78655
appropriation items, with the exception of specific set-asides, is 78656
to fund state formula aid obligations. It may be necessary to 78657
reallocate funds among these appropriation items or use excess 78658
funds from other general revenue fund appropriation items in the 78659
Department of Education's budget in each fiscal year, in order to 78660
meet state formula aid obligations. If it is determined that it is 78661
necessary to transfer funds among these appropriation items or to 78662
transfer funds from other General Revenue Fund appropriations in 78663
the Department of Education's budget to meet state formula aid 78664
obligations, the Department of Education shall seek approval from 78665
the Controlling Board to transfer funds as needed.78666

       Sec. 279.10. EPA ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY78667

General Services Fund Group78668

1990 715602 Laboratory Services $ 402,295 $ 408,560 78669
2190 715604 Central Support Indirect $ 8,594,348 $ 8,555,680 78670
4A10 715640 Operating Expenses $ 2,304,267 $ 2,093,039 78671
4D50 715618 Recycled State Materials $ 0 $ 50,000 78672
TOTAL GSF General Services 78673
Fund Group $ 11,300,910 $ 11,057,279 11,107,279 78674

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78675

3530 715612 Public Water Supply $ 2,941,282 $ 2,941,282 78676
3540 715614 Hazardous Waste Management - Federal $ 4,193,000 $ 4,193,000 78677
3570 715619 Air Pollution Control - Federal $ 6,310,203 $ 6,310,203 78678
3620 715605 Underground Injection Control - Federal $ 111,874 $ 111,874 78679
3BU0 715684 Water Quality Protection $ 8,100,000 $ 6,785,000 78680
3CS0 715688 Federal NRD Settlements $ 100,000 $ 100,000 78681
3F20 715630 Revolving Loan Fund - Operating $ 907,543 $ 907,543 78682
3F30 715632 Federally Supported Cleanup and Response $ 3,344,746 $ 3,290,405 78683
3F50 715641 Nonpoint Source Pollution Management $ 6,265,000 $ 6,260,000 78684
3T30 715669 Drinking Water State Revolving Fund $ 2,273,323 $ 2,273,323 78685
3V70 715606 Agencywide Grants $ 600,000 $ 600,000 78686
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 78687
Fund Group $ 35,146,971 $ 33,772,630 78688

State Special Revenue Fund Group78689

4J00 715638 Underground Injection Control $ 445,234 $ 445,571 78690
4K20 715648 Clean Air - Non Title V $ 3,152,306 $ 2,906,267 78691
4K30 715649 Solid Waste $ 16,742,551 $ 16,414,654 78692
4K40 715650 Surface Water Protection $ 7,642,625 $ 6,672,246 78693
4K40 715686 Environmental Lab Service $ 2,096,007 $ 2,096,007 78694
4K50 715651 Drinking Water Protection $ 7,410,118 $ 7,405,428 78695
4P50 715654 Cozart Landfill $ 100,000 $ 100,000 78696
4R50 715656 Scrap Tire Management $ 1,368,610 $ 1,376,742 78697
4R90 715658 Voluntary Action Program $ 999,503 $ 997,425 78698
4T30 715659 Clean Air - Title V Permit Program $ 16,349,471 $ 16,241,822 78699
4U70 715660 Construction and Demolition Debris $ 425,913 $ 433,591 78700
5000 715608 Immediate Removal Special Account $ 633,832 $ 634,033 78701
5030 715621 Hazardous Waste Facility Management $ 10,241,107 $ 9,789,620 78702
5050 715623 Hazardous Waste Cleanup $ 12,511,234 $ 12,331,272 78703
5050 715674 Clean Ohio Environmental Review $ 108,104 $ 108,104 78704
5320 715646 Recycling and Litter Control $ 0 $ 4,911,575 78705
5410 715670 Site Specific Cleanup $ 2,048,101 $ 2,048,101 78706
5420 715671 Risk Management Reporting $ 132,636 $ 132,636 78707
5860 715637 Scrap Tire Market Development $ 0 $ 1,497,645 78708
5920 715627 Anti Tampering Settlement $ 2,285 $ 2,285 78709
5BC0 715617 Clean Ohio $ 611,455 $ 611,455 78710
5BC0 715622 Local Air Pollution Control $ 2,297,980 $ 2,297,980 78711
5BC0 715624 Surface Water $ 8,970,181 $ 9,114,974 78712
5BC0 715672 Air Pollution Control $ 4,438,629 $ 4,534,758 78713
5BC0 715673 Drinking and Ground Water $ 4,317,527 $ 4,323,521 78714
5BC0 715675 Hazardous Waste $ 95,266 $ 95,266 78715
5BC0 715676 Assistance and Prevention $ 640,179 $ 645,069 78716
5BC0 715677 Laboratory $ 939,717 $ 958,586 78717
5BC0 715678 Corrective Actions $ 31,765 $ 105,423 78718
5BC0 715687 Areawide Planning Agencies $ 450,000 $ 450,000 78719
5BC0 715692 Administration $ 8,562,476 $ 8,212,627 78720
5BT0 715679 C&DD Groundwater Monitoring $ 203,800 $ 203,800 78721
5BY0 715681 Auto Emissions Test $ 13,029,952 $ 13,242,762 11,242,762 78722
5CD0 715682 Clean Diesel School Buses $ 600,000 $ 600,000 78723
5H40 715664 Groundwater Support $ 77,508 $ 78,212 78724
5N20 715613 Dredge and Fill $ 29,250 $ 29,250 78725
5Y30 715685 Surface Water Improvement $ 2,800,000 $ 2,800,000 78726
6440 715631 ER Radiological Safety $ 279,838 $ 279,966 78727
6600 715629 Infectious Waste Management $ 91,573 $ 88,764 78728
6760 715642 Water Pollution Control Loan Administration $ 4,317,376 $ 4,321,605 78729
6780 715635 Air Toxic Release $ 138,669 $ 138,669 78730
6790 715636 Emergency Planning $ 2,623,192 $ 2,623,252 78731
6960 715643 Air Pollution Control Administration $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 78732
6990 715644 Water Pollution Control Administration $ 220,000 $ 220,000 78733
6A10 715645 Environmental Education $ 1,488,260 $ 1,488,718 78734
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 140,764,230 $ 138,700,461 143,109,681 78735

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group78736

5S10 715607 Clean Ohio - Operating $ 284,083 $ 284,124 78737
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 284,083 $ 284,124 78738
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 187,496,194 $ 183,814,494 188,273,714 78739

       AUTOMOBILE EMISSIONS TESTING PROGRAM OPERATION AND OVERSIGHT78740

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 78741
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer up 78742
to $13,029,952 in cash in fiscal year 2012, and up to $13,242,76278743
11,242,762 in cash in fiscal year 2013 from the General Revenue 78744
Fund to the Auto Emissions Test Fund (Fund 5BY0) for the operation 78745
and oversight of the auto emissions testing program.78746

       AREAWIDE PLANNING AGENCIES78747

       The Director of Environmental Protection Agency may award 78748
grants from appropriation item 715687, Areawide Planning Agencies, 78749
to areawide planning agencies engaged in areawide water quality 78750
management and planning activities in accordance with Section 208 78751
of the "Federal Clean Water Act," 33 U.S.C. 1288.78752

       CORRECTIVE CASH TRANSFERS78753

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 78754
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $376,891.85 in 78755
cash that was mistakenly deposited in the Clean Air Non Title V 78756
Fund (Fund 4K20) to the Clean Air Title V Permit Fund (Fund 4T30).78757

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 78758
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $133,026.63 in 78759
cash that was mistakenly deposited in the Scrap Tire Management 78760
Fund (Fund 4R50) to the Site Specific Cleanup Fund (Fund 5410).78761

       Sec. 283.10. ETC ETECH OHIO78762

General Revenue Fund78763

GRF 935401 Statehouse News Bureau $ 215,561 $ 215,561 78764
GRF 935402 Ohio Government Telecommunications Services $ 702,089 $ 702,089 1,002,089 78765
GRF 935408 General Operations $ 1,251,789 $ 1,254,193 78766
GRF 935409 Technology Operations $ 2,092,432 $ 2,091,823 78767
GRF 935410 Content Development, Acquisition, and Distribution $ 2,607,094 $ 2,607,094 78768
GRF 935411 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 4,251,185 $ 4,252,671 78769
GRF 935412 Information Technology $ 829,340 $ 829,963 78770
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 11,949,490 $ 11,953,394 12,253,394 78771

General Services Fund Group78772

4F30 935603 Affiliate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 78773
4T20 935605 Government Television/Telecommunications Operating $ 25,000 $ 25,000 78774
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 75,000 $ 75,000 78775

State Special Revenue Fund Group78776

4W90 935630 Telecommunity $ 25,000 $ 25,000 78777
4X10 935634 Distance Learning $ 24,150 $ 24,150 78778
5D40 935640 Conference/Special Purposes $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 78779
5FK0 935608 Media Services $ 637,601 $ 637,956 78780
5JU0 935611 Information Technology Services $ 1,455,000 $ 1,455,000 78781
5T30 935607 Gates Foundation Grants $ 200,000 $ 171,112 78782
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 4,441,751 $ 4,413,218 78783
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 16,466,241 $ 16,441,612 16,741,612 78784


       Sec. 287.10. EXP OHIO EXPOSITIONS COMMISSION78786

General Revenue Fund78787

GRF 723403 Junior Fair Subsidy $ 250,000 $ 250,000 78788
GRF 723501 Building Construction $ 0 $ 1,000,000 78789
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 250,000 $ 250,000 1,250,000 78790

State Special Revenue Fund Group78791

4N20 723602 Ohio State Fair Harness Racing $ 400,000 $ 400,000 78792
5060 723601 Operating Expenses $ 12,991,000 $ 12,894,000 78793
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 78794
Fund Group $ 13,391,000 $ 13,294,000 78795
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,641,000 $ 13,544,000 14,544,000 78796

       STATE FAIR RESERVE78797

       The General Manager of the Expositions Commission may submit 78798
a request to the Controlling Board to use available amounts in the 78799
State Fair Reserve Fund (Fund 6400) if the following conditions 78800
apply:78801

       (A) Admissions receipts for the 2011 or 2012 Ohio State Fair 78802
are less than $1,982,000 because of inclement weather or 78803
extraordinary circumstances;78804

       (B) The Ohio Expositions Commission declares a state of 78805
fiscal exigency; and78806

        (C) The request contains a plan describing how the 78807
Expositions Commission will eliminate the cash shortage causing 78808
the request.78809

       The amount approved by the Controlling Board is hereby 78810
appropriated.78811

       BUILDING CONSTRUCTION78812

       The foregoing GRF appropriation item 723501, Building 78813
Construction, shall be used for acquiring purchased services and 78814
for construction of a new Expositions facility for which matching 78815
funds are received in the amount of $1,000,000 from a private 78816
sector partnering entity.78817

       Sec. 291.10. DOH DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH78818

General Revenue Fund78819

GRF 440412 Cancer Incidence Surveillance System $ 600,000 $ 600,000 78820
GRF 440413 Local Health Department Support $ 2,302,788 $ 2,303,061 78821
GRF 440416 Mothers and Children Safety Net Services $ 4,227,842 $ 4,228,015 78822
GRF 440418 Immunizations $ 6,430,538 $ 8,930,829 8,825,829 78823
GRF 440431 Free Clinics Safety Net Services $ 437,326 $ 437,326 78824
GRF 440438 Breast and Cervical Cancer Screening $ 823,217 $ 823,217 78825
GRF 440444 AIDS Prevention and Treatment $ 5,842,315 $ 5,842,315 78826
GRF 440451 Public Health Laboratory $ 3,654,348 $ 3,655,449 78827
GRF 440452 Child and Family Health Services Match $ 630,390 $ 630,444 78828
GRF 440453 Health Care Quality Assurance $ 8,170,694 $ 8,174,361 78829
GRF 440454 Local Environmental Health $ 1,310,141 $ 1,310,362 1,194,634 78830
GRF 440459 Help Me Grow $ 33,673,545 $ 33,673,987 78831
GRF 440465 Federally Qualified Health Centers $ 458,688 $ 2,686,688 78832
GRF 440467 Access to Dental Care $ 540,484 $ 540,484 78833
GRF 440468 Chronic Disease and Injury Prevention $ 2,577,251 $ 2,577,251 2,447,251 78834
GRF 440472 Alcohol Testing $ 550,000 $ 1,100,000 78835
GRF 440505 Medically Handicapped Children $ 7,512,451 $ 7,512,451 78836
GRF 440507 Targeted Health Care Services Over 21 $ 1,045,414 $ 1,045,414 78837
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 80,787,432 $ 86,071,654 85,720,926 78838

State Highway Safety Fund Group78839

4T40 440603 Child Highway Safety $ 233,894 $ 233,894 78840
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety 78841
Fund Group $ 233,894 $ 233,894 78842

General Services Fund Group78843

1420 440646 Agency Health Services $ 8,825,788 $ 8,826,146 78844
2110 440613 Central Support Indirect Costs $ 28,900,000 $ 29,000,000 78845
4730 440622 Lab Operating Expenses $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 78846
5HB0 440470 Breast and Cervical Cancer Screening $ 1,000,000 $ 0 78847
6830 440633 Employee Assistance Program $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 78848
6980 440634 Nurse Aide Training $ 99,239 $ 99,265 78849
TOTAL GSF General Services 78850
Fund Group $ 44,925,027 $ 44,025,411 78851

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78852

3200 440601 Maternal Child Health Block Grant $ 27,068,886 $ 27,068,886 78853
3870 440602 Preventive Health Block Grant $ 7,826,659 $ 7,826,659 78854
3890 440604 Women, Infants, and Children $ 308,672,689 $ 308,672,689 78855
3910 440606 Medicaid/Medicare $ 29,625,467 $ 29,257,457 78856
3920 440618 Federal Public Health Programs $ 137,976,988 $ 137,976,988 78857
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 78858
Fund Group $ 511,170,689 $ 510,802,679 78859

State Special Revenue Fund Group78860

4700 440647 Fee Supported Programs $ 24,503,065 $ 24,513,973 24,263,973 78861
4710 440619 Certificate of Need $ 878,145 $ 878,433 78862
4770 440627 Medically Handicapped Children Audit $ 3,692,704 $ 3,692,703 78863
4D60 440608 Genetics Services $ 3,310,953 $ 3,311,039 78864
4F90 440610 Sickle Cell Disease Control $ 1,032,754 $ 1,032,824 78865
4G00 440636 Heirloom Birth Certificate $ 5,000 $ 5,000 78866
4G00 440637 Birth Certificate Surcharge $ 5,000 $ 5,000 78867
4L30 440609 Miscellaneous Expenses $ 3,333,164 $ 3,333,164 78868
4P40 440628 Ohio Physician Loan Repayment $ 476,870 $ 476,870 78869
4V60 440641 Save Our Sight $ 2,255,760 $ 2,255,789 78870
5B50 440616 Quality, Monitoring, and Inspection $ 878,638 $ 878,997 78871
5C00 440615 Alcohol Testing and Permit $ 551,018 $ 0 78872
5CN0 440645 Choose Life $ 75,000 $ 75,000 78873
5D60 440620 Second Chance Trust $ 1,151,815 $ 1,151,902 78874
5ED0 440651 Smoke Free Indoor Air $ 190,452 $ 190,452 78875
5G40 440639 Adoption Services $ 20,000 $ 20,000 78876
5L10 440623 Nursing Facility Technical Assistance Program $ 687,500 $ 687,528 78877
5Z70 440624 Ohio Dentist Loan Repayment $ 140,000 $ 140,000 78878
6100 440626 Radiation Emergency Response $ 930,525 $ 930,576 78879
6660 440607 Medically Handicapped Children - County Assessments $ 19,738,286 $ 19,739,617 78880
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 78881
Fund Group $ 63,856,649 $ 63,318,867 63,068,867 78882

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group78883

R014 440631 Vital Statistics $ 44,986 $ 44,986 78884
R048 440625 Refunds, Grants Reconciliation, and Audit Settlements $ 20,000 $ 20,000 78885
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 78886
Redistribution Fund Group $ 64,986 $ 64,986 78887

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group78888

5BX0 440656 Tobacco Use Prevention $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 78889
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 78890
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 702,038,677 $ 705,517,491 704,916,763 78891


       Sec. 307.10.  INS DEPARTMENT OF INSURANCE78893

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78894

3EV0 820610 Health Insurance Premium Review $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 78895
3EW0 820611 Health Exchange Planning $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 78896
3U50 820602 OSHIIP Operating Grant $ 2,270,726 $ 2,270,725 78897
TOTAL FED Federal Special 78898
Revenue Fund Group $ 4,270,726 $ 4,270,725 78899

State Special Revenue Fund Group78900

5540 820601 Operating Expenses - OSHIIP $ 190,000 $ 180,000 78901
5540 820606 Operating Expenses $ 22,745,538 $ 22,288,550 22,931,817 78902
5550 820605 Examination $ 9,065,684 $ 8,934,065 8,184,065 78903
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 78904
Fund Group $ 32,001,222 $ 31,402,615 31,295,882 78905
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 36,271,948 $ 35,673,340 35,566,607 78906

       MARKET CONDUCT EXAMINATION78907

       When conducting a market conduct examination of any insurer 78908
doing business in this state, the Superintendent of Insurance may 78909
assess the costs of the examination against the insurer. The 78910
superintendent may enter into consent agreements to impose 78911
administrative assessments or fines for conduct discovered that 78912
may be violations of statutes or rules administered by the 78913
superintendent. All costs, assessments, or fines collected shall 78914
be deposited to the credit of the Department of Insurance 78915
Operating Fund (Fund 5540).78916

       EXAMINATIONS OF DOMESTIC FRATERNAL BENEFIT SOCIETIES78917

       The Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 78918
Superintendent of Insurance, may transfer funds from the 78919
Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540), established by 78920
section 3901.021 of the Revised Code, to the Superintendent's 78921
Examination Fund (Fund 5550), established by section 3901.071 of 78922
the Revised Code, only for expenses incurred in examining domestic 78923
fraternal benefit societies as required by section 3921.28 of the 78924
Revised Code.78925

       TRANSFER FROM FUND 5540 TO GENERAL REVENUE FUND78926

        Not later than the thirty-first day of July each fiscal year, 78927
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $5,000,000 78928
from the Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540) to the 78929
General Revenue Fund.78930

       Sec. 309.10. JFS DEPARTMENT OF JOB AND FAMILY SERVICES78931

General Revenue Fund78932

GRF 600321 Program Support Services 78933
State $ 34,801,760 $ 31,932,117 31,612,796 78934
Federal $ 9,322,222 $ 9,207,441 9,115,366 78935
Program Support Services Total $ 44,123,982 $ 41,139,558 40,728,162 78936
GRF 600410 TANF State/Maintenance of Effort $ 151,386,934 $ 151,386,934 78937
GRF 600413 Child Care Match State/Maintenance of Effort $ 84,732,730 $ 84,732,730 78938
GRF 600416 Computer Information Technology Projects 78939
State $ 67,955,340 $ 69,263,506 68,570,871 78940
Federal $ 13,105,167 $ 12,937,222 12,807,850 78941
Computer Information Technology Projects Total $ 81,060,507 $ 82,200,728 81,378,721 78942
GRF 600417 Medicaid Provider Audits $ 1,312,992 $ 1,312,992 1,299,862 78943
GRF 600420 Child Support Administration Programs $ 6,163,534 $ 6,065,588 6,004,932 78944
GRF 600421 Office of Family Stability Assistance Programs $ 3,768,929 $ 3,757,493 3,719,918 78945
GRF 600423 Office of Children and Families and Children Programs $ 5,123,406 $ 4,978,756 78946
GRF 600425 Office of Ohio Health Plans Care Programs 78947
State $ 13,149,582 $ 15,740,987 15,583,577 78948
Federal $ 12,556,921 $ 12,286,234 12,163,372 78949
Office of Ohio Health Plans Care Programs Total $ 25,706,503 $ 28,027,221 27,746,949 78950
GRF 600502 Administration Child Support - Local $ 23,814,103 $ 23,814,103 78951
GRF 600511 Disability Financial Assistance $ 26,599,666 $ 27,108,734 78952
GRF 600521 Entitlement Administration Family Assistance - Local $ 72,200,721 $ 72,200,721 78953
GRF 600523 Family and Children and Families Services $ 53,605,323 52,605,323 $ 53,105,323 54,105,323 78954
GRF 600525 Health Care/Medicaid 78955
State $ 4,313,761,372 $ 4,689,051,017 4,689,701,017 78956
Federal $ 7,530,008,024 $ 8,429,762,527 8,430,897,261 78957
Health Care Total $ 11,843,769,396 $ 13,118,813,544 13,120,598,278 78958
GRF 600526 Medicare Part D $ 277,996,490 $ 296,964,743 78959
GRF 600528 Adoption Services 78960
State $ 29,257,932 $ 29,257,932 78961
Federal $ 41,085,169 $ 41,085,169 78962
Adoption Services Total $ 70,343,101 $ 70,343,101 78963
GRF 600533 Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services $ 13,500,000 $ 13,500,000 78964
GRF 600534 Adult Protective Services $ 366,003 $ 366,003 78965
GRF 600535 Early Care and Education $ 123,596,474 $ 123,596,474 78966
GRF 600537 Children's Hospital $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 78967
GRF 600540 Second Harvest Food Banks $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 78968
GRF 600541 Kinship Permanency Incentive Program $ 2,500,000 $ 3,500,000 78969
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 78970
State $ 5,315,593,291 5,314,593,291 $ 5,711,636,153 5,712,005,426 78971
Federal $ 7,606,077,503 $ 8,505,278,593 8,506,069,018 78972
GRF Total $ 12,921,670,794 12,920,670,794 $ 14,216,914,746 14,218,074,444 78973

General Services Fund Group78974

4A80 600658 Public Assistance Activities $ 34,000,000 $ 34,000,000 78975
5C90 600671 Medicaid Program Support $ 85,800,878 $ 82,839,266 0 78976
5DL0 600639 Medicaid Revenue and Collections Health Care/Medicaid Support - Recoveries $ 89,256,974 $ 84,156,974 166,996,240 78977
5DM0 600633 Administration & Operating $ 20,392,173 $ 19,858,928 19,660,339 78978
5FX0 600638 Medicaid Payment Withholding $ 5,000,000 $ 6,000,000 78979
5HL0 600602 State and County Shared services $ 3,020,000 $ 3,020,000 78980
5P50 600692 Prescription Drug Rebate - State Health Care/Medicaid Support - Drug Rebates $ 220,600,000 $ 242,600,000 78981
6130 600645 Training Activities $ 500,000 $ 500,000 78982
TOTAL GSF General Services 78983
Fund Group $ 458,570,025 $ 472,975,168 472,776,579 78984

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group78985

3270 600606 Child Welfare $ 29,769,865 $ 29,769,866 78986
3310 600615 Veterans Programs $ 0 $ 8,000,000 78987
3310 600624 Employment Services Programs $ 0 $ 33,943,023 78988
3310 600686 Federal Operating Workforce Programs $ 49,128,140 $ 48,203,023 6,260,000 78989
3840 600610 Food Assistance and State Administration Programs $ 180,381,394 $ 180,381,394 78990
3850 600614 Refugee Services $ 11,582,440 $ 12,564,952 78991
3950 600616 Special Activities/Child and Family Services Federal Discretionary Grants $ 2,259,264 $ 2,259,264 78992
3960 600620 Social Services Block Grant $ 64,999,999 $ 64,999,998 78993
3970 600626 Child Support - Federal $ 255,812,837 $ 255,813,528 78994
3980 600627 Adoption Maintenance/ Administration Program - Federal $ 352,183,862 $ 352,184,253 174,178,779 78995
3A20 600641 Emergency Food Distribution $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 78996
3AW0 600675 Faith Based Initiatives $ 544,140 $ 544,140 78997
3D30 600648 Children's Trust Fund Federal $ 2,040,524 $ 2,040,524 78998
3ER0 600603 Health Information Technology $ 411,661,286 $ 416,395,286 78999
3F00 600623 Health Care Federal $ 2,637,061,505 $ 2,720,724,869 79000
3F00 600650 Hospital Care Assurance Match - Federal $ 372,784,046 $ 380,645,627 79001
3FA0 600680 Ohio Health Care Grants - Federal $ 9,405,000 $ 20,000,000 79002
3G50 600655 Interagency Reimbursement $ 1,621,305,787 $ 1,380,391,478 79003
3H70 600617 Child Care Federal $ 208,290,036 $ 204,813,731 79004
3N00 600628 IV-E Foster Care Maintenance Program - Federal $ 133,963,142 $ 133,963,142 311,968,616 79005
3S50 600622 Child Support Projects $ 534,050 $ 534,050 79006
3V00 600688 Workforce Investment Act Programs $ 176,496,250 $ 172,805,562 79007
3V40 600678 Federal Unemployment Programs $ 188,680,096 $ 186,723,415 79008
3V40 600679 Unemployment Compensation UC Review Commission - Federal $ 4,166,988 $ 4,068,758 79009
3V60 600689 TANF Block Grant $ 727,968,260 $ 727,968,260 79010
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 79011
Fund Group $ 7,446,018,911 $ 7,302,795,120 79012

State Special Revenue Fund Group79013

1980 600647 Children's Trust Fund $ 5,873,637 $ 5,873,848 79014
4A90 600607 Unemployment Compensation Administration Fund $ 21,924,998 $ 21,424,998 79015
4A90 600694 Unemployment Compensation UC Review Commission - SAF $ 2,173,167 $ 2,117,031 79016
4E30 600605 Nursing Home Assessments Resident Protection Fund $ 2,878,320 $ 2,878,319 79017
4E70 600604 Child and Family and Children Services Collections $ 400,000 $ 400,000 79018
4F10 600609 Family and Children and Family Services Activities $ 683,359 $ 683,549 79019
4K10 600621 ICF/MR Bed Assessments DDD Support - Franchise Fee $ 41,405,596 $ 44,372,874 79020
4Z10 600625 HealthCare Compliance $ 11,551,076 $ 14,582,000 79021
5AJ0 600631 Money Follows the Person $ 5,483,080 $ 4,733,080 79022
5DB0 600637 Military Injury Grants Relief Subsidies $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 79023
5DP0 600634 Adoption Assistance Loan $ 500,000 $ 500,000 79024
5ES0 600630 Food Bank Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 79025
5GF0 600656 Medicaid Health Care/Medicaid Support - Hospital/UPL $ 436,000,000 $ 436,000,000 79026
5KC0 600682 Health Care Special Activities Grants - State $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 79027
5KU0 600611 Unemployment Compensation Support - Other Sources $ 2,000,000 $ 4,000,000 79028
5R20 600608 Medicaid-Nursing Facilities Long-Term Care Support $ 402,489,308 $ 407,100,746 79029
5S30 600629 MR/DD Medicaid Administration Health Care Program and Oversight DDD Support $ 9,252,738 $ 9,147,791 79030
5U30 600654 Health Care Services Administration Program Support $ 24,400,000 $ 24,400,000 24,156,000 79031
5U60 600663 Children Family and Family Children Support $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 79032
6510 600649 Hospital Care Assurance Program Fund $ 212,526,123 $ 217,008,050 79033
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 79034
Fund Group $ 1,194,041,402 1,196,041,402 $ 1,207,722,286 1,211,478,286 79035

Agency Fund Group79036

1920 600646 Child Support Intercept - Federal $ 130,000,000 $ 130,000,000 129,250,000 79037
5830 600642 Child Support Intercept - State $ 16,000,000 $ 16,000,000 14,000,000 79038
5B60 600601 Food Assistance Intercept $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 1,000,000 79039
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 148,000,000 $ 148,000,000 144,250,000 79040

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group79041

R012 600643 Refunds and Audit Settlements $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 79042
R013 600644 Forgery Collections $ 10,000 $ 10,000 79043
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,210,000 $ 2,210,000 79044
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,170,511,132 22,171,511,132 $ 23,350,617,320 23,351,584,429 79045


       Sec. 309.30.10. HEALTH CARE/MEDICAID79047

       The foregoing appropriation item 600525, Health 79048
Care/Medicaid, shall not be limited by section 131.33 of the 79049
Revised Code.79050

       HEALTH CARE/MEDICAID ENDING BALANCE79051

        Thirty million dollars of the unexpended and unencumbered 79052
portion of appropriation item 600525, Health Care/Medicaid, at the 79053
end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated to the Department 79054
of Job and Family Services for payments to nursing facilities for 79055
fiscal year 2013 in accordance with the section of this act titled 79056
"FISCAL YEAR 2013 QUALITY BONUS PAYMENTS TO NURSING FACILITIES."79057

       Sec. 309.30.30. REDUCTION IN MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES79058

       (A) As used in this section, "charge high trim point" means a 79059
measure, excluding the measure established by paragraph (A)(6) of 79060
rule 5101:3-2-07.9 of the Administrative Code, used to determine 79061
whether a claim for a hospital inpatient service qualifies for a 79062
cost outlier payment under the Medicaid program.79063

       (B) For fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Director 79064
of Job and Family Services shall implement purchasing strategies 79065
and rate reductions for hospital and other Medicaid-covered 79066
services, as determined by the Director, that result in payment 79067
rates for those services being at least two per cent less than the 79068
respective payment rates for fiscal year 2011. In implementing the 79069
purchasing strategies and rate reductions, the Director shall do 79070
the following:79071

       (1) Notwithstanding the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 79072
of the 129th General Assembly titled "CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID 79073
RATES FOR HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT SERVICES," modernize 79074
hospital inpatient and outpatient reimbursement methodologies by 79075
doing the following:79076

       (a) Modifying the inpatient hospital capital reimbursement 79077
methodology;79078

       (b) Establishing new diagnosis-related groups in a 79079
cost-neutral manner;79080

       (c) For hospital discharges that occur during the period 79081
beginning October 1, 2011, and ending January 1, 2012, modifying 79082
charge high trim points, as in effect on January 1, 2011, by a 79083
factor of 13.6%;79084

       (d) For hospital discharges that occur during the period 79085
beginning January 1, 2012, and ending on the effective date of the 79086
first of the new diagnosis-related groups established under 79087
division (B)(1)(b) of this section, modifying charge high trim 79088
points, as in effect on October 1, 2011, by a factor of 9.72%;79089

       (e) Implementing other changes the Director considers 79090
appropriate.79091

       (2) Establish selective contracting and prior authorization 79092
requirements for types of medical assistance the Director 79093
identifies.79094

        (C) The Director shall adopt rules under sectionsections79095
5111.02 and 5111.85 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement 79096
this section. The rules adopted to implement divisions (B)(1)(a), 79097
(b), and (e) of this section shall include quality factors and 79098
quality-based incentive payments.79099

       (D) This section does not apply to nursing facility and 79100
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services 79101
provided under the Medicaid program.79102

       Sec. 309.30.33.  HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT 79103
SUPPLEMENTAL UPPER PAYMENT LIMIT PROGRAM; MEDICAID MANAGED CARE 79104
HOSPITAL INCENTIVE PAYMENT PROGRAM79105

       (A) As used in this section:79106

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5112.40 of 79107
the Revised Code.79108

       (2) "Hospital Assessment Fund" means the fund created under 79109
section 5112.45 of the Revised Code.79110

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" means an entity 79111
under contract pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code to 79112
provide or arrange services for Medicaid recipients who are 79113
required or permitted to participate in the Medicaid care 79114
management system.79115

       (B) The Department of Job and Family Services shall submit to 79116
the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services a 79117
Medicaid state plan amendment to do both of the following:79118

       (1) Continue the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 79119
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program that was established 79120
pursuant to Section 309.30.17 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th 79121
General Assembly, with any modifications necessary to implement 79122
the program as described under division (D) of this section;79123

       (2) Create the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive 79124
Payment Program, as described under division (E) of this section.79125

       (C) Of the amounts deposited into the Hospital Assessment 79126
Fund in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013:79127

       (1) Up to $432,432,725 (state and federal) in fiscal year 79128
2012 and up to $415,162,388 (state and federal) in fiscal year 79129
2013 shall be used for the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 79130
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program;79131

       (2) Up to $162,000,000 (state and federal) in each fiscal 79132
year shall be used for the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital 79133
Incentive Payment Program;79134

       (3) Up to $176,021,111 (state and federal) in fiscal year 79135
2012 and up to $195,158,394 (state and federal) in fiscal year 79136
2013 shall be used for the program authorized by the section of 79137
this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly titled 79138
"CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND 79139
OUTPATIENT SERVICES."79140

       (D)(1) If the Medicaid state plan amendment submitted under 79141
division (B)(1) of this section is approved, the Department shall 79142
implement the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient Supplemental Upper 79143
Payment Limit Program during fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 79144
2013. Under the Program, subject to division (D)(2) of this 79145
section, supplemental Medicaid payments shall be made to hospitals 79146
for Medicaid-covered inpatient and outpatient services. The 79147
Department shall make the payments through amounts that are made 79148
available for the Program under division (C) of this section and 79149
any federal financial participation available for the Program.79150

       (2) The Department shall take all actions necessary to cease 79151
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 79152
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5112.41 of 79153
the Revised Code is an impermissible healthcare-related tax under 79154
section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 79155
(1991), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended.79156

       (E)(1) If the Medicaid state plan amendment submitted under 79157
division (B)(2) of this section is approved, the Department shall 79158
implement the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive Payment 79159
Program. The purpose of the Program is to increase access to 79160
hospital services for Medicaid recipients who are enrolled in 79161
Medicaid managed care organizations.79162

       Under the Program, subject to division (E)(3) of this 79163
section, funds shall be provided to Medicaid managed care 79164
organizations, which shall use the funds to increase payments to 79165
hospitals for providing services to Medicaid recipients who are 79166
enrolled in the organizations. The Department shall provide the 79167
funds through amounts that are made available for the Program 79168
under division (C) of this section and any federal financial 79169
participation available for the Program.79170

       (2) Not later than July 1, 2012, the Department shall select 79171
an actuary to conduct a study of the contracted reimbursement 79172
rates between Medicaid managed care organizations and hospitals. 79173
The actuary shall determine if a reduction in the capitation rates 79174
paid to Medicaid managed care organizations in fiscal year 2013 is 79175
appropriate as a result of the contracted reimbursement rates 79176
between the organizations and hospitals. The actuary shall notify 79177
the Department of its determination.79178

       If the actuary determines that a reduction in the capitation 79179
rates paid to Medicaid managed care organizations in fiscal year 79180
2013 will not achieve $22 million in state savings in fiscal year 79181
2013, the state shall receive the difference between what the 79182
actuary determines the state will save and $22 million. The 79183
Department, in consultation with the Ohio Association of Health 79184
Plans and the Ohio Hospital Association, shall establish a 79185
methodology under which the difference is paid equally by Medicaid 79186
managed care organizations and hospitals in this state.79187

       Notwithstanding anything to the contrary specified in 79188
division (E)(3)(b) or (c) of this section, the Medicaid managed 79189
care organizations and hospitals shall pay the amounts determined 79190
under the methodology, unless the Department waives the 79191
requirement to make the payments. The requirement may be waived if 79192
spending for the Medicaid program in fiscal year 2013 is less than 79193
the amount that is budgeted for that fiscal year. If payments are 79194
made, the amount received by the Department shall be deposited 79195
into the state treasury to the credit of the Health Care 79196
Compliance Fund created under section 5111.1715111.946 of the 79197
Revised Code.79198

       (3)(a) The Department shall not provide funds to Medicaid 79199
managed care organizations under the Program unless an actuary 79200
selected by the Department certifies that the Program would not 79201
violate the actuarial soundness of the capitation rates paid to 79202
Medicaid managed care organizations.79203

       (b) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 79204
manner that causes a hospital to receive less money from the 79205
Hospital Assessment Fund than the hospital would have received if 79206
the Program were not implemented.79207

       (c) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 79208
manner that causes a Medicaid managed care organization to receive 79209
a lower capitation payment rate solely because funds are made 79210
available to the organization under the Program.79211

       (d) The Department shall take all necessary actions to cease 79212
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 79213
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5112.41 of 79214
the Revised Code is an impermissible healthcare-related tax under 79215
section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 79216
(1991), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended.79217

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may authorize 79218
additional expenditures from appropriation item 600623, Health 79219
Care Federal, appropriation item 600525, Health Care/Medicaid, and 79220
appropriation item 600656, Medicaid-Hospital, in order to 79221
implement the programs authorized by this section and to implement 79222
the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 79223
Assembly titled "CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL 79224
INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT SERVICES." Any amounts authorized are 79225
hereby appropriated.79226

       (G) Nothing in this section reduces payments to children's 79227
hospitals authorized under the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 79228
153 of the 129th General Assembly titled "CHILDREN'S HOSPITALS 79229
SUPPLEMENTAL FUNDING."79230

       Sec. 309.30.53. MEDICAID MANAGED CARE EXEMPTIONS79231

       (A) As used in this section, "disabled individual" means any 79232
individual receiving services through the program for medically 79233
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 79234
Revised Code who has one or more of the following conditions:79235

        (1) Cystic fibrosis;79236

        (2) Hemophilia;79237

        (3) Cancer.79238

        (B) Notwithstanding section 5111.16 of the Revised Code, as 79239
amended by this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 79240
Assembly, the Department of Job and Family Services shall not 79241
include in the care management system established under that 79242
section in either fiscal year 2012 or fiscal year 2013 any 79243
individual receiving services through the program for medically 79244
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 79245
Revised Code who has one or more of the following conditions and 79246
who was not receiving services through the care management system 79247
immediately before the effective date of this section:79248

       (1) Cystic fibrosis;79249

       (2) Hemophilia;79250

       (3) Cancerany disabled individual who was not receiving 79251
services through the care management system immediately before 79252
June 30, 2011, until the later of the following:79253

        (1) January 1, 2014;79254

        (2) One year after the date that the Department first 79255
designates any individual who receives Medicaid on the basis of 79256
being aged, blind, or disabled who is under twenty-one years of 79257
age as an individual who is permitted or required to participate 79258
in the care management system.79259

       Sec. 309.30.73. JOINT LEGISLATIVE COMMITTEE FOR UNIFIED 79260
LONG-TERM SERVICES AND SUPPORTS79261

       (A) There is hereby created the Joint Legislative Committee 79262
for Unified Long-Term Services and Supports. The Committee shall 79263
consist of the following members:79264

       (1) Two members of the House of Representatives from the 79265
majority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 79266
Representatives;79267

       (2) One member of the House of Representatives from the 79268
minority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 79269
Representatives;79270

       (3) Two members of the Senate from the majority party, 79271
appointed by the President of the Senate;79272

       (4) One member of the Senate from the minority party, 79273
appointed by the President of the Senate.79274

       (B) The Speaker of the House of Representatives shall 79275
designate one of the members of the Committee appointed under 79276
division (A)(1) of this section to serve as co-chairperson of the 79277
Committee. The President of the Senate shall designate one of the 79278
members of the Committee appointed under division (A)(3) of this 79279
section to serve as the other co-chairperson of the Committee. The 79280
Committee shall meet at the call of the co-chairpersons. The 79281
co-chairpersons may request assistance for the Committee from the 79282
Legislative Service Commission.79283

       (C) The Committee may examine the following issues:79284

       (1) The implementation of the dual eligible integrated care 79285
demonstration project authorized by section 5111.981 of the 79286
Revised Code;79287

       (2) The implementation of a unified long-term services and 79288
support Medicaid waiver component under section 5111.864 of the 79289
Revised Code;79290

       (3) Providing consumers choices regarding a continuum of 79291
services that meet their health-care needs, promote autonomy and 79292
independence, and improve quality of life;79293

       (4) Ensuring that long-term care services and supports are 79294
delivered in a cost-effective and quality manner;79295

       (5) Subjecting county homes, county nursing homes, and 79296
district homes operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised 79297
Code to the franchise permit fee under sections 3721.50 to 3721.58 79298
of the Revised Code;79299

       (6) Other issues of interest to the committee.79300

       (D) The co-chairpersons of the Committee shall provide for 79301
the Medical Assistance Director of the Office of Ohio Health Plans 79302
in the Department of Job and Family Services to testify before the 79303
Committee not later than September 30, 2011, and at least 79304
quarterly thereafter regarding the issues that the Committee 79305
examines.79306

       Sec. 309.35.73. HEALTHCARE COMPLIANCE APPROPRIATION79307

        Notwithstanding the provisions of section 5111.1715111.94679308
of the Revised Code specifying the uses of the HealthCareHealth 79309
Care Compliance Fund, appropriations in appropriation item 600625, 79310
HealthCare Compliance, may be used for expenses incurred in 79311
implementation or operation of Health Home programs, contracts for 79312
consultants regarding Medicaid, and for the creation, 79313
modification, or replacement of any federally funded Medicaid 79314
healthcare systems in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013.79315

       Sec. 313.10.  JCO JUDICIAL CONFERENCE OF OHIO79316

General Revenue Fund79317

GRF 018321 Operating Expenses $ 720,000 801,000 $ 720,000 801,700 79318
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 720,000 801,000 $ 720,000 801,700 79319

General Services Fund Group79320

4030 018601 Ohio Jury Instructions $ 350,000 $ 350,000 79321
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 350,000 $ 350,000 79322
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,070,000 1,151,000 $ 1,070,000 1,151,700 79323

       STATE COUNCIL OF UNIFORM STATE LAWS79324

       Notwithstanding section 105.26 of the Revised Code, of the 79325
foregoing appropriation item 018321, Operating Expenses, up to 79326
$81,000 in fiscal year 2012 and up to $81,700 in fiscal year 2013 79327
shall be used to pay the expenses of the State Council of Uniform 79328
State Laws, including membership dues to the National Conference 79329
of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws.79330

       OHIO JURY INSTRUCTIONS FUND79331

       The Ohio Jury Instructions Fund (Fund 4030) shall consist of 79332
grants, royalties, dues, conference fees, bequests, devises, and 79333
other gifts received for the purpose of supporting costs incurred 79334
by the Judicial Conference of Ohio in its activities as a part of 79335
the judicial system of the state as determined by the Judicial 79336
Conference Executive Committee. Fund 4030 shall be used by the 79337
Judicial Conference of Ohio to pay expenses incurred in its 79338
activities as a part of the judicial system of the state as 79339
determined by the Judicial Conference Executive Committee. All 79340
moneys accruing to Fund 4030 in excess of $350,000 in fiscal year 79341
2012 and in excess of $350,000 in fiscal year 2013 are hereby 79342
appropriated for the purposes authorized.79343

       No money in Fund 4030 shall be transferred to any other fund 79344
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board.79345

       Sec. 315.10.  JSC THE JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT79346

General Revenue Fund79347

GRF 005321 Operating Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court $ 133,704,620 132,347,507 $ 132,565,410 133,922,523 79348
GRF 005406 Law-Related Education $ 236,172 $ 236,172 79349
GRF 005409 Ohio Courts Technology Initiative $ 2,150,000 $ 2,150,000 79350
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 136,090,792 134,733,679 $ 134,951,582 136,308,695 79351

General Services Fund Group79352

6720 005601 Continuing Judicial Education $ 172,142 $ 169,420 79353
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 172,142 $ 169,420 79354

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group79355

3J00 005603 Federal Grants $ 1,653,317 $ 1,605,717 79356
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,653,317 $ 1,605,717 79357

State Special Revenue Fund Group79358

4C80 005605 Attorney Services $ 3,718,328 $ 3,695,192 79359
5HT0 005617 Court Interpreter Certification $ 39,000 $ 39,000 79360
5T80 005609 Grants and Awards $ 50,000 $ 50,000 79361
6A80 005606 Supreme Court Admissions $ 1,223,340 $ 1,205,056 79362
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,030,668 $ 4,989,248 79363
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 142,946,919 141,589,806 $ 141,715,967 143,073,080 79364

       OPERATING EXPENSES - JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT79365

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 005321, Operating 79366
Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court, up to $206,770 in each fiscal 79367
year may be used to support the functions of the State Criminal 79368
Sentencing Council.79369

       LAW-RELATED EDUCATION79370

       The foregoing appropriation item 005406, Law-Related 79371
Education, shall be distributed directly to the Ohio Center for 79372
Law-Related Education for the purposes of providing continuing 79373
citizenship education activities to primary and secondary 79374
students, expanding delinquency prevention programs, increasing 79375
activities for at-risk youth, and accessing additional public and 79376
private money for new programs.79377

       OHIO COURTS TECHNOLOGY INITIATIVE79378

       The foregoing appropriation item 005409, Ohio Courts 79379
Technology Initiative, shall be used to fund an initiative by the 79380
Supreme Court to facilitate the exchange of information and 79381
warehousing of data by and between Ohio courts and other justice 79382
system partners through the creation of an Ohio Courts Network, 79383
the delivery of technology services to courts throughout the 79384
state, including the provision of hardware, software, and the 79385
development and implementation of educational and training 79386
programs for judges and court personnel, and operation of the 79387
Commission on Technology and the Courts by the Supreme Court for 79388
the promulgation of statewide rules, policies, and uniform 79389
standards, and to aid in the orderly adoption and comprehensive 79390
use of technology in Ohio courts.79391

       CONTINUING JUDICIAL EDUCATION79392

       The Continuing Judicial Education Fund (Fund 6720) shall 79393
consist of fees paid by judges and court personnel for attending 79394
continuing education courses and other gifts and grants received 79395
for the purpose of continuing judicial education. The foregoing 79396
appropriation item 005601, Continuing Judicial Education, shall be 79397
used to pay expenses for continuing education courses for judges 79398
and court personnel. If it is determined by the Administrative 79399
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 79400
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.79401

       No money in Fund 6720 shall be transferred to any other fund 79402
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 79403
Interest earned on money in Fund 6720 shall be credited to the 79404
fund.79405

       FEDERAL GRANTS79406

       The Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3J00) shall consist of grants 79407
and other moneys awarded to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) by 79408
the United States Government or other entities that receive the 79409
moneys directly from the United States Government and distribute 79410
those moneys to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary). The foregoing 79411
appropriation item 005603, Federal Grants, shall be used in a 79412
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 79413
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 79414
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 79415
hereby appropriated.79416

       No money in Fund 3J00 shall be transferred to any other fund 79417
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 79418
However, interest earned on money in Fund 3J00 shall be credited 79419
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.79420

       ATTORNEY SERVICES79421

       The Attorney Services Fund (Fund 4C80), formerly known as the 79422
Attorney Registration Fund, shall consist of money received by the 79423
Supreme Court (The Judiciary) pursuant to the Rules for the 79424
Government of the Bar of Ohio. In addition to funding other 79425
activities considered appropriate by the Supreme Court, the 79426
foregoing appropriation item 005605, Attorney Services, may be 79427
used to compensate employees and to fund appropriate activities of 79428
the following offices established by the Supreme Court: the Office 79429
of Disciplinary Counsel, the Board of Commissioners on Grievances 79430
and Discipline, the Clients' Security Fund, and the Attorney 79431
Services Division. If it is determined by the Administrative 79432
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 79433
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.79434

       No money in Fund 4C80 shall be transferred to any other fund 79435
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 79436
Interest earned on money in Fund 4C80 shall be credited to the 79437
fund.79438

       COURT INTERPRETER CERTIFICATION79439

       The Court Interpreter Certification Fund (Fund 5HT0) shall 79440
consist of money received by the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) 79441
pursuant to Rules 80 through 87 of the Rules of Superintendence 79442
for the Courts of Ohio. The foregoing appropriation item 005617, 79443
Court Interpreter Certification, shall be used to provide 79444
training, to provide the written examination, and to pay language 79445
experts to rate, or grade, the oral examinations of those applying 79446
to become certified court interpreters. If it is determined by the 79447
Administrative Director that additional appropriations are 79448
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.79449

       No money in Fund 5HT0 shall be transferred to any other fund 79450
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 79451
Interest earned on money in Fund 5HT0 shall be credited to the 79452
fund.79453

       GRANTS AND AWARDS79454

       The Grants and Awards Fund (Fund 5T80) shall consist of 79455
grants and other money awarded to the Supreme Court (The 79456
Judiciary) by the State Justice Institute, the Division of 79457
Criminal Justice Services, or other entities. The foregoing 79458
appropriation item 005609, Grants and Awards, shall be used in a 79459
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 79460
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 79461
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 79462
hereby appropriated.79463

       No money in Fund 5T80 shall be transferred to any other fund 79464
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 79465
However, interest earned on money in Fund 5T80 shall be credited 79466
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.79467

       SUPREME COURT ADMISSIONS79468

       The foregoing appropriation item 005606, Supreme Court 79469
Admissions, shall be used to compensate Supreme Court employees 79470
who are primarily responsible for administering the attorney 79471
admissions program under the Rules for the Government of the Bar 79472
of Ohio, and to fund any other activities considered appropriate 79473
by the court. Moneys shall be deposited into the Supreme Court 79474
Admissions Fund (Fund 6A80) under the Supreme Court Rules for the 79475
Government of the Bar of Ohio. If it is determined by the 79476
Administrative Director of the Supreme Court that additional 79477
appropriations are necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.79478

       No money in Fund 6A80 shall be transferred to any other fund 79479
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 79480
Interest earned on money in Fund 6A80 shall be credited to the 79481
fund.79482

       Sec. 323.10. LSC LEGISLATIVE SERVICE COMMISSION79483

General Revenue Fund79484

GRF 035321 Operating Expenses $ 15,117,700 $ 15,117,700 79485
GRF 035402 Legislative Fellows $ 1,022,120 $ 1,022,120 79486
GRF 035405 Correctional Institution Inspection Committee $ 438,900 $ 438,900 79487
GRF 035407 Legislative Task Force on Redistricting $ 590,000 $ 750,000 79488
GRF 035409 National Associations $ 460,560 $ 460,560 79489
GRF 035410 Legislative Information Systems $ 3,661,250 $ 3,661,250 3,861,250 79490
GRF 035411 Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission $ 50,000 $ 50,000 79491
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 21,340,530 $ 21,500,530 21,700,530 79492

General Services Fund Group79493

4100 035601 Sale of Publications $ 10,000 $ 10,000 79494
4F60 035603 Legislative Budget Services $ 200,000 $ 200,000 79495
5EF0 035607 Legislative Agency Telephone Usage $ 30,000 $ 30,000 79496
TOTAL GSF General Services 79497
Fund Group $ 240,000 $ 240,000 79498
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,580,530 $ 21,740,530 21,940,530 79499

        OPERATING EXPENSES79500

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79501
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 79502
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 79503
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 79504
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2011 to be 79505
reappropriated to fiscal year 2012. The amount certified is hereby 79506
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 79507
2012.79508

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79509
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 79510
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 79511
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 79512
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2012 to be 79513
reappropriated to fiscal year 2013. The amount certified is hereby 79514
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 79515
2013.79516

       LEGISLATIVE TASK FORCE ON REDISTRICTING79517

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 79518
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 79519
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2011 is hereby 79520
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 79521
purpose for fiscal year 2012.79522

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 79523
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 79524
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby 79525
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 79526
purpose for fiscal year 2013.79527

        LEGISLATIVE INFORMATION SYSTEMS79528

       On July 1, 2011, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79529
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 79530
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 79531
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 79532
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2011 to 79533
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2012. The amount certified is 79534
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 79535
year 2012.79536

        On July 1, 2012, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 79537
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 79538
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 79539
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 79540
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2012 to 79541
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2013. The amount certified is 79542
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 79543
year 2013.79544

       OHIO CONSTITUTIONAL MODERNIZATION COMMISSION79545

       The foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 79546
Modernization Commission, shall be used to support the operation 79547
and expenses of the Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission 79548
under sections 103.61 to 103.67 of the Revised Code.79549

       Sec. 327.10. LCO LIQUOR CONTROL COMMISSION79550

State Special Revenue Fund Group79551

5LP0 970601 Commission Operating Expense $ 0 $ 754,146 79552
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 0 $ 754,146 79553

Liquor Control Fund Group79554

7043 970321 Operating Expenses $ 753,933 $ 754,146 0 79555
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control Fund Group $ 753,933 $ 754,146 0 79556
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 753,933 $ 754,146 79557


       Sec. 335.10. AMB OHIO MEDICAL TRANSPORTATION BOARD79559

General Services Fund Group79560

4K90 915604 Operating Expenses $ 493,641 $ 493,856 0 79561
TOTAL GSF General Services 79562
Fund Group $ 493,641 $ 493,856 0 79563
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 493,641 $ 493,856 0 79564


       Sec. 337.10. DMH DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH79566

General Revenue Fund79567

GRF 332401 Forensic Services $ 3,244,251 $ 3,244,251 79568
GRF 333321 Central Administration $ 16,000,000 $ 16,000,000 79569
GRF 333402 Resident Trainees $ 450,000 $ 450,000 79570
GRF 333403 Pre-Admission Screening Expenses $ 486,119 $ 486,119 286,119 79571
GRF 333415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 18,394,250 $ 19,907,900 17,907,900 79572
GRF 333416 Research Program Evaluation $ 421,724 $ 421,998 79573
GRF 334412 Hospital Services $ 194,918,888 $ 192,051,209 191,051,209 79574
GRF 334506 Court Costs $ 584,210 $ 584,210 79575
GRF 335405 Family & Children First $ 1,386,000 $ 1,386,000 79576
GRF 335419 Community Medication Subsidy $ 8,963,818 $ 8,963,818 79577
GRF 335501 Mental Health Medicaid Match $ 186,400,000 $ 0 79578
GRF 335505 Local Mental Health Systems of Care $ 49,963,776 $ 59,087,955 62,087,955 79579
GRF 335506 Residential State Supplement $ 4,702,875 $ 4,702,875 79580
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 485,915,911 $ 307,286,335 307,086,335 79581

General Services Fund Group79582

1490 333609 Central Office Operating $ 1,343,190 $ 1,343,190 79583
1490 334609 Hospital - Operating Expenses $ 28,190,000 $ 28,190,000 79584
1500 334620 Special Education $ 150,000 $ 150,000 79585
4P90 335604 Community Mental Health Projects $ 4,061,100 $ 250,000 79586
1510 336601 Office of Support Services $ 129,770,770 $ 129,779,822 127,297,130 79587
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 163,515,060 $ 159,713,012 157,230,320 79588

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group79589

3240 333605 Medicaid/Medicare $ 154,500 $ 154,500 79590
3A60 333608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 140,000 $ 140,000 79591
3A70 333612 Social Services Block Grant $ 50,000 $ 50,000 79592
3A80 333613 Federal Grant - Administration $ 4,717,000 $ 4,717,000 79593
3A90 333614 Mental Health Block Grant - Administration $ 748,470 $ 748,470 79594
3B10 333635 Community Medicaid Expansion $ 13,691,682 $ 13,691,682 79595
3240 334605 Medicaid/Medicare $ 28,200,000 $ 28,200,000 79596
3A60 334608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 200,000 $ 200,000 79597
3A80 334613 Federal Letter of Credit $ 200,000 $ 200,000 79598
3A60 335608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 2,170,000 $ 2,170,000 79599
3A70 335612 Social Services Block Grant $ 8,400,000 $ 8,400,000 79600
3A80 335613 Federal Grant - Community Mental Health Board Subsidy $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 79601
3A90 335614 Mental Health Block Grant $ 14,200,000 $ 14,200,000 79602
3B10 335635 Community Medicaid Expansion $ 346,200,000 $ 0 79603
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 421,571,652 $ 75,371,652 79604

State Special Revenue Fund Group79605

2320 333621 Family and Children First Administration $ 448,286 $ 432,197 79606
4850 333632 Mental Health Operating $ 134,233 $ 134,233 79607
4X50 333607 Behavioral Health Medicaid Services $ 3,000,624 $ 3,000,624 79608
5V20 333611 Non-Federal Miscellaneous $ 100,000 $ 100,000 79609
4850 334632 Mental Health Operating $ 2,477,500 $ 2,477,500 79610
5AU0 335615 Behavioral Healthcare $ 6,690,000 $ 6,690,000 79611
6320 335616 Community Capital Replacement $ 350,000 $ 350,000 79612
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 13,200,643 $ 13,184,554 79613
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,084,203,266 $ 555,555,553 552,872,861 79614


       Sec. 343.10. DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES79616

General Revenue Fund79617

GRF 725401 Wildlife-GRF Central Support $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 79618
GRF 725413 Lease Rental Payments $ 20,568,600 $ 19,734,700 79619
GRF 725456 Canal Lands $ 135,000 $ 135,000 79620
GRF 725502 Soil and Water Districts $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 79621
GRF 725505 Healthy Lake Erie Fund $ 0 $ 3,350,000 79622
GRF 725903 Natural Resources General Obligation Debt Service $ 5,375,300 $ 25,209,100 79623
GRF 727321 Division of Forestry $ 4,878,338 $ 4,880,000 79624
GRF 729321 Office of Information Technology $ 194,118 $ 197,117 79625
GRF 730321 Division of Parks and Recreation $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 79626
GRF 736321 Division of Engineering $ 3,024,459 $ 3,025,078 2,995,078 79627
GRF 737321 Division of Soil and Water Resources $ 4,982,961 $ 4,983,356 79628
GRF 741321 Division of Natural Areas and Preserves $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 79629
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 75,058,776 $ 94,064,351 97,384,351 79630

General Services Fund Group79631

1550 725601 Departmental Projects $ 3,365,651 $ 2,725,484 2,512,977 79632
1570 725651 Central Support Indirect $ 5,854,167 $ 5,857,800 79633
2040 725687 Information Services $ 4,659,276 $ 4,643,835 79634
2070 725690 Real Estate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 79635
2230 725665 Law Enforcement Administration $ 2,106,776 $ 2,126,432 79636
2270 725406 Parks Projects Personnel $ 436,500 $ 436,500 79637
4300 725671 Canal Lands $ 907,618 $ 907,879 883,879 79638
4D50 725618 Recycled Materials $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 79639
4S90 725622 NatureWorks Personnel $ 400,358 $ 400,358 79640
4X80 725662 Water Resources Council $ 138,011 $ 138,005 79641
5100 725631 Maintenance - State-owned Residences $ 303,611 $ 303,611 79642
5160 725620 Water Management $ 2,541,565 $ 2,559,292 79643
6350 725664 Fountain Square Facilities Management $ 3,544,623 $ 3,548,445 3,473,413 79644
6970 725670 Submerged Lands $ 836,162 $ 848,546 79645
TOTAL GSF General Services 79646
Fund Group $ 25,194,318 $ 24,596,187 24,234,648 79647

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group79648

3320 725669 Federal Mine Safety Grant $ 258,102 $ 258,102 79649
3B30 725640 Federal Forest Pass-Thru $ 600,000 $ 600,000 79650
3B40 725641 Federal Flood Pass-Thru $ 600,000 $ 600,000 79651
3B50 725645 Federal Abandoned Mine Lands $ 21,007,667 $ 21,207,667 79652
3B60 725653 Federal Land and Water Conservation Grants $ 1,150,000 $ 1,150,000 79653
3B70 725654 Reclamation - Regulatory $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 79654
3P10 725632 Geological Survey - Federal $ 692,401 $ 692,401 79655
3P20 725642 Oil and Gas-Federal $ 234,509 $ 234,509 79656
3P30 725650 Coastal Management - Federal $ 3,290,633 $ 3,290,633 79657
3P40 725660 Federal - Soil and Water Resources $ 1,213,048 $ 1,209,957 79658
3R50 725673 Acid Mine Drainage Abatement/Treatment $ 2,025,001 $ 2,025,001 79659
3Z50 725657 Federal Recreation and Trails $ 1,850,000 $ 1,850,000 79660
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 79661
Fund Group $ 36,121,361 $ 36,318,270 79662

State Special Revenue Fund Group79663

4J20 725628 Injection Well Review $ 130,899 $ 128,466 79664
4M70 725686 Wildfire Suppression $ 100,000 $ 100,000 79665
4U60 725668 Scenic Rivers Protection $ 100,000 $ 100,000 79666
5090 725602 State Forest $ 7,891,747 $ 7,058,793 79667
5110 725646 Ohio Geological Mapping $ 704,777 $ 705,130 79668
5120 725605 State Parks Operations $ 32,284,117 $ 31,550,444 79669
5140 725606 Lake Erie Shoreline $ 1,502,654 $ 1,505,983 79670
5180 725643 Oil and Gas Permit Fees $ 5,821,970 $ 5,623,645 9,823,645 79671
5180 725677 Oil and Gas Well Plugging $ 800,000 $ 800,000 79672
5210 725627 Off-Road Vehicle Trails $ 143,490 $ 143,490 79673
5220 725656 Natural Areas and Preserves $ 546,580 $ 546,639 79674
5260 725610 Strip Mining Administration Fee $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 79675
5270 725637 Surface Mining Administration $ 1,940,977 $ 1,941,532 79676
5290 725639 Unreclaimed Land Fund $ 2,004,180 $ 2,004,180 79677
5310 725648 Reclamation Forfeiture $ 1,423,000 $ 1,423,000 500,000 79678
5320 725644 Litter Control and Recycling $ 4,926,730 $ 4,911,575 0 79679
5860 725633 Scrap Tire Program $ 1,497,645 $ 1,497,645 0 79680
5B30 725674 Mining Regulation $ 28,135 $ 28,135 79681
5BV0 725658 Heidelberg Water Quality Lab $ 250,000 $ 250,000 79682
5BV0 725683 Soil and Water Districts $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 79683
5CU0 725647 Mine Safety $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 79684
5EJ0 725608 Forestry Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 79685
5EK0 725611 Natural Areas & Preserves Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 79686
5EL0 725612 Wildlife Law Enforcement $ 12,000 $ 12,000 79687
5EM0 725613 Park Law Enforcement $ 34,000 $ 34,000 79688
5EN0 725614 Watercraft Law Enforcement $ 2,500 $ 2,500 79689
5HK0 725625 Ohio Nature Preserves $ 1,000 $ 1,000 79690
6150 725661 Dam Safety $ 925,344 $ 926,028 79691
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 79692
Fund Group $ 76,073,745 $ 74,296,185 71,163,965 79693

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group79694

7061 725405 Clean Ohio Operating $ 300,775 $ 300,775 79695
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 300,775 $ 300,775 79696

Wildlife Fund Group79697

5P20 725634 Wildlife Boater Angler Administration $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 79698
7015 740401 Division of Wildlife Conservation $ 52,721,044 $ 51,669,158 79699
8150 725636 Cooperative Management Projects $ 120,449 $ 120,449 79700
8160 725649 Wetlands Habitat $ 966,885 $ 966,885 79701
8170 725655 Wildlife Conservation Checkoff Fund $ 3,240,000 $ 3,240,000 79702
8180 725629 Cooperative Fisheries Research $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 79703
8190 725685 Ohio River Management $ 128,584 $ 128,584 79704
TOTAL WLF Wildlife Fund Group $ 62,676,962 $ 61,625,076 79705

Waterways Safety Fund Group79706

7086 725414 Waterways Improvement $ 5,692,601 $ 5,693,671 79707
7086 725418 Buoy Placement $ 52,182 $ 52,182 79708
7086 725501 Waterway Safety Grants $ 120,000 $ 120,000 79709
7086 725506 Watercraft Marine Patrol $ 576,153 $ 576,153 79710
7086 725513 Watercraft Educational Grants $ 366,643 $ 366,643 79711
7086 739401 Division of Watercraft $ 18,040,593 $ 17,552,370 79712
TOTAL WSF Waterways Safety Fund 79713
Group $ 24,848,172 $ 24,361,019 79714

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group79715

4M80 725675 FOP Contract $ 20,219 $ 20,219 79716
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave 79717
Liability Fund Group $ 20,219 $ 20,219 79718

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group79719

R017 725659 Performance Cash Bond Refunds $ 296,263 $ 296,263 79720
R043 725624 Forestry $ 2,000,000 $ 2,154,750 79721
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 79722
Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,296,263 $ 2,451,013 79723
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 302,590,591 $ 318,033,095 317,859,336 79724


       Sec. 343.40.  LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS79726

       The foregoing appropriation item 725413, Lease Rental 79727
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 79728
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2011, through 79729
June 30, 2013, by the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 79730
leases and agreements made under section 154.22 of the Revised 79731
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 79732
bond service charges or obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 79733
154. of the Revised Code.79734

       CANAL LANDS79735

        The foregoing appropriation item 725456, Canal Lands, shall 79736
be used to transfer funds to the Canal Lands Fund (Fund 4300) to 79737
provide operating expenses for the State Canal Lands Program. The 79738
transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher and 79739
shall be subject to the approval of the Director of Budget and 79740
Management.79741

       HEALTHY LAKE ERIE FUND79742

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 725505, Healthy Lake Erie 79743
Fund, up to $3,000,000 shall be used by the Director of Natural 79744
Resources, in consultation with the Director of Agriculture and 79745
the Director of Environmental Protection, to implement 79746
nonstatutory recommendations of the Agriculture Nutrients and 79747
Water Quality Working Group. The Director shall give priority to 79748
recommendations that encourage farmers to adopt agricultural 79749
production guidelines commonly known as 4R nutrient stewardship 79750
practices. Funds may also be used for enhanced soil testing in the 79751
Western Lake Erie Basin, monitoring the quality of Lake Erie and 79752
its tributaries, and conducting research and establishing pilot 79753
projects that have the goal of reducing algae blooms in Lake Erie.79754

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 725505, Healthy Lake Erie 79755
Fund, up to $350,000 in fiscal year 2013 may be used by the 79756
Director of Natural Resources for monitoring inland lakes and 79757
stream water quality.79758

       NATURAL RESOURCES GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE79759

       The foregoing appropriation item 725903, Natural Resources 79760
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 79761
service and related financing costs during the period July 1, 79762
2011, through June 30, 2013, on obligations issued under sections 79763
151.01 and 151.05 of the Revised Code.79764

       Sec. 365.10. PUC PUBLIC UTILITIES COMMISSION OF OHIO79765

General Services Fund Group79766

5F60 870622 Utility and Railroad Regulation $ 30,637,234 $ 31,638,708 79767
5F60 870624 NARUC/NRRI Subsidy $ 158,000 $ 158,000 100,000 79768
5F60 870625 Motor Transportation Regulation $ 4,976,641 $ 5,971,218 0 79769
5Q50 870626 Telecommunications Relay Service $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 79770
TOTAL GSF General Services 79771
Fund Group $ 40,771,875 $ 42,767,926 36,738,708 79772

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group79773

3330 870601 Gas Pipeline Safety $ 597,959 $ 597,959 79774
3500 870608 Motor Carrier Safety $ 7,351,660 $ 7,351,660 79775
3CU0 870627 Electric Market Modeling $ 91,183 $ 0 79776
3EA0 870630 Energy Assurance Planning $ 384,000 $ 384,000 79777
3ED0 870631 State Regulators Assistance $ 231,824 $ 231,824 79778
3V30 870604 Commercial Vehicle Information Systems/Networks $ 100,000 $ 100,000 79779
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 79780
Fund Group $ 8,756,626 $ 8,665,443 79781

State Special Revenue Fund Group79782

4A30 870614 Grade Crossing Protection Devices-State $ 1,347,357 $ 1,347,357 79783
4L80 870617 Pipeline Safety-State $ 181,992 $ 181,992 79784
4S60 870618 Hazardous Material Registration $ 450,395 $ 450,395 0 79785
4S60 870621 Hazardous Materials Base State Registration $ 373,346 $ 373,346 0 79786
4U80 870620 Civil Forfeitures $ 277,347 $ 277,496 0 79787
5590 870605 Public Utilities Territorial Administration $ 3,880 $ 3,880 0 79788
5600 870607 Special Assessment $ 97,000 $ 97,000 0 79789
5610 870606 Power Siting Board $ 631,508 $ 631,618 581,618 79790
5BP0 870623 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 36,440,000 $ 18,220,000 17,757,250 79791
5HD0 870629 Radioactive Waste Transportation $ 98,800 $ 98,800 0 79792
5LT0 870640 Intrastate Registration $ 0 $ 180,000 79793
5LT0 870641 Unified Carrier Registration $ 0 $ 420,000 79794
5LT0 870642 Hazardous Materials Registration $ 0 $ 823,741 79795
5LT0 870643 Nonhazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 0 $ 277,496 79796
5LT0 870644 Hazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 0 $ 898,800 79797
5LT0 870645 Motor Carrier Enforcement $ 0 $ 5,401,318 79798
6380 870611 Biofuels/Municipal Waste Technology $ 570 $ 0 79799
6610 870612 Hazardous Materials Transportation $ 898,800 $ 898,800 0 79800
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 79801
Fund Group $ 40,800,995 $ 22,580,684 27,869,572 79802
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 90,329,496 $ 74,014,053 73,273,723 79803

        COMMUNITY-VOICEMAIL SERVICE PILOT PROGRAM79804

       The Community-voicemail Service Pilot Program assessments 79805
authorized by Section 6 of Sub. S.B. 162 of the 128th General 79806
Assembly shall cease. These assessments shall be refunded without 79807
interest to those assessed under the program by the Public 79808
Utilities Commission within 60 days of the effective date of this 79809
section.79810

       FUND ADJUSTMENTS79811

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 79812
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balances 79813
in the Hazardous Materials Registration Fund (Fund 4S60) and the 79814
Base State Registration Fund (Fund 4G40) to the Public Utilities 79815
Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The Director shall cancel 79816
any existing encumbrances against appropriation items 870618, 79817
Hazardous Material Registration, and 870621, Hazardous Materials 79818
Base State Registration, and reestablish them against 79819
appropriation item 870642, Hazardous Materials Registration. The 79820
amounts of the reestablished encumbrances are hereby appropriated. 79821
Upon completion of these transfers, the Hazardous Materials 79822
Registration Fund (Fund 4S60) and the Base State Registration Fund 79823
(Fund 4G40) are hereby abolished.79824

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 79825
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 79826
in the Transportation Enforcement Fund (Fund 4U80) to the Public 79827
Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The Director 79828
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 79829
870620, Civil Forfeitures, and reestablish them against 79830
appropriation item 870643, Nonhazardous Materials Civil 79831
Forfeitures. The amounts of the reestablished encumbrances are 79832
hereby appropriated. Upon completion of these transfers, the 79833
Transportation Enforcement Fund (Fund 4U80) is hereby abolished.79834

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 79835
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 79836
in the Radioactive Waste Transportation Fund (Fund 5HD0) to the 79837
Public Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The 79838
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 79839
appropriation item 870629, Radioactive Waste Transportation, and 79840
reestablish them against appropriation item 870645, Motor Carrier 79841
Enforcement. The amounts of the reestablished encumbrances are 79842
hereby appropriated. Upon completion of these transfers, the 79843
Radioactive Waste Transportation Fund (Fund 5HD0) is hereby 79844
abolished.79845

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 79846
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 79847
in the Hazardous Materials Transportation Fund (Fund 6610) to the 79848
Public Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The 79849
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 79850
appropriation item 870612, Hazardous Materials Transportation, and 79851
reestablish them against appropriation item 870644, Hazardous 79852
Materials Civil Forfeitures. The amounts of the reestablished 79853
encumbrances are hereby appropriated. Upon completion of these 79854
transfers, the Hazardous Materials Transportation Fund (Fund 6610) 79855
is hereby abolished.79856

       On July 1, 2012, or as soon as practicable thereafter, the 79857
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash in an amount 79858
up to $21,000,000 from the Public Utilities Fund (Fund 5F60) to 79859
the Public Utilities Transportation Safety Fund (Fund 5LT0). The 79860
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 79861
appropriation item 870625, Motor Transportation Regulation, and 79862
reestablish encumbrances or parts of encumbrances as needed in the 79863
fiscal year in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the 79864
same purpose and to the same vendor. The amounts of the 79865
reestablished encumbrances are hereby appropriated.79866

       The fund created by division (E) of section 4921.21 of the 79867
Revised Code is the same fund, with the same name, as the Motor 79868
Carrier Safety Fund (Fund 3500).79869

       The fund created by division (D) of section 4921.21 of the 79870
Revised Code is the same fund, with the same name, as the 79871
Commercial Vehicle Transportation Systems Fund (Fund 3V30).79872

       Sec. 367.10. PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION79873

General Revenue Fund79874

GRF 150904 Conservation General Obligation Debt Service $ 21,953,000 $ 29,297,300 79875
GRF 150907 State Capital Improvements $ 106,770,600 $ 215,571,100 208,571,100 79876
General Obligation Debt Service 79877
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 128,723,600 $ 244,868,400 237,868,400 79878

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group79879

7056 150403 Clean Ohio Operating Expenses $ 300,000 $ 288,980 79880
TOTAL 056 Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 300,000 $ 288,980 79881

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 129,023,600 $ 245,157,380 238,157,380 79882

       CONSERVATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE79883

       The foregoing appropriation item 150904, Conservation General 79884
Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt service and 79885
related financing costs during the period from July 1, 2011, 79886
through June 30, 2013, at the times they are required to be made 79887
for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the 79888
Revised Code.79889

       STATE CAPITAL IMPROVEMENTS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE79890

       The foregoing appropriation item 150907, State Capital 79891
Improvements General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 79892
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 79893
from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2013, at the times they are 79894
required to be made for obligations issued under sections 151.01 79895
and 151.08 of the Revised Code.79896

       CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES79897

       The foregoing appropriation item 150403, Clean Ohio Operating 79898
Expenses, shall be used by the Ohio Public Works Commission in 79899
administering Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) projects 79900
pursuant to sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code.79901

       REIMBURSEMENT TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND79902

        (A) On or before July 15, 2013, the Director of the Public 79903
Works Commission shall certify to the Director of Budget and 79904
Management the following:79905

        (1) The total amount disbursed from appropriation item 79906
700409, Farmland Preservation, during the FY 2012-FY 2013 79907
biennium; and79908

        (2) The amount of interest earnings that have been credited 79909
to the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) that are in excess 79910
of the amount needed for other purposes as calculated by the 79911
Director of the Public Works Commission.79912

        (B) If the Director of Budget and Management determines under 79913
division (A)(2) of this section that there are excess interest 79914
earnings, the Director of Budget and Management shall, on or 79915
before July 15, 2013, transfer the excess interest earnings to the 79916
General Revenue Fund in an amount equal to the total amount 79917
disbursed under division (A)(1) of this section from the Clean 79918
Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056).79919

       Sec. 369.10. RAC STATE RACING COMMISSION79920

State Special Revenue Fund Group79921

5620 875601 Thoroughbred Race Fund $ 1,796,328 $ 1,696,456 79922
5630 875602 Standardbred Development Fund $ 1,697,418 $ 1,697,452 79923
5640 875603 Quarter Horse Development Fund $ 1,000 $ 1,000 79924
5650 875604 Racing Commission Operating $ 3,095,331 $ 2,934,178 79925
5C40 875607 Simulcast Horse Racing Purse $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 79926
5JK0 875610 Racing Commission Fund $ 339,919 $ 8,169,547 79927
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 79928
Fund Group $ 18,590,078 18,929,996 $ 18,329,087 26,498,633 79929

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group79930

R021 875605 Bond Reimbursements $ 100,000 $ 100,000 79931
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution 79932
Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 79933
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 18,690,078 19,029,996 $ 18,429,087 26,598,633 79934


       Sec. 371.10. BOR BOARD OF REGENTS79936

General Revenue Fund79937

GRF 235321 Operating Expenses $ 2,300,000 $ 2,300,000 79938
GRF 235401 Lease Rental Payments $ 83,151,600 $ 57,634,400 79939
GRF 235402 Sea Grants $ 285,000 $ 285,000 79940
GRF 235406 Articulation and Transfer $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 79941
GRF 235408 Midwest Higher Education Compact $ 95,000 $ 95,000 79942
GRF 235409 HEI Information System $ 800,000 $ 800,000 79943
GRF 235414 State Grants and Scholarship Administration $ 1,230,000 $ 1,230,000 79944
GRF 235417 Ohio Learning Network eStudent Services $ 2,532,688 $ 2,532,688 79945
GRF 235428 Appalachian New Economy Partnership $ 737,366 $ 737,366 79946
GRF 235433 Economic Growth Challenge $ 440,000 $ 440,000 79947
GRF 235438 Choose Ohio First Scholarship $ 15,750,085 $ 15,750,085 79948
GRF 235443 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - State $ 7,302,416 $ 7,302,416 79949
GRF 235444 Post-Secondary Adult Career-Technical Education $ 15,317,547 $ 15,317,547 79950
GRF 235474 Area Health Education Centers Program Support $ 900,000 $ 900,000 79951
GRF 235501 State Share of Instruction $ 1,735,530,031 $ 1,751,225,497 79952
GRF 235502 Student Support Services $ 632,974 $ 632,974 79953
GRF 235504 War Orphans Scholarships $ 4,787,833 $ 4,787,833 79954
GRF 235507 OhioLINK $ 6,100,000 $ 6,100,000 79955
GRF 235508 Air Force Institute of Technology $ 1,740,803 $ 1,740,803 79956
GRF 235510 Ohio Supercomputer Center $ 3,347,418 $ 3,347,418 79957
GRF 235511 Cooperative Extension Service $ 22,220,910 $ 22,220,910 79958
GRF 235514 Central State Supplement $ 11,503,651 $ 10,928,468 79959
GRF 235515 Case Western Reserve University School of Medicine $ 2,146,253 $ 2,146,253 79960
GRF 235519 Family Practice $ 3,166,185 $ 3,166,185 79961
GRF 235520 Shawnee State Supplement $ 2,448,523 $ 2,326,097 79962
GRF 235524 Police and Fire Protection $ 107,814 $ 107,814 79963
GRF 235525 Geriatric Medicine $ 522,151 $ 522,151 79964
GRF 235526 Primary Care Residencies $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 79965
GRF 235535 Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center $ 33,100,000 $ 33,100,000 79966
GRF 235536 The Ohio State University Clinical Teaching $ 9,668,941 $ 9,668,941 79967
GRF 235537 University of Cincinnati Clinical Teaching $ 7,952,573 $ 7,952,573 79968
GRF 235538 University of Toledo Clinical Teaching $ 6,198,600 $ 6,198,600 79969
GRF 235539 Wright State University Clinical Teaching $ 3,011,400 $ 3,011,400 79970
GRF 235540 Ohio University Clinical Teaching $ 2,911,212 $ 2,911,212 79971
GRF 235541 Northeast Ohio Medical University Clinical Teaching $ 2,994,178 $ 2,994,178 79972
GRF 235552 Capital Component $ 20,638,274 $ 20,638,274 13,628,639 79973
GRF 235555 Library Depositories $ 1,440,342 $ 1,440,342 79974
GRF 235556 Ohio Academic Resources Network $ 3,172,519 $ 3,172,519 79975
GRF 235558 Long-term Care Research $ 195,300 $ 195,300 79976
GRF 235563 Ohio College Opportunity Grant $ 80,284,265 $ 80,284,265 79977
GRF 235572 The Ohio State University Clinic Support $ 766,533 $ 766,533 79978
GRF 235599 National Guard Scholarship Program $ 16,912,271 $ 18,143,293 79979
GRF 235909 Higher Education General Obligation Debt Service $ 108,262,500 $ 201,555,000 79980
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,226,105,156 $ 2,310,109,335 2,303,099,700 79981

General Services Fund Group79982

2200 235614 Program Approval and Reauthorization $ 1,311,567 $ 1,457,959 79983
4560 235603 Sales and Services $ 199,250 $ 199,250 79984
5JC0 235649 Co-op Internship Program $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 79985
5JC0 235667 Ohio College Opportunity Grant-Proprietary $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 79986
5JC0 235668 Air Force Institute of Technology - Defense/Aerospace Graduate Studies Institute $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 79987
TOTAL GSF General Services 79988
Fund Group $ 23,510,817 $ 23,657,209 79989

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group79990

3120 235609 Tech Prep $ 183,850 $ 183,850 0 79991
3120 235611 Gear-up Grant $ 3,900,000 $ 3,900,000 50,000 79992
3120 235612 Carl D. Perkins Grant/Plan Administration $ 912,961 $ 912,961 79993
3120 235617 Improving Teacher Quality Grant $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 79994
3120 235641 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - Federal $ 14,835,671 $ 14,835,671 79995
3120 235659 Race to the Top Scholarship Program $ 2,400,000 $ 3,780,000 0 79996
3120 235660 Race to the Top Educator Preparation Reform Initiative $ 448,000 $ 1,120,000 0 79997
3120 235661 Americorps Grant $ 260,000 $ 260,000 0 79998
3H20 235608 Human Services Project $ 3,500,000 $ 3,500,000 79999
3N60 235638 College Access Challenge Grant $ 4,381,431 $ 4,381,431 80000
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 80001
Fund Group $ 34,021,913 $ 36,073,913 26,880,063 80002

State Special Revenue Fund Group80003

4E80 235602 Higher Educational Facility Commission Administration $ 29,100 $ 29,100 80004
5FR0 235640 Joyce Foundation Shifting Gears Grant $ 919,719 $ 919,719 80005
5FR0 235647 Developmental Education Initiatives $ 135,000 $ 135,000 80006
5FR0 235657 Win-Win Grant $ 37,000 $ 15,000 80007
5P30 235663 Variable Savings Plan $ 8,946,994 $ 9,072,136 80008
6450 235664 Guaranteed Savings Plan $ 900,293 $ 907,514 80009
6820 235606 Nursing Loan Program $ 891,320 $ 891,320 80010
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80011
Fund Group $ 11,859,426 $ 11,969,789 80012

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group80013

7011 235634 Research Incentive Third Frontier Fund $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 80014
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 80015
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,303,497,312 $ 2,389,810,246 2,373,606,761 80016


       Sec. 371.30.30. AIR FORCE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY80018

       The foregoing appropriation item 235508, Air Force Institute 80019
of Technology, shall be used by the director of the Air Force 80020
Institute to: (A) strengthen the research and educational linkages 80021
between the Wright Patterson Air Force Base and institutions of 80022
higher education in Ohio; and (B) support the Dayton Area Graduate 80023
Studies Institute, an engineering graduate consortium of Wright 80024
State University, the University of Dayton, and the Air Force 80025
Institute of Technology, with the participation of the University 80026
of Cincinnati and The Ohio State University. 80027

       Any unexpended and unencumbered portion of the foregoing 80028
appropriation item 235508, Air Force Institute of Technology, at 80029
the end of fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for the same 80030
purpose in fiscal year 2013.80031

       Sec. 371.50.61. CO-OP INTERNSHIP PROGRAM80032

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 80033
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 80034
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 80035
Ohio University's Voinovich School.80036

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 80037
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year, shall be used by the 80038
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 80039
The Ohio State University's John Glenn School of Public Affairs.80040

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 80041
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 80042
Bliss Institute of Applied Politics at the University of Akron.80043

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 80044
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 80045
Center for Public Management and Regional Affairs at Miami 80046
University.80047

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 80048
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 80049
Washington Center Internship Program.80050

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 80051
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 80052
Maxine Goodman Levin College of Urban Affairsmentoring program of 80053
the Ohio Center for the Advancement of Women in Public Service at 80054
the Cleveland State University.80055

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 80056
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 80057
University of Cincinnati Internship Program.80058

       Any unexpended and unencumbered portion of the foregoing 80059
appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship Program, at the end of 80060
fiscal year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for the same purpose in 80061
fiscal year 2013.80062

       Sec. 371.50.65. AIR FORCE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY – 80063
DEFENSE/AEROSPACE GRADUATE STUDIES INSTITUTE80064

       The foregoing appropriation item 235668, Air Force Institute 80065
of Technology – Defense/Aerospace Graduate Studies Institute, 80066
shall be used by the Defense/Aerospace Graduate Studies Institute 80067
to strengthen regional job training, equip Ohio's workforce with 80068
needed skills, and strengthen the research and educational 80069
linkages among Department of Defense facilities in Ohio, 80070
institutions of higher education in Ohio, and available industry 80071
jobs in Ohio. These funds shall be matched by private industry 80072
partners or the Department of Defense in the aggregate amount of 80073
$2,500,000 over the FY 2012 - FY 2013 biennium.80074

       Any unexpended and unencumbered portion of the foregoing 80075
appropriation item 235668, Air Force Institute of Technology - 80076
Defense/Aerospace Graduate Studies Institute, at the end of fiscal 80077
year 2012 is hereby reappropriated for the same purpose in fiscal 80078
year 2013.80079

       Sec. 371.60.80. (A) The Ohio Digital Learning Task Force is 80080
hereby established to develop a strategy for the expansion of 80081
digital learning that enables students to customize their 80082
education, produces cost savings, and meets the needs of Ohio's 80083
economy. The Task Force shall consist of the following members:80084

       (1) The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents or the 80085
Chancellor's designee;80086

       (2) The Superintendent of Public Instruction or the 80087
Superintendent's designee;80088

       (3) The Director of the Governor's Office of 21st Century 80089
Education or the Director's designee;80090

       (4) Up to six members appointed by the Governor, who shall be 80091
representatives of school districts or community schools, 80092
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, that are 80093
high-performing of their type and have demonstrated the ability to 80094
incorporate technology into the classroom successfully; 80095

       (5) A member appointed by the President of the Senate;80096

       (6) A member appointed by the Speaker of the House of 80097
Representatives.80098

       (B) Members of the Task Force shall be appointed not later 80099
than sixty days after the effective date of this section. 80100
Vacancies on the Task Force shall be filled in the same manner as 80101
the original appointments. Members shall serve without 80102
compensation.80103

       (C) The Governor shall designate the chairperson of the Task 80104
Force. All meetings of the Task Force shall be held at the call of 80105
the chairperson.80106

       (D) The Task Force shall do all of the following:80107

       (1) Request information from textbook publishers about the 80108
development of digital textbooks and other new digital content 80109
distribution methods for use by primary, secondary, and 80110
post-secondary schools and institutions and examine that 80111
information;80112

       (2) Examine potential cost savings and efficiency of 80113
utilizing digital textbooks and other new digital content 80114
distribution methods in primary, secondary, and post-secondary 80115
schools and institutions;80116

       (3) Examine potential academic benefits of utilizing digital 80117
textbooks and other new digital content distribution methods, 80118
including, but not limited to, the ability to individualize 80119
content to specific student learning styles, accessibility for 80120
individuals with disabilities, and the integration of formative 80121
and other online assessments;80122

        (4) Examine digital content pilot programs and initiatives 80123
currently operating at primary, secondary, and post-secondary 80124
schools and institutions in Ohio, including, but not limited to, 80125
those financed in part with federal funds; 80126

       (5) Examine any state-level initiatives to provide or 80127
facilitate use of digital content in primary, secondary, and 80128
post-secondary schools and institutions in Ohio.80129

        (E) The Task Force shall make recommendations regarding all 80130
of the following:80131

       (1) The creation of high quality digital content and 80132
instruction in grades kindergarten to twelve for free access by 80133
public and nonpublic schools and students receiving home 80134
instruction;80135

       (2) High quality professional development for teachers and 80136
principals providing online instruction or blended learning 80137
programs;80138

       (3) Funding strategies that create incentives for high 80139
performance, innovation, and options in course providers and 80140
delivery;80141

       (4) Student assessment and accountability;80142

       (5) Infrastructure to support digital learning;80143

       (6) Mobile learning and mobile learning applications;80144

       (7) The clearinghouse established under section 3333.82 of 80145
the Revised Code;80146

       (8) Ways to align the resources and digital learning 80147
initiatives of state agencies and offices;80148

       (9) Methods for removing redundancy and inefficiency in, and 80149
for providing coordination, of all digital learning programs, 80150
including the provision of free online instruction to public and 80151
nonpublic schools on a statewide basis;80152

       (10) Methods of addressing future changes in technology and 80153
learning.80154

       (E)(F) Not later than March 1, 2012, the Task Force shall 80155
issue a report of its findings and recommendations to the 80156
Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the 80157
House of Representatives. Upon issuance ofAfter issuing its 80158
report, the Task Force shall monitor the implementation of its 80159
recommendations. Not later than June 30, 2013, the Task Force 80160
shall report to the Governor, the President of the Senate, and the 80161
Speaker of the House of Representatives whether digital learning 80162
is advancing in Ohio schools and submit any recommendations to 80163
further enhance the full deployment of useful digital learning 80164
programs and services. The Task Force shall cease to exist on June 80165
30, 2013.80166

       Sec. 373.10. DRC DEPARTMENT OF REHABILITATION AND CORRECTION80167

General Revenue Fund 80168
GRF 501321 Institutional Operations $ 909,547,156 $ 866,592,589 80169
GRF 501403 Prisoner Compensation $ 8,599,255 $ 8,599,255 80170
GRF 501405 Halfway House $ 43,637,069 $ 43,622,104 80171
GRF 501406 Lease Rental Payments $ 42,863,100 $ 104,301,500 80172
GRF 501407 Community Nonresidential Programs $ 25,859,382 $ 25,839,390 80173
GRF 501408 Community Misdemeanor Programs $ 14,906,800 $ 14,906,800 80174
GRF 501501 Community Residential Programs - CBCF $ 62,692,785 $ 62,477,785 80175
GRF 502321 Mental Health Services $ 58,525,816 $ 51,778,513 80176
GRF 503321 Parole and Community Operations $ 68,197,272 $ 63,783,848 80177
GRF 504321 Administrative Operations $ 21,996,504 $ 20,085,474 80178
GRF 505321 Institution Medical Services $ 209,231,014 $ 195,241,961 80179
GRF 506321 Institution Education Services $ 20,237,576 $ 18,086,492 80180
GRF 507321 Institution Recovery Services $ 5,786,109 $ 5,375,737 80181
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,492,079,838 $ 1,480,691,448 80182

General Services Fund Group80183

1480 501602 Services and Agricultural Institutional Services $ 3,579,250 $ 3,584,263 80184
2000 501607 Ohio Penal Industries $ 38,000,000 $ 38,000,000 80185
4830 501605 Property Receipts $ 182,723 $ 182,086 80186
4B00 501601 Sewer Treatment Services $ 2,145,630 $ 2,157,682 2,057,682 80187
4D40 501603 Prisoner Programs $ 14,900,000 $ 14,900,000 80188
4L40 501604 Transitional Control $ 1,168,843 $ 1,213,120 1,113,120 80189
4S50 501608 Education Services $ 2,376,041 $ 2,359,775 80190
5710 501606 Training Academy Receipts $ 125,000 $ 125,000 80191
5930 501618 Laboratory Services $ 6,665,137 $ 6,664,729 80192
5AF0 501609 State and Non-Federal Awards $ 1,440,000 $ 1,440,000 80193
5H80 501617 Offender Financial Responsibility $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 80194
5L60 501611 Information Technology Services $ 600,000 $ 600,000 350,000 80195
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 73,182,624 $ 73,226,655 72,776,655 80196

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80197

3230 501619 Federal Grants $ 9,013,558 $ 9,180,703 80198
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 80199
Fund Group $ 9,013,558 $ 9,180,703 80200

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,574,276,020 $ 1,563,098,806 1,562,648,806 80201

       TRANSFER OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS TO IMPLEMENT CRIMINAL 80202
SENTENCING REFORMS80203

       For the purposes of implementing criminal sentencing reforms, 80204
and notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 80205
the Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 80206
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction, may transfer up to 80207
$14,000,000 in appropriations, in each of fiscal years 2012 and 80208
2013, from appropriation item 501321, Institutional Operations, to 80209
any combination of appropriation items 501405, Halfway House; 80210
501407, Community Residential Programs; 501408, Community 80211
Misdemeanor Programs; and 501501, Community Residential Programs - 80212
CBCF.80213

       OHIO BUILDING AUTHORITY LEASE PAYMENTS80214

       The foregoing appropriation item 501406, Lease Rental 80215
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 80216
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2011, through 80217
June 30, 2013, by the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 80218
to the Ohio Building Authority under the primary leases and 80219
agreements for those buildings made under Chapter 152. of the 80220
Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged 80221
for bond service charges or obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 80222
152. of the Revised Code.80223

        OSU MEDICAL CHARGES80224

        Notwithstanding section 341.192 of the Revised Code, at the 80225
request of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, The 80226
Ohio State University Medical Center, including the James Cancer 80227
Hospital and Solove Research Institute and the Richard M. Ross 80228
Heart Hospital, shall provide necessary care to persons who are 80229
confined in state adult correctional facilities. The provision of 80230
necessary care shall be billed to the Department at a rate not to 80231
exceed the authorized reimbursement rate for the same service 80232
established by the Department of Job and Family Services under the 80233
Medical Assistance Program.80234

       CASH TRANSFER FROM INSTITUTIONAL SERVICES FUND TO OHIO PENAL 80235
INDUSTRIES FUND80236

       The Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount 80237
not to exceed $4,000,000 in cash in fiscal year 2013 from the 80238
Institutional Services Fund (Fund 1480) to the Ohio Penal 80239
Industries Fund (Fund 2000).80240

       Sec. 375.10. RSC REHABILITATION SERVICES COMMISSION80241

General Revenue Fund80242

GRF 415402 Independent Living Council $ 252,000 $ 252,000 80243
GRF 415406 Assistive Technology $ 26,618 $ 26,618 80244
GRF 415431 Office for People with Brain Injury $ 126,567 $ 126,567 80245
GRF 415506 Services for People with Disabilities $ 12,777,884 $ 12,777,884 80246
GRF 415508 Services for the Deaf $ 28,000 $ 28,000 80247
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 13,211,069 $ 13,211,069 80248

General Services Fund Group80249

4670 415609 Business Enterprise Operating Expenses $ 1,308,431 $ 1,303,090 80250
TOTAL GSF General Services 80251
Fund Group $ 1,308,431 $ 1,303,090 80252

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80253

3170 415620 Disability Determination $ 97,579,095 $ 97,579,095 87,579,095 80254
3790 415616 Federal - Vocational Rehabilitation $ 103,160,426 $ 103,150,102 80255
3L10 415601 Social Security Personal Care Assistance $ 3,370,000 $ 3,370,000 80256
3L10 415605 Social Security Community Centers for the Deaf $ 772,000 $ 772,000 80257
3L10 415608 Social Security Special Programs/Assistance $ 1,521,406 $ 1,520,184 80258
3L40 415612 Federal Independent Living Centers or Services $ 652,222 $ 652,222 80259
3L40 415615 Federal - Supported Employment $ 929,755 $ 929,755 80260
3L40 415617 Independent Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs $ 2,137,338 $ 2,137,338 80261
TOTAL FED Federal Special 80262
Revenue Fund Group $ 210,122,242 $ 210,110,696 200,110,696 80263

State Special Revenue Fund Group80264

4680 415618 Third Party Funding $ 10,802,589 $ 10,802,589 80265
4L10 415619 Services for Rehabilitation $ 3,700,000 $ 3,700,000 80266
4W50 415606 Program Management Expenses $ 11,636,730 $ 11,587,201 80267
TOTAL SSR State Special 80268
Revenue Fund Group $ 26,139,319 $ 26,089,790 80269
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 250,781,061 $ 250,714,645 240,714,645 80270

       INDEPENDENT LIVING COUNCIL80271

       The foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent Living 80272
Council, shall be used to fund the operations of the State 80273
Independent Living Council and to support state independent living 80274
centers and independent living services under Title VII of the 80275
Independent Living Services and Centers for Independent Living of 80276
the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1992, 106 Stat. 4344, 29 80277
U.S.C. 796d.80278

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent 80279
Living Council, $67,662 in each fiscal year shall be used as state 80280
matching funds for vocational rehabilitation innovation and 80281
expansion activities.80282

       ASSISTIVE TECHNOLOGY80283

       The total amount of the foregoing appropriation item 415406, 80284
Assistive Technology, shall be provided to Assistive Technology of 80285
Ohio to provide grants and assistive technology services for 80286
people with disabilities in the State of Ohio.80287

       OFFICE FOR PEOPLE WITH BRAIN INJURY80288

       The foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 80289
with Brain Injury, shall be used to plan and coordinate 80290
head-injury-related services provided by state agencies and other 80291
government or private entities, to assess the needs for such 80292
services, and to set priorities in this area.80293

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 80294
with Brain Injury, $44,067 in each fiscal year shall be used as 80295
state matching funds to provide vocational rehabilitation services 80296
to eligible consumers.80297

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION SERVICES80298

       The foregoing appropriation item 415506, Services for People 80299
with Disabilities, shall be used as state matching funds to 80300
provide vocational rehabilitation services to eligible consumers.80301

       At the request of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the 80302
Director of Budget and Management may transfer any unexpended, 80303
unencumbered appropriation in fiscal year 2012 or fiscal year 2013 80304
from appropriation item 235502, Student Support Services, to 80305
appropriation item 415506, Services for People with Disabilities. 80306
Any appropriation so transferred shall be used by the Ohio 80307
Rehabilitation Services Commission to obtain additional federal 80308
matching funds to serve disabled students.80309

       SERVICES FOR THE DEAF80310

        The foregoing appropriation item 415508, Services for the 80311
Deaf, shall be used to provide grants to community centers for the 80312
deaf.80313

       INDEPENDENT LIVING/VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION PROGRAMS80314

       The foregoing appropriation item 415617, Independent 80315
Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs, shall be used to 80316
support vocational rehabilitation programs.80317

       SOCIAL SECURITY REIMBURSEMENT FUNDS80318

       Reimbursement funds received from the Social Security 80319
Administration, United States Department of Health and Human 80320
Services, for the costs of providing services and training to 80321
return disability recipients to gainful employment shall be 80322
expended from the Social Security Reimbursement Fund (Fund 3L10), 80323
to the extent funds are available, as follows:80324

       (A) Appropriation item 415601, Social Security Personal Care 80325
Assistance, to provide personal care services in accordance with 80326
section 3304.41 of the Revised Code;80327

       (B) Appropriation item 415605, Social Security Community 80328
Centers for the Deaf, to provide grants to community centers for 80329
the deaf in Ohio for services to individuals with hearing 80330
impairments; and80331

       (C) Appropriation item 415608, Social Security Special 80332
Programs/Assistance, to provide vocational rehabilitation services 80333
to individuals with severe disabilities who are Social Security 80334
beneficiaries, to enable them to achieve competitive employment. 80335
This appropriation item shall also be used to pay a portion of 80336
indirect costs of the Personal Care Assistance Program and the 80337
Independent Living Programs as mandated by federal OMB Circular 80338
A-87.80339

       PROGRAM MANAGEMENT EXPENSES80340

       The foregoing appropriation item 415606, Program Management 80341
Expenses, shall be used to support the administrative functions of 80342
the commission related to the provision of vocational 80343
rehabilitation, disability determination services, and ancillary 80344
programs.80345

       Sec. 379.10. RDF REVENUE DISTRIBUTION FUNDS80346

Volunteer Firefighters' Dependents Fund80347

7085 800985 Volunteer Firemen's Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 80348
TOTAL 085 Volunteer Firefighters' 80349
Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 80350
Agency Fund Group 80351
4P80 001698 Cash Management Improvement Fund $ 3,100,000 $ 3,100,000 80352
5JG0 110633 Gross Casino Revenue County Fund $ 5,778,617 $ 138,882,294 80353
5JH0 110634 Gross Casino Revenue County Student Fund $ 3,852,412 $ 92,588,196 80354
5JJ0 110636 Gross Casino Revenue Host City Fund $ 566,531 $ 13,615,911 80355
5JK0 875610 Ohio State Racing Commission Fund $ 339,919 $ 8,169,547 80356
5JL0 038629 Problem Casino Gambling and Addictions Fund $ 226,612 $ 5,446,364 80357
5JN0 055654 Ohio Law Enforcement Training Fund $ 226,612 $ 5,446,364 80358
6080 001699 Investment Earnings $ 50,000,000 $ 150,000,000 80359
7062 110962 Resort Area Excise Tax $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 80360
7063 110963 Permissive Tax Distribution $ 1,904,500,000 $ 1,980,700,000 80361
7067 110967 School District Income Tax $ 317,000,000 $ 330,000,000 80362
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 2,286,590,703 2,285,797,560 $ 2,728,948,676 2,709,886,401 80363

Holding Account Redistribution80364

R045 110617 International Fuel Tax Distribution $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 80365
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund 80366
Revenue Distribution Fund Group $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 80367
7049 038900 Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 80368
7050 762900 International Registration Plan Distribution $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 80369
7051 762901 Auto Registration Distribution $ 539,000,000 $ 539,000,000 80370
7054 110954 Local Government Property Tax Replacement - Utility $ 16,000,000 $ 11,000,000 80371
7060 110960 Gasoline Excise Tax Fund $ 393,000,000 $ 395,000,000 80372
7065 110965 Public Library Fund $ 354,000,000 $ 345,000,000 80373
7066 800966 Undivided Liquor Permits $ 14,100,000 $ 14,100,000 80374
7068 110968 State and Local Government Highway Distribution $ 193,000,000 $ 196,000,000 80375
7069 110969 Local Government Fund $ 577,000,000 $ 348,000,000 80376
7081 110981 Local Government Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 291,000,000 $ 181,000,000 80377
7082 110982 Horse Racing Tax $ 100,000 $ 100,000 80378
7083 700900 Ohio Fairs Fund $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 80379
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 80380
Fund Group $ 2,410,800,000 $ 2,062,800,000 80381
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 4,737,690,703 4,736,897,560 $ 4,832,048,676 4,812,986,401 80382

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS80383

       Appropriation items in this section shall be used for the 80384
purpose of administering and distributing the designated revenue 80385
distribution funds according to the Revised Code. If it is 80386
determined that additional appropriations are necessary for this 80387
purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.80388

       GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS80389

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 80390
fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Director of Budget and 80391
Management may transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Local 80392
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) in 80393
the Revenue Distribution Fund Group, those amounts necessary to 80394
reimburse local taxing units under section 5751.22 of the Revised 80395
Code. Also, in fiscal year 2012 and fiscal year 2013, the Director 80396
of Budget and Management may make temporary transfers from the 80397
General Revenue Fund to ensure sufficient balances in the Local 80398
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) and 80399
to replenish the General Revenue Fund for such transfers.80400

       Sec. 387.10. SFC SCHOOL FACILITIES COMMISSION80401

General Revenue Fund80402

GRF 230908 Common Schools General Obligation Debt Service $ 150,604,900 $ 341,919,400 329,919,400 80403
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 150,604,900 $ 341,919,400 329,919,400 80404

State Special Revenue Fund Group80405

5E30 230644 Operating Expenses $ 8,950,000 $ 8,550,000 80406
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80407
Fund Group $ 8,950,000 $ 8,550,000 80408
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 159,554,900 $ 350,469,400 338,469,400 80409


       Sec. 403.10. TAX DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION80411

General Revenue Fund80412

GRF 110321 Operating Expenses $ 73,500,000 $ 73,550,000 72,814,500 80413
GRF 110404 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 200,000 $ 200,000 198,000 80414
GRF 110412 Child Support Administration $ 15,804 $ 15,804 15,646 80415
GRF 110901 Property Tax Allocation - Taxation $ 610,900,000 $ 616,000,000 80416
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 684,615,804 $ 689,765,804 689,028,146 80417

General Services Fund Group80418

2280 110628 Tax Reform System Implementation $ 13,638,008 $ 13,642,176 13,505,754 80419
4330 110602 Tape File Account $ 197,802 $ 197,878 195,899 80420
5AP0 110632 Discovery Project $ 2,445,799 $ 2,445,657 2,421,200 80421
5BW0 110630 Tax Amnesty Promotion and Administration $ 2,500,000 $ 0 80422
5CZ0 110631 Vendor's License Application $ 250,000 $ 250,000 80423
5N50 110605 Municipal Income Tax Administration $ 339,798 $ 339,975 336,575 80424
5N60 110618 Kilowatt Hour Tax Administration $ 150,000 $ 150,000 148,500 80425
5V80 110623 Property Tax Administration $ 12,195,733 $ 12,099,303 11,978,310 80426
5W40 110625 Centralized Tax Filing and Payment $ 200,000 $ 200,000 198,000 80427
5W70 110627 Exempt Facility Administration $ 50,000 $ 50,000 49,500 80428
TOTAL GSF General Services 80429
Fund Group $ 31,967,140 $ 29,374,989 29,083,738 80430

State Special Revenue Fund Group80431

4350 110607 Local Tax Administration $ 19,028,339 $ 19,225,941 19,033,682 80432
4360 110608 Motor Vehicle Audit $ 1,474,081 $ 1,474,353 1,459,609 80433
4370 110606 Litter/Natural Resource Tax Administration $ 20,000 $ 20,000 19,800 80434
4380 110609 School District Income Tax $ 5,859,041 $ 5,860,650 5,802,044 80435
4C60 110616 International Registration Plan $ 689,296 $ 689,308 682,415 80436
4R60 110610 Tire Tax Administration $ 245,462 $ 246,660 244,193 80437
5V70 110622 Motor Fuel Tax Administration $ 5,384,254 $ 5,086,236 5,035,374 80438
6390 110614 Cigarette Tax Enforcement $ 1,384,217 $ 1,384,314 1,370,471 80439
6420 110613 Ohio Political Party Distributions $ 500,000 $ 500,000 80440
6880 110615 Local Excise Tax Administration $ 782,630 $ 782,843 775,015 80441
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80442
Fund Group $ 35,367,320 $ 35,270,305 34,922,603 80443

Agency Fund Group80444

4250 110635 Tax Refunds $ 1,546,800,000 $ 1,546,800,000 80445
7095 110995 Municipal Income Tax $ 21,000,000 $ 21,000,000 80446
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,567,800,000 $ 1,567,800,000 80447

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group80448

R010 110611 Tax Distributions $ 50,000 $ 50,000 80449
R011 110612 Miscellaneous Income Tax Receipts $ 50,000 $ 50,000 80450
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 80451
Redistribution Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 80452
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,319,850,264 $ 2,322,311,098 2,320,934,487 80453

       HOMESTEAD EXEMPTION, PROPERTY TAX ROLLBACK80454

       The foregoing appropriation item 110901, Property Tax 80455
Allocation - Taxation, is hereby appropriated to pay for the 80456
state's costs incurred due to the Homestead Exemption, the 80457
Manufactured Home Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax 80458
Rollback. The Tax Commissioner shall distribute these funds 80459
directly to the appropriate local taxing districts, except for 80460
school districts, notwithstanding the provisions in sections 80461
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for payment 80462
of the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home Property Tax 80463
Rollback, and Property Tax Rollback by the Tax Commissioner to the 80464
appropriate county treasurer and the subsequent redistribution of 80465
these funds to the appropriate local taxing districts by the 80466
county auditor.80467

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each local taxing district 80468
shall distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had 80469
been paid as real property taxes. Payments for the costs of 80470
administration shall continue to be paid to the county treasurer 80471
and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 321.26, and 80472
323.156 of the Revised Code.80473

       Any sums, in addition to the amounts specifically 80474
appropriated in appropriation item 110901, Property Tax Allocation 80475
- Taxation, for the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home 80476
Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax Rollback payments, 80477
which are determined to be necessary for these purposes, are 80478
hereby appropriated.80479

       TAX AMNESTY PROMOTION AND ADMINISTRATION80480

       The foregoing appropriation item 110630, Tax Amnesty 80481
Promotion and Administration, shall be used to pay expenses 80482
incurred to promote and administer the tax amnesty program to be 80483
conducted from May 1, 2012, through June 15, 2012, by the 80484
Department of Taxation pursuant to Section 757.40 of this actAm. 80485
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.80486

       MUNICIPAL INCOME TAX80487

       The foregoing appropriation item 110995, Municipal Income 80488
Tax, shall be used to make payments to municipal corporations 80489
under section 5745.05 of the Revised Code. If it is determined 80490
that additional appropriations are necessary to make such 80491
payments, such amounts are hereby appropriated.80492

       TAX REFUNDS80493

       The foregoing appropriation item 110635, Tax Refunds, shall 80494
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 80495
If it is determined that additional appropriations are necessary 80496
for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.80497

       INTERNATIONAL REGISTRATION PLAN AUDIT80498

       The foregoing appropriation item 110616, International 80499
Registration Plan, shall be used under section 5703.12 of the 80500
Revised Code for audits of persons with vehicles registered under 80501
the International Registration Plan.80502

       TRAVEL EXPENSES FOR THE STREAMLINED SALES TAX PROJECT80503

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 110607, Local Tax 80504
Administration, the Tax Commissioner may disburse funds, if 80505
available, for the purposes of paying travel expenses incurred by 80506
members of Ohio's delegation to the Streamlined Sales Tax Project, 80507
as appointed under section 5740.02 of the Revised Code. Any travel 80508
expense reimbursement paid for by the Department of Taxation shall 80509
be done in accordance with applicable state laws and guidelines.80510

       CENTRALIZED TAX FILING AND PAYMENT FUND80511

       The Director of Budget and Management, under a plan submitted 80512
by the Tax Commissioner, or as otherwise determined by the 80513
Director of Budget and Management, shall set a schedule to 80514
transfer cash from the General Revenue Fund to the credit of the 80515
Centralized Tax Filing and Payment Fund (Fund 5W40). The transfers 80516
of cash shall not exceed $400,000 in the biennium.80517

       TOBACCO SETTLEMENT ENFORCEMENT80518

       The foregoing appropriation item 110404, Tobacco Settlement 80519
Enforcement, shall be used by the Tax Commissioner to pay costs 80520
incurred in the enforcement of divisions (F) and (G) of section 80521
5743.03 of the Revised Code.80522

       Sec. 411.10.  DVS DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS SERVICES80523

General Revenue Fund80524

GRF 900321 Veterans' Homes $ 27,369,946 $ 27,369,946 80525
GRF 900402 Hall of Fame $ 107,075 $ 107,075 80526
GRF 900408 Department of Veterans Services $ 1,901,823 $ 1,901,823 2,001,823 80527
GRF 900901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Debt Service $ 5,486,600 $ 10,112,100 80528
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 34,865,444 $ 39,490,944 39,590,944 80529

General Services Fund Group80530

4840 900603 Veterans' Homes Services $ 305,806 $ 312,458 80531
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 305,806 $ 312,458 80532

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80533

3680 900614 Veterans Training $ 769,500 $ 754,377 80534
3740 900606 Troops to Teachers $ 136,786 $ 133,461 80535
3BX0 900609 Medicare Services $ 2,500,000 $ 2,490,169 80536
3L20 900601 Veterans' Homes Operations - Federal $ 23,455,379 $ 23,476,269 80537
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 80538
Fund Group $ 26,861,665 $ 26,854,276 80539

State Special Revenue Fund Group80540

4E20 900602 Veterans' Homes Operating $ 10,117,680 $ 10,319,078 80541
6040 900604 Veterans' Homes Improvement $ 347,598 $ 398,731 80542
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80543
Fund Group $ 10,465,278 $ 10,717,809 80544

Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Fund Group80545

7041 900615 Veteran Bonus Program - Administration $ 1,605,410 $ 1,147,703 80546
7041 900641 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation $ 25,425,000 $ 24,300,000 80547
TOTAL 041 Persian Gulf, 80548
Afghanistan, and Iraq 80549
Compensation Fund Group $ 27,030,410 $ 25,447,703 80550
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 99,528,603 $ 102,823,190 102,923,190 80551

       PERSIAN GULF, AFGHANISTAN AND IRAQ COMPENSATION GENERAL 80552
OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE80553

       The foregoing appropriation item 900901, Persian Gulf, 80554
Afghanistan and Iraq Compensation Debt Service, shall be used to 80555
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 80556
from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2013, on obligations issued 80557
for Persian Gulf, Afghanistan and Iraq Conflicts Compensation 80558
purposes under sections 151.01 and 151.12 of the Revised Code.80559

       Sec. 415.10. DYS DEPARTMENT OF YOUTH SERVICES80560

General Revenue Fund80561

GRF 470401 RECLAIM Ohio $ 168,716,967 $ 162,362,228 80562
GRF 470412 Lease Rental Payments $ 10,221,800 $ 27,230,100 80563
GRF 470510 Youth Services $ 16,702,728 $ 16,702,728 80564
GRF 472321 Parole Operations $ 10,830,019 $ 10,583,118 80565
GRF 477321 Administrative Operations $ 12,222,051 $ 11,855,389 80566
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 218,693,565 $ 228,733,563 80567

General Services Fund Group80568

1750 470613 Education Reimbursement $ 8,160,277 $ 8,151,056 6,251,056 80569
4790 470609 Employee Food Service $ 150,000 $ 150,000 80570
4A20 470602 Child Support $ 450,000 $ 400,000 80571
4G60 470605 General Operational Funds $ 125,000 $ 125,000 80572
5BN0 470629 E-Rate Program $ 535,000 $ 535,000 80573
TOTAL GSF General Services 80574
Fund Group $ 9,420,277 $ 9,361,056 7,461,056 80575

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80576

3210 470601 Education $ 1,774,469 $ 1,517,840 80577
3210 470603 Juvenile Justice Prevention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 80578
3210 470606 Nutrition $ 1,747,432 $ 1,704,022 1,400,000 80579
3210 470610 Rehabilitation Programs $ 36,000 $ 36,000 0 80580
3210 470614 Title IV-E Reimbursements $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 80581
3BY0 470635 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 07 $ 56,471 $ 2,000 80582
3BZ0 470636 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 08 $ 82,000 $ 1,618 80583
3CP0 470638 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 09 $ 500,000 $ 300,730 80584
3CR0 470639 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 10 $ 800,000 $ 479,900 80585
3FB0 470641 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 11 $ 135,000 $ 600,000 80586
3FC0 470642 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 12 $ 0 $ 135,000 80587
3V50 470604 Juvenile Justice/Delinquency Prevention $ 2,010,000 $ 2,000,000 80588
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 80589
Fund Group $ 13,441,372 $ 13,077,110 12,737,088 80590

State Special Revenue Fund Group80591

1470 470612 Vocational Education $ 762,126 $ 758,210 80592
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80593
Fund Group $ 762,126 $ 758,210 80594
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 242,317,340 $ 251,929,939 249,689,917 80595

       COMMUNITY PROGRAMS80596

       For purposes of implementing juvenile sentencing reforms, and 80597
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 80598
Department of Youth Services may use up to forty-five per cent of 80599
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the portion of 80600
appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, that is allocated to 80601
juvenile correctional facilities in each fiscal year to expand 80602
Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 80603
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.80604

       OHIO BUILDING AUTHORITY LEASE PAYMENTS80605

       The foregoing appropriation item 470412, Lease Rental 80606
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 80607
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2011, through June 80608
30, 2013, by the Department of Youth Services to the Ohio Building 80609
Authority under the leases and agreements for facilities made 80610
under Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. This appropriation is the 80611
source of funds pledged for bond service charges on related 80612
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code.80613

       EDUCATION REIMBURSEMENT80614

       The foregoing appropriation item 470613, Education 80615
Reimbursement, shall be used to fund the operating expenses of 80616
providing educational services to youth supervised by the 80617
Department of Youth Services. Operating expenses include, but are 80618
not limited to, teachers' salaries, maintenance costs, and 80619
educational equipment. This appropriation item may be used for 80620
capital expenses related to the education program.80621

       EMPLOYEE FOOD SERVICE AND EQUIPMENT80622

       Notwithstanding section 125.14 of the Revised Code, the 80623
foregoing appropriation item 470609, Employee Food Service, may be 80624
used to purchase any food operational items with funds received 80625
into the fund from reimbursements for state surplus property.80626

       FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR CHILDREN AND FAMILIES80627

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 80628
council, the juvenile court of that county that receives 80629
allocations from one or both of the foregoing appropriation items 80630
470401, RECLAIM Ohio, and 470510, Youth Services, may transfer 80631
portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool as 80632
authorized by the section of this actAm. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 80633
129th General Assembly titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE 80634
FUNDING POOL."80635

       Sec. 503.50. REAPPROPRIATION OF UNEXPENDED ENCUMBERED 80636
BALANCES OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS80637

       (A) An unexpended balance of an operating appropriation or 80638
reappropriation that a state agency lawfully encumbered prior to 80639
the close of a fiscal year is hereby reappropriated on the first 80640
day of July of the following fiscal year from the fund from which 80641
it was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the following 80642
period and shall remain available only for the purpose of 80643
discharging the encumbrance:80644

       (1) For an encumbrance for personal services, maintenance, 80645
equipment, or items for resale, other than an encumbrance for an 80646
item of special order manufacture not available on term contract 80647
or in the open market or for reclamation of land or oil and gas 80648
wells, for a period of not more than five months from the end of 80649
the fiscal year;80650

       (2) For an encumbrance for an item of special order 80651
manufacture not available on term contract or in the open market, 80652
for a period of not more than five months from the end of the 80653
fiscal year or, with the written approval of the Director of 80654
Budget and Management, for a period of not more than twelve months 80655
from the end of the fiscal year;80656

       (3) For an encumbrance for reclamation of land or oil and gas 80657
wells, for a period ending when the encumbered appropriation is 80658
expended or for a period of two years, whichever is less;80659

       (4) For an encumbrance for any other expense, for such period 80660
as the Director approves, provided such period does not exceed two 80661
years.80662

       (B) Any operating appropriations for which unexpended 80663
balances are reappropriated beyond a five-month period from the 80664
end of the fiscal year by division (A)(2) of this section shall be 80665
reported to the Controlling Board by the Director of Budget and 80666
Management by the thirty-first day of December of each year. The 80667
report on each such item shall include the item, the cost of the 80668
item, and the name of the vendor. The report shall be updated on a 80669
quarterly basis for encumbrances remaining open.80670

       (C) Upon the expiration of the reappropriation period set out 80671
in division (A) of this section, a reappropriation made by this 80672
section lapses, and the Director of Budget and Management shall 80673
cancel the encumbrance of the unexpended reappropriation not later 80674
than the end of the weekend following the expiration of the 80675
reappropriation period.80676

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, with the 80677
approval of the Director of Budget and Management, an unexpended 80678
balance of an encumbrance that was reappropriated on the first day 80679
of July by this section for a period specified in division (A)(3) 80680
or (4) of this section and that remains encumbered at the close of 80681
the fiscal biennium is hereby reappropriated on the first day of 80682
July of the following fiscal biennium from the fund from which it 80683
was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the applicable 80684
period specified in division (A)(3) or (4) of this section and 80685
shall remain available only for the purpose of discharging the 80686
encumbrance.80687

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management may correct 80688
accounting errors committed by the staff of the Office of Budget 80689
and Management, such as re-establishingreestablishing80690
encumbrances or appropriations cancelled in error, during the 80691
cancellation of operating encumbrances in November and of 80692
nonoperating encumbrances in December.80693

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may at any time 80694
correct accounting errors committed by the staff of a state 80695
institution of higher education, as defined in section 3345.011 of 80696
the Revised Code, such as reestablishing prior year nonoperating 80697
encumbrances canceled or modified in error. The reestablished 80698
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.80699

       (G) If the Controlling Board approved a purchase, that 80700
approval remains in effect so long as the appropriation used to 80701
make that purchase remains encumbered.80702

       Sec. 521.70.  OVERSIGHT OF FEDERAL STIMULUS FUNDS80703

       (A) The Office of Internal Auditing within the Office of 80704
Budget and Management shall, in connection with its duties under 80705
sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code, monitor and measure 80706
the effectiveness of funds allocated to the state as part of the 80707
federal American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. As such, 80708
the Office of Internal Auditing shall review how funds allocated 80709
to each state agency are spent. For purposes of this section, 80710
"state agency" has the same meaning as in division (A) of section 80711
126.45 of the Revised Code.80712

       In addition to the reports required under section 126.47 of 80713
the Revised Code, the Office of Internal Auditing shall submit80714
prepare a report of its findings for the period beginning July 1, 80715
2011, and ending December 31, 2011. The Office shall submit the 80716
report to the President of the Senate, Minority Leader of the 80717
Senate, Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority Leader 80718
of the House of Representatives, and the Chairs of the committees 80719
in the Senate and House of Representatives handling finance and 80720
appropriations. The report shall be submitted every six months at 80721
the following intervals:80722

       (1) For the six-month period ending December 31, 2011, not 80723
later thanby February 1, 2012;80724

       (2) For the six-month period ending June 30, 2012, not later 80725
than August 1, 2012;80726

       (3) For the six-month period ending December 31, 2012, not 80727
later than February 1, 2013;80728

       (4) For the six-month period ending June 30, 2013, not later 80729
than August 1, 2013.80730

       (B) When, as part of its compliance with the federal American 80731
Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 requirements to monitor and 80732
measure the effectiveness of funds for which the state of Ohio is 80733
the prime recipient, and for which reporting authority has not 80734
been delegated to a sub-recipientsubrecipient, the Office of 80735
Budget and Management submits quarterly reports to the federal 80736
government, the Office of Budget and Management shall also submit 80737
those reports to the President of the Senate, Minority Leader of 80738
the Senate, Speaker of the House of Representatives, Minority 80739
Leader of the House of Representatives, and Chairs and ranking 80740
members of the committees in the Senate and House of 80741
Representatives handling finance and appropriations. The Office of 80742
Budget and Management shall continue to submit quarterly reports 80743
to the legislature for the duration of the period in which the 80744
state of Ohio is required to make reports to the federal 80745
government concerning Ohio's use of the federal American Recovery 80746
and Reinvestment Act of 2009 funds.80747

       Section 601.41. That existing Sections 205.10, 207.10, 80748
207.10.80, 207.20.10, 207.20.30, 207.20.90, 209.10, 209.20, 80749
209.30, 211.10, 215.10, 215.20, 223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 261.10.40, 80750
261.10.70, 261.20.40, 261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.80, 261.20.90, 80751
261.30.10, 261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 261.30.60, 261.30.70, 80752
261.30.80, 261.30.90, 261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 263.10.90, 80753
263.20.40, 263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.10, 267.10.20, 267.10.40, 80754
267.30.20, 267.30.40, 279.10, 283.10, 287.10, 291.10, 307.10, 80755
309.10, 309.30.30, 309.30.33, 309.30.53, 309.30.73, 313.10, 80756
315.10, 323.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 365.10, 80757
367.10, 369.10, 371.10, 371.30.30, 371.50.61, 371.50.65, 80758
371.60.80, 373.10, 375.10, 379.10, 387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 80759
503.50, and 521.70 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 80760
Assembly are hereby repealed.80761

       Section 601.43. That Section 247.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 80762
the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 319 of the 80763
129th General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:80764

       Sec. 247.10. CEB CONTROLLING BOARD80765

General Revenue Fund80766

GRF 911404 Mandate Assistance $ 2,750,000 $ 0 80767
GRF 911441 Ballot Advertising Costs $ 475,000 $ 475,000 80768
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,225,000 $ 475,000 80769

General Services Fund Group80770

5KM0 911614 CB Emergency Purposes $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 80771
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 80772
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,225,000 $ 10,475,000 80773

       FEDERAL SHARE80774

       In transferring appropriations to or from appropriation items 80775
that have federal shares identified in this act, the Controlling 80776
Board shall add or subtract corresponding amounts of federal 80777
matching funds at the percentages indicated by the state and 80778
federal division of the appropriations in this act. Such changes 80779
are hereby appropriated.80780

       REDISTRICTING IMPLEMENTATION80781

       The foregoing appropriation item 911404, Mandate Assistance, 80782
shall be used in a method prescribed by the Secretary of State and 80783
transferred by the Director of Budget and Management to implement 80784
this act, which includes remapping and reprecincting counties, and 80785
reprogramming database systems and voting machines. At the end of 80786
fiscal year 2012, an amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered 80787
portion of appropriation item 911404, Mandate Assistance, is 80788
hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2013 for the same purpose.80789

       DISASTER SERVICES80790

        Pursuant to requests submitted by the Department of Public 80791
Safety, the Controlling Board may approve transfers from the 80792
Disaster Services Fund (5E20) to a fund and appropriation item 80793
used by the Department of Public Safety to provide for assistance 80794
to political subdivisions made necessary by natural disasters or 80795
emergencies. These transfers may be requested and approved prior 80796
to the occurrence of any specific natural disasters or emergencies 80797
in order to facilitate the provision of timely assistance. The 80798
Emergency Management Agency of the Department of Public Safety 80799
shall use the funding to fund the State Disaster Relief Program 80800
for disasters that have been declared by the Governor, and the 80801
State Individual Assistance Program for disasters that have been 80802
declared by the Governor and the federal Small Business 80803
Administration. The Ohio Emergency Management Agency shall publish 80804
and make available application packets outlining procedures for 80805
the State Disaster Relief Program and the State Individual 80806
Assistance Program.80807

       Fund 5E20 shall be used by the Controlling Board, pursuant to 80808
requests submitted by state agencies, to transfer cash and 80809
appropriations to any fund and appropriation item for the payment 80810
of state agency disaster relief program expenses for disasters 80811
declared by the Governor, if the Director of Budget and Management 80812
determines that sufficient funds exist.80813

       Upon the request of the Department of Public Safety, the 80814
Controlling Board may release up to $3,000,000 for Blanchard River 80815
flood mitigation projects.80816

       BALLOT ADVERTISING COSTS80817

       Pursuant to section 3501.17 of the Revised Code, and upon 80818
requests submitted by the Secretary of State, the Controlling 80819
Board shall approve transfers from the foregoing appropriation 80820
item 911441, Ballot Advertising Costs, to appropriation item 80821
050621, Statewide Ballot Advertising, in order to pay for the cost 80822
of public notices associated with statewide ballot initiatives.80823

       CAPITAL APPROPRIATION INCREASE FOR FEDERAL STIMULUS 80824
ELIGIBILITY80825

        A state agency director shall request that the Controlling 80826
Board increase the amount of the agency's capital appropriations 80827
if the director determines such an increase is necessary for the 80828
agency to receive and use funds under the federal American 80829
Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. The Controlling Board may 80830
increase the capital appropriations pursuant to the request up to 80831
the exact amount necessary under the federal act if the Board 80832
determines it is necessary for the agency to receive and use those 80833
federal funds.80834

       Section 601.44. That existing Section 247.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 80835
153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 319 of 80836
the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.80837

       Section 601.46. That Sections 261.10 and 261.20.93 of Am. 80838
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. 80839
H.B. 371 of the 129th General Assembly, be amended to read as 80840
follows:80841

       Sec. 261.10. DEV DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY80842

General Revenue Fund80843

GRF 195401 Thomas Edison Program $ 14,820,354 $ 0 80844
GRF 195402 Coal Development Office Research Operating $ 260,983 $ 261,205 80845
GRF 195404 Small Business Development $ 1,565,770 $ 0 80846
GRF 195405 Minority Business Enterprise Division $ 1,118,528 $ 0 80847
GRF 195407 Travel and Tourism $ 5,000,000 $ 0 5,000,000 80848
GRF 195412 Rapid Outreach Grants $ 9,000,000 $ 0 80849
GRF 195415 Strategic Business Investment Division and Regional Offices Development Services $ 4,500,000 $ 0 2,413,387 80850
GRF 195416 Governor's Office of Appalachia $ 3,700,000 $ 3,700,000 0 80851
GRF 195422 Technology Action $ 547,341 $ 0 80852
GRF 195426 Clean Ohio Implementation $ 468,365 $ 0 468,365 80853
GRF 195432 Global Markets $ 3,500,000 $ 0 80854
GRF 195434 Industrial Training Grants $ 10,000,000 $ 0 80855
GRF 195497 CDBG Operating Match $ 1,015,000 $ 0 1,015,000 80856
GRF 195501 Appalachian Local Development Districts $ 391,482 $ 391,482 0 80857
GRF 195502 Appalachian Regional Commission Dues $ 195,000 $ 195,000 0 80858
GRF 195528 Economic Development Projects $ 0 $ 26,943,518 80859
GRF 195532 Technology Programs and Grants $ 0 $ 13,547,341 80860
GRF 195533 Business Assistance $ 0 $ 5,899,465 80861
GRF 195535 Appalachia Assistance $ 0 $ 4,286,482 80862
GRF 195901 Coal Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 7,861,100 $ 5,577,700 80863
GRF 195905 Third Frontier Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 29,323,300 $ 63,640,300 80864
GRF 195912 Job Ready Site Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 9,859,200 $ 15,680,500 80865
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 103,126,423 $ 116,389,705 118,039,745 80866

General Services Fund Group80867

1350 195684 Supportive Development Services Operations $ 11,700,000 $ 11,700,000 80868
4W10 195646 Minority Business Enterprise Loan $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 80869
5AD0 195633 Legacy Projects $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 18,600,000 80870
5AD0 195677 Economic Development Contingency $ 10,000,000 $ 0 80871
5W50 195690 Travel and Tourism Cooperative Projects $ 50,000 $ 50,000 80872
6850 195636 Direct Cost Recovery Development Services Reimbursable Expenditures $ 750,000 $ 750,000 80873
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 80874
Group $ 40,000,000 $ 30,000,000 33,600,000 80875

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group80876

3080 195602 Appalachian Regional Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 80877
3080 195603 Housing and Urban Development Assistance Programs $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 80878
3080 195605 Federal Projects $ 85,028,606 $ 85,470,106 0 80879
3080 195609 Small Business Administration Grants $ 6,438,143 $ 5,511,381 80880
3080 195618 Energy Federal Grants $ 38,000,000 $ 3,400,000 80881
3080 195670 Home Weatherization Program $ 0 $ 72,670,106 80882
3080 195671 Brownfield Redevelopment $ 0 $ 6,800,000 80883
3080 195672 Manufacturing Extension Partnership $ 0 $ 6,000,000 80884
3350 195610 Energy Conservation and Emerging Technology Programs $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 80885
3AE0 195643 Workforce Development Initiatives $ 16,300,000 $ 16,300,000 80886
3DB0 195642 Federal Stimulus - Energy Efficiency & Conservation Block Grants $ 3,000,000 $ 42,485 80887
3EG0 195608 Federal Energy Sector Training Grants $ 5,000,000 $ 1,344,056 80888
3K80 195613 Community Development Block Grant $ 76,795,818 $ 65,210,000 80889
3K90 195611 Home Energy Assistance Block Grant $ 115,743,608 $ 115,743,608 80890
3K90 195614 HEAP Weatherization $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 80891
3L00 195612 Community Services Block Grant $ 27,240,217 $ 27,240,217 80892
3V10 195601 HOME Program $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 80893
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 80894
Fund Group $ 443,121,392 $ 389,836,853 80895

State Special Revenue Fund Group80896

4500 195624 Minority Business Bonding Program Administration $ 160,110 $ 159,069 80897
4510 195625 Economic Development Financing Operating $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 0 80898
4510 195649 Business Assistance Programs $ 0 $ 3,700,800 80899
4F20 195639 State Special Projects $ 180,437 $ 180,436 80900
4F20 195676 Marketing Initiatives $ 5,000,000 $ 0 80901
4F20 195699 Utility Provided Funds Community Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 80902
4S00 195630 Tax Incentive Programs $ 650,800 $ 650,800 0 80903
5CG0 195679 Alternative Fuel Transportation $ 750,000 $ 750,000 80904
5HJ0 195604 Motion Picture Tax Credit Program $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 80905
5HR0 195526 Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training Vouchers $ 20,000,000 $ 30,000,000 80906
5HR0 195622 Defense Development Assistance $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 80907
5JR0 195635 Redevelopment Program Support $ 0 $ 100,000 80908
5JR0 195656 New Market Tax Credit Program $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 80909
5KD0 195621 Brownfield Stormwater Loan $ 50,000 $ 50,000 0 80910
5KN0 195640 Local Government Innovation $ 175,000 $ 44,825,000 80911
5LK0 195655 Workforce Development Programs $ 0 $ 10,000,000 80912
5M40 195659 Low Income Energy Assistance (USF) $ 245,000,000 $ 245,000,000 80913
5M50 195660 Advanced Energy Loan Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 0 80914
5W60 195691 International Trade Cooperative Projects $ 160,000 $ 160,000 80915
6170 195654 Volume Cap Administration $ 94,397 $ 92,768 80916
6460 195638 Low- and Moderate- Income Housing Trust Fund $ 53,000,000 $ 53,000,000 80917
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 80918
Fund Group $ 341,820,744 $ 383,468,073 393,468,073 80919

Facilities Establishment Fund Group80920

5S90 195628 Capital Access Loan Program $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 80921
7009 195664 Innovation Ohio $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 80922
7010 195665 Research and Development $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 80923
7037 195615 Facilities Establishment $ 50,000,000 $ 50,000,000 80924
TOTAL 037 Facilities 80925
Establishment Fund Group $ 88,500,000 $ 88,500,000 80926

Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund80927

7003 195663 Clean Ohio Operating Program $ 950,000 $ 950,000 80928
TOTAL 7003 Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund $ 950,000 $ 950,000 80929

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group80930

7011 195686 Third Frontier Operating $ 1,149,750 $ 1,149,750 80931
7011 195687 Third Frontier Research & Development Projects $ 183,850,250 $ 133,850,250 80932
7014 195620 Third Frontier Operating - Tax $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 80933
7014 195692 Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects $ 38,300,000 $ 38,300,000 80934
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 225,000,000 $ 175,000,000 80935

Job Ready Site Development Fund Group80936

7012 195688 Job Ready Site Operating Program $ 800,000 $ 800,000 80937
TOTAL 012 Job Ready Site Development Fund Group $ 800,000 $ 800,000 80938

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group80939

M087 195435 Biomedical Research and Technology Transfer $ 1,999,224 $ 1,999,224 80940
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,999,224 $ 1,999,224 80941
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,245,317,783 $ 1,186,943,855 1,202,193,895 80942


       Sec. 261.20.93. LOCAL GOVERNMENT INNOVATION FUND80944

       The foregoing appropriation item 195640, Local Government 80945
Innovation, shall be used for the purposes of making loans and 80946
grants to political subdivisions under the Local Government 80947
Innovation Program in accordance with sections 189.01 to 189.10 of 80948
the Revised Code. Of the foregoing appropriation item 195640, 80949
Local Government Innovation, up to $175,000 in fiscal year 2012 80950
and $175,000 in fiscal year 2013 shall be used for administrative 80951
costs incurred by the Department of Development Services Agency.80952

       On the effective date of this amendment, or as soon as 80953
possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall 80954
transfer $175,000 in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the 80955
Local Government Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0). On July 1, 2012, or 80956
as soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and 80957
Management shall transfer $44,825,000 in cash from the General 80958
Revenue Fund to the Local Government Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0). 80959

       Section 601.47. That existing Sections 261.10 and 261.20.93 80960
of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by 80961
Sub. H.B. 371 of the 129th General Assembly, are hereby repealed.80962

       Section 601.48. That Section 8 of Sub. H.B. 369 of the 129th 80963
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:80964

       Sec. 8. (A) There is hereby created the Redistricting Reform 80965
Task Force, comprised of eight members of the General Assembly who 80966
shall be equally divided between the members of the two major 80967
political parties. Not later than thirty days after the effective 80968
date of this section, the legislative leader of the majority 80969
caucus and the legislative leader of the minority caucus in each 80970
house of the General Assembly shall each appoint two members to 80971
the Task Force.80972

        The Task Force shall be co-chaired by two members, one from 80973
each major political party. The legislative leaders in the House 80974
of Representatives and in the Senate who are members of the same 80975
political party shall jointly appoint a chairperson.80976

        (B) The purpose of the Task Force shall be to create a 80977
redistricting reform proposal for consideration by the General 80978
Assembly during 2012.80979

        (C) The Task Force shall issue a report, not later than June 80980
30December 15, 2012, that includes the Task Force's 80981
recommendations for reforming the redistricting process.80982

        (D) The Task Force shall hold a minimum of three public 80983
hearings, one of which shall be conducted after the Task Force 80984
issues its report, to allow for meaningful public discussion of 80985
the recommendations included in the report.80986

       Section 601.49. That existing Section 8 of Sub. H.B. 369 of 80987
the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.80988

       Section 601.50. That Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th 80989
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:80990

       Sec. 4. The following agencies are retained under division 80991
(D) of section 101.83 of the Revised Code and expire on December 80992
31, 2016:80993

AGENCY NAME REVISED CODE OR UNCODIFIED SECTION 80994
Academic Distress Commission 3302.10 80995
Advisory Board of Governor's Office of Faith-Based and Community Initiatives 107.12 80996
Advisory Board to Assist and Advise in the Operation of the Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence 3323.33, 3323.34 80997
Advisory Council on Amusement Ride Safety 1711.51, 1711.52 80998
Advisory Council of Directors for Prison Labor 5145.162 80999
Advisory Council for Wild, Scenic, or Recreational River Area(s) 1547.84 81000
Advisory Committee on Livestock Exhibitions 901.71 81001
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Operating Committees 924.07 81002
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Coordinating Committee 924.14 81003
Alternative Energy Advisory Committee 4928.64(D) 81004
AMBER Alert Advisory Committee 5502.521 81005
Apprenticeship Council Chapter 4139. 81006
Armory Board of Control 5911.09, 5911.12 81007
Automated Title Processing Board 4505.09(C)(1) 81008
Backflow Advisory Board 3703.21 81009
Banking Commission 1123.01 81010
Board of Directors of the Great Lakes Protection Fund 1506.22 (6161.04) 81011
Board of Directors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association Stabilization Fund 3929.631 81012
Board of Directors of the Ohio Appalachian Center for Higher Education 3333.58 81013
Board of Directors of the Ohio Health Reinsurance Program 3924.08 - 3924.11 81014
Board of Governors of the Commercial Insurance Joint Underwriting Association 3930.03 81015
Board of Governors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association 3929.64 81016
Board of Voting Machines Examiners 3506.05 81017
Budget Planning and Management Commission Section 509.10, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 81018
Brain Injury Advisory Committee 3304.231 81019
Bureau of Workers' Compensation Board of Directors 4121.12 81020
Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board 105.41 81021
Child Care Advisory Council 5104.08 81022
Child Support Guideline Advisory Council 3119.024 81023
Children's Trust Fund Board 3109.15 - 3109.17 81024
Citizen's Advisory Council 5123.092, 5123.093 81025
Clean Ohio Trail Advisory Board 1519.06 81026
Coastal Resources Advisory Council 1506.12 81027
Commission on African-American Males 4112.12, 4112.13 81028
Commission on Hispanic-Latino Affairs 121.31 81029
Commission on Minority Health 3701.78 81030
Committee on Prescriptive Governance 4723.49 - 4723.492 81031
Commodity Advisory Commission 926.32 81032
Consumer Advisory Committee to the Rehabilitation Services Commission 3304.24 81033
Continuing Education Committee 109.80(B) 81034
Council on Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 3793.09 81035
Council on Unreclaimed Strip Mined Lands 1513.29 81036
County Sheriff's Standard Car Marking and Uniform Commission 311.25 - 311.27 81037
Credential Review Board 3319.65 81038
Credit Union Council 1733.329 81039
Criminal Sentencing Advisory Committee 181.22 81040
Data Collection and Analysis Group 3727.32 81041
Dentist Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.92 81042
Department Advisory Council(s) 107.18, 121.13 81043
Development Financing Advisory Council 122.40, 122.41 81044
Early Childhood Advisory Council 3301.90 81045
Education Commission of the States (Interstate Compact for Education) 3301.48, 3301.49 81046
Education Management Information System Advisory Board 3301.0713 81047
Educator Standards Board 3319.60 81048
Electrical Safety Inspector Advisory Committee 3783.08 81049
Emergency Response Commission 3750.02 81050
Engineering Experiment Station Advisory Committee 3335.27 81051
Environmental Education Council 3745.21 81052
Environmental Protection Agency Advisory Board(s) 121.13, 3704.03, 3745.01 81053
eTech Ohio Commission 3353.02 - 3353.04 81054
Ex-Offender Reentry Coalition 5120.07 81055
Farmland Preservation Advisory Board 901.23 81056
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission(s) for Municipal Corporation, County, or Township 118.05 81057
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission for a school district 3316.05 81058
Forestry Advisory Council 1503.40 81059
Governance Authority for a State University or College 3345.75 81060
Governor's Council on People with Disabilities 3303.41 81061
Governor's Policy Information Working Group Section 313, H.B. 420, 127th G.A. 81062
Governor's Residence Advisory Commission 107.40 81063
Grain Marketing Program Operating Committee 924.20 - 924.30 81064
Great Lakes Commission (Great Lakes Basin Compact) 6161.01 81065
Gubernatorial Transition Committee 107.29, 126.26 81066
Help Me Grow Advisory Council 3701.611 81067
Hemophilia Advisory Subcommittee of the Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.0210 81068
Homeland Security Advisory Council 5502.011(E) 81069
Hospital Measures Advisory Council 3727.31 81070
Housing Trust Fund Advisory Committee 174.06 81071
Industrial Commission Nominating Council 4121.04 81072
Industrial Technology and Enterprise Advisory Council 122.29, 122.30 81073
Infant Hearing Screening Subcommittee 3701.507 81074
Infection Control Group 3727.312(D) 81075
Insurance Agent Education Advisory Council 3905.483 81076
Interstate Rail Passenger Advisory Council 4981.35 81077
Joint Select Committee on Volume Cap 133.021 81078
Labor-Management Government Advisory Council 4121.70 81079
Legislative Programming Committee of the Ohio Government Telecommunications Service 3353.07 81080
Legislative Task Force on Redistricting, Reapportionment, and Demographic Research 103.51 81081
Maternity and Newborn Advisory Council 3711.20, 3711.21 81082
Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.025 81083
Midwest Interstate Passenger Rail Compact Commission 4981.361 81084
Milk Sanitation Board 917.03 - 917.032 81085
Mine Subsidence Insurance Governing Board 3929.51 81086
Minority Development Financing Advisory Board 122.72, 122.73 81087
Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) Steering Committee Section 15.02, H.B. 640, 123rd G.A. 81088
National Museum of Afro-American History and Culture Planning Committee 149.303 81089
New African Immigrants Commission 4112.31, 4112.32 81090
Ohio Accountability Task Force 3302.021(E) 81091
Ohio Advisory Council for the Aging 173.03 81092
Ohio Agriculture License Plate Scholarship Fund Board 901.90 81093
Ohio Arts Council Chapter 3379. 81094
Ohio Business Gateway Steering Committee 5703.57 81095
Ohio Cemetery Dispute Resolution Commission 4767.05, 4767.06 81096
Ohio Civil Rights Commission Advisory Agencies and Conciliation Councils 4112.04(B)(4) 81097
Ohio Commercial Market Assistance Plan Executive Committee 3930.02 81098
Ohio Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management 179.02 - 179.04 81099
Ohio Commission on Fatherhood 5101.34 81100
Ohio Community Service Council 121.40 - 121.404 81101
Ohio Council for Interstate Adult Offender Supervision 5149.22 81102
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission Chapter 3383. 81103
Ohio Cystic Fibrosis Legislative Task Force 101.38 81104
Ohio Developmental Disabilities Council 5123.35 81105
Ohio Expositions Commission 991.02 81106
Ohio Family and Children First Cabinet Council 121.37 81107
Ohio Geographically Referenced Information Program Council 125.901, 125.902 81108
Ohio Geology Advisory Council 1501.11 81109
Ohio Grape Industries Committee 924.51 - 924.55 81110
Ohio Historic Site Preservation Advisory Board 149.301 81111
Ohio Historical Society Board of Trustees 149.30 81112
Ohio Judicial Conference 105.91 - 105.97 81113
Ohio Lake Erie Commission 1506.21 81114
Ohio Legislative Commission on the Education and Preservation of State History Section 701.05, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 81115
Ohio Medical Quality Foundation 3701.89 81116
Ohio Parks and Recreation Council 1541.40 81117
Ohio Peace Officer Training Commission 109.71, 109.72 81118
Ohio Private Investigation and Security Services Commission 4749.021, 4743.01 81119
Ohio Public Defender Commission 120.01 - 120.03 81120
Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 3375.65, 3375.66 81121
Ohio Quarter Horse Development Commission 3769.086 81122
Ohio Small Government Capital Improvements Commission 164.02(C)(D) 81123
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission 1515.02 81124
Ohio Standardbred Development Commission 3769.085 81125
Ohio Subrogation Rights Commission 2323.44 81126
Ohio Thoroughbred Racing Advisory Committee 3769.084 81127
Ohio Transportation Finance Commission 5531.12(B) to (D) 81128
Ohio Tuition Trust Authority 3334.03, 3334.08 81129
Ohio University College of Osteopathic Medicine Advisory Committee 3337.10, 3337.11 81130
Ohio Vendors Representative Committee 3304.34, 20 USC 107 81131
Ohio War Orphans Scholarship Board 5910.02 - 5910.06 81132
Ohio Water Advisory Council 1521.031 81133
Ohio Water Resources Council Advisory Group 1521.19 81134
Ohio Water Resources Council 1521.19 81135
Oil and Gas Commission 1509.35 81136
Operating Committee of the Oil and Gas Marketing Program 1510.06, 1510.11 81137
Organized Crime Investigations Commission 177.01 81138
Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee of the Department of Job and Family Services 5111.084 81139
Physician Assistant Policy Committee of the State Medical Board 4730.05, 4730.06 81140
Physician Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.81 81141
Power Siting Board 4906.02 81142
Prequalification Review Board 5525.07 81143
Private Water Systems Advisory Council 3701.346 81144
Public Health Council 3701.33, 3701.34 81145
Public Utilities Commission Nominating Council 4901.021 81146
Public Utility Property Tax Study Committee 5727.85(K) 81147
Radiation Advisory Council 3748.20 81148
Reclamation Commission 1513.05 81149
Reclamation Forfeiture Fund Advisory Board 1513.182 81150
Recreation and Resources Commission 1501.04 81151
Recycling and Litter Prevention Advisory Council 1502.04 81152
School and Ministerial Lands Divestiture Committee 501.041 81153
Savings and Loan Associations and Savings Banks Board 1181.16 81154
Second Chance Trust Fund Advisory Committee 2108.35 81155
Service Coordination Workgroup Section 751.20, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 81156
Ski Tramway Board 4169.02 81157
Small Business Stationary Source Technical and Environmental Compliance Assistance Council 3704.19 81158
Solid Waste Management Advisory Council 3734.51 81159
Special Commission to Consider the Suspension of Local Government Officials 3.16 81160
Speed to Scale Task Force Section 375.60.80, H.B. 119, 128th G.A. 81161
State Agency Coordinating Group 1521.19 81162
State Audit Committee 126.46 81163
State Council of Uniform State Laws 105.21 - 105.27 81164
State Criminal Sentencing Commission 181.22 - 181.26 81165
State Fire Council 3737.81 81166
State Library Board 3375.01 81167
State Victims Assistance Advisory Council 109.91(B) and (C) 81168
Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resource Boards 3375.481 81169
STEM Committee 3326.02 81170
Student Tuition Recovery Authority 3332.081 81171
Sunset Review Committee 101.84 - 101.87 81172
Tax Credit Authority 122.17(M) 81173
Technical Advisory Committee to Assist Director of the Ohio Coal Development Office 1551.35 81174
Technical Advisory Council on Oil and Gas 1509.38 81175
Transportation Review Advisory Council 5512.07 - 5512.09 81176
Unemployment Compensation Advisory Council 4141.08 81177
Unemployment Compensation Review Commission 4141.06 81178
Veterans Advisory Committee 5902.02(K) 81179
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (private volunteer) 146.02 - 146.06 81180
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (public) 146.02 - 146.06 81181
Water and Sewer Commission 1525.11(C) 81182
Waterways Safety Council 1547.73 81183
Wildlife Council 1531.03 - 1531.05 81184
Workers' Compensation Board of Directors Nominating Committee 4121.123 81185

       Section 601.51. That existing Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of 81186
the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.81187

       Section 601.55.  That Section 701.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 81188
129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:81189

       Sec. 701.10. Notwithstanding any contrary provision in 81190
section 105.41 of the Revised Code or in any rule or procedure 81191
adopted by the Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board, the Board 81192
shall designate, not later than October 1, 2012, a prominent place 81193
on the lawn or other outside grounds of Capitol Square for the 81194
erection of a permanent memorial to victims of The Holocaust 81195
(1933-1945) and to those Ohioans who participated in the 81196
liberation of the death camps during World War II. The Ohio Arts 81197
Council and the Board shall work together to invite, accept, and 81198
evaluate proposals for the concept, design, and erection of such a 81199
memorial, and shall jointly select from among the proposals the 81200
memorial to be designed and erected at the place designated by the 81201
Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board for that purpose. Site 81202
preparation, utility placement, and other preliminary construction 81203
activities shall be paid for with public funds. Planning, and 81204
planning for and designing and erecting the memorial, shall be 81205
paid for with only private contributions. The Capitol Square 81206
Foundation shall accept private contributions for those purposes, 81207
and shall deposit the contributions into the Capitol Square 81208
Holocaust Memorial Fund.81209

       Section 601.56. That existing Section 701.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 81210
of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.81211

       Section 610.10. That Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 81212
121st General Assembly be amended to read as follows:81213

       Sec. 3. Sections 109.57, 109.572, 2950.08, and 2953.32, and 81214
3701.881 of the Revised Code, as amended by this actAm. Sub. S.B. 81215
160 of the 121st General Assembly regarding employment of persons 81216
who provide direct care to older adults, and sections 173.41,81217
3712.09, 3721.121, and 3722.151 of the Revised Code, as enacted by 81218
this actAm. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st General Assembly, apply 81219
only to persons who apply for employment on or after the effective 81220
date of this actJanuary 27, 1997.81221

       Section 610.11. That existing Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 81222
of the 121st General Assembly is hereby repealed.81223

       Section 620.10. That Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 81224
120th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:81225

       Sec. 3. Sections 3301.54, and 5104.09, and 5126.28 of the 81226
Revised Code, as amended by this actAm. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 120th 81227
General Assembly, and sections 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 81228
3301.541, 3319.3113319.39, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, and 81229
5153.111 of the Revised Code, as enacted by this actAm. Sub. S.B. 81230
38 of the 120th General Assembly, apply only to persons who apply 81231
for employment for a position on or after the effective date of 81232
this actOctober 29, 1993.81233

       Section 620.11. That existing Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 38 81234
of the 120th General Assembly is hereby repealed.81235

       Section 650.10. That Sections 261.10.10, 261.10.20, 81236
261.10.30, 261.10.50, 261.10.60, 261.10.80, 261.10.90, 261.20.10, 81237
261.20.20, 261.20.70, 261.30.50, and 263.10.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 81238
153 of the 129th General Assembly are hereby repealed.81239

       Section 701.10.10. OHIO STATEHOUSE SAFETY AND SECURITY STUDY81240

        The Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board and the 81241
Department of Public Safety jointly shall contract for a study of 81242
the safety and security of the Ohio Statehouse complex, including 81243
the buildings, parking garage, and grounds. The Board and the 81244
Department jointly shall determine with whom to contract. The 81245
study shall include recommendations for security protocols while 81246
providing for the health, safety, and convenience of those who 81247
work in, or visit, the statehouse. The report shall be submitted 81248
to the Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board for action not 81249
later than December 1, 2012.81250

       Section 701.23. As used in this section, "political 81251
subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the 81252
Revised Code.81253

        The Auditor of State shall establish, operate, and maintain 81254
one or more web sites to serve as an online clearinghouse of 81255
information about streamlining government operations, 81256
collaboration, and shared services to reduce the cost of 81257
government in this state. The web site may be developed by the 81258
Auditor of State or through the use of outside vendors. Existing 81259
web sites may be used if their content conforms to the 81260
requirements of this section. In establishing, maintaining, and 81261
operating the online clearinghouse web site, the Auditor of State 81262
shall:81263

        (A) Use a domain name for the web site that will be easily 81264
recognized, remembered, and understood by the users of the web 81265
site;81266

        (B) Maintain the web site so that it is fully accessible to 81267
and searchable by members of the public at all times;81268

        (C) Not charge a fee to a person who accesses, searches, or 81269
otherwise uses the web site;81270

        (D) Compile information provided by political subdivisions 81271
that includes savings recommendations from performance audits, 81272
examples of shared services among communities, shared services 81273
agreements to use as templates, and other tools developed 81274
independently by the Auditor of State or requested by political 81275
subdivisions and agreed to by the Auditor of State;81276

        (E) Enable political subdivisions to register and request 81277
inclusion of their submitted information on the web site, as well 81278
as to report state and local barriers to collaboration;81279

        (F) Enable information to be accessed by key word or other 81280
useful identifiers;81281

        (G) Maintain adequate systemic security and back-up features, 81282
and develop and maintain a contingency plan for coping with and 81283
recovering from power outages, systemic failures, and other 81284
unforeseen difficulties; and81285

        (H) Maintain the web site in such a manner that it will not 81286
infringe legally protected interests, so that vulnerability of the 81287
web site to interruption because of litigation or the threat of 81288
litigation is reduced.81289

       Section 701.33. As used in this section, "political 81290
subdivision" has the meaning defined in section 2744.01 of the 81291
Revised Code.81292

        The Department of Administrative Services, by itself or by 81293
contract with another entity, shall establish, operate, and 81294
maintain a web site to serve as an online clearinghouse of 81295
information about existing joint purchasing programs between or 81296
among political subdivisions in the state. In establishing, 81297
maintaining, and operating the online clearinghouse web site, the 81298
department shall:81299

        (A) Use a domain name for the web site that will be easily 81300
recognized, remembered, and understood by the users of the web 81301
site;81302

        (B) Maintain the web site so that it is fully accessible to 81303
and searchable by members of the public at all times;81304

        (C) Not charge a fee to a person who accesses, searches, or 81305
otherwise uses the web site;81306

        (D) Compile information provided by political subdivisions 81307
about joint purchasing arrangements they are involved in that the 81308
department verifies, through meetings with various statewide 81309
associations and others, to have resulted in verifiable cost 81310
savings, and consolidate that information on the web site in a 81311
consistent manner;81312

        (E) Enable political subdivisions to register and request 81313
inclusion of their submitted information on the web site;81314

       (F) Enable information to be accessed by key word, by program 81315
name, by county, by type of product or service, and by other 81316
useful identifiers;81317

       (G) Maintain adequate systemic security and back-up features, 81318
and develop and maintain a contingency plan for coping with and 81319
recovering from power outages, systemic failures, and other 81320
unforeseen difficulties; and81321

        (H) Maintain the web site in such a manner that it will not 81322
infringe legally protected interests, so that vulnerability of the 81323
web site to interruption because of litigation or the threat of 81324
litigation is reduced.81325

        The department shall bear the expense of establishing, 81326
operating, and maintaining the online clearinghouse web site.81327

       Section 701.41. The Department of Administrative Services 81328
shall analyze opportunities to reduce travel expenses through 81329
teleconferencing and web conferencing within state government. The 81330
Department shall assess current teleconferencing capabilities 81331
within state government operations, research industry standards 81332
and best practices, and make recommendations that will optimize 81333
the use of these technologies. Not later than December 31, 2012, 81334
the Department of Administrative Services shall produce a report 81335
with its findings and shall deliver the report to the Speaker and 81336
Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, the President and 81337
Minority Leader of the Senate, and the Governor.81338

       Section 701.50. MARCS STEERING COMMITTEE AND STATEWIDE 81339
COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEM81340

       There is hereby created a Multi-Agency Radio Communications 81341
System (MARCS) Steering Committee consisting of the designees of 81342
the Directors of Administrative Services, Public Safety, Natural 81343
Resources, Transportation, Rehabilitation and Correction, and 81344
Budget and Management, and the State Fire Marshal or the State 81345
Fire Marshal's designee. The Director of Administrative Services 81346
or the Director's designee shall chair the Committee. The 81347
Committee shall provide assistance to the Director of 81348
Administrative Services for effective and efficient implementation 81349
of the MARCS system as well as develop policies for the ongoing 81350
management of the system. Upon dates prescribed by the Directors 81351
of Administrative Services and Budget and Management, the MARCS 81352
Steering Committee shall report to the Directors on the progress 81353
of MARCS implementation and the development of policies related to 81354
the system.81355

       Section 701.60. As used in this section, "business day" means 81356
a day of the week, excluding Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday 81357
as defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.81358

       Any regional council of governments that was formed and is 81359
operating before the effective date of the amendment by this act 81360
of section 167.04 of the Revised Code shall notify the Auditor of 81361
State of its existence within 30 business days after the effective 81362
date of that amendment, and shall provide on a form prescribed by 81363
the Auditor of State the information required under that section. 81364
The Auditor of State shall review the information and, within one 81365
year after the effective date of that amendment, shall issue a 81366
report to the Governor and the General Assembly. The report shall 81367
address how many regional councils of governments are operating 81368
under Chapter 167. of the Revised Code, whether those regional 81369
councils continue to meet the objectives for which regional 81370
councils were first authorized in 1967, and whether regional 81371
councils are an efficient and effective way for local governments 81372
to share services or to participate in cooperative arrangements.81373

       Section 701.70.10. (A) The construction and energy operations 81374
of the Office of the State Architect and Engineer (OSAE) under 81375
Chapters 123. and 153. are transferred and consolidated into the 81376
construction and capital funding operations of the Ohio Facilities 81377
Construction Commission (OFCC). And the Ohio School Facilities 81378
Commission (OSFC) becomes an independent agency within the Ohio 81379
Facilities Construction Commission. Notwithstanding Chapter 153. 81380
of the Revised Code, the OFCC is thereupon and thereafter 81381
successor to, assumes the power and obligations of, and otherwise 81382
constitutes the continuation of the construction and energy 81383
operations and related management functions of the OSAE as 81384
provided in the applicable sections of Chapter 153. of the Revised 81385
Code or in any agreements relating to capital expenditures for 81386
construction operations functions to which the OSAE is a party. 81387
All statutory references to the OSAE are deemed to be references 81388
to the OFCC.81389

       (B) Any activities relating to the operations and related 81390
management functions commenced but not completed by the OSAE shall 81391
be completed by the OFCC in the same manner and with the same 81392
effect as if completed by the OSAE. No validation, cure, right, 81393
privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by 81394
reason of the consolidation, and shall be administered by the 81395
OFCC. All rules, orders, and determinations related to design, 81396
planning, and construction and energy operations and related 81397
management functions of the OSAE continue in effect as rules, 81398
orders, and determinations of the OFCC, until modified or 81399
rescinded by the OFCC. The Director of the Legislative Service 81400
Commission shall renumber the OSAE rules related to the design, 81401
planning, and construction and energy operations and related 81402
management functions to reflect their transfer to the OFCC. 81403

        (C) To the extent possible, all employees of the OSAE shall 81404
be transferred to the OFCC, as the OFCC determines to be necessary 81405
for the successful implementation of this section. All employees 81406
of the OSFC shall remain in their current classifications unless 81407
the OFCC determines otherwise.81408

       (D) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding, to 81409
which the OSAE or an authorized officer of either is a party, that 81410
is pending on the effective date of this section, or on such later 81411
date as may be established by an authorized officer of the OFCC 81412
and that is related to its construction, capital funding, or 81413
energy operation or related management functions, is affected by 81414
the transfer and consolidation of functions. Any such action or 81415
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 81416
OFCC. On application to the court or agency, the OFCC shall be 81417
substituted for the OSAE or an authorized officer of either as a 81418
party to the action or proceeding.81419

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision of the law to the contrary, 81420
and not sooner than 90 days after the effective date of this 81421
section, and if requested by the OFCC, the Director of Budget and 81422
Management shall make budget changes made necessary by the 81423
transfer, if any, including administrative organization, program 81424
transfers, the creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, 81425
and the consolidation of funds, as authorized by this section. The 81426
Director of Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish 81427
encumbrances or parts of encumbrances created in fiscal years 2012 81428
and 2013 in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the 81429
same purpose and for payment to the same vendor in fiscal year 81430
2013. The established encumbrances plus any additional amounts 81431
determined to be necessary for the OFCC to perform the 81432
construction, energy, and capital funding operation and related 81433
management functions of the OSAE are hereby appropriated.81434

       (F) Not later than 30 days after the transfer and 81435
consolidation of the construction, energy, and capital funding 81436
operations and related management functions of the OSAE to the 81437
OFCC, an authorized officer of the OSAE shall certify to the OFCC 81438
the unexpended balance and location of any funds and accounts 81439
designated for building and facility operation and management 81440
functions, and the custody of such funds and accounts shall be 81441
transferred to the OFCC.81442

       (G) The OFCC and the Department of Natural Resources (DNR) 81443
shall cooperate in a study to determine which operation functions, 81444
if any, of the DNR Division of Engineering should be integrated 81445
and consolidated into the OFCC. The study shall be completed not 81446
later than December 31, 2012.81447

       Section 701.70.20. The Division of Labor in the Department of 81448
Commerce is hereby renamed the Division of Industrial Compliance 81449
on the effective date of section 121.04 of the Revised Code, as 81450
amended by this act. The Division and the Superintendent of 81451
Industrial Compliance shall have and perform all the duties, 81452
powers, and obligations of the Division and Superintendent of 81453
Labor. All rules, actions, determinations, commitments, 81454
resolutions, decisions, and agreements pertaining to the duties, 81455
powers, obligations, functions, and rights of the Division or 81456
Superintendent of Labor, in force or in effect on the effective 81457
date of section 121.04 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 81458
act, shall continue in force and effect and apply to the Division 81459
or Superintendent of Industrial Compliance as applicable and 81460
subject to any further lawful action thereon by the Division or 81461
Superintendent of Industrial Compliance. Wherever the 81462
Superintendent of Labor or Division of Labor are referred to in 81463
any provision of law, or in any agreement or document that 81464
pertains to those duties, powers, obligations, functions, and 81465
rights, the reference is to the Superintendent of Industrial 81466
Compliance or Division of Industrial Compliance, as appropriate.81467

       All authorized obligations and supplements thereto of the 81468
Superintendent and Division of Labor are binding on the 81469
Superintendent or Division of Industrial Compliance and nothing in 81470
this act impairs those obligations or rights or the obligations or 81471
rights under any contract. The renaming of the Division of Labor 81472
and Superintendent of Labor does not affect the validity of 81473
agreements or obligations made by that superintendent or division 81474
pursuant to Chapters 121., 3703., 3781., 3791., 4104., 4105., and 81475
4740. of the Revised Code or any other provisions of law.81476

       In connection with the renaming of the Division of Labor, all 81477
real property and interest therein, documents, books, money, 81478
papers, records, machinery, furnishings, office equipment, 81479
furniture, and all other property over which the Superintendent 81480
and Division of Labor have control and the rights of the 81481
Superintendent and Division of Labor to enforce or receive any of 81482
those is automatically transferred to the Superintendent and 81483
Division of Industrial Compliance without necessity for further 81484
action on the part of the Superintendent or Division of Industrial 81485
Compliance, or the Director of Commerce. Additionally, all 81486
appropriations or reappropriations made to the Superintendent and 81487
Division of Labor for the purposes of the performance of their 81488
duties, powers, and obligations, are transferred to the 81489
Superintendent and Division of Industrial Compliance to the extent 81490
of the remaining unexpended or unencumbered balance thereof, 81491
whether allocated or unallocated, and whether obligated or 81492
unobligated.81493

       Section 701.111. The new filing requirements applicable to 81494
persons who are elected or appointed to, or who are candidates 81495
for, an office of a township with a population of five thousand or 81496
more under section 102.02 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 81497
act, first apply to 2011 statements required to be filed by 81498
persons who are candidates for or serving in a township office in 81499
calendar year 2012, which shall be filed not later than ninety 81500
days after the effective date of this section.81501

       Section 701.121.  (A) The state of Ohio requests that the 81502
Joint Committee on the Library of Congress approve the replacement 81503
of Ohio's statue of Governor William Allen in the National 81504
Statuary Hall Collection with a statue of Thomas Edison. 81505

       (B) In accordance with the Procedure for Replacement of 81506
Statues in the National Statuary Hall Collection, Ohio submits the 81507
following information for consideration by the Joint Committee on 81508
the Library of Congress:81509

       (1) Thomas Edison, a native of Milan, Ohio, was a world 81510
famous inventor and highly successful businessperson whose 81511
inventions, such as the phonograph, the kinetoscope (a precursor 81512
to the film projector), and the first practical incandescent light 81513
bulb, have had a tremendous impact on the world. In addition to 81514
these inventions, Thomas Edison's service to the United States 81515
Government has also impacted world history. During World War I, he 81516
consulted for the government, examining inventions submitted for 81517
military use and working on defensive devices for submarines and 81518
ships. For his service, he eventually was awarded a Distinguished 81519
Service Medal by the Department of the Navy. By the time of his 81520
death, he had received over one thousand patents.81521

       Thomas Edison also has had a significant impact on the state 81522
of Ohio. He established the Edison Steel Company in Cleveland, 81523
Ohio, and established one of the first electric power stations in 81524
Tiffin, Ohio. His General Electric Company established the first 81525
industrial park in Ohio, which has employed hundreds of thousands 81526
of people over time. And the Ohio Department of Development 81527
sponsors The Thomas Edison Award, which was established in 81528
partnership with the Edison Birthplace Museum in Milan, Ohio. The 81529
Edison Birthplace Museum also has been instrumental in the 81530
issuance of a Thomas Edison stamp and commemorative silver dollar, 81531
and has received, on Thomas Edison's behalf, a posthumously 81532
awarded GRAMMY Award. 81533

       Thomas Edison's impact on the world, and, in particular, on 81534
the state of Ohio, through his inventions, business endeavors, and 81535
government service, merits inclusion of a statue of him in the 81536
National Statuary Hall Collection. 81537

       (2) The Ohio Statuary Hall Commission, a nonprofit Ohio 81538
corporation, was established in 2009 for the purpose of assisting 81539
with the process of recommending an Ohio citizen for statuary 81540
representation in the National Statuary Hall Collection, including 81541
raising funds and providing financial support for that effort. If 81542
the Joint Committee on the Library of Congress approves this 81543
replacement statue request, the Commission shall be responsible 81544
for the selection of a sculptor for the Thomas Edison statue as 81545
well as for paying all costs incurred for placing the Thomas 81546
Edison statue in the United States Capitol, including costs 81547
incurred for all of the following:81548

       (a) Paying the sculptor;81549

       (b) Carving or casting the statue;81550

       (c) Creating a pedestal and any inscription;81551

       (d) Transporting the statue and pedestal to the United States 81552
Capitol;81553

       (e) Removing and transporting the replaced statue;81554

       (f) Temporarily erecting the new statue in the Rotunda of the 81555
Capitol for the unveiling ceremony;81556

       (g) Expenses related to the unveiling ceremony; and81557

       (h) Any other expenses that the Ohio Statuary Hall Commission 81558
finds it to be necessary to incur.81559

       (C) As required by the Procedure for Replacement of Statues 81560
in the National Statuary Hall Collection, the Governor shall 81561
submit to the Architect of the Capitol a copy of this act, along 81562
with a letter from the Governor, requesting approval from the 81563
Joint Committee on the Library of Congress to replace Ohio's 81564
statue of Governor William Allen in the National Statuary Hall 81565
Collection with a statue of Thomas Edison.81566

       Section 701.131.  The amendment by this act to sections 81567
107.54 and 119.032 and the enactment by this act of section 81568
119.033 of the Revised Code apply to a rule that is subjected to 81569
review under section 119.032 of the Revised Code on or after 81570
January 1, 2013. The amendment by this act to sections 107.54 and 81571
119.032 and the enactment by this act of section 119.033 of the 81572
Revised Code do not apply to a rule the review of which under 81573
section 119.032 of the Revised Code is pending on January 1, 2013. 81574
Prior law continues to apply to these proposed rules and to these 81575
rules until the rule-making or the review proceedings are 81576
completed.81577

       Section 707.10. For fiscal years 2013 and 2014, the 81578
legislative authority of a municipal corporation in a county, with 81579
a population between three hundred seventy-five thousand and four 81580
hundred thousand according to the most recent federal decennial 81581
census, may conduct a pilot program whereby the legislative 81582
authority may use up to five per cent of the aggregate amount of 81583
money deposited in the municipal corporation's sewer fund and up 81584
to five per cent of the aggregate amount of money deposited in a 81585
fund created by the municipal corporation for water-works for the 81586
purpose of extending the municipal corporation's water or sewerage 81587
system, as applicable, if both of the following apply:81588

        (A) The water or sewerage system is being extended to areas 81589
for economic development purposes.81590

        (B) The areas into which the water or sewerage system is 81591
being extended are the subject of a cooperative economic 81592
development agreement entered into by the municipal corporation 81593
under section 701.07 of the Revised Code.81594

        With regard to either fund, the legislative authority shall 81595
not exceed the five per cent limit established in this section.81596

       Section 709.11. Upon the expiration of the term of a member 81597
who is serving on the Ohio Grape Industries Committee created in 81598
section 924.51 of the Revised Code immediately prior to the 81599
effective date of this act, the Director of Agriculture shall 81600
appoint a member for a new term in accordance with that section as 81601
amended by this act.81602

       Section 733.05.  Not later than ninety days after the 81603
effective date of this section, the Ohio Board of Regents shall 81604
complete a review of each entity that held the Department of 81605
Insurance's designation under section 3305.03 of the Revised Code 81606
immediately prior to the effective date of this act. In conducting 81607
the review, the Board shall comply with the applicable 81608
requirements of sections 3305.03 and 3305.031 of the Revised Code, 81609
as amended and enacted by this act.81610

       Section 733.10. (A) This section applies to a state 81611
university, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 81612
that has a main campus subsidy-eligible undergraduate enrollment 81613
of more than 17,000 but less than 22,000 students for fiscal year 81614
2012.81615

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3313.41 of the Revised Code, when 81616
a school district board of education decides to dispose of real 81617
property that the board owns in its corporate capacity, exceeds in 81618
value ten thousand dollars, and is located within one hundred 81619
yards of any classroom or administrative building on the main 81620
campus of the state university as described in division (A) of 81621
this section, prior to offering that property for sale under 81622
divisions (A) to (G) of section 3313.41 of the Revised Code, the 81623
board may offer that property to the board of trustees of the 81624
state university in either or both of the following manners:81625

        (1) In an "as is" condition in return for an agreement 81626
between the board of trustees and the school district board, under 81627
which the university will provide the school district with in-kind 81628
services, educational programs, or other assistance valued in the 81629
aggregate in an amount reasonably related to the appraised fair 81630
market value of the property;81631

        (2) For sale for money at a price that is not higher than the 81632
appraised fair market value of that property.81633

        (C) If the board of trustees does not accept either offer, or 81634
if the agreement is not entered into between the school district 81635
board and the board of trustees, within sixty days after the offer 81636
is made by the district board, the district board then shall offer 81637
the property for sale as provided in division (G) of section 81638
3313.41 of the Revised Code.81639

       (D) This section expires on December 31, 2012.81640

       Section 737.10.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE PUBLIC HEALTH COUNCIL81641

       On the effective date of this section, the Public Health 81642
Council is abolished and the responsibilities of the Public Health 81643
Council are transferred to the Director of Health.81644

        Any business before the Public Health Council commenced but 81645
not completed before the effective date of this section shall be 81646
completed by the Director of Health. The business shall be 81647
completed in the same manner, and with the same effect, as if 81648
completed by the Director of Health immediately prior to the 81649
effective date of this section.81650

        No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 81651
liability is lost or impaired by reason of this act's abolishment 81652
of the Public Health Council and transfer of responsibility to the 81653
Director of Health. Each such validation, cure, right, privilege, 81654
remedy, obligation, or liability shall be administered by the 81655
Director of Health.81656

       All rules, orders, and determinations of the Public Health 81657
Council adopted or made immediately prior to the effective date of 81658
this section shall continue in effect as rules, orders, and 81659
determinations of the Director of Health until modified or 81660
rescinded by the Director of Health. If necessary to ensure the 81661
integrity of the numbering system of the Administrative Code, the 81662
Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber the 81663
rules to reflect the transfer of the Public Health Council's 81664
responsibilities to the Director of Health.81665

        Any action or proceeding that is related to the functions or 81666
duties of the Public Health Council pending on the effective date 81667
of this section is not affected by the transfer and shall be 81668
prosecuted or defended in the name of the Director of Health. In 81669
all such actions and proceedings, the Director of Health, on 81670
application to the court, shall be substituted as a party.81671

       Section 737.20. (A) On the effective date of the amendment of 81672
the statutes governing the Division of Recycling and Litter 81673
Prevention in the Department of Natural Resources by this act or 81674
on July 1, 2012, whichever is later, the Division of Recycling and 81675
Litter Prevention is abolished, and all of its functions, together 81676
with its assets and liabilities, are transferred from within the 81677
Department of Natural Resources to within the Environmental 81678
Protection Agency.81679

       (B) Any business commenced but not completed by the Division 81680
of Recycling and Litter Prevention in the Department of Natural 81681
Resources on the effective date of the transfer shall be completed 81682
by the Environmental Protection Agency. Any validation, cure, 81683
right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability is not lost or 81684
impaired solely by reason of the transfer required by this section 81685
and shall be administered by the Environmental Protection Agency 81686
in accordance with this act.81687

       (C) All of the rules, orders, and determinations of the 81688
Division of Recycling and Litter Prevention in the Department of 81689
Natural Resources or of the Department of Natural Resources in 81690
relation to that Division continue in effect as rules, orders, and 81691
determinations of the Environmental Protection Agency until 81692
modified or rescinded by the Environmental Protection Agency. If 81693
necessary to ensure the integrity of the numbering of the 81694
Administrative Code, the Director of the Legislative Service 81695
Commission shall renumber rules of the Department of Natural 81696
Resources in relation to the former Division of Recycling and 81697
Litter Prevention in that Department to reflect the transfer to 81698
the Environmental Protection Agency.81699

       (D) Subject to the provisions of the applicable bargaining 81700
unit agreements, all of the positions of the Division of Recycling 81701
and Litter Prevention in the Department of Natural Resources are 81702
transferred to the Environmental Protection Agency. Employees who 81703
transfer with the positions shall retain their same or 81704
substantially similar positions and all the benefits accruing 81705
thereto. Upon completion of the transfer, the employees shall be 81706
subject to the policies and procedures of the Environmental 81707
Protection Agency.81708

       (E) Whenever the Division of Recycling and Litter Prevention 81709
in the Department of Natural Resources or the Chief of the 81710
Division of Recycling and Litter Prevention is referred to in any 81711
law, contract, or other document, the reference shall be deemed to 81712
refer to the Environmental Protection Agency or to the Director of 81713
Environmental Protection, whichever is appropriate in context.81714

       (F) Any action or proceeding pending on the effective date of 81715
the amendment of the statutes governing the Division of Recycling 81716
and Litter Prevention by this act is not affected by the transfer 81717
of the functions of that Division by this act and shall be 81718
prosecuted or defended in the name of the Environmental Protection 81719
Agency. In all such actions and proceedings, the Environmental 81720
Protection Agency, upon application to the court, shall be 81721
substituted as a party.81722

       Section 737.30. The Recycling and Litter Prevention Advisory 81723
Council created within the Environmental Protection Agency by 81724
section 3736.04 of the Revised Code, as amended and renumbered by 81725
this act, is a continuation of the Recycling and Litter Prevention 81726
Advisory Council created within the Division of Recycling and 81727
Litter Prevention in the Department of Natural Resources by 81728
section 1502.04 of the Revised Code prior to its amendment and 81729
renumbering by this act.81730

       Section 737.40. (A) As used in this section:81731

        (1) "Food service operation," "retail food establishment," 81732
and "vending machine location" have the same meanings as in 81733
section 3717.01 of the Revised Code.81734

        (2) "Micro market" means an area or room that has displays of 81735
not more than two hundred fifty linear feet that offer either of 81736
the following:81737

        (a) Prepackaged foods that are not time- or 81738
temperature-controlled for food safety purposes;81739

        (b) Prepackaged foods that are refrigerated or frozen and 81740
time- or temperature-controlled for food safety purposes and that 81741
are stored in equipment that complies with Chapter 3717-1 of the 81742
Administrative Code.81743

        (B) Until the Director of Agriculture adopts rules under 81744
section 3717.04 of the Revised Code governing the licensure of 81745
micro markets, the operation of a micro market is exempt from the 81746
licensure requirements for retail food establishments, food 81747
service operations, and vending machine locations established 81748
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code. This division applies to 81749
a micro market that was previously exempted under division (B)(5) 81750
of section 3717.22 of the Revised Code by the Director from being 81751
licensed as a retail food establishment.81752

        (C) Not later than sixty days following the adoption of rules 81753
by the Director under section 3717.04 of the Revised Code 81754
governing the licensure of micro markets, the operator of a micro 81755
market shall apply for a license in accordance with those rules.81756

       Section 737.50. Not later than 30 days after the amendment by 81757
this act of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code takes effect, the 81758
Treasurer of State shall give written notice to each property 81759
owner or lessee who, under former division (D) of that section, 81760
deposited money or a surety or government-issued bond with the 81761
Treasurer of State that the money will be refunded or the bond 81762
will be released within the following time period, and that the 81763
property owner or lessee must file a bond in the manner required 81764
by division (C) of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code immediately 81765
after the refund or release:81766

        (A) If money was deposited, the Treasurer of State will 81767
refund the money to the property owner or lessee within 180 days 81768
after the effective date of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code, 81769
as amended by this act;81770

        (B) If a surety bond was deposited, the Treasurer of State 81771
will release the bond to the property owner or lessee upon the 81772
earlier of the expiration of the bond or within two years after 81773
the effective date of section 3791.11 of the Revised Code, as 81774
amended by this act;81775

        (C) If a government-issued bond was deposited, the Treasurer 81776
of State will release the bond to the property owner or lessee 81777
within 180 days after the effective date of section 3791.11 of the 81778
Revised Code, as amended by this act.81779

       Section 737.60. LUPUS EDUCATION AND AWARENESS PROGRAM81780

       (A) In establishing the Lupus Education and Awareness Program 81781
under sections 3701.77 to 3701.775 of the Revised Code, as enacted 81782
by this act, the General Assembly hereby finds the following:81783

       (1) Lupus is a serious, complex, and debilitating autoimmune 81784
disease that can cause inflammation and tissue damage to virtually 81785
any organ system in the body, including the skin, joints, other 81786
connective tissue, blood and blood vessels, heart, lungs, kidneys, 81787
and brain.81788

       (2) The Lupus Foundation of America, Inc., estimates that 81789
approximately 1.5 to 2 million Americans live with lupus.81790

       (3) According to the Centers for Disease Control and 81791
Prevention, the rate of lupus mortality has increased since the 81792
late 1970s.81793

       (4) The pain and fatigue associated with lupus can threaten 81794
the ability to live independently, maintain employment, and lead a 81795
normal life. One in five individuals with lupus is disabled by the 81796
disease, and consequently receives support from government 81797
programs, including Medicare, Medicaid, Social Security 81798
Disability, and Social Security Supplemental Income.81799

       (5) The estimated average annual cost of medical treatment 81800
for an individual with lupus is between $10,000 and $30,000; for 81801
individuals who have the most serious form of lupus, medical costs 81802
can greatly exceed this amount, causing a significant economic, 81803
emotional, and social burden to the entire family and society.81804

       (6) More than half of individuals with lupus suffer four or 81805
more years and visit three or more physicians before obtaining a 81806
diagnosis of lupus; early diagnosis of and treatment for lupus can 81807
prevent or reduce serious organ damage, disability, and death.81808

       (7) Despite the magnitude of lupus and its impact on 81809
individuals and families, health professional and public 81810
understanding of lupus remains low; only one in five Americans can 81811
provide basic information about lupus, and awareness of lupus is 81812
lowest among adults 18 to 34 years of age - the age group most 81813
likely to develop lupus.81814

       (8) Lupus is a significant national health issue that 81815
deserves a comprehensive and coordinated response by state and 81816
federal governments with involvement of the health care provider, 81817
patient, and public health communities.81818

       (B) The purpose of sections 3701.77 to 3701.775 of the 81819
Revised Code, as enacted by this act, is to create a 81820
multi-pronged, statewide program to promote public and health 81821
professional awareness and increase knowledge concerning the 81822
causes and consequences of lupus, the importance of early 81823
diagnosis and appropriate management, and effective treatment and 81824
management strategies by all of the following:81825

       (1) Conducting educational and training programs for health 81826
professionals on lupus diagnosis and management;81827

       (2) Developing and disseminating educational materials and 81828
information to patients and health professionals on lupus research 81829
results and health care services available;81830

       (3) Designing and implementing a statewide public education 81831
campaign aimed at heightening public awareness of lupus;81832

       (4) Leveraging educational and training resources and 81833
services previously developed by organizations with appropriate 81834
expertise and knowledge of lupus.81835

       Section 737.70. PILOT PROGRAM FOR OPIOID- AND 81836
ALCOHOL-DEPENDENT OFFENDERS81837

       (A) The Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 81838
shall conduct a pilot program to provide to certain 81839
opioid-dependent, alcohol-dependent, or opioid- and 81840
alcohol-dependent offenders within the criminal justice system 81841
treatment to prevent relapse into dependency, including 81842
medication-assisted treatment. The medication-assisted treatment 81843
shall be provided by using one or more drugs that constitute 81844
long-acting antagonist therapy and meet all of the following 81845
conditions:81846

       (1) There is no potential for abuse of the drugs by the 81847
person to whom they are given or through diversion of the drugs to 81848
others.81849

        (2) There is no potential for a person to become addicted to 81850
or otherwise dependent on the drugs.81851

        (3) The drugs have been approved by the United States Food 81852
and Drug Administration to prevent relapse into opioid dependency, 81853
alcohol dependency, or opioid and alcohol dependency.81854

        (B) The Department shall conduct the program in Franklin 81855
County and Scioto County and may conduct the program in any one or 81856
more other counties the Department selects. In conducting the 81857
program, the Department shall collaborate with the boards of 81858
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that serve the 81859
counties included in the program. The Department also shall 81860
collaborate with the Departments of Mental Health, Job and Family 81861
Services, and Health and with any other state agency that the 81862
Department determines may be of assistance in accomplishing the 81863
objectives of the program.81864

        (C) The program shall serve not more than one hundred fifty 81865
opioid-dependent or alcohol-dependent offenders selected by the 81866
Department, each of whom meets all of the following criteria:81867

       (1) Is either being released from a community-based 81868
correctional facility or being diverted from prosecution under 81869
section 2935.36 of the Revised Code by a county drug court or 81870
municipal court;81871

        (2) Is transitioning to community-based programs as 81872
prescribed by the court;81873

        (3) Was opioid dependent, alcohol dependent, or opioid and 81874
alcohol dependent at the time of committing the offense for which 81875
the offender was most recently sentenced;81876

       (4) Resides in this state and in the offender's own 81877
court-approved residence or court-approved transitional housing.81878

        (D) A program participant shall do both of the following:81879

        (1) Commit to participate in the program for twelve months 81880
and comply with all requirements established by the program, 81881
sentencing court, and treatment providers, including testing, 81882
counseling, medication therapies, and reporting requirements;81883

        (2) Attend any on-site programming specified by the 81884
sentencing court or treatment provider.81885

        (E) Treatment under the program shall be provided by an 81886
alcohol and drug addiction program certified by the Department 81887
under section 3793.06 of the Revised Code. Treatment shall be 81888
based on an integrated service delivery model. The treatment 81889
provider shall do all of the following:81890

        (1) Conduct a professional, comprehensive substance abuse and 81891
mental health diagnostic assessment of each person who is a 81892
potential program participant to determine whether the person is 81893
opioid dependent, alcohol dependent, or opioid and alcohol 81894
dependent and would benefit from substance abuse treatment and 81895
monitoring to address the dependency;81896

        (2) Determine treatment needs for each program participant 81897
based on the diagnostic assessment;81898

        (3) Develop individualized goals and objectives for each 81899
program participant that follow guidelines provided by the 81900
Department;81901

        (4) Provide initial treatment to each program participant by 81902
persons professionally qualified to provide substance abuse 81903
counseling or treatment;81904

        (5) Provide substance abuse and co-occurring disorder 81905
treatment that includes psychosocial therapies and monthly 81906
medication-assisted treatment;81907

        (6) Provide access to long-acting antagonist therapies to the 81908
same extent that access may be provided to any other 81909
medication-assisted treatment approved by the United States Food 81910
and Drug Administration;81911

        (7) Monitor program compliance through regular urinalysis 81912
drug testing.81913

        (F) Not later than three months after the program has ended, 81914
Kent State University shall prepare a report of the findings 81915
obtained from the program, along with its recommendations, if any. 81916
The University shall include in the report data derived from the 81917
drug testing performed under the program. In preparing the report, 81918
the University shall obtain assistance from the Department of 81919
Alcohol and Drug Addition Services. When the report is complete, 81920
the University shall submit the report to the Governor; President 81921
of the Senate; Speaker of the House of Representatives; 81922
Departments of Mental Health, Job and Family Services, and Health; 81923
and any other agency the Department collaborates with in 81924
conducting the program.81925

       Section 737.81. (A) As used in this section, "source 81926
separated recyclable material" includes any material such as 81927
paper, cardboard, metal, glass, plastic, or similar material that 81928
is segregated by the producer or generator of the material in 81929
order to reuse or recycle the material.81930

       (B) On and after the effective date of this section through 81931
December 31, 2013, the board of county commissioners or board of 81932
directors of a solid waste management district shall not do any of 81933
the following:81934

       (1) Designate any new facilities or activities for the 81935
collection or processing of source separated recyclable material; 81936

       (2) Exercise rulemaking authority to require source separated 81937
recyclable material to be delivered to one or more specified 81938
facilities; 81939

       (3) Enter into any new contract for the collection of source 81940
separated recyclable material that requires the material to be 81941
delivered to one or more specified facilities. 81942

       Any designations, rules, or contracts existing on the 81943
effective date of this section shall remain in effect and, with 81944
respect to contracts, may be renewed.81945

       (C) On and after the effective date of this section through 81946
December 31, 2013, the board of county commissioners or board of 81947
directors of a solid waste management district proposing to 81948
construct a new recycling processing facility on land owned by the 81949
district or operate a new recycling processing facility shall do 81950
so only through a competitive selection process, including 81951
competitive bidding or competitive proposals.81952

       Section 737.91.  It is expected that the Futures Committee of 81953
the Ohio Association of Health Commissioners will release a report 81954
in June 2012 that evaluates the status of public health services 81955
in the state and offers ideas for the future role of boards of 81956
health and health districts in the state. The Legislative 81957
Committee on Public Health Futures shall review the Future 81958
Committee's report, and, on the basis of its review, recommend 81959
legislative and fiscal policies. The policy recommendations shall 81960
be considered for inclusion in the fiscal year 2013-2014 operating 81961
budget. The Legislative Committee, not later than October 31, 81962
2012, shall prepare a report that describes its review of the 81963
Future Committee's report, and that states, and provides 81964
explanations of, its policy recommendations. The Legislative 81965
Committee shall transmit a copy of its report to the Governor, the 81966
President and Minority Leader of the Senate, the Speaker and 81967
Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and the 81968
chairpersons of the committees of the Senate and House of 81969
Representatives that will consider the public health phase of the 81970
2013-2014 operating budget. Upon transmitting its report, the 81971
Legislative Committee ceases to exist.81972

       There is the Legislative Committee on Public Health Futures. 81973
Each of the following associations shall appoint one individual to 81974
the Legislative Committee: the County Commissioners Association of 81975
Ohio, the Ohio Township Association, the Department of Health, the 81976
Association of Ohio Health Commissioners, the Ohio Public Health 81977
Association, the Ohio Environmental Health Association, the Ohio 81978
Boards of Health Association, the Ohio Municipal League, and the 81979
Ohio Hospital Association. The President and Minority Leader of 81980
the Senate each shall appoint one member of the Senate to the 81981
Legislative Committee. The Speaker and Minority Leader of the 81982
House of Representatives each shall appoint one member of the 81983
House of Representatives to the Legislative Committee. 81984
Appointments shall be made as soon as possible but not later than 81985
thirty days after the effective date of this section. Vacancies on 81986
the Legislative Committee shall be filled in the same manner as 81987
the original appointment.81988

       As soon as all members have been appointed to the Legislative 81989
Committee, the President of the Senate shall fix a time and place 81990
for the committee to hold its first meeting. At that meeting, the 81991
committee shall elect from among its membership a chairperson, a 81992
vice-chairperson, and a secretary. The Director of Health shall 81993
provide the Legislative Committee with meeting and office space, 81994
equipment, and professional, technical, and clerical staff as are 81995
necessary to enable the Legislative Committee successfully to 81996
complete its work.81997

       Section 747.10.10.  (A) The Manufactured Homes Commission 81998
shall adopt the rules required by section 4781.26 of the Revised 81999
Code as amended by this act not later than December 1, 2012. After 82000
adopting the rules, the Commission immediately shall notify the 82001
Director of Health.82002

       (B)(1) The rules governing manufactured home parks adopted by 82003
the Public Health Council under former section 3733.02 of the 82004
Revised Code shall remain in effect in a health district until the 82005
Commission adopts rules under section 4781.26 of the Revised Code 82006
as amended by this act.82007

       (2) On the effective date of the rules adopted by the 82008
Commission as required by section 4781.26 of the Revised Code as 82009
amended by this act, the Public Health Council rules adopted under 82010
former section 3733.02 of the Revised Code cease to be effective 82011
within the jurisdiction of that board of health.82012

       (C) No board of health of a city or general health district 82013
shall invoice or collect manufactured home park licensing fees for 82014
calendar year 2013.82015

       (D) As used in this section:82016

       (1) "Manufactured home park," "board of health," and "health 82017
district" have the same meanings as in section 4781.01 of the 82018
Revised Code, as amended by this act.82019

       (2) "Public Health Council" means the Public Health Council 82020
created by section 3701.33 of the Revised Code.82021

       Section 747.10.20.  Any manufactured home park license and 82022
inspection fees collected pursuant to former section 3733.04 of 82023
the Revised Code by a board of health prior to the transition of 82024
the annual license and inspection program to the Manufactured 82025
Homes Commission as required under this act in the amount of two 82026
thousand dollars or less may be transferred to the health fund of 82027
the city or general health district. Any of those funds in excess 82028
of two thousand dollars shall be transferred to the Manufactured 82029
Homes Commission Regulatory Fund created in section 4781.54 of the 82030
Revised Code as enacted by this act.82031

       Section 747.10.30.  Notwithstanding the original term of the 82032
appointment, the term of the Manufactured Homes Commission member 82033
who was appointed by the Governor as a representative of the 82034
Department of Health pursuant to division (B)(2)(b) of section 82035
4781.02 of the Revised Code shall end on the effective date of 82036
that section as amended by this act. The initial term of the 82037
registered sanitarian appointed to the Manufactured Homes 82038
Commission pursuant to section 4781.02 of the Revised Code, as 82039
amended by this act, shall expire on the date when the 82040
representative of the Department of Health's term would have 82041
expired, but for this section.82042

       Section 747.20.10. On the effective date of the amendments 82043
made to section 4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, the 82044
member of the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 82045
Transportation Services who is an administrator of an adult or 82046
pediatric trauma center shall cease to be a member of the Board. 82047
On the effective date of the amendments made to section 4765.02 of 82048
the Revised Code by this act, the member of the renamed State 82049
Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and Transportation Services who 82050
is a member of the Ohio Ambulance Association shall cease to be a 82051
member of the Board. On the effective date of the amendments made 82052
to section 4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, the member of 82053
the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 82054
Transportation Services who is a physician certified by the 82055
American board of surgery, American board of osteopathic surgery, 82056
American osteopathic board of emergency medicine, or American 82057
board of emergency medicine, is chief medical officer of an air 82058
medical agency, and is currently active in providing emergency 82059
medical services shall cease to be a member of the Board. On the 82060
effective date of the amendments made to section 4765.02 of the 82061
Revised Code by this act, of the members of the renamed State 82062
Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and Transportation Services who 82063
were EMTs, advanced EMTs, or paramedics and were appointed to the 82064
Board in that capacity, only the members who are designated by the 82065
Governor to continue to be members of the Board shall continue to 82066
be so; the other persons shall cease to be members of the Board. 82067
On the effective date of the amendments made to section 4765.02 of 82068
the Revised Code by this act, the member of the renamed State 82069
Board of Emergency Medical and Transportation Services who is a 82070
registered nurse and is in the active practice of emergency 82071
nursing shall cease to be a member of the Board. Not later than 82072
sixty days after the effective date of those amendments, the 82073
Governor shall appoint to the renamed State Board of Emergency 82074
Medical and Transportation Services a registered nurse with EMS 82075
certification who is in the active practice of critical care 82076
nursing. The Governor shall appoint this member from among three 82077
persons nominated by the Ohio Nurses Association, three persons 82078
nominated by the Ohio Association of Critical Care Transport, and 82079
three persons nominated by the Ohio State Council of the Emergency 82080
Nurses Association.82081

       On the effective date of the amendments made to section 82082
4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, all members of the former 82083
State Board of Emergency Medical Services who do not cease to be 82084
members of the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 82085
Transportation Services by the terms of this act shall continue to 82086
be members of the renamed State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, 82087
and Transportation Services, and the dates on which the terms of 82088
the continuing members expire shall be the dates on which their 82089
terms as members of the former State Board of Emergency Medical 82090
Services expired. On the effective date of the amendments made to 82091
section 4765.02 of the Revised Code by this act, the following 82092
members of the former Ohio Medical Transportation Board shall 82093
become members of the State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 82094
Transportation Services, and the dates on which those members' 82095
terms on the State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and 82096
Transportation Services expire shall be as follows:82097

       (A) The person who owns or operates a private emergency 82098
medical service organization operating in this state, as 82099
designated by the Governor, term ends November 12, 2012;82100

       (B) The person who owns or operates a nonemergency medical 82101
service organization that provides only ambulette services, term 82102
ends November 12, 2012;82103

       (C) The person who is a member of the Ohio Association of 82104
Critical Care Transport and represents air-based services, term 82105
ends November 12, 2013.82106

       (D) The person who is a member of the Ohio Association of 82107
Critical Care Transport and represents a ground-based mobile 82108
intensive care unit organization, term ends November 12, 2013.82109

       All subsequent terms of office for these six positions on the 82110
State Board of Emergency Medical, Fire, and Transportation 82111
Services shall be for three years as provided in section 4765.02 82112
of the Revised Code.82113

       Section 747.20.20. TRANSFER OF THE MEDICAL TRANSPORTATION 82114
BOARD TO THE DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY82115

       On July 1, 2012, the Medical Transportation Board and all of 82116
its functions are transferred to the Department of Public Safety. 82117
As of such date, the Medical Transportation Board shall operate 82118
under the Department of Public Safety, which shall assume all of 82119
the Board's functions. All assets, liabilities, any capital 82120
spending authority related thereto, and equipment and records, 82121
regardless of form or medium, related to the Medical 82122
Transportation Board's functions are transferred to the Department 82123
of Public Safety on July 1, 2012.82124

       No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 82125
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer. All of 82126
the Medical Transportation Board's rules, orders, and 82127
determinations continue in effect as rules, orders, and 82128
determinations of the Department of Public Safety until modified 82129
or rescinded by the Department of Public Safety.82130

       Subject to the lay-off provisions of sections 124.321 to 82131
124.328 of the Revised Code, all employees of the Medical 82132
Transportation Board are transferred to the Department of Public 82133
Safety and shall retain their positions and all benefits accruing 82134
thereto.82135

       No action or proceeding pending on July 1, 2012, is affected 82136
by the transfer and any action or proceeding pending on July 1, 82137
2012, shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 82138
Department of Public Safety or its director. In all such actions 82139
and proceedings, the Department of Public Safety or its director, 82140
upon application to the court, shall be substituted as a party.82141

       On or after July 1, 2012, notwithstanding any provision of 82142
law to the contrary, the Director of Budget and Management shall 82143
take any action with respect to budget changes made necessary by 82144
the transfer. The Director may transfer cash balances between 82145
funds. The Director may cancel encumbrances and reestablish 82146
encumbrances or parts of encumbrances as needed in the fiscal year 82147
in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the same 82148
purpose and to the same vendor. As determined by the Director, 82149
encumbrances reestablished in the fiscal year in a different fund 82150
or appropriation item used by an agency or between agencies are 82151
appropriated. The Director shall reduce each year's appropriation 82152
balances by the amount of the encumbrance canceled in their 82153
respective funds and appropriation item. Any unencumbered or 82154
unallocated appropriation balances from the previous fiscal year 82155
may be transferred to the appropriate appropriation item to be 82156
used for the same purposes, as determined by the Director. Any 82157
such transfers are hereby appropriated.82158

       Section 747.31. A licensee whose license is in a voluntary 82159
hold status under Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code on the 82160
effective date of this section may apply to the Superintendent of 82161
the Division of Real Estate and Professional Licensing for 82162
reactivation of the license in accordance with rules adopted by 82163
the Ohio Real Estate Commission or may apply to place the license 82164
in a resigned status within the ninety-day period after the 82165
effective date of this section. The license of a licensee who does 82166
not reactivate or resign a license that is in a voluntary hold 82167
status on the effective date of this section shall be 82168
automatically suspended. A suspended license may be reactivated 82169
within twelve months of the date of suspension, provided that the 82170
renewal fee plus a penalty fee of fifty per cent of the renewal 82171
fee is paid to the Superintendent. Failure to reactivate the 82172
suspended license within twelve months as provided in this section 82173
shall result in automatic revocation of the license without the 82174
taking of any action by the Superintendent.82175

       Section 751.03.  TRANSFER OF MEDICAID AND CHILDREN'S HEALTH 82176
INSURANCE PROGRAM82177

       (A) Notwithstanding the amendments made by this act to 82178
section 5111.01 of the Revised Code:82179

       (1) The Office of Medical Assistance shall not replace the 82180
Department of Job and Family Services as the single state agency 82181
to supervise the administration of Medicaid until the replacement 82182
is approved by the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 82183
Services if such approval is needed.82184

       (2) A contract regarding Medicaid or the Children's Health 82185
Insurance Program that is in effect on the effective date of this 82186
section shall continue to be operated in accordance with the 82187
contract's terms until the contract is amended, expires, or is 82188
terminated. 82189

       (B) Subject to division (A)(1) of this section:82190

       (1) The Office of Medical Assistance is responsible for 82191
entering into contracts regarding Medicaid and the Children's 82192
Health Insurance Program on or after the effective date of this 82193
section.82194

       (2) Any rules of the Department of Job and Family Services 82195
regarding Medicaid or the Children's Health Insurance Program that 82196
are in effect on the effective date of this section are hereby 82197
rules of the Office of Medical Assistance and the Medical 82198
Assistance Director may amend or rescind the rules in a manner 82199
consistent with the statutes that authorize the rules.82200

       (C) The Director of Job and Family Services and Medical 82201
Assistance Director shall collaborate as necessary to provide for 82202
the Office of Medical Assistance to assume the Department of Job 82203
and Family Services' duties and authorities regarding Medicaid and 82204
the Children's Health Insurance Program.82205

       (D) It is the General Assembly's intent to amend the laws 82206
governing Medicaid and the Children's Health Insurance Program to 82207
replace references to the Director of Job and Family Services with 82208
references to the Medical Assistance Director and to replace 82209
references to the Department of Job and Family Services with 82210
references to the Office of Medical Assistance as appropriate in 82211
the context of transferring authority for those programs from the 82212
Department of Job and Family Services to the Office of Medical 82213
Assistance.82214

       Section 751.05.  FISCAL YEAR 2013 QUALITY BONUS PAYMENTS TO 82215
NURSING FACILITIES82216

       (A) As used in this section:82217

       (1) "Medicaid days," "nursing facility," and "provider" have 82218
the same meanings as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.82219

       (2) "Point days" means the product of the following:82220

       (a) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus points for 82221
fiscal year 2013;82222

       (b) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's Medicaid 82223
days in fiscal year 2012.82224

       (3) "Qualifying nursing facility" means a nursing facility 82225
that qualifies for a quality bonus for fiscal year 2013 as 82226
determined under division (C) of this section.82227

       (4) "Quality bonus points" means the amount determined by 82228
subtracting five from the number of points awarded to a qualifying 82229
nursing facility under division (C) of section 5111.244 of the 82230
Revised Code for fiscal year 2013.82231

       (B) In addition to the quality bonuses, if any, to be paid to 82232
nursing facilities in accordance with section 5111.245 of the 82233
Revised Code for fiscal year 2013, quality bonuses also shall be 82234
paid to nursing facilities in accordance with this section for 82235
fiscal year 2013.82236

       (C) Not later than July 31, 2012, the Department of Job and 82237
Family Services shall pay a nursing facility provider a quality 82238
bonus for fiscal year 2013 if the provider's nursing facility is 82239
awarded more than five points under division (C) of section 82240
5111.244 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2013 and at least one 82241
of the points is awarded to the nursing facility pursuant to 82242
division (C)(10), (11), (12), (13), or (14) of that section.82243

       (D) The total quality bonus to be paid to the provider of a 82244
qualifying nursing facility for fiscal year 2013 shall equal the 82245
product of the following:82246

       (1) The quality bonus per Medicaid day for the fiscal year 82247
determined for the provider's qualifying nursing facility under 82248
division (E) of this section;82249

       (2) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's Medicaid 82250
days in fiscal year 2012.82251

       (E) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus per 82252
Medicaid day for fiscal year 2013 shall be the product of the 82253
following:82254

       (1) The nursing facility's quality bonus points for fiscal 82255
year 2013;82256

       (2) The quality bonus per point for fiscal year 2013 82257
determined under division (F) of this section.82258

       (F) The quality bonus per point for fiscal year 2013 shall be 82259
determined as follows:82260

       (1) Determine the number of each qualifying nursing 82261
facility's point days for fiscal year 2013.82262

       (2) Determine the sum of all qualifying nursing facilities' 82263
point days for fiscal year 2013.82264

       (3) Divide thirty million dollars by the sum determined under 82265
division (F)(2) of this section.82266

       (G) The calculation of a qualifying nursing facility's bonus 82267
payment is not subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 82268
Code.82269

       (H) The Director of Job and Family Services may adopt rules 82270
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 82271
implement this section.82272

       Section 751.10. LICENSURE OF ICFs/MR AS RESIDENTIAL 82273
FACILITIES82274

       (A) Until July 1, 2013, a person or government agency that, 82275
on the effective date of this section, operates an intermediate 82276
care facility for the mentally retarded pursuant to a nursing home 82277
license issued under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code shall not 82278
be subject to a penalty under section 5123.99 of the Revised Code 82279
for operating the facility without a license issued under section 82280
5123.19 of the Revised Code notwithstanding sections 5123.20 and 82281
5123.99 of the Revised Code.82282

        (B) Notwithstanding the amendments by this act to sections 82283
3702.62, 3721.01, and 5123.19 of the Revised Code and the repeal 82284
by this act of section 5123.192 of the Revised Code, an 82285
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that is 82286
licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code 82287
on the effective date of this section shall continue to be a 82288
nursing home for the purposes for which it is considered to be a 82289
nursing home under the law in effect on the day immediately 82290
preceding the effective date of those amendments and that repeal 82291
until the earliest of the following:82292

        (1) The date that the facility's nursing home license is 82293
revoked or voided under section 3721.07 of the Revised Code;82294

        (2) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 82295
for the facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;82296

        (3) July 1, 2013.82297

        (C) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 82298
3721.21 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 82299
home certified as an intermediate care facility for the mentally 82300
retarded on the effective date of this section shall continue to 82301
be excluded from the definition of "long-term care facility" in 82302
that section for as long as it is certified as an intermediate 82303
care facility for the mentally retarded.82304

       (D) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 82305
3721.50 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 82306
home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code 82307
that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 82308
mentally retarded on the effective date of this section shall 82309
continue to be exempt from the franchise permit fee under sections 82310
3721.50 to 3721.58 of the Revised Code and instead subject to the 82311
franchise permit fee under sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 of the 82312
Revised Code for as long as it is certified as an intermediate 82313
care facility for the mentally retarded.82314

        (E) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 82315
5123.41 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 82316
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 82317
mentally retarded on the effective date of this section shall 82318
continue to be a residential facility for the purpose of section 82319
5123.41 of the Revised Code for as long as it is certified as an 82320
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded or is 82321
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.82322

        (F) Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 82323
5126.51 of the Revised Code, a nursing home or part of a nursing 82324
home that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 82325
mentally retarded on the effective date of this section shall 82326
continue to be a residential facility for the purpose of section 82327
5126.51 of the Revised Code for as long as it is certified as an 82328
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded or otherwise 82329
meets the definition of "residential facility" in section 5123.19 82330
of the Revised Code.82331

       Section 751.10.10. ADULT CARE FACILITY LICENSURE TRANSITION82332

       Pursuant to the amendment and repeal by this act of sections 82333
5119.22, 5119.70 to 5119.88, and 5119.99 of the Revised Code, the 82334
Director of Mental Health may convert an adult care facility's 82335
license in effect immediately before the effective date of this 82336
section to a license as a residential facility. Until the Director 82337
converts the license or issues an order denying the conversion, 82338
the adult care facility's license is deemed to be a residential 82339
facility license. All rules, orders, and determinations pertaining 82340
to the adult care facility license continue in effect as rules, 82341
orders, and determinations pertaining to the residential facility 82342
license.82343

       Section 751.12. TRANSITION FOR CERTIFIED ADULT FOSTER HOMES82344

       Pursuant to the amendment and repeal by this act of sections 82345
5119.22, 5119.692, and 5119.693 of the Revised Code, the Director 82346
of Mental Health may convert an adult foster home's certification 82347
in effect immediately before the effective date of this section to 82348
a license as a residential facility. Until the Director converts 82349
the certification or issues an order denying the conversion, the 82350
adult foster home's certification is deemed to be a residential 82351
facility license. All rules, orders, and determinations pertaining 82352
to the adult foster home's certification continue in effect as 82353
rules, orders, and determinations pertaining to the residential 82354
facility license.82355

       Section 751.15. AGING IN PLACE PILOT PROGRAM82356

       (A) As used in this section:82357

       (1) "Aging in Place administrator" means the organization 82358
that contracts with the Department of Aging pursuant to division 82359
(E) of this section to administer the Aging in Place pilot 82360
program.82361

       (2) "Nursing home" and "residential care facility" have the 82362
same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.82363

       (3) "Residential facility" means a residential facility as 82364
defined in section 5119.22 or a residential facility as defined in 82365
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.82366

       (4) "Veteran" means either of the following:82367

        (a) A former member of the armed forces of the United States 82368
who served on active military duty and received an honorable 82369
discharge or honorable separation;82370

        (b) A member of the United States army transport service or 82371
the United States naval transport service who has an honorable 82372
report of separation from the active duty military service, form 82373
DD214 or DD215.82374

       (B) The Department of Aging shall establish the Aging in 82375
Place pilot program in Butler, Clermont, Hamilton, and Warren 82376
counties. Up to one hundred eighty eligible individuals may enroll 82377
in the pilot program to receive home repairs and modifications 82378
that are covered by the pilot program. The pilot program shall be 82379
operated for two years.82380

       (C) To be eligible to enroll in the Aging in Place pilot 82381
program, an individual must meet all of the following 82382
requirements:82383

       (1) The individual must be at least fifty years of age or a 82384
veteran of any age.82385

       (2) The individual must be a resident of one of the counties 82386
in which the pilot program is established.82387

       (3) The individual must reside in a private residence that is 82388
not a nursing home, residential care facility, residential 82389
facility, or other facility that may not operate legally without a 82390
license, certificate, or other authority issued by an agency of 82391
this state or a political subdivision of this state.82392

       (4) The individual or a member of the individual's household 82393
must own the private residence in which the individual resides.82394

       (5) The individual must be at risk of moving to a nursing 82395
home or residential care facility due to a medical condition.82396

       (6) The private residence in which the individual resides 82397
must be in need of a repair or modification covered by the pilot 82398
program.82399

       (7) The individual must meet any other requirements specified 82400
in rules adopted under this section.82401

       (D) The Aging in Place pilot program shall cover home repairs 82402
and modifications specified in rules adopted under this section.82403

       (E) The Department of Aging shall contract with an 82404
organization that meets all of the following requirements to 82405
administer the Aging in Place pilot program:82406

       (1) It must have been founded not later than 1975.82407

       (2) It must provide professional and critical home repair and 82408
modification services to individuals who reside in the counties in 82409
which the pilot program is established and have low incomes or are 82410
elderly or disabled.82411

       (3) It must be exempt from federal income taxation under 82412
section 501(a) and described in section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal 82413
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 501, as amended.82414

       (F) The Aging in Place administrator may help coordinate the 82415
home repairs and modifications provided under the Aging in Place 82416
pilot program with home health services that individuals enrolled 82417
in the pilot program receive under the Medicaid program or other 82418
programs.82419

       (G) The Aging in Place administrator shall seek 82420
nongovernmental funds to help pay the costs of the Aging in Place 82421
pilot program.82422

       (H) The Department of Job and Family Services shall apply to 82423
the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services for a 82424
federal Medicaid waiver to make the Aging in Place pilot program a 82425
component of the Medicaid program. If the waiver is granted, the 82426
Department of Job and Family Services shall enter into an 82427
interagency agreement with the Department of Aging under section 82428
5111.91 of the Revised Code regarding the Department of Aging's 82429
duties under this section and the Department of Aging shall 82430
establish the pilot program as a Medicaid component. If the waiver 82431
is not granted, the Department of Aging shall establish the pilot 82432
program as a non-Medicaid program.82433

       (I) The Director of Aging shall adopt rules in accordance 82434
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement 82435
this section. If the Aging in Place pilot program is established 82436
as a Medicaid component, the Director of Job and Family Services 82437
shall adopt any rules that are necessary for the Director of Aging 82438
to be able to adopt the rules for the pilot program.82439

       (J) Not later than ninety days after the termination of the 82440
Aging in Place pilot program, the Department of Aging shall 82441
prepare a report regarding the pilot program. On completion of the 82442
report, the Department shall submit it to the Governor and, in 82443
accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, the General 82444
Assembly. The report shall include the Department's conclusions 82445
regarding all of the following:82446

       (1) The number of individuals in the state who would benefit 82447
from the services covered by the pilot program if the services 82448
were made available statewide;82449

       (2) How governmental and nongovernmental resources can be 82450
leveraged most efficiently to make the services available 82451
statewide;82452

       (3) The costs, if any, that the Medicaid program and other 82453
governmental health care programs would incur if the services were 82454
available statewide;82455

       (4) The impact that the services would have on the quality of 82456
patient care and treatment;82457

       (5) The impact that the services would have on the 82458
communities in which they would be provided;82459

       (6) The overall costs and benefits to the state that the 82460
services would have.82461

       Section 751.20. The amendments by this act to Section 3 of 82462
Am. Sub. S.B. 38 of the 120th General Assembly eliminate the 82463
exemptions from the requirements of sections 3701.881 and 5126.28 82464
of the Revised Code that Section 3 of that act gave to persons 82465
who, before October 29, 1993, were employed or had applied for 82466
employment in positions covered by sections 3701.881 and 5126.28 82467
of the Revised Code. The amendments by this act to Section 3 of 82468
Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st General Assembly eliminate the 82469
exemptions from the requirements of sections 173.41 (as 82470
subsequently renumbered as 173.394) and 3701.881 of the Revised 82471
Code that Section 3 of that act gave to persons who, before 82472
January 27, 1997, were employed or had applied for employment in 82473
positions covered by sections 173.41 (173.394) and 3701.881 of the 82474
Revised Code. The exemptions are eliminated in conjunction with 82475
this act's amendments to sections 173.394, 3701.881, and 5123.081 82476
of the Revised Code and the repeal of section 5126.28 of the 82477
Revised Code so that the Directors of Aging, Health, and 82478
Developmental Disabilities may adopt rules under those amended 82479
sections to make persons formerly exempt from the requirements of 82480
sections 173.394, 3701.881, and 5126.28 of the Revised Code 82481
subject to the requirements of sections 173.394, 3701.881, and 82482
5123.081 of the Revised Code.82483

       Section 753.11. (A) Notwithstanding section 3313.41 of the 82484
Revised Code, during the period beginning June 30, 2005, and 82485
ending December 31, 2005, a school district board of education in 82486
support of economic development within the territory of the 82487
district may dispose of real property that it owns in its 82488
corporate capacity, and that exceeds in value ten thousand 82489
dollars, by direct sale in lieu of offering the property for sale 82490
at public auction as provided in division (A) of that section, in 82491
lieu of offering the property for sale to an entity listed in 82492
division (C) of that section, or in lieu of offering the property 82493
for sale to a community school as provided in division (G) of that 82494
section, if all of the following conditions are satisfied:82495

        (1) The real property is encumbered by easements, liens, or 82496
other use restrictions that benefit the person acquiring the 82497
property under this section;82498

        (2) The real property was part of or adjacent to real 82499
property previously disposed of by the board of education;82500

        (3) The real property when sold will be used for commercial 82501
development.82502

        (B) Notwithstanding division (A)(3) of this section, on or 82503
after the effective date of this section, the real property may be 82504
used for residential development as well as commercial 82505
development.82506

       Section 753.13.  That Section 2 of Am. Sub. S.B. 63 of the 82507
121st General Assembly is repealed.82508

       This repeal releases the use, ownership, and conveyance 82509
restrictions, and rescinds the state's right of reversion, with 82510
respect to real estate conveyed to the City of Broadview Heights 82511
under Section 1 of Am. Sub. S.B. 63 of the 121st General Assembly.82512

       Section 753.14. Within thirty days after the effective date 82513
of Section 753.13 of this act, the Auditor of State, with the 82514
assistance of the Attorney General, shall, consistent with that 82515
section, prepare a deed to the real estate. The deed shall be 82516
executed by the Governor in the name of the state, countersigned 82517
by the Secretary of State, sealed with the Great Seal of the 82518
State, presented in the office of the Auditor of State for 82519
recording, and delivered to the City of Broadview Heights. The 82520
City of Broadview Heights shall present the deed for recording in 82521
the Office of the Cuyahoga County Recorder.82522

       Section 755.10. One year after the effective date of this 82523
act, the Director of the Department of Rehabilitation and 82524
Correction, after consultation with the State Highway Patrol, the 82525
Department of Public Safety, the Fraternal Order of Police of 82526
Ohio, and the Buckeye State Sheriff's Association, shall submit a 82527
written report to the Governor, the President of the Senate, the 82528
Speaker of the House of Representatives, the minority leader of 82529
the Senate, and the minority leader of the House of 82530
Representatives on the effectiveness of the State Highway Patrol's 82531
authority to enforce the criminal laws in the Lake Erie 82532
Correctional Institution pursuant to section 5503.03 of the 82533
Revised Code, as amended by this act.82534

       Section 757.10. A board of township trustees or the 82535
legislative authority of a municipal corporation to which section 82536
5705.19 or 5705.252 of the Revised Code applies, as enacted or 82537
amended by this act, may adopt the resolution proposing the levy 82538
of the tax or the combined questions authorized by those 82539
enactments or amendments and certify a copy of the resolution to 82540
the proper county board of elections as otherwise prescribed by 82541
law after this act becomes law and before the effective date of 82542
those enactments or amendments, requesting that the board of 82543
elections submit the proposal to the electors at the general 82544
election occurring on November 6, 2012. The board of elections, 82545
upon receiving a properly certified copy of such a resolution not 82546
later than four p.m. on August 8, 2012, shall submit the proposal 82547
to electors at that election as otherwise provided under section 82548
5705.25 or 5705.252 of the Revised Code, and such actions of the 82549
board of township trustees, municipal legislative authority, and 82550
board of elections are hereby ratified.82551

       Section 757.20. As used in this section, "qualified property" 82552
means real property that either:82553

       (A) Satisfies the qualifications for tax exemption under the 82554
terms of section 5709.07 of the Revised Code and is owned by a 82555
church as defined in that section;82556

        (B) Satisfies the qualifications for tax exemption under the 82557
terms of section 5709.08 of the Revised Code and is owned by a 82558
township that acquired the property from a county.82559

       Notwithstanding section 5713.081 of the Revised Code, when 82560
qualified property has not received tax exemption due to a failure 82561
to comply with Chapter 5713. or section 5715.27 of the Revised 82562
Code, the current owner of the property, or the prior owner of the 82563
property requesting exemption from prior taxes, at any time on or 82564
before twelve months after the effective date of this section, may 82565
file with the Tax Commissioner an application requesting that the 82566
property be placed on the tax-exempt list and that all unpaid 82567
taxes, penalties, and interest on the property be abated.82568

       The application shall be made on the form prescribed by the 82569
Tax Commissioner under section 5715.27 of the Revised Code and 82570
shall list the name of the county in which the property is 82571
located; the property's legal description; its taxable value; the 82572
amount in dollars of the unpaid taxes, penalties, and interest; 82573
the date of acquisition of title to the property; the use of the 82574
property during any time that the unpaid taxes accrued; and any 82575
other information required by the Tax Commissioner. The county 82576
auditor shall supply the required information upon request of the 82577
applicant.82578

       Upon request of the applicant, the county treasurer shall 82579
determine if all taxes, penalties, and interest that became a lien 82580
on the qualified property before it first was used for an exempt 82581
purpose and all special assessments charged against the property 82582
have been paid in full. If so, the county treasurer shall issue a 82583
certificate to the applicant stating that all such taxes, 82584
penalties, interest, and assessments have been paid in full. Prior 82585
to filing the application with the Tax Commissioner, the applicant 82586
shall attach the county treasurer's certificate to it. The Tax 82587
Commissioner shall not consider an application filed under this 82588
section unless such a certificate is attached to it.82589

       Upon receipt of the application and after consideration of 82590
it, the Tax Commissioner shall determine if the applicant meets 82591
the qualifications set forth in this section, and if so shall 82592
issue an order directing that the property be placed on the 82593
tax-exempt list of the county and that all unpaid taxes, 82594
penalties, and interest for every year the property met the 82595
qualifications for exemption described in section 5709.07 or 82596
5709.08 of the Revised Code be abated. If the Tax Commissioner 82597
finds that the property is not now being so used or is being used 82598
for a purpose that would foreclose its right to tax exemption, the 82599
Tax Commissioner shall issue an order denying the application.82600

       If the Tax Commissioner finds that the property is not 82601
entitled to tax exemption and to the abatement of unpaid taxes, 82602
penalties, and interest for any of the years for which the current 82603
or prior owner claims an exemption or abatement, the Tax 82604
Commissioner shall order the county treasurer of the county in 82605
which the property is located to collect all taxes, penalties, and 82606
interest due on the property for those years in accordance with 82607
law.82608

       The Tax Commissioner may apply this section to any qualified 82609
property that is the subject of an application for exemption 82610
pending before the Tax Commissioner on the effective date of this 82611
section, without requiring the property owner to file an 82612
additional application. The Tax Commissioner also may apply this 82613
section to any qualified property that is the subject of an 82614
application for exemption filed on or after the effective date of 82615
this section and on or before twelve months after that effective 82616
date, even though the application does not expressly request 82617
abatement of unpaid taxes, penalties, and interest.82618

       Section 757.51.  The amendment by this act of section 5713.03 82619
of the Revised Code applies to the first tax year, after tax year 82620
2012, to which division (A) or (B) of section 5715.24 of the 82621
Revised Code applies in the county.82622

       Section 757.61. The General Assembly hereby declares that the 82623
intent of the amendment by this act of section 5739.02 of the 82624
Revised Code is to clarify the law as it existed prior to the 82625
amendment by this act of that section.82626

       Section 806.10. The items of law contained in this act, and 82627
their applications, are severable. If any item of law contained in 82628
this act, or if any application of any item of law contained in 82629
this act, is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other 82630
items of law contained in this act and their applications that can 82631
be given effect without the invalid item of law or application.82632

       Section 809.10.  Sections 301.11 to 301.15 of this act are 82633
and remain in full force and effect commencing on July 1, 2012, 82634
and terminating on June 30, 2014, for the purpose of drawing money 82635
from the state treasury in payment of liabilities lawfully 82636
incurred under those sections, and on June 30, 2014, and not 82637
before, the moneys hereby appropriated lapse into the funds from 82638
which they are severally appropriated. If, under Section 1c of 82639
Article II, Ohio Constitution, Sections 301.11 to 301.15 of this 82640
act do not take effect until after July 1, 2012, the sections are 82641
and remain in full force and effect commencing on that effective 82642
date.82643

       Section 812.10. Sections subject to referendum: general 82644
effective date. Except as otherwise provided in this act, the 82645
amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of a section is 82646
subject to the referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, 82647
Section 1c and therefore takes effect on the ninety-first day 82648
after this act is filed with the Secretary of State.82649

       Section 812.11. Sections subject to referendum: special 82650
effective date. The amendment by this act of sections 4735.01, 82651
4735.02, 4735.052, 4735.10, 4735.13, 4735.14, 4735.141, and 82652
4735.142 of the Revised Code is subject to the referendum under 82653
Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and takes effect on the 82654
ninetieth day after the day on which this section takes effect.82655

       Section 812.20. Sections exempt from referendum: general 82656
effective date. The amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of 82657
the following sections is exempt from the referendum under Ohio 82658
Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 of the 82659
Revised Code and therefore takes effect immediately when this act 82660
becomes law:82661

       Sections 145.01, 145.012, 167.04, 306.04, 306.36, 340.091, 82662
901.54, 2927.023, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 82663
3125.41, 3734.131, 3734.15, 3743.06, 3743.19, 3752.06, 4163.07, 82664
4303.22, 4501.01, 4501.06, 4503.81, 4506.01, 4506.03, 4506.22, 82665
4506.25, 4511.78, 4513.50, 4905.01, 4905.02, 4905.03, 4905.05, 82666
4905.06, 4905.402, 4905.54, 4905.57, 4905.58, 4905.80, 4905.801, 82667
4905.81, 4905.82, 4905.83, 4905.84, 4907.01, 4907.02, 4907.04, 82668
4907.08, 4907.19, 4907.28, 4907.35, 4907.37, 4907.43, 4907.49, 82669
4907.57, 4907.59, 4907.60, 4907.61, 4907.62, 4909.01, 4909.02, 82670
4909.03, 4909.17, 4909.22, 4909.24, 4909.28, 4911.01, 4919.75, 82671
4919.76, 4919.77, 4919.78, 4919.79, 4919.99, 4921.01, 4921.02, 82672
4921.03, 4921.04, 4921.05, 4921.06, 4921.07, 4921.08, 4921.09, 82673
4921.10, 4921.101, 4921.11, 4921.12, 4921.13, 4921.14, 4921.15, 82674
4921.16, 4921.17, 4921.18, 4921.19, 4921.20, 4921.21, 4921.23, 82675
4921.24, 4921.25, 4921.26, 4921.27, 4921.28, 4921.30, 4921.31, 82676
4921.32, 4921.34, 4921.35, 4921.36, 4921.37, 4921.38, 4921.39, 82677
4921.40, 4921.99, 4923.01, 4923.02, 4923.03, 4923.04, 4923.05, 82678
4923.06, 4923.07, 4923.08, 4923.09, 4923.10, 4923.11, 4923.12, 82679
4923.13, 4923.14, 4923.15, 4923.17, 4923.20, 4923.26, 4923.99, 82680
4927.01, 4929.01, 4929.02, 4933.18, 4933.19, 4939.01, 4953.04, 82681
4961.03, 4965.54, 5119.691, 5503.02, 5503.34, 5743.031, and 82682
5751.033 of the Revised Code.82683

        Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 114 of the 129th General 82684
Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 82685
Assembly.82686

        Section 201 of Sub. H.B. 123 of the 129th General Assembly.82687

        Section 1 of H.B. 124 of the 129th General Assembly.82688

       Sections 205.10, 207.10, 207.10.80, 207.20.10, 207.20.30, 82689
207.20.90, 209.10, 209.30, 211.10, 215.10, 223.10, 229.10, 243.10, 82690
261.10, 261.10.10, 261.10.20, 261.10.30, 261.10.40, 261.10.50, 82691
261.10.60, 261.10.70, 261.10.80, 261.10.90, 261.20.10, 261.20.20, 82692
261.20.40, 261.20.50, 261.20.60, 261.20.70, 261.20.80, 261.20.90, 82693
261.30.10, 261.30.20, 261.30.30, 261.30.40, 261.30.50, 261.30.60, 82694
261.30.70, 261.30.80, 261.30.90, 261.40.10, 263.10, 263.10.30, 82695
263.10.90, 263.20.40, 263.20.70, 267.10, 267.10.20, 267.10.40, 82696
267.30.40, 279.10, 283.10, 287.10, 291.10, 307.10, 309.10, 313.10, 82697
315.10, 323.10, 327.10, 335.10, 337.10, 343.10, 343.40, 365.10, 82698
367.10, 369.10, 371.10, 371.30.30, 371.50.61, 371.50.65, 82699
371.60.80, 373.10, 375.10, 379.10, 387.10, 403.10, 411.10, 415.10, 82700
503.50, and 521.70 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 82701
Assembly.82702

       Section 247.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 82703
Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 319 of the 129th General 82704
Assembly.82705

       Sections 261.10 and 261.20.93 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 82706
129th General Assembly, as amended by Sub. H.B. 371 of the 129th 82707
General Assembly.82708

       Sections 701.70.10, 701.80, and 733.10 of this act.82709

       Sections 812.20 and 812.21 of this act.82710

       Section 812.30 of this act insofar as it refers to parts of 82711
sections that are exempt from the referendum.82712

       Section 812.21. Sections exempt from the referendum: special 82713
effective date. The amendment by this act of sections 3313.976, 82714
3313.978, and 3313.979 of the Revised Code is exempt from the 82715
referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and 82716
section 1.471 of the Revised Code and is therefore entitled to 82717
take effect immediately when this act becomes law. However, the 82718
amendment of those sections takes effect on July 1, 2012, or the 82719
date this act becomes law, whichever is later.82720

       Section 812.30. Mixed sections: general effective dates. The 82721
sections listed in the left-hand column of the following table 82722
combine amendments by this act that are and that are not exempt 82723
from the referendum. The middle column identifies amendments to 82724
the listed sections that are subject to the referendum under Ohio 82725
Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and therefore take effect on 82726
the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary of 82727
State. The right-hand column identifies amendments to the listed 82728
sections that are exempt from the referendum under Ohio 82729
Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 of the 82730
Revised Code and therefore take effect immediately when this act 82731
becomes law.82732

Section of law Amendments subject to referendum Amendments exempt from referendum 82733
4905.90 The amendment in division (A) All amendments except as described in the middle column 82734
5111.941 The amendment that inserts division (A)(4) All amendments except as described in the middle column 82735
5119.61 All amendments except as described in the right-hand column The amendment in division (A) striking "(C)" and inserting "(D)" and the amendment in division (F) striking "abuse" and inserting "addiction" 82736
5119.69 The amendments in relettered divisions (D)(1)(b) and (c) All amendments except as described in the middle column 82737
5502.01 All amendments except as described in the right-hand column The amendment in division (F) 82738

       Section 815.20. The General Assembly, applying the principle 82739
stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that 82740
amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of 82741
simultaneous operation, finds that the following sections, 82742
presented in this act as composites of the sections as amended by 82743
the acts indicated, are the resulting versions of the sections in 82744
effect prior to the effective date of the sections as presented in 82745
this act:82746

       Section 102.02 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 82747
Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly.82748

       Section 121.04 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 82749
Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 229 of the 129th General Assembly.82750

       Section 123.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 82751
Sub. H.B. 133 and Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.82752

       Section 124.11 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 82753
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.82754

       Section 149.43 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 82755
H.B. 64 and Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.82756

       Section 1923.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 82757
H.B. 56 and Am. Sub. S.B. 10 of the 127th General Assembly.82758

       Section 1923.02 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 82759
H.B. 56 and Am. Sub. S.B. 10 of the 127th General Assembly.82760

       Section 3301.55 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 82761
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.82762

       Section 4123.54 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 82763
Sub. H.B. 562 and Am. Sub. S.B. 334 of the 127th General Assembly.82764

       Section 4731.22 of the Revised Code as amended by both H.B. 82765
78 and Am. Sub. H.B. 93 of the 129th General Assembly.82766